AIRRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM– TEST SET “A”

1. What is the cell voltage of Nickel Cadmium batteries when fully charge?

A) 1.5 V
B) 2.2 V
C) 2.4 V

2. What is the advantage of lead acid battery compare to Ni-Cad Battery?

A) Longer life
B) Higher charging rates
C) Cheaper

3. When there is NiCad battery spillage, what type of neutralizing agent that we use to
clean the spillage?

A) Diluted Boric Acid and water

B) Diluted Sodium bicarbonate and water
C) Water only

4. To remove a battery from an aircraft without ELCON connectors ……

A) remove positive first

B) remove negative first
C) discharge the battery before removal

5. Cell–to-case leakage on nickel-cadmium batteries should be measured with …….

A) Voltmeter
B) Milliammeter
C) Hydrometer

6. What is the voltage generated by an aircraft's AC generator?

A) 400 volts
B) 115 volts
C) 240 volts

7. What will happen to the output voltage when generator loading is increased?

A) The voltage will drop

B) The voltage will increase
C) The voltage remain constant

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8. What is the function of Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)?

A) Step up the AC voltage and convert it to DC voltage.

B) Step up the DC voltage and convert it to AC voltage.
C) Step down the AC voltage and convert it to DC voltage.

9. How to reduce the ripple of DC voltage in DC generator?

A) Increase number of turn in one loop.

B) Increase the number of loops.
C) Increase the speed of rotation.

10. What is the purpose of interpoles?

A) To reduce armature reaction.

B) To reduce sparking between commutator and carbon brush.
C) To increase the output power.

11. Rotating Armature Generator is said to have the same construction as DC generator
except for the Commutator is replaced by?

A) Rotor.
B) Slip rings.
C) Carbon brush.

12. These are the factors affecting DC generators output voltage except:

A) Magnetic Field Strength.

B) Length of the coil.
C) Internal voltage drop.

13. Basic generator is operated based on :

A) Faraday’s Law.
B) Ohm’s Law.
C) Kirchhoff’s Law.

14. How many diodes required to fully rectify three phase AC to DC?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 6

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15. An AC Generator with built in full wave rectifier unit is a/an ………………

A) DC Alternator
B) Inverter
C) Starter Generator

16. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about DC Generator?

A) Alternating Current (AC) is converted into direct current (DC) by a switching

system known as a commutator.
B) The value of the generated voltage can be increased by increasing the numbers
of turns in each loop.
C) The normal output is 115/200 Volts 3 phase connected Wye connection.

17. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about an APU system?

A) Supply three phase 400 Hz AC power to the airplane.

B) APU does not need fuel for its operation.
C) Battery charger must be disconnected during APU starter engagement.

18. How is the arrangement of the batteries on the ground cart?

A) 24 volts batteries arranged in series to provide 24 volts output.

B) 24 volts batteries arranged in parallel to provide 24 volts output.
C) It does not matter.

19. Why current limiter circuit is installed in dc ground power unit?

A) To protect the generator.

B) To give maximum power to the load.
C) To minimize the current flow through the load.

20. Which of the following power is not generated by Ram Air Turbine (RAT)?

A) Electrical Power.
B) Pneumatic Power.
C) Hydraulic Power.

21. Which power output is the highest priority to the APU?

A) Pneumatic power.
B) Electrical power.
C) Hydraulic power.

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22. How does RAT maintain its constant speed?

A) By governor control and pitch change mechanism controlling the pitch of

the blade.
B) Electrically control by it self.
C) Through a switch from the cockpit.

23. How many positive pin in the DC external power socket?

A) Two
B) Three.
C) One.

24. What is the function of CSD?

A) Regulate the output voltage.

B) Maintain the speed of the generator.
C) Controlling the generator field current.

25. Where are the fuses or circuit breakers located?

A) Between Bus Bar and the load.

B) Between generator and ground.
C) Between two loads connected in series.

26. What is the frequency range of aircraft AC power supply?

A) 300 to 400hz
B) 370 to 430hz
C) 250 to 400hz

27. Which bus does vital systems such as fire detection and extinguishers, fuel shut off
valve, and emergency radio connected to?

A) Non-essential Bus
B) Hot Battery Bus
C) Sub-buses

28. Which of the following statement is true about Constant Speed Drive Unit (CSDU)
drive disconnection?

A) It can be disconnected on ground only

B) It can be reset in the air while cruising
C) It can be reset on ground only.

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29. In vibrator type voltage regulator, what determine the level of the output voltage?

A) The spring tension.

B) The spring length.
C) The spring type

30. In the carbon pile voltage regulator, what happen if voltage output is more than
preset level?

A) Carbon pile resistance is decreased.

B) The armature contact will open and close at lower than preset level
C) Carbon pile resistance is increased.

31. When the aircraft is on ground and only external power is connected to the aircraft,
how do you power up the ground service (GS) bus?

A) By switching oh the EXT PWR switch in the cockpit

B) By switching on the GND SVC switch at door 1 left.
C) Both A and B

32. In an AC aircraft with more than two generators, how do all the generators being
connected?

A) In parallel
B) In series
C) Split

33. In an aircraft with DC generator system, what is the purpose of equalizing coils?

A) To make sure that all generators outputs are at the same voltage.
B) To make sure that all load are distributed equally among the generators.
C) They serve no purpose.

