Fiitjee All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2020
Fiitjee All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2020
Fiitjee All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2020
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section-A (01 – 08, 19 – 26, 37 – 44) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section-A (09 – 12, 27 – 30, 45 – 48) contains 6 List-Match sets with 12 questions (each set has 2
questions). Each question has 4 statements in LIST-I & 4, 5 or 6 statements in LIST-II. The codes
for Lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A soap bubble of radius ‘r’ and wall thickness ‘h’ is made in vacuum by blowing an ideal diatomic
gas in it. The surface tension of the soap solution is ‘’ and density of the soap solution is ‘’.
Assume that the heat capacity of the soap film is much greater than that of the gas in the bubble.
Then choose the correct option(s). (R = ideal gas constant)
(A) The molar heat capacity of the gas in the bubble is 4R.
(B) The molar heat capacity of the gas in the bubble is 3R.
hr2
(C) The time period of small radial oscillations of the soap film is 2
8
hr2
(D) The time period of small radial oscillations of the soap film is 2
4
2. Two uncharged thin concentric spherical conducting shells ‘A’ and ‘B’ of 3R
radii R and 3R are connected through a resistance ‘r’ and switch ‘S’
initially opened as shown in the figure. A positive point charge ‘Q’ is
fixed at a distance 2R from the centre of the shells. At t = 0, the switch +Q 2R s r
‘S’ is closed till the steady state is reached. Then choose the correct O
R
option(s).
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‘A’. The rod makes an angle = 53 with the vertical axis and it is rotating A
with a constant angular velocity ‘’ about the vertical axis passing through m,
end ‘A’ as shown in the figure. Then choose the correct option(s).
5. Consider an arrangement of a thin biprism and screen as shown in the figure. The refraction
angle of the biprism is A = 4 and the refractive index of its material is = 1.5. The wavelength of
the monochromatic light emitted by the source ‘S’ is = 6000 Å. Then choose the correct
option(s).
screen
A
S
a = 25cm b = 100cm
(A) The fringe width of the interference pattern obtained on the screen is 21.5 m.
(B) The fringe width of the interference pattern obtained on the screen is 43 m.
(C) If the source ‘S’ is located at large distance from the biprism then the fringe width
obtained on the screen will be 8.6 m.
(D) If the source ‘S’ is located at large distance from the biprism then the fringe width
obtained on the screen will be 17.2 m.
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a
I
(A) The magnitude of force acting on the square loop due to long current carrying wire is
2 0 I2
5
(B) The magnitude of force acting on the square loop due to long current carrying wire is
0I2
5
2 0 I2 a
(C) The torque experienced by the square loop due to long current carrying wire is
5
0 I2 a
(D) The torque experienced by the square loop due to long current carrying wire is
5
S1
(A) The heat dissipated in the circuit after the switch ‘S2’ is closed will be 100 J.
(B) The heat dissipated in the circuit after the switch ‘S2’ is closed will be 50 J.
(C) The charge flown through the battery 1 after closing the switch ‘S2’ is 20 C.
(D) The charge flown through the battery 2 after closing the switch ‘S2’ is 10 C.
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Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
Two long current carrying thin walled coaxial cylinders are depicted in List-I and List-II gives the
magnitude of magnetic pressure exerted on the wall of the cylinders.
List– I List- II
2a
I I 0I2
(I) a (P)
32 2 a 2
2a
2I 2I
0I2
(II) (Q)
a 82a2
2a
I/2 2I
3 0I2
(III) (R)
a 16 2 a 2
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2a
3I/2 3I 9 0I2
(IV) a
(S)
32 2 a 2
0I2
(T)
22a2
9 0I2
(U)
