Notification: Entry Branch PC/ SSC Course Number Vacancies
Notification: Entry Branch PC/ SSC Course Number Vacancies
Notification: Entry Branch PC/ SSC Course Number Vacancies
NOTIFICATION
AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT- 01/2022) FOR FLYING BRANCH AND
GROUND DUTY (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL) BRANCHES/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY
FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN JANUARY 2023
Date for submission of Online Applications: 01 DEC 2021 to 30 DEC 2021
(Indian Air Force career website https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in)
1. Indian Air Force invites Indian citizens (Men and Women) to be part of this elite force as Group
A Gazetted Officers in Flying and Ground Duty (Technical and Non-Technical) branches. Online
AFCAT examination will be conducted on 12 Feb 22, 13 Feb 22 and 14 Feb 22.
Note: There is no intake conducted for Education and Meteorology branches for AFCAT
01/2022 for course commencing in Jan 2023.
4. Type of Commission.
(a) Permanent Commission (PC) for Men. Candidates joining as PC officers would
continue to serve till the age of superannuation in their respective branches as per their rank.
(i) The engagement period for Flying Branch (Men and Women) SSC Officers is
fourteen years from the date of Commissioning (Non extendable).
(ii) The initial tenure for Ground Duty (Technical & Non-Technical) SSC Officers
would be for a period of ten years. An extension of four years may be granted subject
to service requirements, availability of vacancies, willingness, suitability and
merit.
5. Eligibility Conditions.
(a) Nationality. Candidate must be a citizen of India as per Indian citizenship act, 1955.
(b) Age.
(i) Flying Branch through AFCAT and NCC Special Entry: 20 to 24 years as on
01 January 2023 i.e. born between 02 January 1999 to 01 January 2003 (both dates
inclusive). Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot
License issued by DGCA (India) is relax able upto 26 years i.e. born between
02 January 1997 to 01 January 2003 (both dates inclusive).
(iii) Marital Status: Candidates below 25 years of age must be unmarried at the time
of commencement of course. Widows/ Widowers and divorcees (with or without
encumbrances) below 25 years of age are also not eligible. A candidate who marries
subsequent to the date of his application though successful at SSB or medical will not
be eligible for training. A candidate who marries during the period of training shall be
discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the
Government. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during
training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live
out with family.
(iv) The date of birth accepted by the IAF is that entered in the Matriculation or
Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian
University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates
maintained by a University, the extract must be certified by the proper authority of the
University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. No other
document related to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal
Corporation, service records and likewise will be accepted.
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(v) In case the Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination Certificate does not
show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years
and months. In such cases a candidate must possess a self-attested/ certified copy of a
certificate from the Headmaster/ Principal of the Institution from where he/ she passed
the Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination showing the date of his/ her birth or
exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.
(vi) Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on
the date of submission of application will be accepted by the IAF and no subsequent
request for its change will be considered or granted.
(vii) The candidates should exercise due care while entering their Date of Birth.
If on verification at any subsequent stage, variation is found in their date of birth
from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate,
will render them disqualified.
(i) Flying Branch. Candidates should have mandatorily passed with a minimum of
50% marks each in Maths and Physics at 10+2 level and
(a) Graduation with minimum three years degree course in any discipline from a
recognized University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
OR
(b) BE/B Tech degree (Four years course) from a recognised University with a
minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
OR
(c) Candidates who have cleared Section A & B examination of Associate
Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India
from a recognised University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
(aa) Administration & Logistics. Passed 10+2 and Graduate Degree (Minimum
three years degree course) in any discipline from a recognised university with a
minimum of 60% marks or equivalent or cleared section A & B examination of
Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society
of India from a recognised university with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
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(ab) Accounts Branch. Passed 10+2 and done graduation in any of the
following streams with 60 % marks or equivalent from a recognized university:-
(iv) Note.
(aa) Only those candidates who have given 12th standard in 10+2 pattern of
examination are eligible to apply for these courses.
(ab) Two seats are reserved for Law qualified candidates in Ground duty
(Non-Tech) branches and these candidates may get employed on legal
duties of the IAF (after commissioning).
(ac) In case the candidates are awarded grades/ CGPA instead of marks, the
conversion of grades/ CGPA to percentage of marks would be based on the
procedure certified by the University from where they have obtained the degree.
In case the University does not have any scheme for converting CGPA to
percentage conversion certificate, CGPA will be converted into 10 points scale
and multiplied by 10 to get equivalent percentage.
(ad) Candidates who are studying in the final year/ semester Degree course
and are yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided
candidate should not have any present backlog and should have secured a
minimum of 60% marks up to the last semester/ year for which results have
been declared up to the time of submission of application. They are required to
submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by 30 Nov 22 and no request for
extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic
qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other
ground whatsoever.
(ae) Candidates who have failed the Computerised Pilot Selection System
(CPSS) in an earlier attempt or a Flight Cadet suspended from flying training at
Air Force Academy will not be eligible to apply in Flying Branch.
(d) Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy,
Indian Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training
Academy, Chennai and Officer’s Training Academy Gaya but were removed on grounds of
indiscipline are ineligible to apply.
(e) Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of
commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for AFCAT and if admitted, their
candidature will be cancelled.
(f) Candidates who have been convicted on criminal charges and those who are still stuck
in a criminal case are not eligible to apply.
6. Physical and Medical Standards. Guidelines with regard to physical and medical standards
for candidates are as provided in the Appendix ‘A’ to the notification.
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7. How to Apply. Aspirants for IAF are required to apply online by using the link
https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in, or https://afcat.cdac.in. Aadhaar Card is mandatory for online
registration. Detailed instructions for filling in the online application form are appended below:-
(a) Applicants need to exercise utmost care while filling in the online application. In case
any information is found to be incorrect, the candidature is liable to be cancelled at any stage
of the selection process. Please verify the correctness of information entered in all the
fields before proceeding with the “Make Payment” option. Applicants will not be able to
edit the previous details entered after the selection of “Course Preferences” step and
after the “Make Payment” step.
(b) If an applicant has submitted more than one application, only the latest submitted
application form against a particular Aadhaar Number, will be considered for issue of
Admit Card. However, the fee deposited while filling additional applications will not be
refundable.
(c) Applicants will be required to complete the process of Online Application form which will
have the following sequences. Details in tabular form are given in Para 7 (h) below:-
(i) Click “CANDIDATE LOGIN’’ on the Home page- leads to AFCAT Sign-in.
(ii) In the next page, applicants to click “NOT YET REGISTERED? REGISTER
HERE”.
(iii) Sign Up: Creation of Log-in ID and applicant will receive a password in his/her
registered email id.
(iv) After successful registration, sign-in with registered email id and system
generated password.
(v) Reset Password- Log-Out (candidates must remember their login ID and
password for future use during the examination process).
Name
Father’s Name
Mother’s Name
Date of Birth
Gender
Aadhaar Number
Note:- Please recheck these details, confirm the correctness and continue.
Post this confirmation, DOB and Gender will not be allowed to be changed at any
subsequent stage under any circumstances whatsoever and your candidature
will be rejected at any stage whenever any wrong information is detected.
(xiii) For AFCAT Candidates Only: After 28 Jan 22 click “DOWNLOAD ADMIT
CARD” to download your Admit Card from the website https://afcat.cdac.in and you
will also receive admit card on your registered email ID. If the candidate does not
receive his/ her admit card in their registered email id or is not able to download the
same from the mentioned website, he/ she is required to enquire from AFCAT Query
Cell at C-DAC, Pune. (Phone Nos: 020-25503105 or 020-25503106). E-Mail queries
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(d) While filling in the online application, the applicant must ensure that he/ she meets all
the eligibility conditions including the educational qualification which must conform to the
guidelines/ norms of the relevant educational board/ UGC, as reviewed and updated from time
to time. The applicants are advised to keep the relevant documents ready, as details are to be
filled in as per matriculation and other educational certificates. The educational qualifications
filled by the applicant should correspond to the Entry Level Qualification (ELQ) as given in
Para 5 (c) of this notification. If any of the eligibility conditions is not met, the candidature is
liable to be rejected at any stage during the selection process and the onus of the same would
be on the candidate himself/ herself. With regard to Integrated degree programmes, the
following are the prevailing UGC guidelines:-
(i) Integrated/ Dual Degree. As per the guiding principles laid down by UGC, if the
Integrated/ Dual Degree Programmes intend to offer two separate degrees with an
option for interim exit or lateral entry, the duration of the Integrated/ Dual Degree
Programme must not be less than the duration equal to the sum total of the prescribed
duration of the two degrees that are being combined in the programme. All such
programmes should carry the nomenclature of Integrated/ Dual Degree (Name of the
first degree) - (Name of the final degree); both the degrees awarded under the
programme should be individually and separately recognised as equivalent to
corresponding degrees and not as one single integrated degree).
(ii) Integrated Single Degree. If the Integrated Programme intends to offer a single
degree without permission to exit and lateral entry, the programme duration may be
relaxed by not more than 25% of the sum total of the prescribed duration of the two
degrees that are being combined to make the single integrated degree.
