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12th NEET Full Syllabus

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DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus

Vinod Kumar Verma


19765
15 May 2020
1. Concentration of DDT is highest in:
Primary consumer
Producers
Top consumer
Decomposers
Ans- 3

2. Most stable pesticides:


(1) Organophosphates
(2) Organochlorines
(3) Bordeaux mixture
(4) Azaderectnin
Ans-2

3. Best economic method to harvest the solar energy :


(1) Solar cell
(2) Energy plantation
(3) Cultivation of sugar cane then energy
obtain by burning it
(4) Solar cooker
Ans-2

4. Bhopal gas tragedy is related with :


(1) Methane
(2) Carban mono oxide
(3) Methyl Iso cyanate (MIC)
(4) SO2
Ans- 3

5. If the high altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants which may disappear along
with them are
(a) pine
(b) oak
(c) orchids
(d) Rhododendrons
Ans- c

6. Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time


(a) laws of limiting factor
(b) species area relationships
(c) population growth equation
(d) ecological biodiversity.
Ans- b

7. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as
(a) endemic
(b) rare
(c) keystone
(d) alien.
Ans-a
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020

8. How many hotspots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman
Myers?
(a) 17
(b) 25
(c) 34
(d) 43
Ans- c

9. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of-


a. inorganic nutrients from humus
b. both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
c. organic nutrients from humus
d. inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
Ans-a

10. Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary
production?
a. Deserts
b. Tropical rain forests
c. Oceans
d. Estuaries
Ans-b

11. Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is
converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
a. Less than 1%
b. 2-10%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Ans-b

12. The rate of production of biomass is termed as


a. primary production
b. gross production
c. productivity
d. all of the above
Ans-c

13. The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a
grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020

(a) Population A produced more offspring than population B


(b) Population A consumed the members of population B
(c) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
(d) Population B competed more successfully for food than population A.
Ans-d

14. Temperature related metabolic response of an animal is shown in the accompanying


graph. Which of the following is the correct description of regions a, b or c :

(a) Energy expended to loss excess heat : b + c


(b) Energy required to maintain body temperature : a
(c) Endothermy : b & Ectothermy : a
(d) Heterothermy : a, b & c
Ans. [c]

15. Species separated by geographical barriers are called :


(1) Allopatric
(2) Sympatric
(3) Sibling
(4) Endemic
Ans- 1

16. Total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is called :


(1) Gross primary production
(2) Net primary production
(3) Standing crop
(4) Standing state
Ans- 1

17. Tissue culture is


(a) growth of specific plant structures on artificial medium
(b) growth and multiplication of cells on artificial medium
(c) cryogenic maintenance of tissues
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
(d) maintenance, growth and differentiation of cells, tissues and organs on artificial medium.
Ans- d

18. The enzymes required to obtain wall free/ naked protoplasts are
(a) cellulase and proteinase
(b) cellulase and pectinase
(c) cellulase and amylase
(d) amylase and pectinase.
Ans- b

19. Somaclonal variation appears in plants


(a) growing in polluted soil or water
(b) exposed to gamma rays
(c) raised in tissue culture
(d) transformed by recombinant DNA technology.
Ans- c

20. Find the correct match –

Crop Variety
1. Wheat a. Pusa
swarnim
2. Brassica b. Himgiri
3. Cauliflower c. Pusa
Sadabahar
4. Cowpea d. Pusa
Shubhra
Pusa
Snowball
K-1
5. Chilli e. Pusa Komal

a. 1-b; 2-a; 3-d; 4-e; 5-c


b. 1-b;2-c; 3-a; 4-e; 5-d
c. 1-a; 2-b; 3-c; 4-d; 5-e
d. None of the above

21. Satellite DNA is important because it


(a) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(b) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(c) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(d) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children.

Ans-d
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
22. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is
-
(a) negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(b) feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase can switch of transcription
(c) positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
(d) negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription.

Ans – d

23. A cell suspension was incubated in a culture medium containing ratio labelled Uracil, a
few cells were removed every 10 seconds and autoradiography was performed. What
would be the correct sequence of appearance of the label?
(a) rough ER ..> nucleus..> nucleolus
(b) nucleolus..> ribosomes...> nucleus
(c) nucleolus..> rough ER...> Golgi
(d) nucleolus..> nucleus..> ribosome
Ans. [d]

24. The figure illustrates the process of translation in protein synthesis. if the triplet UAU is
modified to UAG what will be the consequence?

