UNIT 1

PART A
1. Protocol used for mapping the physical addresses to logical address is
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
ANSWER: B
2. Protocol used to resolve the logical address to an ethernet address
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
ANSWER: A
3. UDP provides additional services over Internet Protocol
A. Routing and switching
B. Sending and receiving of packets
C. Multiplexing and demultiplexing
D. Demultiplexing and error checkin
ANSWER: D
4. The transport layer protocol used for real time multimedia
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ARP
D. RARP
ANSWER: B
5. One of the header fields in an IP datagram used to prevent packet looping
A. Header checksum
B. Fragment Offset
C. TOL
D. TOS
ANSWER: C
6. In application layer what is the maximum size of data that pass on to the TCP layer
A. 2
16 Bytes
B. 2
16 Bits
C. 65536 Bytes
D. Any size
ANSWER: D
7. The size of a congestion window increases exponentially in the slow start phase of
____algorithm
A. TCP congestion control
B. UDP congestion control
C. TCP Error control
D. UDP Error control
ANSWER: A
8. ICMP always reports error messages to
A. Destination
B. Router
C. Source
D. Previous router
ANSWER: C
9. Which program is used to find a host is live and responding during debugging
A. Ping
B. Shell
C. Traceroute
D. Tracert
ANSWER: A
10. Command used to trace the path of a packet from the source to destination in
windows
A. Ping
B. Locater
C. Traceroute
D. Tracert
ANSWER: D
11. No ICMP error message will be generated for a datagram for a ___ Address
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Physical
D. Logical
ANSWER: B
12. Which mechanism is used for connection establishment in TCP
A. Forwarding
B. Flow control
C. Synchronization
D. Three-Way Handshaking
ANSWER: D
13. Field that is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram
A. Checksum
B. source port
C. udp header
D. destination port
ANSWER: A
14. If the value in the protocol field is 6, The transport layer protocol used is
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
ANSWER: B
15. The filed that helps to check rearrangement of fragments
A. Flag
B. TTL
C. TOS
D. Offset
ANSWER: D
16. The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar
functionality to the ___field in the IPv4 header
A. TOS
B. TTL
C. Flag
D. Offset
ANSWER: A
17. IPv6 packet can live up to ___ router hops
A. 256
B. 512
C. 255
D. 511
ANSWER: C
18. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) relates to
A. Session Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Data link Layer
ANSWER: C
19. The maximum transmission unit value for FDDI ring is
A. 1500
B. 2552
C. 4352
D. 2343
ANSWER: C
20. The length of logical address in TCP/IP is
A. 64 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 48 bits
D. 16 bits
ANSWER: B
21. An ARP packet is encapsulated directly into ____ Frame
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Transport
ANSWER: C
22. If 8bytes are received from sender, how many bytes can be sent as an
acknowledgment number in case of TCP header
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 7
ANSWER: 9
23. The header length of a TCP header varies between
A. 5 and 10
B. 10 and 15
C. 5 and 20
D. 10 and 20
ANSWER: C
24. Maximum no of bytes can be accommodated for optional information in TCP header
A. 32 Bytes
B. 16 Bytes
C. 40 Bytes
D. 20 Bytes
ANSWER: C
25. In TCP header ____field provides information regarding the first byte of segment to
destination host.
A. Acknowledgment number
B. Window number
C. Urgent pointer
D. Sequence number
ANSWER: D
26. FIN is used to
A. Establish the connection
B. Terminate the connection
C. Reset the connection
D. Synchronise the sequence connections
ANSWER: B
27. Mapping used to update the logical address and physical address in cache table
manually
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. Physical
D. Logical
ANSWER: B
28. The protocol used to create sub netting effect
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. ICMP
D. Proxy ARP
ANSWER: A
29. The protocol which companion with IGMP
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. None
ANSWER: D
30. Number of streams require for each connection in TCP
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
ANSWER: B
31. Number of socket addresses needed to use the services of UDP
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: B
32. UDP packets are encapsulated in the form of
A. Data link frame
B. Ethernet frame
C. TCP segment
D. IP datagram
ANSWER: D
33. Protocol uses an acknowledge mechanism to check the safe and sound arrival of data
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
ANSWER: C
34. The attack susceptible to a serious security problem in connection establishment of
TCP
A. ACK flooding
B. SYN flooding
C. FIN flooding
D. RST flooding
ANSWER: B
35. Which of the following is to uniquely identify TCP connection establishment
A. Port number
B. Port address
C. Socket
D. IP address
ANSWER: C
36. Which of the following is not a component of an ARP package
A. Cache table
B. Cache control module
C. Checksum
D. Queues
ANSWER: C
37. Two protocols can be used instead of RARP
A. DHCP and ICMP
B. Boot and ICMP
C. IGMP and ICMP
D. DHCP and Boot
ANSWER: D
38. Additional services provided by the Transport protocol over Network Protocol is
A. End to end connectivity
B. Packet delivery in the correct order
C. Detection of duplicate packets
D. Recovery from packet losses
ANSWER: A
39. The program used to route the packets from source to destination in UNIX
A. Tracert
B. Traceroute
C. Ping
D. Shell
ANSWER: B
40. TCP timer used for measuring the time of connection maintenance in TIME_WAIT
state
A. Keep alive Timer
B. Persist Timer
C. Retransmission Timer
D. 2 Maximum Segment lifetime Timer
ANSWER: D
41. Algorithm that represents impossibility of updating RTT estimator during the arrival
acknowledgement of retransmitted data at the occurrence of timeout phase in TCP?
A. Karn's algorithm
B. NAGLE algorithm
C. Clark's Solution
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
42. Mechanism used in transport layer supplies multiple network connections along with
the distribution of traffic over them in round- robin basis?
A. Downward multiplexing
B. Upward multiplexing
C. Crash recovery
D. Buffering& Flow control
ANSWER: A
43. Additional services provided by the UDP protocol over Internet Protocol is
A. Demultiplexing and error checking
B. Routing and switching
C. Multiplexing and demultiplexing
D. Sending and receiving of packets
ANSWER: C
44. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 1010100010100000.
Then, value of checksum is -------------------
A. 01010000 01011100
B. 10101111 01011100
C. 01010000 10100011
D. 0101011101011111
ANSWER: D
45. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 2000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 20001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in
only one segment?
A. 20000
B. 20001
C. 22001
D. 21001
ANSWER: B
46. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the
given transmission line becomes available.
A. QUEUE
B. STACK
C. HASH
D. ROUTING TABLE
ANSWER: A
47. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive
and responding.
