10th physics

Ch#10
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Any distance of the vibrating body from d) 2.99s
mean position is called as: 9) The frequency of the simple pendulum 1.0m
a) Time period long is:
b) Frequency a) 1.56Hz
c) Amplitude b) 2.56Hz
d) Displacement c) 0.50Hz
2) The maximum displacement on either side of d) 2.99Hz
the mean position is called as 10) Simple harmonic motion occurs when the
a) Time period net force is _______ to the displacement.
b) Frequency a) Inversly Proportional
c) Amplitude b) Directly proportional
d) Displacement c) Equal
3) The time to complete one vibration is called d) None of these
a) Time period 11) In simple harmonic motion the net force is
b) Frequency always directed towards _______ position.
c) Amplitude a) Initial
d) Displacement b) Extreme
4) The number of vibrations of vibrating body in c) Mean
one second is called as d) None of these
a) Time period 12) The waves which require any medium for
b) Frequency their propagation are called:
c) Amplitude a) Mechanical waves
d) Displacement b) Electromagnetic waves
5) Amplitude is denoted by c) Both of these
a) x d) None of these
b) xo 13) The waves in which direction of oscillations
c) f are __________ direction of propagation of
d) None of these waves are called transverse waves.
6) The to and fro motion of the body about its a) Perpendicular
mean position is called as b) Parallel
a) Vibrational motion c) Opposite
b) Linear motion d) None of these
c) Translatory motion 14) Longitudinal waves consists of :
d) Circular motion a) Compression
7) The period of pendulum is independent of its b) Rarefaction
a) Length c) Both a and b
b) Mass d) None of these
c) Amplitude 15) Transverse waves consists of ________
d) Both b and c a) Crest
8) What is the time period of the simple b) Trough
pendulum 1.0m long? c) Both a and b
a) 1.56s d) None of these
b) 1.22s 16) Longitudinal waves moves ________
c) 1.99s through solids than through liquids and gases.
a) Slower 24) The lowest points from the mean position in
b) Faster transverse waves are called
c) Moderately a) Compression
d) None of these b) Rarefaction
17) Transverse waves moves through solids at a c) Crests
speed of less than ________ of the speed of d) Troughs
longitudinal waves. 25) The distance between two consecutive
a) Double crests is called:
b) Same a) Wavelength
c) Half b) Phase
d) Thrice c) Amplitude
18) Water waves and sound waves are an d) Displacement
example of 26) A wave on slinky spring with frequency 4Hz
a) Mechanical waves and wavelength of 0.4m has speed:
b) Electromagnetic waves a) 1.9 m/s
c) Both of these b) 1.6 m/s
d) None of these c) 1.1 m/s
19) X-rays, light waves and radio waves are an d) 0.9 m/s
example of: 27) Ripple tank is a device to produce ________
a) Mechanical waves and study their characteristics.
b) Electromagnetic waves a) String waves
c) Both of above b) Light waves
d) None of these c) Water waves
20) The waves in which direction of oscillations d) None of these
of medium are parallel to direction of 28) The bending and spreading of waves around
propagation of waves are called. the sharp edges or corners of obstacles is
a) Transverse waves called:
b) Longitudinal waves a) Refraction
c) Mechanical waves b) Reflection
d) Electromagnetic waves c) Diffraction
21) The transfer of energy from sun to earth d) None of these
takes place by means of: 29) The process in which waves enter from one
a) Longitudinal Waves medium to second medium at some angle their
b) Matter direction of travel may change is called:
c) Electromagnetic waves a) Refraction
d) Transverse waves b) Reflection
22) When a bullet is fired from gun then energy c) Diffraction
is transferred to the target through: d) None of these
a) Waves 30) Which of the following is the method of
b) Matter energy transfer?
c) X-rays a) Conduction
d) None of these b) Radiation
23) The highest points from the mean position c) Wave motion
in transverse waves are called d) All of these
a) Compressions 31) If the mass of the bob of pendulum is
b) Rarefactions increased by a factor of 3, the period of
c) Crests pendulum motion will:
d) Troughs a) Be increased by a factor of 2
b) Remain same a) Energy
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 b) Frequency
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 c) Wavelength
32) If the length of a simple pendulum is d) Velocity
increased 4 times, the period of pendulum 37) Which of the following is a method of
motion will: energy transfer?
