Nust Chemistry 1550

CHM-II-CHP-01.
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CHM-II-CHP-02.docx
CHM-II-CHP-03.docx
CHM-II-CHP-04.docx
CHM-II-CHP-05.docx
CHM-II-CHP-06.docx
CHM-II-CHP-07.docx
CHM-II-CHP-08.docx
CHM-II-CHP-09.docx
CHM-II-CHP-10.docx
CHM-II-CHP-11.docx
CH-01_ Introduction to Fundamental Concepts of Chemistry.docx CH-
02_ Three States of Matter (Part-1- Gases).docx
CH-02_ Three States of Matter (Part-2- Liquids & Solids).docx CH-
03_The Atomic Structure.docx
CH-04_Chemical Bonding.docx
CH-05_Energetics of Chemical Reactions.docx
CH-06_ Chemical Equilibrium.docx
CH-07_Solutions and Electrolytes.docx
CH-08_Introduction to Chemical Kinetics.docx
CHEMISTRY-XII Chapter 1
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION
1. The process to arrange the elements in specific order is called . 1

a) Classification b) Arithmetic
c) Volume d) Pressure A
2. In these days, the classification of elements is based on numbers of the 2
elements
a) Classification b) Atomic
c) Molecular d) None of these B
3. The Triad system was introduced by in 1817. 3
a) Mayer b) Newland
c) Dobereiner d) Mendeleev C
4. According to Dobereiner’s laws, “The atomic mass of middle element of the triad is 4
approximately the of the atomic masses of the other two elements”.
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Simple d) Average D
5. The law of octaves was introduced by in 1866. 5
a) Dobereiner b) Maxwell
c) Newland d) Cathey C
6. Mendeleev was introduced his periodic law in . 6
a) 1869 b) 1875
c) 1904 d) 1709 A
7. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, “The properties of elements were the 7
function of their atomic masses”.
a) Modern b) Periodic
c) Mass d) None of these B
8. Mendeleev’s periodic table deals with the 8
a) Prediction of new elements b) Prediction of old elements
c) Modern theories d) None of these A
9. Mendeleev placed Argon (40) before . 9
a) Carbon (6) b) Nitrogen (9)
c) Potassium (39) d) Iodine (126.9) C
10. Atomic number was introduced by in 1913. 10
a) Moseley b) Maxwell
c) Joule d) Henry A
11. The wavelength of x-rays decreases with the of atomic number of 11
elements.
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Space d) Function B
12. According to modern periodic law, “The physical and chemical properties of elements 12
are the periodic function of their ”.
a) Molecular number b) Atomic number
c) International d) Wavelength B
13. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called . 13
a) Periods b) Groups
c) Isotopes d) None of these A
14. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called . 14
a) Periods b) Groups
c) Metals d) Actinides B
15. There are periods in periodic table. 15
a) Five b) Four
c) Seven d) Nine C
-1-
16. The first period consists of elements. 16
a) Four b) Three
c) Two d) Nine C
17. There are groups in periodic table. 17
a) Eight b) Seven
c) Six d) Four A
18. The 6th period consists of elements. 18
a) 23 b) 32
c) 12 d) 9 B
19. The 4th and 5th periods are called periods. 19
a) long b) Short
c) Small d) Series A
20. The further divided groups are called . 20
a) Isotopes b) Sub-groups
c) Zero group d) electrons B
21. The group VIII-A is also called 21
a) Zero group b) Halogens
c) Transition group d) Normal A
22. The total number of unpaired electrons present in an atom is called its 22
a) Valency b) Ionization
c) Electronegativity d) Electropositivity A
23. The average of atomic weight and density is called 23
a) Valence shell b) Atomic volume
c) Atomic density d) Ionization energy B
24. When we go from left to right in the same period then the atomic volume 24
c) Periodic d) Arranging A
25. When we go from left to right along the same period then the ionization energy 25
c) Periodic d) Arranging B
26. The process in which an atom forms a negative ion is called 26
a) Periodicity b) Classification
c) Electronegativity d) Electropositivity C
27. The process in which an atom forms a positive ion is called 27
a) Electropositivity b) Classification
c) Electronegativity d) None of these A
28. Mendeleev’s periodic law is based on 28
a) Molecular weight b) Atomic weight
c) Atomic number d) Modern classification B
29. Modern periodic law is based on 29
a) Atomic number b) Atomic weight
c) Periodic table d) None of these A
30. The repetition of a property at regular intervals is called its 30
a) Atomic number b) Periodicity
c) Halogens d) None of these B
31. The discovery of inert gases rejected the law of 31
a) Coinage metals b) Octaves
c) Time table d) None of these B
34. The second and third periods are called periods and contain only eight 32
numbers
a) Short b) Long A
c) Actinides d) Lanthanides
35. The elements of sub-group VII-A are called 33
a) Halogens b) Inert gases
c) Noble gases d) Radon A
2. There are elements have been discovered so far. 34
a) 92 b) 99
c) 110 d) 125 C
3. Dobereiner, German chemist in 1817, arranged similar element into groups of three 35
called:
a) Threeds b) Thrice
c) Tetrads d) Triades D
4. Dobereiner said that the central atom of each set of elements had an atomic mass 36
almost equal to the arithmetical mean of atomic masses of the other ……….
a) Two elements b) Three elements
c) Four elements d) Five elements A
5. Out of so far discovered 110 elements, naturally occurring are: 37
a) 92 b) 100
c) 90 d) 103 A
7. The properties of every eighth element from the given one were similar to the first is 38
the law of:
a) Pentave b) Heptave
c) Octave d) Triades C
9. Lother Meyer, a German chemist found that the …………. of the elements are the 39
periodic function of their atomic weights
a) Periodic properties b) Reactive properties
c) Physical properties d) Chemical properties C
10. In 1868’ Lother Meyer prepared a periodic table containing only ………. 40
a) 64 elements b) 56 elements
c) 48 elements d) 72 elements B
11. The repetition of a property at regular intervals is called its: 41
a) Regularity b) Uniformity
c) Punctuality d) Periodicity D
12. The tabular arrangement of elements on the basis of periodicity of their properties is 42
called:
a) Periodic table b) Time table
c) Office table d) Regular table A
13. The discovery of ………… rejected the law of octaves. 43
a) Halogens b) Inert gases
c) Alkali metals d) Heavy metals B
14. Gold was first placed in the platinum group, but when its atomic mass was corrected it 44
was placed in the …………..
a) Second group b) Zero group
c) First group d) Seventh group C
15. Mendeleev’s periodic table failed to specify a position for: 45
a) Hydrogen b) Sodium
c) Oxygen d) Iron A
16. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, alkali metals were placed with ………. in the first 46
group
a) Alkaline earthly metals b) Rare-earths metals
c) Metaloids d) Coinage metals D
18. “The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their 47
atomic number” is the statement of :
a) Modern periodic law b) Mendeleev’s periodic law
c) Newland’s law d) Dobereiner’s law A
19. The modern periodic table of elements was recommended by the International Union 48
of Pure and Applied Chemists (IUPAC) in ………..
a) 1840 b) 1945
c) 1920 d) 1892 D
21. In the periodic table groups are in the: 49
a) Right side b) Horizontal columns
c) Vertical columns d) Left side C
22. The s-block elements include the elements of group ………. of the periodic table. 50
a) I-A and II-A b) I-B and II-B
c) III-A and IV-A d) III-B and IV-B A
23. The elements in which the electrons are being filled in the ‘s’ sub-shell are called: 51
a) d-block elements b) f-block elements
c) p-block elements d) s-block elements D
24. The p-block elements are those in which ……… are being filled in the ‘p’ sub-shell. 52
a) Protons b) Electrons
c) Neutrons d) Nucleons B
25. The elements of sub-group III-A, IV-A, V-A, VI-A, VII-A and VIII-A of the periodic 53
table are included in:
a) s-block elements b) p-block elements
c) d-block elements d) f-block elements B
26. In f-block elements the electrons are being filled in the ‘f’ sub-shell and includes: 54
a) Lanthanides and actinides b) Transition elements
c) typical elements d) I and II groups A
27. The ’s’ and ‘p’ block elements are collectively called: 55
a) Transition elements b) Rare-earth elements
c) Typical elements d) Transuranium elements C
28. The series of rare-earth elements which starts from Lanthanum are called: 56
a) Typical elements b) Transition elements
c) Actinides d) Lanthanides D
29. The first period contains two elements hydrogen and: 57
a) Helium b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen d) Chlorine A
30. The second and third periods are called short periods and contain only …….. elements 58
each.
a) 10 b) 6
c) 12 d) 8 D
31. The longest period of the periodic table i.e. sixth period contains ……. elements: 59
a) 30 b) 28
c) 32 d) 34 C
32. The sixth period of the periodic table starts from alkali metal Cesium (Cs55) and ends 60
at:
a) Radium (Ra88) b) Actinium (Ac89)
c) Uranium (U92) d) Radon (Rn86) D
33. The elements after uranium (U92) are called: 61
a) Pro-uranium elements b) Trans-uranium elements
c) Pre-uranium elements d) Meta-uranium elements B
34. The elements of sub-groups ‘A’ are called: 62
a) Trans-uranium elements b) Typical elements
c) Transition elements d) Main elements B
36. Coinage metals are elements of sub-group I-B and these includes: 63
a) Cu, Ag, Au b) Zn, Cd, Hg
c) Fe, Co, Ni d) Cu, Zn, Ni A
37. The number of unpaired electrons in the outermost shell of an atom is called its: 64
a) Electronegativity b) Electron affinity
c) Ionization potential d) Valency D
39. The electropositivities of elements decrease from ……… in a period. 65
a) Top to bottom b) Bottom to top
c) Left to right d) Right to left C
40. The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from the 66
outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom in its ground state to form gaseous
positive ion is called its:
a) Ionization potential energy b) Electronegativity
c) Electron affinity d) Electricity A
736. Who made use of the idea of relationship between atomic weights and properties of the 67
elements for their classification?
a) Dobereiner b) Al Razi
c) Newlands d) Lother meyer A
737. Who attempted the classification of elements in order of their increasing atomic 68
weights?
a) Dobereiner b) Al Razi
c) Newlands d) Mendeleev’s C
738. Who said that physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of 69
their atomic weights?
a) Al Razi b) Mendeleev’s
c) Mosely d) Newton B
739. According to Moseley, what is the fundamental property 70
a) Atomic weight b) Atomic number
c) Volume d) Mass B
740. According to modern periodic table, elements are arranged according to ascending 71
order of their
a) Atomic volume b) Atomic weight
c) Atomic number d) Molar mass C
741. Which orbital is in the process of completion in case of transition elements? 72
a) p-orbital b) f-orbital
c) d-orbital d) s-orbital C
742. Which is the longest period of the periodic table? 73
a) 5th b) 7th
th
c) 6 d) 2nd C
743. The properties of the elements are directly related to 74
a) Valency b) Ionization energy
c) Electronegativity d) All these D
745. The fourteen elements following lanthanum are called 75
a) Actinides b) Lanthanides
c) Trans-uranic elements d) None of these B
746. According to modern periodic law, the properties of the elements are directly related 76
to
a) Valency b) Ionization energy
c) Electron affinity d) All these D
747. Which is the transition element among the following? 77
a) B b) Al
c) Cu d) Cs C
748. All the elements in a particular group possess similar 78
a) Electronegativity b) Ionic radii
c) Atomic size d) Valence electronic configuration D
749. Volume in cubic centimeter occupied by one gram atom of the element is known as 79
a) Specific volume b) Molar volume
c) Atomic volume d) None of these C
750. In a group, atomic volume gradually 80
c) Remains constant d) First increases then decreases B
751. The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom of an element in 81
the gaseous state is called
a) Electron affinity b) Electronegativity
c) Ionization energy d) None of these C
752. In a group, the ionization energy 82
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains constant d) First increases then decreases B
753. In a period, the value of ionization energy 83
c) Remains constant d) First increases then decreases A
757. A substances showing variable intensity of property in different directions in called 84
a) Allotropy b) Anisotropy
c) Cleavage d) None of these B
758. To which family does Ga belong 85
a) boron b) carbon
c) nitrogen d) beryllium A
759. To which family does Bi belong 86
a) boron b) carbon
c) nitrogen d) oxygen C
760. The elements of group IA are called 87
a) chalcogens b) halogens
c) alkali metals d) alkaline earth metals C
761. The elements of group IIA are called 88
a) halogens b) noble gases
c) alkali metals d) alkaline earth metals D
762. What is the nature of Na2O? 89
a) basic b) weakly basic
c) strongly basic d) acidic C
763. What is the nature of SO2? 90
a) basic b) strongly basic
c) weakly basic d) amphoteric B
764. What is the nature of Al2O3? 91
a) acidic b) basic
c) amphoteric d) neutral C
765. The element U belongs to 92
a) halogens b) alkali metals
c) actinides d) neutral C
766. The fourth period contains elements 93
a) 8 b) 16
c) 18 d) 32 C
767. The atomic number of iodine is 94
a) 35 b) 53
c) 127 d) 17 B
769. Which of the following is a member of transition series? 95
a) Zn b) Al
c) B d) Br A
770. Which of the following is coinage metal? 96
a) Ag b) Cu
c) Au d) all these D
HYDROGEN
1. Hydrogen is discovered by. 1

a) Cavendish b) Dalton
c) Bohr d) Rutherford A
2. Hydrogen, at ordinary temperature and pressure exist in nature in the. 2
a) Solid state b) Liquid state
c) Gaseous state d) Plasma state C
3. In 1766, first of all Cavendish prepared hydrogen by the action of Zn with. 3
a) Dil. H2SO4 b) Dil. HCl
c) Dil. HNO3 d) Dil. HNO2 B
4. The most abundant compound of hydrogen is. 4
a) H2SO4 b) CH4
c) NaOH d) H20 D
06. Hydrogen atom contains. 5
a) One proton b) Two protons
c) Three neutrons d) No proton A
07. The electron configuration of hydrogen atom is. 6
a) 1s1, 2s1 b) 1s2
1
c) 1s d) 1s2, 2s1 C
08. During the electrolysis of water, oxygen is liberated at the. 7
a) Diode b) Tetrad
c) Cathode d) Anode D
09. The lightest gas in the universe is. 8
a) Nitrogen b) Neon
c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen D
10. Hydrogen atom contain only one electron in its outer most shell (1s1 ) like the atom of. 9
a) Halogens b) Alkali metals
c) Noble gases d) Alkaline earth metals B
11. Like alkali metals the oxidation state of hydrogen is. 10
a) +1 b) -1
c) +2 d) -2 A
12. Hydrogen requires only electron(s) to complete its outer most shell. 11
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four A
13. Hydrogen loses an electron readily to form 12
a) H- b) H+
c) H2 d) 1H2 B
14. Isotopes of an element have the same. 13
a) Atomic weight b) Atomic number
c) Atomic mass d) Number of neutrons B
15. In ordinary hydrogen gas the percentage of protium is. 14
a) 0.0156 b) 15.5
c) 99.98 d) 20.003 C
16. In deuterium atoms the number of neutrons are. 15
a) 0 b) 2
c) 1 d) 3 C
17. The atomic weight of tritium isotope of hydrogen is. 16
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 3 D
-1-
19. When steam is passed over red hot coke at10000C it decomposes to give a mixture of CO and 17
hydrogen gases called.
a) Water glass b) Hot gas
c) Liquid gas d) Water gas D
20. CO gas is liquefied by liquid air at. 18
a) -1920C b) 1920C
c) -1920F d) 1920F A
21. The percentage purity of hydrogen gas, obtained by the hydrolysis of water, is. 19
a) 99% b) 99.9%
c) 100% d) 98% C
22. Natural gas mostly consists of. 20
a) H2 b) CH4
c) N2 d) O2 B
23. Hydrogen gas is absorbed on the surface of certain metals like Ni, Pt and 21
a) U b) V
c) Pd d) W C
22
24. H2 
 K
o
2[H]
a) 273 b) 100
C
c) 1000 d) 550
25. Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen in a chemical reaction is called: 23

a) Oxidation b) Reduction
c) absorption d) Adsorption B
26. Metal oxides when heated in hydrogen are reduced to …………… 24
a) Free metal b) Metal hydride
c) Metal oxide d) Metal peroxide A
27. Addition of hydrogen to a molecule is called. 25
a) Reduction b) Oxidation
c) Hydration d) Hydrogenation D
28. When an edible oil is heated with hydrogen gas in the presence of ……….. as a catalyst, it is 26
solidified due to hydrogenation.
a) Ni b) Co
c) Pt d) Pd A
29. Hydrogenation always occur in the presence of a suitable………. 27
a) Reactants b) Catalyst
c) Temperature d) Chemist B
30. Alkenes are hydrogenated to. 28
a) Alkaline b) Alklyes
c) Alkynes d) Alkanes D
31. Hydrogen reacts readily with halogens to produce. 29
a) Halides b) Sulphides
c) Nitrides d) Phosphines A
32. The preparation of ammonia by the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of a catalyst at 30
high temperature and pressure is called.
a) Salvy process b) Haber process
c) Grignard process d) Cavendish process B
33. Phosphine is formed by heating hydrogen directly with. 31
a) Sulphur b) Nitrogen
c) Phosphorus d) Halogen C
34. Hydrogen at the time of its evolution during a chemical reaction is called. 32
a) Infant hydrogen b) Hydrogen gas
c) Molecular hydrogen d) Nascent hydrogen D
35. The compounds formed by two elements are called. 33
a) Binary compounds b) Tertiary compounds
c) Di-elemental compounds d) Hydrides A
36. Hydrides of alkali metals and alkaline earth metals are called. 34
a) Saline hydrides b) Alkaline hydrides
c) Covalent hydrides d) Complex hydrides A
37. Methane, ammonia, water and hydrogen chloride are. 35
a) Ionic hydrides b) Covalent hydrides
c) Complex hydrides d) Metallic hydrides B
38. Example of complex hydrides are. 36
a) BaH2 and CaH2 b) PH3and SiH
c) TaH0.76and VH0.56 d) NaBH4 and LiAlH4 D
39. Hydrides which are non stoichiometric in nature are. 37
a) Complex hydrides b) Covalent hydrides
c) Metallic hydrides d) Ionic hydrides C
1. The hydrides which are good conductors of electricity in the fused state are. 38
a) Ionic hydride b) Covalent hydrides
c) Complex hydrides d) None of the above A
2. The law of chemical combinations are not obeyed by . 39
a) Ionic hydride b) Covalent hydrides
c) Interstitial hydride d) none of the above C
3. Hydrogen gas was discovered by. 40
a) Lavoiser b) Cavendish
c) Dalton d) None of the above B
4. Isotopes are atoms of the same element which differ only in. 41
a) Electrons b) Neutrons
c) Protons d) None of these B
5. The ordinary hydrogen is named as. 42
a) Protium b) Deuteritium
c) Tritium d) None of the above A
6. The D2O is commonly called. 43
a) Heavy water b) Hard water
c) Soft water d) None of the above A
7. The element of group III-A form. 44
a) Ionic hydride b) Covalent hydride
c) Complex hydride d) None of the above C
8. When hydrogen occupies in small spaces of transition metal known as. 45
a) Ionic hydride b) Covalent hydride
c) Interstitial hydride d) complex hydride C
11. The most abundant compound of hydrogen is. 46
a) CH4 b) H2O
c) NH3 d) H2S B
12. A tritium nucleus has 47
a) Two electrons and one proton
b) One proton and two neutrons
c) One proton and three electrons
d) Three protons and two neutrons B
13. Ionic hydrides are usually. 48
a) Good reducing agent b) Good electrical conductors
c) Bad reducing agent d) Liquids at room temperature A
14. hydrogen is an important constituent of. 49
a) Natural gas b) Petroleum
c) Water d) All of the above D
15. What is the commonest gas in the atmosphere. 50
a) He+ b) H2
c) N2 d) NH3 B
16. The formula of heavy water is. 51
a) D2O b) H2O
c) FeO2 d) T2O A
17. hydrogen exists in nature in the state of ordinary temperature and pressure. 52
a) Solid b) Gaseous
c) Liquid d) None of the above B
18. Salts like hydrides are. 53
a) Solid b) Gaseous
c) Liquid d) Metals A
19. The freezing point of hydrogen is. 54
a) -2520C b) -2590C
c) -1520C d) -3520C B
20. The boiling point of hydrogen is. 55
a) 2590C b) -3590C
c) -2520C d) 1000C C
21. What is the color of hydrogen when it burns in air 56
a) White b) Blue
c) Red d) Green B
22. Larger portion of ordinary hydrogen consists of 57
a) Deuterium b) Protium
c) Tritium d) None of the above B
23. Deuterium is present in ordinary hydrogen gas in 58
a) Great amounts b) Small amounts
c) Does not present d) Ionic hydrides B
24. The atom of same element having the same atomic number but different atomic weights are called. 59
a) Isotopes b) Covalent hydrides
c) Halogens d) Ionic hydrides A
25. The atomic weight of heavy hydrogen is. 60
a) 2 b) 3
c) 1 d) 7 A
26. Bond energy of H2 is. 61
a) 1312 KJ/mole b) 435 KJ/mole
c) 520 KJ/mole d) 430 KJ/mole B
27. The lightest element in nature is. 62
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen d) Helium A
28. 1.008 is the atom weight of. 63
a) Oxygen b) Helium
c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen D
29. In the combined state hydrogen is present in the compounds of . 64
a) Oxygen b) Sulphur
c) Nitrogen d) Carbon C
30. Hydrogen atom contains only electron(s) in its outer most shell (1s1) like alkali metal atoms. 65
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Five A
31. How many electrons are permissible in k-shell? 66
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) A great number A
32. Hydrogen form covalent compounds with. 67
a) Alkali metals b) Halogens
c) Isotopes d) None of the above B
33. Hydrogen is a. 68
a) Diatomic gas b) Monatomic gas
c) Both diatomic and monoatomic d) None of the above A
34. During electrolysis hydrogen gas is deposited at. 69
a) Anode b) Cathode
c) Both of them d) None of the above B
37. Alkali metal hydrides have structures like alkali metals. 70
a) Cubic b) hexagonal
c) Tetrahadel d) None of the above A
40. Hydrogen gas can be prepared on large or industrial scale from. 71
a) Water b) Natural gas
c) Electrolysis of brine d) All of the above A
41. Hydrogen is a/an. 72
a) Colorless gas b) Odourless gas
c) Tasteless d) All of the above D
42. Hydrogen dissociates in to hydrogen atoms at. 73
a) Ordinary temperature b) Higher temperature
c) Lower temperature d) All of the above B
43. Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen in a chemical reaction is called. 74
a) Reduction b) Extraction
c) Purification d) Hydrogenation A
45. Which gas is used in filling weather balloons. 75
a) Helium b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen d) Oxygen C
46. In a hydride ion the outer most shell has. 76
a) One electron b) One electron pair
c) Three electrons d) No electron B
47. The nucleus of deuterium contains. 77
a) One proton only b) One proton and one neutron
c) One proton and two neutrons d) One neutron only B
48. A loss of electron is also called. 78
c) Electrolysis d) Valency A
49. Oxyhydrogen flame gives a temperature 79
of. a) 4000C b) 10000C
c) 20000C d) 40000C D
51. The pink color of KMnO4 is discharged by zinc and dilute HCl due to the process of. 80
a) Reduction b) Both oxidation and reduction
c) Oxidation d) No oxidation and reduction A
53. A boy filled three balloons with different gases. One of the balloons flew at the highest, the gas contained in it 81
was.
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen
c) Helium d) Hydrogen D
55. The element of which group maintained below would be expected to form compounds of formula 82
MH2 type.
a) Group 1A b) Group 11A
c) Group 111A d) Group 1VA B
56. During the electrolysis of 18 gm of actified water hydrogen released at cathode at S.T.P is. 83
a) 18 liters b) 22.4 liters
c) 11.2 liters d) 1 liter B
58. Hydrides of alkaline earth metals are. 84
a) Covalent b) Ionic
c) Coordinate covalent d) Polar B
59. The atomic weights of isotopes of an element are different due to difference in number of. 85
a) Protons only b) Neutrons only
c) Electrons and protons d) Electrons only B
60. The D2O is commonly called. 86
a) Liquid water b) Heavy water
c) Ordinary water d) Water vapors B
61. The most abundant compound of hydrogen among the following is. 87
a) CH4 b) NH3
c) H2O d) H2S C
630. In nature Hydrogen exists in 88
a) Solid state b) Gaseous state
c) Liquid state d) Vapor state B
631. Hydrogen atom have 89
a) one electrons b) Two electrons
c) Three electrons d) Four electrons A
632. Which one of the following is the lightest gas 90
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen d) Helium C
633. Hydrogen gas was discovered by 91
a) Dalton b) Lavoiser
c) Cavendish d) None of these C
634. Hydrogen is used for 92
a) Preparation of methyl alcohol b) Manufacture of tungsten bulb filaments
c) Purification of metals d) All the these D
635. The ordinary hydrogen is named as 93
a) Tritium b) Deuterium
c) Protium d) None o these C
636. Hydrogen forms salt like hydrides with the elements of 94
a) VII A b) IA and II A
c) III A and IV A d) VA and VI A B
637. The boiling point of hydrogen is 95
a) -1000C b) 2590C
c) - 3590C d) -2520C D
639. 1H1 is the symbol of 96
a) Deuterium b) Tritium
c) Protium d) None of these C
640. The freezing point of hydrogen is 97
a) -2590C b) -3520C
c) -2520C d) -152OC A
643. Hydrogen form covalent compounds with 98
a) Halogens b) Isotopes
c) Alkali metals d) None of these A
645. How many electrons are permissible in K- shell 99
a) A great number b) Four
c) Three d) Two D
646. Hydrogen dissociates in to hydrogen atom by 100
a) Lower temperature b) Ordinary temperature
c) High temperature d ) All of the above C
647. Ionic hydrides are usually 101
a) Easily reduced b) Liquids at room temperature
c) Good reducing agents d) Good electrical conducter are in solid state C
648. The addition of hydrogen to a molecule is called 102
a) Halogen b) Reduction
c) Hydrogenation d) None of these C
649. 1H2 is symbol of 103
a) Titrium b) Protium
c) Deutium d) None of these C
651. Bond energy of H2 is 104
a) 430 J/mole b) 520 kJ/mole
c) 1312 kJ/mole d) 435 kJ/mole D
652. 1H3is the symbol of 105
a) Trituium b) Protium
c) Deutrium d) none of these A
653. Tritium nucleus has 106
a) one proton and three neutrons b) one neutron and two proton
c) one proton and two neutrons d) one proton and two electrons C
654. Which gas is used in filling weather balloons 107
a) oxygen b) Hydrogen
c) Helium d) Nitrogen B
655. The D2O is commonly known as 108
a) Soft water b) Heavy water
c) Deuterium d) None of these B
656. Most abundant compound of Hydrogen is 109
a) NH3 b) CH4
c) H2S d) H2O D
659. Hydrogen is commercially prepared by the thermal composition of 110
a) Cellulose b) NaCl
c) Methane d) Ethyne C
661. Hydrogen burns in air with a 111
a) Violet flame b) Red flame
c) Blue flame d) None of these C
663. Hydrogen liquefies at 112
a) 252oC b) -252oC
c) -152oC d) 152oC B
664. Hydrogen occurs in 113
a) Four isotopic form b) Three isotopic form
c) two isotopic form d) one isotopic form B
665. Hydrogen reacts with halogens to give 114
a) Hydrogen sulphides b) Hydrogen halides
c) Hydrogen hydrides d) None of these B
666. Covalent Hydrides generally exists in 115
a) Liquid state b) Solid state
c) Gaseous state d) None of these C
667. During electrolysis hydrogen is deposited at 116
a) cathode b) Anode
c) Both cathod and anode d) None of these A
668. NaH is an example of 117
a) Interstitial hydride b) Complex hydride
c) Ionic hydride d) Covalent hydride C
a) Liquid at room temperature b) Good reducing agent
c) Bad reducing agent d) Good electric conductor B
670. Hydrogen is used in the manufacture of 119
a) Oxygen b) Carbon-dioxide
c) Fertilizer d) None of these C
671. Hydrogen reacts on heating with Phosphorus directly to form 120
a) H2 + CO2 b) H2S
c) PH3 d) None of these C
672. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is 121
a) Hydrogen b) Protium
c) Deuterium d) Tritium D
673. Which of the following metals cannot liberate hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid 122
a) Zn b) Mg
c) Fe d) Cu D
680. Nitric acid (conc.) oxidizes phosphorus to 123
a) H3PO4 b) P2O5
c) H3PO3 d) H4P2O7
A
681. The oxidation number of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide 124
is a) +1 b) -1
C) +2 d) -2 B
693. Hydrogen may be readily prepared by the action of water on 125
a) iron b) HCl
c) zinc d) sodium D
a) liquids at room temperature b) good reducing agents
c) good electrical conductor when solid d) easily reduced B
695. The following two molecules have practically the same mass 127
a) H2O and D2O b) H2O and HOT
c) D2O and HOT d) DOT and HOD
C
696. which one has lowest boiling point 698. A
a) NH3 b) PH3 tritiu
c) AsH3 d) SbH3 m
nucle
us has 128
a) one proton and two electrons b) one proton and two neutrons
c) one neutron and two protons d) one proton and three neutron B
699. H2O is
129
a) more polar than H2S
b) less polar than H2S
B
c) more or less identical in polarity with H2S
d) none of the above 130
700. Which of the following is the strongest base
a) NH3 b) PH3
c) AsH3 d) SbH3
A
704. The symbol of hydride ion is 131
a) H b) H2
c) H d) H- A
705. The boiling point of water is 132
a) 100oC b) 212oF
c) 80o R d) All the above are correct D
708. What is the commonest gas in the atmosphere 133
a) He b) N2
c) NH3 d) H2
D
709. D2O will have maximum density at
134
a) 90 C b) 11.50 C
c) 15.90 C d) 200 C B
711. The element which does not form salt-like hydride is 135
a) sodium b) calcium
c) zinc d) silicon A
136
D
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. In the solvay process good yield of sodium bicarbonate is obtained at the temperature of. 1
a) 150C b) 200C
0
c) 25 C d) None of the above A
2. Sodium is prepared by the electrolysis of. 2
a) NaOH b) Na2CO3
c) NaCL d) None of the above C
3. In alkali metal series which of the following is most reactive. 3
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) None of the above C
4. Caustic soda is manufactured by. 4
a) Lechlanche cell b) Nelson cell
c) Downs cell d) None of the above D
7. How many electrons are there in the valence orbital(s) of alkali metals? 5
a) Zero b) One
c) Two d) One or two B
8. Sodium forms. 6
a) Super oxide b) Peroxide
c) Normal oxide d) None of the above B
9. On the basis of atomic number alkali metal elements can be arranged in the order. 7
a) Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr b) Li, Na, K, Cs, Rb, Fr
c) Li, Na, K, Fr, Rb, Cs d) Li, Na, K, Cs, Fr, Rb A
10. Which of the following most abundant alkali metal combines state in nature? 8
a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4 .H2O
c) CaSO4. 2H2O d) CaSO4 .3H2O A
12. Baking soda is. 9
a) Na2CO3 b) K2CO3
c) NaH CO3 d) None of the above C
14. Calcium hydro oxide is called. 10
a) Slaked lime b) Un slaked lime
c) Lime stone d) None of the above A
15. The elements in which electrons enter in the s-orbital are called. 11
a) S-block element b) P- block element
c) F- block element d) D- block element A
16. The element of I-A and II-A groups belong to. 12
a) P- block element b) F- block element
c) D- block element d) S-block element D
17. Which of the following is the electronic configuration of sodium? 13
a) 1s2, 2s1 or [He] 2s1 b) 1s2, 2s2 p6 3s1 or [Ne] 3s1
c) 1s2, 2s2 p6, 3s2 p6, 4s1 or [Ar] 4s1 d) 1s2, 2s2 p6 B
19. The solvent used in extraction of aluminums from its ore is. 14
a) Bauxite b) Chromite
c) Cryolite d) Anhydrite A
22. Alkali metals are conductors of heat and electricity. 15
a) Good b) Bad
c) Slow d) Fast D
24. Which two of the following elements have wide application in transistor industry? 16
a) Silicon and germanium b) Tungsten and platinum
c) Iridium and platinum d) Carbon and germanium A
-1-
25. The brown gas is formed when metals reduce HNO3 is. 17
a) NO2 b) N2O5
c) N2O4 d) N2O3 B
26. In the Oswald’s process which substance is used to oxidize NH3 ? 18
a) O2 b) NO2
c) P4O10 d) P4N6 A
27. Which of the following is paramagnetic? 19
a) NH2OH b) NO2
c) N2O3 d) N2H6Cl2 B
28. Which one of the following element does not show allotropy? 20
a) Sb b) Bi
c) As d) P B
29. The large deposits of sulphur in nature are found as. 21
a) Suplhurous acid b) Sulphuric acid
c) Free sulphur d) Hydro sulphuric acid C
31. Sulphur burns in the air to produce. 22
a) SO2 b) S2O3
c) H2SO3 d) SO3 A
36. What is the color of bleaching powder? 23
a) Blue b) Yellowish white
c) Green d) Red B
39. Calcium sulphate is found both in the hydrated and anhydrous states, in the hydrated state it is more 24
common and is called.
a) Gypsum b) Sodium
c) Barium d) Beryllium A
40. Gypsum becomes anhydrous at. 25
a) 3000C b) 2000C
c) 1500C d) 1950C B
43. Plaster of Paris is a calcium sulphate. 26
a) Hemihydrate b) Dihydrate
c) Anhydrite d) None of the above A
44. Plaster of Paris is obtained from. 27
a) Epsom b) Gypsum
c) Sodium d) All of the above B
45. Each molecule of plaster of Paris contains. 28
a) Two water molecules b) One water molecules
c) Half water molecules d) Three water molecules C
46. Hydrate calcium sulphate is commonly known as. 29
a) Gypsum b) Epsom
c) Sodium d) Lithium A
47. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is also called. 30
a) Soda ash b) Cake salt
c) Baking soda d) Caustic soda A
49. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidizing agent. 31
a) Cl2 b) Br2
c) F2 d) I2 C
51. At ordinary temperature sodium reacts with air or oxygen to form. 32
a) Sodium oxide b) Sodium peroxide
c) Sodium sulphide d) None of the above A
53. Sodium acts as. 33
a) Strong reduction agent b) Weak reducing agent
c) Ordinary reducing agent d) None of the above A
55. Sodium accetylide is formed, when acetylene gas is passed through molten sodium at . 34
a) 1100 C b) 2000 C
0
c) 300 C d) 1000 C A
56. Sodium Amalgam is an alloy of. 35
a) Sodium and mercury metals b) Sodium and lead metals
c) Titanium and Zincorium metals d) All of the above A
57. Rock-salt is obtained directly from the digging of mines. It contains about NaCl. 36
a) 75% b) 85%
c) 95% d) 80% C
58. The largest deposits of rock-salt in the world are Khewra salt mines. Khewra is located in . 37
a) Pakistan b) Iran
c) India d) Afghanistan A
61. During the electrolysis of NaOH, oxygen gas is produced at the . 38
a) Cathode b) Anode
c) Cathode as well anode d) None of the above B
62. Baking soda is. 39
a) Na2CO3 b) K2CO3
c) NaHCO3 d) NaOH C
65. Washing soda is. 40
a) Na2CO3 b) Na2CO3 .10H2O
c) NaOH d) Na2CO3 .H2O B
66. The atomic and ionic radii from Be to Ra. 41
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Neither increase nor decrease d) Sometimes increase sometimes decrease A
67. Alkali metals are. 42
a) Strongest electro positive metals b) Weakest electro positive metals
c) Ordinary electro positive metals d) None of the above A
68. Alkali metals are strongly . 43
a) Reduction agent b) Oxidizing agent
c) Both of them d) None of them A
69. The oxidation state of alkaline metals are . 44
a) +1 b) +2
c) +3 d) -2 A
70. The oxidation state of alkaline earth metals are . 45
a) +1 b) -1
c) +2 d) -2 C
72. Alkali metals are . 46
a) High reactive b) Least reactive
c) Ordinary reaction d) None of the above A
73. Which pair of atomic numbers represents elements of s block? 47
a) 5,19 b) 7, 17
c) 12, 37 d) 3, 15 C
74. An element X forms an oxide X2O3 , which of the following compounds contains X. 48
a) MgCl2 b) NaCl
c) AlCl3 d) CCl4 C
75. Ca++ ions are more hydrate than Na+ ions because these are . 49
a) Larger in size b) Smaller in size
c) Divalent positively charged d) Small and divalent positively charged C
76. Potassium can displace Na from NaCl due to . 50
a) Greater I.P. of K b) Greater I.P. of Na
c) More electro positively of K d) More electro positively of Na C
77. The common salt used in our daily life is . 51
a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium hydro oxide
c) Sodium chloride d) Sodium sulphate C
78. One would like to install the bleaching powder manufacturing industry where . 52
a) Mg salts are available b) Ca salts are available
c) Na salts are available d) Silica is available B
80. For the installation of industry (factory) the first thing to bear in mind is . 53
a) Availability of raw material b) Man power
c) Transportation d) Cost of fuel A
81. The commercial name of CaO is. 54
a) Lime b) Gypsum
c) Marble d) Lime stone A
83. Common dehydrating agent used in laboratory is. 55
a) MgCO3 b) CaCl2
c) MgF2 d) CaF2 B
84. A method used for the preparation of sodium metal is named after the name of the scientist who 56
devised it. Who is he?
a) Crius b) Down
c) Schmidt d) Haber B
85. Which element does not belong to alkaline earth metals. 57
a) Mg b) Sr
c) Ca d) Rb D
86. Francium is the most electro positive element in its family due to the fact that . 58
a) Its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus
b) Valence electrons have a larger orbital than valence electron of other elements
c) It is heavier element
d) It exerts more attractive force on valence electron B
87. LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than NaCl because. 59
a) Li+ has higher heat of hydration than Na+
b) Li+has lower heat of hydration than Na+
c) LiCl is more covalent than NaCl
d) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl C
88. One of the products during electrolysis of NaCl solution is. 60
a) NaClO b) NaOH
c) Na (d) d) NaClO3 B
92. In elements of IIA group which of the following properties decrease at the atomic number increases? 61
I) E.N. , II) Hardness, III) I.P and IV) Atomic
radius. The correct answer is .
a) I and II b) I, II and IV
c) II, III and IV d) I, II and III D
93. When sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay’s process NaHCO3 is precipitated due to. 62
a) More solubility b) Less solubility
c) More solubility of NaCl d) More solubility of CO2 and NH3 B
94. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom to from a gaseous positive ion is 63
called.
a) Ionization energy b) Electron affinity
c) Electro negativity d) Electro positivity A
97. Out of the following soda ash is. 64
a) Na2CO3 b) Na2CO3 .10H2O
c) NaHCO3 d) NaOH A
98. The chemical used for production of CO2 in the first extinguishers are. 65
a) NaOH and dil. Acid b) Na2CO3 and dil. Acid
c) NaHCO3 and dil. Acid d) CaCO3 and dil. Acid C
100. Sodium carbonates and sodium bicarbonates are obtained by. 66
a) Haber process b) Solvey process
c) Castner Killer process d) Nelsons cell B
102. The formula of plaster of Paris is. 67
a) CaSO4. 2H2O b) CaSO4. H2O
c) CaSO4. 3H2O d) CaSO4. ½ H2O D
104. S and p block element are called. 68
a) Normal elements b) Transition elements
c) Metals d) Non- metals A
727. In the alkali metal series, calcium is the most reactive metal because 69
a) its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus
b) the valence electron has a larger orbit than the orbit of the valence electron of any of the others
c) It exerts considerable attractive force on the valence electrons
d) it is heavier metal B
729. Potassium hydride contains 70
a) covalent bond b) metallic bond
c) ionic bond d) coordinate bond C
730. An apparatus used for commercial preparation of sodium is named after 71
a) Carius b) Down
c) Schmidt d) Haber B
731. Baking soda is also called 72
a) caustic soda b) soda ash
c) washing soda d) bicarbonate of soda D
732. Which does not belong to alkali metals 73
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) Ra D
733. A graphite anode is used in Down’s cell for the production of sodium because 74
a) it does not react with sodium b) it does not react with chlorine
c) it is easy to fashion in circular form d) it floats on the fused sodium B
734. Which one is a reducing agent as and a constituent of gun powder 75
a) KNO3 b) C
c) CaCO3 d) Na A
735. Atoms of alkali metals are attached by 76
a) Covalent bonds b) Ionic bonds
c) Metallic bonds d) electrons C
738. which of the following is strongest base 77
a) Li (OH) b) Be
c) KOH d) RbOH D
739. Of all the group 11 elements , the highest oxidation potential is for 78
a) Li b) Be
c) Ba d) Ra D
741. Which of the following under goes disproportion 79
a) Ba+2 b) Ba+
c) BaCl2 d) BaH2 B
742. The hydration energy of Mg +2 is larger than that of 80
a) Al+3 b) Be+2
+3
c) Mg d) Na D
744. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by the addition of 81
a) CaCO3 b) Ca(OH)2
c) CaCl2 d) Hel B
746. Which one has the highest lattice energy 82
a) Be (OH)2 b) Mg (OH)2
c) Ca (OH)2 d) Ba (OH)2 A
747. When CO2 is bubbled into an aqueous solution of Na2CO3 the following is formed 83
a) NaOH b) HCO3-
c) H2O d) OH- B
748. A dehydrating agent commonly used in the laboratory is 84
a) Mg CH2 b) CaF2
c) CaCl2 d) MgF2 C
750. Which of the following is not produced during Solvay process 85
a) CO2 b) CaO
c) CaCl2 d) All are produced D
752. Who discovered radium 86
a) Kloprath b) Fermi
c) Curies d) Rutherford C
755. The most abundant source of CaCO3 is 87
a) calcite b) argentite
c) lime stone d) apatite C
756. Bleaching power is obtained by passing chlorine over 88
a) CaCO3 b) Ca (OH)2
c) Na2 CO3 d) Ca (HCO3)2 B
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
11. Boron has ionization potential value. 1

