Sample Multiple Choice Questions for Selection of Asstt.

Works Manager (Group ‘B’)

Sr. Question Ans

no
1 Which type of chuck is used for self alignment? b
(a) Magnetic chuck(b)Three jaw chuck
(c)Four jaw chuck(d) All of these

2 Lathe bed is made of a

(a) Cast iron (b)High carbon steel
(c)Mild steel(d) High speed steel

3 Which of the following is un-conventional machining process? d

(a) Grinding(b) Milling
(c) CNC turning(d) Electro chemical machining

4 Which of the following is most important for improving surface finish during b
turning.
(a) Nose radius(b) Lip angle
(c) Clearance angle(d) Side cutting edge angle

5 Thermit welding is a form of. c

(a) Resistance welding(b) Gas Welding
(c) Fusion welding(d) ARC welding.

6 Which of the following is not a resistance welding? c

(a) Spot welding(b) Flash butt welding
(c) MIGwelding(d) Percussion welding

7 Which of the following types of fuel gas is commonly used in gas welding? a
(a) Acetylene (b) Coal Gas(c) Bio Gas(d) Methane

8 Rails in the field are welded by using a

(a) Thermit welding(b) Gas welding
(c) Electric arc welding(d) Spot welding

9 Fuel used in Cupola Furnace consists of

(a) Steam coal(b)Furnace Oil(c)Electricity(d) Hard Coke d

10 Cyaniding' and 'Nitriding' are methods of: b

(a) Hardening(b)Case Hardening(c)Tempering(d) Normalizing

11 Which of the following is second hardest substance known? c

(a) Silicon carbidesb) Cermets(c) Cubic Boron Nitride (CBN)(d) Diamond

12 Hot hardness and Wear Resistance of cutting tool should be a

(a) Large (b) Small (c) Very small(d) None of the mentioned

13 Synthetic Rubber paints are prepared from a

(a) Resin(b) Rubber(c) Synthetic fibres(d) Polyvinyl Chloride
14 A machine is said to have CNC control if d
(A) The dimensions of the work piece are measured by sensors while cutting is
going on.
(B) The tool motion is guided by drum cams and disc cams.
(C) The loading and unloading of the work piece ON and OFF the machine
respectively is made automatic.
(D) Control is achieved by employment of alphanumeric data.

15 CNC machine lathes have built-in coordinate measuring system. The zero b
position on the co-ordinate system is called;
(A) Reference point(B) Machine zero point
(C) Work zero point(D) Program zero point

16 What is the purpose of using re-circulating ball screw nut mechanism in CNC d
machine;
(A) To reduce the set up time(B) For higher surface finish
(C) To remove jerks in machine(D) To remove backlash

17 Which type of motor is not suitable for rotary axis of spindle drives of CNC d
machine tools;
(A) Induction motor(B) DC Servo motor
(C) Stepper motor(D) Linear motor
18 Which of the following statements are correct for CNC machine tool; c
1. CNC control unit does not allow compensation for any changes in the
dimensions of cutting tool.
2. CNC machineshave lower capital cost compared to conventional machines.
3. It is possible to obtain information on machine utilization which is useful to
management in CNC machine tool.
4. CNC machine tool has greater flexibility.
5. CNC machine can diagnose program and can detect the machine defects even
before the part is produced.
(A) 1,2&3 (B) 2,4&5 (C) 3,4&5 (D) 2,3,4&5

19 Using Anti friction linear guideways in CNC machine tools, all of following c
benefits except;
(A) Less heat generation(B) Traverse speed
(C) Moredamping capacity(D) Reduced stick slip

20 An ATC plays a significant role in reducing; a

(A) Tool change time(B) Idle time
(C) Machining time (D) Control time

21 In a CNC machine, which kind of switches examine or detect the presence of an a

item or object without making contact with them;
(A) Proximity Switches(B)Limit Switches
(C) Photo-electric Switches(D) Mechanical Switches
22 What does an Encoder do; d
(A) Senses mechanical motion.
(B) Provides information concerning position, velocity and direction.
(C) Converts analog into digital information.
(D)All of the above

23 The purpose of a feedback device in a CNC machine tool is to provide d

information of;
(A) Which component is being produced, to the operator
(B) What percentage of Part Program has beencompleted?
(C) Type of operation, currently running to the operator
(D) Tool position or speed to Machine Control

24 Incremental encoder is capable of sensing a

(A) Direction of movement of the table.
(B) Speed of movement of the table.
(C) Speed of rotation of spindle motor.
(D) Speed of rotation of lead screw.

25 In Part Programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory; a

(A)Curved(B) Zig-zag(C) Straight line(D)Rectangular

26 Which one of the following is the command for feed motion in straight line; b
(A) G00(B) G01(C) G10(D) G100
27 Code G91 describes; b
(A) Absolute positioning(B) Incremental positioning
(C) Circular interpolation clockwise(D) Circular interpolation counter clockwise

28 Miscellaneous Code M03 describes; a

(A) Spindle ON clockwise(B) Spindle ON counter clockwise
(C) Coolant ON(D) Coolant OFF

29 Which software module is used for material planning and procurement by b

Indian Railways
a) IRePS b) iMMS c) MMSR d) iPASS

30 What is the meaning of AAC. b

a) Average annual consumption
b) Annual anticipated consumption.
c) Average anticipated consumption
d ) None of the above