a) Be increased by a factor of 2 a) Conduction
b) Remain same b) Radiation
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 c) Wave motion
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 d) All of these
33) Which of the following is an example of 38) In a vacuum all electromagnetic waves have
simple harmonic motion? the same
a) Motion of a simple pendulum a) Speed
b) The motion of ceiling fan b) Frequency
c) The spinning of the earth on its axis c) Amplitude
d) A bouncing ball on a floor d) Wavelength
34) If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is 39) A large ripple tank with a vibrator working
increased by a factor of 3, the period of the at a frequency of 30 Hz produces 25 complete
pendulum’s motion will waves in a distance of 50 cm. The velocity of the
a) By increased by a factor of 2 wave is
b) Remain same a) 53cms-1
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 b) 60 cms-1
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 c) 750 cms-1
35) Which of the following devices can be used d) 1500 cms-1
to produce both a transverse and longitudinal 40) Which of the following characteristics of a
wave? wave is independent of the others
a) A string a) Speed
b) A ripple tank b) Frequency
c) a helical spring (slinky) c) Amplitude
d) A tuning fork d) Wavelength
36) Waves transfer

ch#11
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Which type of waves produced by tuning b) Electromagnetic
fork? c) Longitudinal
a) Water d) None of these
b) Sound 4) The speed of sound in air at 0oC is:
c) Light a) 336 m/s
d) Matter b) 346 m/s
2) Sound waves are: c) 313 m/s
a) Mechanical d) 364 m/s
b) Electromagnetic 5) The speed of sound in air at 21oC is:
c) Transverse a) 331 m/s
d) None of these b) 343 m/s
3) Light waves are: c) 313 m/s
a) Mechanical d) 364 m/s
6) The speed of sound in air at 100oC is: b) Humidity
a) 331 m/s c) Pressure
b) 346 m/s d) All of these
c) 368 m/s 16) How many times speed of sound waves in
d) 386 m/s solid is grater than in gases?
7) The speed of sound in Hydrogen at 0o C is: a) Two
a) 1920m/s b) Five
b) 2290m/s c) Fifteen
c) 1290m/s d) Twenty
d) 364m/s 17) If the amplitude of sound waves is greater
8) The speed of sound in oxygen at 0oC is: then what will be the magnitude of loudness?
a) 331 m/s a) Larger
b) 317 m/s b) Smaller
c) 313 m/s c) Moderate
d) 364 m/s d) Equal in magnitude
9) The speed of sound in helium at 0oC is: 18) The loudness of sound is larger if the area of
a) 972 m/s vibrating body is:
b) 2972 m/s a) Smaller
c) 1972 m/s b) Rectangular
d) 3972 m/s c) Larger
10) The speed of sound in sea water at 25oC is: d) Circular
a) 3331 m/s 19) If the distance between the listener and
b) 1346 m/s vibrating body is larger then what will be the
c) 1531 m/s loudness of sound?
d) 1764 m/s a) Smaller
11) The speed of sound in brass at 25oC is: b) Medium
a) 3331 m/s c) Larger
b) 1346 m/s d) None of these
c) 1531 m/s 20) The value of pitch of sound depends on:
d) 4700 m/s a) Amplitude of body
12) The speed of sound in flint glass at 25oC is: b) Area of body
a) 3331 m/s c) Distance of body
b) 1346 m/s d) Frequency of sound waves
c) 3980 m/s 21) The quality of sound waves depends on:
d) 1790 m/s a) Amplitude of body
13) The speed of sound in wood at 25oC is: b) Shape of sound waves
a) 200 m/s c) Distance of body
b) 2000 m/s d) Frequency of sound waves
c) 205 m/s 22) What is the unit of intensity of sound?