(a) amino acid 'f' will be omitted from resultant polypeptide chain
(b) the amino acid 'g' will be replaced by some other amino acid in the resultant
polypeptide
(c) the polypeptide with a, b, c, d, e and f will be released
(d) the polypeptide will not be produced at all
Ans. [c]

25. Multivalent chromosome form by:


(1) Inversion
(2) Deletion
(3) Reciprocal translocation
(4) Point mutation
Ans-3

26. Which of the following exercise a control over transcription:


(1) Operator
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
(2) Regulator
(3) Promoter
(4) Recon
Ans- 2

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?


(a) cDNA is synthesized from mRNA
(b) cDNA lacks introns
(c) cDNA cannot be expressed outside a eukaryotic cells
(d) size of cDNA is shorter than the original DNA in a eukaryotic cells
Ans. [c]
Sol. cDNA expressed in prokaryote cell but it contain only exon

28. A pedigree depicting the inheritance of a trait in a family is shown

29. The trait represented is :

(a) Autosomal dominant


(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X-linked recessive
(d) Y-linked
Ans. [c]
Sol. ʘ is symbol of x-linked carrier so disease will be x-linked recessive.

30. Genetic drift in mendelian population takes place in :


(1) Small population
(2) Large population
(3) Oceanic population
(4) Never occurs
Ans- 1

31. Mental retardness in man occur due to:


(1) Loss of one X chromosome
(2) Addition of one X chromosome
(3) Slight growth in Y
(4) Overgrowth in Y
Ans- 2 klinefelter syndrome

32. Gene located on the same locus but having different expressions are
a. oncogenes
b. polygenes
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
c. multiple alleles
d. codominants
ans-c

33. How many types of gametes will be produced by individuals having genotype AaBbCc?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
Ans-b

34. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour-blindness on its one X-chromosome
marries a normal male then what are the chances in their offsprings :
(1) 50% son diseased and 50% normal
(2) All normal off springs
(3) 100% daughters are carrier
(4) 100% son diseased
Ans- 1
35. First child of a normal male and female is albino, what are the chances of second child to
be albino:
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%
Ans- 1

36. Ornithophilly takes place in :


(1) Yellow flower having nectaries
(2) Scented flower
(3) Flower with charming colour
(4) Modified corolla tube
Ans-1

37. If Testa is removed from the water soaked gram seed, the remaining structure is
a. Full mature embryo
b. Cotyledon with endosperm
c. Cotyledon filled with starch
d. None of the above
Ans-a

38. Apomixes in plant means development of a plant


a. From root cuttings
b. Without fusion of gametes
c. From fusion of gametes
d. From stem of cuttings
Ans-b

39. Juvenile and adult plants are


a. Morphologically different
b. Physiologically same
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
c. [a] and [b] both
d. None of the above
Ans- a
sol- Because juvenile phase is primary stage of development of adult plant.

40. Which type of propagation is better for the plant


a. By seeds
b. By tubers
c. By bulbs
d. By rhizome
Ans-a
sol- Because seeds possess embryo of new plants

41. Plants identical to mother plants can be had obtained from [CPMT 1975]
a. Seeds
b. Stem cutting
c. Both [a] and [b]
d. None of these
Ans- b

42. Match List I with List II and select the correct options.

List-I List-II
A. Gemmules 1. Agave
B. Leaf buds 2. Penicillium
C. Bulbil 3. water hyacinth
D. Offset 4. Sponges
E. Conidia 5. Bryophyllum

a. A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3, E-2


b. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1, E-5
c. A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-1
d. A-4, B-1, C-5, D-3, E-2
Ans- a

43. In yeast cell division results in a small cell called


a. offspring
b. bud
c. clone
d. branch
Answer: b.

44. Multiple fission occurs in this organism


a. Paramecium
b. Plasmodium
c. Amoeba
DPP_12th NEET Full Syllabus
Vinod Kumar Verma
19765
15 May 2020
d. All the above
Answer: b.

45. True for Pseudopodiospores-


a. Formed under unfavourable condition
b. encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission and produces many minute amoeba or
pseudopodiospores.
c. A type of asexual spore
d. All of the above are true
Ans-d

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