31 Inspection of material by consignee by third party inspection agency is a

prescribed for PO values;
a) Below 5 lakhs . b) Above 5 Lakhs
c) Above 1.5 Lakhs . d) Above 50 Lakhs
32 The bill of material does not consist of d
a) Part number b) Specifications of part
c) Name of the part d) Price of the part

33 which of the following is not an overhead in costing of a DMW products; a

a) Township Overheads b) Transportation overhead.
c) Factory Overhead. d) Stores Overhead

34 Which of the following is not a surface finishing operation c

(A) Lapping
(B) Honing
(C) Milling
(D) Polishing

35 Which of the statements is correct? a

(A) Gauges are used to check the size
(B) Templates are used to check the size
(C) Gauges are used to Measure the size
(D) Gauges are used to check the shapes of the components

36 A feeler gauge is used for b

(A) To judge the surface finish
(B) Checking the gap between mating parts
(C) Checking radius of jobs
(D) Checking accuracy of hole

37 Taper plug gauge is used for checking a

(A) Internal taper of cylinder jobs

(B) External taper of cylindrical jobs
(C) Internal taken of threaded holes
(D) Diameter of straight holes
38 Thread ring gauges are used for checking a
(A) External threads
(B) Internal threads
(C) All types of threads
(D) Outer diameter of pipes
39 At what Standard temperature gauges should be kept in section? b
(A) At room temperature
(B) 20 degree Centigrade
(C) 25 degree Centigrade
(D) 20 degree Fahrenheit
40 Clearance between mating parts is measured by c
(A) Dial gauge
(B) Go gauge
(C) Feeler gauge
(D) Caliper gauge
41 Hardness of slip gauges should be a
(A) More than 63 HRC
(B) Less than 50HRC
(C) Less than the job to be checked
(D) Less than 40 HRC
42 Which of the following is used to guide the tool and hold the job in mass b
production?
(A) Gauge
(B) Jig
(C) Fixture
(D) Housing
43 Which among the following is the purpose for providing bushing in drill jig? c
(A) Removal of metal chips
(B) For determining the size of the hole to be drilled
(C) For locating accurately and guiding the drill for precise drilling operation
(D) To stop the drill travel to a pre-fixed depth
44 Which one of the following thread forms on nuts and bolts is meant for general a
fastening purposes?
(A) ‘V’ threads
(B) Square Threads
(C) Acme threads
(D) Knuckle threads
45 Threads are cut on a lathe with single point tool by c
(A) Setting the correct speed
(B) Setting one cut for full depth of the thread
(C) Making a series of cuts in the same cut
(D) Moving the carriage by means of rack
46 A small headless screw having a slot for screw driver is called d
(A) Set screw
(B) Stud
(C) Thumb screw
(D) Grub screw
47 A key that fits in a semicircle keyway cut in a shaft is called c
(A) Gib head key
(B) Feather key
(C) Woodruff key
(D) Saddle key
48 One micron is equal to approximately c
(A) 10 micro-inch
(B) 20 micro-inch
(C) 40 micro-inch
(D) 25 micro-inch
49 A product is said to have the quality when c
(A) Its shape and dimensions are within the limits
(B) It appears to be very good
(C) It is fit for use
(D) The choice of the material is right
50 which one is a temporary joint d
(A) Welded joint
(B) Riveted joint
(C) Soldered joint
(D) Press-fit joint
51 What is the minimum dimension of the given shaft up to which it can be b
machined?

(A)35.79(B)35.49(C)35.99(D)35.29
52 What is the type of the tolerance provided here and dimension of the given c
object in the figure below?

(A) Equal bilateral and maximum size of 50.05

(B) Equal bilateral and minimum size of 50.05
(C) Equal bilateral and minimum size of 49.95, maximum size of 50.05
(D) Equal unilateral and minimum size of 49.95, maximum size of 50.05
53 A dimension is stated as 25 H7 in a drawing. The lower limit is c
(A) 24.75 mm
(B) 24.85 mm
(C) 25.00 mm
(D) 25.021 mm
54 A dimension is stated as 25 +/-0.02 mm in a drawing. What is the tolerance? d
A. 25.00 mm
B. +0.02 mm
C. -0.02 mm
D. 0.04 mm
55 Which one among the following is correct statement? d
A. A clearance fit always provides interference.
B. An interference fit always provides clearance.
C. An interference fit may sometimes provide clearance and sometimes
interference.
D. A transition fit may sometimes provide clearance and sometimes
interference.
56 Why tolerances are given to the parts? a
(A) Because it’s impossible to make perfect sizes
(B) To reduce weight of the component
(C) To reduce cost of the assembly
(D) To reduce amount of material used
57 What does ‘50’ represents in 50H8/g7? a
(A) Basic size (B) Actual size
(C) Maximum limit of size (D) Minimum limit of size
58 In 3rd angle projection, the positions of front view and top views are? a
(A) Top view lies above the front view
(B) Front view lies above the top view
(C) Front view lie left side to top view
(D) Top view lie left side to front view
59 a
The symbol for fillet welding is __________

(A) (B) (C) (D)

