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Pre NEET Mock Test - 4: Answer Key

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Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

Pre NEET Mock Test - 4


(for NEET-2021)

Answer Key

1 (3) 41 (2) 81. (1) 121. (2) 161. (3)


2 (3) 42 (2) 82. (1) 122. (4) 162. (2)
3 (2) 43 (2) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (4)
4 (1) 44 (4) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5 (4) 45 (3) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (2)
6 (4) 46 (2) 86. (3) 126. (1) 166. (3)
7 (2) 47 (4) 87. (3) 127. (1) 167. (3)
8 (2) 48 (1) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (4)
9 (4) 49 (2) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10 (3) 50 (4) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (4)
11 (1) 51. (2) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12 (2) 52. (1) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (1)
13 (3) 53. (1) 93. (1) 133. (1) 173. (2)
14 (4) 54. (4) 94. (1) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15 (2) 55. (1) 95. (3) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16 (1) 56. (1) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17 (1) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (4)
18 (2) 58. (2) 98. (4) 138. (4) 178. (3)
19 (1) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (4)
20 (3) 60. (1) 100. (3) 140. (4) 180. (4)
21 (1) 61. (3) 101. (4) 141. (1) 181. (1)
22 (3) 62. (3) 102. (1) 142. (3) 182. (2)
23 (2) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (4)
24 (4) 64. (4) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25 (3) 65. (2) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (1)
26 (2) 66. (1) 106. (3) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27 (3) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28 (2) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29 (2) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (2) 189. (3)
30 (1) 70. (4) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (2)
31 (4) 71. (2) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (3)
32 (1) 72. (3) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33 (1) 73. (3) 113. (4) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34 (1) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (4) 194. (3)
35 (2) 75. (4) 115. (1) 155. (4) 195. (3)
36 (3) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (1)
37 (2) 77. (3) 117. (3) 157. (3) 197. (4)
38 (1) 78. (1) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (3)
39 (3) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (4)
40 (2) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)

(1)
Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

Pre NEET Mock Test - 4


(for NEET-2021)

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. Answer (1)

1. Answer (3)

1.22 
Limit of resolution of telescope =
D
X 1.22  By Snell’s law at point P
=
2000 D sin i
=
sin r1
1.22 6 10-7 2 103
X=
20 10-2 for small value of 

X = 6 × 1.22 × 10–3 sin  


sin i i
X = 7.32 × 10–3 =
sin r1 r1
X is order of 7 mm
i
2. Answer (3) =
r1
In the given nuclear reaction
r1 + r2 = A
235
92 U
1
0 n 141
56 Ba
92
36 Kr 3 ( )
1
0n 200 MeV r2 = 0

92
r1 = A
From the conservation of nucleons, 36 Kr will be
i = A
emitted
On putting the value of μ and A
3. Answer (2)
3
Electric potential due to an electric dipole at any i=  8
general point is given as 2
= 12°
kp cos
V= 5. Answer (4)
r2
Acceleration due to gravity at height h above the
Where  is angle with dipole axis. surface of earth is given by

9  109  3 2  10−10 g =
gR 2
V= = 30 V
9  10−2  2 ( R + h )2
(2)
Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

mgR 2 
n
=
9
 mg  =
(R + h)2 10 10
n=9
mgR 2
mg  = 9. Answer (4)
(2R )2
We know that
mg
mg  = Relative permeability = magnetic susceptibility + 1
4
80 r =  + 1
=
4 r = 1 − 0.08 = 0.92
= 20 N
10. Answer (3)
6. Answer (4)
The phase angle between displacement and
By Bohr’s postulate, angular momentum
acceleration of a particle executing S.H.M. is .
nh rr
L= therefore a.r  0
2
11. Answer (1)
4h
L= ( n = 4)
2 We know that value equivalent to 1 a.m.u in MeV
is 931.5
2h
L= Therefore energy equivalent to 4 a.m.u. is

7. Answer (2) E = 4 × 931.5 MeV

Height of liquid in capillary tube is given as = 3726 MeV


2T cos  12. Answer (2)
h=
gr In balanced Wheatstone bridge
For water, cosθ = 1
1
 h
r
h r
Now, =
h 2r
h = 2h R1 R3
=
m Ah A  2h 1  A R2 R4
= = = Q A = 
m Ah 4 Ah 2  4 50 x
Here, R3 =
m 50 + x
m =
2
 50 x 
8. Answer (2) 50  50 + x 
 =
The least count of Vernier caliper is given by l1 l2
LC. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
 l1 : l2 = 2:1
Given, n MSD. = 10 VSD
nM  S  D  50 x 
So, 1 VSD = 50  (50 + x ) 
10  =
l1  l1 
 n  2
Hence, L  C =  1 −  M  S  D  
 10 
2500 + 50 x = 100 x
1  n 
 = 1− 1
10  10  x = 50 