a) High b) Low
c) Complex d) Simple A
12. The formula for borax is 2
a) Na2CO3 b) Na2B4O7.10H2O
c) B2O3 d) H3BO3 B
14. Borax is used in making 3
a) Water b) Hydrogen gas
c) Manufacture of optical & hard glass d) None of these C
15. The formula for orthoboric acid is 4
a) H2BO3 b) H3BO3
c) H2SO4 d) NaOH B
17. The chemical equation, when orthoboric acid reacts with “Na2CO3” is 5
a) Na2B4O7 + CO  2NaBO2 + CO(BO2)2
b) 4H3BO3 + Na2CO3  Na2B4O7 + CO2 + 6H2O
c) H3BO3 + 3C2H5OH  B(OC2H5)3 +3H2O
d) None of these B
18. The heat energy for reaction 4Al + 3O2  2Al2O3 is 6

a)  H = -798.18 K cal/m b)  H =9310 K Cal/m
c)  H = + 798.18 K cal/m d) None of these
A
20. When aluminum reacts with dil. HCl then gas is produced 7
a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen d) None of these A
21. When aluminum reacts with chlorine then

a) SO2 b) AlCl3 is formed 8
c) Al (OH)3 d) CH4
B
22. “Al” is a metal 9
a) Dissolving b) Lighter
c) Slow d) None of these B
24. Alums are used for the of hard water. 10
a) Sizing b) Purification
c) Cotton d) None of these B
25. The carbon has allotropic forms. 11
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Five A
26. Diamond is the substance. 12
a) Inert b) Coke
c) Hardest d) Soft C
27. The melting point of carbon is very 13
a) High b) Low
c) Graphite d) Increases A
0
28. At 20 C, the diamond has density. 14
a) 441.9 gm/ cm3 b) 3.51 gm/cm2
c) 571. gm/cm3 d) 751 gm/cm3 B
29. Diamond has refractive index. 15
a) Slow b) Less
c) High d) Heat C
-1-
30. Diamond is used for the of glass. 16
a) Cutting b) Electricity
c) Room temperature d) Drilling D
31. Graphite has density at 200C. 17
a) 471.5 gm/cm3 b) 2.2 gm/cm3
c) 9.41 gm/cm3 d) None of these B
32. When “C” burns with “O2” at 7000C then gas is obtained 18
a) CO2 b) CO
c) CaCO3 d) CF4 A
34. The formula for lead monoxide is 19
a) PbO b) PbS
c) PbCl3 d) None of these A
35. PbO + H2  . 20
a) PbH2 +O2 b) Pb + H2O
c) Pb + CO d) Pb + CO2 B
36. The chemical formula for sindhur is 21
a) Pb3O4 b) Pb2O3
c) PbO d) Pb3O5 A
37. The formula for white lead is 22
a) Pb2O3 b) 2PbCO3. Pb(OH)2
c) 3PbCO3 . 4Pb(OH)2 d) None of these B
38. White lead is an powder. 23
a) Amorphous b) Black
c) Colour d) Unreactive A
40. By the process of Ostwald, we can get pure HNO3. 24
a) 98% b) 100%
c) 50% d) 68% D
41. The boiling point of “HNO3” is 25
a) 380 C b) 960 C
c) 830 C d) 980 K C
42. Monoclinic sulphur is soluble in 26
a) CO2 b) Carbon disulphide
c) Benzene d) None of these B
43. C6H12O6 27
a) 6C + 6H2O b) 6CO + 6H2
c) 6CO + H2 d) None of these A
44.  - sulpher has structure 28
a) Simple b) Monoclinic
c) Astatine d) Copper like B
45. “H2SO4” is a strong acid. 29
a) Diprotic b) Monoclinic
c) Simple d) None of these A
1. The p-block elements includes subgroups III-A to: 30

a) VI-A b) VIII-A
c) VIII-A d) VIII-B C
2. Each period of p-block contain …………. 31
a) Five elements b) Six elements
c) Eight elements d) Seven elements B
3. The tendency of a pair of …………. to remain inert during chemical bonding is called 32
inert pair effect.
a) Electron b) Proton
c) Neutron d) Nucleus A
4. Group III-A consists of boron, aluminum, gallium, indium and ………. 33
a) Bismuth b) Germanium
c) Selenium d) Thallium D
9. Aluminium reacts slowly with dil. H2SO4 to produce: 34
a) Nitrogen gas b) Oxygen gas
c) Hydrogen gas d) Sulphur dioxide gas C
10. R2SO4. M2(SO4)3.24H2O, where R is a monovalent and M is a trivalent metal ion, is the 35
general formula of:
a) Potash b) Alums
c) Borax d) Washing soda B
11. The process of fixing the dye firmly to the fabric by the use of alums is called: 36
a) Mordanting b) Fixation
c) Fix dying d) Firm dying A
12. Group IV-A consists of elements, carbon, silicon, germanium, tin and ………. 37
a) Phosphorus b) Zinc
c) Antimony d) Lead D
13. …………… is the property due to which more than two atoms of the same elements 38
are held together through strong covalent bonds to form long strings of atoms.
a) Allotropy b) Hydration
c) Metamorphosis d) Catenation D
14. A phenomenon in which an element is found in more than one forms having the same 39
chemical properties is called:
a) Isotopy b) Allotropy
c) Catenation d) Normality B
15. The known hardest substance is: 40
a) Ceramics b) Iron
c) Diamond d) Graphite C
16. Nitrogen molecules contain: 41
a) Triple covalent bond b) Double covalent bond
c) Single covalent bond d) Single ionic bond A
17. The commercial preparation of nitric acid from ammonia is by the: 42
a) Birkland’s process b) Ostwald’s process
c) Eyde’s process d) Haber process B
18. Aqua regia is a solution of one part by volume of conc. HNO3 and three parts by 43
volume of conc. …………
a) H2SO4 b) CH3COOH
c) HCl d) HCOOH C
19. Aqua regia is used as solvent for noble metals such as: 44
a) Au an Pt b) Cu and Fe
c) U and W d) Pb and Sb A
20. The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of VI-A group elements is: 45
a) Five b) Four
c) Three d) Six D
21. Oxygen, sulphur, selenium, tellurium and polonium are elements of group: 46
a) VI-A b) VII-A
c) V-A d) IV-A A
22. Oxygen has two allotropic forms i.e., oxygen (O2) and : 47
a) Tetroxide (O4) b) Ozone (O3)
c) Nascent oxygen (O) d) Pentoxide (O5) B
23. Crystals of -sulphur consists of: 48

a) S6 molecules b) S7 molecules
c) S8 molecules d) S9 molecules C
24. A unit cell of crystals of sulphur consists of ……… S8 molecules 49

a) Twenty-four b) Twelve
c) Eight d) Sixteen D
25. Monoclinic sulphur is soluble in : 50
a) Water b) Alcohol
c) Benzene d) Carbon disulphide D
26. Hydrogen sulphide gas in the laboratory for analytical purposes is obtained by the 51
………
a) Glover’s apparatus b) Kipp’s apparatus
c) Pyrite apparatus d) Nitre pots B
27. Chemical reaction between iron sulphide and dilute sulphuric acid in Kipp’s apparatus 52
produces ………..
a) Sulphur dioxide gas b) Sulphur trioxide gas
c) Hydgrogen sulphide gas d) No gas C
28. Hydrogen sulphide is a good: 53
a) Reducing agent b) Oxidizing agent
c) Analyzing agent d) Sales agent A
29. Hydrogen sulphide burns with a: 54
a) Blue flame b) Golden flame
c) Green flame d) Red flame A
30. Sulphuric acid was first prepared in the laboratory by the famous Muslim chemist: 55
a) Ibn-i-Rushd b) Ibn-i-Sina
c) Jabbar-bin-Halyan d) Al-Beerone C
31. “The king of chemicals” is the 56
a) Hydrochloric acid b) Nitric acid
c) Sodium chloride d) Sulphuric acid D
32. 100% H2SO4 is called: 57
a) Nitre b) Oleum
c) Petre d) Sulphite B
33. H2SO4 dissolves in water with the evolution of: 58
a) Bubbles b) Heat
c) Hydrogen gas d) Vapours B
34. Sulphuric acid is a strong ………… acid. 59
a) Monoprotic b) Monoelectric
c) Diprotic d) Dielectric C
35. …………… and ………… are not attached by dilute or concentrated H2SO4 60
a) Cooper and silver b) Lead and mercury
c) Iron and zinc d) Platinum and gold D
36. S
H2 O4  ………..+ 6 H2O 61
C6H12O6
a) 6 C b) 6 CO2
c) 6 CO d) 66H6 A
37. The removal of rust, from metal sheets, with sulphuric acid is called: 62
a) Drying b) Pickling
c) Picking d) Washing B
38. Group VII-A elements are generally called: 63
a) Halogens b) Noble gases
c) Inert gases d) Metalloids A
39. The radioactive element in halogen group is: 64
a) Radon b) Radium
c) Astatine d) Bromine C
40. Atomic number of halogens are F(9), Cl(17), Br(35), I(53) and At (……) 65
a) 83 b) 87
c) 58 d) 85 D
41. Fluorine and chlorine are gases, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a: 66
a) Semi-solid b) Super cooled liquid
c) Crystalline solid d) Amorphous solid C
42. All the elements of group VIII-A are: 67
a) Metals b) Gases
c) Solids d) Non-metals D
45. Chlorine gas: 68
a) Is odourless b) Has irritating pungent smell
c) Has sweet apple’s smell d) Had rotten egg’s smell B
46. Phosphorus burns in limited supply of chlorine to give phosphorus: 69
a) Mono chloride b) Pentachloride
c) Trichloride d) Hexachloride C
47. Chlorine reacts with large excess of ammonia to liberate ……….. 70
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Methane d) Nitrogen D
48. Chlorine is used in the extraction of …………. 71
a) gold b) Sulphur
c) Silver d) Copper A
49. -sulphur has..............structure 72
a) Rhombic b) Orthorhombic
c) Monochlinic d) Tetrahedral C
50. Carbon is...............hybridysed in diamond 73
a) sp b) sp2
c) sp3 d) sp4 C
759. The elements of group IIIA to group VIII A are called 74
a) d-block elements b) S-block elements
c) p-block elements d) none of these C
760. Which has highest first ionization energy 75
a) B b) Al
c) Ga d) In A
761. Which has lowest oxidation potential 76
a) B b) Al
c) Ga d) In D
762. Which forms the most acidic oxide 77
a) B b) Al
c) Ga d) In A
763. Choose the substances used to produce red coloration in synthetic rubies 78
a) B2O3 b) Al2O3
c) Na3 Al F6 d) Cr2O3 D
764. The octet rule is not obeyed in 79
a) NH3 b) Al (OH)4-
c) BF3H10 d) Bcl3 D
770 Hydrogen gas may be produced by the reaction of aluminium with a concentrated 80
solution of
a) Fe2O3 b) NaOH
c) HNO3 d) NaF B
774. Which is most acidic 81
a) Na2O b) MgO
c) Al2O3 d) CaO C
776. Dura lumen is an alloy which contains 82
a) Mg + Al b) Cu + Al + Mg + Ni
c) Mg + Cu d) Cu + Al B
777. What is corundum 83
a) Al2O3 b) SiC
c) ZnSO4 d) H2PtCl6 A
778. The solvent used in the extraction of aluminium from its ore is 84
a) cryolite b) bauxite
c) molten sodium chloride d) water B
780. Which one of the following elements bears resemblance with gallium 85
a) Si b) Al
c) Ni d) As D
781. A product of thermal decomposition of sodium bicarbonate is 86
a) NaH b) CO2
c) NaHCO3 d) C2H2 B
782. Moderate electrical conductivity is exhibited by 87
a) SiO2 b) Graphite
c) diamond d) CO2 B
787. Poisonous gas present in the exhaust fumes of car is 88
a) CH4 b) C2H2
c) CO d) CO2 D
789. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bonds is 89
a) CH4 b) H2
c) KCN d) K C
790. On heating with conc. H2SO4 sucrose gives 90
a) Co and CO2 b) Co and So2
c) Co, CO2 and SO2 d) none of the above D
791. Lead tetraethyl is used as 91
a) fire extinguisher b) Pain killer
c) petroleum additive d) mosquito repellent C
792. Litharge is chemically 92
a) PbO b) PbO2
c) Pb3O4 d) Pb (Ch3COO)2 A
793. Which is the most abundant element in earth’s crust 93
a) Ca b) Si
c) C d) O B
797. Phosphine may be produced by the action of water on 94
a) Ca3P2 b) P4O6
c) P4O10 d) HPO3 A
798. Which of the following dissolves in water to give a basic solution 806.
a) H3PO3 b) NaH2PO4
c) Na2HPO4 d) NaNO3 Larg
e deposits of sulphur in nature are found as 95
a) sulphuric acid b) sulphurous acid
c) hydrosulphuric acid d) free sulphur C
808. The form of sulphur which is stable at room temperature and normal atmospheric 96
pressure
a) orthorhombic b) hexagonal D
c) monoclinic d) amorphous
97
812. Pyrosulphuric acid may be synthesized by dissolving SO3 in
a) H2O b) H2S2O3
c) H2SO4 d) H2S2O8 A
814. choose the substance used as a catalyst in the contact process 98
a) Fe2O3 b) V2O5
c) SO3 d) Ag2O C
816. Choose the stongest acid 99
a) H2S b) H2SO4
c) CH3COOH d) H3PO4 B
817. A compound in which oxygen has a positive oxidation state is 100
a) H2O2 b) Na2S2O3
c) ClO2 d) OF2
B
818. Which of the following has the highest catenation capability 101
a) oxygen b) sulphur
c) carbon d) tellurium D
821. The halogen with the highest ionization potential is 102
a) F b) Cl
c) I d) At C
823. Hypobromous acid is 103
a) HOBr b) HOBrO
c) HOBrO2 d) HOBrO3 A
824. Hydrofluoric acid is 104
a) a powerful oxidizing agent b) a weak acid
c) a strong acid d) good reducing agent A
825. Which one is least soluble in water 105
a) NaF b) CaF2
c) AgF d) HF B
826. Which of the following is most powerful oxidizing agent 106
a) F2 b) Cl2
c) Br2 d) I2 B
827. Which one has the highest electronegativity 107
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I A
828. Which of the following exhibits the highest bond energy 108
a) F2 b) Cl2
c) Br2 d) I2 A
831. Concentrated H2SO4 can be used to prepare HBr from NaBr, but it usually is not 109
because
a) it oxidizes HBr b) it reduces HBr B
c) it reacts too slowly with NaBr d) it causes the HBr to disproportionate
110
A
832. Which has the lowest boiling point c)
a) F2 b) Cl2 Br2
d) I2
111
833. Which of the following has a pyramidal structure
a) ClO2 b) ClO2- A
-
c) ClO3- d) NaClO4 C
112
834. Which of the following forms the most basic 0.1 M solution 113
a) NaCl b) NaOCl
c) NaClO2 d) NaClO3 B
835. Which one is the highest melting halide 114
a) NaCl b) NaBr
c) NaF d) Nal C
836. Which one does not form its oxy acid 115
a) Fluorine b) Bromine
c) Chlorine d) Iodine A
837. The colour of I2 solution can be discharged by shaking with aqueous solution of
116
a) Sulphur dioxide b) sodium thiosulphate
c) sodium sulphite d) sodium sulphate B
838. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of Cl2 and
117
a) a dil. Solution of Ca (OH)2 b) conc. Solution of Ca(OH)2
c) dry CaO d) dry slaked lime B
d- BLOCK ELEMENTS (Transition Elements)
1. The element in which ‘d’ or ‘f’ orbitals are incomplete either in the atomic state or in their 1
common ions are called.
a) Transuranium elements b) Transition elements
c) Lanthanides d) Actinides B
2. Transition elements have ……….. 2
a) Four series b) Two series
c) Three series d) Five series A
3. The incomplete orbital of 1st series of transition elements i.e. Sc(21) to Zn (30) is. 3
a) 3d b) 4d
c) 5d d) 5f A
5. In the periodic table the transition elements are placed in the sub-groups. 4
a) I-A to VIII-A b) III-A to VIII-A
c) I-B to VIII-B d) III-B to VIII-B C
07. There are about ……….. transition elements out of 110 discovered so far. 5
a) 65 b) 60
c) 55 d) 50 B
09. The atomic and ionic radii...............from left to right in the transition series. 6
c) Remains same d) Fluctuates B
11. The color of Mn+2 in hydrated form is. 7
a) Green b) Blue
c) Light pink d) Yellow C
+2
12. The color of Ni in hydrated form is. 8
a) Pink b) Grassy green
c) Yellow d) Blue B
13. Iron oxide is used as a catalyst in the. 9
a) Constant process b) Catalytic hydrogenation
c) Ostwald’s process d) Haber process D
14. The substance which are attracted by a magnetic field are called…………… substances. 10
a) Para magnetic b) Diamagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic d) Electromagnetic A
15. The substance containing unpaired electrons show …………. property. 11
a) Diamagnetic b) Ferromagnetic
c) Paramagnetic d) Electromagnetic C
18. Iron and cobalt are………….. substances. 12
a) Ferromagnetic b) Diamagnetic
c) Paramagnetic d) Electromagnetic A
19. The substances which can be magnetized permanently are called…………. substance. 13
a) Paramagnetic b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic d) Actomagnetic B
20. The transition elements and their compounds are …………. in nature. 14
a) Orthomagnetic b) Metamagnetic
c) Paramagnetic d) Electromagnetic C
21. A single or an unpaired electron behaves like a small. 15
a) Silver b) Stone
c) Power house d) Magnet D
24. The empty spaces between the atoms of metal inside their crystal lattices are called. 16
a) Interons b) Inter spaces
c) Inter ferons d) Interstices D
-1-
25. The compounds formed by diffusion of small atoms in the interstices of crystal structures of 17
transition metals are called.
a) Addition compounds b) Interstitial compounds
c) Organic compounds d) Complex compounds B
26. An atom or ion of transition metals surrounded by oppositely charged ions are neutral molecules 18
is called.
a) Complex compounds b) Ionic compounds
c) Interstitial compounds d) Organic compounds A
27. An ion or neutral molecules surrounding a central atom in complex compounds is called. 19
a) Coordinator b) Ligand
c) Extra molecule d) Heavy ion B
28. Coordination number of the central atom of complex compounds is the number of …………. 20
attached to the central atom.
a) Ions b) Cations
c) Ligands d) Anions C
35. Chalcocite and chalcopyrite are sulphide ores of. 21
a) Silver b) Gold
c) Iron d) Copper D
37. Chalcopyrite (CuFeS2) contains about………. of Copper 22
a) 105% b) 25 %
c) 6 % d) 20 % C
38. The molten mixture of Cu2S and ……… is called matte. 23
a) ZnS b) FeS
c) CdS d) SbS B
40. Blistered copper having blisters on the metal surface due to escaping of SO2 gas during its 24
cooling is about..............pure.
a) 90 % b) 99 %
c) 95 % d) 80 % B
41. The impurities, settled down from the blister copper during purification are called. 25
a) Cathode mud b) Electrode mud
c) Anode mud d) Residual mud C
42. Electrolytic copper is. 26
a) 98% pure b) 100% pure
c) 99% pure d) 99.55% pure B
43. Cuprous ion in aqueous solution Cu( H2O)+ is unstable and undergo. 27
a) Disproportionation b) Displacement reaction
c) Fission reaction d) Fusion reaction A
1. Elements in which f-orbitals are in the process of completion are called. 28
a) Outer transition elements b) Inner transition elements
c) Non- transition elements d) None of the above B
2. In the process of tin plating the deposit layer is. 29
a) Tin b) Copper
c) Aluminum d) None of the above A
3. Potassium per magnate may be represented as. 30
a) K2MnO4 b) KMnO4
c) K2MnO3 d) K2MnO2 B
4. What are alloys? 31
a) A homogenous mixture of two or more elements
b) A homogenous mixture of metal and non metal
c) A homogenous mixture of two or more metals or a metal or non metal
d) None of the above C
5. An atom containing an odd number of electron shows. 32
a) Paramagnetism b) Dia magnetism
c) Ferro megnetism d) Hyper magnetism A
6. In the metallurgy of copper, matter is considered to be a mixture of 33
a) FeS and ZnS b) FeS and Cu2 S
c) Cu2 S and ZnS d) FeS and CuCO3 B
7. Which of the following elements can be included in the category of transition elements? 34
a) Aluminum b) Argon
c) Astatine d) Copper D
8. The ability of transition elements to form complexes is due to 35
a) Small size of metal ion b) Highly charged metal ion
c) Availability of empty d or f-orbital d) All of the above D
9. Nickel is used as a catalyst for. 36
a) The manufacture of ammonia b) Hydrogenation of unsaturated hydro carbons
c) Oxidation of SO2 to SO3 d) None of the above B
10. The color of chromium hydrated ion is. 37
a) Yellow b) Violet
c) Green d) Pink C
11. Potassium chromate is. 38
a) Yellow crystalline solid b) Red crystalline solid
c) Dark purple crystalline solid d) None of the above A
12. Bronze is an alloy which contains. 39
a) 60 % Cu b) 70 % Cu
c) 80 % Cu d) None of the above D
13. Co- ordination number of K4[Fe(CN)6] is. 40
a) Six b) Three
c) Four d) Two A
14. In K4[Fe(CN)6 ] legend is. 41
a) CN b) K
c) Fe d) C A
15. silver nitrate react with bromide ion to form precipitate of silver bromide which is. 42
a) White color b) Pale yellow color
c) Deep yellow color d) Black color B
16. Which of the following is the transition element? 43
a) Cr b) Sr
c) Sn d) Ca A
17. Which one of following ions is colored? 44
a) Al+++ b) K+
c) Fe+++ d) None of the above C
18. Which is the important ore of copper? 45
a) Bauxite b) Malachite
c) Baryte d) Blue vitriol B
19. Bessemer’s converters are used to get. 46
a) Aluminum b) Copper
c) Chromium d) All of the above B
20. Which of the following does not contain copper? 47
a) Blue vitriol b) Carborundom
c) Azurite d) None of the above B
21. The substance attracted by magnetic field is called. 48
a) Paramagnetic b) Diamagnetic
c) Antimagnetic d) None of the above A
22. Stainless steel is. 49
a) A mixture b) A compound
c) An element d) All of the above A
23. Which of the following does not belong to d-block elements? 50
a) Cobalt b) Silicon
c) Chronium d) All of the above B
26. The corrosion of metal can be prevented by. 51
a) Alloying and removal of strains b) Paint coating and metallic coating
c) Grease and oil coating d) All of the above B
27. Potassium ferrocynide is a. 52
a) Mixed salt b) Double salt
c) Complex salt d) Normal salt C
30. Aluminum resists the process of corrosion because the formation of. 53
a) Aluminum nitride b) Aluminum carbonate
c) Aluminum sulphate d) Aluminum oxide D
31. Which of the following elements is ferromagnetic? 54
a) Carbon b) Calcium
c) Cobalt d) Pb C
32. The elements in which d or f-orbital are incomplete are called. 55
a) Transition elements b) Typical element
c) Both of them d) None of the above A
33. In physical and chemical properties, transition elements show. 56
a) Similarities b) Dissimilarities
c) Both of them d) Sometimes similarities sometimes dissimilarities A
34. K2Cr2O7 is a. 57
a) Strong oxidizing agent b) Weak oxidizing agent
c) Strong reducing agent d) Weak reducing agent A
35. K2Cr2O7 oxidizes SO2 to. 58
a) Sulphite b) Sulphate
c) Hydrate d) None of them B
37. An emulsion of silver which is applied to the photographic films is. 59
a) Chloride b) Bromide
c) Iodide d) None of the above B
38. In the silvering of mirrors, glucose is used as a. 60
a) Oxidizing agent b) Reducing agent
c) Oxidizing as well as reducing agent d) None of the above B
39. Most of the copper is extracted from. 61
a) Chalcocite ore b) Chalcopyrite ore.
c) Iron ore d) Cuprite ore B
40. The molten mixture of Cu2S and FeS is called. 62
a) White metal b) Matte
c) Cuprite d) Chalcocite B
43. Copper is a conductor of heat and electricity. 63
a) Good b) Bad
c) Normal d) None of the above A
45. Silver bromide is used in photography because it is. 64
a) Heat sensitive b) Light sensitive
c) Both of them d) None of them B
46. Addition of ammonia solution to copper sulphate solution gives. 65
a) Red color b) Yellow color
c) Deep blue color d) Yellowish white color C
47. An alloy of 90% copper and 10% tin is. 66
a) Brass b) Bronze
c) Aluminum d) Gold B
49. A substance which can be magnetized permanently is called. 67
a) Paramagnetic b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic d) None of the above B
50. What are formed during the process of corrosion of a metal? 68
a) Oxides b) Chlorides
c) Sulphides d) All of the above C
51. Which is commercially known as hypo? 69
a) Na2S2O3 b) Na2SO3
c) Both of them d) None of them A
53. The composition of copper pyrite ore is. 70
a) Cu2 S b) Cu2 O
c) CuFeS2 d) None of the above C
54. The center of coordination in K3Fe (CN)6 is. 71
a) K- atom b) Fe- atom
c) C- atom d) N- atom B
56. The atomic and ionic radii of terminals elements of transition series. 72
a) Increase suddenly b) Decrease suddenly
c) Remain constant d) None of the above A
57. Transition element from ions in solution. 73
a) Coloured b) Colourless
c) Compact d) None of the above A
59. The negative film becomes the darkest where the object was and vice versa. 74
a) Dark b) Bright
c) Faint d) None of the above B
60. The melting and boiling points of transition elements are. 75
a) Low b) Normal
c) Very high d) Very low C
61. The ionization energy of the transition elements as compared to s and p block elements is. 76
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Intermediate between s and p d) Equal to s and p C
63. Transition elements form which type of bond? 77
a) Ionic bonds only b) Covalent bonds only
c) Ionic and covalent bonds d) Polar bonds C
64. Most of the transition elements are. 78
a) Paramagnetic b) Diamagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic d) None of these A
65. A substance containing paired electrons is called. 79
a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic d) None of these A
67. Matte is the mixture of. 80
a) Copper sulphide and iron sulphide b) Iron sulphide and zinc sulphide
c) Iron sulphide and aluminum sulphide d) Copper sulphide and zinc sulphide A
68. The color of copper is. 81
a) Gray b) Radish brown
c) Green d) Blue B
69. Nilathotha i.e.CuSO4 has how many water molecules? 82
a) 4 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6 C
70. Lunar caustic is the commercial name of 83
a) AgNO3 b) CuSO4
c) NaOH d) NH4Cl A
71. The color of KMnO4 is. 84
a) Blue b) Yellow
c) Dark purple d) Green C
72. Corrosion of a metal produces. 85
a) Chloride b) Sulphate
c) Oxide d) Nitrite C
75. Hypo is the commercial name of. 86
a) Sodium hydro oxide b) Sodium thiosulphate
c) Sodium Sulphate d) Sodium bicarbonate B
76. The melting point and boiling point of transition elements as compared to s and p block elements 87
are.
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Intermediate between s and p block d) None of these A
77. The transition elements are usually. 88
a) Colorless b) Colored
c) Opaque d) Gray colored B
78. Elements in which d and f orbital are in the process of completion are called. 89
c) Zero group elements d) p block elements B
79. Variable valency is shown by. 90
c) Typical elements d) All of the elements B
839. Manganese differs from most other transition elements because it reacts with 91
a) Oxygen b) Water
c) Sulphur d) Iodine B
840. Which of the following elements can be included in the category of transition elements 92
a) Cu b) Al
c) Ar d) At A
841. Potassium ferrocyanide is a 93
a) normal salt b) mixed salt
c) double salt d) complex salt D
842. Mn3O4 is 94
a) an acidic oxide b) a basic oxide
c) a neutral oxide d) an amphoteric oxide D
845. Which of the following combinations is included in the Iron traid of elements 95
a) Pd and Pt b) Mn and Hg
c) Co and Ni d) V and Ti C
846. The highest common oxidation state of chromium c)
is a) +4 b) +5 +
6 d) +7 96
847. A substance which is not paramagnetic is
a) Cr (ClO4)3 b) KmnO4 D
c) TiCl3 d) VOBr2
97
848. Disproportionation is shown by
a) Cr (OH)2 b) MnO4 B
c) (OH)3 d) Mn-3 98
851. Reduction of MnO4 in strongly basic solution produces
a) Mn2+ b) MnO 42- D
c) MnO2 d) Mn2O7 99
853. The ferricyanide ion is
a) Fe (CN)4-6 b) Fe (CN)6-4 B
c) Fe (CN)3-6 d) Fe (CN)6-3 100
854. The yellow colour of a solution prepared by adding 0.1 mole of Fe(NO3)3 to one litter of water is
largely due to D
a) FeCl+2 b) Fe(OH)+ 101
-
c) Fe(OH)4 d) Fe(H2O)6
855. Iron may be rendered passive by treatment with a concentrated solution of
a) H2C2O4 b) HCI B
c) HNO3 d) KSCN 102
859. Ferric oxide is
C
a) a basic anhydride b) an acid anhydride
c) an amphoteric anhydride d) green 103
861. The most strongly ferromagnetic elements is
a) Fe b) Co A
c) Ni d) Os 104
B
INTRODUCTION TO ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. Urea was obtained by heating . 1