60 Metric thread of 10mm diameter is represented by b

(A)10M(B)M10(C)M^10(D)None of the above
61 Ground Connection equipment is used for ______ welding b
(A) Gas welding(B) Arc Welding(C ) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of above
62 Choose the color of oxygen cylinder c
(A) Maroon(B) Yellow(C) Black(D) Red
63 When two plates are to be joined by keeping their surface at about 90º to one- c
another, it s called
(A) Lap joint(B) Butt Joint(C) Tee Joint(D) Corner Joint
64 Machines which are designed to perform only some specified operations so as to d
produce identical items is known as:
A) Multipurpose Machine B) High Capacity Machine
C) CNC Machine D) Special purpose machine
65 Which of the following is a machining operation? b
A) Forging B) Drilling C) Rolling D) Stamping
66 In a drawing, which symbol is used to designate a machined surface? a
A) Triangle B) Circle C) Square D) Rectangle
67 The following type of nut is used with “Allen” bolt d
A) Allen nut B) Hexagonal nut C) Slotted nut D) Any one of the above
68 The designation M 32 × 2 of a bolt means c
A) Metric threads of 32 nos. in 2 cm
B) Metric threads with cross section of 32 sq. mm
C) Metric threads of 32 mm diameter and 2 mm pitch
D) Bolt of 32 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm
69 What is the name of the nut which is a hexagonal nut with a washer? c
(A) Dome nut(B) Wing nut(C) Flanged nut(D) Cap nut
70 Which among the following is a standard form of pipe thread a
(A) B.S.P. (B) B.S.W. (C) B.S.F. (D) B.A.
71 Izod Test is conducted to measure b
(a) Tensile Strength (b) Impact Toughness
(c) Fatigue Strength (d) Ductility
72 How much carbon is present in cast iron? d
(a) Less than 0.05 % (b) Up to 1.0 %
(c) 1.0 % to 1.5 % (d) More than 2.0 %
73 Which of the following is most elastic material? b
(a) Rubber (b) Steel
(c) Nylon (d) Copper
74 Which of the following tests is used for determining the toughness of material? b
(a) Rockwell Hardness Test (b) Charpy Test
(c) Vicker’s Test (d) Brinell Test
75 Permanent deformities of material with respect to time due to constant load and c
variable temperature is called;
(a) Elasticity (b) Plasticity
(c) Creep (d) Resistance
76 At which point the stress is maximum, while testing of Steel for mechanical b
properties;
(a) At yield point (b) Just before yield point
(c) At ultimate point (d) At Breaking point
77 Ohm’s law is not applicable to (a)
(a) Semi-conductors (b) D. C. Circuits (c) Small resistors(d) High Current circuit
78 Two resistors of same capacity are connected in parallel total resistance of circuit (c)
is
(a) Double (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
79 According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law the algebraic sum of all voltages around (d)
any closed loopof a network is always
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Determined by battery emf’s (d) Zero
80 Which of the following is not a non-linear element? (b)
(a) Gas diode (b) Heater coil (c) Tunnel diode (d) Electric arc
81 The force between two charges is 120N. if the distance between the charges is (b)
double, the force will be-
(a) 60N (b) 30N (c) 40N (d)15N
82 Flemings' Left hand rule is used to find (c )
a) Direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductors
b) Direction of flux in a solenoid
c) Direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
d) Polarity of a magnetic pole.
83 The reference permeability at a vacuum is (c)
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) 1
(d) None of above
84 Point out wrong statement (a)
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) Lowers their power efficiency
(b) Increase the cost of manufacture
(c) Leads to their increased weight
(d) Produces fringing
85 Conductivity is analogous to (c)
(a) Retentivity (b) Resistivity (c) Permeability (d) Inductance

86 The transformer cores operating at microwave frequency range, are usually made (d)
of
(a) Carbon(b) Copper(c) Silicon steel (d) Ferrites.
87 The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except (a)
(a) When the length is increased without increasing the number of turns.
(b) When the number of turns of the coil increases
(c) When more area for each turn is provided
(d) When permeability of the core increases
88 When the lead acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes …………………. ( d)
appearance
(a) Dull (b) Reddish (c) Bright (d) Milky
89 Class-’C’ insulating materials have properties (a)
(a) High temperature stability and high insulation resistance
(b) Low temperature stability and high insulation resistance
(c) High rigidity and low weight
(d) None of above
90 Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because (b)
(a) Carbon is not a conductor
(b) Carbon can resist the attack of battery acid.
(c) Carbon is better conductor than metals.
(d) Carbon is easily available
91 Superconducting metal in superconducting state has relative permeability of (a)
(a) Zero (b) One (c) More than one (d) Negative
92 Over-travelling of E.O.T. Crane in L.T. Motion is prevented by: a
a)Lever Type Safety Limit Switch(b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch (c)
Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch (d) None of above
93 Over-travelling of E.O.T. Crane in Hoist Motion is prevented by: b