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Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

13. Answer (3) 19. Answer (1)


The average thermal energy for gas molecules From the colour coding of carbon resistor
1 Red → Digit → 2
per degree of freedom = kBT
2 Yellow → Digit → 4
For diatomic gas, rotational degree of freedom is 2
Violet → Multiplier → 107
Average rotational kinetic energy for diatomic gas
Silver → tolerance → 10 %
molecules
= kBT therefore R = 24 × 107  ± 10%
14. Answer (4) 20. Answer (3)
We know that X coordinate of COM is given by
E0 m1x1 + m2 x2 + m3 x3
B0 = X cm =
c m1 + m2 + m3

B0 1 a
= m  0 + ma + m 
E0 c  X cm = 2
3m
1
As c = a
0 0  X cm =
2
B0 = E0 0 0 21. Answer (1)
15. Answer (2) In a transistor base has least concentration of
impurity. Emitter is heavily doped.
dv
Velocity gradient = 22. Answer (3)
dx
mean free path of gas molecules is given as
 0 -1 
 dv  M LT 
 dx  =
1
[L] =
2nd 2
= [M0L0T–1]
1 1
16. Answer (1)  and  
d2 n
Magnetic field at end of the solenoid is given as
23. Answer (2)
 nI
B= 0 By ideal gas equation
2
PV = nRT
4  10−7  100  5
 B= 
2 P= RT
M
 B = 3.14  10−4 T
PM
17. Answer (1)  T =
R
When two physical quantities are added or
249  103  4  10−3
subtracted, there should be as many decimal  T =
25
places retained in the final results as there in the 0.1
number with the least decimal place. So, 3
23.623 + 8.7 = 32.323  T = 1195 K
= 32.3  t = 1195 – 273
18. Answer (2) = 922 °C
Since frequency is greater than threshold 24. Answer (4)
frequency. Hence photoemission will occur. Drift velocity (vd) is given by
Now, photoelectric current  Intensity of light, so
i
it will be halved vd =
neA
(4)
Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

8 30. Answer (1)


 vd = −3 −19 −4
5  10 m 28
 1.6  10  10 For bright fringe path difference = n
 vd = 10 −5
m/s ( n + 1) 2 = n1
25. Answer (3) ( n + 1) 420 = n 560
By equation of uniformly accelerated motion
( n + 1) 3 = 4n
v2 = u2 + 2aS
n=3
v = v 02 + 2gh
31. Answer (4)

 v= (30)2 + 2  10  80 Power = Intensity × area


= 105 × 400
 v = 50 m/s = 4 × 107 W
26. Answer (2) 32. Answer (1)
Young’s modulus of elasticity is
The variation of resistivity with temperature is
Stress given by
Y =
Strain  = 0 (1 +  t)
 L  Mg therefore, on increasing temperature resistivity of
Strain   =
 L  AY conductor increases
27. Answer (3) 33. Answer (1)
Beats frequency = fP ~ fQ Heat required to increase the temperature of a
body of mass m by T °C is given by
fP – 260 = ± 6
Q = mST
fP = 260 ± 6
Q1 S1
Thus possible frequency of fork P are 260  6 =
Q2 S2
= 266 Hz, or 254 Hz. As frequency decreases on
loading, therefore original frequency of fork P is 4
266 Hz. =
3
28. Answer (2)
34. Answer (1)
r r
Torque of force F acting at r is given by
r r r
 = r F
r
Here r = (0 − 1)iˆ + (0 + 1) jˆ + (0 − 1)kˆ

= −iˆ + ˆj − kˆ
for 4 kg block iˆ ˆj kˆ
4g – T = 4a …(i) r
 = –1 1 –1
for 2 kg block 1 2 0
T – 2g = 2a …(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii) = [0 − (−2)]iˆ − ˆj [0 − (−1)] + kˆ(−2 − 1)

T =
2  2  4  10
T =
80
N (
= 2iˆ − jˆ − 3kˆ N m)
6 3
35. Answer (2)
29. Answer (2)
From the relation between electric field and
For an isolated charge capacitor, charge on the
potential
capacitor is independent on inserting or removal
r V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ
of dielectric slab, therefore charge on the E=– i – j– k
capacitor remains same x y z