a) Ammonium cyanate b) Carbon
c) Oxygen d) Copper A
02. Fredrick Wohler prepared urea 2
in. a) 1807 b) 1828
c) 1927 d) 1807B B
4. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of compounds of carbon is called . 3
a) Organic chemistry b) Inorganic chemistry
c) Electrical force d) None of these A
5. The branch of chemistry which does not deal with the compound of carbon is called. 4
a) Organic chemistry b) Inorganic chemistry
c) Complex d) Acetates B
6. is an essential part of organic compounds. 5
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen
c) Carbon d) None of these C
7. The elements which have same molecular formula but different structural formula, is called. 6
a) Isomers b) Tetravalent
c) Molecular d) Different A
08. The formula of methane is . 7
a) CH4 b) CH2
c) CH3 d) CH5 A
9. The general formula for ane-group is . 8
a) CnH2n+4 b) CnH2n+2
c) CnH2n-2 d) None of these B
10. The general formula of ene–group is . 9
a) CnH2n b) CnH2n+1
c) CnH2n-2 d) None of these A
11. The general formula of yne–group is . 10
a) CnH2n b) CnH2n+1
c) CnH2n-2 d) None of these C
12. The formula of methyl alcohol is . 11
a) CH3OH b) CH3(OH)3
c) CH5O d) None of these A
13. The atoms in the organic compounds are joined by bond. 12
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Simple d) None of these B
14. The atoms in the inorganic compounds are joined by bond. 13
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Simple d) None of these A
15. Organic compounds are generally in water. 14
a) Ionic b) Insoluble
c) Soluble d) None of these B
16. Inorganic compounds are generally in water. 15
a) Soluble b) Insoluble
c) Isomerism d) None of these A
17. Organic compounds deal with the process of . 16
a) Coal b) Petroleum
c) Isomerism d) None of these C
-1-
18. Organic compounds are the gradient of food. 17
a) Important b) Hard
c) Soft d) None of these A
19. Methane and petrol are used as . 18
a) Fuel b) Plants
c) Water d) None of these A
20. “Urea” is a compound. 19
a) Organic b) Inorganic
c) Simple b) Metal A
21. We can prepare compounds in laboratory. 20
a) Simple b) Complex
c) Organic d) None of these C
22. Organic compounds are obtained from and plants. 21
a) Animals b) Carbon
c) Fats d) None of these A
23. We can get “urea” from . 22
a) Cow b) Animals
c) Coal d) Oxygen B
24. The main constituent of coal is . 23
a) Carbon b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen A
25. Anthracite contains carbon. 24
a) 40-45% b) 92-98%
c) 50-55% d) 95-100% B
26. Bituminous coal contains carbon. 25
a) 85% b) 58%
c) 95% d) 40% A
27. Sub-bituminous coal contains carbon. 26
a) 95% b) 80%
c) 90% d) 100% B
28. Lignite contains carbon. 27
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 50-60% d) 60-70% C
29. Carbon is a atom. 28
a) Tetravalent b) Black
c) Simple d) 99% A
30. The main component of coal is . 29
a) Carbon b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen d) Lignite A
31. Coal gas is a mixture of H2, CH4 and CO. 30
a) 50%, 8%, 100% b) 50%, 35%, 8%
c) 60%, 40%, 10% d) None of these B
32. Crude coal gas consists of benzole, coal gas, and sulpher compounds. 31
a) Cyanides b) Oxides
c) Methane d) Graphite A
33. Natural gas is produced by the of organic compounds. 32
a) Fertilizers b) Decomposition
c) Reforming d) Distillation B
34. When the large number of molecules of the same substance is combined to form large sized 33
product, then this process called.
a) Polymerization b) Monomer
c) Polymer d) Breaking A
35. 3CH=CH Cutube .

34
300oC
a) C2H4 b) C6H6
c) CH4 d) C3H8 B
36. The formula for “dimethyl ether” is . 35

a) C2H2 b) CH3–O–CH3
c) C2H4 d) CH4 B
37. There are main types of organic compounds. 36
a) Two b) Three
c) Five d) Six A
38. Isomers of “C2H6O” are and dimethyl ether. 37
a) Proponal b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Butane d) None of these B
39. The structural formula of n- butane is. 38
a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3 b) CH4-CH2-CH2-CH4
c) CH3-CH3-CH3-CH3 d) None of these A
40. The name of CH3 – CH– CH3 is . 39


Cl
a) Dimethy ether b) Ethyl alcohol
c) 2- chloro propane d) 3- ethyl pentane C
41. The series of compounds whose each number shows the same set of properties, is called 40
series.
a) Homologous b) Same
c) Chain d) None of these A
42. In alkanes group, the next higher number differs from first by only . 41
a) CH4 b) CH3
c) CH2 d) C2H2 C
43. Te formula of decane is . 42
a) C10H22 b) C8H20
c) C7H16 d) C6H14 A
44. There are main types of chain. 43
a) Two b) Five
c) Three d) Four C
45. The single branched carbon chain is called chain. 44
a) Iso b) Neo
c) Simple d) Primary A
46. Alkyl is a radical which is form due to the of one (H) from an alkane. 45
a) Removal b) Difference
c) Identical d) None of these A
47. The process in which we name the compounds, is called system. 46
a) S.I b) R.U
c) IUPAC d) None of these C
48. The formula of nonene is . 47
a) C9H18 b) C9H13
c) C4H18 d) C8H16 A
49. The formula of nonyne is 48
a) C7H18 b) C9H16
c) C8H16 d) C10H18 B
50. In IUPAC system, the carboxylic acids are called acid. 49
a) Methyl b) Benzene
c) Alkanoic d) None of these C
53. Tetra ethyl lead is most commonly used chemical. 50
a) Tri-thyl b) Pitch
c) Anti-knock d) None of these C
55. The basic units from which polymers are formed are called . 51
a) Monomers b) Diamers
c) Armatic d) Cyclic A
56. Toluene is an compound. 52
a) Monomers b) Aromatic
c) Analogous d) None of these B
57. “C7H22” is the formula of . 53
a) Hyptyne b) Octyne
c) Nonane d) Hyptane A
58. The alkyl group are generally represented by. 54
a) X- b) R-
c) -Z d) -K B
59. The molecules containing at least one triple bond are called. 55
a) Paraffins b) Acetylenes
c) Alcohols d) None of these B
60. “-OH” is called group. 56
a) Hydroxyl b) Halide
c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen A
3. A mixture of hydrocarbons containing 11 to 12 carbons atoms and boiling point in the range of 160 57
to 2500C is called.
a) Gasoline b) Kerosene B
c) Diesel oil d) None of the above
4. The mixture whose constituents are 50% hydrogen, 35% methane and 8% carbon monoxide is 58
called.
a) Coal b) Coal gas
c) Coal tar d) None of the above B
5. Wohler was the first man who prepared organic compound in the laboratory named as. 59
a) Uric acid b) Urea
c) Phosphoric acid d) None of the above B
6. If one hydrogen is removed from the alkane series of hydrocarbon, the remaining group is called. 60
a) Alkyl group b) Aryl group
c) Amyl group d) None of the above A
7. The process in which orbital of different energies and shape mix with each to give equivalent hybrid 61
orbital is called.
a) Polymerization b) Hybridization
c) Isomerization d) None of the above B
8. Compounds having same molecular formula but different carbon skeleton are called. 62
a) Position isomers b) Chain isomers
c) Functional group isomers d) None of the above B
10. The process of distillation of is employed for the purification of liquid from. 63
a) Volatile impurities b) Non volatile impurities
c) Insoluble impurities d) All kinds of impurities B
11. The union of two or more molecules of a substance to form a large single molecule is called. 64
a) Fusion b) Synthesis
c) Polymerization d) None of the above C
12. Anti knocking character of gasoline is improved by the addition of. 65
a) Ethyl lead b) Diethyl lead
c) Triethyl lead d) Tetra ethyl lead D
13. The general formula of Ketone is written as. 66
a) ROR b) RCOR
c) RCOOR d) RCHOHR B
14. The alternative position on the benzene ring are called. 67
a) Ortho positions b) Meta positions
c) Para positions d) None of the above B
15. A carbon atom in organic molecules which is directly linked to three carbon atoms are known as. 68
a) Primary carbon atom b) Secondary carbon atom
c) Tertiary carbon atom d) None of the above C
16. Majority of organic compounds contain. 69
a) Hydrogen and oxygen b) Nitrogen
c) Sulphur d) Halogens A
26. The organic compounds which contain at least one carboxyl group are called. 70
a) Methanoic acid b) Carboxylic acids
c) Ethanoic acids d) Pentanoic acids B
27. The carboxylic acid which contain two and three carboxyl groups are called. 71
a) Dis carboxylic and tricarboxylic acids b) Formic acid
c) Hexanoic acid d) Propanoic acid A
30. The first organic compound prepared in the laboratory was . 72
a) Sugar b) Alcohol
c) Urea d) None of the above C
31. It is found that all the organic compounds contain . 73
a) Carbon b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen A
32. Which of the following is not an inorganic compound? 74
a) CO2 b) CaC2
c) Na2CO3 d) CCl4 D
33. Which compound play very important role in the daily life of animals and plants? 75
a) Organic compounds b) Inorganic compounds
c) Both organic and inorganic compounds d) None of the above A
34. The major compound of natural gas is. 76
a) Butane b) Methane
c) Pentane d) Heptanes B
35. Petroleum contains alkenes up to. 77
a) C30 b) C40
c) C50 d) C60 B
36. The fraction of petroleum obtained at the temperature range of 40-1800C is called. 78
a) Kerosene oil b) Diesel
c) Petroleum gas d) Gasoline D
37. The fraction of petroleum obtained at the temperature range of 220-3500C is called. 79
a) Diesel oil b) Kerosene oil
c) Lubricating oil d) None of the above A
38. Cracking of alkenes involve the breaking of. 80
a) C-C bonds b) C-H bonds
c) Both C-C bonds C-H bonds d) None of the above C
39. Homologues differ from each other by an integral number of. 81
a) CH2 group b) CH3 group
c) CH group d) None of these A
40. The isomerism in which the functional group changes in the same molecular formula to form 82
different compounds is called.
a) Metamerism b) Functional isomerism
c) Position isomerism d) Chain isomerism B
41. The alternative positions on the benzene ring are called. 83
a) Ortho positions b) Meta positions
c) Para positions d) None of the above B
43. The opposite positions on the benzene ring are called. 84
a) Meta positions b) Para positions
c) Ortho positions d) None of the above B
44. The consecutive positions on the benzene ring are called. 85
a) Ortho positions b) Para positions
c) Meta positions d) None of the above A
45. To name an alcohol, ‘e’ from the name of alkane is replaced by. 86
a) al b) ol
c) Both al and ol d) None of the above B
47. Ethane is a member of. 87
a) Alkane series b) Saturated hydro carbons
c) Aromatic hydro carbons d) Alkyne series D
48. Benzene is a member of. 88
a) Alkane series b) Saturated hydro carbons
c) Aromatic hydro carbons d) Alkyne series C
49. The following organic compounds are all carbohydrate except. 89
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Starch d) Glycerol D
50. Fractional distillation of petroleum gives a fraction, paraffin oil, which boils between the range. 90
a) Room temperature b) 40-1800C
0
c) 160-250 C d) 220-3500C B
51. Quality of fuel is judged from its octane number. The best fuels are. 91
a) Straight chain hydrocarbons b) Branched chain hydrocarbons
c) Cyclic compounds d) Compounds containing benzene ring B
52. Hydrocarbons are studied in. 92
a) Organic chemistry b) In organic chemistry
c) Biochemistry d) Industrial chemistry A
53. Catenation is a process in which carbon shows the properties of making. 93
a) Multiple bond b) Hybridization
c) Long chains or rings of carbon atoms d) Showing isomerism C
54. The first organic compound obtained from inorganic substance is. 94
a) Benzene b) Urea
c) Dye d) Fiber B
55. Organic compounds are those which. 95
a) Must contain carbon as one of its constituents
b) Must contain carbon and hydrogen only
c) Artificially produced in the laboratory
d) Give a particular smell A
56. We use tetraethyl lead in gasoline to. 96
a) Reduce the consumption of fuel b) Reduce the price of fuel
c) Reduce the octane number of fuel d) Reduce the knocking of the engine D
57. Organic compound are produced in nature in. 97

a) Plants only b) Animals only
c) Atmosphere d) Both (a)and (b) D
58. What type of fuel is coal? 98
a) Solid fuel b) Liquid fuel
c) Gaseous fuel d) Semi liquid fuel A
59. The main components coal is. 99
a) Oxygen b) Sulphur
c) Hydrogen d) Carbon D
0
60. When coal is heated (500-1000 C) in the absence of air the process is called. 100
a) Carbonization b) Distillation
c) Cracking d) Reforming A
61. Petroleum in the unrefined form is called. 101
a) Rock oil b) Kerosene oil
c) Lubricating oil d) Gasoline A
62. The highest percentage of natural gas is that of. 102
a) Ethane b) Propane
c) Methane d) Butane C
63. The best definition of a good fuel is that. 103
a) It is difficult to ignite b) It produces large amount of smoke
c) It give out much heat d) It leaves much ash C
64. Which of the following main compounds of coal is the richest in carbon content? 104
a) Anthracite b) Bituminous coal
c) Sub bituminous coal d) Lignite A
65. Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called. 105
a) Monomers b) Polymers
c) Isomers d) Metamers C
66. Which of the following is called marsh gas. 106
a) Methane b) Ethane
c) Propane d) Butane A
67. Oxy acetylene flame is used for the cutting and welding of the metals it reaches a temperature 107
of. a) 10000C b) 20000C
0
c) 3000 C d) 40000C C
71. Compounds, CH3– O–CH3 and CH3–C H2 —OH, have the same molecular formula (C6H2O) but 108
different structure, are called .
a) Monomers b) Polymers
c) Isomers d) Metamers C
73. A thick viscous liquid obtained from the earth crust often of brown color or greenish black color 109
is called.
a) Lignite b) Coal tar
c) Petroleum d) Petrol C
74. Cracking is a process in which. c) Op
a) Larger molecular are broken down in to smaller molecules en
b) Smaller molecules are joined in to larger molecules cha
in carbon molecules are changed to cyclic molecules 110
d) Close chain molecules are change in to open chain
75. 3CHCH Cutube C6H6. The above reaction is.

6000C
a) Polymerization b) Cracking A
c) Addition d) Substitution 111
79. In Pakistan there are vast reservoirs of natural gas at.
a) Peshawar b) Sui
c) Lahore d) Kohat A
B
80. The percentage of methane in Sui gas is. 112
113
a) 50 % b) 60 %
c) 94.6 % d) 90 % C
CHEMISTRY OF HYDROCARBONS
1. The compounds which consist of hydrogen and carbon are called . 1

a) Hydrocarbons b) Carbon
c) Organic d) Inorganic A
2. n-butane is the example of . 2
a) Propane b) Hydrocarbon
c) Alkenes d) Butyne B
3. The saturated hydrocarbons are the compounds of hydrogen and carbon which 3
have .
a) All double bonds b) All triple bonds
c) All single bonds d) None of these C
4. Alkenes and cycloalkenes are the example of . 4
a) Unsaturated hydrocarbons b) Aromatic hydrocarbons
c) Simple hydrocarbons d) Saturated hydrocarbons A
5. Alkanes are also called . 5
a) Paraffins b) Hydrocarbons
c) Organic compounds d) None of these A
6. Alkenes have at least one Carbon–Carbon bond. 6
a) Single b) Double
c) Triple d) None of these B
7. Alkynes have at least one carbon–carbon bonds 7
a) Triple b) Double
c) Single d) None of these A
8. Methane is also called gas. 8
a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen
c) Marsh d) Simple C
9. The natural gas contains methane 9
a) 85-90% b) 80-85%
c) 75-80% d) 70-75% A
10. The laboratory preparation of methane is given as . 10
a) CH H CO2 + 2H2O
4+202

b) CH3 – COONa +
NaOH H  CH4 + Na2CO3
CaO
c) CH3Cl + Cl2  CH2Cl+ HCl
d) None of these B
11. The boiling point of methane is 11

a) -1620C b) -1920C
c) 2020C d) 7020C A
12. Methane is in water. 12
a) Reactive b) Soluble
c) Insoluble d) None of these C
13. The formula for dichloro methane is . 13
a) CH2 Cl2 b) CH3 Cl2
C) CH3 Cl d) None of these A
14. The formula for tetrachloro methane is . 14
a) CH2 Cl2 b) CH3 Cl2
c) CCl4 d) CHCl3 C
15. CH3 Cl2 +Cl2 15

 .
-1-
CHEMISTRY OF HYDROCARBONS
a) CH2 Cl2 + HCl b) CHCl2 + HCl
C) C+ 4HCl d) CCl4+ HCl A
16. CH4 + 2Cl2  . 16

a) CCl4 + HCl b) C+ 4HCl
B
c) C + 9HCl d) CHCl3 + HCl
17. The reducing order of reactivity of halogens is . 17
a) Cl2  Br2  I2 b) Cl2 < Br2  I2
c) Br2  Cl2  I2 d) I2  Br2  Cl2 A
18. The process of racking represented as . 18

a) CH4 12001400o C  CH + 2H
4 2
Absence in Air
b) CH4 +
H2O  CO + 3H2
c) CH4 + O  CH3OH
d) None of these A
19. The formula for the formaldehyde is . 19

a) CH3OH b) HCHO
C) CH4Cl d) None of these B
20. The commercial preparation of “H2” is represented by the following equation. 20
a) CH4 + H2O
Ni CO + 3H2 b) CH4 + O Cu CH3OH
9000 C 4000 C
c) CCHO + O
 HCOOH d) None of these A
21. Methane is gas used as . 21

a) Fuel b) Steam
c) Fertilizer d) None of these A
22. Natural gas contains ethane 22
a) 18-20% b) 8-10%
c) 28-30% d) 38- 40%
B
23. The formula for sod-propionate is . 23
a) C2H5 COONa b) CH2 = CH2
c) CH CH d) None of these A
24
24. CH2 = CH2 + H2   Ni
2503000 c
a) C2H6 + H2O b) CH3 – CH3 B
c) C2H8 d) None of these
25. The boiling point of ethane is 25
a) - 890C b) - 980C
c) -480C d) -840C A
26. When ethane reacts with oxygen then gas is formed. 26
a) O2 b) CO
c) CO2 d) CH4 C
27. Natural gas contains ethene 27
a) 1-1.5 % b) 4 – 5.5 %
c) 9 – 21 % d) 14 – 16 % A
-2-
28. The boiling point of ethene is . 28
a) 960C b) - 1050C
c) 2-50C d) 4070C B
H 29
29. C2H4 + 3O2  
a) 2CO2 + 2H2O + heat b) 2CO2 + 2H2O + heat
c) CO2 + 4H2O + heat d) None of these A
30. The formula for acetylene is _ 30

a) C2H4 b) C2H2
c) C2H6 d) None of these B
31. Acetylene was discovered in 31
a) 1999 b) 2000
c) 1837 d) 1899 D
32. When “C2H2” reacts with “O2” then is produced. 32
a) “CO2” and “H2O” b) “CO” and “H2O”
c) “H2” and “CH4” d) “Cl2” and “H2” A
33. The benzene contains double bonds. 33
a) Four b) Two
c) Three d) Five C
34. 2C6H6 + 15O2  34
a) 12CO2 + 6H2O b) CO2 + 8H2O
c) 9CO2 + 8H2O d) None of these A
35. Soda lime is a mixture of Ca(OH)2 and conc. 35

a) NaOH solution b) CaO solution
c) Na2CO3 solution d) None of these A
36. H – C – H bonds angles in methane are 36
a) 210. 30 b) 109.50
c) 104.50 d) 215.40 B
37. Ethyle halide is reduced to ethane by . 37
a) Nascent hydrogen b) Nascent oxygen
c)  - bonds d)  -bonds
A
38. All the bond angles of ethane molecules are . 38
a) 2110 b) 109.50
c) 215.50 d) 4100 B
39. The total number of sigma bond in ethane is . 39
a) Seven b) Five
c) Three d) Two A
40. Halogens are added quantitatively to ethylene to give . 40
a) Two b) Dihalide
c) Trihalide d) Dehydration B
41. The order of reactivity of halogen acid ethylene is . 41
a) HI  HBr  HCl b) HI  HBr HCl
c) HCl  HNO3  H2SO4 d) None of these A
42. Addition of water to a molecule is called . 42

a) Hydration b) Catalyst
c) Enzyme d) None of these A
43. In ethane, all the bond angles are of . 43
a) 2170 b) 1200
c) 2100 d) 2040 B
44. All the atoms of ethane are present in 44
a) One plane only b) In two planes
c) In three planes d) None of these A
45. Halogens are added to acetylene to give dihalide and 45
a) Monohalide b) Tetrahalide
c) Methane d) None of these B
46. Ozone is a of oxygen. 46
a) Reaction b) Form
c) Palm test d) Flame test B
47. The carbon atoms in ethane molecules are 47
a) SP2. hybridized b) SP3. hybridized
c) SP4. hybridized d) None of these B
48. Ozone is represented as 48
a) O13 b) O14
c) O15 d) O3 D
50. Benzene was discovered by _ in 1825. 49
a) Faraday b) Wortz.
c) Maxwell d) None of these A
01. Which of these is not an unsaturated molecule? 50
a) C4H6 b) C6H6
c) C8C18 d) C3H6 C
51
02. C3H8+ Cl 2 ligh3t  C H Cl + 2HCl is an example of :
6 2
a) Addition reaction b) Oxidation reaction
c) Substitution reaction d) Elimination reaction C
3. Reaction with a double bond gives which type of reaction? 52

a) Addition reaction b) Oxidation reaction
c) Substitution reaction d) Substitution reaction A
4. The IUPAC name of the following compound is 53
CH 3
|
CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2 CH 3
|
CH 2  CH 3
a) 3- methyl-3-ethylheptane b) 3- methyl-2-methylhexane
c) 3- methyl-3-ethlyhephne d) 4- methyl-3-ethylheptane B
5. A photochemical reaction which is catalyzed by the presence of 54
a) Ni b) Pt
c) Sunlight d) FeCl3 C
9. Which class of compounds is presented by the type formula ROR? 55
a) Aldehyde b) Ether
c) Ester d) Ketone B
10. The negative part of the addendum adds on to the carbon atoms joined to the least 56
number of hydrogen atoms. The statement is called
a) Markownikoff’s rule b) Peroxide effect
c) Elimination reaction d) Baeyer’s theory A
12. Which of the following hydrocarbon have the same general formula: 57
a) Alkane & Alkene b) Alkene & Alkynes
c) Alkene & Dienes d) Alkene & Cycloalkane D
13. Which of the following statement is correct about hydrocarbons: 58
a) Alkene having less than two carbon atom is not possible.
b) Alkene is also called as parafins
c) General formula of alkene is CnH2n - 2
d) If unsaturated hydrocarbons contain triple bond between carbon-carbon atom, then
it is called alkene A
16. Hydrocarbons with double or triple covalent bonds between any two carbon atoms are 59
called:
a) Saturated hydrocarbons b) Unsaturated hydrocarbons B
c) Aromatic compounds d) Alkanes
17. The IUPAC name for acetylene is: 60
a) Ethane b) Ethyne
c) Propyne d) 2-butyne B
18. General formula of saturated hydrocarbon is: 61
a) CnH2nO b) CnH2n +1OH
c) CnH2n +2 d) CnH2n -2 C
21. At ordinary temperature, halogens added to the alkenes form: 62
a) Vicinal dihalides b) Alkyl halides
c) Alkanes d) Vinyl halide A
0
22. Carbon-carbon bond length in alkyne is 1.20 A and carbon-hydrogen bond length is 63
1.080A, hybridization in alkyne is:
a) SP3 b) SP2
c) SP d) d2 SP3 C
23. Hydrogen atom of acetylene are: 64
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Neutral d) Amphoteric A
25. Ethyl alcohol is heated with onc.H2SO4, the product formed is 65
a) H3C – C – OC2H5 b) C3H6
 C
C
c) C2H4 d) C2H2
26. Which has least carbon-carbon bond length: 66
a) Ethane b) Ethene
c) Ethyne d) Benzene C
29. What happens when propane is treated wit HBr in the presence of peroxide: 67
a) n-propyl bromide is formed b) 1,2 dibromopropane is formed
c) Propylene chloride is formed d) None of these A
30. Markownikoff’s rule is useful in predicting the product of a reaction between an alkene 68
and:
a) H2 b) Br2 C
c) HBr d) O3
31. Which statement about butene is not correct? 69

a) it decolourises aqueous bromine b) it is generally unreactive
c) it is a hydrocarbon d) it is a monomer of polyethene B
32. Which of the following gases gives a red prepipitate with an ammonical solution of 70
cuprous chloride:
a) acetylene b) ethylene
c) ethane d) propylene A
33. The hydrocarbon C3H6 must have: 71
a) all single bonds b) one double bond
c) one triple bond d) two double bonds B
34. Polymerization of acetylene results in the formation of: 72
a) benzene b) ethane
c) ethylene d) toluene A
35. Name the hydrocarbon that is a liquid at S.T.P.: 73
a) ethane b) Propane
c) n-butane d) n-Pentane D
36. Ammonical silver nitrate solution reacts with acetylene to form: 74
a) Silver acetate b) Silver acetylide
c) Silver formate d) A silver mirror B
37. Marsh gas contains a large proportion of: 75
a) acetylene b) ethane
c) ethylene d) methane D
38. Ethylene reacts with conc.H2SO4 to give 76
a) acetabldehyde b) acetylene
c) ethyl hydrogen sulphate d) formaldehyde C
39. Which of the following gases is used for welding? 77
a) acetylene b) ethane
c) ethylene d) methane A
40. Give the antiknock gent used in gasoline: 78
a) diethyldimethyl lead b) ethyltrimethyl lead
c) tetraethyl lead d) triethylmethyl lead C
41. Ethylene reacts with alkaline KMnO4 to form: 79
a) acetaldehyde b) ethylene glycol
c) ethylene oxide d) formaldehyde B
42. CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr  80
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –Br b) CH2 – CH– CH3