d) 1764 m/s a) W/m
14) The speed of sound in distilled water at b) W/m2
25oC is: c) W/m3
a) 3331 m/s d) W
b) 1346 m/s 23) The quality of sound due to which a shrill
c) 1948 m/s voice can be distinguished by a grave voice is
d) 1498 m/s called as:
15) The speed of sound waves depends on the: a) Loudness
a) Temperature b) Intensity
c) Quality a) 100W / m2
d) Pitch b) 1W / m2
24) The intensity of faintest audible sound is: c) Both of above
a) 10-12W/m2 d) None of these
b) 10-10W/m2 33) What is the intensity of sound of lawn
c) 101W/m2 mover?
d) 100W/m2 a) 10-2W /m2
25) 1 bel is equal to: b) 10-5W /m2
a) 10-11W/m2 c) 10-10W /m2
b) 10dB d) 10-6W /m2
c) Both a and b 34) What is the intensity of sound of whisper?
d) None of these a) 10-2W /m2
26) 1dB is equal to: b) 10-13W /m2
a) 0.01 bel c) 10-9W /m2
b) 0.1 bel d) 10-6W /m2
c) 0.001 bel 35) What is the intensity level of sound of
d) 10-13 W/m2 mosquito buzzing?
27) What is the SI unit of intensity level? a) 10 dB
a) Watt b) 100 dB
b) Watt per meter c) 70 dB
c) Bel d) 40 dB
d) Joule 36) What is the intensity level of sound of
28) What is the maximum frequency of sound jackhammer?
waves that a human ear can hear? a) 150 dB
a) 20,000Hz b) 130 dB
b) 200Hz c) 100 dB
c) 15000Hz d) 500 dB
d) 20Hz 37) The technique which is used to absorb
29) 100 m amplitude can be related to how undesirable sounds by soft and porous surfaces
many decibels? is called as:
a) 20dB a) Acoustics
b) 10dB b) Reflection
c) 30dB c) Refraction
d) 40dB d) SONAR
30) The sounds which cast a pleasant effect on 38) What is the speed of sound at STP?
our ears is called as: a) 300m/s
a) Music b) 330m/s
b) Noise c) 360m/s
c) Both a and b d) 390m/s
d) None of these 39) What is the minimum distance between
31) What is the recommended level of noise in obstacle and source required to hear echo?
most of the countries for an eight hour work a) 20 m
day? b) 30 m
a) 85-90 bel c) 17 m
b) 85-90 dB d) 27 m
c) 100 dB 40) What is the frequency of a sound wave with
d) 100 bel speed of 340 m/s and 0.5m wavelength?
32) What is the intensity of sound of train siren? a) 660 Hz
b) 670 Hz a) Tuning fork
c) 680 Hz b) Bell jar
d) 690 Hz c) Drum
41) What is the highest frequency of sound d) None of these
waves that a bat can hear? 49) Which is an example of a longitudinal wave?
a) 120,000 Hz a) Sound wave
b) 150,000 Hz b) Light wave
c) 200,000 Hz c) Radio wave
d) 100, 000 Hz d) Water wave
42) What is the highest audible frequency of 50) How does sound travel from its source to
sound wave for mice? your car?
a) 120,000 Hz a) By change in air pressure
b) 150,000 Hz b) By vibrating in wires or strings
c) 200,000 Hz c) By electromagnetic waves
d) 100, 000 Hz d) By infrared waves
43) What is the highest audible frequency of 51) Which form of energy is sound;
sound wave for dog? a) Electrical
a) 55,000 Hz b) Mechanical
b) 45,000 Hz c) Thermal
c) 65,000 Hz d) Chemical
d) 35,000 Hz 52) Astronauts in space used to communicate
44) What is the highest audible frequency of with each other by radio links because
sound wave for cat? a) Sounds waves travel very slowly in space
a) 25,000 Hz b) Sound waves travel very fast in space
b) 45,000 Hz c) Sound waves cannot travel in space
c) 65,000 Hz d) Sound waves have low frequency in space
d) 35,000 Hz 53) The loudness of a sound is most closely
45) The sound waves having frequency greater related to its
than 20,000 Hz are called: a) Frequency
a) Infrasound b) Period
b) Ultrasounds c) Wavelength
c) Intensity d) Amplitude
d) Quality 54) For a normal person, audible frequency
46) The sound waves having frequency less than range for sound wave lie between
20 Hz are called: a) 10 Hz and 10 KHz
a) Infrasound b) 20 Hz and 20 KHz
b) Ultrasounds c) 25 Hz and 25 KHz
c) Intensity d) 30 Hz and 30 KHz
d) Quality 55) When the frequency of a sound wave is
47) What is the audible frequency range? increased, which of the following will decrease?