(5)
Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions
r V ˆ  V V  V
E=− j  As = = 0  I=
y  x z  Xc
r 
 E=−
y
2y 3 jˆ ( )  I=
300
5  103
r
 E = −6y 2 jˆ = 60 × 10–3 = 60 mA
41. Answer (2)
at y = 1 m
r de-Broglie wavelength is given by
 E = −6 ˆj V m−1
h
=
SECTION-B P
36. Answer (3) As P = 2mE
By Brewster's law Hence,
μ = tan ip h 6.6  10−34
= =
ip = tan–1 () 2mE 2  9.1 10−31  320  1.6  10−19
4
= tan−1   = 0.7 Å
3 42. Answer (2)
= 53° In adiabatic expansion heat is neither gained nor
37. Answer (2) lost by the gas and temperature reduces and
In forward bias width of depletion region of p-n volume increases.
junction diode decreases and in reverse bias 43. Answer (2)
width of depletion region of p-n junction diode By de Morgan’s law
increases. On decreasing the doping
concentration depletion width increases. Y = AB
38. Answer (1) = A+B
Electric field at a distance (r > R) from the centre =A+B
of the shell is given by
44. Answer (4)
q
E= For metals, temperature coefficient of resistance
40 r 2 is positive while in insulators and semiconductors
4R temperature coefficient of resistance is negative.
Here, r = Therefore resistance of insulators and
3
semiconductors decreases on increasing the
9q
 E= temperature.
640R 2 45. Answer (3)
39. Answer (3) Average power consumed in AC circuit is given
As 1.6 × 10–19J = 1 eV by
64 P = Ir .ms  Vr .ms cos 
∴ 64 J = −19
eV
1.6  10 I0 V0 
= cos
=4× 1020 eV 2 2 3
40. Answer (2) V0I0
=
The capacitive reactance is given by 4
1 = 0.25 V0I0
XC =
C 46. Answer (2)
1 By Lens maker’s formula
=
100  2  10 −6 1  1 1 
= (  − 1)  − 
=5× 103  f  R1 R2 
(6)
Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

1 5  2  = s Mg
= − 1  
f  3
(As lens is equiconvex)
 R  = 0.5 × 4 × 10
1 4 = 20 N
 =
40 3R flim > Fapplied
160 If applied force is less than limiting friction, then
 R= cm
3 friction force will be equal to applied force.
47. Answer (4) f = Fapplied
By Einstein's equation of photoelectric effect f = 12 N
h = 0 + KEmax 50. Answer (4)
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons Moment of inertia of the spherical shell about
in a photoelectric effect is independent of tangential axis is given by parallel axis theorem
intensity of light. as
48. Answer (1) I = Icm + MR2
The position of the particle is given by
2
x = 12 t – t3  Icm = MR 2
3
dx
 v= 2
dt  I= MR 2 + MR 2
3
 v = 12 – 3t2
 t2 = 4
5
(For v = 0) = MR 2
3
 t=2s
49. Answer (2) As, I = MK2

Limiting static friction is given by 5 5


 MK 2 = MR 2  K = R
flim = s N 3 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Answer (1)
51. Answer (2) • Carbon monoxide is almost water insoluble

rG = rG° + RT In Q • CO has strong tendency to accept oxygen


therefore is a strong reducing agent
At equilibrium G = 0, Q = Keq.
• Due to lone pair, CO can form complexes
So, rG° = –RT ln Keq • It hinders the oxygen carrying capacity of
= –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln (1.7 × 102) blood by forming carboxyhaemoglobin hence
poisonous in nature
52. Answer (1)
54. Answer (4)
10 Electronic configuration of Co → [Ar]3d74s2
• Number of N atoms in N2 =  2  NA
28
Electronic configuration of Co2+ →[Ar]3d7
10
• Number of O atoms in O2 =  2  NA ; number of unpaired e– = 3
32
spin only magnetic moment = n(n + 2) BM
10
• Number of O atoms in O3 =  3  NA = 3(3 + 2)
48
10 = 15 BM
• Number of Cu atoms in Cu(s) =  NA
63.5 = 3.87 BM.

(7)
Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

55. Answer (1) 62. Answer (3)


• Cellulose is a natural polymer as its monomer • In BCC unit cell, atoms are present at corners
is glucose. and centre of unit cell.
• Neoprene and Buna-S are synthetic rubbers. • Shortest interatomic distance in BCC unit cell
• Nylon 6, 6 is a synthetic fibre.
Body diagonal
56. Answer (1) =
2
Because of presence of more number of amino
3a 3
groups than carboxyl groups, arginine is basic in = =  288 pm
nature. 2 2
Arginine is 63. Answer (4)
• Inhibitors are substances which reduce the
rate of reaction.