(e) Before filling in the online application, an applicant should have the following scanned
images saved as jpg/ jpeg files (size of each file to be between 10 and 50 kb)
(i) Recent passport size colour photograph
(ii) Signature
(iii) Thumb impression (left thumb for male applicants and right thumb for female
applicants) - created by pressing on ink stamp pad and then on plain blank paper
(f) While filling in the online application form, applicants are required to click “SAVE AND
CONTINUE” to complete the process of each part. If the mandatory fields (marked by a red
asterisk (*)) are not filled, the “SUBMIT” button would not be enabled for the applicants to click
and proceed to the next part of the application form.
(g) Once the “Course Preference” stage is saved, applicants will not be able to edit/ modify
previous data in the “Personal Information” and “Qualification details” pages. Only the
“Communication Details” page can be edited, if an applicant wishes to do so. After the “Make
Payment” step, applicants will be able to check the “Payment Status” as well as “Preview
Application”. However, no further changes or correction is possible in the online application
form. Thereafter, the only option for an applicant, if an application is to be amended, is to re-
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register with a different email id and fill the online application form anew. The fee paid,
including on any additional online application form(s), will not be refundable.
(h) Examination fee for AFCAT Entry. After filling in the online application form, the
examination fee of Rs. 250/- (non-refundable) for AFCAT entry (not applicable for NCC
special entry) may be paid online through the ‘Make Payment’ step on the main menu of
the online application. No cash or cheque or demand draft (DD) will be accepted towards
payment of examination fee. The examination fee can be paid using credit/ debit cards/ net
banking through the payment gateway. Applicants are advised to follow the instructions/ steps
given on the payment gateway, and also print/keep the transaction details for their records.
After confirmation from bank that the payment is received, the “Payment Status” will display
“Registration Number” which the candidate may note down for future correspondence.
Simultaneously, the candidate will receive a confirmatory sms/ e-mail. This will be followed by
Admit Card (with the Hall Ticket Number) which a candidate will receive on his/her registered
email ID and which is also downloadable from his/her registered email ID.
S. No Description
1. Sign up Format
As per 10th Matriculation Passing Certificate- all in
Full Name
alphabet of max 50 characters
Father’s Name In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Mother’s Name In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Email id email id (to be used for Sign-in)
Nationality Indian
Mobile Number 10 digits
Secret Question Select one from options
Secret Answer In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
CAPTCHA Enter alphanumeric text shown
2. Personal Information
Applicant has to choose entry to IAF through one
of the options
(a) Type of Entry (i) AFCAT
(ii) NCC Special Entry
Secondary Email Email id other than which the applicant has signed-
(f)
Address up with
(g) Nationality
(h) Mobile Number
Candidate’s Visible
(i) In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Identification Mark
Applicant has to choose Passed/ Failed/ Not
(j) CPSS/PABT Status appeared;
If passed fill the details from (i) to (iv)
CPSS/PABT Batch
(i) Numeric Value
Number
CPSS/PABT Date of
(ii) DD/MMM/YYYY
Passing
CPSS/PABT Chest
(iii) Numeric Value
No.
CPSS/PABT attended
Choose one from the list Dehradun, Gandhinagar,
(iv) at which Air Force
Mysore, Varanasi
Selection Board
Do you have a current
valid Commercial Pilot
(k) Select ‘Yes’ or ‘No’
License issued by
DGCA?
Are you serving Select ‘Yes’ or ‘No’
(l)
Airman of IAF? If Yes, fill the details from (i) to (iv)
(i) Select Rank in IAF Choose one from the list
(ii) Service Number Alphanumeric
(iii) Current Posted Unit Alphanumeric
(iv) Select Command Choose one from the list
Male or Female
Note: Candidates should exercise due care while
(m) Select Gender selecting the gender. In case you select wrong
gender your candidature will be cancelled and no
representation would be entertained in this regard.
(n) Select Marital Status Married or Unmarried
(o) Date of Birth DD/MMM/YYYY
Confirm your Date of
(p) DD/MMM/YYYY
Birth
3. Qualification Details
Choose one from the list
10 + 2 + Graduation
(a) Education Level 10 + 2 + Graduation + Post Graduation
10 + 2 + Integrated Post Graduation
(k) Applicants are strongly advised to apply online well in time to avoid the last
minute rush leading to website/ server slowdown.
(l) Serving Airmen. Serving Airmen are required to apply like other applicants. In
addition, they would have to apply as per the service format given in AFO 11/ 2015 through
service channel.
(m) NOC for Government Employees. The applicants who are already in Government
Service including serving in the Armed Forces, Government-owned industrial undertakings or
other similar organizations also need to apply only after obtaining necessary permission
from their departments concerned and they are required to produce NOC at the time of
AFSB testing, failing which they will be routed back without being tested. NOC is mandatory
irrespective of the candidate being a permanent, temporary or Contractual employee.
(n) Permission of Employer. Candidates should note that in case communication is
received from their employer to withhold permission to the candidates who have applied for/
appearing in the examination, their candidature is liable to be cancelled. In case the employer
refuse to provide NOC for any reason, that refusal is to be taken in writing and submitted to
AFSB.
(o) Applicants are not required to submit any certificate, along with their applications, in
support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, etc. However, certain
mandatory documents are required to be carried in original at exam centres, the details of
which is enumerated in para 8(e).
(p) Contact/ Reference Details during Registration & Communication. While filling in
the application form, the applicants must ensure that they provide their valid and active e-mail
IDs as the IAF would use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different
stages throughout the selection process. On successful submission of online application form,
the candidate will receive a confirmatory e-mail on their registered e-mail ID. As such, all
communication to the IAF should invariably contain the following particulars without which no
request would be entertained.
(i) Branch, Course Number and Year of Examination.
(ii) Transaction Number (for queries on payment).
(ii) Registration Number (as given in Payment Status & Admit Card).
(iii) Hall Ticket Number (as given in Admit Card).
(iv) Name of Applicant (in full and in block letters).
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8. AFCAT.
(a) Scheme of Online Examination. All applicants whose applications are submitted by
due date will be called for AFCAT at one of the examination centers on either
12 Feb 22 (Friday), 13 Feb 22 (Saturday) and 14 Feb 22 (Sunday). It is mandatory for the
candidates opting for Ground Duty (Technical) branch to appear in both AFCAT as well
as Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT).
(i) Exam Schedule. The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in two days as per
the following schedule:-
Verification of
Admit Card & ID
Proof, 07:30- 09:30 12:30- 14:30 07:30- 09:30 12:30-14:30 07:30- 09:30 12:30-14:30
Photography and hrs hrs hrs hrs hrs hrs
Candidate Seating
Reading of
09:30- 09:45 14:30- 14:45 09:30- 09:45 09:30- 09:45
Instructions by 14:30- 14:45 14:30- 14:45
hrs hrs hrs hrs
Candidates hrs hrs
AFCAT 09:45- 11:45 14:45 -16:45 09:45- 11:45 14:45 -16:45 09:45- 11:45 14:45 -16:45
hrs hrs hrs hrs hrs hrs
Break 16:45 – 16:45 – 16:45 – 17:00
N/A N/A N/A
17:00 hrs 17:00 hrs hrs
Reading of
Instructions by 17:00 -17:15
N/A N/A 17:00 -17:15 N/A 17:00 -17:15
Candidates for hrs
hrs hrs
EKT
EKT 17:15 -18:00 17:15 -18:00 17:15 -18:00
N/A N/A N/A
hrs hrs hrs
Note: Candidates will not be permitted to enter the exam centre, under any circumstance, after the
pre-exam verification process has commenced at 07:30 hrs for shift-I and 12:30 hrs for shift-II.
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(ii) Syllabus. The subjects, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to
each subject will be as follows:-
No. of Max
Exam Subject Duration
Questions Marks
General Awareness, Verbal
Ability in English, Numerical
AFCAT 02 Hours 100 300
Ability and Reasoning and
Military Aptitude Test
EKT [For
Candidates
Mechanical, Computer
with one of 45
Science and Electrical & 50 150
the choices Minutes
Electronics
as (Technical)
Branch]
(iii) The Online examination will consist of objective type questions and will be in
English only for both AFCAT and EKT.
(v) Questions will be based on the metric system of Weights & Measures wherever
applicable.
(vi) Candidates are required to appear for the Online AFCAT in person. Under no
circumstance will any scribe or another candidate be allowed to appear/ assist in the
exam.
(vii) Air Force has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the
examination.
(i) Syllabus.
(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average, Profit &
Loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple Interest, Time & Distance
(Trains/Boats & Streams).
(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.
(c) Practice Test. An online Practice Test (for AFCAT & EKT) is available on the IAF
website https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in.
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued with an e-Admit Card three weeks before
the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be sent to the registered email IDs
and will also be available at the website www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in for all
candidates who successfully submitted their online application. No Admit Card will be
sent by post. To download the e-Admit Card, a candidate should have his/her
Username and Password. The candidate will be solely responsible for downloading
his/ her e-Admit Card.
(ii) If the candidate does not receive his/her admit card in their registered email id or
is not able to download the same from the mentioned website or if there is any error /
discrepancy / anomaly in the e-admit card, he/she must inquire from AFCAT Query Cell
at C-DAC, Pune immediately. (Phone Nos. 020-25503105 or 020-25503106).
