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Final Jee-Main Examination - August, 2021: Physics Test Paper With Solution

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A
1. A helicopter is flying horizontally with a speed 'v'
at an altitude 'h' has to drop a food packet for a
man on the ground. What is the distance of
helicopter from the man when the food packet is
dropped?
2ghv 2  1
(1) (2) 2ghv2  h 2
h2
2v 2 h 2gh
(3)  h2 (4) 2
 h2
g v

3. Two particles A and B having charges 20 C and


–5 C respectively are held fixed with a separation
of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle
should be placed so that it does not experience a
net electric force?
20C –5C
A 5 cm B

(1) At 5 cm from 20 C on the left side of system


(2) At 5 cm from – 5 C on the right side
(3) At 1.25 cm from – 5 C between two charges
(4) At midpoint between two charges

2. In the following logic circuit the sequence of the


inputs A, B are (0, 0), (0,1), (1, 0) and (1, 1). The
output Y for this sequence will be :
A
B P
Y
Q

(1) 1, 0, 1, 0 (2) 0, 1, 0, 1
(3) 1, 1, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1, 1

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4. A reversible engine has an efficiency of . If the
4
temperature of the sink is reduced by 58°C, its
efficiency becomes double. Calculate the
temperature of the sink :
(1) 174°C (2) 280°C
(3) 180.4°C (4) 382°C

6. A sample of a radioactive nucleus A disintegrates


to another radioactive nucleus B, which in turn
disintegrates to some other stable nucleus C. Plot
of a graph showing the variation of number of
atoms of nucleus B vesus time is :
(Assume that at t = 0, there are no B atoms in the
sample)

No. of atoms
No. of atoms

(1) (2)

time time
No. of atoms
No. of atoms

(3) (4)
5. An object is placed at the focus of concave lens
having focal length f. What is the magnification time time

and distance of the image from the optical centre


of the lens?
(1) 1,  (2) Very high, 
1 f 1 f
(3) , (4) ,
2 2 4 4

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7. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form
of a spiral with inner and outer radii 'a' and 'b'
respectively. Find the magnetic field at centre,
when a current I passes through coil :
0 IN b 0 I  a  b 
(1) loge   (2)
2(b  a) a 8  a  b 
0 I  1 1  0 I  a  b 
(3)  (4)
4(a  b)  a b  8  a  b 

9. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are


(M1, R1) and (M2, R2) respectively. Their centres
are at a distance 'r' apart. Find the minimum escape
velocity for a particle of mass 'm' to be projected
from the middle of these two masses:

1 4G (M1  M2 )
(1) V 
2 r

4G(M1  M2 )
(2) V 
r
8. A body of mass M moving at speed V0 collides
elastically with a mass 'm' at rest. After the 1 2G (M1  M 2 )
(3) V 
collision, the two masses move at angles 1 and 2 2 r
with respect to the initial direction of motion of the
2G (M1  M2 )
body of mass M. The largest possible value of the (4) V 
r
ratio M/m, for which the angles 1 and 2 will be
equal, is :
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2

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10. A small square loop of side 'a' and one turn is V
placed inside a larger square loop of side b and one
turn (b >> a). The two loops are coplanar with their +3
(3) t
centres coinciding. If a current I is passed in the –3
square loop of side 'b', then the coefficient of
mutual inductance between the two loops is :
0 a2 0 8 2 V
(1) 8 2 (2)
4 b 4 a
+3
 b2  8 2 (4) t
(3) 0 8 2 (4) 0 –3
4 a 4 b

12. A uniform heavy rod of weight 10 kg ms–2, cross-


sectional area 100 cm2 and length 20 cm is hanging
from a fixed support. Young modulus of the
material of the rod is 2 × 1011 Nm–2. Neglecting the
lateral contraction, find the elongation of rod due
11. Choose the correct waveform that can represent the to its own weight.
voltage across R of the following circuit, assuming
the diode is ideal one: (1) 2 × 10–9 m (2) 5 × 10–8 m
D (3) 4 × 10–8 m (4) 5 × 10–10 m

R
Vi=10 sint ~
+
– 3V

+3
(1) t
–3

+3
(2) t
–3

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13. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 are at right angle to
each other shown. A point source 'P' is placed at 'a'
and '2a' meter away from M1 and M2 respectively.
The shortest distance between the images thus
formed is : (Take 5 = 2.3)
a P