57. Answer (3) • Catalyst provide an alternate pathway or


reaction mechanism by reducing the
10 64
nH2 = = 5 mol, nO2 = = 2 mol activation energy between the reactants and
2 32
products.
nH2 5 5
H2 = = = • Rate constant; k = Ae– Ea/RT
nH2 + nO2 5+2 7
So, on increasing temperature rate constant
5 increases.
PH2 = P.H2 = 35  = 25 bar
7 • Catalyst catalyses the spontaneous reaction
PO2 = (35 − PH2 ) but does not catalyse the non-spontaneous
reaction.
= (35 – 25) = 10 bar
58. Answer (2) 64. Answer (4)

• Thin layer and column chromatography are Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical
types of adsorption chromatography alkanes like R1 – R1 as
• Paper chromatography is a type of partition R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1 ⎯⎯⎯→ R1 – R1 + 2 NaX.
Dry
ether
chromatography.
If R1 and R2 are different, then mixture of alkanes
59. Answer (1)
may be obtained as
• Reaction involving increase in gaseous moles
R1 – X + 2Na + R2 – X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Dry Ether
has rS > 0
• Decomposition reaction is an endothermic R1 – R1 + R1 –R2 + R2 – R2.
process (rH > 0) 65. Answer (2)
60. Answer (1)
• Oxidation state of Mn in MnO−4 (permanganate
ion) is +7 and in MnO24− (Manganate ion) is
+6.
• Zn and Cd have completely filled d-subshell
therefore not considered as transition metals
• In interstitial compounds, atoms are trapped
in interstitial sites therefore non-
stoichiometric in nature

61. Answer (3) • Due to the increasing stability of the lower


species to which VO2+ and Cr2O72– are
Electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution using Pt reduced, oxidising power of VO2+ is lesser
electrodes gives H2(g) at cathode and Cl2(g) at than of Cr2O72–
anode.
(8)
Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

66. Answer (1) •


• Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a
cationic detergent.
• Sodium laurylsulphate and sodium dodecyl • CO + N2 is producer gas
benzenesulphonate are anionic detergents. • CH4 is an electron precise molecular hydride
• Stearic acid reacts with polyethylene glycol to 72. Answer (3)
form non-ionic detergents.
Number of protons = atomic number = 58
67. Answer (4)
Number of electrons = Number of protons = 58
In benzyl carbocation, the charge is delocalised
due to resonance effect hence more stable than Number of neutron = Mass number – Atomic number
secondary butyl carbocation, where charge is = 140 – 58 = 82
delocalised due to hyperconjugation.
73. Answer (3)
68. Answer (3)
Equivalent wt of aluminium = 9
• Ligands having carbon as donor, generally
have stronger field strength. Number of equivalent of aluminium deposited at
• Order of ligand field strength based on 9
cathode = = 1
spectrochemical series 9
NH3 < en < CN– < CO Number of Faraday required = 1
69. Answer (3) 74. Answer (2)
• The iron obtained from blast furnace contains
4% carbon and many impurities in smaller
amount. This iron is known as pig iron.
• Cast iron is made by melting pig iron with
scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.
• Mond process is used for the refining of
Nickel.
The reaction is also known as -elimination
70. Answer (4)
75. Answer (4)
• In fullerenes, all the carbon atoms are sp2
hybridised.
• Silicones are inert therefore used in surgical
and cosmetic plants.
• Quartz crystal shows Piezoelectric effect.
• CO2 is a major contributor in global warming
due to greenhouse effect.
76. Answer (4)
Unnilpentium (105)  Dubnium
Unnilquadium (104)  Rutherfordium
Unnilseptium (107)  Bohrium
Ununbium (112)  Copernicium
Unnilbium (102)  Nobelium
71. Answer (2) 77. Answer (3)
• Chlorides and sulphates of magnesium and • For non-electrolyte i = 1
calcium causes permanent hardness of
water. Tf = iKf·m = 5.12 × 0.01 = 0.0512  0.05 K

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Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