a) 20 Hz-2000 Hz I) Wavelength II) period
b) 20 Hz-20,000 Hz III) amplitude
c) 20 Hz-200 Hz a) i only
d) 20Hz-200000Hz b) iii only
48) Which device is used to produce sound c) i and ii only
waves in laboratory? d) i and iii only
 ch#12
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Light is the form of: 9) The mirror which is made up of a part of
a) Energy hollow sphere of glass or plastic is called:
b) Waves a) Spherical mirror
c) Both of above b) Lens
d) None of these c) Microscope
2) Light gives the sensation of: d) Prism
a) Hearing 10) How many types of spherical mirror are
b) Vision there?
c) Both of above a) 1
d) None of these b) 2
3) The bouncing back of light in to the same c) 3
medium is called as: d) 4
a) Reflection 11) The mirror having its inner reflecting surface
b) Refraction called as:
c) Diffraction a) Spherical mirror
d) Vibration b) Convex spherical mirror
4) How many types of reflection are there? c) Concave spherical mirror
a) 3 d) Plane mirror
b) 2 12) The mirror having its outer reflecting
c) 4 surface called as:
d) 5 a) Spherical mirror
5) The reflection of light from smooth surface is b) Convex spherical mirror
called as: c) Concave spherical mirror
a) Reflection d) Plane mirror
b) Regular reflection 13) Which types of image can be formed by
c) Irregular reflection concave spherical mirror?
d) Smooth reflection a) Real
6) The reflection of light from rough surface is b) Virtual
called as: c) Both of above
a) Reflection d) None of these
b) Regular reflection 14) Which types of image can be formed by
c) Irregular reflection convex spherical mirror?
d) Smooth reflection a) Real
7) In regular reflection all the reflected rays of b) Virtual
light remain in: c) Both of above
a) One direction d) None of these
b) Opposite direction 15) The center of hollow sphere, a part of
c) Different directions whose surface is used to make spherical mirror
d) None of these is called:
8) In irregular reflection all the reflected rays of a) Curvature
light remain in: b) Radius of curvature
a) One direction c) Focal point
b) Different direction d) Center of curvature
c) Opposite direction
d) None of these
16) The radius of hollow sphere, a part of d) Center of curvature
whose surface is used to make spherical mirror 24) What is the sign convention of object
is called: distance for real object?
a) Curvature a) Positive
b) Pole b) Negative
c) Radius of curvature c) Both of above
d) Center of curvature d) None of these
17) The straight line passing through principle 25) What is the sign convention of object
focus and pole of spherical mirror is called: distance for virtual object?
a) Aperture a) Positive
b) Pole b) Negative
c) Radius of curvature c) Both of above
d) Principle axis d) None of these
18) The central symmetrical point of a spherical 26) What is the sign convention of image
mirror is called: distance for virtual image?
a) Curvature a) Positive
b) Pole b) Negative
c) Radius of curvature c) Both of above
d) Center of curvature d) None of these
19) Pole of spherical mirror is also called as: 27) What is the sign convention of image
a) Aperture distance for real object?
