PACKAGE QUESTION LIST

UPT PUKP 03 - AKMI, Cirebon

Periode 141217AKMI (14 Dec 2017 - 16 Dec 2017)
ANT III -
Exam Code N-02-02-01 (Pra) Level Function
3
Package Code A

Competency Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements

Package Code N3.3.12-A

1. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

a. Not permissible any where

b. 100 n.m. from shore line
c. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL)
d. In coastal waters

2. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

a. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
b. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it
is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
c. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea where
it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
d. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues

3. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to empty
your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection?

a. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily
water separating and filtering equipment
b. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling the
bridge
c. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard
d. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way

4. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During
discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would
be appropriate to take?

a. Stop discharge
b. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type
c. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water
d. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force

5. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount
of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these
materials?

a. This is prohibited
b. 3 miles
c. 12 miles
d. 25 miles
 6. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to
have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the
Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this
legal?

a. 12 miles
b. This is prohibited
c. 3 miles
d. 25 miles

7. Most minor oilspills are caused by:

a. Human error
b. Equipment failure
c. Major casualties
d. Unforeseeable circumstances

8. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content
(60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to:

a. 30 litters per nautical mile

b. 25 litters per nautical mile
c. 20 litters per nautical mile
d. 10 litters per nautical mile

9. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

a. Every report or message must be logged including time and date

b. Only initial reports to be logged
c. Only verbal reports for documentation
d. Only communication with USCG

10. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):

a. Once a month
b. Once a week
c. Once a year
d. Once every six months

11. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7) of
MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass
through the filter?

a. 15 ppm
b. 100 ppm
c. 30 ppm
d. 60 ppm/n.m

12. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?

a. Plugging the scuppers

b. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
c. Closing the lids on the vents
d. Plugging the sounding pipes

13. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

 a. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill
b. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of oil
c. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible
d. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged

14. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

a. All the other alternatives

b. Spilling
c. Leaking
d. Dumping

15. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1?

a. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm

b. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm
c. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 %
d. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast

16. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship?

a. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship

b. Rig an oil boom around the ship
c. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
d. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill

17. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?

a. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
b. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill
c. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side
d. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

18. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?

a. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations

b. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used
c. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E
d. None of the mentioned

19. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?

a. Discharge to a shore facility only

b. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
c. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
d. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

20. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the
engine room?

a. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with
b. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills
c. Whatever paint is available
d. Whatever paint is available

21. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority sequences to be
considered:
 a. Stop pumps - report - clean up?
b. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
c. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
d. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

22. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage
?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

23. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution laws?

a. All of the mentioned

b. Garbage
c. Hazardous substances
d. Oil

24. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?

a. 15 PPM
b. 100 PPM
c. 50 PPM
d. 0 PPM

25. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

a. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill

b. It is not covered by the pollution law
c. It does little harm to marine life
d. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

26. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?

a. To avoid pollution
b. To relieve the master
c. To inform the authorities
d. To restrict pollution

27. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste
overboard?

a. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard

b. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
c. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can
pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
d. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can
pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

28. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles
overboard ?
 a. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 25 mm openings
b. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
c. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard
d. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 50 mm openings

29. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating
packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be?

a. This is prohibited
b. 3 nautical miles off the coast
c. 12 nautical miles off the coast
d. 12 nautical miles off the coast

30. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel
and:

a. Notify the US Coast Guard

b. Begin clean up operations
c. Leave the area
d. Notify the Corps of Engineers
 Maintain seaworthiness of the ship
Package Code N3.3.13-B