16 2 a 2
9. Find the correct match for the magnetic pressure exerted on the wall of each inner cylinder.
(A) (I) (Q), (II) (T), (III) (P), (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (P), (II) (T), (III) (S), (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (Q), (II) (T), (III) (R), (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (P), (II) (S), (III) (R), (IV) (Q)
10. Find the correct match for the magnetic pressure exerted on the wall of each outer cylinder.
(A) (I) (P), (II) (Q), (III) (T), (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (Q), (II) (S), (III) (R), (IV) (U)
(C) (I) (P), (II) (Q), (III) (R), (IV) (U)
(D) (I) (S), (II) (T), (III) (R), (IV) (P)
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
One mole of an ideal gas is taken through four different cyclic processes as depicted in the List-I
and List-II gives the values of total work done and total heat absorbed by the gas during four
different cyclic processes.
List– I List- II
P
2P0 B
P0V0
(I) P0 A (P)
C 2
V0 2V0 V
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P
A B
P0
P0/4 C
(II) (Q) P0 V0
V0 2V0 4V0 V
B
P0
(III) P0/2 (R) 2 P0 V0 (1 n2)
C
V0 2V0 V
P0/2 C
5P0 V0
(IV) P0/4 D (S)
2
V0 2V0 4V0 V
11. Find the correct match for the total work done by the gas during each cyclic process.
(A) (I) (S), (II) (R), (III) (P), (IV) (T)
(B) (I) (P), (II) (R), (III) (P), (IV) (Q)
(C) (I) (P), (II) (Q), (III) (R), (IV) (T)
(D) (I) (Q), (II) (P), (III) (S), (IV) (R)
12. Find the correct match for the total heat absorbed by the gas during each cyclic process.
(A) (I) (Q), (II) (S), (III) (T), (IV) (P)
(B) (I) (T), (II) (S), (III) (Q), (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (T), (II) (S), (III) (T), (IV) (U)
(D) (I) (P), (II) (S), (III) (R), (IV) (Q)
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
15. A satellite is projected into space from a point ‘P’ at a distance ‘r0’ v0
GM P
from the centre of the earth with an initial velocity v0 at an
r0
angle = 37 with the horizontal at point ‘P’ as shown in the figure. r0
It is found that the satellite is propelled into an elliptical orbit. Find
the eccentricity of the elliptical orbit.
O M
16. Two wires of same length = 1 m and same cross-sectional 1,Y1,,A 2,Y2,,A
area A = 10 mm2 are welded together and their ends are A B
rigidly clamped between two walls as shown in the figure. 1 O 2
Given
1 = 2 105 C1, Y1 = 1 1010 N/m2, 1 = 0.4 kg/m
2 = 1 105 C1, Y2 = 2 1010 N/m2, 2 = 0.1 kg/m
The tension in the wires is produced by reducing the temperature of system by 20C. Find the
first overtone frequency (in Hz) of transverse vibration of the system with joint ‘O’ as a node.
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18. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and its circular scale is divided into 100 divisions. When
nothing is placed between its studs, the zero of the circular scale lies 6 divisions below the
reference line. When a wire is placed between its studs, the main scale reading is 2 mm and 56th
division of circular scale coincides with the reference line of the main scale. The length of wire is
8.68 cm. Find the curved surface area (in cm2) of the wire in true significant figures.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Identify the complex(es) in which C – O bond length is less than the C – O bond length in
Fe(CO)5:
(A) [Cr(CO)6]
(B) [Cr(NH3)(CO)5]
(C) [Cr(NH3)2(CO)4]
(D) [Cr(NH3)3(CO)3]
(A) O
i OH /
CH3 CH O
ii CH3CO 2 O, CH3COONa, CH3COOH
iii Conc. H3 PO 4 /
HC O
(B) OH
i AgNH3 2
O H Citric acid
ii K2Cr2O7 , H
O
OH
(C) OH
OH
Conc. H SO
2 4 O
(D)
O i Ph3P CHCHPPh3
CHO
ii H2 /Pt1eqvt.,low temperature
O iii O3 /Zn/H2O
iv OH /
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21. ACl3 is an unstable compound and gradually changing into A2O5 by its reaction with atmospheric
oxygen, according to the following partial reaction:
2 A C l 3 A 2 O 5
The above reaction follows second order kinetics. The reaction is started by taking 1 mole of ACl3
in a container of volume 1 L and allowed to stand for some time. After 10 min, the reaction
mixture requires 250 mL of 0.8 M acidified KMnO4 solution; where ACl3 is oxidized into AO 3 and
assume A2O5 do not react with KMnO4. Now, choose the correct statement(s) of the following:
(A) Half-life time of the reaction is 10 minutes.