A. Trace route
B. Ping
C. TTL
D. Java
ANSWER: B
48. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
A. offset
B. Flag
C. Identifier
D. TTL
ANSWER: A
49. IP is a .................... Datagram
A. unreliable
B. static
C. connection oriented
D. reliable
ANSWER: A
50. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
A. 9
B. 11
C. 10
D. 8
ANSWER: C
51. ICMP is ...................... layer protocol
A. Data link layer
B. Network Layer
C. Physical Layer
D. Transport Layer
ANSWER: B
52. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting message?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination unreachable
C. Time exceeded
D. Router error
ANSWER: D
53. ARP is a .........
A. 8 bit field
B. 12 bit field
C. 16 bit field
D. 10 bit field
ANSWER: C
54. In ARP request is broadcast and Reply is .......
A. Multicast
B. Unicast
C. Universal
D. Multi Directed
ANSWER: B
55. Packets in IPv4 called as
A. Frames
B. Datagrams
C. Stearms of bits
D. Data
ANSWER: B
56. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to ________
A. Destination
B. Source
C. Next Router
D. Next Hop
ANSWER: B
57. In IPv4 when datagram is encapsulated in the frame , the total size of the datagram
must be less than the ..........
A. MUT
B. MTU
C. MTA
D. MAC
ANSWER: B
58. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address
such as _______
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 192.168.10.1
C. 127.162.10.1.0
D. 11.7
ANSWER: A
59. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called
as.............
A. Checksum
B. Differentiated Service
C. Types Of Service
D. Fragments
ANSWER: B
60. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?
A. complicates routers
B. open to DOS attack
C. overlapping of fragments.
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: D
61. In windows ____________ can be used to trace the route of the packet from the
source to the destination.
A. tracert
B. trace route
C. ping
D. location
ANSWER: A
62. ARP helps to obtain.........
A. Logical address
B. MAC address
C. Port Address
D. Routing Table
ANSWER: B
63. DHCP stands for ...........
A. Dynamic host configuration Provide
B. Dynamic host configuration Protocol
C. Digital host communication Protocol
D. Digital host communication Provider
ANSWER: B
64. Divide the Datagram to pass through the network is called
A. Types of service
B. Fragmentation
C. Routing
D. Best effort Delivery
ANSWER: B
65. Echo request and Echo reply message are designed for
A. Echo purpose
B. Diagnostic purpose
C. synchronization process
D. Address process
ANSWER: B
PART B (Problem based questions)
1. Let the size of congestion window of a TCP connection be 64 KB when a timeout
occurs. The round trip time of the connection is 250 msec and the maximum segment
size used is 2 KB. The time taken (in msec) by the TCP connection to get back to 64
KB congestion window is
A. 1100 TO 1300
B. 4000 TO 4500
C. 5000 TO 5500
D. 1300 TO 2000
ANSWER: C
2. Let the size of congestion window of a TCP connection be 64 KB when a timeout
occurs. The round trip time of the connection is 200 msec and the maximum segment
size used is 2 KB. The time taken (in msec) by the TCP connection to get back to 32
KB congestion window is
A. 1100 TO 1300
B. 800 TO 1000
C. 1500 TO 2000
D. 2300 TO 3000
ANSWER: B
3. On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is 6 KB. The window
advertised by the receiver is 6 KB. The last byte sent by the sender is 10240 and the
last byte acknowledged by the receiver is 8192. The current window size at the sender
is
A. 10240
B. 8192
C. 7168
D. 6144
ANSWER: D
4. On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is 8 KB. The window
advertised by the receiver is 7 KB. The last byte sent by the sender is 10240 and the
last byte acknowledged by the receiver is 8192. The current window size at the sender
is
A. 10240
B. 8192
C. 7168
D. 6144
ANSWER: D
5. A Datagram of 5500 B(20 B of IP header + 5480 IP playload) reached at router and
must be forward to a link with MTU of 1500 B. how many fragments will be
generated.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
ANSWER: 5
6. A Datagram of 5000 B(20 B of IP header + 4980 IP playload) reached at router and
must be forward to a link with MTU of 1000 B. What is the MF value at 6thpacket.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
ANSWER: A
7. A Datagram of 2000 B(20 B of IP header + 1980 IP playload) reached at router and
must be forward to a link with MTU of 500 B. What is the offset value of 4thpacket.
A. 120
B. 180
C. 60
D. 240
ANSWER: B
8. For the following information original timestamp: 64, receive timestamp: 78,
transmit timestamp: 80, return time: 87 find the calculate the round-trip time
A. 20
B. 18
C. 21
D. 14
ANSWER: C
9. A total of 1440 bytes that is routed through an interface with MTU of 576 bytes
calculate flag , fragment offset, total length of 1st fragment of a packet
A. 0, 1, 552
B. 1, 0, 556
C. 1, 0, 572
D. 0, 1, 574
ANSWER: C
10. If original timestamp is 68, receive timestamp is 82 and transmit timestamp is 76,
return time is 95 then round trip time is.
A. 5
B. 14
C. 26
D. 33
ANSWER: D
11. If original timestamp is 52, receive timestamp is 74 and transmit timestamp is 76,
return time is 94 then Time difference is.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: A
12. If TCP connection has been established, a host is only allowed to send an amount of
data equivalent to 1 MSS before waiting for acknowledgement. Say that the MSS is
1024 bytes and the RTT (round trip time) is 64ms. What would be the initial data rate
of the host?
A. 12 *103
Bytes/s
B. 16 *103
Bytes/s
C. 16 *10-3 Bytes/s
D. 12 *10-3 Bytes/s
ANSWER: B
13. If TCP connection has been established, a host is only allowed to send an amount of
data equivalent to 1 MSS before waiting for acknowledgement. Say that the MSS is
1024 bytes and the RTT (round trip time) is 64ms. What would be the data rate of the
host If the host is allowed to send an amount of data equivalent to 64 MSS?
A. 576 KB
B. 1024 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 64 KB
ANSWER: B
14. Suppose an application generates chunks of 20 bytes of data every 20 msec, and each
chunkgets encapsulated in a TCP segment and then an IP datagram. What percentage
of eachdatagram will be overhead,Assume that both theTCP and IP header has its
Options field empty.