b) Vertex a) Positive
c) Radius of curvature b) Negative
d) Center of curvature c) Both of above
20) The length of straight line which divides the d) None of these
spherical mirror into two parts is called: 28) The passing of light into another medium is
a) Aperture called as:
b) Pole a) Refraction
c) Vertex b) Reflection
d) Center of curvature c) Diffraction
21) What is the other name of aperture of d) None of these
spherical mirror? 29) The angle made by incident ray with normal
a) Vertex is called as:
b) Principle focus a) Angle of reflection
c) Radius of curvature b) Angle of refraction
d) Diameter of spherical mirror c) Angle of incidence
22) The distance from pole to principle focus of d) Angle of normal
spherical mirror is called as its: 30) The angle made by refracted ray with
a) Principle focus normal is called as:
b) Principle axis a) Angle of reflection
c) Focal length b) Angle of refraction
d) Canter of curvature c) Angle of incidence
23) The point at which parallel incident rays d) Angle of normal
after reflection from spherical mirror converge 31) The angle made by reflected ray with
is called its: normal is called as:
a) Principle focus a) Angle of reflection
b) Principle axis b) Angle of refraction
c) Focal length c) Angle of incidence
d) Angle of normal d) 8
32) When the angle of incidence becomes 40) The lenses which try to converge the
larger than critical angle then it is called as: incident ray are called:
a) Reflection a) Spherical lenses
b) Angle of reflection b) Converging lenses
c) Refraction c) Diverging lenses
d) Total internal reflection d) Convex lens
33) For total internal reflection, angle of 41) The lenses which try to diverge the incident
incidence must be __________than critical ray are called:
angle. a) Spherical lenses
a) Greater b) Converging lenses
b) Smaller c) Diverging lenses
c) Equal d) Convex lens
d) None of these 42) What is the thickness of converging lens as
34) When angle of reflection becomes 90o then compared to eyes?
angle of incidence is called as: a) Greater
a) Internal angle b) Smaller
b) Right angle c) Equal
c) Snell angle d) None of these
d) Critical angle 43) What is the thickness of diverging lens as
35) The velocity of light in free space is always compared to eyes?
________ than its velocity inside any other a) Greater
medium. b) Smaller
a) Greater c) Equal
b) Smaller d) None of these
c) Equal 44) The symmetrical center point of lens is
d) None of these called as:
36) Critical angle is denoted by: a) Optical center
a) <C b) Radius of curvature
b) <0 c) Focal point
c) 0 d) Center of curvature
d) 0c 45) Optical center is denoted by:
37) Mirage is formed by the process of: a) C
a) Reflection b) Oc
b) Angle of reflection c) O
c) Refraction d) None of these
d) Total internal reflection 46) The distance from optical center to principle
38) The piece of transparent reflecting medium focus of a lens is called as it:
whose boundary surface has some part of a) Principle focus
spherical shape is called: b) Principle axis
a) Spherical mirror c) Focal length
b) Lens d) Center of curvature
c) Microscope 47) The power of the lens is the reciprocal of its:
d) Prism a) Principle focus
39) How many types of lenses are there? b) Focal length
a) 2 c) Optical length
b) 4 d) Center of curvature
c) 6 48) What is the SI unit of power of lens?
a) Watt c) Central layer
b) Diopter d) All of above
c) Micro watt 57) The central layer of optical fiber core has:
d) None of these a) Low refractive index
49) Which symbol is used to represent diopter? b) High refractive index
a) D c) Unity refractive index
b) Dop d) No refractive index
c) d 58) The covering of core is called:
d) None of these a) Core
50) What is the sign convention of object b) Cladding
distance, when object is on right side of lens ? c) Central layer
a) Positive d) All of above
b) Negative 59) In optical fibers, which type of signal is used
c) Both of above to transmit information form end to another?
d) None of these a) Light signals
51) What is the sign convention of image b) Electrical signal
distance for real image on sight side of lens ? c) Electronic signal
a) Positive d) All of above
b) Negative 60) The refractive index of cladding is:
c) Both of above a) High
d) None of these b) Unity
52) For lens, what is the sign convention of c) Zero
image distance for real object: d) Low
a) Positive 61) Which type of material is used to make core
b) Negative and cladding?
c) Both of above a) Glass
d) None of these b) Silicon
53) Which type of image can be formed by c) Carbon
camera? d) All of above
a) Real 62) If a large number of optical fibers are
b) Inverted bonded then it is called as:
c) Diminished a) Endoscope
d) All of above b) Fiber optics
54) Which type of image can be formed by slide c) Light pipe
projector? d) All of above
a) Real 63) Which instrument is used to see small
b) Small objects?