78. Answer (1)


CO2  x + 2(–2) = 0
x = +4
CO  x + 1(–2) = 0
x = +2
+4 +2 +1 +4
N2 O4 (g) + 3CO(g) ⎯⎯→N2O(g) + 3CO2 (g)
84. Answer (2)
79. Answer (2)
Let the solubility of Mg(OH) 2 be s mol L–1
8 g ⎯⎯⎯→ 4 g ⎯⎯⎯→ 2 g ⎯⎯⎯→1 g
t 1/2 t t
1/2 1/2 Mg(OH)2 Mg2+ + 2OH–
 t = 3t1/2 s 2s + 0.1
[Since s < < 0.1 therefore 2s + 0.1  0.1]
0.693
t = 3 = 90 s Ksp = [Mg2+] [OH–]2
2.303  10−2
1.8 × 10–11 = (s) (0.1)2
80. Answer (2)
s = 1.8 × 10–9 M
Acetone and chloroform form negative deviation
85. Answer (2)
solution as the interaction between acetone-
chloroform is stronger than interactions between • In free expansion Pext = 0 therefore w = 0
acetone-acetone and chloroform-chloroform. • For isothermal process
H = n CPT = 0
U = n CVT = 0
• Entropy increases during the expansion

81. Answer (1) SECTION-B


86. Answer (3)

RNH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ⎯⎯ →
(1 Amine )
Peroxomonosulphuric acid or Caro’s acid. RNC + 3KCl + 3H2O
Only 1° amines give carbylamine test.
87. Answer (3)

88. Answer (3)


Aldol condensation of two different aldehydes or
ketones is known as cross aldol condensation.
82. Answer (1)
As2S3 is negatively charged sol. It can be easily
coagulated by cation having higher charge.
83. Answer (2)
Lactose on hydrolysis gives -D-glucose and -
D-galactose.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

89. Answer (1) 95. Answer (3)


Be2 (8 e–) : 1s2*1s22s2*2s2 +
H O+
→ CH3COO– MgBr ⎯⎯⎯→
CH MgBr
CO2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3
Dry ether
3
CH3COOH
1 1
BO = (Nb – Na ) = (4 – 4) = 0
2 2
96. Answer (1)
 Bond order of Be2 = 0
In BF3, B has incomplete octet therefore it acts
 Be2 doesn’t exist. as a Lewis acid.
90. Answer (3) 97. Answer (2)
For l = 0, possible value of m is 0 only.
98. Answer (4)
• Order of ionic radii Ce3+ > Pr3+ > Sm3+ > Eu3+
91. Answer (3) In Lanthanoids, ionic size decreases gradually
Sodium ions are found primarily on the outside of with increase in atomic number.
cells, being located in blood plasma and in the 99. Answer (2)
interstitial fluid which surround cells.
NO2− is a unidentate ligand having two different
92. Answer (3)
donor sites i.e., N and O. Therefore, it is an
ambidentate ligand.
100. Answer (3)
• More is the stability of intermediate
carbocation faster is the rate of SN1 reaction.

93. Answer (1)


N2O(Neutral), SO3(Acidic)
Na2O (Basic), PbO (Amphoteric)
94. Answer (1)
Hg cathode is used in Castner Kellner cell as
sodium is obtained in the form of sodium
amalgam.

BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Answer (4)
101. Answer (4) Crossing over or recombination takes place in
pachytene.
Equisetum is a pteridophyte. It has vascular
tissues and cones. In leptotene, there is condensation of chromatin.

As it is homosporous, it does not produce two In zygotene, there is synapsis or pairing of


types of spores. homologous chromosomes.
In diplotene, there is dissolution of synaptonemal
102. Answer (1)
complex.
Thalassemia is quantitative defect in synthesis of
104. Answer (4)
globin chains.
Sex of an individual is not an attribute of a
Colour blindness is X-linked recessive disorder. population. It is a trait of an individual. Birth rate,
Myotonic dystrophy is autosomal dominant death rate, sex ratio are attributes seen in
disorder. population.

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Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