M1 15. For an ideal gas the instantaneous change in


2a
pressure 'p' with volume 'v' is given by the
dp
M2 equation = –ap. If p = p0 at v = 0 is the given
dv
boundary condition, then the maximum
(1) 3a (2) 4.6 a
temperature one mole of gas can attain is :
(3) 2.3 a (4) 2 10 a
(Here R is the gas constant)
p0 ap 0
(1) (2)
aeR eR
(3) infinity (4) 0ºC

14. Match List-I with List-II.


List-I List-II
(a) Torque (i) MLT–1
(b) Impulse (ii) MT–2
(c) Tension (iii) ML2T–2
(d) Surface Tension (iv) MLT–2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
option given below :
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

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16. Which of the following equations is dimensionally
incorrect ?
Where t = time, h = height, s = surface tension,
 = angle,  = density, a, r = radius, g = acceleration
due to gravity, v = volume , p = pressure, W = work
done,  = torque, = permittivity, E = electric field,
J = current density, L = length.
18. In an ac circuit, an inductor, a capacitor and a
 pa 4 2scos 
(1) v = (2) h =
8L r g resistor are connected in series with XL = R = XC.

E Impedance of this circuit is :


(3) J =  (4) W = 
t (1) 2R2 (2) Zero

(3) R (4) R 2

19. A moving proton and electron have the same de-


Broglie wavelength. If K and P denote the K.E.
and momentum respectively. Then choose the
correct option :
(1) Kp < Ke and Pp = Pe
(2) Kp = Ke and Pp = Pe
(3) Kp < Ke and Pp < Pe
(4) Kp > Ke and Pp = Pe

17. Angular momentum of a single particle moving


with constant speed along circular path :
(1) changes in magnitude but remains same in the
direction
(2) remains same in magnitude and direction
(3) remains same in magnitude but changes in the
direction
(4) is zero

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20. Consider a galvanometer shunted with 5 2. A particle of mass 1 kg is hanging from a spring of
force constant 100 Nm–1. The mass is pulled
resistance and 2% of current passes through it.
slightly downward and released so that it executes
What is the resistance of the given galvanometer ? free simple harmonic motion with time period T.
The time when the kinetic energy and potential
(1) 300  (2) 344 
T
energy of the system will become equal, is .The
(3) 245  (4) 226  x
value of x is ________.

SECTION-B

1. When a rubber ball is taken to a depth of

__________m in deep sea, its volume decreases by

0.5%.

(The bulk modulus of rubber = 9.8 × 108 Nm–2

Density of sea water = 103 kgm–3

g = 9.8 m/s2)

3. If the sum of the heights of transmitting and


receiving antennas in the line of sight of
communication is fixed at 160 m, then the
maximum range of LOS communication is
_____km.
(Take radius of Earth = 6400 km)

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6. The voltage drop across 15 resistance in the
given figure will be______V.
4 15
2
4 10

8 12

8 12
4. A square shaped wire with resistance of each side
3 is bent to form a complete circle. The
12 V 1
resistance between two diametrically opposite
points of the circle in unit of  will be ______.

5. A wire having a linear mass density 9.0 × 10–4 kg/m


is stretched between two rigid supports with a
tension of 900 N. The wire resonates at a
frequency of 500 Hz. The next higher frequency at
which the same wire resonates is 550 Hz. The
length of the wire is ______m.

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9. A capacitor of 50 F is connected in a circuit as

shown in figure. The charge on the upper plate of


7. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface
with a speed of 40 ms–1 splits into two equal parts. the capacitor is__________C.
If one of the parts moves at 60 ms–1 in the same
direction, then the fractional change in the kinetic
energy will be x : 4 where x =__________. 6V 2 k

2 k

2 k
C = 50 F

8. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is


given by E = (50 NC–1) sin (t–x/c)
The energy contained in a cylinder of volume V is
5.5 × 10–12 J. The value of V is __________cm3.
 given  8.8 10
0
–12
C2N–1m –2 

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10. A car is moving on a plane inclined at 30º to the
horizontal with an acceleration of 10 ms–2 parallel
to the plane upward. A bob is suspended by a
string from the roof of the car.The angle in degrees
which the string makes with the vertical is______.
(Take g = 10 ms–2)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A
T2 T1
1. The correct order of reactivity of the given
(1) T1 (2) T2
chlorides with acetate in acetic acid is :
P P
CH3
Cl Cl Cl CH3 CH2Cl
(1) > > > T1
T2
CH3 (3) (4) T1
T2

P P
CH3
CH2Cl Cl Cl Cl CH3
(2) > > >

CH3

CH3
Cl CH2Cl Cl CH Cl
(3) > > >

CH3

CH3
Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl CH3
(4) > > >

CH3

3. The major component/ingredient of Portland


Cement is :
(1) tricalcium aluminate
(2) tricalcium silicate
(3) dicalcium aluminate
(4) dicalcium silicate

2. Select the graph that correctly describes the


4. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a :
adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T1 and T2
(1) linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(T1 > T2) for a gas : (2) non-linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(x – mass of the gas adsorbed ; m – mass of (3) linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
adsorbent ; P – pressure) (4) non-linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.