1. As per SOLAS a fast rescue boats shall be capable of:

Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 20 knots in calm water
2. Car decks on board ro-ro passenger ships are nomally closed during sea passage. Why are
passengers not allowed to be on the car-deck during sailing?
In case of an emergency situation it can be difficult for passengers to escape. Vehicles,
lorries, trailers and other cargo are maybe lashed and it is a substantial chance for
passengers to get injured. Vehicles and other cargo might also shift when the ship is rolling.
3. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. What
information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
4. How should cargo hold ventilation be carried out on a Ro-Ro vessel loading or discharging
cargoes?
With the ventilation fans set to ‘exhaust'
5. How should lashing belts be stowed on board a RoRo vessel?
According to their Safe Working Load (SWL)
6. If the general alarm is sounding and evacuation of the ship is required. What is the best way to
ensure that all passengers are aware of the situation?
Inform the passengers through Public Address system. Crew with designated emergency
duties should proceed to their cabin section and search all cabins. Guide and evacuate
passengers. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior or the bridge.
7. On a RoRo vessel carrying no more than 36 passengers, what is the minimum capacity of the
ventilation system protecting standard cargo spaces intended for carriage of motor vehicles with
fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion
6 air changes per hour
8. On a RoRo vessel, how should additional lashings be applied to vehicles if they do not have
sufficient lashing points?
As detailed in the instructions provided by the manufacturer or shipper
9. On a RoRo vessel, if the Manufacturer and shipper of a vehicle have not provided instructions
and the vehicle does not have fixed lasing points what can be used to secure the lashings
The wheel apertures, or other suitable fixed point on the vehicle
10. On a RoRo vessel, what danger is associated with damaged expanded metal gratings on loading
ramps?
Vehicles' tyres may be damaged during cargo operations
11. On a RoRo vessel, when cargo has shifted at sea, what could help in reducing acceleration
forces?
Operating anti-heeling devices
12. On a RoRo vessel, when loading Double Stacked containers on Maffi Trailers how many twist
locks should have used between the 2 containers
One on every corner 4 in total
13. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations?
In the loading ramp manual
14. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations?
In the loading ramp manual
15. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible
liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting?
The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people
16. What are safety cones used for on a RoRo vessel,?
All of the alternatives
17. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?
Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for
opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due to
flooding.
18. What extra precautions should be taken by the officers and crew if some of the passengers are
disabled, i.e. using wheelchair, cane, blind etc.?
All passengers that will require extra assistance, also in case of an emergency situation/
evacuation, must be registered in order to allocate crew to assist them if needed.
19. What is a low location lighting system?
A light system powered by battery or fluorescent signs mounted at deck level indicating
the way to the nearest exit
20. What is a Marine Evacuation System?
Evacuation Chute(s)/Slide(s) and Liferafts
21. What is the adequate marking of liferafts for passenger ships on short international voyages?
SOLAS B PACK
22. What is the name of this unit?
A hydrostatic release unit
23. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?
30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
24. What must be ensured immediately after lowering and securing the stern ramp on a RoRo
vessel?
Control levers should be locked in the ‘neutral' position
25. What special requirements applies to fire alarm signalling systems in passenger ships
Fail safe, Centralized in a continuously manned control station, Remote control of fire
doors, Indication of open or closed fire doors, Reactivation of ventilation, Detector status,
Back up powered
26. Where and for what are rubber mats used on board a pure RoRo car carrier?
Under the loading ramp flap to prevent vehicle damage
27. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships?
From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
28. Which of the following appliances are compulsorily in any ro-ro cargo space intended for the
carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion?
At least one portable foam applicator unit
29. Which of these is not a Cargo Transport Unit under the IMDG Code?
Road tank vehicle
30. Which one of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous
goods?
IMDG code
 Competency Prevent, control and fight fires on board
Package Code N3.3.14-B

1. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Area protected by sprinkler

b. Area protected by drenching system
c. Area protected by Halon 1301
d. Sprinkler installation

2. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Area protected by halon

b. Halon horn
c. Heat detector
d. Portable fire extinguisher with halon

3. Give the meaning of the following symbol

 a. Heat detector
b. Foam release station
c. Powder installation
d. Bilge pump

4. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. A class fire door self closing

b. Closing appliance for exterior door
c. Foam valve
d. B class fire door self closing

5. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. B class fire door self closing

b. A class fire door self closing
c. C class fire door self closing
d. D class fire door self closing

6. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Gas detector
b. Emergency fire pump
c. Fire pump
d. Fire control plan

7. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. CO2 horn
b. Area protected by CO2
c. CO2 portable fire extinguisher
d. Gas detector

8. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Sprinkler horn
b. Halon horn
c. Water monitor gun
d. CO2 horn

9. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Manually operated call point

b. Fire alarm panel
c. Fire station
d. Water fog applicator
10. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Portable fire extinguisher

b. Wheeled fire extinguisher
c. Fire alarm
d. None of the above

11. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Remote controlled fire pumps

b. Foam release station
c. Powder handgun
d. Hose box

12. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Foam release station

b. Remote controlled fire pumps
c. CO2 battery
d. International shore connection

13. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Primary means of escape

b. Secondary means of escape
c. B class fire door
d. Powder release station

14. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Portable foam applicator

b. Powder installation
c. Portable fire extinguisher
d. Foam installation

15. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Smoke detector
b. Hose box with spray set
c. Powder hose and handgun
d. Hose box

16. Give the meaning of the following symbol

 a. Secondary means of escape
b. Primary means of escape
c. Main vertical
d. A class division

17. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Wheeled fire extinguisher

b. Portable fire extinguisher
c. Emergency generator
d. Fire pump

18. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Push button for fire alarm

b. Foam nozzle
c. Gas detector
d. Heat detector

19. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Fire station
b. Flame detector
c. Fire pump
d. Smoke detector

20. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Foam monitor gun

b. Water monitor gun
c. Powder handgun
d. Powder hose and handgun

21. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Space protected by foam

b. Foam valve
c. Flame detector
d. Fire pump

22. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Sprinkler section valve

b. Fire alarm panel
c. Area protected by sprinkler
d. Fire pump
23. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Fire alarm panel

b. CO2 battery
c. Sprinkler horn
d. Hose box

24. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Area protected by CO2

b. CO2 horn
c. CO2 battery
d. Portable fire extinguisher

25. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. A class division
b. B class division
c. C class division
d. Primary means of escape

26. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Foam installation
b. Sprinkler installation
c. Portable foam installation
d. Powder installation

27. How do the extinguishing agents act?

a. by cooling, smothering, combustible suppression, inhibition

b. by cooling, smothering, dilution with water and/or ventilation
c. by inhibition
d. by ignition suppression

28. Identify this symbol:

a. Emergency fire pump?

b. Fire escape route?
c. Bilge pump?
d. Gas detector?

29. In general what is the proportion of concentrate to water to produce foam?

a. Between 3% and 6%
b. Between 50 and 100%
c. This operation is done automatically and in relation to the foam
d. over 100%

30. Proteinic foams have the feature of being?

 a. Of low expansion, viscous and solid, easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
b. Of high expansion, made of tense-active compounds
c. Of lowexpansion, not easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
d. Of high expansion, not easily contaminated by hydrocarbons

Competency Operate life-saving appliances

Package Code N3.3.15-B

1. A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable. Where is the best stowing position?

a. Aft of the forecastle

b. Aft of the forecastle secured with wire, turnbuckle and slip hook
c. All forward on the forecastle and secured with the use of a hydrostatic release device
d. In a locker in forecastle

2. A davit-launched liferaft on board a ship is so arranged to be boarded by its full complement of persons in less than:

a. 3 min
b. 2 min
c. 1 min
d. 4 min

3. A floating liferaft is capable of withstanding repeated jumps on to it from a height of at least

a. 4,50 m
b. 3,50 m
c. 5,50 m
d. 6,50 m

4. An evacuation-slide must be capable:

a. of being deployed by one person

b. of being deployed by two persons
c. of being deployed by one person or remotely controlled from the bridge
d. of being deployed by one person or remotely controlled from the bridge

5. An inflatable liferaft accommodating 6 persons is fitted with:

a. 1 entrance fitted with semi-rigid boarding ramp

b. 1 entrance fitted with a boarding ladder
c. 2 entrances each being fitted with a boarding ladder
d. 2 entrances among which one is fitted with a semi-rigid boarding ramp

6. Give the meaning of the following symbol:

a. Davit launched liferaft

b. Liferaft
c. Inflate liferaft
d. Lower liferaft to water

7. Give the meaning of the following symbol:

 a. Liferaft
b. Lower liferaft to water
c. Inflate liferaft
d. Muster station to liferaft

8. Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter?

a. Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of the canopy close to the painter attachment
point
b. Let go the quick release toggle
c. Cut it with the axe provided
d. Wait for it to break as it is provided with a weak link

9. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. Nil

10. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?

a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. Nil

11. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?

a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. Nil

12. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?

a. 6
b. 2
c. 4
d. Nil

13. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. Nil

14. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. Nil

15. How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft?
 a. 10% of the number of persons the liferaft is designed to carry, or two, whichever is more
b. The number of persons the liferaft is permitted to accommodate
c. 6
d. Nil

16. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?

a. Not less than 10000 kJ

b. Not less than 5000 kJ
c. Not less than 20000 kJ
d. None - only barley sugar sweets supplied

17. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft marked SOLAS B PACK?

a. Not less than 10000 Kj

b. Not less than 5000 kJ
c. Not less than 20000 kJ
d. None

18. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft equipped with a desalting apparatus?

a. 1 litre
b. 2.5 litres
c. 5 litres
d. 15 litres

19. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting apparatus?

a. 1.5 litre
b. 5 litre
c. 2 litre
d. 3 litre

20. How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?

a. Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook which
will automatically release once the raft is waterborne
b. Unscrew the shackle pin
c. Wait until the raft is waterborne, then pull the lanyard
d. Cut the weak link on the wire with the axe provided

21. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to the ship?

a. Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship

b. Directly to a secure point on the ship
c. Secured to the part of the hydrostatic release that is designed to break free
d. It should not be secured in any way

22. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft that is floating close to the ship?

a. Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
b. Wearing a lifejacket, jump into the water close to the raft and then swim to it
c. Jump onto the raft itself
d. Jump into the water close to the raft, without a lifejacket, as this will make it easier to swim and
board the liferaft

23. In the life raft, the manually controlled inside lamp must be capable of working at minimum for a period of:
 a. 12 h
b. 6 h
c. 18 h
d. 24 h

24. On a dark night with a clear atmosphere, the outside manually controlled lamp of a liferaft is visible at minimum at a distance
of:

a. 2 mile
b. 0.5 miles
c. 4 miles
d. 8 miles

25. The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 6 persons is at least:

a. 7.5 kN
b. 5 kN
c. 2.5 kN
d. 10 kN

26. The container for an inflatable liferafts shall be made:

a. watertight, as far as possible,except for drain holes in the container bottom

b. non-watertight if fitted with drain holes in the container bottom
c. Completely watertight
d. non-watertight

27. The weak link of a float-free arrangement for liferafts must break under a strain of:

a. 2,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
b. 0,7 kN ± 0,4 kN
c. 4,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
d. 9,7 kN ± 0,4 kN

28. Which of air and water is the fluid that transfers the greatest amount of heat during the same time, given that the fluid is not
flowing along the immersed body?

a. Water
b. Air
c. Both are transferring equally
d. Air if the temperature of the fluid is 10°C; water if temperature of the fluid is < 10°C

29. Which part of the fresh water quantity provided for each person the liferaft is permitted to accommodate may be replaced by a
de-salting apparatus?

a. 0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 day

b. 0,25 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 days
c. 0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 1 day
d. 0,25 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 1 day

30. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. In most cases, which of the following actions should you generally take?

a. Organise a lookout system. Join up with other survival craft if possible. Stream the sea anchor
b. Organise a lookout system
c. Start paddling in the direction of the nearest land
d. Join up with any other survival craft and stream the sea anchor
 Competency Contribute to the safety of personnel and ship
Package Code N3.3.19-A

1. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:

a. Every week
b. Every 2 weeks
c. Every 3 weeks
d. Every month

2. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to ensure that the gas is
not released into the engine room due to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?

a. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.

b. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central.
c. No special precautions necessary.
d. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.

3. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced:

a. Every 12 months.
b. Every 24 months.
c. Every 18 months.
d. Every 36 months.

4. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information recorded in the OLB?

a. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
b. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
c. Fortnightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness
d. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness.

5. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?

a. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
b. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
c. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition
d. Renewed every three years

6. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire detectors. What
requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed?

a. All the mentioned alternatives.

b. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in accordance with instructions in its manual)
c. Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate signals to the central control unit and that
all electric connections are in good order.
d. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that the sensors
self controlling system, e.g. a flashing control light etc. is functioning.