E-Mail queries may be addressed to afcatcell@cdac.in . No candidate will be allowed to
appear in the examination unless he/ she holds a downloaded e-Admit Card for the
examination.
(iii) The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their
eligibility as per age and educational qualifications and the course preferences given by
them. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely
provisional, based on the information given by them in the Application Form. On
verification, in case the IAF finds that the information disclosed by the candidate is not
correct or is false, his or her candidature will be treated as cancelled.
(iv) Candidates are to ensure that the personal information in the front side of the
e-Admit card are as per the details provided by them during the registration process.
They are also advised to read the instructions given at the rear of the e-Admit card
beforehand.
(v) The decision of the IAF shall be final with regard to the acceptance of a
candidate’s application, based on the given information.
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(i) Items to be Brought Inside Examination Hall. The following items are to be
carried to the exam centre:-
(aa) e-Admit Card for AFCAT 02/2021.
(ab) Candidate’s Aadhaar Card.
(ac) Another valid photo identity card such as PAN card/ passport/ driving
licence/ voter identity card/ college identity card or any other valid photo identity
proof, with details of name, father’s name, date of birth and a clear photograph.
(ad) Two passport size colour photographs- same as the photo uploaded
during online application (to be pasted, not stapled on Admit Card next to the
printed photo and on attendance sheet at the exam centre).
(ae) Ballpoint Pen (Blue or Black) for signing on the attendance sheet and
rough work.
(ii) Items not permitted inside Examination Hall. Candidates are not allowed to
carry any of the following items.
(aa) Blue tooth device, communication / electronic / digital / wireless devices
like calculators, docupen, electronic watches with facilities of calculator, cellular
phone, memory card/ stick, pager, organizer, personal digital assistant (PDA),
concealed microphone or camera, radio, headset, Walkman, recorder, translator
etc.
(iii) If any candidate is found in possession of any of the above mentioned items, it
will be construed as an attempt to using unfair means and his/her examination will be
cancelled. The item will be confiscated and he/she will also be debarred from future
AFCAT examinations.
(iv) Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination
Centres, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. IAF will not be responsible for
any loss in this regard.
(v) Malpractice. If any candidate resorts to the use of unfair means during the
exam, he/ she will be withdrawn from the examination and his/her candidature will be
cancelled.
(before, during or after the exam), he/ she will be withdrawn from the examination and
his/ her candidature will be cancelled.
(f) Locations for AFCAT 01/2022: Agartala, Agra, Ajmer, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Alwar,
Allahabad/ Prayagraj, Ambala, Aurangabad, Bareilly, Behrampur (Odisha), Bathinda,
Belagavi, Bengaluru, Bhagalpur, Bhilai, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Bhuj, Bikaner,
Chandigarh, Chennai, Chapra, Coimbatore, Delhi and NCR, Dhanbad, Diu, Dibrugarh,
Durgapur, Faridabad, Ganganagar, Gaya, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Guntur, Gurugram,
Guwahati, Gwalior, Haldwani, Hissar, Hyderabad, Imphal, Indore, Itanagar, Jabalpur,
Jaipur, Jalandhar, Jalpaigudi, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Jhansi, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kakinada,
Kannur, Kanpur, Kochi, Kohima, Kolhapur, Kolkata, Kota, Kurukshetra, Leh, Lucknow,
Ludhiana, Mangalore, Meerut, Mumbai, Muzzafarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, Nasik,
Nizamabad, Noida, Panaji, Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Puducherry, Pune, Rajkot, Ranchi,
Rourkee, Rourkela, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Silchar, Srinagar, Solapur, Sonipat,
Thane, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur, Tirunelveli, Tirupati, Udaipur, Vadodara,
Varanasi, Vellore, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Warangal.
(g) Allotment of Centres. As far as possible, candidates will be allotted centres as per
their choice. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre/ date/ slot will
be entertained. Therefore candidates should exercise due care before deciding date/ slot of
his/ her choice for the centre for the examination before filling the form. In case of any
eventuality, the AFCAT exam centres may be cancelled. In this scenario alternate centres
would be provided to the affected candidates. No representation would be entertained in this
regard and decision of the IAF would be final.
(a) For AFCAT entry, IAF shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum
qualifying marks in the Online AFCAT as fixed by the IAF in their discretion. Candidates who
are declared successful in the Online AFCAT will be called at one of the Air Force Selection
Boards. Candidates who have applied for NCC Special Entry will be directly called for AFSB
testing at one of the AFSB centres. The AFSB centres are at Dehradun (1 AFSB), Mysuru (2
AFSB), Gandhinagar (3 AFSB) , Varanasi (4 AFSB) and Guwahati (5 AFSB). Candidates who
opt for flying branch can only opt for Dehradun, Mysore and Varanasi. Candidates who have
qualified in the written exam are required to choose AFSB date and venue by
themselves on the website https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in in
order to generate call- up letter for AFSB interview.
(b) Physical Fitness. Candidates are advised to be physically fit when you report for SSB
in order to be able to undergo various tests at AFSB. You should aim to achieve an ability to
run 01 mile (1.6 kms) in 10 minutes, 10 push ups and 3 chin ups.
(c) Tattoos. The policy on permanent body tattoos is as follows:-
(i) Permanent body tattoos are not permitted on any other body part either visible
or non-visible part, except on the Inner face of forearms i.e. from inside of the elbow
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to the wrist of both the hands and Reverse side of the palm / back (dorsal) side of both
hands for which a candidate will be required to sign a Self-declaration Certificate. Small
innocuous tattoos that are not prejudicial to good order and military discipline, are
permitted e.g. religious symbols or names of near and dear ones.
(ii) Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing customs and
traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis.
(d) Narcotics. Use/possession of narcotics is banned. Candidate may be
tested for presence of drugs in the body during Medicals and subsequently
during training/ service career as an officer. If candidate is found to be using/ in
possession of narcotics during any time of training/service career, candidate would be
debarred from joining the Indian Air Force or be removed from service if already joined.
(e) The testing at AFSB would consist of three stages as given below:-
(i) Stage-I. Officer Intelligence Rating Test along with Picture Perception and
discussion test will be conducted on the first day. Stage-I test is a screening test and
only those who qualify would undergo subsequent testing. All Stage-I qualified
candidates would be subjected to document check to ascertain their eligibility for the
branches applied for. Candidates who either do not qualify in Stage-I or do not meet the
required eligibility criteria would be sent back on the first day itself.
(ii) Stage-II. Psychological test will be conducted on Day 1(Afternoon) and the
Group Tests and Interview would commence after document check for the next five
days.
(iii) For Flying Branch. Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) would be
administered to recommended candidates only. This is once in a lifetime test.
Candidates who have failed the CPSS/ PABT in an earlier attempt or a Flight
Cadet suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy will not be eligible.
(f) Change of Interview Dates. Request for change of AFSB interview date should be
avoided. Requests for postponing interview may be considered under genuine circumstances
and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Air Headquarters will be the sole
deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to AFSB Centre from where the call for AFSB
interview has been received through e-mail only.
(g) Candidates will appear before the AFSB and undergo the test at their own risk and will
not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in the event of any
injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at
the Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Candidates will
be required to sign an indemnity bond to this effect on the form appended to the application.
(h) Travel Allowance (TA). To and fro travelling fare by the shortest route of AC-III Tier/AC
Chair Car or actual normal bus fare will be re-imbursed to the candidates appearing in AFSB
for the first time. Change of address, if any, must be intimated to the Board well before arrival.
You shall furnish the railway ticket/ bus ticket (hard copy) to the Board, failing which no TA will
be paid. For all other modes of travel, TA will be admissible as per the government authorized
rules. No TA is admissible, if you have already appeared for the same type of entry at
any of the Selection Boards. Candidates are to carry cancelled Cheque for Online
Payment.
(j) Documents for AFSB. Candidates are required to bring the following relevant
documents, which will be checked during AFSB testing:-
20
(ii) Original Matriculation/ Secondary School Certificate and Mark sheets issued by
CBSE/ ICSE/ State Board. No other certificate will be accepted for verification of Date of
Birth.
(iii) Original Marks Sheet & Certificate of 10+2 (issued by the relevant Board).
(iv) Original/ Provisional Graduation Degree/ Post Graduation Degree Certificates and
Mark Sheet of each year/ semester issued by University - only for verification of
educational qualifications to check eligibility for the course. Provisional Certificate issued
by college Principal is not acceptable. However, Provisional Degree Certificate issued
by the University is acceptable.
(v) In case of final year/ semester students, a Certificate from the College Principal,
clearly mentioning the following aspects annotated with proper stamp and seal of the
Institution is required:-
(viii) NOC from employers for candidates working in Central/ State Govt. or Public
Sector Undertakings.
(x) Inbound Railway Ticket/ Bus Tickets. (For refund of Travelling Allowance)
(xi) Candidates are also advised to bring twenty copies of recent passport size colour
photographs taken in light coloured clothes against white background for
documentation.
(k) Candidates not in possession of the above documents or those who do not meet
the eligibility conditions, should not report to the AFSB, as they will not be accepted for
the tests and will be routed back without travelling allowances.