Br
c) CH2 – CH = CH2 d) CH3 – H2C – CH3

Br
B
43. The reaction, 2RX + 2Na R – R + 2NaX is an example of : 81

a) Cannizaro’s reaction b) Kolbe’s reaction
c) Svbatier & sanderen’s reaction d) Wurtz reaction D
44. Acetylene on reduction yields: 82
a) alkane b) alcohol
c) acetaldehyde d) Acetone A
45. Baeyer’s rest is not applicable: 83
a) alkyne b) alkene
c) both of these d) none of these D
47. The solution used for the purification of acetylene is: 84
a) CuSO4 solution b) Baeyer’s reagent
c) Silver nitrate solution d) none of the above B
48. The molecular formula of a product formed by the reaction between propane and 85
chlorine in light could be:
a) C3H5Cl2 b) C3H7Cl2
c) C3H7Cl d) C3H3Cl4 C
49. Which compound is reacted with water, in the presence of a catalyst and under high 86
pressure, to make industrial ethanol:
a) ethane b) ethane
c) ethyne d) ethanal B
50. Which type of reaction occurs between ethane and hydrogen? 87
a) addition b) oxidation
c) substitution d) reduction B
51. By the action of water on methyl magnesium bromide, is obtained: 88
a) CH4 b) C2H6
c) CH3OH d) C2H5OH A
52. Compounds with maximum percentage of hydrogen is: 89
a) C2H2 b) C6H6
c) C2H4 d) CH4 D
53. The reaction conditions leading to the best yields of C2H5Cl are: 90
a) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 uv b) C2H6 +  d ark

room
temp 
l i ght


c) C2H6 +Cl2 (excess) u .v li ght

u .v d) C2H6 + Cl2     A
li ght
 
54. By which of the following processes can acetic acid be converted into methane? 91
a) Dehydrogenation b) Dehydration
c) Decarboxylation d) Polymerization C
55. When aluminium carbide is hydrolyzed, gas produced is: 92
a) C2H2 b) CH4
c) C2H4 d) C6H6 B
56. Ethylene belongs to the class: 93
a) alkynes b) Paraffins
c) Olefins d) Amines C
57. A gas does not give any precipitate with ammonical AgNO3 but decolourises alkaline 94
KMnO4. The gas may be:
a) C2H6 b) C2H4
c) C2H2 d) C3H8 B
58. Which of the following displaces hydrogen on reaction with sodium? 95
a) CH4 b) C2H6
c) C2H4 d) C2H2 D
59. Hydrogen atoms are most acidic in: 96
a) ethane b) ethane
c) ethyne d) benzene C
60. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C – C single bond of HC  C – CH = CH2 is: 97
a) sP3 – SP3 b) SP2 – SP3
c) SP – SP 2
d) sP3 – SP C
ALKYL HALIDES
1. When we replace one hydrogen atom of alkane with halogen atom then the compound formed, is 1
called
a) Alkyl halide b) Organic compound
c) Inorganic compound d) Carbon compound A
2. The general formula for alkyl halide is 2
a) CnH2n+3 b) CnH2n+1X
c) CnH2nX d) Cnh2n+5X B
3. Primary Ethyl chloride is the example of alkyl halide. 3
a) Secondary b) Triple
c) Primary d) Halogen C
4. 2-propyl chloride is the example of alkyl halide. 4
a) Primary b) Triple
c) Halogen d) Secondary D
5. The decreasing order of reactivity of halogens acid is . 5
a) HI > HBr > HCl b) HI > HNO3 > H2SO4
c) HI > HNO3 < HCl d) HI < H2SO4 < HNO3 A
06. CH2 = CH2 + HBr  6
a) CH3  CH3 –Br. b) CH3 – CH2 – Br.
c) CH3 – CH3 – Br. d) CH3 - CH2 – HBr.` B
7
7. CH3 – CH2 – OH + HCI  
Z n Cl2
Heat
a) CH3 – CH2 – Cl + H2O b) CH3 – CH3 – OH + HCl A
c) CH3 – Cl + H2O d) None of these
8
8. C2H5OH + Pyridine 
SOCl2
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 + 2NaCl + SO2 b) C2H5Cl + SO2 + HCl B

c) C2H5 + SO2 + 2HCl d) None of these
9. The formula for phosphorous acid is 9
a) CH3OH b) HNO3.
c) H2SO4 d) H3PO3 D
10
10. CH4 + Cl2 Diffused Sunlight 
a) CH3Cl + HCl b) CH4Cl + HCl
c) CH2Cl2 + HCl d) None of these A
11. When alkyl halides are treated with “Zn” and dil-HCl then _ are formed. 11
a) Alkenes b) Halogens
c) Alkanes d) None of these C
12. When alkyl halides are reacted with alcoholic “KOH” at 1000 C then are formed. 12
a) Alkenes b) Alkanes
c) Halogens d) Primary amines A
13. The general formula for primary amines is 13
a) R2NH b) RNH2
c) R – N – OH d) None of above B
14. The general formula for secondary amines is 14
a) R2NH b) R2N2
c) RNH2 d) None of above A
15. The general formula for tertiary amines is 15
a) R3N b) R2HX
c) RH2NH3 d) None of these A
-1-
16. The formula for ethyl alcohol is 16
a) CH3OH b) C2H5OH.
c) CH3Cl d) None of these A
17. The formula for propoinic acid is 17
a) C2H5COOH b) CH3COOH
c) C2H5OH d) None of these A
20. C2H5+ is the example of 18

a) Electrophile b) Nucleophile
c) Protons d) None of these A
21. Nucleophilic substitution reaction is represented as 19
a) SN2 – reaction b) SN- reaction
c) SN3- reaction d) None of these B
22. Tertiary alkyl halides give reaction 20
a) SN1 – reaction b) Sn2- reaction
c) SN3- reaction d) None of these A
24. Grignard’s reagent is an compound 21
a) Grignard b) Soluble
c) Organometallic d) None of these C
25. The formula for ethyl nitrile is 22
a) C2H5CN b) C2H5OH
c) CH3COOH d) C8H12 A
1. The organic compounds having the general formula CnH2n+1X (X= Cl, Br, I) are called: 23
a) Alkyl halides b) Alkyl oxides
c) Alkyl hydroxide d) Alkyl hydrates A
2. Alcohols react with halogen acids (HCl, HBr, Hl) in the presence of ZnCl2 as a catalyst to give: 24
a) Aldehydes b) Ketones
c) Alkyl halides d) Aldols C
3. In Wartz reaction, alkyl halides reaction with ………. metal in ethereal solution to give symmetrical 25
alkane containing the double number of carbon atoms
a) Potassium b) Sodium
c) Calcium d) Magnesium B
4. Grignard’s reagent is 26
a) Alkyl potassium halide b) Aryl sodium halide
c) Alkyl sodium halide d) Alkyl magnesium halide D
5. When alkyl halides react with Mg in the presence of ether as a solvent to form alkyl magnesium 27
halide also called:
a) Grignard’s reagent b) Frankland’s reagent
c) Wurtz reagent d) Hoffman’s reagent A
6. The hydrolysis of an alkyl magnesium halide with water gives: 28
a) An alkene b) An alkyne
c) An alkane d) An alkyl halide C
10. An alkyl halide reacts with aqueous KOH solution to give an: 29
a) Aldehyde b) Alkane
c) Alcohol d) Acid C
C 30
11. CH3 – CH2Br + KOH 1000 2 CH2 = CH + KBr + ………….
a) H2O b) H3O+
A
c) HBr d) KH
12. The chemical reactions, in which an atom or a group of atoms replaces another atom or a group of 31
atoms from a molecule to form a new molecule are called:
a) Addition reactions b) substitution reactions
c) Subtraction reactions d) electrolytic reactions B
14. The electrophiles are either positively charged or are deficient of ……………… 32
a) Protons b) Neutrons
c) Electrons d) Nucleus C
15. Example of electrophile is: 33
a) C2H5+ b) NH3
c) CH3COO- d) BR - A
17. Nucleophile are either negatively charged or have lone pair of ……….. 34
a) Protons b) Electrons
c) Neutrons d) Nucleons B
18. Electrophilic-Nucleophilic reactions are reactions between electrophiles and ………….. 35
a) Nucleophiles b) Hydrophiles
c) Protophiles d) Neutrophiles A
19. The replacement of a nucleophile in a molecule by another ………… is called a nucleophilic 36
substitution reaction
a) Protophile b) Hydrophile
c) Electrophile d) Nucleophile D
21. The SN-reaction whose rate of reaction depends upon the concentration of two molecules is called: 37
a) SN3 reaction b) SN1 reaction
c) SN2 reaction d) SN0 reaction C
22. Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions always complete in …………… 38
a) Two steps b) A single step
c) Three steps d) Four steps B
23. The rate of SN2 reaction depends upon the concentration of two molecules i.e., R – X and: 39
a) Protophyle b) Hydrophile
c) Electrophile d) Nucleophile D
24. The SN – reaction whose rate of reaction depends upon the concentration of only one molecule is 40
called...........nucleophilic substitution reaction.
a) Unimolecular b) Bimolecular
c) Trimolecular d) Tetramolecular A
25. Unimolecular substitution reaction always completes in ……………. 41
a) One step b) Two steps
c) Three steps d) Four steps B
26. Generally SN2 type reactions are given by: 42
a) Tertiary alkyl halide b) Secondary alkyl halide
c) Primary alkyl halide d) Metal halide B
27. Generally tertiary alkyl halides give …………. 43
a) SN4 reaction b) SN3 reaction
c) SN2 reaction d) SN1 reation D
28. The order of the case of formation of carbonium ion of alkyl halide is: 44
a) Ter > Sec > Pri b) Ter < Sec < Pri
c) Sec > Ter > Pri d) Sec < Ter < Pri A
29. Attacking nucleophile + alkyl halide  organic compound + ……… 45
a) Alkaloid ion b) Halide ion
c) Hydronium ion d) Carbonium ion B
30. A carbon atom carrying a positive charge and attached to three more atoms or groups is called: 46
a) Hydronium ion b) Oxanium ion
c) Carbonium ion d) Sulphonium ion C
1. The elimination of hydrogen halide from adjacent carbon atoms is called 47
a) Dehydrogenation b) Hydrogenation
c) Dehydrohalogenation d) None of the above C
3. Acids may be obtained by treating Grignard reagent with 48
a) CO b) CO2
c) AlCl3 d) (HCOO)2 Ca B
4. What is the main product obtained when Grignard’s reagent is allowed to react with ammonia 49
a) An aldehyde b) A ketone
c) Hydrocarbon d) None of the above C
5. When Grignard’s reagent is hydrolyzed with water they are easily converted into 50
a) Alkane b) Alkene
c) Alkyne d) None of the above A
6. The rate of SN2 reaction depends upon the 51
a) concentration of alkyl halides
b) Concentration of nucleophile
c) Concentration of alkyl halides and nucleophile
7. The stability of the carbonium ion formed in the first step of the SN1 reaction decreases from 52
a) R3 C+ > R2 CH+ > 2 b) RCH+ 2 > R2 CH+ > R3C+
RCH+
c) R2CH+ > RCH+2 > R3C+ d) None of the above A
8. Alkyl halides in which a halogen atom is bonded to that carbon atom which are directly bonded with 53
one hydrogen atom is called
a) Primary alkyl halides b) Secondary alky halides
c) Tertaiary alkyl halides d) None of the above B
9. On adding formaldehyde to Grignard reagent 54
a) Primary alcohol is formed b) Secondary alcohol is formed
c) Acetone is formed d) None of the above A
10. When ethane is treated with HBr 55
a) Ethyl bromide is formed b) Bromine is evolved
c) Methyl bromide is formed d) None of the above is formed A
11. The organic compounds having the general formula CnH2n+1 X (X=Cl, Br, I) or R – X are called 56
a) Monoholo alkanes or alkyl halides b) Hydrogen halides
c) Ethyl halides d) Aryl halides A
14. Ammonia reacts with Grignard’s reagent to form an 57
a) Amine b) Alkane
c) Alkene d) Alkyl B
16. The formula of chloramine is 58
a) CNCl b) NH2Cl
c) SOCl2 d) S2Cl2 B
17. SOCl2 is the formula of 59
a) Thionyl chloride b) Chloramine
c) Cayanogen chloride d) None of the above A
18. SN1 – reaction completes in 60
a) One step b) Three steps
c) Two steps d) Four steps C
19. SN2 – reaction complete in 61
a) One step b) Two steps
c) Three steps d) Five steps A
20. An alkyl halide may be a 62
a) Primary alkyl halide b) Secondary alkyl halide
c) Tertiary alkyl halide d) All of the above D
21. In alkyl halides halogen is 63
a) Partially negative b) Partially positive
c) Neutral d) None of the above A
22. Which of the following compounds does not react with bromine? 64
a) Propene b) Ethylamine
c) Chloroform d) Phenol C
23. When formaldehyde is added to Grignard reagent we get 65
a) Aldehyde b) Acetone
c) Primary alcohol d) Secondary alcohol C
24. Ethyle chloride reacts with alc, KOH to give 66
a) C2H4 b) C2H5Cl
c) CH3I d) C2H5OH A
25. Which of the following alkyl halides is used as an mthylating agent? 67
a) CH2H5I b) CH3I
c) C2H5Br d) C2H5Cl B
26. What is formed, when ethane is treated with HBr ? 68
a) Methyl bromide b) Ethyl bromide
c) Bromine d) Hydrogen B
27 The compounds or species in search of electrons are called 69
c) Nitriles d) None of the above A
28. The compounds or species in search of a positive charge are called 70
c) Nitriles d) None of the above B
29. Which of the following is charged negatively 71
a) Nucleophiles b) Electrophiles
c) Both nucleophiles and electrophiles d) None of the above A
33. Allkyl halides are the derivatives of 72
a) Alkyne b) Alkene
c) Alkane d) Benzene C
34. Grignard’s reagent is 73
a) alkyl halide b) Magnesium halide
c) Alkyl magnesium halide d) Ethereal solution of an alkyl halide C
35. Grignard’s reagent reacts with water to form 74
a) Alkane b) Allkene
c) Alkyne d) Ether A
39. Which of the following carbonium ion is more stable? 75
a) R3C+ b) R2C+H
c) RC+H2 d) C+H3 A
40. ‘R’ in organic chemistry stands for which radical? 76
a) Alkyl b) Aryl
c) Acyl d) Carbonyl A
42. R - CH2 – X is an example of 77
a) Primary alkyl halide b) Secondary alkyl halide
c) Tertiary alkyl halide d) None of these A
43. A nucleophile is a 78
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base
c) Bronsted acid d) Bronsted base B
44. An electrophile is a/an 79
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base
c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base A
45. Rate determining step in SN2 type reaction is always the 80
a) Fast step b) Slow step
c) Intermediate step d) None of these B
46. Ethyl bromide is formed by the reaction of HBr with 81
a) Ethane b) Ethene
c) Ethyne d) Propane B
47. The chemical reaction which involves the removal of hydrogen halide (H – X) from two adjacent 82
carbon atoms of an organic molecule is called
a) Dehydration b) Dehydrogenation
c) Dehalogenation d) Dehydrohalogenation D
48. When metallic sodium in the presence of ether is heated with alkyl halide, a higher alkane is 83
produced the reaction is called
a) Hoffmann’s reaction b) Grignard’s reaction
c) Wurtz reaction d) Haloform reaction C
49. Grignard’s reagent can be prepared by the reaction of alkyl halide with fresh magnesium turnings in 84
the presence of
a) Ether b) anhydrous ether
c) Water d) Sulpuric acid B
50. Species deficient in electrons are called 85
a) Electrophiles b) Nucleophiles
c) Oxidizing agent d) Bases A
52. Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide is carried on with 86
a) Alcoholic KOH b) Alcoholic NaOH
c) Aqueous KOH d) Aqueous NaOH A
53. A carbon atom carrying a positive charge and attached to three other atoms or group is called 87
a) Carbonium ion b) Carbanium ion
c) Oxonium ion d) Carbene A
54. A carbon atom carrying negative charge and attached to three other atoms or groups is called 88
a) Oxonium ion b) Carbanium ion
c) Carbanion d) Carbene C
56. In primary alkyl halides the halogen atom is attached to a carbon which is itself attached to 89
a) One other carbon atom b) Two other carbon atoms
c) three other carbon atoms d) Four other carbon atoms A
58. Identify the compound is formed when fomaldehyde reacts with CH3 – Mg – Br, and is 90
subsequently hydrolysed with dil HCl
a) Ethyl alcohol b) Iso-propyl alcohol
c) Tert: butyl alcohol d) Methyl alcohol A
CARBAN COMPOUNDS WITH OXYGEN CONTAINING FUNCTIONAL GROUPS
1. The compountds in which C-atom of the benzene ring is directly attached with OH-group, are called 1
.
a) Phenols b) Halides
c) Alcohols d) None of these A
3. When the C-atom of open chain is directly bonded with OH-group then the compound formed are 2
called
a) Halides b) Alcohols
c) Benzene d) None of these B
4. The formula for propyl alcohol is 3
a) CH3OH b) C2H5OH
c) CH3-CH2-OH d) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH D
5. The general formula for primary alcohol is 4
a) R – OH b) R – Cl
c) R – NH3 d) None of these A
6. The general formula for secondary alcohol is 5
Cl
H
|
|
c)
RC d) R  OH  R
OH | C
| NH 3
R
7. The general formula for tertiary alcohol is 6

R CI
| |
c) d)
RC RC
OH Cl
| |
C
R NH 3
8. The alcohols which contain only one OH—group, are called alcohols. 7
a) Monohydric b) Dihydric
c) Complex d) Simple A
09. We can represent n-propyl alcohol as 8
a) CH3 - OH – CH3 b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
c) CH3 – CH2 – OH d) None of these B
10. The alcohols containing two OH – groups are called alcohols. 9
a) Formic b) Benzonic
c) Dihydric d) Trihydric C
11. The formula for glycol is 10
a) CH3OH b) CH3R
CH 2  CH 2
c) | | d) CH3 – CH2 – OH
OH OH C
12. The alcohols containing three OH – groups are called alcohols. 11

a) Trihydric b) Dihydric
c) Simple d) Monohydric A
-1-
14. The alcohols which have more than one OH – groups are called alcohols 12
a) Polyhydric b) Monohydric
c) Simple d) Dihydric A
15. The compounds in which C – atoms of carbonyl group is directly bonded with at least one H – atom, 13
are called
a) Aldehydes b) Dihydric
c) Monydric d) Polyhydric A
O 14
16.
|| is the formula for
H C
H
a) Benzophenone b) Cyclohexanone
c) formaldehyde d) None of these C
17. The compounds which are formed by the displacement of OH – group of carboxylic group by any 15
halogen atom, are called
a) Acid halides b) Benzamide
c) Formamide d) None of these A
18. The compounds which are formed by the displacement of OH – group of carboxylic group by an 16
amino group, are called
a) Acid halides b) Acid amides
c) Esters d) Methanol B
19. The formula for ethyl benzoate is 17
O O
a) || b) ||
CH3  C  NH 2 H  C  NH 2
O
c) || d) CH3 – CH2 – OH
C6 H 5  C  OC2 H 5
C
20. The formula for methanol is 18
a) C2H5OH b) CH3OH
c) CH3CI d) None of these B
ZnO / atm200 19
21. CO +
2H2

4004500 C
a) CH3OH b) C2H5OH
c) CO2 + H2 d) C12H22O11 A
22. CH3 – OH + SOCl2  20

a) 2C2H5OH b) CH3OH + H2O
c) CH3Cl + SO2 + HCl d) None of these C
23. Methanol is used to prepare 21

a) Formaldehyde b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen d) Alcohol A
24. Methanol is used to prepare in paints and 22
a) Acids b) Base
c) Varnish d) None of these C
25. Ethyl alcohol is prepared by the fermentation of 23
a) Starch b) Water
c) Soil d) Fire A
26. When primary alcohols react with acidified “K2Cr2O7”, then are formed 24
a) Methyl alcohol b) Aldehydes
c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen B
ZnCl2 25
27. C2H5OH +
HCl


H
a) C2H5(OH)2 + Cl2 b) C2H5Cl + H2O
c) C2H5 + HCl d) None of these B
28. The process to prepare esters, is called 26

a) Esterification b) Ethers
c) Alkyl halides d) Halogens A
29. Ethyl alcohol is used to purify 27
a) NaCl b) Na2CO3
c) NaOH d) None of these C
31. Formaldehyde is also called 28
a) Methanal b) Alcohol
c) Acetone d) Bakelite A
32. The formula for acetaldehyde is 29
a) Methanol b) CH3CHO
c) C2H5OH d) CH3OH B
35. The formula for acetic acid is 30
a) CH3COOH b) C2H5OOH
c) CH3OH d) C2H5OH A
37. The formula for phenol is 31
a) C6H5 – OH b) CH3 – OH
c) C2H5 – OH d) CH3 – Cl A
39. The phenol is a antiseptic 32
a) Low b) Great
c) Powerful d) Hydroxide C
40. The formula for ethyl bisulphate is 33
a) C2H5HSO4 b) C2H5OH
c) CH3OH d) CH3Cl A
1219. When phenol is reduced in the presence of Zn dust, we get 34
a) Cyclohexene b) Cycolhexane
c) Benzene d) Benzyne C
1220. Alcohol reacts with halogen acid to produce 35
a) Alkyl halides b) Aldelydes
c) Ketones d) Alkanes A
1221. Acetone may be converted to iodoform by heating with 36
a) Br2 b) I2
c) F2 d) CI2 B
1222. Nitration of phenol gives 37
a) O-nitrophenol b) p-nitrophenol
c) m-nitrophenol d) Both O and p-nitrophenol D
1223. The functional group aldehyde is 38
a) R – X b)  COX
c)  CHO d) COOR C
1224. Which of a following is used as anesthetics? 39

a) Alcohol b) Ether
c) Aldehyde d) Acid B
1225. Treatment of a secondary alcohol with a suitable oxidizing agent (K2Cr2O2) results in the formation 40
of
a) Ketone b) Aldehyde
c) Ether d) Alkyl halide A
1226. Which of the following is a chief constituent of vinegar? 41
a) Alcohol b) Glucose
c) Sucrose d) Acetic acid D
1229. The formaldehyde in the presence of K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 gives 42
a) Ethanol b) Acetic acid
c) Formic acid d) None of these C
1230. The formula of glycine is 43
a) Cl CH2  COOH b) NH2  CH2  COOH
c) NO2 CH2 COOH d) None of these B
1233. Which of the following is known as wood spirit? 44
a) ethyl alcohol b) propyl alcohol
c) methyl alcohol d) butyl alcohol C
1234. Methyl alcohol possesses 45
a) burning taste b) poisonous
c) causing madness d) all these D
1235. Oxidation of methyl alcohol gives 46
a) formaldehyde b) acetone
c) ester d) acid A
1237. The malt-sugar in the presence of yeast or invertase gives 47
a) fructose b) glucose
c) lignin d) alcohol B
1238. Glucose in the presence of zymase is converted into 48
a) alcohol b) acid
c) ethyl alcohol d) ketone C
1239. Alcohols react with carboxylic acids, acid halides, acid anhydrides to produce the class of 49
compounds known as
a) Grignard’s reagent b) esters
c) amides d) none of these B
1240. Dehydration of ethyl alcohol yields 50
a) aldehyde b) ketone
c) acid d) alkene D
1241. Ethyl alcohol may be identified by 51
a) ring test b) iodoform test
c) tollen’s test d) Baeyer’s test B
1242. Oxidation of formaldehyde yields 52
a) acetic acid b) formic acid
c) sulphuric acid d) lactic acid B
1243. Formaldehyde on reduction gives 53
a) methyl alcohol b) ethyl alcohol
c) formic acid d) acetic acid A
1244. Which of the following gives Fehling’s solution test positive? 54
a) aldehyde b) ketone
c) acid d) ester A
1247. The oxidation of acetaldehyde gives 55
a) propanol b) acetone
c) formic acid d) acetic acid D
1249. Acetic acid reacts with thionyl chloride to give 56
a) acetic anhydride b) acetyl chloride
c) ethyl acetate d) none of these B
1250. Oxidation of 2-propanol gives 57
a) propanone b) butanone
c) pentanone d) none of these A
1251. The hydroxyl derivatives of aromatic hydrocarbons which have the  OH group directly bonded to 58
the ring C-atom are called
a) alcohols b) ketones
c) esters d) phenols D
1252. Dow’s process is used for the preparation of 59
a) esters b) ethers
c) alcohols d) phenols D
1253. Which of the following is weakly acidic in nature? 60
a) alcohol b) phenol
c) aldehyde d) amide B
1254. Phenol is used in the preparation of 61
a) aspirin b) phenacetin
c) salol d) all of these D
1262. Which of the following is produced when an aqueous solution of butan-2-ol is refluxed with dil 62
acidified KMnO4?
a) Butanol b) Butanoic acid
c) Butanone d) Butene C
1272. Which one of the following compounds gives an immediate precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate? 63
a) CH3CH2CH2Cl b) CH3CCl3
c) CH3COCl d) C6H5Cl C
1275. Which class of compounds is commonly used for the artificial flavouring in jams? 64
a) Aldehydes b) Ketones
c) Carboxylic acids d) Esters D
938. Rectified spirit contains 65
a) 95.6 % alcohol b) 75.0 % alcohol
c) 100.0 % alcohol d) 85.4 % alcohol A
939. Alcoholic fermentation is brought out by the action of 66
a) Yeast b) CO2
c) O2 d) CO A
940. What is the end product in the process of fermentation 67
a) Methyl alcohol b) Ethanol
c) CH3CHO d) Ethylene B
941. Which is an isomer of ethanol 68
a) CH3OH b) CH3OCH3
c) C2H3OC2H5 d) C6H5OH B
942. Glycerine is a 69
a) secondary alcohol b) tertiary alcohol
c) trihydric alcohol d) ester C
945. A product formed by the reaction of sodium with ethanol is 70
a) H2O b) NaOH
c) NaH d) H2 D
946. Which of the following alcohols is least soluble in water 71
a) CH3OH b) C2H7OH
c) C6H13OH d) C10H21OH D
955. Aldehydes may be distinguished from ketones by the use of 72
a) conc H2SO4 b) Grignard’s reagent
c) Pyrogllol d) Fehlings solution D
956. A an aldehyde on oxidation gives 73
a) an alcohol b) a ketone
c) an acid d) an amine C
961. Which compound undergoes iodoform reaction 74
a) HCHO b) (CH3)2CO
c) CH3OH d) CH2ClCOOH B
969. The reagent that reacts easily with both acetaldehyde and acetone is 75
a) Fehlings solution b) Grignard’s reagent
c) Schiff’s reagent d) Tollen’s reagent B
974. Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare 76
a) acetone b) P.V.C
c) bakelite d) diethylether D
977. The reaction, in which an alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide to produce ether, is known as 77
a) hydrolysis b) kolbe’ reaction
c) Williamson’s synthesis d) Wurtz rection C
978. According to lewis concept, ethers behave as 78
a) acid b) base
c) neutral d) none of the above B
981. on heating ethyl ether to 400oC in the presence of Al2O3 we get 79
a) acetylene b) ethylene
c) ethane d) ethyl alcohol B
983. The reaction of formic acid with concentrated H2SO4 gives 80
a) CH3COOH b) HCNO
c) CO2 d) CO D
984. The acid present in vinegar is 81
a) CH3COOH b) HCl
c) H2SO4 d) HNO3 A
CHEMISTRY OF LIFE
1. The group of chemical substances which take part in the life sustaining processes and gives us 1
energy, is called
a) Food b) Energy
c) Catalyst d) Minerals A
2. The components of food which deals with different functions, are called 2
a) Carbohydrates b) Nutrients
c) Starch d) None of these B
3. Fats, minerals and water, are all called 3
a) Food b) Material
c) Nutrients d) None of these C
4. Digestion is a process in which non-diffusible organic molecules are changed into 4
smaller molecules
a) Proteins b) Fats
c) Vitamins d) Diffusible D
6. For vital processes, the_ is the most important source of energy. 5
a) Maltose b) Carbohydrate
c) Complex d) Sugar B
7. The formula for glucose is 6

a) C6H12O6 b) CO2
c) CH3OH d) C15H31 A
8. For all living cells, the protein is an important _ 7

a) Polymer b) Constituent
c) Fat d) None of these B
10. The hydrates of carbon, are called 8

a) Amino acids b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins d) Polysaccharides B
11. The general formula for carbohydrates, is 9

a) C6H12O6 b) CnH2n+2
c) Cx(H2O)y d) None of these C
12. 6CO2 + 6H2O

 10
sun light
a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 b) C6H6O6 + 6H2O A
c) C6H12O6 +  H d) C6H6O6 +  H
13. There are _ main types of carbohydrates. 11

a) Five b) Three
c) Two d) Four B
14. Monosaccharides are the _ carbohydrates. 12

a) Simplest b) Complex
c) Equal d) None of these A
15. Aldoses are those carbohydrates which contain functional group. 13

a) Ketonic b) Simple
c) Aldehydic d) None of these C
16. The carbohydrates containing _ functional group, are called ketoses 14

a) Ketonic b) Aldehydic
c) Ketosis d) Complex A
17. Glucose is an example of _ . 15

a) Fructose b) Aldoses
c) Ketoses d) Protein B
-1-
CHEMISTRY OF LIFE
18. Fructose is an example of _ 16

a) Ketoses b) Aldoses
c) Sunlight d) Protein A
19. The glucose produces _ for our body. 17

a) Starch b) Amylose
c) Energy d) None of these C
20. Polysaccharides are partially _ in water. 18

a) Soluble b) Insoluble
c) Difference d) None o0f these A
21. We can get vitamin-A from _ 19

a) Cow and fish b) Milk and fish.
c) Cow and tomatoes d) None of these B
22. We can get vitamin-D from _ 20

a) Meat and fish b) Meat and tomatoes
c) Glucose and fish d) Glucose and tomatoes A
23. We can get vitamin-E from _ . 21

a) Folic acid and cow. b) Milk and vegetables oils
c) Milk and tomatoes d) None of these B
24. We can get vitamin-C from 22

a) Orange and Lemon b) Milk and fish
c) Milk and orange d) None of these A
25. There are _ types of amino acids. 23

a) Five b) Three
c) Four d) Nine C
26. The amino acids which cannot be synthesized in our body, are called _ amino acids. 24
a) Essential b) Compound
c) Fatty acids d) None of these A
27. The amino acids which are synthesized in our body, are called _ amino acids 25
a) Essential b) Non-essential
c) General d) Compound B
28. The diet of an average person constitutes about _ edible lipids. 26

a) 25 – 28 % b) 30 – 35 %
c) 60 – 80 % d) 90 – 95 % A
29. The solid states of esters of fatty acids and glycerol are generally called_ . 27
a) Oils b) Fats
c) Fatty acids d) None of these B
30. The liquid state of fat is called an _ 28

a) Oil b) Fat
c) Vegetable ghee d) None of these A
31. The activity of an enzyme depends upon the factor _ 29

a) Temperature b) Enzymes
c) Complex d) None of these A
32. Undernutrition is the effect of a diet, efficient in _ . 30

a) All nutrients b) Compounds
c) Catabolism d) Nutrient A
-2-
CHEMISTRY OF LIFE
33. During anabolism energy is _ 31

a) Glucose b) Absorbed
c) Milk d) Fish B
34. Glucose is an example of _ nutrient food. 32

a) Milk b) Fish
c) Single d) Double C
35. The total carbohydrates in plants vary from _ of the dry mass of a plant. 33
a) 60 to 90 % b) 60 to 100 %
c) 50 to 80 % d) 120 to 150 % A
36. A common pentose is _ 34

a) Good food b) Ribose
c) Extrose d) Egg B
37. Common table sugar called sucrose belongs to _ 35

a) Oligosaccharides b) Fats
c) Minerals d) None of these A
38. Amino acids are the basic construction units of _ . 36

a) Fats b) Proteins
c) Glucose d) Fatty acids B
39. Hydrolysis of proteins gives_ . 37

a) Amino acids b) Fatty acids
c) Glucose d) Mineral acids A
40. Peanut oil contains vitamin _ . 38