a) Lever Type Safety Limit Switch (b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch
(c) Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch (d) None of above
94 What is the ultimate safety to prevent Over-travelling of upward hoist motion of c
E.O.T. Crane:
a) Lever Type Safety Limit Switch (b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch (c)
Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch(d) None of above
95 Actuation of Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch of E.O.T. Crane facilitates: c
(a) Normal operation of the crane (b) Switching ‘OFF’ electrical supply of a
particular motion
(c) Switching ‘OFF’ electrical supply to whole Crane (d) None of above.
96 End stoppers on both ends of overhead gantry rails are provided for: b
a) Stopping over-travel of C.T. of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction
b) (b) Stopping over-travel of L.T. of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction
(c) Stopping over-travel of hoist of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction
(d) None of above.
97 What is the full form of abbreviation SWL, pertaining to slings? d
(a) Scheduled Work Load (b) Safe Work Limit
(c) Standard Work Load (d) Safe Working Load
98 Reject the wire rope sling if its diameter is reduced by: c
(a) 5% (b) 3% (c) more than 10% (d) 2%
99 Reject the wire rope sling if its diameter is reduced to: c
(a) 95% (b) 98%
(c) Less than 90% of original diameter (d) 97% of original diameter
100 Reject Chain Sling, when mean diameter of chain link at more than one point on c
the same cross-section, has reduced to % of mean diameter?
a) 95% (b) 97% (c) less than 90% (d) 98%
101 During Load Testing of a Crane, the test load should be: b
a) Equal to Safe Working Load (b) 125 percent of Safe Working Load
(c) 150 percent of Safe Working Load (d) 200 percent of Safe Working Load
102 What is Cap of incentive percentage in DMW Patiala? b
(a) 50% (b) 70%
(c) 80% (d) 100%
103 Work study is related to d
(a) Planning of a new work (b) Method Study and Work Measurement
(c) Amount of work done by a machine (d) Calculation of Incentive
104 ‘Ergonomics’ is a field related to a
(a) Human interface with working environment
(b) Agricultural economics
(c) Aesthetics of industrial products
(d) Engineering Economics
105 Time study is done with the help of c
(a) Time chart (b) Pert handling (c) Stop watch (d) Wall clock
106 What is Leave reserve factor for DMW for incentive calculation? b
(a) 16% (b) 12.5%
(c) 18% (d) 16.5%
107 Systematic study of the human motions used to perform an operation is called d
(a) Ergonomics (b) Job design
(c) Work Measurement (d) Motion study
108 WPI in DMW is calculation for? d
(a) Incentive percentage of production shops
(b) Incentive calculation of support department
(c) Incentive calculation of support shops
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
109 Work study is most useful a
(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the capacity of a worker
110 GPI stands for b
(a) Group Production Index (b) Group Productivity Index
(c) Gross productivity Index (d) Group Productivity Incentive
111 What is the value of WPI? a
(a) Average of GPI of all groups
(b) Average of incentive percentage
(c) Average of SUs of all groups
(d) Average of Incentive earning of all employees
112 What is fuel tank capacity of WDG3A? c
A) 7000L B) 6500L C) 6000L, D) 5500L
113 Select the correct HP of WDG4. b
A) 3700HP, B) 3726HP, C) 3752HP, D) 3200HP
114 Advantage of turbo charger in diesel locomotive is d
A) To create turbulence in fuel for better efficiency.
B) To create turbulence in air for better efficiency.
C) To create turbulence in air and fuel for better efficiency.
D) To use exhaust gas energy for better efficiency.
115 In diesel locomotives which type of compressor is used and with how many c
stages.
A) Centrifugal compressor with two stages.
B) Centrifugal compressor with single stage.
C) Reciprocating compressor with two stages.
D) Reciprocating compressor with single stage.
116 What is the purpose of traction motor blower in locomotive. b
A) To blow the air from traction motors for cooling purpose.
B) To blow the air in traction motors for cooling purpose.
C) To blow the air in traction motors for cleaning purpose.
D) To blow the air in traction motors for cooling and cleaning purpose.
117 SFC of a diesel loco is measured in which term. d
A) litres/GTKm B ) litres/100GTKm
C) litres/10GTKm D) litres/1000GTKm
118 Engine Configuration of Diesel Engines in 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being ii
manufactured at DMW is ;
i. 1 x 640 HP
ii. 2x 340 HP
iii. 2 x 500 HP
iv. 1 x 1200 HP
119 Power to run the 8-Wheeled DETC/USis taken from: ii
i. From 3 Phase 25 KV AC OHE through Pantograph
ii. Underslung diesel engines of 340 HP capacity each
iii. On-Board diesel engines of 340 HP capacity each
iv. From Single Phase 25 KV DC OHEthrough Pantograph
120 Idle RPM of 8W-DETC/US engine is kept at; i
i. 700 rpm
ii. 2100 rpm
iii. Zero rpm
iv. Infinity
121 RPM of 8W-DETC/US engine at 8th Notch is; iii
i. 2400 rpm
ii. 1200 rpm
iii. 1800 rpm
iv. 1180 RPM
122 Auxiliary Alternator in 8-Wheeled DETC is used to : iv
i. Provide power to Traction Motors of DETC
ii. Provide extra power during high speed operation
iii. Convert braking energy into useful power for reverse feeding into OHE
iv. Charge 110 Volt batteries and run Blower Motor of Rectifier unit.
123 Maximum Permissible Speed of 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in ii
DMW on Rajdhani Routes is;:
i. 140 kmph
ii. 110 kmph
iii. 200 kmph
iv. 23 kmph
124 8W-DETC/US being manufactured in DMW is ; iii
i. Used as Accident Relief Train during Railway Accidents
ii. Used for repair of railway bridges
iii. Used for Inspection and repair of OHE Cables
iv. Used for maintenance of tracks
125 Fog Light and Search Light of 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in ii
DMW/PTA, are operated with:
i. 110 V Battery
ii. 24 V Battery
iii. 220 V AC
iv. 72 V Battery
126 Platform movement and operation in 8-Wheeled DETC, being manufactured in iii
DMW/PTA, is powered by:
i. 110 V Battery
ii. Power taken from Underslung Traction Engines
iii. 10 KVA Gen Set
iv. Single Phase AC power taken through Pantograph
127 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in DMW/PTA has; b
a. Co-Co Bogies with Air Suspension
b. Bo-Bo Bogies with Air Suspension
c. Co-Co Bogies with flexi-coil springs
d. Bo-Bo Bogies with flexi-coil springs
128 How many positions are available in automatic brake valve. c
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
129 Where air dryer is generally fitted in diesel locomotives. b
A) In between compressor and MR1
B) In between MR1 and MR2
C) In between MR2 and Compressor
D) Can be fitted anywhere.