A. 33.33
B. 44.44
C. 55.55
D. 66.66
ANSWER: D
15. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 01010011 01011100. Then,
value of checksum is _____
A. 01010000 01011100
B. 01010000 01011101
C. 11000000 01011100
D. 10101100 10100011
ANSWER: D

UNIT 2

PART- A
1. An arrangement of bytes when data is transmitted over the network is called
______________
a. byte ordering
b. data ordering
c. network ordering
d. none of the above
2. High order byte is stored on starting address and low order byte is stored on next address
a. Big-endian
b. Little-endian
c. All the above
d. None of the above
3. Low order byte is stored on starting address and high order byte is stored on next address
a. Big-endian
b. Little-endian
c. All the above
d. None of the above
4. The function converts 32-bit (4-byte) data from host byte order to network byte order is
_______________
a. unsigned short htons()
b. unsigned long htons()
c. unsigned short ntohs()
d. unsigned long ntohs()
5. The function converts 32-bit (4-byte) data from network byte order to host byte order.
a. unsigned short htons()
b. unsigned long htons()
c. unsigned short ntohs()
d. unsigned long ntohs()
6. The interface between process and operating systems is called_______________
a. System call
b. Interface call
c. Process call
d. Function call
7. ____________ is an interface between applications and the network services provided by
operating systems
a. Network
b. Socket
c. Service
d. Application
8. _______________use sockets to send and receive the data
a. Network
b. Applications
c. Process
d. Layer
9. Which is not the type of socket
a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Flow
10.RPC performs a ________________________for information exchange between the
caller and the callee process.
a. Caller passing scheme
b. message passing scheme
c. perform passing scheme
d. application passing scheme
PART -B
1. i) In ____ mode, the kernel runs on behalf of the user.
a) user
b) kernel
c) real
d) all
ii) All UNIX and LINUX systems have one thing in common which is ____
a) set of system calls
b) set of commands
c) set of instructions
d) set of text editors
2. i) The chmod command invokes the ____ system call.
a) chmod
b) ch
c) read
d) change
ii)For reading input, which of the following system call is used?
a) write
b) rd
c) read
d) change
3. i) Which of the following system call is used for opening or creating a file?
a) read
b) write
c) open
d) close
ii) open system call returns the file descriptor as ___
a) int
b) float
c) char
d) double
4. i) Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?
a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
b) Public Socket accept ()
c) Public synchronized void close ()
d) Public void connect ()
ii) Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and
binds it with the given Port Number?
a) Datagram Socket(int port)
b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
c) Datagram Socket()
d) Datagram Socket(int address)
5. i) TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of ___________
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
ii) What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
PART –C
1. i) Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?
a) Datagram Socket
b) Datagram Packet
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
d) Server Socket
ii) In Inet Address class, which method returns the host name of the IP Address?
a) Public String get Hostname()
b) Public String getHostAddress()
c) Public static InetAddress get Localhost()
d) Public getByName()
iii) Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________
a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other
on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the mentioned
iv) To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______ are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
2. i)RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client side, a separate one for each remote
procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
ii)What is stub?
a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the
message and invokes procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the mentioned
iii)To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs
define _____________
a) machine dependent representation of data
b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
d) none of the mentioned
iv) What is the full form of RMI?
a) Remote Memory Installation
b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
3. i)The remote method invocation __________
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
ii)A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems
and can communicate with other processes using message based communication,
is called ________
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
iii)An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the _________
a) server
b) client
c) client after the sever
d) a third party
iv)In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the client is blocked ________
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
b) unless the call processing is complete
c) for the complete duration of the connection
d) unless the server is disconnected

1. To differentiate the many network services a system support ______ are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
Answer: c) Ports
2. A remote procedure call is _______
a) inter-process communication
b) a single process
c) a single thread
d) a single stream
Answer: a) inter-process communication
3. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and binds it
with the given Port Number?
a) Datagram Socket(int port)
b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
c) Datagram Socket()
d) Datagram Socket(int address)
Answer:b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
4. The client in socket programming must know which information?
a) IP address of Server
b) Port number
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
d) Only its own IP address
Answer: c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
5. Which class provides system independent server side implementation?
a) Socket
b) ServerSocket
c) Server
d) ServerReader
Answer: b) ServerSocket
6. The minimum size of the process data that can be encapsulated in a UDP datagram would be
a) 0 bytes
b) 4 bytes
c) 8 bytes
d) 28 bytes
Answer: a) 0 bytes
7. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) sockwi
Answer: b) winsock
8. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) user congestion control protocol
Answer: a) datagram congestion control protocol
9. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
Answer: a) stream control transmission protocol
10. In Stream Control Transmission Protocol(SCTP), control information and data information
are carried in
a) Flow chunks
b) Err-Control chunks
c) Same chunks
d) Separate chunks
Answer: d) Separate chunks
4 MARKS
1. i) RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client side, a separate one for each remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
Answer: a) stub
ii) What is stub?
a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and
invokes procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
2. i)What does bind() method of ServerSocket offer?
a) binds the serversocket to a specific address (IP Address and port)
b) binds the server and client browser
c) binds the server socket to the JVM
d) binds the port to the JVM
Answer: a) binds the serversocket to a specific address (IP Address and port)
ii) Which class represents an Internet Protocol address?
a) InetAddress
b) Address
c) IP Address
d) TCP Address
Answer: a) InetAddress
3. i) SCTP in each connection allows
a) single stream service
b) multistream service
c) multilevel stream service
d) oriented stream service
Answer: c) multilevel stream service
ii) SCTP is a new
a) message-oriented transport layer protocol
b) connectionless protocol
c) connection-oriented protocol
d) stream oriented protocol
Answer: a) message-oriented transport layer protocol
4. i) SCTP protocol combines the best features of
a) UDP
b) SMTP
c) TCP
d) both a and c
Answer: d) both a and c
ii) What is a stub network?
a)A network with more than one exit point.
b)A network with more than one exit and entry point.
c)A network with only one entry and no exit point.
d)A network that has only one entry and exit point.
Answer: d) A network that has only one entry and exit point.
5. i) Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to
send a datagram to an application program on another machine?
a)UDP
b)VMTP
c)X.25
d)SMTP
Answer: a) UDP
ii) What does the value 2 of the WebSocket attribute Socket.readyState indicate?
a) Closed connection
b) Handshake connection
c) Unestablished connection
d) Established connection and communication is possible
Answer: b) Handshake connection
12 MARK
1. i) RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
a) its own address space
b) another address space
c) both its own address space and another address space
d) applications address space
Answer: b) another address space
ii) RPC works between two processes. These processes must be ____________
a) on the same computer
b) on different computers connected with a network
c) on the same computer and on different computers connected with a network
d) on none of the computers
Answer: c) on the same computer and on different computers connected with a network
iii) RPC is used to _________
a) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries
b) retrieve information by calling a query
c) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and retrieve information
by calling a query
d) to secure the client
Answer: c) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and
retrieve information by calling a query
iv) A remote procedure is uniquely identified by _________
a) program number
b) version number
c) procedure number
d) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
v) An RPC application requires _________
a) specific protocol for client server communication
b) a client program
c) a server program
d) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
vi) The remote method invocation __________
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
Answer:b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
2. i) The local operating system on the server machine passes the incoming packets to the
a) server stub
b) client stub
c)client operating system
d)none of the above
Answer: a) server stub
ii) Which steps occur when establishing a TCP connection between two computers using
sockets?