a) R and C b) K
c) M d) D B
1. The branch of chemistry that deals with the chemical processes occurring in the living matter 39
ranging from viruses and bacteria to plants and animals is called:
a) Analytical chemistry b) Biochemistry
c) Nuclear chemistry d) Stereo-chemistry B
2. The group of chemical reagents required by the living matter to maintain life is called: 40
a) Food b) Diet
c) Nutrient d) Nutrition A
3. The daily food intake or eating pattern of living matter is called: 41
a) Anabolism b) Catabolism
c) Diet d) Food C
4. The component of food that promotes the growth, maintenance, function and reproduction of living 42
matter is called:
a) Metabolite b) Diet
c) Food d) Nutrient D
5. The effect of a diet, containing lesser quantity of any one nutrient than its minimum requirement is 43
called:
a) Over nutrition b) Malnutrition
c) Under nutrition d) Proto nutrition B
7. The chemical reaction in which larger nutrient molecules break into smaller molecules in the living 44
matter is called:
a) Metabolism b) Metabolite
c) Catabolism d) Anabolism C
-3-
8. The chemical reaction in which smaller nutrients molecules combine to form bigger molecules in the 45
living matter is called:
c) Metabolism d) Nutrientism A
09. Energy is released during …………. 46
c) Parbolism d) Orthobolism B
10. During anabolism energy is: 47
a) Remained same b) Not changed
c) Released d) Absorbed D
11. Metabolism is the sum of anabolism and: 48
a) Parabolism b) Orthobolism
c) Protobolism d) Catabolism D
12. The reactants involved in the metabolism of living system are called: 49
a) Nutrients b) Substrates
c) Metabolites d) products C
13. Food are divided on the basis of number of ……… present in them. 50
a) Colours b) Tastes
c) Nutrients d) Molecules C
14. The food which contains only one nutrient is called: 51
a) Double nutrient food b) Single nutrient food
c) Triple nutrient food d) Multi nutrient food B
15. An example of single nutrient food is: 52
a) Glucose b) Egg
c) Milk d) Fish A
17. The compounds of C, H, and O, which contain H and O in the rations of water (2: 1) are called: 53
a) Proteins b) Fats
c) Carbohydrates d) Carbonitrates C
19. The aldehyde or ketone derivatives of polyhydric alcohols or the compounds which give these 54
derivatives on hydrolysis are called………..
a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins
c) Fats d) Steroids A
20. The total carbohydrates in plants vary from ……….of the dry mass of a plant. 55
a) 30 to 60 % b) 60 to 90 %
c) 40 to 70 % d) 50 to 75 % B
21. Most of the carbohydrate of a plant is in the form of: 56
a) Glycogen b) Starch
c) Cellulose d) Glucose C
22. Carbohydrates which cannot be further hydrolyzed into smaller molecules are called: 57
a) Extrasaccharides b) Polysaccharides
c) Disaccharides d) Monosaccharides D
23. Trioses, tetroses, pentoses and hexoses contains 3, 4, 5 and 6 …….. atoms respectively. 58
a) Carbon b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen A
25. Glucose is also called: 59
a) Galactose b) Fructose
c) Dextrose d) Mannose C
26. The carbohydrates consisting of 2-10 monosaccharide molecules condensed together with the loss of 60
water molecules are called:
a) Polysaccarides b) Multisaccharides
c) Decasaccharides d) Oligosaccharides D
27. Oligosaccharides are also called ……….. 61
a) Vitamins b) Sugars
c) Minerals d) Fats B
29. Sucrose is hydrolyzed to give a molecule each of glucose and …….. 62
a) Fructose b) Ribose
c) Glycerose d) Galactose A
30. The carbohydrates consisting of a very large number of monosaccharide units condensed into 63
straight and branched chain molecules with the general formula (C6H10O5)n are called
a) Monosaccharides b) Polysaccharides
c) Oligosaccharides d) Decasaccharides B
31. Starch and cellulose are …………. in taste 64
a) Sweet b) Sweetest
c) Tasteless d) Sour C
32. Human and many other animals cannot digest and use ………… as a food 65
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Starch d) Cellulose D
33. Carbohydrates supply 16 – 75 caps of energy per: 66
a) Gram b) Miligram
c) Kilogram d) Ounce A
34. Colour of starch solution with iodine is: 67
a) Red b) Blue
c) Green d) Yellow B
35. Starch has branched chains with 1- 4 and 1 – 6 linkages in glucose units while cellulose has straight 68
chain with.............only.
a) 1- 4 linkage b) 1 - 2 linkage
c) 1 - 6 linkage d) 1 - 3 linkage C
37. Generally each amino acid carries one amino (-NH2) and one ………….. 69
a) Carboxyl group b) Carboxy group
c) Aldehyde group d) Ether group A
38. Zwitterion is a ……………….. 70
a) Non-plar ion b) Monopolar ion
c) Dipolar ion d) Tripolar ion C
39. The common name of amino acid, 2-amino propanoic acid, is ………. 71
a) Lysine b) Glycide
c) Asparagine d) Glutamine B
40. Example of amino acids with a non-polar R-group are: 72
a) Glycine and serine b) Lysine and orginine
c) Tyrosin and cystein d) Alamine and valine D
43. The number of essential amino acids for adults is: 73
a) 8 b) 10
c) 9 d) 11 B
45. In proteins nitrogen is almost: 74
a) 30 % b) 16 %
c) 25 % d) 8 % B
47. Amino acids are generally ………. carboxylic acids of different molecular sizes. 75
a)  - amino b) - amino
c) - amino d) d – amino C
48. The daily requirement of protein of an adult to keep constant weight is about ………. per kg of body 76
weight.
a) 8.0 grams b) 0.8 grams
c) 4.0 grams d) 0.4 grams B
49. In milk protein is: 77
a) 1. 5 % b) 30.0 %
c) 10.0 % d) 3.0 % D
50. Chicken contain...............protein. 78
a) 25% b) 45 %
c) 10 % d) 35 % A
51. A group of heterogeneous water insoluble non-polar organic compounds of plant and animal origins 79
is called:
a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins
c) Lipids d) Vitamins C
52. The diet of an average adult contains about ………. Lipids: 80
a) 15 – 2 % b) 10 - 15%
c) 20 - 25 % d) 25 – 28 % D
53. Each gram of lipid produces …………. of energy. 81
a) 3.77 KJ b) 377 KJ
c) 37.7 KJ d) 100 KJ C
54. Vital organs such as heart, liver, brain and kidneys are protected from shocks and strains by layers of 82
…………
a) Proteins b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates d) Vitamins B
55. Per hydrocyclopentanophenanthracene structure is the result of fusion of phenanthracene and …….. 83
a) Cyclopentane ring b) Cyclobutane ring
c) Cyclohexane ring d) Benzene ring A
56. The increased quantity of ………. in blood make plague like deposits in the arteries causing blood 84
pressure and heart diseases.
a) Urea b) Water
c) Glucose d) Cholesterol D
57. Triglycerides are the esters of fatty acids and ……….. 85
a) Methanol b) Ethanol
c) Glycerol d) Glycol C
58. The fatty acids, having alkyl groups containing C C single bonds are called ……… fatty acids. 86
a) Unsaturated b) Saturated
c) Basic d) Neutral B
59. Alkyl groups of unsaturated fatty acids contains at least one carbon – carbon …….. 87
a) Double bond b) Single bond
c) Covalent bond d) Ionic bond A
62. Iodine number in the number of grams of iodine consumed by ………. grams of fat or oil. 88
a) 1 b) 1, 000
c) 10 d) 100 D
63. The addition of hydrogen to unsaturated vegetable oils to convert them into the solid state is called: 89
a) Hardening b) Softening
c) Liquefaction d) Solidification A
64. Hydrogen gas is passed through oil at higher temperature and in the presence of ……. as catalyst. 90
a) Cu b) Ni
c) Pt d) Pd B
65. Milk, fat, butter, cream and fish liver oil contain vitamin …… 91
a) B and D b) E and K
c) B and C d) A and D D
67. The development of unpleasant smell in a fat or oil is called ………. 92
a) Rancidity b) Saponification
c) Fermentation d) Hardening A
68. The hydrolysis of a fat or oil with an alkali to form soap and glycerol is called: 93
a) Rancidity b) Saponification
c) Hydrogenation d) Hardening B
69. The complex organic compounds which act as catalyst and facilitate the normal growth of the 94
body are called:
a) Proteins b) Alkaloids
c) Steroids d) Vitamins D
70. The first discovered vitamin was: 95
a) Niacin b) Biotic
c) Thiamine d) Ascorbic acid C
71. Thiamine vitamin cure the disease: 96
a) Beri beri b) Cholera
c) Fever d) Headache A
72. So far...........vitamins have been discovered: 97
a) 11 b) 13
c) 15 d) 9 B
73. The last discovered vitamin was vitamin: 98
a) M b) K
c) B6 d) B12 D
74. Fat soluble vitamins include A, D, E and: 99
a) B b) G
c) K d) C C
75. Excessive vitamin D causes bone pains, deposition of stones in the kidneys and ……… 100
a) Mental retardation b) Stomachache
c) Diabetes d) Cholera A
76. Water soluble vitamins are vitamins B and: 101
a) K b) C
c) A d) D B
77. Vitamin B comprises a group of vitamins called ……….. 102
a) Vitamins B112 b) Vitamin B simplex
c) Vitamin B exact d) Vitamin B complex D
78. The excessive intake of water soluble vitamins is not harmful because these are excreted in …… 103
a) Breathing b) Urine
c) Sweat d) Feces B
79. The complex nitrogenous organic compounds which are produced by living cells and act as 104
catalyst in biochemical reactions are called:
a) Harmones b) Enzymes
c) Coenzymes d) Vitamins B
80. Enzymes are in fact..............in nature. 105
a) Carbohydrate b) Alkaloids
c) Lipids d) Protein D
81. The substance on which an enzyme acts is called: 106
a) Reactant b) Product
c) Substrate d) Metabolite C
82. The amount of an enzyme which can convert one micro-mole of substrate in one minute under 107
the given conditions of temperature, pH and substrate concentration is called ……………
a) Unit of enzyme b) Turn over
c) Potency d) Specific activity A
83. The number of units of enzyme activity per milligram of protein is called: 108
a) Turn over b) Potency
c) Measuring unit d) Magnitude B
84. The umber of moles of a substrate converted by one mole of an enzyme per minute at a 109
given temperature is called:
a) Used over b) Potency
c) Turn over d) Turn under C
85. The specific location on the surface of the enzyme at which substrate combines to form complex 110
and is converted into the product is called:
a) Enzyme site b) Non-active sites
c) Passive site d) Active site D
86. The rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of ……………. 111
a) Product b) Enzyme
c) Substrate d) Coenzyme C
87. The maximum concentration of substrate above which increase of substrate concentration does 112
not increase the rate of reaction is called........of enzyme with substrate
a) Termination b) Saturation
c) Fluctuation d) Maximum optimation B
88. The temperature at which the activity of an enzyme is maximum is called …….. 113
a) Optimum temperature b) Maximum temperature
c) Minimum temperature d) Saturation temperature A
89. The rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the square root of the concentration of ……… 114
a) Coenzyme b) Enzyme
c) Substrate d) Reactants B
90. Majority of enzymes have an optimum temperature of 115
: a) 37 0C b) 55 0C
0
c) 45 C d) 25 0C C
91. All the enzymes are either destroyed or inactivated above pH ………… 116
a) 7 b) 8
c) 12 d) 10 D
93. The proteinous part of the conjugated protein or enzyme is called: 117
a) Activator b) Coenzyme
c) Apoenzyme d) Substrate A
94. The inorganic substances which increase the enzyme activity are called: 118
a) Inhibitor b) Activator
c) Coenzyme d) Substrate B
95. The substances which reduce the enzyme activity are called: 119
a) Coenzyme b) Apoenzyme
c) Activator d) Inhibitor D
96. The process in which the products of digestion are used by the animal body for energy purpose 120
or for synthesis of cellular structure is called:
a) Assimilation b) Absorption
c) Respiration d) Excretion A
97. The loss of natural structure of a protein is called...................of protein. 121
a) Naturation b) Break down
c) Denaturation d) Spoilage C
CHEMICAL INDUSTRIES IN PAKISTAN
01. The chemical substance which are added in the land for the growth of plans, are called. 1
a) Fertilizers b) Soils
c) Water d) Sand A
02. The elements required in a large amount for the process, is called. 2
a) Simple b) Major
c) Natural d) Synthetic B
3. There are main types of fertilizers. 3
a) Four b) Five
c) Two d) Six C
04. Ammonia contains N2. 4
a) 28% b) 34%
c) 63% d) 82% D
05. Ammonia nitrate contains N2 5
a) 32 - 33.5% b) 42 - 43.5%
c) 62 - 63.5% d) 84 - 85.5% D
6. When “NH3” react with “HNO3” then reaction takes place. 6
a) NH3 + HNO3  NH4 + NO3 b) NH3 + HNO3  NH4NO3
c) NH4 + HNO3  NH4 + OH + -
d) None of these B
07. Ammonium sulphate contains N2 7
a) 21% b) 12%
c) 34% d) 43% A
08. Ammonium sulphate contains S 8
a) 31% b) 25%
c) 52% d) 65% B
9 09. 2NH3+H2SO4  .
a) NH4 (OH)3 b) (NH4)2(OH)3
c) (NH4)2 SO4 d) None of these C
10. Urea contains N2. 10

a) 46% b) 64%
c) 12% d) 96% A
11
11. CH + 2H2O Ni .
900o C
a) C+ 3 H2O b) CO2 + 4H2
B 12 c) CO+ 3 H2O d) C+ 4H2O
A 14. 2NH3+ CO2  .

a) NH2COONH4 b) CH3COONH2
15. c) NH3
Diammonium phosphate contains d) NCO
2. 2+4H2 13
a) 26% b) 16%
c) 62% d) 42% B
20. Potassium chloride contains potash 14
a) 60-63% b) 48-52%
c) 70-74% d) 80-84% B
21. The formula of potassium sulphate is . 15
a) K2SO4 b) H3PO4
c) HCl d) HNO3 A
-1-
22. K2SO4 contains potash. 16
a) 68-82% b) 48-52%
c) 78-84% d) 90-95% B
23. 2KCl +H2SO4  . 17
a) K2SO4+2HCl b) K2SO4+2H2O
c) K2SO4+4H2O d) None of these A
24. Glass is super cooled . 18
a) Liquid b) Gas
c) Molecule d) None of these A
25. The main former of glass is. 19
a) Nitrogen b) Plastic
c) Silica d) Soda C
26. The example of vegetable fiber is. 20
a) Water b) Cotton
c) Plastic d) Soda B
28. Polyvinyl chloride is a plastic. 21
a) Super b) Low
c) Thermo d) Benzene C
29. The mixed ingredients of glass are melted at about . 22
a) 490C b) 14000C
0
c) 1600 C d) 20000C B
30. Natural fiber is obtained from the source. 23
a) Natural b) Simple
c) Different d) Complex A
1 The fiber in which the basic polymer is a long chain composed of at least 85% by 24
weight of acrylonitrile unites is called
a) Acrylic fiber b) Modacrylic fiber A
c) Polyester fiber d) None of the above
2. What is the chemical name of the substance represented by the formula (NH2)2CO? 25
a) Methylamide b) Carbamide
c) Urea d) Benzamide C
3. A mixture of potassium and calcium silicates form 26
a) Soft glass b) Hard glass
c) Flint glass d) Pyrex glass B
4. The fiber which is made from vinylidine chloride polymer is called 27
a) Rayon fiber b) Azlon fiber
c) Acetate fiber d) Saran fiber D
5. The basic fiber forming long chain polymers in nylon is 28
a) 46 b) 56
c) 66 d) None of the above A
6. The basic fiber forming long chain polymers in nylon is 29
a) Vinylidine chloride b) Natural protein
c) Polyamide d) None of the above C
8. The main source of natural fiber is. 30
a) Animal fibers b) Vegetable fibers
c) Mineral fibers d) All of the above D
11. The chemical substance which are used to add one or more nutrients to the soil 31
required for the growth of plants are.
a) Fertilizers b) Minerals
c) Both Fertilizers and Minerals d) None of the above A
12. The elements required in small amounts are called. 32
a) Nutrients b) Micro nutrients
c) Minerals d) None of these B
13. Fertilizers are classified in to major categories. 33
a) Three b) Two
c) Five d) Four B
14. The natural fertilizers consist of . 34
a) Plants b) Animals
c) Both plants and animals d) None of the above C
15. Nitrogen is required by the soil in. 35
a) Large quantities b) Small quantities
c) Very small quantities d) None of the above A
16. The natural fertilizer is called. 36
a) Nanure b) Urea
c) Super phosphate d) None of the above B
17. Ammonia contains about nitrogen. 37
a) 70% b) 39%
c) 75% d) 82% D
18. Ammonium nitrate is formed by the action of. 38
a) Ammonia and nitric acid b) Ammonia and carbon dioxide
c) Ammonia and hydrogen d) None of the above A
19. Dehydration of ammonium carbonate gives us. 39
a) Ammonium nitrate b) Ammonium sulphate
c) Urea d) Potassium sulphate C
20. The most commonly and widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan is. 40
a) Urea b) Ammonium nitrate
c) Ammonium sulphate d) None of the above A
22. In which state ammonia is used as a fertilizer. 41
a) Liquid b) Solid
c) Gas d) All of the above C
23. Which of the following fertilizers is useful for paddy rice. 42
a) Ammonium nitrate b) Ammonium sulphate
c) Urea d) None of the above B
24. What percentage of urea does contain nitrogen. 43
a) 46% b) 66%
c) 36% d) 86% A
26. The production of which of the following fertilizers is insufficient in Pakistan. 44
a) Nitrogen b) Potassium
c) Phosphorus d) None of the above C
27. The basic fiber forming long chain polymer in azion fiber is a. 45
a) Natural probin b) Polymide
c) Vinyldine chloride d) None of the above A
29. Bakelite is a. 46
a) Glass b) Fiber
c) Plastic d) None of the above C
31. The chemical reactivity of glass is reduced by the use of . 47
a) Fluxes b) Formers
c) Stabilizers d) None of the above C
32. Soaps are the. 48
a) An Ionic surfactants b) Cationic surfactants
c) Non- Ionic surfactants d) None of the above C
34. The production of glass consists of soda –lime glass about. 49
a) 90% b) 70%
c) 80% d) 75% A
35. Which of the following is required by the soil in large quantities? 50
a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen
c) Both nitrogen and hydrogen d) None of the above A
36. Plasticizers make the plastics. 51
a) Harden b) Soften
c) Neither harden nor soften d) Both harden and soften B
38. Air pollution is caused by. 52
a) Carbon dioxide b) Fluorocarbons
c) Hydro carbons d) None of the above B
39. Wooden articles are painted to project the n from. 53
a) Corrosion b) The effects of weather
c) Both corrosion and the effects of weather d) None of the above B
40. Varnishes are mostly used on. 54
a) Wood b) Plastic
c) Iron d) All of the above A
41. The film forming components of paints are. 55
a) Resins b) Thinners
c) Pigments d) Driers A
42. Main classes of plastics are . 56
a) Three b) Two
c) Five d) Six B
43. Petroleum products are the good source of raw materials for. 57
a) Glass b) Plastics
c) Fiber d) All of he above B
44. The plastics which soften on heating and harden on cooling without under going any 58
chemical change are.
a) Thermoplastic b) Thermosetting plastic
c) Both of the above d) None of the above A
45. Ceramics industry deals with the production of. 59
a) Cement b) Glass
c) Paper d) Pottery D
47. Glass is classified in to different types on the basis of its. 60
a) Chemical composition b) Physical properties
c) Manufacturing process d) All of the above D
49. Which of the following is a synthetic fertilizer? 61
a) Plant, leave under fermentation b) Urea
c) Animal excretes d) Animal bones B
51. What do you see as the main problem of Pakistan? 62
a) Unemployment b) Growing population
c) Clean drinking water d) Shortage of food B
54. Detergents are. 63
a) Synthetic products b) Natural products
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above A
55. Which of the following nitrogen fertilizer contains more nitrogen? 64
a) NaNO3 b) KNO3
c) NH4NO3 d) Urea D
CHEMISTRY-XI Chapter 1
INTRODUCTION TO FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY
1. Chemistry is the branch of science, which deals with composition, structure, properties, 1
in matter and change in energy.
a) Change b) Construct
c) Inorganic d) None of these A
2. The branch of chemistry, which deals with the compounds of carbon and hydrogen is called 2
a) In organic chemistry b) Organic chemistry
c) Industrial chemistry d) Analytical chemistry B
4. A substance is a of pure matter 3
a) Usually b) Kilogram
c) Sample d) Properties C
5. The material is called an element, if the all atoms of a substance are chemically . 4
a) Change b) Same
c) Simple d) Different B
11. Melting of ice is change 9
a) Physical b) Chemical
c) Simple d) Poly atomic A
12. The process which deals with the breakage and formation of bond and a new substance is 10
formed during this process, is called.
a) Physical change b) Chemical change
c) Rusting d) None of these B
14. No new substance is formed in the change 11
a) Chemical b) Physical
c) Volume d) None of these B
15. Chemical change is a change 12
a) Permanent b) Temporary
c) Chemical d) Physical A
16. S.I. system is derived from French word . 13
a) Simple international b) System international
c) Straight international d) None of these B
19. The unit of volume in S.I. system is . 15
a) Cubic meter b) Kilometer
c) Liter d) Meter A
23. The “a.m.u” is the abbreviation of . 18
a) Atomic molecule unit b) Atomic mass unit
c) Unit of mass d) None of these B
26. The force with which earth attracts a body towards its center, is called of the object. 20
a) mass b) temperature
c) weight d) none of these C
28. The weight of the body at the center of earth will be . 21
a) two times b) zero
c) four times d) five times B
29. The unit of mass is . 22
a) kilogram b) Newton
c) joule d) none of these A
30. The unit for weight is . 23
a) Newton b) joule
c) kilometer d)_ none of these A
-1-
33. The process to calculate the coldness or hotness of a body, is called . 27
a) isotope b) temperature
c) melting point d) boiling point B
34. There are measuring scale of temperature. 27
a) three b) two
c) four d) five A
35. The boiling point of water in Fahrenheit scale is . 28
a) 3120 F b) 2160 F
0
c) 212 F d) 3140F C
36. The boiling point of water in Kelvin scale is . 29
a) 373K b) 213K
c) 313K d) 413 A
45. The exponential notation is the method to express different numbers in from . 33
a) different b) same
c) exponent d) numbers C
46. We can write 860000 in exponent from as . 34
a) 8.6  105 b) 8.6  104
c) 86  105 d) 6.8  105 A
47. The numbers which are less than one have exponents. 35
a) positive b) null
c) negative d) none of these C
49. When we use the method of exponential notation then the chance of error 37
a) Increase b) Decreases
c) Null d) Zero B
51. When we drop of last digit of a data then data is called off a data 38
a) Significant b) Rounding
c) Positive d) Figure B
54. The difference between calculated result and true answer is called 39
a) precision b) Accuracy
c) error d) result C
55. An atom or group of atoms that carries an electrical charge is called 40
a) ion b) radical
c) valency d) chemical formula A
56. The combining capacity of an element with other elements is called its 41
a) radical b) valency
c) ion d) element B
60. The molecular formula represents the actual number of atoms in a . 42
a) ion b) molecule
c) combination d) actual B
61. The molecular weight of H2O= . 43
a) 18 a.m.u. b) 20 a.m.u.
c) 34 a.m.u. d) 44 a.m.u A
62. The formula weight of NaCl= . 44
a) 14.5 a.m.u. b) 54.1 a.m.u.
c) 58.5 a.m.u. d) 85.5 a.m.u C
63. The formula weight of H2O=_ . 45
a) 18 a.m.u. b) 16 a.m.u.
c) 24 a.m.u. d) 42 a.m.u A
64. The formula weight of NaOH= . 46
a) 5 a.m.u b) 40 a.m.u
c) analysis d) none of these B
65. Molecular weight and atomic weight expressed in grams is called . 47
a) mole b) ion
c) sodium d) molecules A
66. According to law of conservation of mass, mass can neither be created nor in a 48
chemical reaction.
a) mole b) destroyed
c) reactant d) balance B
67. The reactant producing small yield, is called reactant 49
a) producing b) equation
c) limiting d) none of these C
68. Reactants which proceed only in one direction are called reaction. 50
a) limiting b) irreversible
c) reversible d) complete B
69. Reactants which proceed in both the directions are called reaction. 51
a) reverse b) reversible
c) mole d) actual B
70. CaCO3 =-----------_ 52
a) CaO+ CO2 b) CaO2+ O2
c) Ca+ CO2 d) Ca+ CO
A
71. AgNO3+ NaCL  . 53
a) AgCl+NaNO3 b) AgCl2+NaNO2
c) Ag +NaCl d) AgCl2+Na A
1. According to modern concept all ordinary matter is composed of extremely tiny entities called. 54
a) molecules b) compounds
c) atoms d) elements C
2. The atoms consist of all still smaller particles, the most important of which are. 55
a) neutrons b) protons
c) electrons d) all the three D
05. The basic unit of length in SI system is. 58
a) foot b) inch
c) mile d) meter D
06. The basic unit of mass in SI system is. 59
a) kilogram b) pound
c) gram d) milligram A
08. A decimeter is equal 60
to. a) 10-3m b) 10-2m
c) 10-1m d) none of these C
12. The atomic mass unit is define as. 62
a) 1/12 mass of C-12 b) 1/10 the mass of C-12
c) 1/12 the mass of C-13 d) none of these A
13. The standard carbon is called. 63
a) C-13 b) C-14
c) C-12 d) C-11 C
17. While multiplying the exponentially expressed the numbers, their exponents are. 66
a) subtracted b) multiplied
c) added d) none of these C
18. Very small and very large quantities are expressed in terms of . 67
a) significant figure b) exponential notation
c) logarithm d) none of these B
19. 80635 is also written In exponential form as. 68
a) 80.635  104 b) 0.80635  10-2
c) 8.0635  10 4
d) 8.0635  10-4 C
20. 49.86 can be round of as. 69
a) 49.8 b) 49.5
c) 49.84 d) 49.9 D
21. 870.0 have . 70
a) two significant figure b) three significant figure
c) four significant figure d) six significant figure C
22. 45.000 has. 71
a) two significant figure b) four significant figure
c) five significant figure d) none of these C
23. The numbers which indicate confidence in measurement is called. 72
a) precision b) accuracy
c) significant figure d) none of these C
25. A combination of two or more atoms that can exist independently as a separateable 73
distinguishable unit is called.
a) atom b) molecule
c) ion d) none of these B
26. A chemical formula based on a actual, molecule is called. 74
a) structural formula b) empirical formula
c) molecular formula d) none of these C
28. Sum of the atomic weights of elements in a molecule is called. 75
a) atomic weight b) formula weight
c) empirical formula d) none of these B
29. The empirical formula of benzene is. 76
a) C6H6 b) C3H6
c) CH d) C4H6 C
30. Which compound has no molecular formula. 77
a) NaCl b) N2
c) Cl2 d) HNO3 A
32. Mass of an object is a measure of . 78
a) matter b) inertia
c) weight d) gravity B
34. 1 mole of H2SO4 is. 79
a) 49.0g b) 98.02g
c) 100g d) 50g B
35. The symbolic representation of compound is called. 80
a) formula b) symbol
c) equation d) none of these A
36. 1 mole of carbon consists of 6.022  1023 atom and weighs. 81
a) 14.00g b) 13.00g
c) 12.00g d) 11.00g C
37. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of relationship between the quantities of 82
reactants and products in a chemical reaction is called.
a) steriochemistry b) thermo chemistry
c) stiochiometery d) photo chemistry C
40. The actual yield is less than the theoretical yield, because of. 83
a) side reaction b) mechanical loss
c) reversible nature of the reaction d) all these factors D
41. The amount of products obtained from the balanced chemical equation is regarded is. 84
a) theoretical yield b) %yield
c) actual yield d) none of these A
44. 0.00034 has 87
a) Five significant figures b) Four significant figures
c) Three significant figures d) Two significant figures D
45. Water is basically a 88
a) Compound b) Element
c) Mixture d) Solution A
47. Mass of one atom of carbon 89
is a) 2 x 1023g b) 1.99 x 10-23g
c) 1.60 x 10-24g d) 1.60 x 1024g C
49. One gram of matter on complete conversion gives energy 91
a) 9 x 10-13J. b) 9 x 1013J
c) 9 x 1014J d) 9 x 1016J B
51. An organic compound has molecular weight 180 and empirical formula CH2O. Its molecular 93
formula may be
a) C2H6O4 b) C2H6O12
c) C4H12O4 d) C6H12O6 D
52. One mole each of sodium and potassium contains 94
a) Equal atoms b) Equal volumes
c) Equal masses d) None of these A
53. The value of Avogadros number is 95
a) 6.022 x 1023 b) 6.01 x 1024
c) 6.022 x 1024 d) 6.01 x 10-24 A
54. The simplest whole number ratio of atoms in the compound is called 96
a) Molecular formula b) Structural formula
c) empirical formula d) Dash formula C
55. The number of significant figures in 0.0086 is 97
a) One b) Three
c) Four d) Two D
56. The number which indicates confidence in measurement is called 98
a) Accuracy b) Precision
c) Significant figures d) None of above C
59. CH4 contains hydrogen by 100
weight a) 20% b) 25%
c) 30% d) 50% B
60. Which is the element in the following? 101
a) Water b) Steel
c) Air d) Copper D
0 0
61. The relation between C and F scales is 102
5 9
a) C0 = ( F0 – 32) 0
b) C = ( F0 – 32)
9 5
9 4
c) C0 = ( F0 + 32) d) C0 = ( F0 + 32)
5 9 A
63. 1 mole of water contains molecules 64. The
a) 18 b) 9.022 x 10-22 formu
c) 60.022 x 1024 d) 6.022 x 1023 la of
aluminum sulphate is 103
a) AISO4 b) AI2SO4
c) AI2(SO4)3 d) AI(SO4)3
D
65. What is the mass of 1.5 mole of oxygen molecules? 104
a) 16 g b) 48 g
c) 32 g d) 8 g C
66. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of nucleus structure and properties is 105
known as
a) Physical chemistry b) Inorganic chemistry B
c) Radiation chemistry d) Nuclear chemistry
106
67. Atoms that have the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called
a) Isotones b) Isobars
c) Isotopes d) Isomers D
68. Atoms that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called 107
a) Isotones b) Isobars
c) Isotopes d) Isomers C
72. The % age of an O in 1 mole of CuSO4 is:
108
a) 30.10% b) 40.10%
c) 20.10% d) 10.10% B
73. 0.206g of an organic compound containing C, H and O was subjected to combustion analysis. 112
The amount of CO2 produced is 0.494g. The % of C in the compound is
a) 44.44% b) 63.44% B
c) 65.44% d) 66.44%
113
74. How many moles of sulphur are present in 15.0g of the
element? a) 0.364 b) 0.467
c) 0.164 d) 2.304 C
23
75. 1 mole of OH ions consists of 6.02 x10 ions of hydroxyl group and weighs 114
a) 1 g b) 16 g
c) 17 g d) None of these B
76. 1 mole of water contains molecules of water: 115
a) 6.02 x1023 b) 6.02 x1024
c) 18 d) 16 C
77. How many atoms of S are present in 0.467 moles of the 116
element? a) 6.022 x 1023 b) 2.81 x 1023
23
c) 6.022 x 10 d) None of these A
78. How many individual calcium atoms are there in 20g of the 117
metal a) 6.022 x 1023 b) 3.01 x 1023
23
c) 4.01 x 10 d) 12.044 x 1023 B
79. The number of moles of water result from burning 5 moles of oxygen in an excess of H2 is: 118
a) 5 moles b) 10 moles
c) 15 moles d) 20 moles B
80. Consider the reaction 2KOH  H 2 SO4      K 2 SO4  2H 2 How many moles 119
of K2SO4 are produced from 28.0g of KOH?
a) 5 b) 0.25 B
c) 2.5 d) 2.5 120
B
81. A compound was found to contain 40.01% C, 6.67% H and 53.32% O. The empirical formula 82. A
of the compound is comp
a) CHO b) C2HO ound
c) CH2O d) CHO2 was
found
to contain 88.80% Cu and 11.20% O. The formula of the compound is 121
a) CuO b) CuO2
c) Cu2O d) Cu2O2
83. The formula which represents the simplest ratio of atom is: C
a) Molecular formula b) Structural formula 122
c) Empirical formula d) Chemical formula
84. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2. Its molecular weight is 42. Its molecular C
formula is 123
a) CH2 b) C2H2
c) C3H6 d) C6H12 C
85. The percentage of Ag in Ag Cl is: 124
a) 50% b) 65%
c) 75.2% d) 28%
86. The percentage of Ca in CaCO3 is: C
a) 20% b) 40% 125
c) 60% d) 80%
87. The mass of 6.022 x 1023 molecules of CO: C
a) 17.01 g b) 16.0 g 126
c) 28.01 g d) 50.02 g
88. Avogadro’s number of helium atom weigh B
a) 1.00 g b) 4.00 g 127
c) 8.00 g d) 4.0 x 6.22 x 1023
2. The weight of 22.4 litre of any gas at S.T.P. represents: C
a) Gram atomic weight b) Gram molecular weight 128
c) Gram equivalent weight d) Molecular weight
3. An unbalanced chemical equation is against the law of: B
a) Gaseous volume b) Constant proportion 129
c) Conservation of mass d) Multiple proportion
5. Which of the following contain more number of molecules ? B
a) 4 gm H2 b) 10 gm CaCO3 130
c) 40 gm NaOH d) 8 gm O2
6. The number of oxygen atoms present is 60 gms of glucose is: C
a) 0.5 NA b) 1 NA 131
c) 3/2 NA d) 2 N A
Under the same condition of temperature and pressure, 16 gm of oxygen gas (O2) contains the A
7.
same number of particles as: 132
a) 20 gm of He gas b) 22 gm of CO2 gas
c) 40 gm of NaOH d) 71 gm of CI2 gas D
8. How many moles are there in 8 gm of the Hydrogen gas? 133
a) 1 mole b) 2 moles
c) 4 moles d) 8 moles
B
9. Which of the following contains the same number of atoms as 12 g of Magnesium?
a) 12 g of carbon b) 20 g of calcium 134
c) 24 g of carbon d) 12 g of sodium
C
135
B
11. The number of atoms present in 3 gms of carbon are: 136
23 23
34. a) 15.05
The x 10used
standard b) 1.505
for all atomic, molecular and formulax 10weight of atom, molecule and formula
c) 6.02 x 10 23
d) 3.01 x 10 23 153B
unit respectively is:
14
12. a)
TheCvolume H1ammonia at S.T.P. is:
b) of
occupied by 3.01 x 1023 molecules 137
12 16
c)
a) C22.4 lit d)
b) O5.6 lit C
37. c) 11.2
The lit of one molecule of CH3OH:
weight d) 5.4 lit C
155
13. a) 32.0of
Weight b) 5.32 x 10-23 g
gmsingle molecule of carbondioxide is: 138
23 -23
c)
a) 6.02
44 g x 10 g d)
b) 6.02
7.305x x1010-23g g B
24
39. c) oxide
An 6.023 of
x 10 g
nitrogen d)Its4.184
contains 30.4% nitrogen. x 10-22formula
empirical g is: B
157
14. a) NO b) N O
“Gases react in the ratio of small whole number by volume under similar condition of
2 2 139
c) NO
temperature and pressure”. It is the : d) NO3
A
51. a) Law
When 40of
0 combining volume
C convert into Kelvin scale its valueb)is:Law of mass action
c) 161
a) 273 K Reciprocal proportions
Law of d)
b) Charle’s
303 K law A
18. c) 313 is
A mole K the amount of the substance that contains,
d) 295 K as there are atoms in exactly: C
140
52. a) 0.012 kg of carbon atom b) 12
When 220 K converts into Celsius scale, its value is: a.m.u of hydrogen atom 162
c) 1 gm0 of oxygen atom
a) 225 C d) All
b) 53 C0 of these A
19. c) -530C the percentage of oxygen in heavy d)
Calculate -2120C
water: C
141
54. a) 80%
Temperature b) of:
of 300 K is equal in Celsius scale 60% 164
c) 50%0
a) 25 C d)
b) 20%
270C A
0
20. c)
The48 C
molecular formula of a compound represents: d) 320C B
142
55. a)
The The composition
empirical formulaofofthe molecule
glucose is: of the compound 165
b) C
a) TheH number
6 12 6O of various kinds of atoms in ab)molecule
C3H6O3of a compound
c)
c) The
CH2O total number of atoms in a molecule of a
d) CHOcompound C
d) All of the above D
60. The empirical formula of sulphuric acid is: 167
22. The empirical formula of a compound is C3b) H3O.HSO It its molecular weight is 110, the molecular 143
a) HSO 4
formula
c) H2SO4 of compound is: d) H2SO2 C
a) C3H3O b) C6H6O2
08. Modern
c) CHO system of measurement is. d) C3H6O 170
B
a) MKS system b) Cus system
25. What is the volume of O2 obtained at S.T.P. when 24.52 gms of KCIO3 are strongly heated? 146
c) SI system d) Fbs system C
a) 1.12 litres b) 11.24 litres
18. One gramlitres
c) 2.24 is equal to. d) 6.72 litres 175
D
a) .01kg b) .001kg
The volume occupied by 1.4 gm of N2 at S.T.P.
26. c) .0001kg d) is:none of above 147
B
a) 2.24 dm3 b) 22.4 dm3
c) 11.2 dm3 d) 1.12 dm3 D
19. A substance in which all atoms are chemically identical having same atomic number is called. 176
28. a) element
15 litres of hydrogen combine with nitrogenb)tocompound produce ammonia. The volume of ammonia in 148
c)
litrematter
formed is: d) mixture A
a) 10 litres b) 5 litres
20. A substance of definite composition of weight consists of atoms of two or more 177
c) 8 litres d) 12 litres A
different elements is called.
29. a)
Howelement
many litres of oxygen at S.T.P. are required b) compound
for combustion of 4 gm of ethylene: 149
c)
a) mixture
96 litres d)
b) none of above
9.6 litres B
c) 44.8 litres d) 67.2 litres B
21. A substance consists of two or more pure substance not chemically combined with each other is. 178
31. Howcompound
a) many molecules of water are there in 36.0 b) gmixture
of H2O? 150
c)
a) element
6.02 x 1023 molecules d)
b) none
3.01 of above
x 10 23
molecules B
24
c) 1.20 x 20 molecules d) 1.13 x 1024 molecules C
26. A change in which chemical composition of substance does not change. 182
32. Thetemporary
a) number ofchange
oxygen atoms in 300g of CaCO is:
b) 3 physical change 151
c)
a) chemical
5.42 x 1024 change
O atoms d)
b) none
6.02 of above
x 10 23
O atoms B
24
c) 6.02 x 10 O atoms d) 3.01 x 1023 O atoms A
27. Which is a physical change . 183
33. Howburning
a) many hydrogen
of candle atoms are present in 0.235g of NH3of
b) burning ? coal 152
c)
A) burning
6.02 x 10of22wood
H atoms d)
b) none
2.49 of above
x 10 22
H atoms A
-22
c) 2.49 x 10 H atoms d) 3.01 x 1023 H atoms B
28. The change in which making and breaking of bonds are involved is called. 184
a) structural change b) chemical change
c) physical change d) none of above B
31. The formula which gives the actual number of atoms of element in a molecule is called. 185
a) molecular formula b) empirical formula
c) unit formula d) none of above A
32. Formula of sodium phosphate . 186
a) Na3PO2 b) Na3PO4
C) Na2PO2 d) Na2po4 B
33. The formula of magnesium nitrate is. 187
a) MgNO3 b) Mg(NO3)2
c) Mg2(NO3)2 d) Mg2NO3 B
34. Formula of ferric oxide. 188
a) FeO b) Fe2O3
c) Fe3O2 d) none of above B
35. Formula of phosphoric acid. 189
a) H3PO3 b) H3PO4
c) H2PO4 d) H3 (PO4)3 B
1 191
37. The part of mass of carbon is called.
12
a) 1kg b) 1a.m.u
B
c) 1g d) none of above
39. The sum of atomic masses of all atoms present in a molecule is called. 192
a) molecular mass b) empirical mass
c) gram-molecular mass d) none of the above A
40. Atomic mass of an element is expressed in gms is called. 193
a) gram atomic mass b) gram molecular mass
c) gram molecule d) atomic mass unit A
42. The numbers of atoms, ions or molecules in one mole of substance is 194
equal. a) 6.02  1023 b) 6.023  10-21
c) 6.02  10 26
d) 6.02  1033 A
43. The numbers of atoms in one mole of hydrogen. 195
a) 6.02  1023 b) 6.023  10-21
c) 6.02  10 -20
d) 6.02  10-19 A
44. The numbers of moles per 8gms of NaOH are. 196
a) 2 moles b) 0.2moles
c) .02moles d) .002moles B
45. The percentage of an element in compounds is as. 197
a) Atomicmassof compound Atomicmass of element
Atomicmassof compound x 100 b) x 100
Formula mass of
compount
Atomic mass of element x 100 d) None of the above
c)
Formula mass of B
element
50. In exponential notations 1000 is written as. 199