130 Which of the following functions is/are possible with a distributor valve . d
A) To apply brake
B) To release brake
C) To hold at the current level of application.
D) All of the above
131 Pressure available at port no. 30 of SA9 valve. c
A) BP
B) BC
C) MR
D) none of the above
132 How many positions are available in SA9 valve. b
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
133 BP, FP, and BC pressure of diesel locomotive is b
A) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 6 KG/CM2, BC- 2.5 KG/CM2.
B) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 6 KG/CM2, BC- 3.5 KG/CM2.
C) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 7 KG/CM2, BC- 2.5 KG/CM2.
D) BP- 6KG/CM2, FP- 7 KG/CM2, BC- 3.5 KG/CM2.
134 Manually Brake release is possible only by which valve/valves if not possible by c
A9 valve.
A) C2 Relay valve
B) SA9 valve
C) Distributor valve
D) all of the above
135 Brake pipe pressure can be adjusted by which valve in diesel locomotives. b
A) SA9 valve
B) A9 valve
C) Distributor valve
D) C2 Relay valve.
136 Brakes are fully release at which BP pressure in diesel locomotives. d
A) 2.5KG/CM2
B) 3.5 KG/CM2
C) 4.8 KG/CM2
D) 5 KG/CM2
137 What is the correct application time and release time of bogie mounted air brake a
cylinder in diesel locomotive.
A) 3-5 sec and 15-20 sec
B) 5-10 sec and 10-15 sec
C) 3-8 sec and 15-25 sec
D) 5 sec and 20 sec
138 VPI of stator of three phase 6FRA6068 traction motors done using, a
a) Silicone Varnish
b) Polyester Varnish
c) Polyesterimide Varnish
d) Epoxy Varnish
139 A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of d
rotor current will be
a) 50 Hz
b) 25 Hz
c) 5 Hz
d) 2 Hz
140 The low starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is overcome in c
locomotive
a) using high frequency power supply to the traction motor
b) using high voltage power supply to the traction motor
c) using low frequency power supply to the traction motor
d) using high current power supply to the traction motor
141 The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the d
average flux density in the air gap is
a) Infinity
b) Large
c) Zero
d) Small
142 At no-load, the Iron loss of a 3-phase induction motor is a
a) Practically Zero
b) Large
c) Infinity
d) None of the above
143 If Ns and N are the speeds of rotating field and rotor respectively, then b
ratio rotor input/rotor output is equal to.
a) Ns/N
b) N/Ns
c) Ns – N
d) N − Ns
144 Temperature rating of Class C insulation is c
a) 180 Deg.C
b) 200 Deg.C
c) 220 Deg.C
d) 155 Deg.C
145 Locked rotor test is done a
a) upto rated current of the three phase traction motor
b) at rated voltage of the traction motor.
c) at rated power of the traction motor
d) to determine RPM of the traction motor
146 Which of the following parameter is not monitored during No Load Test d
of the traction motor.
a) noise level in the motor
b) core, friction,windage and copper losses
c) vibration level in the motor
d) temperature rise in the traction motor
147 Herringbone gear can be used in b
a) Intersecting shafts only
b) Parallel shafts only
c) Shafts at an angle which is more than zero.
d) Shafts at right angle
148 By which of the following methods gears are produced by generating a
process.......
a) Hobbing the teeth profile with hob
b) Casting the teeth profile
c)Punching the teeth profile
d)Broaching the teeth profile
149 The circular pitch of a gear is given by a
a) ¶d/T
b) ¶d/2T
c) 2¶d/T
d) 2¶d/3T
150 Which of the following pressure angles (in degrees) is most commonly b
used for gears?
a) 15b) 20 c) 25 d) 35
151 The size of a gear is usually specified by b
a) Pressure angle
b) Pitch circle diameter
c) No. of teeth in the gear
d) Gear Ratio
152 A spur gear with pitch circle diameter D has number of teeth T. The a
module m is defined as
a) m = d / Tb) m = T / Dc) m = π D / Td) m = D.T
153 The backlash for spur gears depends upon d
a) moduleb) pitch line velocityc) tooth profiled) both (a) and (b)
154 The contact ratio for gears is c
a) zerob) less than onec) greater than oned) none of the mentioned
155 Which Heat Treatment Sequence is adopted to harden Bull Gears of WAP7 c
and WAG9
a) Tempering, Quenching case carburizing,
b) Annealing, case carburizing, tempering
c) Stress relieving, case carburizing, quenching, tempering
d) Annealing, Quenching, Tempering.
156 Run out of a bull gear is measured at….. c
a) at Outer Diab) at Root Diac) at Pitch circle Diad) at Bore dia
157 Composite error in a gear comprise of c
a) Run out
b) Tooth to Tooth error and backlash
c) Both Run out and Tooth to Tooth error
d) Run out and backlash
158 What type Bearing is used in WAP7 Loco Axle Box. c
(a) Ball Bearing
(b) Tapered Bearing
(c) Roller Bearing
(d) Needle Bearing
159 Which types of Bogies are used in WAP7Loco? a
(a)Flexicoil Co Co
(b)Fabricated Bo-Bo
(c) Tri mount Co Co
(d) Cast Bo-Bo
160 WAP7 Loco is fitted whichtype of Traction motors. a
(a) 6FRA6068
(b) TAO 659
(c) TM 15250A
(d) TM 4907
161 WAP7 Loco have no. of Brake Blocks. b
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) 64
162 What is the traction motor pinion gear and Bull Gear ratio of WAP7 Loco. c
(a) 18:65
(b) 21:107
(c) 20:72
(d) 19:65
163 What is the specified vertical clearance between Axle Box and Bogie c
Frame of WAP7 Loco.
(a) 28-36 mm
(b) 25 -38 mm
(c) 30-35 mm
(d) 30-38 mm
164 What is the new wheel dia of WAP7 Loco. d
(a)1090 mm
(b)1094 mm
(c) 1096 mm
(d) 1092 mm
165 What is the axle load of WAG9 Loco c
(a) 20 T
(b) 18.5 T
(c) 22.5 T
(d) 21.6 T
166 What is the traction motor pinion and Bull Gear ratio of WAG9 Loco. b
(a) 18:65
(b)21:107
(c) 20:72
(d) 19:65
167 What is the damping force value of Vertical Hyd damper in WAP7 Loco. d
(a) 9000 N
(b) 10000 N
(c) 8000 N
(d) 11000 N
168 How many total Hyd. dampers are used in WAP7 Loco. b
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 24
169 Which of the following is in correct order? b
a) Purchase proposalTender float Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet
b) Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Purchase proposal Tender float
c) Purchase proposal Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Tender float
d) Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Tender float Purchase proposal
170 Who will be the accepting authority for acceptable offer of 14 lacs in Store? a
a) DyCMMb) AMMc) SMM d) Any of the above
171 For allotment of PL to a new Item, final authorization is given by competent b
authority of
a) Railway unit in which item is required
b) Parent Railway unit of final product
c) Any PU of Indian Railways
d) None of the above.
172 Pl. No. of item is of ……..digits b
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 4
173 Sub group of item is represented by ………… digits of Pl. No. b
a) First two
b) Third & fourth
c) Last two
d) None of above
174 Which activity is not done in iMMS d
a) Material schedule run
b) Demand generation
c) Requisition generation
d) Floating tender