7. Ship Security Plans all look the same.

a.

8. The best way to identify an IED is to?

 a. Recognize its components.
b. Measure the size of the object.
c. Shake the object.
d. Weight the object.

9. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:

a. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 200 mm
d. equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than 280 mm

10. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:

a. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm

b. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20 mm
c. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm
d. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth = 30 mm

11. This device can detect a package of drugs inside a large delivery of ship’s stores. What is it?

a. Pallet scanner
b. Vapour detector
c. Security container
d. Access control system

12. What is an IED?

a. A homemade bomb
b. A type of gun
c. An explosive
d. An incendiary device

13. What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan?

a. Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.

b. Outline specific measures for your ship to move from security level 1 to 2 and from 2 to 3.
c. Outline the organizational structure for the ship.
d. Detail the duties of shipboard personnel assigned security responsibilities.

14. When handling drugs…

a. Wear skin protection and a facemask.

b. "Briefly inhale powders, fumes or vapours to verify the substance is a drug."
c. Shut off the ventilation in the room where the drugs are being stored to ensure any vapours or
fumes do not spread to other parts of the ship.
d. Test out the potency of the drug.

15. When is a visitor onboard required to present an ID?

a. "On SECURITY Level 1, 2 & 3"

b. Only on SECURITY Level 3
c. On SECURITY Level 2 & 3
d. Never

16. Which of the following areas may be possible restricted areas? (Review all answers)
 a. All alternatives
b. The Bridge
c. The Engine control room
d. The Cargo control room

17. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)

a. Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
b. At least four life-buoys on each side of the ship shall be fitted with buoyant lifelines
c. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
d. At least one lifebuoy with self-activating smoke shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern

18. Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is located during a search?

a. Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious.
b. Throw the object overboard.
c. Cover the suspicious object with a box or blanket.
d. Place the object in a desk drawer or file cabinet.

19. Which of these are indications that a parcel is suspicious?

a. "The parcel is addressed to no one in particular, arrives unexpectedly and seems heavy for
its size."
b. The parcel smells like chocolate.
c. The parcel came from Joe in the safety department and arrived quicker than expected.
d. "The parcel is wrapped in clean, brown paper and is addressed to a crewmember from hiswife."

20. Which of these are indicators that an individual may be a drug smuggler?

a. The individual wears bulky or out of season clothing.

b. The individual spends his or her free time hanging out with others.
c. The individual makes small local purchases.
d. The individual is disinterested in the ship’s cargo.

21. Which of these types of information is considered sensitive?

a. Voyage itinerary and departure and arrival times.

b. Ship schematics and HR policies.
c. Way points and training records.
d. Planned maintenance schedule and emergency response procedures.

22. Which of these weapons are widely available and commonly used by criminals and terrorists to further their aims?

a. Gun
b. Incendiary device
c. Liquid explosive
d. Vehicle borne device

23. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to present
regulations?

a. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with

the regulations shall be provided
b. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving equipment
c. Maintenance and repair of all life saving equipments shall be carried out by the certified ship
staff only
d. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out ashore in work
shop only
24. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present regulations?

a. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
b. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be fitted with the manufacturers name and Logo
c. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of such a colour that they are in contrast to the
surrounding colour
d. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall have marking in red colour

25. Which Security Levels requires the highest security alert?

a. Security Level 3
b. Security Level 1
c. Security Level 2
d. Security Level 4

26. Which statement about IED’s is true?

a. All IED’s have four common components.

b. All IED’s look alike.
c. IED’s are difficult to manufacture.
d. IED’s don’t cause serious damage.

27. Which type of equipment can be used to detect explosives?

a. Particulate detector
b. CCTV
c. Water cannon
d. Metal detector

28. "During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?"

a. Do not touch any suspicious packages

b. Try to reach behind bulkheads to find a bomb
c. Know exactly what a bomb looks like
d. Throw any suspicious items overboard

29. "What do crew, visitors and contractors all have in common?"

a. They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs.

b. They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs.
c. They’re all onboard the ship for the duration of its voyage.
d. They’re all trained in ship emergency procedures.