a) 1 103 b) 1 105
4
c) 1 10 d) 1 102 A
52. The number of significant figures in .023 is 201
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 0 B
54. .08000 has significant figures. 202
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4 A
55. Express the decimal equivalent of 1/60 to three significant 203
figure. a) .0156 b) .01666
c) .0166 d) 1.7  102 C
56. The combination of two or more atoms that can exist independently as separate 204
distinguishable unit is called.
a) atom b) molecule
c) formula unit d) ion B
58. Sum of the average atomic weight of elements in a molecule is called. 205
a) atomic weight b) formula weight
c) empirical formula d) none of above B
61. The number of atoms, ions or molecules in one mole of a substance is called. 206
a) gram atom b) gram mole
c) Avagadro’s number d) gram ions C
62. Quantity containing Avagadro’s number of atoms ions or molecules is called. 207
a) mole b) gram molecule
c) atomic mass d) atomic weight A
63. 14 grams of N2 contains.
208
a) 6.02  1023 atoms b) 6.02  1021 atoms
c) 6.02  1024 atoms d) 6.02  1020 atoms A
64. The branch of chemistry which deals with quantities relationship between amounts of 209
reactants and products on basis of balanced chemical equation is called.
a) physical chemistry b) flame photometry
c) stoichiometry d) none of above C
68. Gram atomic and gram molecular masses are referred as. 211
a) mole mass b) mole
c) mass number d) mole per gram B
4. Any thing which occupies space and has some weight is called 217
a) Matter b) Energy
c) Material d) None of these A
10. A chemical formula base on an actual molecule is called 219
a) Empirical Formula b) Structure formula
c) Molecular formula d) None of these C
19. A change which involves breaking or making of new bonds is called 225
a) Chemical change b) Ordinary change
c) Permanent change d) Physical change A
21. One mole of H2SO4 is equal to
226
a) 50g b) 100g
c) 98g d) 99g C
28. The atomic weight of sodium is
228
a) 27 amu b) 30 amu
c) 23 amu d) 25 amu C
31. In a neutral atom, the number of protons are equal to the number of
229
a) Neutrons b) Electrons
c) Photons d) None of the above B
32. The atomic number of calcium is
230
a) 19 b) 21
c) 20 d) 25 C
33. The quantity of a product calculated stoichiometrically in a chemical reaction is called 231
a) Actual yield b) Theoretical yield
c) Negative yield d) None of the above B
34. The negative charged particles are called 232
a) Cation b) Radical
c) Anion d) None of the above C
53. The percentage of Ca in CaCO3 is 241
a) 10 b) 20
c) 40 d) 80 C
56. Which one of the following has two significant figures? 243
I) 0.034 II) 0.0034 III) 0.00034
a) I only b) II only
c) III only d) I, II and III D
57. The number 70345 can be written as 244
a) 7.0345 x 104 b) 70345 x 102
c) 703.45 x 103 d) 7034.5 x 102 A
61. The atomic mass of oxygen is 16 amu. The number of atoms in 16g of oxygen atom will be 248
a) 2 x 6.023 x 1023 b) 6.023 x 1023
23
c) 16 x 6.023 x 10 d) 32 x 6.023 x 1023 B
66. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in HNO3 is 251
a) 34.6 b) 31.5
c) 22.2 d) 12.3 C
2. The branch of science which deals with the study of composition, structure, properties of matter, 254
changes in matter, energy changes is called
a) Biology d) Physics
c) Physical chemistry d) Chemistry D
14. The number of molecules of Hydrogen obtained from the decomposition of 1 molecule of water 267
is
a) 1 b) 2 A
c) 3 d) 4
15. The number of atoms in a molecule of oxygen is 268
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5 A
29. The number of molecule present in 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas 272
is a) 6.02 x 1023 b) 2.06 x 102
12
c) 3.01 x 10 d) 3.01 x 1023 D
33. Which of following is molecule 273
a) He b) Ag
c) N d) O A
40. Which one of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the reaction between iron and 274
Chlorine to form iron-chloride
a) Fe + 3C12  2 FeC13 b) Fe + 3C12  FeC13
c) 2Fe + 3C12  2 FeC13 d) Fe + C12  FeC13 C
45. The SI unit of temperature is 277
a) Kelvin b) Celsius
c) Fahrenheit d) Centigrade A
46. Boiling point of water 278
a) 212 0F b) 373 K
c) 1000C d) all of the above D
47. Freezing point of water 279
a) 320F b) 273 K
c) 00C d) all of the above D
48. Normal temperature of the body of human being c)
a) 370C b) 98.60F 31
0K d) all of the above 280
49. Force exerted by gas molecules on unit area is known as
a) stress b) weight D
d) Force d) Pressure 281
50. What is the mass of 1.5 mole of oxygen molecules?
a) 16 g b) 24 g D
c) 32 g d) 48 g 282
D
THE THREE STATES OF MATTER (Part 1: GASES)
1. A substance which is hard, rigid and has definite volume and shape is called . 1
a) Solid b) Liquid
c) Gas d) Molecule A
2. A substance which have no definite shape but definite volume, is called . 2
a) Solid b) Liquid
c) Gas d) Definite B
4. In gases, the molecules occur at very distance. 3
a) Close b) Widely
c) Definite d) Gas B
5. The gases have definite shape 4
a) Very b) So
c) No d) Substance C
6. The solids have shape. 5
a) Definite b) Very
c) Shape d) Container A
10. If we increases pressure then we can gases easily. 8
a) Compress b) Column
c) Change d) Measure A
11. When compressed gases are suddenly allowed to expand, they cause cooling and this 9
phenomenon is called effect. C
a) Compressed b) Atmosphere
c) Joule-Thomson d) Joule-Maxwell
12. In refrigerators, effect is used. 10
a) Joule-Thomson b) Individual
c) Original d) Barometer A
13. All gases on heating and contract on cooling. 11
a) Cold b) Expand
c) Independent d) Original B
14. In gases, the kinetic energy of molecules increases with of temperature. 12
a) Decreases b) Null
c) Increase d) Balance C
15. At constant pressure the volumes of gas by increasing temperature. 13
c) Effuse d) Pressure A
16. The force exerted by gas molecules per unit area per second is called . 14
a) Gas volume b) Gas pressure
c) Gas temperature d) None of these B
17. The formula for pressure of a gas is . 15
F A
a) P = b) P =
A F A
c) P = FA d) None of these
19. 1 atmosphere = mm Hg. 17
a) 670 b) 760
c) 607 d) 706 B
0
20. Calculate – 22 F to Kelvin Scale ? 18
a) 213 b) 233
c) 223 d) 243 D
-1-
21. Calculate 600C to Kelvin scale ? 19
a) 343 K b) 43 K
c) 333 K d) 34 K C
22. The lowest possible value at which molecular motion ceases is called . 20
a) Absolute zero b) Boyle’s law A
c) Constant d) None of these
25. According to Boyle’s law,“At constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas is _ 21
proportional to the pressure of gas”. A
a) Inversely b) Directly
c) Volume d) Verification
26. The mathematical form of Boyle’s law is . 22
a) PV = R b) PV = constant
P
c) =R d) PR = C B
V
27. Charle’s law was introduced in . 23
a) 1787 b) 1708
c) 1807 d) 2000 A
28. According to Charle’s law,“At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas is 24
proportional to the temperature of gas.”
c) Constant d) None of these B
29. The mathematical form of Charle’s law is . 25
V
a) PV = constant b) =K
T
V
c) =T d) VT = K
K B
30. The general gas equation is . 26

a) PV = RT b) P = RT
P
c) V = RT d) =R A
V
31. The general gas equation for “n” number of molecules is . 27
a) nPV = RT b) PV = nRT
P
c) =R d) None of these B
V
32. The formula to find the value of “R” is . 28
a) R
PV nT
= b) R = PV
nT
P V A
d) R =
c) R =
nT nT
33. The gas which deals all the laws of gases is called gas. 29
a) Density b) Volume
c) Ideal d) Same C
34. The gas which do not obey all the laws of gases, called gas. 30
a) Non-ideal b) Temperature
c) Volume d) Equal A
35. The gases which have lighter molecular masses more readily. 31
a) Non-ideal b) Same
c) Diffuse d) Effuse C
36. According to Graham’s law, 32
“The rate of diffusion of two gases is proportional to the square roots of
their densities or molecular weights at the same pressure and temperature.”
c) Diffusion d) Effusion A
37. According to Graham’s law, 33
“The rate of effusion of two gases is proportional to the square roots of
their densities or molecular weights at the same temperature and pressure.”
c) Diffuse d) Effuse A
38. At S.T.P. 1 mole of gas = 34
a) 27.4 dm3 b) 22.4 dm3
c) 42.4 dm3 d) 37.4 dm3 B
39. The value of Avogadro’s constant is . 35
a) 1.694 x 10-11 b) 61.4 x 10-23
c) 6.022 x 1023 d) 60.22 x 10-25 C
40. The collection of some postulates which explains the behaviour of ideal gases is called the 36
theory of gases
a) Molecular b) Potential
c) Average d) Kinetic D
41. The collision which deals without any gain or loss of energy is called collision. 37
a) Elastic b) Potential
c) Kinetic d) Directly A
89. Matter exists in forms 38
a) Three b) Two
c) One d) Four A
90. Matter having no definite shape and volume is called 39
a) Liquid b) Plasma
c) Solid d) Gas D
92. Gases possess. 41
a) Indefinite volume b) Indefinite shape
c) Miscibility d) All the three D
2 o
95. The force exerted by 76 cm long column of Hg on an area of 1 cm at 0 C is called 44
a) Total pressure b) Standard pressure
c) Partial pressure d) None of these B
96. Atmospheric pressure is measured by 45
a) Nanometer b) Barometer
c) Thermometer d) Ammeter B
97. The scale in which freezing point of water is taken as 320 and boiling point of water as 2120 is 46
called
a) Normal scale b) Fahrenheit scale
c) absolute scale d) Celsuis scale B
98. One atmosphere is equal to 47
a) 76 torr b) 760 torr
c) 7.6 torr d) 7600 torr B
100. Normal body temperature is 48
a) 370C b) 310K
c) 98.60F d) All these are correct D
101. At constant temperature, volume of given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure on 49
it. This is a statement of
a) Charles law b) Boyle’s law
c) Hooks law d) Grahams law B
103. The volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature, at 51
constant pressure. This is a statement of
a) Boyle’s law b) Charle’s law
c) Avogadro’s law d) Dalton’s law B
104. According to Charles law the volume of a given mass of gas should be zero at 52
a) 250C b) 1000C
0
c) -273 C d) 2730C C
105. Which value is designated as absolute zero or zero of the kelvin scale? 53
a) -273.150C b) -173.150C
0
c) 273 C d) None of these A
106. Which variables are interrelated in ideal gas equation? 54
a) Volume b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) All these D
107. The value of R depends on 55
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Volume d) All these D
113. The rate of diffusion of two gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their 58
denisities or molecular weights, is a statement of
a) Charle’s law b) Boyle’s law
c) Graham’s law d) Dalton’s law C
114. The pressure of each gas in a mixture is called 59
a) Total pressure b) Vapour pressure
c) equilibrium pressure d) Partial pressure D
115. The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all the gases 60
present, is a statement of
a) Charle’s law b) Boyle’s law
c) Dalton’s law d) Graham’s law C
116. The percentage of N2 in the air is 61
a) 78.08% b) 80%
c) 90% d) 65% A
117. Equal volume of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of 62
molecules. This is a statement of
a) Charle’s law b) Dalton’s law
c) Graham’s law d) Avogadro’s law D
118. 1 mole of an ideal gas at S.T.P occupies a volume of 63
a) 22.4 dm3 b) 2.24 dm3
3
c) .224 dm d) 224 dm3 A
119. 1 mole of Co2 contains molecules 64
a) 6 x 1024 b) 6.022 x 1023
c) 6.022 x 1024 d) 6.022 x 1025 B
120. r1/r2 = M 2 / M1 is the mathematical form of 65
a) Charles law b) Grahams law B

c) Daltons law d) None of these
123. At the same temperature, the molecules of every gas have the some average 68
a) Potential energy b) Rotational energy
c) Vibration energy d) Kinetic energy D
124. At high temperatures, the kinetic energy of the molecules is very large and the attractive forces 69
become
a) Small b) Large
c) Zero d) Negligible D
125. Which gas diffuses more rapidly? 70
a) O2 b) SO3
c) NH3 d) H2 D
126. The ratio of diffusion of the H2 and O2 is 71
a) 1 : 4 b) 4 : 1
c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 16 B
127. STP means 72
a) 298 K and 1 atm b) 250C and 1 atm
c) 00C and 1 atm d) 250C and 25 atm C
128. Mathematically Charles law is written as 73
a) V  1/T b) V  P
c) V  T d) P  T C
129. Which pair of gases behave more ideally at room temperature and pressure? 74
a) N2, NH3 b) CI2, Br2
c) H2, O2 d) He, H2 D
130. Gas molecules exert pressure on the walls of container because of 75
a) Attraction b) Repulsion
c) Cohesion d) Collision D
133. The volume of fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature at 78
constant pressure. This is a statement of
a) Avogadro’s law b) Dalton’s law
c) Boyle’s law d) Charle’s law D
136. Which of the following exists in gaseous form ? 80
a) O3 b) HF
c) Ne d) All of these D
137. 1 torr is equal to 81
a) 2 mm Hg b) 1 mm Hg
c) 100 mm Hg d) 1000 mm Hg B
138. Which of the following is used in Barometer? 82
a) liquid NH3 b) CI2 gas
c) mercury d) water C
139. PV = K is a statement of 83
a) Charles law b) Newton’s law
c) Boyles law d) Avogadroes law C
140. 373.15 K temperature is equal to 84
a) 00C b) 2000C
c) 10C d) 1000C D
143. The average kinetic energy of a molecule is given by 85
1 3
a) mv2 b) mv2
2 2
5
c) mv 2
d) 1 m2v2
2 2 A
144. The average distance traveled by a molecule between two successive collisions is called 86
a) collision diameter b) collision frequency
c) mean free path d) free path C
145. The intermolecular attractive forces operative over very short distances in gases are 87
a) H-bonding b) ionic bonding
c) Van der Waal’s forces d) non of these C
146. For a given mass of a gas, if temperature increases 88
a) Pressure and volume remain constant
b) Volume increase provided pressure is constant
c) Pressure decreases provided volume is constant
d) Volume decreases provided pressure is constant B
147. For a given mass of a gas at constant temperature, if volume V becomes three times more, then 89
pressure P will become
a) 3P b) P / 3
c) 3P / T d) 9P2 B
148. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and temperature is doubled, then 90
volume V will be
a) 4V b) 2V2
c) V / 4 d) 8V A
149. Which of the following is not a correct postulate of the kinetic theory of gases? 91
a) The gas molecules are in random motion
b) The collision between the molecules are perfectly elastic
c) The average kinetic energies of different gases are equal at a particular temperature
d) The pressure exerted on the walls of the container is due to intermolecular forces D
151. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average kinetic energy 93
a) Is proportional to temperature b) Decreases with rise in temperature
c) Is always constant for a particular gas d) Is zero at 00C. A
156. The ratio of rate of diffusion of O2 and H2 is: 94
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 4
c) 1 : 2 d) 2 : 1 B
157. The ratio of rate of diffusion of NH3 and CO2 is 95
a) 1.4 : 1 b) 2.4 : 1
c) 1.6 : 1 d) 1.3 : 1 C
159. The rate of diffusion of CH4 at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular 96
weight of X is.
a) 64 b) 32
c) 48 d) 16 A
160. A gas diffuses 1/5 times as fast as hydrogen. Its molecular weight is 97
a) 50 b) 25
A
c) 25 2 d) 50 2
161. The rate of diffusion of SO2 and O2 are in the ratio: 98
a) 1: 2 b) 1:32
c) 1: 32
d) 1:4 A
THE THREE STATES OF MATTER (Part 2: LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS)
2 The property in which recovery of shape takes place when deforming force is removed is called 101
a) Hardness b) Elasticity
c) Cleavage d) None of the above B
3. The process in which solid is directly converted into gaseous state is called 102
a) Evaporation b) Boiling
c) Sublimation d) None of the above C
4. A single substance that crystallizes into two or more different forms under different conditions 103
is called
a) Ploymorphous b) Isomorphous
c) allotrope d) None of the above A
8. Pressure cooker works on the principles that with the increase in pressure the boiling point of 104
a liquid
c) Remains constant d) None of the above B
9. The force of attraction between particles of liquid are called 105
a) Cohesive forces b) Adhesive forces
c) Surface tension d) None of the above A
11. Name the substance which belongs to hexagonal category of crystallographic 106
a) Tin b) Graphite
c) Copper sulphate d) Sodium Nitrate B
12. Sodium chloride crystal belongs to which category of crystallographic system 107
a) Rhombic b) Monoclinic
c) Cubic d) Hexagonal C
13. A crystal can have 108
a) Plane of symmetry b) Axis of symmetry
c) Centre of symmetry d) All of the above D
14. The Venderwaals forces depend upon 109
a) The number of electrons present in a molecule
b) Molecular size
c) The shape of the molecule
21. With increasing molecular size the viscosity of liquid 111
c) Does not change A
22. Water has maximum density at 112
a0 337K b) 277K
c) 177K d) 137K B
23. Poise is the unit of 113
a) Surface tension b) Density
c) Viscosity d) None of the above C
25. The internal resistance of a liquid is called 114
a) Viscosity b) Surface tension
c) Capillary action d) None of the above A
27. The process in which a solid is directly converted into the gaseous state is called 115
a) Evaporation b) Sublimation
c) Adhesion d) Condensation B
28. If an element is found in more than one physical forms, the property is called 116
a) Isomorphism b) Smmetry
c) Allotropy d) None of the above C
-8-
30. The lengths of a unit cell along x, y and z axis are represented by 117
a) a,b,c b) d,e,c
c) c,d,e d) a,b,e A
33. What is called the process in which a gas is liquefied directly on cooling? 118
a) Evaporation b) Condensation
c) Sublimation d) None of the above B
34. Electron sea is a cloud of 119
a) Electrons b) Photons
c) Protons d) Neutrons A
35. The crystal systems are of 120
a) 7 types b) 10 types
c) 5 types d) 8 types A
36. Good conductors of electricity are 121
a) Molecular crystals b) Metallic crystals
c) Covalent crystals d) all of the above B
37. Mercury does not wet the glass because of 122
a) Repulsion b) Cohesion
c) Surface tension d) None of the above B
38. What is called the rising of liquid in a capillary tube ? 123
a) Capillary action b) Enthalpy
c) Ascent d) None of the above A
39. Name the quantity of heat required to melt one mole of solid 124
a) Heat of fusion b) Heat of sublimation
c) Heat of vaporization d) None of the above A
40. Viscosity is measured by 125
a) Thermometer b) Viscometer
c) Barometer d) None of the above B
41. What is called the system in which hall the axes are equal in lengths and at, right angle to 126
each other
a) Tetragonal system b) Cubic system
c) Trigonal system d) Hexagonal system B
42. In which system all three axes and angles are unequal 127
a) Triclinic system b) Hexagonal system
c) Tetragonal system d) Trigonal system A
44. The structure of graphite is called 128
a) Trigonal b) Hexagonal
c) Octahedral d) Tetragonal B
45. A drop of water spreads over blotting paper because of 129
a) Intermolecular forces b) Capillary action
c) Repulsion of molecules d) Surface tension B
46. Evaporation occurs at 130
a) High temperature b) Low temperature
c) All temperature d) absolute temperature C
47. Evaporation is accelerated by 131
a) Cooling b) Heating
c) Adding more liquid d) Removing liquid B
49. The compound that has zero dipole moment is 132
a) HCI b) H2S
c) PH3 d) CH4 D
51. The vapour pressure of water is maximum at 57. Glycer
a) 800C b) 320F in
c) 313K d) 500C boils
at 2900C under normal atmospheric pressure. If the pressure is reduced to 50mm of Hg, it will 133
boil
a) Above the given temperature b) Below the given temperature A
c) At the same temperature d) At 250C
137
62. Which on of the following compounds has a sharp melting point?
a) Pure C6H12O6 b) Impure HCl
c) Mixture of the above two d) Glass B
66. One gram of ice needs 80 calories of heat to change into water at 00C. How much heat will be 138
required to change 100g of ice at 00C ?
a) 0.8 Kcal b) 8.0 Kcal A
c) 80 Kcal d) 800 Kcal
139
68. Which of the following factor has no effect on boiling point?
a) Impurities in the liquid b) Amount of liquid
c) Intermolecular forces d) Pressure B
71. The vapour pressure of water is maximum at 141
a) 480C b) 3350K
0
c) 32 F d) 800C B
165. The state of matter which possesses definite volume but no definite shape is called. 142
a) liquid b) solid
c) plasma d) gas D
166. All the gases converted in to liquid and solids by 143
a) cooling b) compression
c) evaporation d) cooling and compression A
171. Dipole- dipole forces are present between. 144
a) polar molecules b) non-polar molecules
c) bent molecules d) none of these D
174. Which molecule is hydrogen bonding? 149
a) SiH4 b) HCl
c) H2O d) CHCl3 A
175. The amount of heat required to vaporize one mole of liquid at its boiling point without change 150
in temperature is called.
a) molar heat of vaporization b) molar heat of sublimation C
c) molar heat of fusion d) none of these
151
176. The pressure exerted by the vapours in equilibrium with its pure liquid at given temperature
is called.
a) equilibrium pressure b) atmospheric pressure A
c) vapour pressure d) external pressure
152
178. The vapour pressure of water increase with temperature and at the boiling point becomes
equal to.
a) 760cm b) 760mm C
c) 76mm d) All of these
153
179. What factors affect the vapour pressure?
a) temperature b) nature of liquid
c) intermolecular forces d) all these B
181. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the 154
atmospheric pressure is called.
a) freezing point b) boiling point D
c) mixing point d) critical temperature
155
B
183. At higher altitudes, water boils at temperatures. c)
a) 1000C b) more than 1000C less
than 1000C d) none of these 157
193. Stalagometer is a device which is used to measure.
a) surface tension b) viscosity C
c) vapour pressure d) refractive index A
158
194. The resistance of liquid to its flow is called. 159
a) surface tension b) viscosity
c) refraction d) none of these B
195. Which substance has high viscosity 160
a) water b) ether
c) benzene d) honey D
196. Viscosity of liquid depends on. 161
a) molecular size b) molecular shape
c) H-bonding d) all of these D
197. The viscosity of H2O is more than CH3OH due to.