a) The server instantiates a ServerSocket object, denoting which port number communication
is to occur on
b) The server invokes the accept() method of the ServerSocket class. This method waits until
a client connects to the server on the given port
c) After the server is waiting, a client instantiates a Socket object, specifying the server name
and port number to connect to
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
iii) The local host and remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes we
need second identifiers called
a)UDP addresses
b)Transport addresses
c)Port addresses
d)None of the above
Answer: c) Port addresses
iv) Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
Answer: d) Demultiplexing and error checking
v) Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
Answer: a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
vi) What happens if ServerSocket is not able to listen on the specified port?
a) The system exits gracefully with appropriate message
b) The system will wait till port is free
c) IOException is thrown when opening the socket
d) PortOccupiedException is thrown
Answer: c) IOException is thrown when opening the socket
3. i)Which method is used to close the WebSocket?
a) Socket.flush()
b) Socket.close()
c) Socket.Close()
d) Socket.dispose()
Answer: b) Socket.close()
ii) How does the client and the server communicate following the rules defined by the
WebSocket protocol?
a) Long-lived TCP Socket
b) Short-lived TCP Socket
c) UDP Socket
d) HTTP Socket
Answer: a) Long-lived TCP Socket
iii) Socket programming is an important building block for developing network applications.
For a Socket, which of the following statements does not hold?
a) In general, Sockets use a client-server architecture.
b) A pair of processes communicating over a network employ a pair of sockets one for each
process.
c)A socket is identified by an IP address concatenated with a port number.
d) None of the above.
Answer: d) None of the above.
iv) How will you transmit data using the connection?
a) send(data)
b) Socket.send("data")
c) Socket.send(data)
d) Socket(data)
Answer: c) Socket.send(data)
v) The remote method invocation __________
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
Answer: b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
vi) A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can
communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
Answer: c) Remote Procedure Call

UNIT 3

PART :A
1. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________. (L1)
A) semicolons
B) dots
C) colons
D) none of the above
Ans: B
2. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.(L1)
A) domain server
B) zone server
C) root server
D) none of the above
Ans:C
3. The _________ attribute specifies the web page to be placed in the frame initially.(L1)
A) name
B) src
C) cols
D) rows
Ans:b
4. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this space is a
sequence
of characters without structure.(L1)
A) flat
B) hierarchical
C) organized
D) Connection-Oriented
Ans:A
4. Identify server loads all information from the primary server.(L2)
A) primary
B) secondary
C) zone
D) none of the above
Ans:B
5. Which server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________.(L2)
A) domain
B) label
C) zone
D) none of the above
Ans:C
6. Which command is used to send the password to the server (L2)
A) PASSWD
B) PASS
C) PASSWORD
C) PWORD
Ans:B
7. Recognize the domain that is used to map an address to a name.(L2)
A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
D) none of the above
Ans:C
8. Find the a string with a maximum number of characters in the tree that has label.(L3)
A) label; 127
B) name; 255
C) 63
D) none of the above
Ans:63
9.If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP
connections between A and B is _______
A) 5
B) 10
C) 2
D) 6
Ans:D
10.Find the number of TCP connections between A and if 5 files are transferred from server A to
client B in the same session.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 2
D) 6
Ans:D
11. HTTP uses the services of TCP on ______________well-known port
A) 17
B) 88
C) 15
D) 80
Ans: D
12. What is the use of POST method?
A) Sends information from the client to the server
B) Requests a document from the server
C) Sends a document from the server to the client
D) Echoes the incoming request
Ans: A
13. What is the status code for “OK” status phrase?
A) 202
B) 200
C) 201
D) 204
Ans: B
14. What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
A) to provide storage for email
B) to translate URLs to IP addresses
C) to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
D) to provide an IP configuration information to hosts
Answer: D
15. The DHCP server issues a passive open command on UDP ______________port number
and
waits for a client.
A) 69
B) 66
C) 67
D) 68
Ans: C
16. What is the correct order of mail transfer phase in SMTP?
A) Connection establishment, Mail transfer, Connection termination.
B) Mail transfer, Connection termination, Connection establishment
C) Connection termination, Connection establishment, Mail transfer
D) Connection establishment, Connection termination.
Ans: A
17. A simple protocol used for fetching e-mail from a mailbox is
A) POP2
B) POP3
C) IMAP
D) SCTP
Ans: B
18. A user can create, delete, or rename mailboxes on the mail server using ____________
protocol
A) POP2
B) POP3
C) IMAP
D) SCTP
Ans: C
19. Which protocol transforms non-ASCII data at the sender site to NVT ASCII data and
delivers it to the client MTA to be sent through the Internet?
A) POP2
B) POP3
C) IMAP
D) MIME
Ans: D
20. Which is not a subtype of multipart type?
A) Mixed
B) Parallel
C) Plain
D) Digest
Ans: C
PART:B
1.(i)DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.(L1)
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above
Ans:B
(ii) In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label.
A) chal
B) atc
C) fhda
D) none of the above
Ans:A
2.(i) The root of the DNS tree is _______.(L1)
A) a string of characters
B) a string of 63 characters
C) an empty string
D) none of the above
Ans:C
(ii) When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer.
A) domain
B) zone
C) label
D) none of the above
Ans:B
3. (i)Identify the domain which has pointer query.(L2)
A) inverse
B) reverse
C) root
D) none of the above
Ans:A
(ii). Which domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior.
A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
D) none of the above
Ans:A
4.(i) Identify the subtree of the domain name space.(L2)
A) label
B) name
C) domain
D) none of the above
Ans:C
(ii) Which of the following is not a type of browser?
A) Netscape
B) Web
C) IE
D) Mozilla
Ans:B
5. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.(L3)
A) 331 – Username OK, password required
B) 425 – Can’t open data connection
C) 452 – Error writing file
D) 452 – Can’t open data connection
Ans:D
6. Which among the following are the methods in HTTP request message?
A. GET
B. POST
C. HEAD
D. REMOVE
E. PUT
F. DISCONNECT
ANS: A,B,C,E
7. (I) What is the correct description of authorization request header in HTTP?
A. Identifies the client program
B. Shows what permissions the client has
C. Shows the media format the client can accept
D. Shows the character set the client can handle
ANS: B
(II) What is the correct description of accept request header in HTTP?