(B) Rate constant of the reaction is 0.05 mol1 min 1 .
(C) Rate constant of the reaction is 0.10 mol1 min 1 .
(D) After 20 mins from the start, 33.33% of ACl3 is left unreacted.
22. 100 ml of 0.1 M aqueous solution of sodium phosphate is titrated using 0.1 M HCl. Now, choose
the correct statement(s) of the following:
(For H3PO4 : Ka1 103;Ka2 108 andKa3 1013 at 25o C)
(A) The pH of the solution is 13 at 25oC, when the titre value is 50 mL.
(B) pH of the solution is 10.5 at 25oC, when the titre value is 100 mL.
(C) pH of the solution is 8 at 25oC, when the titre value is 150 mL.
(D) pH of the solution is 3 at 25oC, when the titre value is 200 mL.
24. OCH 3
O
NaOEt/EtOH,
Y
excess Major product
O
X
Identify the correct statement (s) about (X) and (Y)
(A) Both (X) and (Y) gives +ve Bromine water test.
(B) Both (X) and (Y) gives positive 2,4-dinitro phenyl hydrazine (D.N.P.) test.
(C) Degree of unsaturation of (Y) is 8.
(D) (Y) on heating with triphenyl phosphine ethylidene gives a product which also gives
Bromine water test.
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25. The following diagram shows the vapour pressure curves for CH3F, CH3OH, CH3COOH and
CH2O.
I II
III IV
Vapour pressure
Temperature (T)
Now choose the correct match from the options given below:
(A) III = CH3OH
(B) II = CH3F
(C) I = CH2O
(D) IV = CH3COOH
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
Some statement(s) are given in List-I and some thermodynamic properties in List-II:
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) A process in which heat change is positive at (P) W = 0
constant volume (V) and constant pressure
(P)
(II) An isobaric process in which Uis negative (Q) U 0
and S 0
(III) An adiabatic process in which Sis positive (R) Process must be reversible
and work done is zero.
(IV) An isobaric, iso-entropic process in which (S) Vmust be equal to 0 for
His negative. spontaneity
(T) H 0
(U) The process must be spontaneous
27. Choose the INCORRECT match from the options given below:
(A) (I), (U)
(B) (II), (S)
(C) (III), (R)
(D) All are incorrect
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Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
Some reactions/processes are given in List-I and some reaction intermediates (which can be formed in
the reaction given in List - I) are given in List-II:
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) To determine the sequence of amino acids in (P) Carbocation
a polypeptide chain by using
2,4-Dinitrofluorobenzene
(II) O (Q) Carbanion
O
C OEt
Cl
NaOEt
EtOH
(T) Nitrene
(U) Carbene
29. Choose the correct match from the options given below:
(A) (I), (S)
(B) (IV), (U)
(C) (III), (Q)
(D) (II), (P)
30. Choose the INCORRECT match from the options given below:
(A) (IV), (R)
(B) (II), (Q)
(C) (III), (P)
(D) All are correct
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. Half the number of compounds (given below) which reacts with PCl5 to give POCl3; is:
Sulphuric acid, orthophosphoric acid, sulphurous acid, ethanoic anhydride, benzene sulphonic
acid, H2O, P4O6, P4O10, SO2, SO3, ethoxy ethane, CO2 Palmitic acid, N2.