162
a) covalent bond b) ionic bond
c) H-bonding d) none of these C
207. The system in which all the three axes are equal length and are at right angle to each other is 165
called.
a) hexagonal b) trigonal C
c) cubic d) rectangular
208. The system in which all the three axes are unequal and are at right angle to each other is called. 166
a) cubic b) hexagonal
c) orthorhombic d) tetragonal C
209. The system in which all the three axes and angles are unequal is called. 167
a) hexagonal b) monoclinic
c) tetragonal d) triclinic D
210. The system in which two out of three axes are of equal and angles are of 900 is called 168
a) cubic system b) hexagonal system
c) trigonal system d) tetragonal system D
211. The crystals in which the metal atoms join together through metallic bond are called. 169
a) ionic crystal b) covalent crystal
c) metallic crystal d) molecular crystal C
212. The crystals which are formed by interaction between positively and negatively charged ions 170
are known as.
a) metallic crystal b) covalent crystal
c) ionic crystal d) none of these C
214. Silicon crystals is an example of. 171
a) ionic crystal b) covalent crystal
c) metallic crystal d) none of these B
215. Metallic crystal is good conductors of. 172
a) heat b) electricity
c) both heat and electricity d) none of these C
220. Evaporation causes. 176
a) freezing b) cooling
c) heating d) sublimation B
223. Which substance has more surface tension? 178
a) water b) mercury
c) ethanol d) benzene B
224. Isomorphic substance have same. c)
a) boiling point b) melting point ato
mic ratio d) lattice point 179
226. Viscosity is measured by.
a) barometer b) spectrometer C
c) viscometer d) stalagometer 180
231. Which of the following liquid has higher boiling point?
a) HCI b) HBr C
c) H2O d) Br2 181
C
THE ATOMIC STRUCTURE
254. Universe is made up of. 1

a) Matter b) Space
c) Energy d) All of three D
258. Conduction of electricity through any gas may be studied at any value of. 4
a) High pressure b) Low pressure
c) Moderate pressure d) None of these B
259. Cathode rays emitted from cathode are. 5
a) Canal rays b) Protons
c) Electrons d) Positrons C
260. Charge to mass ratio (e/m) of the electron is determined by. 6
a) R.A. Millikan b) J.J. Thompson
c) G.J. Stoney d) None of these B
264. The beam attracted towards the negatively charged plate is. 7
a) Alpha particles b) Neutron
c) Beta particles d) Gamma particles A
265. Beta-rays are fast moving. 8
a) Neutrons b) position
c) Electrons d) Deuteron C
267. Which rays carry no charge and nonmaterial in nature? 9
a) Alpha b) Beta
c) Gamma d) None of these C
273. Neutron possesses. 10
a) Positive charge b) Negative charge
c) No charge d) None of these C
274. Which radiations are of very high 11
frequency. b) UV
a) IR
c) Visible d) X-Rays D
275. Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with 12
a) Beta particles b) Neutron
c) Alpha particles d) Electron C
276. The nucleus is surrounded by a number of electrons equal to the number of 13
a) Neutron b) Proton
c) Negatron d) Positron B
277. According to Rutherford’s model, the nucleus is surrounded by 14
a) Proton b) Neutron
c) Positron d) electron D
1. The neutron particle: 15
a) has a mass of 1 gm b) has a mass approx. equal to that of proton
c) has a charge equal to that of electron d) has negligible mass B
3. The 2Px, 2Py and 2Pz orbital of an atom have identical shape but differ in their: 16
a) size b) orientation
c) shape d) none of these B
4. Number of protons, neutrons and electrons respectively present in Sodium are: 17
a) 11, 11, 12 b) 11, 12, 12
c) 12, 11, 11 d) 11, 12, 11 D
5. Which of the following light waves has the highest energy? 18
a) Ultraviolet radiation b) Infrared radiation
c) Visible light d) X-rays D
-1-
07. How many orbital exist with principal quantum number 3? 20
a) 2 b) 9
c) 3 d) 4 B
10. Among the following, the electron with the highest energy is: 23
a) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s =  ½ b) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s =  ½
c) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s =  ½ d) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s =  ½ A
11. The particles present in anode rays are: 24

a) Positively charged particles b) Electrons
c) alpha particles d) Beta particles A
13. How many neutrons are present in the 92U238? 25
a) 92 b) 238
C 26 c) 146 d) 330
14. When an atom changes into a cation, its: D
a) Mass number decreases b) Atomic number increases
c) Size increases d) Size decreases 29
17. The quantum numbers of 2P electron are: A
a) n = 2, l = 1 b) n = 2, l = 0
18. c) n = 2, l = 3 d) isotope
The number of nucleons present in the heaviest n = 2, lof= hydrogen:
2 30
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 3 D
19. Rutherford’s scattering experiment demonstrated: 31
a) The existence of x-rays b) The existence of -particles
C 32 c) The nuclear model of atom d) The mass to charge ratio of electron
20. Shape of p-orbital is: D
a) Spherical b) Double dumbbell
21. Angular momentum of an electron revolving d)
c) Complicated in an orbitbell
Dumb is equal to: 33
a) nh/2 b) n/h2
c) nh x 2 d) 2/nh A
22. The number of electrons that could be accommodated in a ‘d’ orbital 34

a) 6 b) 2
c) 14 d) 10 D
23. The electrical charge that is present on an electron in coulombs: 35
a) 1.602 x 10-19 b) -1.602x 10-19
19
A 36 c) 1.602 x 10 d) -1.602 x 1019
24. Weight of an electron in kilogram is:
B
a) 9.1 x 1031 b) 9.1 x 10-31
26. c) 0.91are
X-rays produced when cathode rays striked)on:0.91 x 10-31
x 10 31
37
a) Graphite b) Carbon
c) Metal d) Non-metal C
27. The number of electrons that can be accommodated in the orbit of Azimuthal quantum number I 38
= 1.
a) 2 b) 6
c) 10 d) 14 B
28. When an electron moves from an inner orbit to a higher orbit, energy is: 39
a) Emitted b) Absorbed
c) No charge in energy d) None of the above B
29. Maximum number of electrons that can be present in n = 3 principal quantum number: 40
a) 18 b) 32
c) 8 d) 16 A
30. Radius of an anion formed when compared with the radius of the atom is: 41
a) Equal b) Smaller
c) Greater d) None of the these C
31. Most penetrating radioactive rays are: 42
a) Cathode rays b) -rays
c) -rays d) -rays D
33. Bohr’s model of an atom is based on: 43
a) Quantum theory b) Dalton’s atomic theory
c) Law of mass action d) Law of conservation of matter A
34. The shape of ‘s’ orbital is: 44
a) Tetrahedral b) Dumb-bell
c) Spherical d) Pyramidal C
35. The Positron has a charge equal to that of: 45
a) Proton b) -particle
c) Neutron d) Electron A
36. Emission spectrum obtained when transition of electrons occurs from: 46
a) n = 3 to n = 1 b) n = 1 to n = 4
c) n = 2 to n = 3 d) n = 2 to n = 4 A
37. In an atom, no two electrons will have same four quantum number value. The principle is: 47
a) Pauli b) Hund’s
c) Aufbau d) All of these A
38. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of: 48
a) Nucleus b) Atom
c) Electron d) Neutron A
39. Which of the following relates photons both as ways are motion and a stream of particles: 49
a) E = mc2 b) E = hv
c) mvr = nh d) All of these
2 B
40. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a 50
photon:
a) 3s b) 2P
c) 2s d) 1s D
42. Nitrogen is having three unpaired electrons. It is in according to: 52
a) Hund’s rule b) Aufbau principle
c) Pauli’s exclusion principle d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle A
43. The radius of the first Bohr’s orbit is: 53
a) 5.290A b) 0.5290A
c) 52.920A d) 0.05290A B
48. The radius of 10th Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is: 55
a) 52.90A b) 5.290A
0
c) 0.529 A d) None of the above A
50. When l = 2, the possible ‘m’ values are: 56
a) -1, 0., +1 b) -2, -1, 0, + 1, +2
c) 0 only d) -3, -2, 0, +1, +2, +3 B
52. Isotope of hydrogen with radioactive property is: 57
a) Protium b) deuterium
c) Tritium d) Ortho hydrogen C
57. Uncharged particles among the following: 58
a) -rays b) -rays
c) Cathode rays d) -rays D
58. The resultant particle obtained when a hydrogen nucleus accepts a neutron is: 59
a) -particle b) -rays
c) Deuterium d) Tritium C
CHEMICAL BONDING
s01. The element with their complete outermost shell, are called elements 1
a) inert b) reactive
c) valency d) none of these A
2. The element with their incomplete outermost shell, are called . elements 2
a) inert b) reactive
c) repulsion d) none of these B
3. The valency of oxygen is . 3
a) 6 b) 2
c) 4 d) 13 B
4. The valency of halogen is . 4
a) one b) five
c) three d) six A
5. The force with which atoms combine with each other, is called . 5
a) valency b) chemical bond
c) three d) none of these B
6. There are main types of chemical bonds. 6
a) four b) three
c) two d) five B
7. The electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions in an ionic compound is called an 7
bond.
a) ionic b) covalent
c) co-ordinate covalent bond d) none of these A
8. The ionic-bond is also called . 8
a) co-ordinate covalent bond b) electrovalent
c) covalent d) none of these B
9. The formation of “NaCl” is an example of . 9
a) ionic bond b) covalent
c) ionization energy d) none of these A
10. The formation of “MgO” is an example of bond. 10
a) covalent b) ionic
c) atomic d) none of these B
11. In the formation of ionic bond, the number of electrons lost must be to the number of 11
electrons gained.
a) equal b) different
c) negative d) covalent A
12. The atom which loses electrons becomes . 12
a) anion b) cation
c) electron d) none of these B
13. The atom which gains electrons, becomes . 13
a) electron b) cation
c) anion d) none of these C
14. An element forming positive ion must have ionization potential. 14
a) low b) great
c) small d) none of these A
16. The energy is required to convert sodium to sodium positive ion . 15
a) 496j b) 469J/mole
c) 495 kJ/mole d) 694k J/mole C
17. When chlorine is converted in to chloride ion then energy is released. 16
a) -348 k J/mole b) 439 k J /mole
c) 495 k J/ mole d) none of these A
-1-
18. Ionic compounds are generally at room temperature. 17
a) liquid b) solid
c) water d) none of these B
20. The reaction of ionic compounds are very . 18
a) fast b) slow
c) equal d) covalent A
22. The formation of hydrogen molecule (H2) is an example of . 19
a) covalent bond b) ionic bond
c) hydrogen bond d) none of these A
23. The atoms having electro negativity difference 1.7 from covalent bond 20
a) equal to b) same as
c) less than d) greater than C
24. There are main types of covalent bond. 21
a) four b) three
c) five d) none of these B
25. The covalent bond which is formed due to one electron pair, is called . 22
a) double covalent bond b) triple covalent bond
c) single covalent bond d) none of these C
26. Oxygen (O2) is the example of covalent bond 23
a) double covalent bond b) single covalent bond
c) triple covalent bond d) none of these A
27. Nitrogen (N2) is the example of covalent bond 24
a) triple b) double
c) single d) none of these A
28. In molten state, the covalent compounds are conductors of electricity. 25
a) triple b) bad
c) good d) none of these B
29. Covalent compounds have melting and boiling points. 26
a) low b) high
c) slow d) none of these A
30. The energy required to break the bonds between one mole of hydrogen molecules in to atoms is. 27
a) 901 k J/mole b) 435 k J/ mole
c) 735 k J/mole d) 351k J/mole B
31. Oxygen (O2) is a molecule 28
a) paramagnetic b) directional
c) covalent solid d) atom A
32. Polar molecule has bond energy. 29
a) less b) more
c) equal d) none of these B
33 The degree of polarity of molecule is called . 30
a) dipole moment b) covalent bond
c) bond moment d) molecule moment A
36. In methane, the bond pairs are arranged in form. 31
a) simple b) tetrahedral
c) complex d) repulsion B
37. There are main types of overlapping in orbitals. 32
a) four b) three
c) five d) two D
38. Single bond is always bond. 33
a) overlap b) sigma
c) partially d) half B
40. How many sigma bonds can be predicated between two atoms? 34
a) one b) two
c) five d) nine A
44. A process of mixing one “S” and one “P” orbital to form two equivalent “SP” hybrid orbitals, is 36
called .
a) SP-hybridization b) P-hybridization
c) S-hybridization d) hybridization A
45. When central atom is SP3 – hybridized then the bond angle is . 37
a) 109.50 b) 209.50
c) 107.50 d) 104.50 A
388. A chemical bond which is formed by mutual sharing of electrons is called. 38
a) Ionic bond b) Covalent bond
c) Metallic bond d) None of these B
389. Ionic compounds have high. 39
a) m.p b) b.p
c) m.p and b.p d) None of these C
390. Ionic compounds are soluble in. 40
a) benzene b) Water
c) Chloroform d) Hexane B
391. The crystals of ionic compounds are made up of. 41
a) Atoms b) Ions
c) Molecules d) Compounds B
393. A covalent bond in which both the electrons are donated by one of the atoms called. 42
a) Ionic bond b) Covalent bond
c) Co-ordinate bond d) None of these C
397. Which bond is non-directional in character? 43
a) Covalent b) Ionic
c) Coordinate d) None of these B
399. The order of decreasing bond energies in hydrogen halides is. 44
a) HCl> HF> HBr> HI b) HBr> HI> HCl> HF
c) HF> HCl> HBr>HI d) HI>HBr> HCl >HF C
400. which compound has coordinate covalent bond? 45
a) CH4 b) NH3
c) NH4+ d) SiH4 C
406. A bond in which region of highest electron density is around the bond axis is called. 46
a) Pi-bond b) Sigma bond
c) H- bond d) None of these B
407. The bond which if formed due to parallel overlap of p-orbitals of two already bonded atoms is 47
known as.
a) Pi-bond b) Sigma bond
c) Metallic bond d) none of these A
408. The mixing of one s and three p-orbital results in the formation of. 48
a) Sp3 hybrids b) Sp2hybrids
c) Sp hybrids d) Sp2d hybrids A
409. The geometry of NH3 is. 49
a) Linear b) Octahedral
c) Angular d) Pyramidal D
411. Ethylene molecule has which hybridization. 50
a) Sp3 b) Sp
c) Sp2 d) none of these C
417. Which of the following is non-polar molecule? 51
a) CH4 b) H2O
c) NH3 d) H2S A
418. Which of the following is polar molecule? 52
a) CH3Cl b) CCl4
c) C6H6 d) C2H4 A
424. Which molecule has zero dipole moment? 54
a) SO2 b) H2O
c) NH3 d) CO2 D
425. Oxygen atom in H2O shows hybridization. 55
a) Sp b) Sp2
3
c) Sp d) Sp2d C
435. Which of the following molecules has angular shape? 56
a) H2S b) CO2
c) CO d) HF A
439. Which compounds have fast reaction? 58
a) Covalent compound b) Ionic compound
c) Metallic compound d) Coordinate compound B
455. The number of bonds in a nitrogen molecules is 59
a) One sigma and one Pi b) One sigma and two Pi
c) Three sigma only d) Three Pi only B
456. An ionic compound A+ B is most likely to be formed when 60
a) The ionization energy of A is higher and electron affinity of B is low
b) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
c) Both ionization energies of A and electron affinity of B are high
d) Both ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low B
2. Which of the compounds below has dipole moment zero? 61
a) CH4 b) NH3
c) HF d) H2O A
8. An example of a molecule containing co-ordinate covalent bond is: 64
a) NH3 b) NH4Cl
c) NaCl d) HF B
9. The octet rule is not valid for the molecule: 65
a) CO2 b) H2
c) O2 d) CO B
10. Among the following molecules that is linear is: 66
a) CO2 b) CH3Cl
c) H2O d) BF3 A
12. Total number of electrons that take part in forming bonds in N2 is: 67
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8 C
14. Two H-atoms joined together by a covalent bond forming hydrogen molecule which have equal: 68
a) electron affinity b) electronegativity
c) both A & B d) none of the above C
15. The shared pairs of electrons in a molecule are called: 69
a) lone pairs b) bonding pairs
c) non-bonding pairs d) Pi electrons pairs B
19. The electron pairs that says with one atom and are not shared are called: 72
a) Lone pairs b) Ionic bond pairs
c) Bond pairs d) Shared pairs A
20. To determine the extent of polar character in a bond by the difference in: 73
a) ionization potential b) electron affinity
c) electronegativity d) ionic radius C
21. The distance between the nuclei of two atoms joined by a covalent bond is called: 74
a) bond length b) bond order
c) ionic radius d) nuclear distance A
24. Which group of elements in the periodic table is characterized by un-reactive electronic 75
configuration?
a) First group b) 2nd group
rd
c) 3 group d) Zero group D
26 Which of the following sets of atoms are arranged in their order of increasing electronegativity: 76
a) B < F < N b) F < N < B
c) B < N < F d) F < B < N C
28. Which of the molecule shows sp3 hybridization: 77
a) CH4 b) NH3
c) H2O d) All of these D
29. 1 debye (D) is equal to : 78
a) 3.34 x 10-28 cm b) 3.334 x 10-38 cm
c) 3.34 x 10-30 cm d) 4.184 x 10-30 cm C
30. Valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory is used to predict: 79
a) the direction of reaction b) molecular shape
c) molecular size d) the extent of reaction B
32. Which is weakest among the following types of bonds: 80
a) ionic bond b) covalent bond
c) hydrogen bond d) vander waal’s forces D
33. In which of the following is the angle between the two covalent bonds greatest? 81
a) CO2 b) CH4
c) NH3 d) H2O A
34. The high boiling point of water is due to: 82
a) weak dissociation of water molecules b) it’s high dielectric constant
c) it’s high specific heat d) hydrogen bonding among water molecules D
2 2 5
36. A particular element has the following electronic configuration : 1s 2s 2p , in its chemical 83
reactions, it is most likely to:
a) loose 1 electron b) lose 7 electrons
c) gain 1 electron d) lose 3 electrons C
37. The type of bonding in hydrogen chloride is: 84
a) ionic b) polar covalent
c) non-polar covalent d) co-ordinate covalent B
38. In diatomic molecule, in which atoms have identical electronegativities, sharing of the bonding 85
electrons between the two atoms is:
a) unequal sharing b) equal sharing
c) no sharing d) none of the above B
40. When sodium and chlorine react, energy is: 86
a) absorbed and ionic bonds are formed b) released and covalent bonds are formed
c) absorbed and covalent bonds are formed d) released and ionic bonds are formed D
41. What type of hybridization would account that all bond angles in C2H4 and 1200. 87
a) sp3 b) sp2
c) sp d) dsp3 B
44. Which of the following compound is covalent: 88
a) H2 b) K Cl
c) Mg O d) Na Cl A
45. In hybridization, the number of valence electrons in carbon atom is: 89
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8 B
46. Crystal of NaCl is formed by the arrangement of the particles: 90
a) NaCl molecules b) Na and Cl atoms
c) Na+ and Cl- ions d) all of the above C
47. In the triple bond of acetylene, the following bonds are present: 91
a) 1 sigma & 2 Pi bonds b) 2 sigma & 1 Pi bonds
c) 3 sigma bonds d) 3 Pi bonds A
48. Dipole moment of CO2 is zero. Hence the bond angle in CO2 is: 92
a) 109.50 b) 900
c) 180 0
d) 1200 C
51. Which of the following has bond angle greater than 109.50? 93
a) CS2 b) H2S
c) NH3 d) CCl4 A
52. Which of the following has highest dipole moment? 94
a) CHCl3 b) CO2
c) NH3 d) HF D
54. The C – C bond length in ethylene when compared with C – C bond length of acetylene it is: 95
a) more b) less
c) equal d) half A
57. The bond formed when Ammonia molecules add a proton to form ammonium ion is: 96
a) covalent b) co-ordinate
c) ionic d) none B
58. The state of hybridization of ‘B’ atom in boron trichloride is: 97
a) sp3 b) sp2
c) sp d) dsp3 B
59. The bond formed in fluorine molecule is due to: 98
a) s – s overlapping b) s – p overlapping
c) p – p overlapping d) p – s overlapping C
60. Hybridization involves: 99
a) bond pairs b) lone pairs
c) both A & B d) none of these C
61. An element ‘A’ has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 combines with element ‘B’ which has 100
electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5. The bond between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is:
a) ionic b) covalent
c) co-ordinate d) metallic A
ENERGETICS OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS
01. The energy that transfer from one object to another due to their difference in temperature, is 1
called
a) Heat b) Temperature
c) covalent d) Energy A
02. The S.I. Unit of heat is 2
a) Coulomb b) Joule
c) Newton d) Kilometer B
03. 1 KJ = J 3
a) 106 b) 104
c) 103 d) 105 C
08. The equation shows reaction. 4
C + O2-------------------> CO2,  H = -393.7 KJ / mole.
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Null d) Salt B
09. The reactions, in which heat is absorbed from surrounding to system, are called 5
reactions
a) Null b) Salt
c) Endothermic d) Exothermic C
10. The equation shows reaction. 6
C + O2-------------------> CO + H2,  H = 131.4 KJ / mole.
a) endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Chemical d) Content A
11. Heat of reaction is denoted by 7
a)  K b) H
c) R d) C B
12. 1 Calorie = Joules. 8
a) 4.184 b) 3.148
c) 8.144 d) 9.144 A
15. “ H” is in exothermic reactions. 9
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Zero d) One B
16. “ H” is in endothermic reactions. 10
c) Null d) Change A
17. Everything which is under experiment is called . 11
a) System b) Negative
c) Positive d) Constant A
18. The things which are not a part of a system are called . 12
a) System b) Surroundings
c) Bond energy d) Rate of reaction B
19. The state function is 13
a) Volume b) Velocity
c) Graphite d) None of these A
20. The internal energy of a molecule is the sum of energy and potential energy. 14
a) Pressure b) Temperature
c) Kinetic d) None of these C
21. The branch of science which deals with energy transformation, called 15
a) Thermodynamics b) Rate of reaction
c) Constant d) Energy A
-1-
22. Energy can convert from one form to another, it can neither be created nor destroyed. 16
a) Second law of thermodynamics b) Firs law of thermodynamics
c) Law of potential energy d) None of these B
27. According to “Hess’s” law 17
H
a)  H remains same b) = Constant
Q A
c) “ H” shows negative value d) None of these
29. Hess’s law explains the in heat of reaction. 19
a) Changes b) Equal
c) Temperature d) Joules A
1. Thermo chemistry is the study of relation ship between heat, energy and. 21
a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy
c) Energy of activation d) Ionization energy B
22. According to Hess law. 25
a) Kp=Kc (RT)n b) H=positive
c) H is same whiter process takes place in one step or more than one step
23. Hess’s law deals with. 26

a) Change in reaction of heat b) Rate of reaction
c) Equilibrium constant d) Influence of pressure on volume of gas A
1. The reaction in which heat is evolved from the system to surrounding is called 30
c) Fast reaction d) none of the above B
2. The branch of chemistry which deals with thermal energy changes in chemical reaction is called 31
a) Thermo chemistry b) Electrochemistry
c) Photochemistry d) None of the above A
6. The law states “the amount of Heat evolved or absorbed in a process is the same whether the 32
process takes place in one or several steps” is called
a) First law of thermodynamics b) Hess’s law
c) Law of conservation of energy d) None of the above B
11. When no work is done by the system, the volume of system 33
a) Increased b) Decreased
c) Remained constant d) None of the above C
14. The description of a system in its surrounding is called 34
a) Condition b) Law
c) State d) All of the above C
15. The standard heat of formation is 35
a)  Hf b) Hf0
c) H d) E0 B
20. In endothermic reactions heat is 36

a) Released b) Absorbed
c) Increased d) Decreased B
33. The  H for a reaction is – 110 Kcal/mole, which shows that the reaction is 40
c) Not stable d) It needs catalyst B
37. When  H for a reaction is a negative quantity the reaction is said to be 41
a) Reversible b) At equilibrium
c) Exothermic d) Endothermic C
40. For an exothermic reaction, the sign of enthalpy will be, 42
c) Zero d) None of these A
460. The branch of chemistry which deals with thermal energy change in chemical reaction is called. 44
a) Chemical kinetic b) Thermodynamics
c) Thermo chemistry d) Mechanics C
461. If heat is evolved in reaction, the process is said to be. 45
c) Isothermal d) Adiabatic B
462. If heat is absorbed in reaction, the process is said to be. 46
a) Exothermic b) Isothermal
c) Adiabatic d) Endothermic D
464. The branch of science which deals with energy transformations is known as. 48
a) Thermo chemistry b) Kinetics
c) Photo chemistry d) Thermodynamics D
467. The energy required to break one mole of bonds to form neutral atoms is called. 50
a) Bond length b) Bond strength
c) Bond energy d) None of these C
474. The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a process is same whether the process takes place in 51
one or several steps is the statement of.
a) First law of thermodynamics b) Hess’s law
c) Coulomb’s law d) Phase law B
483. The SI unit of pressure is. 52
a) Atmosphere b) Torr
c) Pascal d) mm of Hg C
484. Electrolytes which ionize to a very small extent in aqueous solution are known as. 53
a) Strong electrolytes b) Weak electrolytes
c) Moderate electrolytes d) None of these B
486. The rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to the product of molar concentrations of the 54
reacting substance. This is a statement of.
a) Law of multi proportional b) Le-Chatelier’s principle
c) Law of mass action d) Law of definite C
proportions
487. The oxidation number of free elements is. 55
a) 1 b) 2
c) 0 d) 3 C
491. The lowest possible temperature at which molecular motion ceases in called. 58
a) Absolute zero b) 00 C
c) Freezing point d) Boiling point A
492. Concentration of reactants with the passage of time in chemical reactions. 59
c) Remains the same d) None of the above B
494. Equation showing both the mass and enthalpy reaction is known as. 60
a) ideal equation b) nerst equation
c) thermo chemical equation d) Van der Waals equation C
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
1. When rate of opposing reactions are equal then we say that chemical reaction is in 1
a) Equilibrium b) Stable
c) Change d) None of these A
2. The reactions which occur both in forward and reverse directions are called reactions. 2
a) Change b) Reversible
c) Indirectly d) Evaporation B
6. The process of chemical equilibrium is true for _ reactions. 3
a) Reversible b) Forward
c) Increase d) Decrease A
7. The law of mass action was introduced by Guldberg and in 1869. 4
a) Joule b) Maxwell
c) Wage d) None of these C
8. The equilibrium constant “Kc” has unit. 5
a) No b) One
c) Two d) Three A
12. A substance which completely ionizes in aqueous solution and gives us positive and negative 6
ions, is called
a) Strong electrolyte b) Homogeneous solution
c) Weak electrolyte d) None of these A
13. A substance which partially ionizes in aqueous solution is called
a) Strong b) Weak electrolyte. 7
c) Positively d) None of these
B
14. H2SO4 is a electrolyte.
a) Strong b) Weak 8
c) Substance d) Reactant
A
16. The ionization is the process in which the electrolytes are up into positive and 9
negative ions.
a) Change b) Phase
c) Split d) Equilibrium C
20. When we increase the temperature then the rate of reaction will decrease. 10
a) Equal b) Exothermic
c) Radical d) None of these B
22. “KOH” is a electrolyte. 11
a) Strong b) Weak
c) Ion d) Molecule A
23. “HCN” is a electrolyte. 12
a) Weak b) Strong
c) Positive d) Aqueous A
4. In chemical reaction CH3 COOH +CH3 OH  CH3COOH3+H2O the reaction mixture is 13

always expected contain.
a) All four substance b) Only products
c) Only reactants d) CH3COOH+CH3+COOCH3 A
7. Le-Chatelier’s principle is a generalization which enables us to produce the effect of change of. 14
a) Pressure only b) Pressure, temperature& concentration
c) temperature& concentration d) Only temperature B
-1-
09. For a system 3A+2B  C the equilibrium constant expression. 15
[ A]3[B]2 C
a) b)
C [ A]3[B]2
[ A]2[B]3 [ A]3[B]3
c) d) B
C C
11. We can deduce the direction in which equilibrium will shift with the help of. 16
a) Law of mass action b) Law of heat of formation
c) Le-Chatelier’s principles d) Hess’ law C
19. Rate of exothermic reaction will decrease with increase in. 17
a) Volume b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) None of the above B
20. A stress in equilibrium system is. 18
a) Favoured b) opposed
c) Not opposed d) None of the above A
01 The equilibrium that involves reactant and product in a single phase is called 19
a) Dynamic b) Heterogenous
c) Homogenous d) None of the above C
2. 2SO2 + O2  2SO3 in the reaction, when concentration of SO3 is increased than concentration 20
of O2
c) Remains constant d) None of the above B
3. Electrolyte which ionize to a very small extent in a solution called 21
a) Weak electrolyte b) Strong electrolyte
c) Neutral d) None of the above A
4. Reaction which proceed in the forward direction and go completion are called 22
a) Equilibrium reaction b) Reversible reaction
c) Irreversible reaction d) None of the above C
6. When a weak electrolyte is dissolved in water only a small amount of molecule is 23
a) Ionized b) Remain same
c) Deionized d) None of the above A
8. Reaction which proceed on both side and never go to completion is called 24
a) Reversible reaction b) Equilibrium reaction
c) Irreversible reaction d) None of the above A
9. Equilibrium involving reactants and products in more than one phase is called 25
a) Dynamic b) Heterogeneous
c) Homogenous d) None of the above B
10. PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 is a 26
a) Reversible reaction b) Irreversible reaction
c) Incomplete reaction d) None of the above A
14. According to law of mass action the rate of chemical reaction is proportional to which of the 27
following
a) Size of the container b) Molar concentrations of the reactant
c) Nature of the reactants d) All of the above B
15. At equilibrium state the concentration of reactants and product are 28
a) Constant b) Different
c) Zero d) None of the above A
16. When a system loses some energy or does some work, then energy change ‘ E’ carries a 29
a) Negative sign b) Positive sign
c) Neutral sign d) None of the above A
18. The chemical equilibrium is the state of a reversible chemical reaction at which the rate of 30
reverse reactions at the given conditions of temperature and pressure
a) Equal b) Less
c) More d) All of the above A
19. With the passage of time the rate of forward reaction 31
c) Remains constant d) Decreases as well as increases A
20. The “Equilibrium State” of the given chemical reaction reaches the rate of forward reaction 32
becomes
a) Equal to the rate of reversible reactions b) Less to the rate of reversible reactions
c) More to the rate of reversible reactions d) None of the above A
21. The ‘Law of Mass Action’ was given in 1869 by 33
a) Guildberg and Waage b) Charle
c) Dalton d) Millikan A
22. The number of moles of a substance in one litre is called its 34
a) Molar concentration b) Active wwight
c) Composition d) None of the above A
23. When the concentrations of substances are taken in molar units, then the equilibrium constant is 35
represented by
a) Kc b) Kp
c) Kf d) None of the above A
24. Conventionally the concentrations of products are taken in the 36
a) Numerator b) Denominator
c) Both of these d) None of these A
25. Conventionally the concentrations of reactants are taken in the 37
a) Denominator b) Numerator
c) Both of these d) None of these A
28. The chemical mixture, when the rate of forward reaction becomes equal to the rate of reverse 39
reaction is called
a) Homogeneous mixture b) Equilibrium mixture
c) Heterogeneous mixture d) None of the above B
29. The concentration of reactants and products are at the state of equilibrium 40
a) Variable b) Constant
c) Variable as well as constant d) Sometimes variable and sometimes constant B
32. Molar concentration is called 41
a) Weight b) Active mass
c) Mass d) None of the above B
33. A substance that affects the rate of reaction but remains unchanged at the end of the reactions is 42
called
a) Catalyst b) Electrolyte
c) Acid d) None of the above A
35. Reversible reactions are those which proceed in 44
a) Forward direction b) Backward direction
c) Both directions d) None of the directions C
36. A catalyst is added to a system to change 45
a) The direction of the reaction b) The rate of the direction
c) The concentration of the reaction d) None of the directions B
39. The Ksp represents 46
a) Solubility constant b) Equilibrium constant
c) Ionization constant d) Dielectric constant A
40. The unit of concentration is 47
a) Mol ml-1 b) Mol lit-1
c) gm equivalent lit-1 d) g lit-1 B
42. On heating a liquid at its dynamic equilibrium the concentration of molecules in vapor state as 48
well as in liquid state
c) Remains constant d) Neither increases nor decreases C
43. For the reaction N2O4  2NO2 before the equilibrium is reached, the ratio in change of 49
concentration of NO2 to the concentration of N2O4 is
a) Equal b) Half
c) Twice d) Four times C
49. For a chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g), the equilibrium Kc will be represented by 50
a) [N2] [H2]3 / [NH3]2 b) [NH3]2 / [H2] [N]
c) [NH3]2 / [N2] / [H2]3 d) [NH3]2 / [N2] / [H2] C
519. Change of concentration of reactants or products is called 51

a) Order b) Molecularity
c) Rate of reaction d) None of these C
521. The rate at which substance, is directly proportion to it active mass and the rate of the reaction 52
directly proportional to the produce of the active masses of reaction substances is called
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Le-Chateliers principle
c) Law of mass action d) None of these C
524. Chemical equilibrium involving reactants and products in more than one phase is called 53
a) static b) Dynamic
c) Homogeneous d) Heterogeneous D
527. What factors will change the equilibrium state of system? 55
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Volume d) All these D
531 Chemical equilibrium is established in 56
a) Irreversible reaction b) Reversible reaction
c) Both d) None of these B
532. Concentration of reactants and products at the state of equilibrium is called 57
a) Final concentration b) Initial concentration
c) Normal concentration d) equilibrium concentration D
533. A catalyst merely speeds up the attainment of equilibrium by lowering the 58
a) Energy of activation b) Entropy
c) Enthalpy d) Internal energy A
535. Chemical equilibrium that consist of single phase is called 60
a) Heterogeneous equilibrium b) Homogeneous equilibrium
c) Poly-phase equilibrium d) None these B
541. The heterogeneous equilibrium has. 61
a) Two phases b) One phase
D c) Three phases d) More than one phase
542. How many elements have been discovered so for. 62
a) 110 b) 120
c) 100 d) 109 D
544. Hydrogen lies in. 64
a) 1st period b) 2nd period
c) 3rd period d) 4th period A
549. Le-Chatelier’s principle is concerned with. 65
a) Catalysis b) Photolysis
c) Photosynthesis d) Chemical equilibrium D
SOLUTIONS AND ELECTROLYTES
1. The solution ins a mixture of two or more than two pure substances 1
a) Homogeneous b) Solute
c) Concentration d) Dilute A
2. In solution, the large amount component is called 2
a) Homogeneous b) Solvent
c) Solution d) Composition B
3. The component of solution which is in lesser amount, is called 3
a) Homogeneous b) Solvent
c) Solute d) Composition C
5. Volume, or moles, are usually called concentration units 4
a) Number b) Weight
c) Percentage d) Solvent B
7. The formula for molarity is 5
a) M number of molesof solute number of dm3 of