105. Answer (4) 112. Answer (2)


Wood is secondary xylem. It has vessels, RNA polymerase has ability to transcribe the
tracheids, xylem parenchyma and fibres. DNA as well as opening the DNA double helix.
Heartwood as well as sapwood both contain DNA polymerase can replicate the DNA but DNA
vessels and tracheids. helicase opens the helix.
Heartwood is central part of stem. It has tannins, Topoisomerase releases tension felt in DNA.
resins, oils etc., provides mechanical support.
113. Answer (4)
Sapwood is peripheral part of wood. Translation starts when there is binding of mRNA
106. Answer (3) to ribosomes.
Snow blindness refers to inflammation of cornea Before it, in the first phase there is charging of
due to UV-B radiations. tRNA.
UV-B also causes various type of skin cancers, Formation of peptide bond requires energy.
aging of skin and cataract of eye. 114. Answer (3)
107. Answer (3) Replication of DNA takes place in S phase. In G 2
phase there is cell organelle duplication, tubulin
dN K -N
In the equation = rN protein and RNA synthesis.
dt K
115. Answer (1)
K = carrying capacity
Plum, rose and peach have half- inferior ovary.
N = population density
Guava has inferior ovary and epigynous flower.
r = rate of natural increase Pea has hypogynous flowers.
e = base of natural logarithms, (not shown in the 116. Answer (2)
equation).
Agar is obtained from red algae such as Gelidium
108. Answer (4) and Gracilaria.
A purine (A, G) pairs with pyrimidine (C, T) with Chlorella and Volvox are green algae. Laminaria
the help of hydrogen bonds. and Sargassum are brown algae.
Guanine is bonded with cytosine with three H- Spirulina and Anabaena are blue green algae.
bonds. 117. Answer (3)
Backbone of DNA is constituted by sugar – Embryo, seed, pollen sac, fruits and ovule are
phosphate. diploid structures.
109. Answer (3) Pollen grains, female gametophyte and male
Those cells which do not divide enter the G 0 gametes are haploid structures.
phase. In G0 phase, the cells are metabolically 118. Answer (4)
active but do not proliferate.
CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) harm ozone layer as
G1, S and G2 are phases of interphase. they degrade ozone into O 2 and O atoms. There
110. Answer (4) is good ozone in stratosphere and bad ozone in
troposphere.
Perigynous flowers have half-inferior ovary.
119. Answer (3)
Peach has perigynous flowers.
Length of DNA = No. of base pairs ×
Mustard, brinjal and potato have superior ovary
distance between two base
and hypogynous flowers.
pairs.
111. Answer (1)
1.36 mm = x × 0.34 nm
Water lily is an aquatic plant which does not get
1.36  106 nm
pollinated by water. It gets pollinated by insects. = x
0.34 nm
Hydrilla, Zostera and Vallisneria are pollinated by
water. 4.0 × 106 bp = x.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

120. Answer (2) 127. Answer (1)


Nitrogenase is oxygen sensitive enzyme. It is The ladybird and dragonflies acts as biocontrol
found in some prokaryotes called N2 fixer. agents. They are useful to get rid of aphids and
mosquitoes respectively.
It converts N2 into ammonia. It is Fe-Mo enzyme.
128. Answer (3)
Leghaemoglobin is O2 scavenger.
Producers — Grass
121. Answer (2)
Primary consumer — Rabbit
Insects are the most species rich taxonomic
group. Secondary consumer — Crow
Among the vertebrates, fishes are most species Tertiary consumer — Vulture
rich group.
129. Answer (4)
122. Answer (4)
Cytokinin helps in cell division and apical
RER has ribosomes for protein synthesis. dominance.
Lysosome has hydrolytic enzymes such as
carbohydrases, lipases, proteases etc. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone helps in fruit
ripening.
Golgi modifies proteins but not synthesize them.
Peroxisome is a microbody involved in GA and ABA are antagonistic to each other.
photorespiration.
130. Answer (2)
123. Answer (4)
GAs are used to cause fruits like apple to
Pod weight is not the character taken by Mendel elongate and improve its shape.
for his experiments.
Auxin causes apical dominance and cytokinin
Flower colour, stem height and pod colour were counteracts it.
the traits of pea taken by Mendel.
Ethylene is involved in ripening of fruits.
124. Answer (3)
131. Answer (4)
Clostridium butylicum — Butyric acid
Primary productivity depends on the plant
Aspergillus niger — Citric acid species of an area and variety of environmental
factors.
Acetobacter aceti — Acetic acid
Various species of primary consumers do not
Lactobacillus — Lactic acid
decide the primary productivity of plants.
125. Answer (2)
132. Answer (3)
Prophase – Condensation of chromatin
Iron – Required for chlorophyll
Metaphase – Chromosomes align themselves biosynthesis
at equator
Magnesium – Helps to maintain ribosome
Anaphase – Separation of chromatids structure
Telophase – Re-appearance of nuclear Chlorine – Maintains anion cation
membrane. balance
126. Answer (1) Manganese – Photolysis of H2O.
Inclusion bodies of prokaryotes are non 133. Answer (1)
membrane bound.
Viroids are infectious RNA particles.
Lysosome, plant vacuole and ER are single
membrane bound cell organelles. They do not have DNA and proteins.