(l) Candidates recommended by the IAF for interview by the Air Force Selection Board
(AFSB) who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application
for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of
the examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self-addressed
envelope, also to Wg Cdr PO-3 (A/B) Air HQs. 'J' Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan,
Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106. Failure to comply with this instruction will deprive the
candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the letter for
interview by the AFSB.
10. Final Merit List. To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying
marks separately in written examination and AFSB test as fixed by the IAF. Candidates will be placed
in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the written examination and in
the AFSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual
21
candidates shall be decided by the IAF in their discretion.10% of the vacancies are reserved for
NCC Air Wing Senior Division 'C' certificate holders in Ground Duty (Technical and Non-
technical) Branches. Allotment of PC/ SSC in Ground Duty (Technical and Non-technical) Branches
would be based on number of vacancies, performance in the selection process and the choice given
by the candidates.
11. Training. Candidates recommended by the AFSBs and found medically fit by appropriate
medical establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and availability of
vacancies in various branches/ sub branches.
(a) Date and Duration of Training. Training is scheduled to commence in the first week
of Jan 2023 for all courses. The approximate duration of training for Flying and Ground Duty
(Technical) Branches is 74 weeks and that of Ground Duty (Non-technical) Branches is
52 weeks at Air Force Training Establishments.
(c) After admission to Air Force Academy, candidates will not be considered for any other
commission. They will not be permitted to appear for any interview or examination after they
have been finally selected for training in AFA. No request for withdrawal of candidature
received from a candidate after he/she has submitted his/her application will be entertained
under any circumstance. PAN Card, Aadhaar card and account in SBI/ Nationalized Bank is
mandatory at the time of joining Air Force Academy (AFA). Use/possession of narcotics is
banned. Candidate may be tested for presence of drugs in the body during Medicals and
subsequently during training/ service career as an officer. If candidate is found to be using/ in
possession of narcotics during any time of training/service career, candidate would be
debarred from training /service as per extant policy.
(a) For any Query related to Conduct of Online Examination, registration process, admit
cards, candidates may contact AFCAT Cell on 020-25503105 or 020-25503106. E-Mail
queries may be addressed to afcatcell@cdac.in.
(b) For all queries regarding Eligibility, allotment of AFSB centres, date of AFSB interview,
merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other relevant information regarding selection process,
candidates may contact on 011-23010231 Extn: 7610 or visit website
https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in or Toll free number 1800-11-
2448
(c) Timings. Telephonic query timings are from 0930 hrs to 1300 hrs and 1400 hrs to
1700 hrs (Monday to Friday, except closed holidays).
13. In case any information furnished by the candidate during online registration, is found to be
22
incorrect at any stage during selection procedure or after joining the training institute, the candidature
of such candidates is liable to be cancelled and no representation will be entertained in this regard.
14. Disclaimer. Information given in the notification and on the websites are guidelines only. In
case of any ambiguity, the existing policies, rules and regulations of IAF/ Govt. of India will be final.
Terms and conditions for selection given in the notification are guidelines only and are
subject to change without notice.
15. Statutory Warning. Selection in the Indian Air Force is fair and merit based. Attempt to
influence the selection process at any stage is liable to lead to termination of candidature or initiation
of service and legal action against the concerned individual.
23
Appendix A to Notification
[Refers to para 6]
MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT- 01/2022) FOR
FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTY (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL) BRANCHES/ NCC
SPECIAL ENTRY FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN JANUARY 2023
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical assessment of candidates for
commissioning through AFCAT into flying branch and ground duty Technical and Non-Technical
branches/NCC Special Entry in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of these guidelines is to lay
down uniform physical standards and to ensure that the candidates are free of health conditions that
may hamper or limit their performance in the respective branch. The guidelines enumerated in this
section are meant to be applied in conjunction with the standard methods of clinical examination.
2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic physical fitness standards which
will enable them to proficiently undergo the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and
work environments. A candidate will not be assessed physically fit unless the complete examination
shows that he/ she is physically and mentally capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental
strain for prolonged periods. The requirements of medical fitness are essentially the same for all
branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity, anthropometry and certain
other physical standards are more stringent.
3. The results of initial examination are recorded on AFMSF – 2. The complete medical
examination consists of:-
(a) A questionnaire, which is to be carefully and truthfully completed by the candidate and
countersigned by the examining medical officer. The importance of all aspects of the
questionnaire, including the legal aspect, should be emphasised to all the candidates. Any
subsequent detection of disability or revelation of a significant past history, not declared earlier,
may lead to disqualification at any stage prior to commissioning. USG abdomen would be
conducted for all candidates and cadets during medical examination prior to commissioning.
(b) A complete medical and surgical examination including dental examination and
gynecological examination in women.
(c) An ophthalmic examination.
(d) An examination of the ear, nose and throat.
4. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. Continuation of
medical fitness during training will be assessed during the periodic medical examinations held at AFA
prior to commissioning.
24
5. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the minimum standards laid down
in the succeeding paragraphs. The physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges and
should be proportionate.
6. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation. If
there is no effect on function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Following categories should be
meticulously assessed:
(a) Spine injuries. Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of
spine or compression of a vertebra will be cause for rejection.
(b) Nerve injuries. Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of
function, or neuroma formation, which causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability
for employment in flying duties.
(c) Keloids. The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a cause for rejection.
7. (a) Surgical Scars. Minor well-healed scars for e.g. as resulting from any superficial
surgery do not, per se, indicate unsuitability for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or
torso that may cause functional limitation or unsightly appearance should be considered
unfit.
(b) Birth Marks. Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or hyper- pigmentation is not
acceptable. Localized, congenital mole/ naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is
<10 cm. Congenital multiple naevi or vascular tumours that interfere with function or are
exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.
(c) Subcutaneous Swellings. Lipoma will be considered fit unless the lipoma is causing
significant disfigurement/ functional impairment due to the size/ location. Neurofibroma, if
single will be considered fit. Multiple neurofibromas associated with significant Café-au-lait
spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than one in number) will be considered unfit.
8. Cervical Rib. Cervical rib without any neuro-vascular compromise will be accepted.
Meticulous clinical examination to rule out neuro-vascular compromise should be performed in such
cases. This should be documented in the Medical Board proceedings.
9. Cranio-facial Deformities. Asymmetry of the face and head or uncorrected deformities of
skull, face or mandible which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask, helmet or military
headgear will be considered unfit. Major deformities even after corrective surgery will be considered
unfit.
10. History relating to Operations. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation
involving extensive surgical intervention or partial/ total excision of any organ is, as a rule, unfit for
service . Operation involving the cranial vault with any residual bony defect will be unfit. Major
thoracic operations will make the candidate unfit.
MEASUREMENTS AND PHYSIQUE
11. Chest Shape and Circumference. The shape of the chest is as important as its actual
measurement. The chest should be well proportioned and well developed. Any chest deformity likely
to interfere with physical exertion during training and performance of military duties or adversely
impact military bearing or are associated with any cardio-pulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are
to be considered unfit. Minimum recommended chest circumference for cadets is 77 cm. The chest
expansion should be at least 05 cm for all candidates. For the purpose of documentation, any decimal
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fraction lower than 0.5 cm will be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such and 0.6 cm and above will
be recorded as 1 cm.
Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length.
12. Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg length,
thigh length and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm
Maximum - 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm
Maximum - 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm
The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches will be 157.5 cm. For Gorkhas and
individual belonging to North-Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum
acceptable height will be 5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from Lakshwadweep the
minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm (155.5 cm).
13. Body Weight Parameters
(a) Male Candidates (except NDA candidates). Ideal weight relative to age and height is
given in Appendix ‘B’ to this notification. The weight will be rounded off to the nearest 0.5 kg.
The maximum permissible variation from the ideal body weight is ± 1 SD.
(b) For in-service candidates the criteria of body weight applicable to serving personnel will
be used.
14. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in
case of those candidates where there is documented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing.
However, in such cases, the following criteria will have to be met:
(a) BMI should be below 27.
(b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for females.
(c) Waist circumference should be less than 94 cm for males and 89 cm for females.
(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
15. Physical Standards (For Females)
(a) Height. The minimum height acceptable for various branches are as follows:-
(i) Flying Branch - 162.5 cm
(ii) Other Branches - 152 cm
Note: For other branches only – For candidates belonging to the North East region or hilly
regions of Uttarakhand, a lower minimum height of 147 cm will be accepted. In case of
candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height will be 150 cm.
(b) Weight. Weight should conform to the standards given for height and age as given
in Appendix ‘B’ to this notification. Variations upto ± 1SD for female candidates are acceptable .
(a) History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks, giddiness, rheumatic
fever, ankle swelling, chorea, frequent sore throats and tonsillitis should be given due
consideration in assessment of the cardiovascular system.
(b) Pulse. Rate, rhythm, volume, tension, regularity of the pulse and conditions of the
arterial wall are assessed. The normal pulse rate varies from 60-100 bpm. The pulse should be
counted for one full minute. The pulsations for the radial and femoral arteries should always be
compared and any difference, if any, should be recorded. Other peripheral pulsations viz.
carotid, popliteal, posterior tibial artery and dorsalis pedis artery on both sides should also be
palpated and any difference, if noted should be documented. Persistent sinus tachycardia (>
100 bpm) as well as persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm) are unfit. In case bradycardia is
considered to be physiological, the candidate can be declared fit after evaluation by Medical
Specialist/ Cardiologist.