= b) M =
number of dm3 of solution solution number of
molesof solute
c) M wt solute
= d) None of these
of
Eq wt of solute A
3
08. What weight of (NaOH) is required to prepare 0.01M solution in 750cm 6
a) 40 g b) 3 g
c) 30 g d) 0.3 g D
09. What weight of NaOH is required to prepare 0.2 M solution in 750 cm3 7
a) 9 g b) 6 g
c) 3 g d) 5 g B
10. The equivalent weight of (NaHO) is 8
a) 90 g b) 60 g
c) 40 g d) 50 g C
11. What is the molarity of solution containing 45.0 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 400 mls of water 9
a) 4.25 mol b) 6.25 mol
c) 3.25 mol d) 0.625 D
12. The molal solution is the solution whose molality is . 10
a) Ten b) Five
c) One d) Four C
14. The process in which water molecules surround and interact with solute ions or molecules, is 11
called
a) Hydration b) Solvation
c) Product d) Molecules A
15. The number of moles of a substance divided by total moles of all the substances, is called 12
a) Hydration b) Solvation
c) Mole fraction d) Component C
16. In the process of hydration, bond of water does not 13
a) Form b) Break
c) Mix d) Saturated B
17. We can say that CuSO4.5H2O is a 14
a) Hydrate b) Crystal
c) Ion d) Molecule A
-1-
18. “Ksp” is called 15
a) Hydrate product b) super product
c) Simple product d) Solubility product D
22. At given temperature, when maximum amount of solute dissolved in solution then it is 16
called
a) Saturated solution b) Unsaturated solution
c) Super saturated solution d) None of these A
26. The negatively charged ionic substances are generally bigger have ions 17
c) Complex d) Algebraic A
27. Cations are also called ions 18
c) Complex d) None of these B
28. Anions are also called ions 19
c) Complex d) None of these B
30. The flow of electrons is called . 20
a) Influence b) Current
c) Ions d) Molecules B
31. The surfaces in a cell at which reaction takes place, are called 21
a) Cathode b) Anode
c) Electrodes d) None of these C
32. The positive electrode is called 22
a) Anode b) Cathode
c) Oxidation d) Reduction A
33. The negative electrode is called 23
a) Cathode b) Anode
c) Oxidation d) Reduction A
34. For a charge “Q”, the mathematically form for Faraday’s law is 24
a) W  1 b) W = ZQ
Q
c) W Z Q
Q d) W  B
Z
35. The electrolytic cell converts electrical energy into energy. 25
a) Physical b) Influence
c) Chemical d) Oxidation C
39. The process in which oxygen removes, is called 26
a) Reduction b) Oxidation
c) Conductor d) None of these A
40. Which is the best definition of reduction reaction. 27
a) Addition of hydrogen b) Removal of oxygen
c) Gain of electrons d) All are correct D
41. The reactions in which reduction and oxidation both held, are called 28
a) Redox reaction b) Temperature
c) Reduction d) Oxygen reaction A
43. The “pH” of solution is defined as = 29
1 1
a) pH = b) pH =
H  
OH  
1
d) None of these A
c) pH =
 H  
45. Methyl orange is a weak 30

a) Base b) Acid
c) Neutral d) Oxidation A
3. Chemical reaction are frequently carried out in. 31
a) Solvent b) Solutions
c) Solute d) None of the above B
4. The amount of solute present in given amount of solvent or solution is called. 32
a) Molarity b) Molality
c) Saturation d) Concentration D
5. The number of moles of solute dissolved by one dm3 of solution is called. 33
a) Solubility b) Molarity
c) Normality d) Molality B
8. The most convenient way of expressing the concentration is. 34
a) Molarity b) Normality
c) Mole fraction d) Molality A
14. The morality of solution containing 98g H2SO4 in sufficient water to make 500ml of solution. 35
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3 C
16. The duster of ions with one more water ions is called. 36
a) Hydrated ion b) Un hydrated ion
c) Common ion d) De hydrated ion A
18. Positive ions are called. 37
a) Cations b) Anions
c) Common ion d) Hydrated A
23. Which law or principles is used to predict weather precipitation will occur or not under given 38
conditions.
a) Law of mass action b) Le-Chatelier’s principles
c) Solubility product d) None of the above C
24. The process in which electric current is used to bring about a chemical change that otherwise do 39
not takes place spontaneously.
a) Conduction b) Hydrolysis
c) Salvation d) Electrolysis D
25. Cell which converts electrical energy to chemical energy. 40
a) Electrolytic cells b) Dry cells
c) Voltaic cells d) Down’s cells A
28. The charge of atoms is called. 41
a) Oxidation number b) Atomic number
c) Oxidation state d) Mass number A
32. In metal hydrides the oxidation number of hydrogen is taken as. 42
a) 0 b) +1
c) -1 d) None of the above C
33. The value of ionic product of water at 250C. 43
a) 10-7 b) 10-14
7
c) 10 d) 10+14 B
34. A solution containing hydrogen in concentration equal to10-7M is said to be. 44
a) Neutral b) Acidic0
c) Basic d) None of the above A
36. The p H OF 0.1 M acetic acid is. 45
a) Less than one b) Greater than one
c) One d) Seven A
37. The addition of solid KCN to water would cause. 46
a) Increase of p H b) Decrease of p H
c) No change of p H d) No change in conductivity A
47. Salts of strong acids and strong base are. 47
a) Neutral b) Acidic
c) Alkaline d) None of the above A
48. The p H of human blood is. 48
a) 7.4 b) 8.4
c) 9.4 d) None of the above A
52. Oxidation involves. 49
a) Loss of electron b) Gain of electron
c) Increase in valency of negative part d) Decrease in valency of positive part A
2. The substance used to determine the end point of titration is used is called 50
a) Titration solution b) strong solution
c) Indicator d) None of the above C
4. A solution in which relative amount of solute dissolved in a solvent is called 51
a) Saturated solution b) Buffer solution
c) Concentrated solution d) None of the above C
5. The solution which tends to maintain its pH value when an acid or base is added to it is called 52
a) Saturated solution b) Buffer solution
c) Molar solution d) None of the above B
6. A cell in which electrical current is produced by redox reaction is called 53
a) Dry cell b) Electrolytic cell
c) Voltaic cell d) none of the above C
7. The amount of solute dissolved in 100 gm of solvent at a given temperature is called 54
a) Solubility b) Solubility product
c) Molarity d) None of the above A
9. If one mole of solute dissolved in one kg of solvent, the solution is called 55
a) One molal b) One molar
c) One normal d) None of the above A
10. The difference of potential between two electrode which cause electric current to flow is called 56
a) Cell reaction b) Cell capacity
c) Cell potential d) None of the above C
12. The process in which an electrolyte is decomposed into a pure substance, by passing current 57
through it is called
a) Hydration b) Hydrolysis
c) Electrolysis d) None of the above C
14. The logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration 58
a) Standard scale b) Arbitrary scale
c) pH d) None of the above C
16. Oxidation means 59
a) Addition of oxygen b) Increase in positive valency
c) Removal of hydrogen d) All of the above D
17. A substance which can accept electrons in known as 60
a) Acid b) Base
c) Oxidizing agent d) Reducing agent C
18. The sum of the oxidation number of all the atom in a neutral compound is 61
a) Zero b) one
c) Two d) Three A
20. Oxidation number of noble gases is taken to be 62
a) +1 b) 0
c) -1 d) -2 B
24. Hydrogen oxygen bond is not broken in 63
a) Hydrolysis b) Hydration
c) Hydrogenation d) Solvation B
28. Oxidation number of Chromium in K2Cr2O7 is 64
a) +4 b) +6
c) +5 d) +8 B
30. Dilute hydrolic acid is a 65
a) Strong acid b) Weak acid
c) Conjugate acid d) Basic acid A
31. The ions which are attracted towards cathode during electrolysis are called 66
a) Cations b) anions
c) Hydroxy ions d) none of the above A
35. When CH3COONa is added to CH3COOH solution then the concentration of H+ ion 67
a) Decreases b) Increase
c) Sometimes increases sometimes decreases d) Remains same A
38. If one mole of solute is dissolved in one liter of solution, the solution is called 68
a) One molar b) One molal
c) One normal d) None of the above A
42. The substance which is during a chemical change is called reducing agent 69
a) Oxidized b) Ionized
c) Reduced d) None of the above A
43. Electric current in a solution is carried by 70
a) Ions b) Molecules
c) Atoms d) All of the above A
45. What is the measure of electromotive force? 71
a) Volts b) Joule
c) Coulomb d) None of these A
46. The solution whose strength is known is called a/an 72
a) Aqueous solution b) Saturated solution
c) Original solution d) Unsaturated solution B
49. A solution which contains relatively a lesser amount of solute is called a 73
a) Concentrated solution b) Saturated solution
c) Dilute solution d) Original solution C
51. A solution of two component is called 74
a) Binary solution b) Dilute solution
c) Original solution d) Standard solution A
53. The number of moles of a solute per litre of the solution is called the of the solution 75
a) Molarity b) Normality
c) Molality d) None of the above A
54. The number of moles of a solute per kg of the solvent is called 76
a) Normality b) Molality
c) Molarity d) None of the above B
56. The combination or addition of water molecules to a substance with breaking any O-H bond is 77
called
a) Hydration b) Hydrolysis
c) Solvation d) Solute A
60. The acid-base reactions are usually 78
a) Reversible b) Irreversible
c) Reversible as well as irreversible d) None of the above A
61. According to Bronsted Lowry acid-base theory, a substance which accepts proton is called a 79
a) Base b) Acid
c) Both base and acid d) None of the above A
63. The ions which are attracted towards a node are called 80
a) Anions b) Cations
c) Electrode d) None of the above A
64. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte with the increasing temperature 81
c) Remains same d) Sometimes increases, sometimes decreases A
65. The chemical reaction in which the combination of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is involved, 82
is called an/a
a) Oxidation reaction b) Reduction reaction
c) Half-cell reaction d) Overall cell reaction A
67. Oxidation always occurs at the 83
a) Anode b) Cathode
c) Electrode d) None of the above A
68. Electrons are gained at 84
a) Anode b) Cathode
c) Electrode d) None of the above B
69. Oxidation number of Chromium in K2Cr2O7 is 85
a) -3 b) +6
c) +3 d) -6 B
73. The molarity of H2SO4 is 0.5M Its normality will be 86
a) 0.5N b) 1.0N
c) 0.25N d) 2.0N A
74. A 500 ml solution contains 49 gm of H2SO4. Its molarity is 87
a) 1.0M b) 2.0M
c) 1.5M d) 2.5m A
76. Assuming that the oxidation number of chlorine is –1, the oxidation number of phosphorous in 88
the compounds [PCl4]+ . [PCl6]- are respectively
a) + 1 and –1 b) +4 and –6
c) +5 and +3 d) +5 and +5 D
77. The pH of rain water is about 6 because air contains 89
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide d) Argon C
80. Water shows maximum density at 90
a) 40C b) 00C
c) 1000C d) -40C A
81. Which compound will act itself as an indicator? 91
a) Methyl orange b) Phenolphthalein
c) Potassium permanganate d) Methyl blue C
84. The chemical reaction CaCO3(g)  CaO(g) CO2(g) shows 92
c) No change in oxidation state d) Both oxidation and reduction C
86. A loss of electron is also called 93
c) Electrolysis d) Valency A
89. What is the molarity of the solution that contains 20 grams of NaOH in 500 ml of solution? 94
[Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1]
a) 0.25 b) 0.5
c) 1 d) 20 C
96. The pH of a solution that has hydrogen ion [H]+, concentration of 1 x 10-4 mol/liter is 95
a) -4 b) 4
c) 10 d) -10 B
0
97. The Kw of water at 25 C is given by 96
a) 1 x 107 b) 1 x 10-12
c) 1 x 10-14 d) 1 x 10-10 C
100. The oxidation number of iron in K3Fe(CN)6 is 97
a) +2 b) +3
c) +4 d) +5 B
102. A solution contains 0.4 mole a component A and 0.6 mole of component B. The mole fraction of 98
component A is
a) 0.4 b) 0.6
c) 0.5 d) 0.45 A
103. A solution contains A, B and C components. The mole fraction A and C are 0.25 and 0.35 99
respectively the mole fraction B will be
a) 0.25 b) 0.35
c) 0.40 d) 0.30 C
104. The normality of a solution containing 4 gm of NaOH in 10 ml of solution is 100
a) 10 N b) 1.0 N
c) 9.8 N d) 11.0 N A
107. On dipping red litmus paper in an aqueous solution of NH4CI, one observes 101
a) No change in color b) Blue color is developed
c) Red color became yellow d) All of the above statements are incorrect A
111. The oxidation number of iron in K3Fe(CN)6 is 102
a) +5 b) +4
c) +3 d) +2 C
112. Salts of strong acids and strong bases have pH value of, 103
a) 5 b) 7
c) 10 d) 14 B
113. Gain of electron is known as 104
a) Electrolysis b) Reduction
c) Valence d) Oxidation B
577. A homogeneous mixture of two or more than two chemical substances is called 105
a) Solute b) Solution
c) Solvent d) Solvation B
578. A solution which contains a relatively small amount of solute dissolved the solvent is called a) V
a) Dilute solution b) Concentrated solution ol
c) Saturated solution d) Ideal solution u
m
579. The amount of solute, solvent and solution may be measured by. e
b) Weight 106
c) Number of moles d) All these terms
587. Which substance yield ions when dissolved in water. A
a) Acids b) Salts 107
c) Bases d) All
588. The degree of dissociation depends upon. D
a) Nature of electrolyte b) Dilution of solution 108
c) The temperature d) All factors
594. Which of the following is sparingly soluble in water. D
a) H2SO4 b) NH3
109
c) PbCl2 d) HCl
595. The rate of a chemical reaction is determined by. D
a) Physical methods b) Chemical methods 110
c) Both methods d) None of these
597. The amount of chemical change produced by an electric current is directly proportion to C
the quantity of electricity passed. This fact is known as. 111
a) Faraday’s law b) Ohm’s law
c) Newton’s law d) Coulomb’s law C
600. A cell is which a redox reaction produce an electric current is known as. 112
a) Reversible cell b) Galvanic cell
c) Electrolytic cell d) Irreversible cell
601. The cell which converts electrical energy to chemical energy is called. A
a) Galvanic cell b) Dry cell 113
c) Electrolytic cell d) None of these
602. Electrolytes which ionize to a very small extent in solution are called. B
a) Strong electrolytes b) Weak electrolytes 114
c) Moderate electrolytes d) None of these
605. The potential different is measured by a device known as. C
a) Spectrometer b) Viscometer 115
c) Voltmeter d) Volta meter
606. The e.m.f depends on. B
a) Nature of the substance b) Concentration of the substance 116
c) its temperature d) On all these factors
608. The electrode at which oxidation reaction takes place is called. C
a) Cathode b) Anode 117
c) Diode d) Dynode
609. The electrode at which reduction takes place is called . D
a) Cathode b) Anode 118
c) Diode d) Dynode
611. Electromotive force is measured in. B
a) Joule b) Volts 119
c) Coulomb d) Ampere
612. The electrode potential of the SHE is arbitrarily chosen as. A
a) Zero b) One 120
c) Two d) Three
B
121
A
613. Which elements have greater reduction potential? 614. Purificat
a) Li b) Cu ion of
c) CI d) F NaCl,
in the saturated solution is carried out by passing. 122
a) Cl2 gas b) HCl
c) Br2 gas d) I2 Vapors
D
123
B
615. With the addition of HCl to H2Ssolution, the ionization of H2S. 124
a) Increases b) Remains constant
c) Decreases d) None of these C
616. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is. 125
a) +3 b) +5
c) +7 d) +9 C
617. Generally the oxidation number of oxygen is. 126
a) +2 b) -2
c) -1 d) +1/2 B
620. The concentration of H+ and OH-ions in an aqueous solution can vary from. 127
a) 1to14 b) 1to10-14
c) 1to12 d) 1to10-10 B
621. The pH of 0.01 MHCl is. 128
a) 4 b) 3
c) 1 d) 2 D
622. The device which is used to measure p H of solution known as. 129
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer d) Potentiometer D
–
623. The oxidation number of Mn in MnO4 ion is. 130
a) +3 b) +5
c) +7 d) +1 C
624. The concentration of H+ ion in a solution having p H 7 is equal to. 131
a) 10-5 b) 10-6
c) 10-8 d) 10-7 D
634. Mn has +7 oxidation number in. 132
a) MnSO4 b) MnO2
c) KMnO4 d) K2 MnO4 C
635. p H of human blood is. 134
a) 7 b) 7.4
c) 7.8 d) 8.4 B
636. If the pKa value is greater then the acid is. 135
a) Weak b) Strong
c) Neutral d) None of these A
637. If the Ka value is greater than the acid is. 136
a) Weak b) Strong
c) Neutral d) Slightly weak B
638. Methyl orange is used for. 137
a) Redox titration b) Acid base titration
c) Precipitation titration d) None of these B
639. KMnO4 acts as an indicators on. 138
a) Redox titration b) Acid base titration
c) Precipitation titration d) None of these A
640. Substance containing the COOH group are called. 139
a) Ketones b) Alcohols
c) Acids d) Alkenes C
641. The % age of nitrogen in ammonia is. 140
a) 80 b) 84
c) 82 d) 81 C
644. The oxidation number of N in HNO3 is. 141
a) +1 b) +3
c) +5 d) -5 C
645. p H of a solution is equal to. 142
a) Log[OH] b) +log[OH]
c) -log [H+] d) Log[H+] C
646. The sum of p H and pOH is equal to. 143
a) 10 b) 14
c) 12. d) 7 B
647. pH is determined by. 144
a) Litmus paper b) Indicator
c) pH meter d) All these methods D
649. Those organic compounds whose color change depends on p H of the solution is known as. 145
a) Pigments b) Dyes
c) Indicators d) None of these C
650. Indicators are. 146
a) Strong acids b) Strong bases
c) Weak acids d) Weak acids or weak bases D
651. The color of phenolphthalein in basic medium is. 147
a) colorless b) green
c) blue d) red D
652. K2CrO4is used as in. 148
a) acid base titrations b) redox titrations
c) precipitation d) none of these C
656. The oxidation number of Cr in H2CrO4 is. 149
a) +5 b) +7
c) +3 d) +6 D
657. How many gram moles of calcium phosphate can be obtained from 620 gram of 150
calcium phosphate?(mol.wt=310).
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4 B
658. How many grams of neon are present in 3 mole of 151
neon(mol.wt=20) a) 40 b) 80
c) 20 d) 60 D
663. Amount of NaOH required to obtain 5 liters of 0.1Msoution is. 152
a) 10g b) 20g
c) 30g d) 40g B
667. What weight of NaOH is requiring for preparing 2.5 liter of 1.5M NaOH 153
solution? a) 130g b) 140g
c) 150g d) 160g C
-
679. The p H of an aqueous solution is 3, Its [OH ] will be. 154
a) 10-11 b) 10-7
-3
c) 10 d) 10-14 A
680. The p H of 0.1M CH3COOH is. 155
a) 0 b) 1
c) 7 d) 0.1 B
682. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AB is 1.21  10-6 at 250C. Its molar solubility 156
is.
a) 1.21  10-6 M b) 1.1  10-4 M
c) 1.1  10-3 M d) 1.21  10-2 M C
684. The p H of 0.001 M HCI is. 157
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4 C
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of rate of reaction and mechanism, called 1
.
a) Chemical kinetics b) Chemical reaction
c) Concentration reaction d) None of these A
2. The change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time, is called 2
a) Acceleration b) Rate of reaction
c) Concentration of reaction d) None of these B
4. During the passage of time, concentration of product 3
a) Decreases b) Null
c) Full d) Increases D
6. Physical and methods are the two main methods for the determination of reaction 4
rate.
a) Historical b) Chemical
c) Tangent d) Velocity B
8. In chemical method, the concentration of reactants or products is measured with the interval of 5
a) Velocity b) Volume
c) Pressure d) Time D
12. The rate of reaction depends upon only one factor that is 6
a) Temperature b) Water
c) Fire d) None of these A
14. The factor affects the rate of chemical reaction is 7
a) Heat b) Catalyst
c) Energy d) None of these B
15. The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to the molar of reacting substances 8
a) Concentrations b) Molecules
c) Energy d) Volume A
16. A catalyst is a substance which is not consumed in a reaction but the rate of reaction. 9
a) changes b) Homogeneous
c) Greater d) Catalyst A
17. Catalytic reactions are divided into main types. 10
a) Three b) Two
c) Five d) Four B
18. The substance, which slows down a reaction, is called 11
a) Inhibitor b) Reactant
c) Rate of law d) None of these A
19. Potassium is poisoned by 12
a) Inhibitors b) Zinc
c) Arsenic d) Calories C
2. The change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time is called. 13
a) Reaction rate b) Rate constant
c) Diffusion d) Chemical kinetic A
9. For a reaction system the minimum amount of energy which molecules must have not form an 14
activated complete is called.
a) Activation energy b) Ionization energy
c) Reaction energy d) None of the above A
10. The relation ship between rate of reaction and masses (molar concentration) of reacting 15
substance is summarized as.
a) Law of mass action b) Le-Chatelier principle
c) Charle’s law d) Ideal gas law A
-1-
11. The energy of activation is usually expressed in. 16
a) Joules b) Calories.
c) Ergs d) None of the above A
12. When catalyst and reactants are present in same phase, catalyst is called. 17
a) Homogeneous catalyst b) Heterogeneous
c) Organic catalyst d) None of the above A
13. The main function of catalyst is to. 18
a) Lower of activation energy b) Lower temperature
c) Increase in activation energy d) Lower pressure A
14. Those substance which make catalyst more effective. 19
a) Accelerator b) Inhibitors
c) Promoter d) None of the above C
2. The reaction which may proceed slowly with measurable rate is called. 20
a) Slow reaction b) Fast reaction
c) Moderate reaction d) None of the above C
3. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of reaction rates is known as. 21
a) Chemical kinetic b) Chemical equilibrium
c) Electro chemistry d) None of the above A
4. The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and the concentration of reactants is 22
called.
a) Order law b) Rate law
c) Moleculirity d) None of the above B
5. The change of concentration of reactants and products in a unit time. 23
a) Rate of reaction b) Order of reaction
c) Moleculirity d) None of the above A
6. The minimum amount of energy required to form an activated complex is called. 24
a) Reaction energy b) Activation energy
c) Deactivation energy d) None of the above B
7. The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration determined the rate of reaction is called. 25
a) Rate of reaction b) Order of reaction
c) Molecularity d) None of the above B
9. The velocity of reaction depends upon which of the following factors. 26
a) Nature of reactants b) Concentration of reactants
c) Temperature at which the reactants is carried out
10. If the velocity of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reaction, then it belongs to 27
which category of reactions.
a) Zero order reaction b) First order reaction
c) Second order reaction d) Third order reaction A
13. Ionic reaction are than non ionic reactions. 28
a) Slower b) Moderate
c) Faster d) None of above C
15. I2+H2  2HI is order reaction. 29
a) Second b) Zero
c) First d) Third A
17. In the presence of suitable catalyst , the rate of a reaction is. 30

c) Remains constant d) Increases as well as decrease A
20. The substance which decrease the effects of catalysts are. 31
a) Promoters b) Inhibitors
c) Specifity d) None of the above B
25. A chemical substance used to increase the rate of a chemical reaction is called. 32
a) Catalyst b) Catalysis
c) Inhibitors d) Promoters A
26. The reactions which proceed at moderate rates are. 33
a) Very fast b) Very slow
c) Normal d) High C
32. When there is an increase in concentration, the rate of reaction. 34
c) Remain constant d) None of above A
+
33. Ionic reactions such as neutralization reactions involving H and OH ions are usually 35
as compared to the molecular reactions.
a) Very fast b) Very slow
c) Sluggish d) None of these A
34. Molecular reactions usually proceed at. 36
a) Very fast rates b) Slow rates
c) Moderate rates d) Ordinary rates C
38. With the increase in temperature, the rate of reaction. 37
a) Increases greatly b) Does not increase
c) Increases a little d) None of above A
39. The decrease in the catalytic property of catalyst is called the. 38
a) Poisoning of a catalyst b) Limit of a catalyst
c) Specifity of a catalyst d) None of the above A
40. The average rate of reaction between two intervals is to the reaction rate at any 39
moment.
a) Equal b) Not equal
c) Balanced d) Higher B
41. The p H of water is greater at temperature of. 40
a) 140C b) 150C
c) 180C d) 250C A
42. Water at 250C is. 41
a) Neutral b) Acid
c) Basic d) None of the above A
43. Mercury is the best liquid for barometer, because. 42
a) Its high density keep the instrument small
b) It does not evaporate rapidly
c) It is unfairly reactive
d) All the above D
45. In a reaction A+ 2B  product, the molecularity of the reaction is given by 43
a) 3 b) 2
c) 1 d) 0 A
46. For a reaction 2A+B  product, the active mass of B is kept constant and that of A is doubled. 44
The rate of reaction will then.
a) Increases 2 times b) Increases 4 times
c) Decreases 2 times d) Decreases 4 times B
47. The rate law of for a chemical reaction N2O5 2NO2+1/2 O2 is shown as Rate=K[N2O5] identity 45
the order of the reaction.
a) First order b) Second order
c) Third order d) Zero order A
48. The rate law of chemical reaction 2NO2(g)  2NO(g)+O2(g) is represented by experience rate 46
= K[NO2]2 the order of reaction is.
a) First order b) Second order
c) Third order d) Zero order B
50. Consider the reaction H2 (g) +1(g)  2HI (g) the order of reaction for this is. 47
a) 1 b) 2
B 48 c) 3 d) 2.5
51. Reactions with high activation energy are. A
a) Slow b) Fast
c) Moderate d) does not take place 49
53. Use of catalyst in a reaction changes. D
a) Enthalpy b) Entropy
c) Internal energy d) Activation energy 50
57. A chemical reaction is characterized by. D
a) Concentration b) Temperature
59. Kinetic energy is given by the.
c) Catalyst d) All the above 51
a) K.E=1/2(mass of object)  (velocity of object)2
b) K.E=(mass of object)  (velocity of object)2
c) K.E=1/2(mass of object)  (velocity of object)
d) K.E=1/2(mass of object)2  (velocity of object) A
66. In the chemical reaction XClO2+Y  X Cl+O2+Y, which of the substance is a catalyst? 52
a) XCIO2 b) Y
c) XCl d) O2 B
687. The rate reaction depends up. 53

a) Concentration b) Temperature
c) Catalyst d) All of these D
689. The rate of reaction is expressed in units of 54
a) Mol dm-3s-1 b) Mol dm-3s
3
c) Mol dm s d) Mol-1 dm3s-1 A
690. Rate of a reaction can be determined by 55
a) Physical method b) Chemical method
c) Both methods d) None of these C
691. The number of atoms or molecules whose concentrations determine the rate of the reaction is 56
called
a) Molecularity b) Order
c) Rate of reaction d) Rate constant B
693. The rate constant depends on 57
a) Solvent b) Pressure
c) Temperature d) All these D
694. The rate of reaction depends on 58
a) Catalyst b) Concentration
c) Temperature d) All these D
696. According to Bronsted concept, the strength of an acid is measured from its tendency to donate 59
a) Electron b) Neutron
c) Proton d) Positron C
697. The order of decreasing strength of halogen acids is 60
a) HI > HCl > HBr b) HBr >HCl > HI
c) HI > HBr >HCl d) HCl > HI> HBr C
698. Phenalphthalein is an example of 61
a) Redox indicator b) Acid-base indicator
c) Precipitation indicator d) None of these B
699. The colour of phenolphthalein in acidic medium is 62
a) Red b) Yellow
c) Orange d) Colourless D
700. The colour of methyl orange in alkaline medium is 63
a) Red b) Yellow
c) Blue d) Colourless B
704. When ice melts, then it takes place 64
a) Physical change b) Chemical change
c) No change d) All possible A
705. Total number of atoms or molecules taking part in a chemical reaction is known as 65
a) order b) Molecularity
c) rate constant d) rate of reactions B
706. The rate of reaction depends upon 66
a) initial concentration of reactants b) extent of reaction
c) temperature d) time of reaction C
707. Which of the following factors does not influenced the rate of reaction? 67
a) concentration of the reactants b) nature of the reactants
c) molecularity of the reaction d) temperature C
708. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered 68
a) by raising the temperature b) by lowering the temperature
c) by removing the products d) by adding a catalyst D
709. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the reaction is of 69
a) zero order b) first order
c) second order d) third order A
716. Those substances which slow down a reaction are called 70
a) catalysts b) promoters
c) inhibitors d) none of these C
718. Which of the following act as inhibitor? 71
a) As b) pyridine
c) quinoline d) all these D
719. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the: 72
a) Concentration of reactant b) Concentration of product
c) Time d) Temperature D
720. A zero order reaction is one: 73
a) In which reactants do not react b) In which one of the reactant is in large excess
c) Whose rate is not affected by concentration
d) Whose rate is independent of temperature D
724. For the single step reaction 2A + B------------> A2B, Rate =? 74
a) K [A] [B] b) K [A] [B]2
2
c) K [A] [B] d) K [A]2 [B]2 C

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CHM-II-CHP-01.

1. The process to arrange the elements in specific order is called . 1

1. Hydrogen is discovered by. 1

25. Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen in a chemical reaction is called: 23

11. Boron has ionization potential value. 1

18. The heat energy for reaction 4Al + 3O2  2Al2O3 is 6

21. When aluminum reacts with chlorine then

1. The p-block elements includes subgroups III-A to: 30

23. Crystals of -sulphur consists of: 48

24. A unit cell of crystals of sulphur consists of ……… S8 molecules 49

1. Urea was obtained by heating . 1

35. 3CH=CH Cutube .

36. The formula for “dimethyl ether” is . 35

40. The name of CH3 – CH– CH3 is . 39

57. Organic compound are produced in nature in. 97

75. 3CHCH Cutube C6H6. The above reaction is.

1. The compounds which consist of hydrogen and carbon are called . 1

11. The boiling point of methane is 11

15. CH3 Cl2 +Cl2 15

16. CH4 + 2Cl2  . 16

18. The process of racking represented as . 18

19. The formula for the formaldehyde is . 19

20. The commercial preparation of “H2” is represented by the following equation. 20

21. Methane is gas used as . 21

30. The formula for acetylene is _ 30

35. Soda lime is a mixture of Ca(OH)2 and conc. 35

42. Addition of water to a molecule is called . 42

3. Reaction with a double bond gives which type of reaction? 52

31. Which statement about butene is not correct? 69

42. CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr  80

a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –Br b) CH2 – CH– CH3

43. The reaction, 2RX + 2Na R – R + 2NaX is an example of : 81

a) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 uv b) C2H6 +  d ark

a) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 + 2NaCl + SO2 b) C2H5Cl + SO2 + HCl B

20. C2H5+ is the example of 18

7. The general formula for tertiary alcohol is 6

12. The alcohols containing three OH – groups are called alcohols. 11

22. CH3 – OH + SOCl2  20

23. Methanol is used to prepare 21

28. The process to prepare esters, is called 26

1224. Which of a following is used as anesthetics? 39

7. The formula for glucose is 6

8. For all living cells, the protein is an important _ 7

10. The hydrates of carbon, are called 8

11. The general formula for carbohydrates, is 9

12. 6CO2 + 6H2O

13. There are _ main types of carbohydrates. 11

14. Monosaccharides are the _ carbohydrates. 12

15. Aldoses are those carbohydrates which contain functional group. 13

16. The carbohydrates containing _ functional group, are called ketoses 14

17. Glucose is an example of _ . 15

18. Fructose is an example of _ 16

19. The glucose produces _ for our body. 17

20. Polysaccharides are partially _ in water. 18

21. We can get vitamin-A from _ 19

22. We can get vitamin-D from _ 20

23. We can get vitamin-E from _ . 21

24. We can get vitamin-C from 22