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8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
5. Which one of the following compounds contains Reason (R).
-C1-C4 glycosidic linkage ? Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from
(1) Lactose (2) Sucrose bauxite by the electrolysis of molten mixture of
(3) Maltose (4) Amylose Al2O3 with cryolite.
Reason (R) : The oxidation state of Al in cryolite
is +3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
6. The major products A and B in the following set of (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
reactions are : (2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
OH (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
 correct explanation of (A)
A 
LiAlH4
H O
 
H3O
H2SO4
B
3
CN (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
OH OH correct explanation of (A)
(1) A = ,B=
OH CHO
OH OH

(2) A = ,B=
CHO CO2H
OH

(3) A = ,B= COOH


NH2
OH OH
9. The major product formed in the following
(4) A = ,B= reaction is :
NH2 CHO
CH3

conc.H 2SO 4
a few drops
Major product
CH3—C——CH—CH3
CH3 OH

CH3—C==CH—CH2CH3
(1)
CH3

CH3 CH3
7. Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits +2
oxidation state with diamagnetic nature ? (2)
(Given Z for Nd = 60, Yb = 70, La = 57, Ce =58) H3C CH3
(1) Nd (2) Yb (3) La (4) Ce

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CH3 Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium ion
(3)
C==CH—CH3 follows Markovnikov rule and results in
CH3
1-bromopropan-2-ol.
CH3
In the light of the above statements, choose the
CH3—C——CH==CH2
(4) most appropriate answer from the options given
CH3
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

10. Monomer of Novolac is :


(1) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid
(2) phenol and melamine
(3) o-Hydroxymethylphenol
(4) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene

13. The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is :


11. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : The process of producing syn-gas is (1) 2 (2) 4
called gasification of coal. (3) 3 (4) 6
Statement-II : The composition of syn-gas is
CO + CO2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
14. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).

Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and


12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as non-metallic character increases on moving from
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). left to right in a period.

Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with


propene yields 1-bromopropan-2-ol.
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Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation 16. Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P
enthalpy and decrease in electron gain enthalpy, plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas ? (P
when one moves from left to right in a period. and V stand for pressure and volume of the gas
respectively)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given PV
(1) (2)
below :

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true. P

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false


PV PV
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) (4)
correct explanation of (A)
P P
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)

15. Choose the correct name for compound given 17. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
below : Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A simple distillation can be used


Br
to separate a mixture of propanol and propanone.
Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of
(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne more than 20°C in their boiling points can be
(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene separated by simple distillations.
(3) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)

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CH2–CH2CN
(4)

18. Which one of the following 0.10 M aqueous


solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression ?
(1) hydrazine (2) glucose
(3) glycine (4) KHSO4

SECTION-B

1. Consider the following cell reaction :


9 9
Cd(s)+Hg2SO4(s)+ H 2 O( l ) CdSO4 . H 2O( s )  2Hg( l )
19. BOD values (in ppm) for clean water (A) and 5 5
polluted water (B) are expected respectively : 0
The value of E cell is 4.315 V at 25°C. If
(1) A > 50, B < 27 (2) A > 25, B < 17
H° = –825.2 kJ mol–1, the standard entropy
(3) A < 5, B > 17 (4) A > 15, B > 47
change S° in J K–1 is ______. (Nearest integer)
[Given : Faraday constant = 96487 C mol–1]

20. The structure of product C, formed by the


following sequence of reactions is :
CH3COOH+SOCl2 A 
Benzene
AlCl
B 
KCN
 OH
C
3

NC OH

(1) CH3

2. The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving


6.3 g of oxalic acid (H2C2O4.2H2O) in 250 mL of
O
water in mol L–1 is x × 10–2. The value of x is
CH3 ________. (Nearest integer)
(2) [Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]

CN
H COOH
C
(3) CH3

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3. Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb2S3, 6. For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for
As2S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50%
in 50% HNO3 is ________. completion is _______. (Integer answer)