(c) Blood Pressure. Candidates are quite prone to develop White Coat Hypertension,
which is a transient rise of BP, due to stress of medical examination. Every effort must be
made to eliminate the White Coat effect by repeated recordings under basal conditions with
the candidate in a relaxed state. An individual with BP consistently greater than or equal to
140/90 mm of Hg shall be rejected.
(d) Cardiac Murmurs. Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for
rejection. Diastolic murmurs are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic
nature and not associated with thrill and which diminish on standing, especially if associated
with a normal ECG and chest radiograph, are most often functional. In case of any doubt the
case should be referred to cardiologist for opinion.
(e) ECG. Assessment of a properly recorded ECG (resting – 12 lead) should be carried out
by a medical specialist. Note will be taken of wave patterns, the amplitude, duration and time
relationship. All ECG abnormalities are unfit except incomplete RBBB which may exist without
any structural heart disease. 2D ECHO should be performed in cases with incomplete RBBB to
rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine) or
Cardiologist should be obtained.
(f) Cardiac surgery and interventions. Candidates with history of cardiac surgery/
intervention in the past will be considered unfit.
(c) Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of significant residual pleural thickening will be a
cause for rejection.
(e) Bronchial Asthma. History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/ wheezing/ allergic
rhinitis will be a cause for rejection.
(f) Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs,
mediastinum and pleurae are criteria for declaring the candidate unfit. If required,
investigations as outlined in para 2 above can be carried out under the advice of a
pulmonologist.
(g) Thoracic surgery. Candidate with history of any resection of the lung parenchyma will
be considered unfit. Any other major surgery of the thorax will be considered on a case to case
basis.
(a) The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of ulceration
or infection of the mouth, tongue, gums or throat. Record should be made of any major dental
alteration. When discussing a candidate‘s medical history the examiner must ask direct
questions about any history of heartburn, history of recurrent dyspepsia, peptic ulcer-type pain,
chronic diarrhoea, jaundice or biliary colic, indigestion, constipation, bleeding PR and any
abdominal surgery.
(b) Head to toe examination. Presence of any sign of liver cell failure (e.g. loss of hair,
parotidomegaly, spider naevi, gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any
evidence of malabsorption (pallor, nail and skin changes, angular cheilitis, pedal edema) will
entail rejection. The condition of oral mucosa, gums and any restriction of mouth opening
should be noted.
(c) Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities. Candidates who are suffering or have suffered, during
the previous one year, from symptoms suggestive of acid-peptic disease including proven
peptic ulcers, are not to be accepted. Any past surgical procedure involving partial or total loss
of an organ (other than vestigial organs/ gall bladder) will entail rejection.
(d) Diseases of the Liver. If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the
liver function is suspected, full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering
from viral hepatitis or any other form of jaundice will be rejected. Such candidates can be
declared fit after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is full clinical
recovery; HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver functions are within normal limits.
History of recurrent jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.
(e) Disease of the Spleen. Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are
unfit, irrespective of the cause for operation.
(f) Hernia. Hernial sites are to be examined for presence of inguinal, epigastric, umbilical
and femoral hernia. Any abdominal wall hernia is unfit. A candidate with a well-healed surgical
scar, after 06 months of either open or laparoscopic repair, is considered fit provided there is
no evidence of recurrence and the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(g) Abdominal Surgery
28
(i) A candidate with well-healed scar after conventional abdominal surgery will be
considered fit after one year of successful surgery provided there is no potential for any
recurrence of the underlying pathology, no evidence of incisional hernia and the
condition of the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(ii) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be considered fit if 08 weeks
have passed since surgery provided they are free from signs and symptoms and their
evaluation including LFT and USG abdomen are normal and there is total absence of
gall bladder with no intra-abdominal collection. Other abdominal laparoscopic
procedures can also be considered fit after 08 weeks of surgery provided the individual
is asymptomatic, recovery is complete and there is no residual complication or evidence
of recurrence.
(h) Anorectal Conditions. The examiner should do a digital rectal examination and rule
out haemorrhoids, sentinel piles, anal skin tags, fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed, rectal
mass or polyps.
(i) Fit
(aa) Only external skin tags.
(ab) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure, fistula or ulcer,
provided there is no residual/ recurrent disease.
(ii) Unfit
(a) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction
(ab) Active anal fissure
(ac) Haemorrhoids (external or internal)
(ad) Anal Fistula
(ae) Anal or rectal polyp
(af) Anal stricture
(ag) Faecal incontinence
(j) Ultrasonography of Abdomen
(i) Liver
(aa) Fit
(aaa) Normal echo-anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic
veins with liver span not exceeding 15 cm in the mid- clavicular line.
(aab) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter
provided that the LFT is normal and hydatid serology is negative.
(aac) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if solitary and less than 1
cm with no evidence of active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis,
hydatid disease or liver abscess based on relevant clinical examinations
and appropriate investigations.
(ab) Unfit
(aaa) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.
(aab) Fatty liver – Grade 2 and 3, grade 1 in presence of abnormal LFT.
29
(a) Enquiry should be made about any alteration in micturition or urinary stream e.g.
dysuria, frequency, poor stream etc. Recurrent attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and
haematuria must be excluded from history. Detailed enquiry must be made about any history
of renal colic, attacks of acute nephritis, any operation on the renal tract including loss of a
kidney, passing of stones or urethral discharges. If there is any history of enuresis, past or
present, full details must be obtained. History of urethral discharge and Sexually Transmitted
Disease (STD) should be elicited.
(b) The external genitalia should be meticulously examined to rule out the presence of
congenital anomalies e.g. hypospadias, epispadias, ambiguous genitalia, undescended testis
(UDT) or ectopic testis etc. Conditions like hydrocele, varicocele, epididymal cyst, phimosis,
urethral stricture, meatal stenosis etc should also be ruled out. The criteria to be followed are
as follows:
(i) Undescended testis (UDT)
(aa) Unfit – Any abnormal position of testis (unilateral or bilateral) is unfit.
Bilateral orchidectomy due to any cause such as trauma, torsion or infection is
unfit.
(ab) Fit - Operatively corrected UDT may be considered fit at least 04 weeks after
surgery, provided after surgical correction, the testis is normal in location and the
wound has healed well. Unilateral atrophic testis/ unilateral orchidectomy for
benign cause may be considered fit, provided other testis is normal in size,
fixation and location.
(ii) Varicocele
31
(ii) Fit - Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the cyst is
peripherally located, round/ oval, with thin smooth wall and no loculations, with
posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no solid component.
(iii) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit candidates will be
subjected to specific investigations and detailed clinical examination. Candidates
having isolated abnormality of echo texture of Kidney may be considered fit if Renal
Function, DTPA scan and CECT kidney is normal.
(h) Scrotum and Testis. The following cases will be made unfit:
(i) Bilateral atrophied testis.
(ii) Varicocele (Unilateral or bilateral).
(iii) Any abnormal location of testis (Unilateral or Bilateral).
(iv) Hydrocele
(v) Epididymal lesions e.g. cyst.
20. ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
(a) History should be carefully elicited for any endocrine conditions particularly Diabetes
Mellitus, disorders of thyroid and adrenal glands, gonads etc. Any history suggestive of
endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection. In case of any doubt, Medical Spl/
Endocrinologist opinion should be taken.
(b) A thorough clinical examination to detect any obvious disease of the endocrine system
should be carried out. Any clinical evidence of endocrine disease will be unfit.
(c) All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and abnormal thyroid
hormone levels will be rejected. All cases of thyroid swelling are unfit.
(d) Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a family
history of Diabetes Mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (Fasting and after Glucose load)
and HbA1c evaluation, which will be recorded.
(c) Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical
conditions. An individual is unsuitable for service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic
or recurrent skin disease. Some of such conditions are described below:-
(ii) Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules, localized only to the
face may be acceptable. However, moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic
type with or without keloidal scarring) or involving the back should be considered unfit.
(iv) Ichthyosis involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident dry, scaly, fissured
skin should be considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) could be considered fit.
(vi) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails should be declared unfit,
especially if associated with nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving
single nail without any dystrophy may be acceptable.
(viii) Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three months after
successful treatment and no recurrence. However, candidates with multiple warts/
corns/ callosities on palms and soles or diffuse palmoplantar mosaic warts, large
callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles should be rejected.
(x) Candidates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma affecting the covered
parts may be accepted. Vitiligo limited only to glans penis and prepuce may be
considered fit. Those having extensive degree of skin involvement and especially, when
the exposed parts are affected, even to a minor degree, should be made unfit.
(d) A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be cause for rejection.
Folliculitis or sycosis barbae from which there has been complete recovery may be considered
fit.
(e) Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a skin disease of a
serious or incapacitating nature e.g. eczema are to be assessed as permanently unfit and
rejected.
(f) Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral nerves should be
examined for any thickness of the nerves and any clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a
ground for rejection.
(g) Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit. Intradermal naevus,
vascular naevi are to be made unfit.