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Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

134. Answer (3) 143. Answer (2)


India has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national Laminarin is stored food material in brown algae.
parks and 448 wildlife sanctuaries.
Red algae has floridean starch as stored food
135. Answer (3) material.
Micropyle is opening in the ovule where
Green algae has starch as stored food material.
integuments are absent. It allows pollen tubes to
enter in ovule. Blue-green algae have cyanophycean starch.
Chalaza is the base of ovule. Funicle is the stalk 144. Answer (2)
and hilum is the junction of funicle and body of
In monocot leaf there is no differentiation of
ovule.
mesophyll into palisade and spongy. Conjoint
SECTION-B vascular bundles are present. Cuticle is present
136. Answer (3) on both sides. Chlorenchyma (mesophyll) is
present in the leaves.
Fibrous roots arise from base of the stems.
Primary roots arise from radicle. Lateral roots 145. Answer (3)
arise from pericycle. PS I is present on stroma lamellae and has
137. Answer (2) reaction center P700.
Substrate level phosphorylation is direct PS II is present on grana thylakoids along with
ATP/GTP synthesis. cyt b6f and ATP synthase.
NADH2 and FADH2 are converted to ATP via 146. Answer (3)
ETS.
Cyclosporin A is used as an immunosuppressive
NADPH2 is reducing power produced during
agent in organ transplant patients produced by
photosynthesis.
the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. Statins are
138. Answer (4) produced by Monascus purpureus. Streptokinase
Father of Genetics is Mendel. is produced by Streptococcus.
Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal theory 147. Answer (1)
of inheritance.
The pioneer community in hydrarch succession is
Morgan discovered linkage. phytoplanktons.
139. Answer (2)
Lichens and mosses are pioneer community in
Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell is placed in xerarch succession. Ferns are pteridophytes.
a solution that is hypertonic to the protoplasm.
148. Answer (3)
Isotonic solutions have same concentration of
solutes. Egg cell and synergids both are haploid but egg
cell is one in number whereas synergids are two
Hypotonic solutions have less concentration of
in egg apparatus.
solutes.
140. Answer (4) 149. Answer (2)
RuBP combines with O2 to form one molecule of Trimerous flowers and tepals are seen in family
PGA and one molecule of phosphoglycolate and Liliaceae.
this reaction is catalysed by RuBisCO. Persistent calyx and epipetalous conditions are
141. Answer (1) seen in Solanaceae.
In ABO blood groups the number of genotypes Inferior ovary is seen in ray florets of sunflower.
and phenotypes are 6 and 4 respectively.
150. Answer (3)
Genotypes : IAIA, IAi, IBi, IAIB, ii, IBIB.
Ribosomes are smallest cell organelle not bound
Phenotypes : A, B, AB and O.
by any membrane.
142. Answer (3)
They are found in mitochondria & chloroplasts.
Primary sludge contains soil and small pebbles.
They are also called Palade particles, discovered
Bacterial flocs are seen in activated sludge.
by George Palade.
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Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 162. Answer (2)
151. Answer (1) Bt toxin is encoded by cry gene.
• End of T wave marks the end of ventricular Taq polymerase, a heat stable enzyme is
systole. isolated from bacterium Thermus aquatics. This
• P wave represents depolarization of auricles. DNA polymerase is used in PCR.

• T wave represents repolarisation of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is considered as


ventricles. natural genetic engineer for plants. Cohen and
Boyer accomplished the construction of first
152. Answer (3)
recombinant DNA by using native plasmid of
• Secondary oocyte forms zona pellucida S. typhimurium.
around it.
163. Answer (4)
• Bulbourethral glands or Cowper's glands are
Elephantiasis or filariasis is a helminthic disease.
paired male accessary glands.
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protozoan
• Interstitial cells or Leydig cells synthesise and
while enteric fever or typhoid is caused by S.
secrete androgens.
typhi.
153. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2)
GIFT, AI and IUI involves in-vivo fertilization.
The secretions of the acrosome help the sperm
154. Answer (4)
enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through
High concentration of LH will cause release of zona pellucida and the plasma membrane that
ovum from Graafian follicle (ovulation). induces the completion of meiotic division.
155. Answer (4) 165. Answer (2)
Mucosa is the innermost layer of GIT.
DNA stained with EtBr under UV light produces
Ileum is a part of small intestine while ilium is a bright orange color bands.
part of coxal bone.
166. Answer (3)
Vermiform appendix is a tubular projection from
caecum. Platyhelminthes e.g., Fasciola is a triploblastic
acoelomate.
156. Answer (3)
Ascaris is a triploblastic pseudocoelomate.
Example of unicellular gland is goblet cells of
alimentary canal. Pheretima is a triploblastic coelomate.
157. Answer (3) Aurelia is an acoelomate.
S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing CH4, 167. Answer (3)
H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C. Peptide bonds are present in proteinaceous
158. Answer (2) biomolecules. Nucleic acid has phosphodiester
The infective stage of Plasmodium for humans is bonds.
sporozoite. Polysaccharides such as chitin and cellulose
159. Answer (2) have glycosidic bonds between their monomeric
Ligases join the two DNA molecules. units.