32. To an aqueous solution of weak acid (HA), 20 mL NaOH solution is added and connected to a
reference Ag|AgCl|Cl– (0.1 M) electrode. EMF of the cell was found to be 0.56 V. To this solution
of HA, 30 mL of NaOH from same stock solution was added further and new EMF was found to
be 0.62 V. Determine the dissociation constant (pKa) of the weak acid (HA) [Take partial pressure
2.303RT
of H2 = 1 bar and temperature of reaction is 298 K, log10 2 0.3, 0.06 ]
F
E o
Cl |AgCl/ Ag
0.20 V
33. Some amino acids are given below:
(I) O O
C
H2N OH
COOH NH3
(II) O O
C
HO OH
NH 3
(III) NH3
O
C
HO OH
NH3
(IV) O
H 3N C
OH
NH 3
(V) COOH O
C
H3C O OH
NH 3
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(VI) O
C
H3N OH
NH3
(VII) O
C
OH
NH 3
COOH
Let, the number of amino acids which exists as cation at pH = 7 be ‘x’ and the number of amino
x
acids which exists as anion at pH = 7 be ‘y’, then find the value of .
y
(I) NO2
(II) N O
(III)
(IV) NH2
(V) S
H2N C NH2
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(VI) NH2
SH
(VII)
N N
35. The chromium in a 1.0 g sample of chromite (FeCr2O4) was oxidized to Cr+6 state by fusion with
Na2O2. The fused mixture was treated with excess of water and boiled to destroy the excess of
peroxide. After acidification, the sample was treated with 50 mL of 0.16 M FeSO4 solution.
3.67 mL of 0.05 M Cr2O72 solution was required to oxidize the Fe2+ ion left unreacted. Determine
the mass % of chromite in the original sample. [Cr = 52, Fe = 56]
36. Conc. H SO
2
4
X
Major product
HO
Let, the degree of unsaturation in ‘X’ be ‘x’ and the number of peaks in the energy profile for the
2x
whole course of the above reaction be ‘y’, then find the value of .
y
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SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. The roots , of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a 0 lie in the interval [0, 1], then?
a b 2a b
(A) the maximum value of is 3
a a b c
a b 2a b
(B) the minimum value of is 2
a a b c
a b 2a b
(C) if is at its maximum value, then 2 + 2 can be 2
a a b c
a b 2a b
(D) if is at its maximum value, then 2 + 2 can be 1
a a b c
38. Let a1, a2, a3, ….., an be a sequence of real numbers which satisfies the relation an 1 an2 1
n N. Suppose that there exists a positive integer n0 such that a2n0 3an0 , then?
2an
(A) lim 2
n n 2020
nr
2
(B) if Tr a
n 1
n , the min(T1, T2, ….., Tr) = –1
1
(C) lim an 1 an n 2 2
n
1 49 8
(D) 2
6 , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
2 n 1 8an 7
39. If exactly one number from the set {1, 2, 3, ….., 8} is assigned to the each vertex of a cube
A1A2A3 ….. A8, then?
(A) number of ways of assigning the numbers such that the sum of any two numbers with a
common edge is always odd is 2 (4!)2
(B) number of ways of assigning the numbers such that the sum of any two numbers with a
common body diagonal is always even is 6 (4!)2
(C) number of ways of assigning the numbers such that the sum of any two numbers with a
common edge is always even in (4!)2
(D) the number of equilateral triangles formed by joining vertices of the given cube is equal
to 8
40. The lines L1, L2, L3 are parallel to each other and L2 lies between L1 and L3, the distance between
L1 and L2 is ‘a’ unit and that between L2 and L3 is ‘b’ unit. If the area of an equilateral triangle
having one vertex on each of the three given parallel lines is a function g(a, b), then?