35
(j) Any fungal infection (like Tinea Cruris and Tinea Corporis) of any part of the body will be
unfit.
(l) Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered fit if mild in nature and no
systemic association is seen.
(n) Genital Ulcers should be considered unfit. Anal and perianal area should also be
included as a part of genital examination to rule out STD.
(p) Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on scalp can be accepted.
However if multiple, involving other areas or having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.
(ii) Spina Bifida. The following markers should be looked for, on clinical
examination and corroborated with radiological evaluation:
36
(aa) Congenital defects overlying the spine e.g. hypertrichosis, skin dimpling,
haemangioma, pigmented naevus or dermal sinus.
(ab) Presence of lipoma over spine.
(ac) Palpable spina bifida.
(ad) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.
(d) Radiograph Spine. For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral views) of cervical,
thoracic and lumbosacral spine is to be carried out. For ground duties, radiographic
examination of spine may be carried out, if deemed necessary by Medical Officer/ Specialist.
(e) Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and Ground Duties)
(ab) Hemivertebra
(ae) Spinabifida:- All types are unfit except in sacrum and LV5 (if completely
sacralised)
(ag) Scoliosis:-
(aj) Incomplete Block (fused) vertebra at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar
spine.
(ak) Complete Block (fused) vertebra at more than one level in cervical or
dorsal spine. (Single level is acceptable. Annotation is to be made in AFMSF-2)
(iii) Infective
(iv) Autoimmune
(v) Degenerative
(aa) Spondylosis
(iii) Fracture of the upper limb, presenting 06 months after the injury with none
of the sequelae as mentioned above are acceptable after assessment by
orthopaedic surgeon.
(iv) Fingers and Hands. Syndactyly and polydactyly will be assessed as unfit except
when polydactyly is excised. Deformities and limitations to movements will be
considered unfit.
(v) Wrist. Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be assessed according to
the degree of stiffness. Loss of dorsiflexion is more serious than loss of palmar flexion.
(vi) Elbow. Slight limitation of movement does not bar acceptance provided
functional capacity is adequate. Ankylosis will entail rejection. Cubitus Valgus is said to
be present when the carrying angle (angle between arm and forearm in anatomical
posture) is exaggerated. In absence of functional disability and obvious cause like a
fracture mal-union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto 15º in male and 18º in
female candidates would be made fit.
(vii) Cubitus Varus of > 5 degree will be unfit.
(viii) Shoulder Girdle. History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder with or without
corrective surgery will be unfit.
(ix) Clavicle. Non-union of an old fracture clavicle will entail rejection. Mal-united
clavicle fracture without loss of function and without obvious deformity are acceptable.
(g) CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF LOWER LIMBS
(i) Hallux valgus with angle >20 degrees and first-second metatarsal angle of >10
degrees is unfit. Hallux valgus of any degree with bunion, corns or callosities is unfit.
(ii) Hallux rigidus is unfit for service.
(iii) Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be accepted.
Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer toe associated with corns, callosities, mallet toes or
hyperextension at meta-tarso-phalangeal joint (claw toe deformity) are to be rejected.
(iv) Loss of any digits/ toes entails rejection.
(v) Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with adjacent digits.
Cases of syndactyly will be rejected.
(vi) Pes Planus (Flat feet)
(aa) If the arches of the feet reappear on standing on toes, if the candidate can
skip and run well on the toes and if the feet are supple, mobile and painless, the
candidate is acceptable.
(ab) Rigid or fixed flat feet, gross flat feet, with planovalgus, eversion of heel,
cannot balance himself on toes, cannot skip on the forefoot, tender painful tarsal
joints, prominent head of talus will be considered unfit. Restriction of the
movements of the foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot,
whatever may be the shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.
(vii) Pes Cavus and Talipes (Club Foot). Mild degree of idiopathic pes cavus
without any functional limitation is acceptable. Moderate and severe pes cavus and pes
cavus due to organic disease will entail rejection. All cases of Talipes (Club Foot) will be
rejected.
39
(viii) Ankle Joints. Any significant limitation of movement following previous injuries
will not be accepted. Functional evaluation with imaging should be carried out wherever
necessary.
(ix) Knee Joint. Any ligamentous laxity is not accepted. Candidates who have
undergone ACL reconstruction surgery are to be considered unfit.
(x) Genu valgum (knock knee) with intermalleolar distance > 5 cm in males and > 8
cm in females will be unfit.
(xi) Genu varum (bow legs) with intercondylar distance >7 cm will be considered
unfit.
(xii) Genu Recurvatum. If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degrees and is
unaccompanied by any other deformity, the candidate should be accepted as fit.
(xiii) True lesions of the hip joint or early signs of arthritis will entail rejection.
(xiv) Peripheral Vascular System
(aa) Varicose Veins. All cases with active varicose veins will be declared unfit.
Post-op cases of varicose veins also remain unfit.
(ab) Arterial System. Current or history of abnormalities of the arteries and
blood vessels e.g. aneurysms, arteritis and peripheral arterial disease will
be considered unfit.
(ac) Lymphoedema. History of past/ current disease makes the candidate
unfit.
(a) A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological afflictions requires detailed
investigation and psychiatric referral. Such cases should normally be rejected. Most often the
history is not volunteered. The examiner should try to elicit a history by direct questioning,
which may or may not be fruitful. Every examiner should form a general impression of the
candidate’s personality as a whole and may enquire into an individual’s stability and habitual
reactions to difficult and stressful situations. Family history and prior history of using
medication is also relevant.
(c) Common types of recurrent headaches are those due to former head injury or migraine.
Other forms of occasional headache must be considered in relation to their probable cause. A
candidate with migraine, which was severe enough to make him consult his doctor, should
normally be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack of migraine with visual disturbance or
Migrainous epilepsy is to be made unfit.
(d) History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Convulsions/ fits after the age
of five are also a cause for rejection. Convulsions in infancy may not be of ominous nature
provided it appears that the convulsions were febrile convulsions and were not associated with
any overt neurological deficit. Causes of epilepsy include genetic factors, traumatic brain
injury, stroke, infection, demyelinating and degenerative disorders, birth defects, substance
abuse and withdrawal seizures. Enquiry should not be limited only to the occurrence of major
attacks. Seizures may masquerade as ― “faints” and therefore the frequency and the
conditions under which ― “faints” took place must be elicited. Such attacks will be made unfit,
40
whatever their apparent nature. An isolated fainting attack calls for enquiry into all the
attendant factors to distinguish between syncope and seizures e.g. fainting in school are of
common occurrence and may have little significance. Complex partial seizures, which may
manifest as vegetative movements as lip smacking, chewing, staring, dazed appearance and
periods of unresponsiveness, are criteria for making the candidate unfit.
(e) History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion bars
employment for Air Force duties, as it is an evidence of a faulty heat regulating mechanism. A
single severe attack of heat effects, provided the history of exposure was severe, and no
permanent sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for rejecting the candidate.
(f) A history of severe head injury is a cause for rejection. Other sequelae of head injury
like post-concussion syndrome, focal neurological deficit and post traumatic epilepsy should be
noted which may be associated with subjective symptoms of headache, giddiness, insomnia,
restlessness, irritability, poor concentration and attention deficits. Post traumatic
neuropsychological impairment can also occur which includes deficits in attention
concentration, information processing speeds, mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive
functions and psychosocial functioning. Neuropsychological testing including pyschometry
can assess these aspects. It is important to realize that sequelae may persist for considerable
period and may even be permanent. Fracture of the skull need not be a cause for rejection
unless there is a history of associated intracranial damage or any residual bony defect in the
calvaria. When there is a history of severe injury or an associated convulsive attack, an
electroencephalogram should be carried out which must be normal. Presence of burr holes will
be cause for rejection for flying duties, but not for ground duties. Each case is to be judged on
individual merits. Opinion of Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist must be obtained before
acceptance.
(g) When a history of nervous breakdown, mental disease, or suicide of a near relative is
obtained, a careful investigation of the personal past history from a psychological point of view
is to be obtained. Any evidence of even the slightest psychological instability in the personal
history or present condition should entail rejection and the candidate should be referred to the
psychiatrist for further evaluation.
(h) If a family history of epilepsy is admitted, an attempt should be made to determine its
type. When the condition has occurred in a near (first degree) relative, the candidate may be
accepted, if he has no history of associated disturbance of consciousness, neurological deficit
or higher mental functions and his electroencephalogram is completely normal.
(j) The assessment of emotional stability must include family and personal history, any
indication of emotional instability under stress as evidenced by the occurrence of undue
emotionalism as a child or of any previous nervous illness or breakdown. The presence of
stammering, tic, nail biting, excessive hyperhydrosis or restlessness during examination could
be indicative of emotional instability and should be made unfit.
(k) All candidates who are suffering from psychosis are to be rejected. Drug dependence
in any form will also be a cause for rejection.
(l) Psychoneurosis. Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for
commissioning. Juvenile and adult delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-
health is causes for rejection. Particular attention should be paid to such factors as unhappy
childhood, poor family background, truancy, juvenile and adult delinquency, poor employment
and social maladjustment records, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health,
particularly if these have interfered with employment in the past.
(n) Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally innervated muscle groups.