4. The total number of reagents from those given


below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is
______. (Integer answer)
7. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
I. Sn – HCl
associated with stoichiometry CuSO4.5H2O is
II. Sn – NH4OH
_______.
III. Fe – HCl
IV. Zn – HCl
V. H2 – Pd
VI. H2 – Raney Nickel

8. According to the following figure, the magnitude


of the enthalpy change of the reaction
A + B  M + N in kJ mol–1
is equal to _________. (Integer answer)

x
5. The number of halogen/(s) forming halic (V) acid A+B x=20 kJ mol–1
y=45 kJ mol–1
is __________.
y z=15 kJ mol–1
M+N
Energy

Reaction Coordinate

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10. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass
M (g mol–1) and solubility x g L–1 . The solubility
5
 x
product satisfies Ksp = a   . The value of a is
M
________. (Integer answer)

9. Ge(Z = 32) in its ground state electronic


configuration has x completely filled orbitals with
ml = 0. The value of x is _______.

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021


(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A 3. The sum of 10 terms of the series
1. Let *, Î {Ù, Ú} be such that the Boolean 3
+
5
+
7
+ .... is :
2 2 2 2
1 ´2 2 ´3 3 ´ 42
2

expression (p * ~q) Þ (p q) is a tautology. Then :


120
(1) 1 (2)
121
(1) * = Ú, =Ú (2) * = Ù, =Ù
99 143
(3) (4)
(3) * = Ù, =Ú (4) * = Ú, =Ù 100 144

2. The number of real roots of the equation


4. Let the equation of the plane, that passes through
e4x + 2e3x – ex – 6 = 0 is : the point (1, 4, –3) and contains the line of
(1) 2 (2) 4 intersection of the planes 3x – 2y + 4z – 7 = 0 and
(3) 1 (4) 0 x + 5y – 2z + 9 = 0, be ax + by + gz + 3 = 0, then
a + b + g is equal to :
(1) –23 (2) – 15
(3) 23 (4) 15

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
5. Let f be a non–negative function in [0, 1] and twice
differentiable in (0, 1). If ò x 1 - ( f ' ( t ) )2 dt = ò x f ( t ) dt,
0 0

1 x
0 £ x £ 1 and f(0) = 0, then lim ò f ( t ) dt :
x® 0 x 2 0

(1) equals 0 (2) equals 1


1
(3) does not exist (4) equals
2 7. The function f(x) = x 2 - 2x - 3 · e 9x
2
-12x + 4
is not
differentiable at exactly :
(1) four points (2) three points
(3) two points (4) one point

8. Three numbers are in an increasing geometric


progression with common ratio r. If the middle
number is doubled, then the new numbers are in an
arithmetic progression with common difference d.
r r
6. Let a and b be two vectors such that If the fourth term of GP is 3 r2, then r2 – d is equal
r r r r r r to :
2a + 3b = 3a + b and the angle between a and b
r (1) 7 – 7 3 (2) 7 + 3
1r
is 60°. If a is a unit vector, then b is equal to :
8 (3) 7 – 3 (4) 7 + 3 3
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 8

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
9. Which of the following is not correct for relation R 11. If p and q are the lengths of the perpendiculars
on the set of real numbers ? from the origin on the lines,
(1) (x, y) Î R Û 0 < x – y £ 1 is neither x cosec a – y sec a = kcot 2a and

transitive nor symmetric. x sin a + y cosa = k sin 2a

(2) (x, y) Î R Û 0 < x - y £ 1 is symmetric and respectively, then k2 is equal to :


(1) 4p2 + q2 (2) 2p2 + q2
transitive.
(3) p2 + 2q2 (4) p2 + 4q2
(3) (x, y) Î R Û x – y £ 1 is reflexive but not

symmetric.
(4) (x, y) Î R Û x - y £ 1 is reflexive and

symmetric.