A. Identifies the client program
B. Shows what permissions the client has
C. Shows the media format the client can accept
D. Shows the character set the client can handle
ANS: C
8. Which among the following are the information provided by DHCP?
A. The IP address of the computer
B. The subnet mask of the computer
C. MAC address of computer
D. Mac address of router
E. The IP address of a router
F. The IP address of a name server
ANS: A,B,E,F
9. (i) How many user agent is needed When the sender and the receiver of an e-mail are on the
same mail server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. no agent is required
ANS: B
(iI) How many MTA pair is needed When the sender and the receiver of an e-mail are on
different mail server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. no MTA is required
ANS: A
10. (i) How many MAA pair is needed When both sender and receiver are connected to the mail
server via a LAN or a WAN,?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. no agent is required
ANS: A
(ii) How many MTA pair is needed When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN
or a WAN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. no MTA is required
ANS: B
PART:C
1.(i)In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.
A) a linear list
B) an inverted-tree
C) a graph
D) none of the above
Ans:B
(ii). Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
A) IP
B) TCP
C) Hyperlink
D) Network
Ans:B
(iii). The _________ attribute specifies the web page to be placed in the frame initially.
A) name
B) src
C) cols
D) rows
Ans:B
(iv) FTP is built on _____ architecture.
A) Client-server
B) P2P
C) Data centric
D) Service oriented
Ans:A
2.(i) 4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.(L2)
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
Ans:C
(ii) The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is
________
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) Message mode
Ans:A
(iii)Recognize the domain that is used to map an address to a name.(L2)
A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
D) none of the above
Ans:C
(iv)Which command is used to list the subdirectories (L2)
A) LISTD
B) LIST
C) LWORD
D) PWORD
Ans:B
3(i). Find the FTP messages which are correctly matched(L3)
(i)PASV- Define the organization of the data
(ii)STRU- Server chooses port
(iii)MODE- similar to STOR except if file excepts
(iv)APPE- Define the transmission mode
A) ii,i,iv,iii
B) i,ii,iv,iii
C) ii,i,iii,iv
D) ii,iii,iv,i
Ans:A
(ii) FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Ans:B
(iii)The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the
control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
A) 8
B) 7
C) 3
D) 5
Ans:B
4. (i) Which among the following is not a keyword in SMTP command?
A) HELO
B) DELETE
C) DATA
D) QUIT
Ans: B
(ii) Which among the following is a Positive Completion Reply in SMTP response?
A) System status or help reply
B) Start mail input
C) Help message
D) Service ready
E) Service not available
F) Service closing transmission channel
Ans: A,C,D,F
(iii) Which among the following is a Permanent Negative Completion Reply in SMTP response?
A) System status or help reply
B) Syntax error; unrecognized command
C) Syntax error in parameters or arguments
D) Command temporarily not implemente
E) Service not available
F) User not local
Ans: B,C,D,F
5. (i) Which among the following are the functions of IMAP4?
A) A user can check the e-mail header prior to downloading.
B) A user can search the contents of the e-mail for a specific string of characters prior to
downloading.
C) A user can create, delete, or rename mailboxes on the mail server.
D) A user cannot create, delete, or rename mailboxes on the mail server.
E) A user cannot create a hierarchy of mailboxes in a folder for e-mail storage.
F) A user can create a hierarchy of mailboxes in a folder for e-mail storage.
Ans: A,B,C,F
(ii) Which among the following are MIME headers?
A) MIME-Version
B) Content-Type
C) Content-Transfer-Encoding
D) Content-Id
E) Content explain
F) Content decode
Ans: A,B,C,D
(iii) Which is not a message subtype in MIME?
A) RFC822
B) JPEG
C) Partial Body
D) External-Body
Ans: B
6. Match status phrase with status code
Status code Status phrase
A 400 1 Bad request
B 401 2 Not acceptable
C 403 3 Unauthorized
D 404 4 Method not allowed
E 405 5 Forbidden
F 406 6 Not found
A) A-1,B-6,C-2,D-5,E-3,F-4
B) A-6,B-1,C-2,D-5,E-3,F-4
C) A-1,B-6,C-5,D-2,E-3,F-4
D) A-1,B-6,C-2,D-5,E-4,F-3
Ans: A

UNIT 4

PART-A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. An IP V6 address is___________.
a. 128 bits
b. 64 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 8 bits
ANSWER: a
2. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies___________.
a. colon hexadecimal notation
b. dotted decimal notation
c. hexa decimal notation
d. decimal notation
ANSWER: a
3. Two bytes in hexadecimal notation require _________ hexadecimal digits.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
ANSWER : a
4. Show the unabbreviated colon hex notation for the following IPv6 addresses:
An address with 64 0s followed by 64 1s.
a. 0000:0000:0000:0000:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
b. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000
c. FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
d. AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA
ANSWER : a
5. Show the unabbreviated colon hex notation for the following IPv6 addresses:
An address with 128 1s.
a. 0000:0000:0000:0000:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
b. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000
c. FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
d. AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA:AAAA
ANSWER : c
6. Show abbreviations for the following address:
0000:0000:FFFF:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000
a. 0:0:FFFF::
b. 1234:2346::1111
c. 0:1::1200:1000
d. ::FFFF:24.123.12.6
ANSWER : a
7. Find the interface identifier if the physical address in the EUI is (F5-A9-23-EF-07-14-
7A-D2)16 using the format we defined for Ethernet addresses.
a. F7A9:23EF:0714:7AD2
b. F7:A9:23:EF:07:14:7A:D2
c. F:7A9:2:3EF:0:714:7:AD2
d. F7:A9:23EF:07:14:7AD2
ANSWER: a
8. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
ANSWER: c
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address.
a. Broadcast
b. Multicast
c. Any cast
d. Unicast
ANSWER: a
10. What is disadvantage of NAT
a. Conserves the legally registered addresses
b. Loss of end to end IP traceability
c. Eliminates address renumbering as network changes
d. None of above
ANSWER: b
11. Which term is not related to NAT
a. inside local
b. outside local
c. inside global
d. external global
ANSWER: d
12. Meaning of Outside local
a. Name of inside source address before translation
b. Name of destination host before translation
c. Name of inside host after translation
d. Name of outside destination host after translation
ANSWER: b
13. Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address?
a. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
b. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called
a one-to-many address.
c. Identifies multiple interfaces and is only delivered to one address. This address
can also be called one-to-one-of-many.
d. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally
unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap
ANSWER: b
14. Which of the following is true when describing a global unicast address?
a. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
b. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly
routable address in IPv4.
c. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
d. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally
unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
ANSWER: b
15. Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
a. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
b. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly
routable address in IPv4.
c. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
d. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally
unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
ANSWER: c
16. Which statement(s) about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true?
a. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexidecimal.
b. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal.
c. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal.
d. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexidecimal.