(A) g 1, 1 3 unit 2
3
(B) minimum value of g(1, b) is unit 2
4
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AITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 18
2 2
(C) eccentricity of the curve g(x, y) = 3 is
3
7
(D) g 2, 1 unit 2
3
41. If all the pairs (x, y) such that x, y I and x, y satisfying the following system of inequalities, x2 + x
+ y 3 and y2 + y + x 3, then?
(A) total number of such pair of (x, y), x, y I are 9
(B) total number of squares formed by joining such point are 14
(C) total number of such pairs of (x, y) are 17
(D) total number of squares formed by joining such point are 20
42. A bug starts from the origin O(0, 0) in the co-ordinate plane jumping from one point to another at
the rate of one jump per second. It moves according to the rule that from (m, n), it jumps to either
(m, n + 1) or (m + 1, n), (m, n W), either been equally likely. Five second from the start the bug
reaches (, ), then?
(A) the number of different values that | – | can take is 3
10
(B) probability that bug reaches (, ) if |– | = 1, is
16
1
(C) probability that bug reaches (, ) if | – | > 1 is
8
1
(D) probability that bug reaches (, ) if | – | > 4 is
3
43. Let ABC be a triangle and r, r1, r2, r3 denote its in-radius and the exradii opposite to vertices A, B
C respectively. If a > r1, b > r2 and c > r3, then?
(A) B is obtuse angle
(B) A is acute angle
(C) 3r > s, where s is semi-perimeter
(D) 3r < s, where s is semi-perimeter
44. Let S be the curve y = x2 and S be the mirror image of S with respect to the line passing through
the points A(0, –10) and B(2, 0), then?
15
(A) if C is a point on S, then the minimum value of area of triangle ABC is unit 2
2
15
(B) shortest distance between S and S is unit
2 26
(C) if D is a point on S, then the minimum area of triangle ABD is 0 unit2
(D) if C (, ) is point on S such that the area of the ABC is minimum then the value of
629
( – 2)2 + 2 is unit 2
16
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Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
x2 y2
MM-I. Let S1 : x2 – y2 – 4 = 0, S2 : y2 – 4x = 0, S3 : x2 + y2 – 4 = 0 and S4 : 1 0 are four given
4 1
conics and A, B, C, D are set of all the tangents of S1, S2, S3 and S4 respectively.
List-I contains the sets A, B, C and D. List-II contains information regarding the elements in these
sets
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) A (P) 4x – 2y + 1 = 0
(II) B (Q) 2x – y + 2 3 = 0
(IV) D (S) 2x y 2 5 0
(T) x–2=0
(U) x+2=0
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AITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 20
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
f x
(II) (Q) Limit x tends to 0 does not exist
g x
h x
(III) (R) Limit x tends to exist
t x
h x
(IV) (S) Limit x tends to does not exist
t x
(T) Limit x tends to is equal 0
(U) Limit x tends to 0 is equal 1
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. A red ball and a green ball are randomly and independently tossed into bins numbered 1, 2, 3 …..
such that for each ball the probability that it gets tossed into bin k is 2k k N. If P is the
probability that the red ball is tossed into a higher numbered bin than the green ball, then 7P is?
50. Let (a2 + 1)(b2 + 1)(c2 + 1) = 9, where a, b, c R, then the number of integers in the range of
ab + bc + ca is?
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21 AITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
b
cos x 380 x x2 dx attains
51. If e
a
its maximum value for some a, b such that a b, then the
52. The number of continuous functions f : R R, such that (2f(x) + x)(6f2(x) + 5xf(x) + x2) = 0, x
R is equal to ?
x2 x 1 x 1
53. If [p, q) is the exhaustive interval of values of x, satisfying the equation 2 ,
x x 1 x 1
2
1
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), then q p is equal to?
2
54. If f(x) is a function continuous at all points except at x = 0, such that f: R – {0} R, f(2020) = 1,
2020 2020
f(–3) = –1, and f x f y 2f xy f f , x, y R – {0}, then the value of
x y
2019
f x dx is equal to?
1
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