175 Stock status of item can be seen by seeing a

a) Item position
b) Pl no. report
c) Stock position
d) None of above
176 Which module of iMMS is used for generating requisition b
a) Material planning module
b) Indentor module
c) Depot module
d) None of above
177 Full form of IREPS:- d
a) Indian Railway E – Procurement System
b) Indian Railway E – Personal System
c) Indian Railway Employee Pass System
d)None of above
178 Which type of tender cannot be done on IREPS d
a) Open tender b) Limited tender c) Single tender d) None of above
179 What is validity of Rly. Board Sanctions under M&P Programme: c
(A)3 Year (B)2 Year (C) 5 Years (D) 4 Year
180 For which of the following dispensation from COFMOW is not required for a
procurement of M&P Assets:
(A)Procurement of Cranes
(B) Procurement of MIG Welding sets
(C) Procurement of machines costing Rs. 50 Lakhs
(D) Procurement of Fork Lift Truck costing 10 Lakhs
181 Plan Head for M&P Assets is: d
(A)2100 (B) 4200 (C) 5100 (D) 4100
182 GM's Powers to sanction M&P Assets, under Lump Sum Grant are: c
(A) up to 30 Lakhs (B) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C)up to Rs. 50 Lakhs (D) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs
183 GM's Powers to sanction Electronic Weighing Machine is: a
(A) upto 30 Lakhs(B) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) up to Rs. 50 Lakhs (D) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs
184 What is minimum cost of M&P, sanctioned under M&P Programme, which is b
mentioned under Itemized Category in Pink Book, issued by Rly. Board:
(A) Less than Rs.2.5 Crore (B)Rs. 2.5 Crore & above
(C)up to 50 lakhs (D) up to1 Crore.
185 Items costing _____ are Included in the LAW Book: a
(A) Below Rs.2.5 Cr.(B)Rs. 2.5 Cr. &above
(C)up to 50 lakhs (D) up to1 Crore
186 What is the full form of LAW, pertaining to Works Programme: a
(A) List of Approved Works (B)Local area works
(C) List of annual work (D)Legally approved work
187 Rolling Stock Programme is prepared under plan head: c
(A) 4100 (B)4200 (C) 2100(D) 5100
188 Works Programme is prepared under plan head b
A) 4100 B)4200 C) 2100 D) 5100
189 What is full form of ROR, pertaining to financial justification for procurement b
of M&P Assets:
(A) Rate of Realization(B)Rate of return
(C)Rate of repair (D)Return on Receipts
190 COFMOW does not deals with b
(A) Turnkey Projects (B) Rehabilitation of Rolling Stock
(C) Modernization of Workshops (D) Procurement of M&P Assets for Railways.
191 Which of the following is a correct format of Email address? b
A.name@website@info
B.name@website.info
C.www.nameofebsite.com
D.name.website.com
192 The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer d

is called
A. Uploading B. Forwarding C. FTP D. Downloading
193 What is the full form of www in web address? a