Two categories are recognized: normal or physiologic and abnormal or pathologic. Fine tremor
is present in all contracting muscle groups, it persists throughout the waking state, the
movement is fine between 8 to 13 Hz. Pathologic tremor is coarse, between 4 to 7 Hz and
usually affects the distal part of limbs. Gross tremors are generally due to enhanced
physiological causes where, at the same frequency, the amplitude of the tremor is grossly
enhanced and is elicited by outstretching the arms and fingers which are spread apart. This
occurs in cases of excessive fright, anger, anxiety, intense physical exertion, metabolic
disturbances including hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal and toxic effects of lithium,
smoking (nicotine) and excessive tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse tremor are
Parkinsonism, cerebellar tremors (intentional tremors), essential (familial) tremor, tremors of
neuropathy and postural or action tremors.
(o) Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force duties. Careful
assessment by ENT Specialist, Speech therapist, psychologist/ psychiatrist may be required in
doubtful cases.
(iii) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal paroxysmal spikes and slow
waves persisting in post-photic stimulation period/suppression or driving
response over one hemisphere.
(q) Non specific EEG abnormality will be acceptable provided opinion of Neuropsychiatrist/
Neurophysician is obtained. The findings of EEG will be entered in AFMSF-2. In case an EEG
is reported as abnormal, the cadet would be referred to CHAF (B) for a comprehensive
evaluation by neurophysician followed by review by a Board at IAM IAF.
(a) History. Any significant history of otorrhoea, hearing loss, vertigo including motion
sickness, tinnitus etc is to be elicited.
(b) Nose and Para-nasal Sinuses. The following entails rejection:
(i) Gross external deformity of nose causing cosmetic deformity may be rejected if it
adversely impacts military bearing. However, minor deformities of dorsum and nasal tip
should not be a cause of rejection.
(ii) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal deviation. Post
corrective surgery with residual mild deviation with adequate airway patency will be
acceptable.
42
(f) The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration, localization, severity
and possible causation. Persistent tinnitus is a cause for rejection, as it is liable to become
worse through exposure to noise and may be a precursor to Otosclerosis and Meniere’s
disease.
(g) Specific enquiry should be made for any susceptibility to motion sickness. An
endorsement to this effect should be made in AFMSF-2. Such cases will be fully evaluated
and, if found susceptible to motion sickness, they will be rejected for flying duties. Any
evidence of peripheral vestibular dysfunction due to any cause will entail rejection.
(h) A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated thoroughly.
(j) Hearing loss. The following are not acceptable:
(i) Any reduction less than 600 cm in CV/ FW.
(ii) Wherever PTA is indicated and thresholds are obtained, the audiometric loss
greater than 20 db, in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz.
(iii) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.
Note: In evaluating the audiogram, the baseline zero of the audiometer and the
environmental noise conditions under which the audiogram has been obtained should
be taken into consideration. On the recommendation of an ENT Specialist, an isolated
unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be condoned provided ENT examination is
otherwise normal.
(k) Ears. A radical/modified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection even if completely
epithelialised and good hearing is preserved. Cases of cortical mastoidectomy in the past with
the tympanic membrane intact, normal hearing and presenting no evidence of disease may be
accepted.
(l) External Ear. The following defects of external ear should be declared unfit:
(i) Gross deformity of pinna which may hamper wearing of uniform/ personal kit/
protective equipment, or which adversely impacts military bearing.
(ii) Cases of chronic otitis externa.
(iii) Exostoses, atreisa/ narrowing of EAM or neoplasm preventing a proper
examination of the ear drum.
(iv) Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the anterior view of the tympanic
membrane will be a cause for rejection.
(v) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.
(m) Middle Ear. The following conditions of middle ear will entail rejection:-
(i) Current otitis media of any type.
(ii) Attic, central or marginal perforation.
(iii) Tympanosclerosis or scarring affecting >50 % of the Pars Tensa of TM is unfit
even if PTA and tympanometry are normal. Evidence of healed chronic Otitis Media
in the form of Tympanosclerosis or scarrign affecting <50 % of Pars Tensa of TM will be
assessed by ENT spl and will be acceptable if PTA and tympanometry are normal. A
trial of decompression chamber may be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew, ATC/FC,
submariners/divers.
(iv) Any residual perforation in cases of old otitis media.
44
(iv) These cases of Ectropion/ Entropion are to be made unfit. Mild ectropion and
entropion which in the opinion of ophthalmologist will not hamper day to day functioning
in any way, may be made fit.
(v) All cases of progressive pterygium to be made unfit by recruiting MO and
specialist. Regressive non vascularised pterygium likely to be stationary occupying ≤
1.5 mm of the peripheral cornea may be made fit by eye spl after measurement on a slit
lamp.
(vi) All cases of nystagmus are to be made unfit except for physiologic nystagmus.
(vii) Naso-lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails rejection,
unless surgery produces relief lasting for a minimum of six months and the post op
syringing is patent.
(viii) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently recurrent, and candidates
giving a history of or exhibiting this condition should be carefully assessed. When there
is evidence of permanent lesions such candidates should be rejected.
(ix) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it does not interfere
with vision. Such cases should be carefully assessed before acceptance, as many
conditions are recurrent.
(x) Cases with Lenticular opacities should be assessed carefully. As a guideline any
opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is present in an area of 7
mm around the pupil, which may cause glare phenomena, should not be considered fit.
The propensity of the opacities not to increase in number or size should also be a
consideration when deciding fitness. Small stationary lenticular opacities in the
periphery like congenital Blue Dot cataract, not affecting the visual axis/ visual field may
be considered fit by specialist. (It should be less than 10 in number and central area of 4
mm to be clear).
(xi) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a migrainous type are not a
strictly ocular problem, and should be assessed in accordance with para 3 of Central
Nervous System Section mentioned above. Presence of diplopia or detection of
nystagmus requires proper examination, as they can be due to physiological reasons.
(xii) Night blindness is largely congenital but certain diseases of the eye exhibit night
blindness as an early symptom and hence, proper investigations are necessary before
final assessment. As tests for night blindness are not routinely performed, a certificate
to the effect that the individual does not suffer from night blindness will be obtained in
every case. Certificate should be as per Appendix ‘D’ to this notification. A proven
case of night-blindness is unfit for service.
(xiii) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and undue depression/
prominence of the eyeball requires proper assessment.
(xiv) Retinal lesions. A small healed chorio-retinal scar in the retinal periphery not
affecting the vision and not associated with any other complications can be made fit by
specialist. Similarly a small lattice in periphery with no other complications can be made
fit. Any lesion in the central fundus will be made unfit by the specialist.
(c) Visual Acuity/ Colour Vision. The visual acuity and colour vision requirements are
detailed in Appendix ‘C’ to this notification. Those who do not meet these requirements are to
be rejected.
(d) Myopia. If there is a strong family history of Myopia, particularly if it is established that
the visual defect is recent, if physical growth is still expected, or if the fundus appearance is
46
suggestive of progressive myopia, even if the visual acuity is within the limit prescribed, the
candidate should be declared unfit.
(e) Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone Photo Refractive Keratotomy
(PRK)/ Laser in-situ Kearomileusis (LASIK) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air
Force in all branches. Post PRK/LASIK candidates must meet the following criteria of visual
requirements for the branch as laid down below:-
(i) PRK/LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20
years.
(ii) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 26 mm as
measured by IOL master.
(iii) At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable
PRK/LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
(iv) The post PRK/LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal
pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
(v) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to LASIK are to be
excluded.
(f) Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for
any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL
implants will also be declared unfit.
(g) OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE
(i) Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for commissioning. The
assessment of latent squint or heterophoria in the case of aircrew will be mainly based
on the assessment of the fusion capacity. A strong fusion sense ensures the
maintenance of binocular vision in the face of stress and fatigue. Hence, it is the main
criterion for acceptability.
(aa) Convergence (as assessed on RAF rule)
(aaa) Objective Convergence. Average is from 6.5 to 8 cm. It is poor at
10 cm and above.
(aab) Subjective Convergence (SC). This indicates the end point of
binocular vision under the stress of convergence. If the subjective
convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of objective
convergence, the fusion capacity is poor. This is specially so when the
objective convergence is 10 cm and above.
(ab) Accommodation. In the case of myopes, accommodation should be
assessed with corrective glasses in position. The acceptable values for
accommodation in various age groups are given in Table 1.
Table 1 - Accommodation Values – Age wise
(h). Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety, fatigue,
hypoxia, drugs and alcohol. The above tests should be considered together for the final
assessment. For example, cases just beyond the maximum limits of the Maddox Rod test, but
47
who show a good binocular response, a good objective convergence with little difference from
subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on the cover tests may be accepted. On
the other hand, cases well within Maddox Rod test limits, but who show little or no fusion
capacity, incomplete or no recovery on the cover tests, and poor subjective convergence
should be rejected. Standards for assessment of Ocular Muscle Balance are detailed in
Appendix ‘C’ to notification.
(j) Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which is of
pathological nature and likely to progress will be a cause for rejection. This examination will be
done by slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy under mydriasis.