34. In a parallel DC system, if one generator fail what will happen?

A) Reverse current circuit breaker for the fail generator will open.
B) Reverse current circuit breaker for the good generator will open.
C) Nothing happen.

35. What is/are the indication if the oil pressure in the Constant Speed Drive Unit (CSDU)
is low?

A) Amber "Low Oil Pressure" light on the CSDU Control Panel will light up
and pilot have to disconnect the CSDU manually
B) Red "Low Oil Pressure" light on the CSDU Control Panel will light up and pilot
have to disconnect the CSDU manually.
C) Amber "Low Oil Pressure" light on the CSDU Control Panel will light up and CSDU
is disconnected automatically.

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36. In an aircraft power distribution system, what will happen if the pilot switch on the
APU power while the aircraft is being powered by external power?

A) External power contactor (EPC) will open and APU power contactor
(APC) will close.
B) APU power contactor (APC) will open and External power contactor (EPC) will
close.
C) Nothing happen.

37. What unit is used to detect line current in the differential protection system?

A) Bulb
B) Heat Sensor
C) Current Transformer

38. What is the function of sub-bus bars?

A) To provide more voltage to the load.

B) To minimize the number of cables.
C) To minimize the number of loads.

39. What is the gas that filled in the incandescent lamp?

A) Inert gas
B) Hydrogen gas
C) Halogen gas

40. Which emergency lighting used to assist passenger to get out from aircraft that is full
of smoke?

A) Floor proximity lighting

B) Slide and door illumination lighting
C) Floodlighting

41. An electron releases energy when it drops from a higher orbital to a lower one. This
energy is released in a form of …...

A) Photon
B) Quartz envelope
C) Tungsten vapour

42. What type of bulb that is used for floodlighting?

A) Halogen bulb
B) Incandescent bulb
C) Light emitting diode ( L.E.D)

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43. What type of lamp uses a tungsten filament and encased inside small quartz
envelope?

A) Incandescent lamp.
B) Halogen lamp.
C) Fluorescent lamp

44. Why are incandescent lamps used instead of the more economical fluorescent tubes
in the flight deck area lighting?

A) Fluorescent tubes are very expensive.

B) Incandescent lamps are easier to install and remove for maintenance.
C) An incandescent lamps illumination is easier to control as compared to a
fluorescent tube.

45. It is a requirement of the ANO that the aircraft carries on the flight deck _______ of
the total number of lamp used on the flight deck as spares.

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 60%

46. In what situation that anti-collision light must be in ‘ON’ position?

A) On the airfield with the engine running

B) On the airfield with the engine off
C) When aircraft is in the hanger

47. Which of the following is the correct location of the navigation lights?

A) Green light on the port wingtip, red light on the starboard wingtip and white light
at the tail end.
B) Red light on the port wingtip, green light on the starboard wingtip and white light
on top of the fuselage.
C) Red light on the port wingtip, green light on the starboard wingtip and
white light at the tail end.

48. Which of the following components is not part of antiskid system?

A) The wheel speed sensors

B) The control valves
C) Up and lock switch.

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49. What is the purpose of safety switch in the landing gear control?

A) Prevent accidental retraction of the gear during aircraft on ground

B) Prevent accidental retraction of the gear during aircraft on flight.
C) Allow retraction of the gear during flight

50. What type of motor does landing gear retraction system use?

A) Starter motor
B) Split field dc motor
C) Single phase ac motor

51. In control box, any time a wheel decelerates at a rate higher than the threshold
value, a signal is sent to the........

A) control valve to maintain the brake pressure

B) control valve to increase the brake pressure
C) control valve to reduce the brake pressure

52. What is the indication of the landing gear when it is not "UP and LOCK" or "DOWN
and LOCK"?

A) Green lights
B) Red light
C) No lights

53. What are the indications of stall warning?

A) A siren sound.
B) Blinking light in the cockpit and bell sound.
C) A horn sound, warning light and ‘stick-shaker’.

54. How many alert messages level available in aircraft warning system?

A) 4
B) 3
C) 2

55. Which fire detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference
temperature?

A) Lindberg continuous element

B) Fenwal continuous loop
C) Thermocouple

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56. In what area of an aircraft would you likely to find a carbon monoxide detector?

A) Engine and/or nacelle

B) Surface combustion heater compartment
C) Cockpit and/or cabin

57. One of the purposes of the wing leading edge illumination light is to ……………….

A) help identify the ice formation on the wing.

B) provide ground position of the aircraft from the other aircraft.
C) signal the ground tower for landing.

58. What is the landing gear indication when the aircraft is park on ground?

A) No light
B) Three red lights.
C) Three green lights.

59. What is/are the advantages of continuous loop fire detection system?

A) Large areas can be monitored with a single detector loop.

B) It can detect both overheat condition and fire condition.
C) Both A and B

60. Which of the following is a false statement about squib?

A) When not connected to the aircraft, the electrical pins should be shorted together.
B) Use the normal ohm meter when checking the continuity of the squib.
C) Squib is a life item

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