A. World Wide Web B. World Wide Word

C. World Wide Wood D. None of these
194 A computer on internet is identified by : c
A.e-mail address B. street address
C.IP address D. None of the above
195 A platform for software to run on computer is called ______________ a
A. Operating System B. System Software
C. Application Software D. All E. None
196 Example of open source operating system is d
A. Android
B. LINUX
C. WINDOWS
D. BOTH A & B
197 One megabyte memory storage in the form of bytes is equal to b
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024 kilo bytes
C. 1056 bytes
D. 1058 kilo bytes
198 We can insert a page number in MS-Word at c
A.Header B.Footer C.Both A and B D.None of above
199 The Spelling And Grammar Tool in MS word program d
A. Indicates Grammatical Errors
B. Corrects Spelling Errors As You Type
C. Identifies Words With Capitalization Problems
D. All Of Above
200 b
Which is not a mathematical Function in MS Excel Program?
A. SUM B. DATE C. MAX D. MIN
201 _____function in MS Excel program tells how many numeric entries are there. a
A. COUNT B. NUM C. SUM D. CHKNUM

202 How reply of a letter can be given in letter form in e-Office. a

A. Dispatch
B. Attach receipt
C. Attach file
D. None of above
203 When a file is not to be used for a long time, it can be b
A. Closed
B. Parked
C. Link
D. None of the above
204 What is the full form of HRMS b
A. Human Railway Manpower System
B. Human Resource Management System
C. Human Resource Manpower System
D. None of above
205 In HRMS following information can be accessed by Railway Employee. d
A. My profile B. e-SR C. e-Pass D. All of above.
206 ISO 9001 is related to which management System? a
(a) Quality (b) Environment
(c) Health & Safety (d) Energy
207 ISO 14001 is related to which management System? b
(a) Quality (b) Environment
(c) Health & Safety (d) Energy
208 OHSMS Stands for c
(a) Office Health Safety Management System
(b) Occupational Health & Safety Mechanical System
(c) Occupational Health & Safety Management System
(d) None of the above
209 Which of following is latest standard for EnMS? b
(a) IS 50001:2015 (b) IS 50001:2018
(c)IS 50001:2011 (d) IS 50001:2019
210 What is IRIS? b
(a) Indian Railway Industry Standard
(b) International Railway Industry Standard
(c) Indian Railway Industry System
(d) International Railway Industry System
211 DMW has IMS (Integrated Management System) which covers? d
(a) ISO 9001, ISO 50001, ISO 18001
(b) ISO 18001, ISO50001, ISO 14001
(c) ISO 9001, ISO 14001, ISO 50001
(d) ISO 18001, ISO 9001, ISO 14001
212 ISO Stands for d
(a) Indian Standards Organization
(b) Indian Standardization Organization
(c) International Standards Organization
(d) International Organization for Standardization
213 International H.Q. of ISO is in d
(a) New Delhi (b) New York
(c) London (d) Geneva
214 Latest EnMS Certification of DMW has been done by c
(a) M/s RDSO (b) M/s BIS
(c) M/s INTERCERT (d) M/s BEE
215 MTOE in ISO: 50001 Stands for c
(a) Metric Ton of Energy (b) Metric Ton of Oil Energy
(c) Metric Ton of Oil Equivalent(d) None of the above
216 Standard ISO 3834-2 : 2005 refers to a
(a) Quality requirements for fusion welding
(b) Quality requirements of Machining Processes
(c)Limits of Industrial effluents
(d) Reliability of Laboratory Testing
217 ISO 17025:2017 is applicable to following c
(a) Manufacturing Units
(b) Hospitality and Tourism Industry
(c) Testing & Calibration laboratories
(d) Service Industry
218 ISO/IEC 17025 : 2017 is a c
(a) Product Standard (b) Management System Standard
(c) Competency based Standard (d) None of the above
219 Head quarter of NABL is located at b
(a) Delhi (b) Gurugram
(c) Lucknow (d) Chandigarh
220 What does QA & QC stand for? c
(a) Quality Assurance & Quality Competency
(b) Quality Access& Quality Competency
(c) Quality Assurance & Quality Control
(d) Quality Assessment& Quality Control
221 A Person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory as per
factory act is called as a
(a) Factory Occupier
(b) Factory manager
(c)Chairman
(d) Managing Director
222 If there are more than ……………..number of employees, then the employer
has to provide a canteen a
(a) 250
(b) 510
(c) 500
(d) 100
223 As per factory act, who will be called as an adult
(a) A person who has completed twenty one years of age. d
(b) A Person who is less than nineteen years of age.
(c) A Person who has completed twenty four years of age.
A person who has completed eighteen years of age.
224 Where is National Institute of Disaster management located in India.
a) New Delhi a
b) Pune
c) Chennai
D) Nagpur
225 The Chairman of the National Disaster Management authority is
a) Prime Minister a
b) Home Minister
c) Environment Minister
D) Civil Aviation Minister
226 Amongst others, Staff Council consists of. d
a) Elected Members
b) Nominated Members
c) Only (a) above
d) Both (a) & (b) above.
227 What is the role of Trade Union Act in the formation and functioning of Staff d
Councils?
a) Elections of Staff Council members are governed by the Trade Union Act.
b) After elected, the Joint Secretary of the Staff Council is required to register
himself/herself under the Trade Union Act.
c) Staff Council can only be dissolved under the Trade Union Act.
d) None of above.