26. HAEMOPOIETIC SYSTEM
(a) History of easy fatiguability, general weakness, petechiae/ ecchymosis, bleeding from
gums and alimentary tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma and menorrhagia in case of
females should be carefully elicited. All candidates should be examined for clinical evidence of
pallor (anaemia), malnutrition, icterus, peripheral lymphadenopathy, purpura, petechiae/
ecchymoses and hepatosplenomegaly.
(b) In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in males and <11.5g/dl in
females), further evaluation to ascertain type of anaemia and aetiology has to be carried out.
This should include a complete haemogram (to include the PCV MCV, MCH, MCHC, TRBC,
TWBC, DLC, Platelet count, reticulocyte count and ESR) and a peripheral blood smear. All the
other tests to establish the aetiology will be carried out, as required. Ultrasonography of
abdomen for gallstones, upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin electrophoresis
etc. may be done, as indicated, and the fitness of the candidate, decided on the merit of each
case.
(c) Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency anaemia) or dimorphic
anaemia (Hb < 10.5g/dl in females and < 11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, may be made
temporarily unfit for a period of 04 to 06 weeks followed by review thereafter. These
candidates can be accepted, if the complete haemogram and PCV, peripheral smear results
are within the normal range. Candidates with macrocytic/ megaloblastic anaemia will be
assessed unfit.
(d) All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolytic anaemias (due to red cell
membrane defect or due to red cell enzyme deficiencies) and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell
disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major, Intermedia, Minor, Trait and Alpha Thalassaemia etc.) are
to be considered unfit for service.
(e) In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like ecchymosis/ petechiae,
epistaxis, bleeding from gums and alimentary tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma or
lacerations/ tooth extraction or menorrhagia in females and any family history of haemophilia
or other bleeding disorders a full evaluation will be carried out. These cases will not be
acceptable for entry to service. All candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of
thrombocytopenia are to be considered unfit for service. Cases of Purpura Simplex (simple
easy bruising), a benign disorder seen in otherwise healthy women, may be accepted.
(f) Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand‘s disease, on evaluation, are to
be declared unfit for service at entry level.
27. ASSESSMENT OF WOMEN CANDIDATES
History Detailed menstrual and obstetric history, in addition to general medical history,
must be taken and recorded.If a history of menstrual, obstetric or pelvic abnormality is given;
an opinion of gynaecologist is to be obtained.
48
(aa) Any lump in the breast will be a cause for rejection. Cases of
fibroadenoma breast after successful surgical removal may be considered fit with
the opinion of a surgical specialist and a normal histopathological report.
(ag) Significant hirsutism especially with male pattern of hair growth is seen.
(iii) Any other gynaecological condition not covered above will be considered on
merits of each case by gynecologist.
49
(c) Pregnancy Pregnancy would be cause for temporary rejection. The individual would
be advised to report again to the hospital 24 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. In
case of an MTP/ Abortion the review will be carried out after a period of minimum four weeks
and up to 12 weeks. However, in case of caesarean section delivery, lady the candidate would
remain unfit for a period of 52 weeks. The individual would then be examined by the
Gynaecologist and assessed regarding her fitness. In cases wherein, a time period of more
than six months has elapsed, post her initial medical examination, she would be subjected to
repeat complete medical examination as per the existing regulations.
(d) Ultrasonography of lower abdomen and pelvis for Women Candidates. This would
be done as per existing orders
(i) Fit
(ii) Unfit
(ac) Fibroids
(aaa) Multiple fibroid more than 02 in number, with larger one >15 mm in
size.
(ad) Adenomyosis
(ae) Adnexa
(aac) Endometriosis
(aad) Hydrosalpinx.
(iii) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit candidates will be
subjected to specific investigations and detailed clinical examination. Fitness for specific
conditions will be decided as given below:-
50
(aa) Fluid in POD with internal echoes will be assessed with TLC, DLC and C
Reactive Protein. Senior Adviser (Obs and Gynae) to opine on fitness.
(a) The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of major
dental procedures or alterations. Significant past history of ulceration or infection of the tongue,
gums or throat should be documented. History suggestive of premalignant lesions or
pathologies that are prone for recurrence should be elicted.
(b) Dental Standards. The following dental standards are to be followed and candidates
whose dental standard does not conform to the laid down standards will be rejected:-
(i) Candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points and the following teeth must
be present in the upper jaw in good functional opposition with the corresponding teeth
in the lower jaw:-
(i) Any four of the six anterior
(ii) Any six of the ten posterior
(ii) Each incisor, canine 1st and 2nd premolar will have a value of one point
provided their corresponding opposite teeth are present.
(iii) Each 1st and 2nd molar and well developed 3rd molar will have the value of two
points, provided in good opposition to corresponding teeth in the opposing jaw.
(iv) In case 3rd molar is not well developed, it will have a value of one point only.
(v) When all the 16 teeth are present in the upper jaw and in good functional
opposition to corresponding teeth in the lower jaw, the total value will be 20 or 22
points according to whether the 3rd molars are well developed or not.
(vi) All removable dental prosthesis will be removed during oral examination and
not be awarded any dental points except in the case of ex-serviceman applying for re-
enrolment, who will be awarded dental points for well fitting removable prostheses.
(c) Extra oral examination
(i) Gross facial examination. Presence of any gross asymmetry or soft/ hard
tissue defects/ scars or if any incipient pathological condition of the jaw is
suspected, it will be a cause of rejection.
(ii) Functional examination
51
(ad) Traumatic bite. Anterior teeth involved in a deep impinging bite which is
causing traumatic indentations on the palate will not be counted for award of
points.
(viii) Hard and Soft tissues. Soft tissues of cheek, lips, palate, tongue and sublingual
region and maxilla/mandibular bony apparatus must be examined for any swelling,
discoloration, ulcers, scars, white patches, sub mucous fibrosis etc. All potentially
malignant lesions will be cause for rejection. Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis
with or without restriction of mouth opening will be a cause of rejection. Bony lesion(s)
will be assessed for their pathological/physiological nature and commented upon
accordingly. Any hard or soft tissue lesion will be a cause of rejection.
(ix) Orthotic appliances. Fixed orthodontics lingual retainers will not be considered
as periodontal splints and teeth included in these retainers will be awarded points for
dental fitness. Candidates wearing fixed or removable orthodontic appliances will be
declared UNFIT.
(x) Dental implants. When an implant supported crown replaces a single missing
tooth, the prosthesis may be awarded dental points as for natural teeth provided the
prosthesis is in functional apposition and the integrity of the implant is confirmed.
(xi) Fixed Partial Dentures (FPD) / Implant supported FPDs. FPDs will be
assessed clinically and radiologically for firmness, functional apposition to opposing
teeth and periodontal health of the abutments. If all parameters are found satisfactory,
dental points will be awarded as follows:-
(aa) Tooth supported FPDs
(aaa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be awarded for the abutments
and the pontic.
(aab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to
the abutments. No points will be awarded for the pontics.
(aac) Cantilever FDPs. Dental points will be awarded only to the
abutments.
(ab) Implant supported FPDs
(aaa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be awarded for the natural
teeth, implant and the pontic.
(aab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to
the natural teeth. No points are to be awarded for pontics and implant(s).
(aac) Two unit cantilever FPDs. Dental points will be awarded only to the
implants.
(xii) A maximum of 02 implants will be permitted in a candidate. No points will be
given for implants/implant supported prosthesis in excess of the 02 permissible
implants. In the case of a candidate having 03 more implants/implant supported
prosthesis, which 02 are to be awarded marks will be based on the clinical judgment of
the dental officer.
(e) The following will be criteria for declaring a candidate UNFIT
(i) Oral hygiene. Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus,
periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from gums will render candidate UNFIT.
53
Appendix-B
[Refers to Para 13 (a)]
HEIGHT AND WEIGHT PARAMETERS FOR AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION ONLINE
TEST (AFCAT- 01/2022) FOR FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND
NON-TECHNICAL)/NCC SPECIAL ENTRY FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN JANUARY
2023
CANDIDATES ON ENTRY
Height in cm Weight in Kg
20-25 years 26-30 years
148 43 46
149 44 47
150 45 48
151 45 48
152 46 49
153 47 50
154 47 50
155 48 51
156 49 52
157 49 53
158 50 53
159 51 54
160 51 55
161 52 55
162 52 56
163 53 57
164 54 57
165 54 58
166 55 59
167 56 60
168 56 60
169 57 61
170 58 62
171 58 62
172 59 63
173 59 64
174 60 64
175 61 65
176 61 66
177 62 67
178 63 67
SD 5 5
55
Appendix ‘C’
[Refers to Para 25 (c)]
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR AIR FORCE ADMISSION ONLINE TEST (AFCAT-01/2022) FOR
FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL)/NCC SPECIAL
ENTRY FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN JANUARY 2023 CANDIDATES ON ENTRY
Note 1. Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2 should conform to
Appendix C to this Chapter.
Note 2. Visual standards of Air Wing Cadets at NDA and Flt Cdts of F (P) at AFA should
conform to A1G1 F (P) standard (S1. No. 1 of Appendix B)
Note 3. The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the specified astigmatic
correction factor. A minimum correction factor upto the specified visual acuity standard can be
accepted
57
Appendix ‘D’
[Refers to para 25 (b)(xii)]
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of night
blindness in our family, and I do not suffer from it.
Countersigned by