160. Answer (2) 168. Answer (4)


Three ganglia in the thorax and six in the During inspiration, there is increase in volume of
abdomen. thoracic chamber.
161. Answer (3) 169. Answer (1)
ori site is responsible for controlling the copy B and T lymphocytes are associated with
number of the linked DNA. immune responses of the body.

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Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

Basophils secrete serotonin, heparin and 180. Answer (4)


histamine. Neutrophils are phagocytic and most ANF opposes RAAS. ADH prevents diuresis.
abundant WBCs while eosinophils resist
infections. 181. Answer (1)

170. Answer (4) Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from B.


thuringiensis and incorporated into several crop
Vertebrates hearts or brains exhibit homology / plants. The choice of genes depends on the crop
divergent evolution. and the targeted pest. Most Bt toxins are insect-
171. Answer (3) group specific.
Simple squamous epithelium lines walls of blood 182. Answer (2)
vessels, air sacs of lungs etc. A new breed of sheep 'Hisardale' was developed
172. Answer (1) using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams by cross
Placoid scales are present in cartilaginous fishes breeding.
such as Saw fish (Pristis). 183. Answer (4)
Exocoetus is a bony fish while Petromyzon is a CNS is dorsal, hollow and single in chordates. In
cyclostome. vertebrates, notochord converts into bony or
173. Answer (2) cartilaginous vertebral column.

RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in whole 184. Answer (3)


of the biosphere. Hormones from adrenal medulla are called
Cellulose is the most abundant carbohydrate in emergency hormones such as adrenaline and
biosphere while collagen is the most abundant noradrenaline.
protein in animal world. 185. Answer (1)
174. Answer (1) Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore. Buthus is an
Palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs arthropod.
that reads same on the two strands when Ophiura is an echinoderm.
orientation of reading is kept the same. SECTION-B
175. Answer (4)
186. Answer (2)
Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.
Pepsin and rennin are gastric proteolytic
176. Answer (2) enzymes. Enterokinase of succus entericus
Collar bone is clavicle that articulates with converts inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin.
acromion process. 187. Answer (4)
Scapula is a large triangular flat bone that has a RNAi is a method that involves silencing of a
slightly elevated ridge called spine which projects specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA
as flat, expanded process called acromion. Last molecule that binds to and prevent translation of
two pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected the mRNA (Silencing).
ventrally to sternum and are called floating ribs.
188. Answer (4)
177. Answer (4)
Valine is a neutral amino acid.
Trichomoniasis and malaria are caused by
189. Answer (3)
protozoans.
Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine
178. Answer (3)
are indicative of diabetes mellitus.
RE can produce blunt or sticky ends and cleaves
190. Answer (2)
DNA by inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence. Vestibular apparatus is located above cochlea, a
coiled portion of labyrinth.
179. Answer (4)
191. Answer (3)
Low pCO2, H+ ion concentration and temperature
and high pO2 favours the formation of Glucose, valine and chlorophyll are primary
oxyhaemoglobin. metabolites.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock 2021

192. Answer (3) Exopthalmic goitre is due to hyperthrodism while


Mature insulin lacks C peptide chain and has one aldosteronism is due to excessive secretion of
intra and two interchain disulfide bridges between aldosterone from adrenal cortex.
A and B chains. 197. Answer (4)
193. Answer (2) Midbrain: Cerebral aqueduct, corpora
IgG imparts passive immunity to foetus while IgA quadrigemina
provides passive immunity to infant.
Hindbrain: Cerebellum
194. Answer (3)
198. Answer (3)
Haeckel proposed "Ontogeny recapitulates
phylogeny" i.e. embryological evidences of Homo erectus arose about 1.5 mya.
evolution which is disapproved by Karl Ernst von Neanderthal man lived between 1,00,000 -
Baer. 40,000 years back.
195. Answer (3)
199. Answer (4)
Abrin is a toxin, a secondary metabolite.
Lippes loop is an inert IUD.
Malonate and oxaloacetate are competitive
inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase. CuT and multiload 375 are copper releasing
Exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of chitin IUDs.
which is a homopolymer of NAG. GLUT-4 is a Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormonal IUDs.
proteinaceous receptor molecules for the
transport of glucose into cells. Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.

196. Answer (1) 200. Answer (2)


Diabetes mellitus is caused due to insulin Dolly was the first cloned sheep while ANDi was
deficiency. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone. the first genetically modified monkey. Tracy was
Gigantism is due to over secretion of GH before the first transgenic sheep to produce -1-
puberty. antitrypsin.

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