228 When general principle is not involved, which cases of non gazetted employees d
can be discussed Staff Council at the meetings.
a) Disciplinary cases of non-gazetted employee.
b) Transfer cases of non-gazetted employees.
c) Both (a) & (b) above.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) above.
229 Who is Secretary of the Staff Council in DMW, Patiala. b
a) PCAO
b) PCME
c) PCPO
d) None of above.
230 Which one is true in matter of meetings of Staff Councils. b
(a) It shall not be held more than once every one month.
(b) It shall not be held more than once every two months.
(c) It shall not be held more than once every three months.
(d) It shall not be held more than once every four months.
231 Which is the full form of WMS under Plan head_7200 WMS? c
a) Workshop manufacturing surplus
b) Workshop module of Shops
c) Workshop manufacturing suspense
d) Workshop manufacturing shortfall.
232 Which stage of Budget has now been discontinued from Indian Railways Budget b
cycle for submission to Railway Board?
a) Revised Estimates for the current year & Budget Estimates for the next year
b) August Review Estimates
c) Final Modification Estimates
d) None
233 What do you mean by RSP? b
a) Railways surplus provision b) Rolling stock Programme
c) Railways shortfall in production d) Rolling stock-related Production.
234 Under which demand Numberis WMS budget formulated and sent to Railway d
Board?
a) Demand no.03b) Demand no.04c)Demand no.08d) Demand no.16
235 Which type of funds requirement is covered in RSP? c
a) Machinery &Plant relatedb) Bridge Works related,
c) Locomotives, Coaches and Wagons etc d) Staff Quarters related.
236 In which month, the Final Modification Estimates are sent to Railway Board? a
a)In February b) In October c) In May d) In November.
237 Under which Plan head is Stores Suspense Budget formulated for submission to c
Railway board?
a) Plan head_4100b) Plan head_7200c) Plan head_7100d) Plan head_4200.
238 Under which Plan head is Machinery and Plant related funds requirement a
projected for demanding M& P budget from Railway board?
a) Plan head_4100b) Plan head_7200
c) Plan head_7100d) Plan head_4200.
239 In which month is the Revised Estimates for the current year and Budget b
Estimates for the next year submitted to Railway board?
a) In February b) In September c) In December d) In November.
240 Which is the description/title for Demand no.16, under which various plan heads a
viz. Plan head-1700, 4100,4200,5100,5200,6400,7100,7200 and 7300 etcfalls?
a)Assests_Acquisition, Construction and Replacement
b)Repair and Maintenance of Motive Power
c )Repair and Maintenance of Carriages and Wagons
d) Provident Fund, Pension and other Retirement Benefits .
241 Under which Plan head,Workshop Manufacturing Suspense budget is b
sanctioned in the Pink Book by Railway Board every year for PUs ?
a) Plan head 7100 b) Plan head 7200
c) Plan head 4100 d) Plan head 4200
242 Under which allocation, Expenditure on Stock items drawn/taken from depot is c
booked under Workshop Manufacturing Suspense?
a) 20721101 b) 20721102 c) 20721105 d) 20721104
243 Transfer of allotted fund for a specific purpose to an another specific purpose is a
called;
a) Re-appropriation b) Appropriation
c) Excess over Allotted Original Budget d) None
244 From which Financial year, Railway Budget has been merged with General c
Budget of Govt of India?
a) 2015-16 b) 2016-17 c) 2017-18d) 2018-19
245 Who is competent authority to sanction the voted part of Budget? c
a) President b)Finance Minister c) Parliament d)Prime Minister
246 Who is competent authority to sanction the Budget for charged expenditure? a
a)President b)Finance Minister c) Parliament d)Prime Minister
247 To which Parliamentary committee, Appropriation account is reported? a
a) Public Accounts Committee b)Estimate Committee
c) Convention Committee d)Standing Committee
248 Appropriation account is prepared? a
a) Monthly b)Half yearly c) Yearly d) None
249 Green sand mould indicates that d
(a) Polymeric mould has been cured (b) Mould has been totally dried
(c)Mould is green in colour (d) Mould contains moisture
250 The patterns which are made in two or more pieces are called as b
(a) Solid Patterns (b) Split Patterns
(c)Loose Piece Patterns(d) None of the above
251 Permeability can be defined as the property of moulding sand b
(a)to hold sand grains together
(b)to allow gases to escape easily from the mould
(c)to withstand the heat of melt without showing any sign of softening
(d) None of the above
252 Shrinkage allowance is made by d
(a) Adding to external and internal dimensions
(b)Subtracting from external and internal dimensions
(c)Subtracting from external dimensions and adding to internal dimensions
(d) Adding to external dimensions and subtracting from internal dimensions
253 Which of the following is not an advantage of Cold working d
(a) Better dimensional accuracy(b)Better Surface finish
(c)Higher Strength(d) Lesser forces required for change of form.
254 Which characteristic of material is used in forging process? c
(a) Elasticity of material(b)Ductility of material
(c)Plasticity of material(d) None of the above
255 In forging, the compressive forces can be exerted by d
(a) Hammer (b)Roller
(c)An Upsetting Machine(d) All of these