ANSWER:c
17. Which are considered the methods of NAT?
1. Static
2. IP NAT pool
3. Dynamic
4. NAT double-translation
5. Overload
a. 1 and 6
b. 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. All of the above
ANSWER:c
18. An organization is assigned the block 2000:1456:2474/48. What is the CIDR notation for
theblocks in the first and second subnets in this organization.
a. 2000:1456:2474:0000/64 and 2000:1456:2474:0001/64
b. 2000:1456:2474:0000/64 and 2000:1456:2474:0002/64
c. 2000:1456:2474:0001/64 and 2000:1456:2474:0002/64
d. 2000:1456:2474:0000/64 and 2000:1456:2474:0000/48
ANSWER: a
19. Assume a host with Ethernet address (F5-A9-23-11-9B-E2)16 has joined the network.
Whatwould be its global unicast address if the global unicast prefix of the organization
is3A21:1216:2165 and the subnet identifier is A245:1232.
a. ::F5A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
b. 3A21:1216:2165::F5A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
c. 3A21:1216:2165:A245:1232:F7A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
d. 3A21:1216:2165:A245:1232:F5A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
ANSWER: c
20. Assume a host with Ethernet address (F5-A9-23-11-9B-E2)16 has joined the network.
What would be its link local address ?
a. FE80::F7A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
b. FE10::F7A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
c. FE00::F7A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
d. FE80::F5A9:23FF:FE11:9BE2
ANSWER: a
PART-B ( 4 Marks EACH)
1)An Internet Service Provider(ISP) has the following chunk of CIDR-based IP addresses
available with it:245.248.128.0/20. The ISP wants to give half of this chunk of addresses to
Organization A, and a quarter to Organization B, while retaining the remaining with itself.
Which of the following is a valid allocation of addresses to A and B?
(A) 245.248.136.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
(B) 245.248.128.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
(C) 245.248.132.0/22 and 245.248.132.0/21
(D) 245.248.136.0/22 and 245.248.132.0/21
Answer (A)
Since routing prefix is 20, the ISP has 2^(32-20) or 2^12 addresses. Out of these 2^12
addresses,
half (or 2^11) addresses have to be given to organization A and quarter (2^10) addresses have
to
be given to organization B. So routing prefix for organization A will be 21. For B, it will be 22.
If we see all options given in question, only options (A) and (B) are left as only these options
have same number of routing prefixes. Now we need to choose from option (A) and (B).
To assign addresses to organization A, ISP needs to take first 20 bits from 245.248.128.0 and
fix
the 21st bit as 0 or 1. Similarly, ISP needs to fix 21st and 22nd bits for organization B. If we take
a closer look at the options (A) and (B), we can see the 21st and 22nd bits for organization B
are
considered as 0 in both options. So 21st bit of organization A must be 1. Now take the first 20
bits from 245.248.128.0 and 21st bit as 1, we get addresses for organization A as
245.248.136.0/21
2)In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C addresses
is
(A) 2^14
(B) 2^7
(C) 2^21
(D) 2^24
Answer
In class C, 8 bits are reserved for Host Id and 24 bits are reserved for Network Id. Out of these
24 Network Id bits, the leading 3 bits are fixed as 110. So remaining 21 bits can be used for
different networks. See this for more details.
3) Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a
oneto-many address.
C. Identifies multiple interfaces and is only delivered to one address. This address can also
be called one-to-one-of-many.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Packets addressed to a multicast address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the
multicast
address, the same as in IPv4. It is also called a one-to-many address. You can always tell a
multicast address in IPv6 because multicast addresses always start with FF. 4) Which of the
following is true when describing a unicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. For load balancing,
multiple interfaces can use the same address
.5) Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
6) Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
7) Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
8)Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
9) Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
10)Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so
it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a small
LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services locally.
PART-C (12 Marks)
1a) Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique
so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a
small LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services
locally.
1b)
Which of the following is true when describing a link-local address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique
so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link-local addresses are meant for throwing together a temporary LAN for meetings or a
small LAN that is not going to be routed but needs to share and access files and services
locally.  1c) Dynamic NAT _____________.
A. always maps a private IP address to a public IP address
B. provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses
C. provides a mapping of internal host names to IP addresses
D. dynamically provides IP addressing to internal hosts
2a) What is the LLMNR multicast destination addresses for IPv6?
A. fe80::01
B. ff00:ffff
C. ffff::0001
D. ff01::3:1
2b)What is the LLMNR multicast destination address for IPv4?
A. 224.0.0.252
B. 255.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.255
D. 255.255.255.255
2c) What will happen if you disable IPv6?
A. There will be no effect to the local network.
B. The amount of network traffic will increase.
C. Network Discovery will stop working.
D. You cannot disable IPv6.
3a)In IPv4, what is the length of 12 and total length value
A. 39,988
B. 40,012
C.40,048
D.39,952
3b) In IPv4, what is the value header is 28 bytes and the data field of 400 bytes?
A.428
B. 407
C.107
D.427
3c) In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value 100 its means?_____
A. the datagram has not been fragmented
B. the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C.the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
D.the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
4a. In IPv4, an HLEN value
A. there are 10 bytes of options
B. there are 40 bytes of options
C.there are 40 bytes in the header
D.none of the above
4b). In IPv4, which field datagram as a fragment?
A. Do not fragment bit ? 0
B. More Fragment bit ? 0
C.Fragment offset = 1000
D.none of the above
4c). The IPv4 header size
A. is 20 to 60 bytes long
B. is 20 bytes long
C.is 60 bytes long
D.none of the above
5a). In IPv4, when a datagram size of the datagram must
A. MUT
B. MAT
C.MTU
D.none of the above
5b)You want to ping the loopback address of your local host(with IPv6). What will you type?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping 0.0.0.0
C. ping ::1
D. trace 0.0.::1
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The loopback address with IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. With IPv6, that address is ::1. 5c)Which
statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
1. Leading zeros are required.
2. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
3. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
4. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be
replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be
removed. Just as with IPv4, a single device's interface can have more than one address; with
IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be link-local,
global
unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.
6a) Which command will show you all the translations active on your router
A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations
6b) Which command would you place on the interface on a private network
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat outside
C. ip outside global
D. ip inside local
6c) Meaning of Outside local
A. Name of inside source address before translation
B. Name of destination host before translation
C. Name of inside host after translation
D. Name of outside destination host after translation

UNIT 5

PART-A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The Very high-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line's (VDSAL) downstream rate is
A. 768 kbps
B. 1.5 Mbps
C. 1.5-6.1 Mbps
D. 25-55 Mbps
ANSWER: D
2.The High-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL) uses two twisted pairs to achieve
A. full-duplex transmission
B. half-duplex transmission
C. decoding
D. encoding
ANSWER: A
3. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel
ANSWER : C
4. The function of DSLAM is to __________
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
ANSWER : A
5.Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
ANSWER : D
6. Home Access is provided by __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
ANSWER : A
7.Which of the following factors affect transmission rate in DSL?