1
10. The integral ò dx is equal to :
cosec18° is a root of the equation :
4
( x - 1) ( x + 2)
3 5 12.
(1) x2 + 2x – 4 = 0 (2) 4x2 + 2x – 1 = 0
(where C is a constant of integration)
(3) x2 – 2x + 4 = 0 (4) x2 – 2x – 4 = 0
1 5
3æ x + 2ö 4 3æ x + 2ö 4
(1) ç ÷ +C (2) ç ÷ +C
4 è x -1ø 4 è x -1ø
1 5
4 æ x -1 ö4 4 æ x -1 ö4
(3) ç ÷ +C (4) ç ÷ +C
3èx+2ø 3èx+2ø

13. If the following system of linear equations


2x + y + z = 5
x–y+z=3
x + y + az = b
has no solution, then :
1 7 1 7
(1) a = – ,b¹ (2) a ¹ ,b=
3 3 3 3
1 7 1 7
(3) a ¹ – ,b= (4) a = ,b¹
3 3 3 3

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session

14. The length of the latus rectum of a parabola, whose


vertex and focus are on the positive x–axis at a
distance R and S (>R) respectively from the origin,
is :
(1) 4(S + R) (2) 2(S – R)
(3) 4(S – R) (4) 2(S + R)

dy 2x + y - 2x
16. If = , y(0) = 1, then y(1) is equal to :
dx 2y
(1) log2(2 + e) (2) log2(1 + e)
(3) log2(2e) (4) log2(1 + e2)

ì 1 æ 1 + xa ö
ï log e ç ÷ , x<0
ï x ç1- x ÷
è bø
ï
15. If the function f ( x ) = í k , x= 0
ï 2 2
ï cos x - sin x - 1 , x > 0
ï x2 + 1 - 1
î

1 1 4
is continuous at x = 0, then + + is equal to :
a b k
(1) –5 (2) 5
(3) – 4 (4) 4

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17. lim
(
sin 2 p cos4 x ) is equal to : 19. If a r = cos
2rp
9
+ i sin
2rp
9
, r = 1, 2, 3,…, i = -1 ,
x® 0 x4
(1) p2 (2) 2 p2 a1 a 2 a 3
(3) 4 p 2
(4) 4 p then the determinant a 4 a 5 a 6 is equal to :
a 7 a8 a 9

(1) a 2 a 6 - a 4 a 8 (2) a 9

(3) a1a 9 - a 3a 7 (4) a 5

18. A vertical pole fixed to the horizontal ground is


divided in the ratio 3 : 7 by a mark on it with lower
part shorter than the upper part. If the two parts 20. The line 12x cosq + 5y sinq = 60 is tangent to which
subtend equal angles at a point on the ground 18 m
away from the base of the pole, then the height of of the following curves?
the pole (in meters) is : (1) x 2 + y 2= 169
(1) 12 15 (2) 12 10
(2) 144x 2 + 25y 2= 3600
(3) 8 10 (4) 6 10
(3) 25x 2 + 12y 2= 3600

(4) x 2 + y 2= 60

SECTION-B

1. Let [t] denote the greatest integer £ t. Then the


1

value of 8 · ò ([2x] + | x |) dx
1
is _________.
-
2

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3. The square of the distance of the point of

x -1 y - 2 z + 1
intersection of the line = = and
2 3 6
the plane 2x – y + z = 6 from the point (–1, –1, 2)

2. A point z moves in the complex plane such that is _________.

æ z -2 ö p
arg ç ÷ = , then the minimum value of
èz+2ø 4
2
z - 9 2 - 2i is equal to _________.

- =
4. If 'R' is the least value of 'a' such that the function
f(x) = x2 + ax + 1 is increasing on [1, 2] and 'S'
is the greatest value of 'a' such that the function
f(x) = x2 + ax + 1 is decreasing on [1, 2], then the

value of R - S is _________.

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5. The mean of 10 numbers

7 × 8, 10 × 10, 13 × 12, 16 × 14, …. is _________.

7. The number of six letter words (with or without


meaning), formed using all the letters of the word
'VOWELS', so that all the consonants never come
together, is _________.

6. If the variable line 3x + 4y = a lies between the two


circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 = 1 and (x – 9)2 + (y – 1)2 = 4,
without intercepting a chord on either circle, then
the sum of all the integral values of a is
_________.
x
If x f ( x )= ò (3t - 2 f¢(t) ) dt , x > –2, and f(0) = 4,
2
8.
5

then f(2) is _________.

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æ 36 ö
9. If ç 4 ÷ k is the term, independent of x, in the
è4 ø
12
æ x 12 ö
binomial expansion of ç - 2 ÷ , then k is equal
è4 x ø
to _________.

10. An electric instrument consists of two units. Each


unit must function independently for the instrument
to operate. The probability that the first unit
functions is 0.9 and that of the second unit is 0.8.
The instrument is switched on and it fails to
operate. If the probability that only the first unit
failed and second unit is functioning is p, then 98 p
is equal to _________.

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