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interference
c) Shadow fading
d) The gauge of the twisted-pair line and degree of electrical interference
ANSWER: D
8.There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
ANSWER: C
9. It is cheaper and provides better network reliability than other carriers.______
a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
ANSWER: D
10.Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called _______
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
ANSWER: A
11. ATM uses a constant data stream consisting of transmission cells to transmit information
in inside local
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing
ANSWER: B
12. An ATM field contains a header and a payload. The header is of 5 bytes and the payload
is
a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
ANSWER: B
13. The HEC field contains an 8-bit CRC which is used for error control. Frame relay has
error detection at the ______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
ANSWER: B
14. ATM technology supports different types of connections between two
A. Stations
B. Switches
C . End Users
D. Packages
ANSWER: C
15. ATM LAN architecture is of
A. 2types
B. 3types
C. 4types
D. 5types
ANSWER: A
PART-B ( 4 Marks EACH)
1) Binding between an IP address and a physical address is attained through a protocol . The
switches inside the ATM network route the cells based on
(A) ATM, ARP, VIRTUAL CIRCUIT IDENTIFIERS
(B) ATM,PHYSICAL ADDRESSES
C) ATM, ARP, IP ADDRESSES
(D) ATM,PACKET SNIFFING
Answer (A) PG: 209
2)How does the ATM server build its mapping table? , ATM network can be divided into logical
(not physical) subnetworks. This facilitates the operation of
(A) ATM, ARP AND INVERSE MESSAGE,IGMP
(B) ATM, ARP AND INVERSE MESSAGES,ICMP
(C) ATM, ARP AND INVERSE MESSAGES,IGMP
(D) ATM, ARP AND INVERSE MESSAGE,IGMP
Answer : C PG:217
3). Frame Relay provides ________. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes;
it
is _____ in the last byte of the address.______ eliminates the varying delay times associated
with
different-size packets.
A) SVCs,0, Frame Relay
B) PVCs,3, X.25
C) either (a) or (b), 1, ATM
D) neither (a) nor (b),2, all of the above
Answer:C
4) the data at the IP level must be 53 5 20 27 bytes because
A) 20 BYTES IP AND 5 BYTES FOR ATM . B) 20 BYTES IP DATAGRAM AND 5 BYTES FOR
ATM
C) 20 BYTES IP AND 5 BYTES FOR IP DATAGRAM
D) 20 BYTES IP HEADER AND 5 BYTES FOR ATM HEADER. Answer: Option D
PG:.208
5. User may want to send data at 6 Mbps for 2 seconds, 0 Mbps (nothing)
for 7 seconds, and 3.44 Mbps for 1 second for a total of 15.44 Mb during a period of
10 seconds WHAT TYPE OF DATA IS USED HERE
A)BURSTY DATA
B)DATA OVER HEAD
C)HIGH DATA RATE
D)ITU-T
ANSWER: A
PG: 78
PPP
1. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the
connection/link on the network?
a) LCP
b) NCP
c) Both LCP and NCP
d) TCP
Answer: c
Explanation: LCP stands for Link Control Protocol and NCP stands for Network Control
Protocol. LCP and NCP are the PPP protocols which provide interface for handling the
capabilities of the connection/link on the network.
2. The PPP protocol _________
a) Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers
b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet connection over a phone line
c) Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers and making an
Internet connection over a phone line
d) Is used for sharing bandwidth
Answer: c
Explanation: The PPP protocol is designed for handling simple links which transport packets
between two peers. It is a standard protocol that is used to make an Internet connection over
phone lines.
3. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.
a) Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Application
Answer: a
Explanation: PPP provides function of the link layer in the TCP/IP suite. It focuses on the link
between two nodes that is going to be used by the users to communicate. It can use
pre-installed
phone line for the purpose.
4. PPP consists of ________components
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)
b) Three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)
c) Two (a link control protocol, Simple Network Control protocol)
d) One (Simple Network Control protocol)
Answer: b
Explanation: PPP consists of three components namely Link Control Protocol (LCP), Network
Control Protocol (NCP), and Encapsulation. LCP and NCP are the PPP protocols which provide
interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network and encapsulation
provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols.
5. The PPP encapsulation ____________
a) Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning and end of the encapsulation
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
d) Provides interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network
Answer: a
Explanation: Encapsulation is a part of PPP which provides means for multiplexing of different
network-layer protocols. The other two parts of PPP are Link Control Protocol and Network
Control Protocol.
6. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for ____________
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
b) Establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols
c) Testing the different network-layer protocols
d) Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
Answer: a
Explanation: The Link Control Protocol (LCP) is the part of PPP that is used for establishing,
configuring and testing the data-link connection. The other two components are Network Control
Protocol and Encapsulation.
7. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) ____________
a) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide a dynamic
b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide transparent
d) The same as NFS
Answer: b
Explanation: The family of network control protocols (NCPs) is a series of independentlydefined
protocols that encapsulate the data flowing between the two nodes. It provides means for
the network nodes to control the link traffic.
8. Choose the correct statement from the following.
a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link establishment phase
c) PPP can terminate the link during the authentication phase
d) PPP can terminate the link during the callback control phase
Answer: a
Explanation: PPP allows termination of the link at any time in any phase because it works on the
data link layer which is the layer in control of the link of the communication.
9. The link necessarily begins and ends with this phase. During the ______ phase, the LCP
automata will be in INITIAL or STARTING states.
a) Link-termination phase
b) Link establishment phase
c) Authentication phase
d) Link dead phase
Answer: d
Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends with the link dead phase. During this phase,
the LCP automata will be in the initial or its final state. The link is non-functioning or inactive
during the link dead phase.
ATM
1. ATM and frame relay are ________
a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) virtual public networks
Answer: a
Explanation: ATM and frame relay are transmission modes in which information is transferred
through electric circuit layer as packets. ATM has fixed packet size and frame relay has variable
packet size.
2. ATM uses _______________
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: ATM uses a constant data stream consisting of transmission cells to transmit
information in a fixed division of time. The packet size remains fixed.
3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: The three layers are physical layer, ATM layer and application adoption layer. The
physical layer corresponds to the physical layer, ATM layer corresponds to the data link layer
and the AAL layer corresponds to the network layer of the OSI model.
4. ATM can be used for ________
a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) campus area network
d) networks covering any range
Answer: d
Explanation: ATM is a connection oriented network for cell relay which can be implemented for
networks covering any area. It uses Time Division Multiplexing and supports voice, video and
data communications.
5. An ATM cell has the payload field of __________
a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
Answer: b
Explanation: An ATM field contains a header and a payload. The header is of 5 bytes and the
payload is of 48 bytes. The size of the header remains fixed.
6. Frame relay has error detection at the ______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Frame Relay header contains an 8-bit Header Error Control field (HEC). The
HEC field contains an 8-bit CRC which is used for error control.
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called ______
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Data Link Connection Identifier is 10-bit virtual circuit identifier. It is used to
assign frames to the specified Permanent Virtual Circuits or Switched Virtual Circuits.
8. Frame relay has _______
a) only physical layer
b) only data link layer
c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is guided by the protocols recognized by the ANSI. The data
link layer supports the simplified core functions specified by the OSI model.
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used _______
a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: Extended address is indicated by the last bit of every address byte in the DLCI. It
specifies whether the byte is the last in the addressing field. It is used to increase the range of
data link connection identifiers.
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) FRAD is used for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for Frame Relay Assembler/Disassembler. It converts packets into
frames that can be transmitted over Frame Relay Networks. It operates at the physical layer.
FRAME RELAY
1. Frame Relay is cheaper than other _____
a) LANs
b) WANs
c) MANs
d) Multipoint Networks
Answer: b
Explanation: Frame relay is a standardized wide area network technology and is popularly used
because it is cheaper than leased line WANs. It is also very simple to configure user equipment
in a Frame Relay network.
2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called _______
a) Voice Over For Relay
b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay
Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an option called Voice over Frame Relay, which
transmits voice and voice-band data over a Frame Relay network. It has two sub-protocols
FRF11 and FRF12.
3. There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay is a wide area network technology used to transmit information over a
network in the form of frames using relays. The frames are of variable size. It is cheaper than
other WANs and it’s simple to configure user equipment in the network.
4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the ______
a) Lower Level Protocol
b) Highest Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol
d) Lowest Level Protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay only provides error detection using CRC. If errors are detected, the
upper-layer protocols, such as TCP are expected to provide error correction features. Network
layer provides flow control.
5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such as _______
a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relays uses carriers such as SONET (for fiber-optic connections) to
physically transmit data frames over a Frame Relay network. SONET is cheaper and provides
better network reliability than other carriers.
6. Frame relay provides error detection at the ______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frame relay provides error detection using CRC in the data link layer. The
transport
layer then provides the error correction features if an error is detected.
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called _______
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Data Link Connection Identifier is 10-bit virtual circuit identifier. It is used to
assign frames to the specified Permanent Virtual Circuits or Switched Virtual Circuits.
8. Frame relay has only _______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) physical layer and data link layer
d) network layer and data link layer
Answer: c
Explanation: The physical layer is guided by the protocols recognized by the ANSI and provides
conversion to frames. The data link layer supports the simplified core functions specified by the
OSI model like error detection.
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used ________
a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: Extended address is indicated by the last bit of every address byte in the DLCI. It
specifies whether the byte is the last in the addressing field. It is used to increase the range of
data link connection identifiers.
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) FRAD is used for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for Frame Relay Assembler/Disassembler. It converts packets into
frames that can be transmitted over Frame Relay Networks. It operates at the physical layer.
HDLC
1. HDLC is oriented protocol
a) Byte oriented Protocol
b) Bit oriented Protocol
c) Message oriented Protocol
d) Fixed sized Cells
2. Which of the following is not true?
a) HDLC implements ARQ mechanisms
b) It doesn’t use unbalanced Configurations
c) In ABM, the stations are in combined mode
d) Secondary stations can’t post commands
3. Which of the following is not a type of frame in HDLC?
a) I frame
b) S frame
c) V frame
d) U frame
4. Which of the following is not a type of frame in Control field of HDLC?
a) Receive Ready
b) Receive not Ready
c) Conditional Reject
d) Selective Reject
5. If first 2 bits of Control field are 11, then it is
a) I frame
b) S frame
c) V frame
d) U frame
MPLS
1. Which routing protocol do MPLS providers typically use internally in the provider’s network?
A. MP-BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer A.
Explanation
MPLS providers typically use Multiprotocol-Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) internally.
This is because MP-BGP can advertise multiple routes while allowing logical separation
between
customers’ routes.
2. You have been asked to recommend a private WAN technology. All of the remote offices
have varied physical connectivity paths. Which private WAN technology should you
recommend?
A. MPLS
B. Metro Ethernet
C. PPPoE
D. GRE tunnels
Answer A.
Explanation
Multiprotocol Label Switching allows for varied access links such as serial leased lines, Frame
Relay, Metro Ethernet, and so on. You can leverage the existing connectivity methods to form a
private WAN.
3. ( CE router –Customer Edge Router, PE router – Provider Edge Router)
Which statement about using MPLS and dynamic routing protocols is true?
A. CE routers form neighbor relations with other CE routers.
B. CE routers form neighbor relations with PE routers.
C. CE routers receive their routing updates with route redistribution from PE routers.
D. CE routers receive their routing updates with route redistribution from other CE routers.
Answer C.
Explanation
CE routers do not form adjacencies or neighbors (depending on protocol) with other CE routers.
They depend on PE routers and route redistribution of routing protocols to receive their routing
updates and tables.
4. When using MPLS and OSPF, the PE routers function as what?
A. Autonomous system boundary routers
B. Super backbone routers
C. Area border routers
D. Point-to-multipoint routers
Answer B.
Explanation
Every area must connect back to the backbone area. However, CE routers cannot create
neighborships with other sites. So the MPLS PE routers can either extend area or create the
area
in network, which is called a super backbone.
5 When working with the MPLS provider on providing QoS, which is a consideration for the
customer?
A. MPLS support of DSCP markings
B. MPLS support of multiple access link technologies
C. Redistribution of routing protocols
D. Internal speed of the customer network
Answer B.
Explanation
Although all of these can be considerations for the customer, the largest impact can be the
access
link technology used between the PE and CE routers. If the customer uses Frame Relay, the
QOS
can be unusable because of discarded frames due to congestion.
6. When a customer purchases MPLS and supports EIGRP, which statement is correct?
A. The customer can opt to have the PE provide EIGRP.
B. The customer can configure all of the EIGRP routers to use the same Autonomous System
Number (ASN).
C. The customer must configure all of the EIGRP routers to use different Autonomous System
Numbers (ASNs).
D. All of the routers must share the super backbone.
Answer B.
Explanation
The customer has the option to configure each site with a different Autonomous System Number
(ASN) for EIGRP, or they can configure all sites with the same ASN.
Regardless, the routes would be route redistributed from the internal Multiprotocol-Border
Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) process on the Provider Edge (PE) routers.