c) virtual a) Simple microscope
d) All of above b) Fiber optics
55) In camera the distance between the lens c) Central layer
and film is equal to the: d) All of above
a) Power of lens 64) Light enters the eye through the
b) Optical center transparent membrane called:
c) Focal length of lens a) Iris
d) All of above b) Cornea
56) The central part of optical fiber is called: c) Retina
a) Core d) Lens
b) Cladding 65) The opening at the center of iris is called:
a) Pupil a) The focal length
b) Cornea b) The speed of light
c) Retina c) The image distance
d) Lens d) The object distance
66) What is the near point distance for normal 72) Which type of image is formed by a concave
eye? lens on a screen?
a) 35 cm a) Inverted and real
b) 50 cm b) Inverted and virtual
c) 25 cm c) Upright and real
d) 40 cm d) Upright and virtual
67) Which of the following quantities is not 73) Which type of image is produce by the
changed during refraction of light? converging lens of human eye of it views a
a) Its direction distant object?
b) Its speed a) Real, erect and same size
c) Its frequency b) Real, inverted & diminished
d) Its wavelength c) Virtual, erect & diminished
68) A converging mirror with a radius of 20 cm d) Virtual, inverted & magnified
creates a real image 30 cm from the mirror. 74) Image formed on a camera is:
What is the object distance? a) Real, inverted and diminished
a) -5.0 cm b) Virtual, upright and diminished
b) -7.5 cm c) Virtual, upright and magnified
c) -15 cm d) Real, inverted and magnified
d) -20 cm 75) If a ray of light in glass is incident on an air
69) An object is placed at the center of surface at an angle greater than the critical
curvature of a concave mirror. The image angle, the ray will :
produced by the mirror is located. a) Refract only
a) Out beyond the center of curvature b) Reflect only
b) At the centre of curvature c) Partially refract and partially reflect
c) Between the center of curvature and the d) Diffract only
focal point 76) The critical angle for a beam of light passing
d) At the focal point from water into air is 48.8 degrees. This means
70) An object is 14 cm in front of a convex that all light rays with an angle of incidence
mirror. The image is 5.8 cm behind the mirror. greater than this angle will be
What is the focal length of the mirror? a) Absorbed
a) -4.1 cm b) Totally reflected
b) -8.2 cm c) Partially reflected and partially transmitted
c) -9.9 cm d) Totally transmitted
d) -20 cm
71) The index of refraction depends on

ch#13
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Electrostatic is the branch of physics which 2) Like charges always:
deals with the study of: a) Repel each other
a) Electric current b) Attract each other
b) Electric charge at rest c) Both of these
c) Electric charge in motion d) None of these
d) None of these 3) Unlike charges always:
a) Repel each other d) none of these
b) Attract each other 12) Conductors and insulator are identified by:
c) netural a) Electroscope
d) None of these b) CRO
4) Protons contains charge: c) Ripple tank
a) Positive d) None of these
b) Negative 13) Which are is the good conductor?
c) Neutral a) Wood
d) None of these b) Rubber
5) Electrons contains charge: c) Glass
a) Positive d) Metal
b) Negative 14) Which are is insulator
c) Neutral a) Wood
d) None of these b) Rubber
6) Electrons contains charge: c) Metal
a) Ion d) Both a and b
b) Molecule 15) If the leaves of electroscope collapsed then
c) Atom material will be:
d) All of these a) Conductor
7) The branch of physics, which deals with the b) Insulator
study of properties of electric charge at rest is c) Semi conductor
called: d) None of these
a) electronics 16) If the diverged leaves of electroscope does
b) electrostatics not change then material will be:
c) mechanics a) Conductor
d) none of these b) Semiconductor
8) Which device is used to detect electric charge c) Insulator
on body: d) All of these
a) Ripple tank 17) Coulomb’s law is medium:
b) Voltmeter a) Dependent
c) CRO b) Independent
d) Electroscope c) Both a and b
9) The materials having free electrons are d) None of these
called: 18) Electric field intensity is represented by:
a) Insulator a) E
b) Semi conductor ]b) I
c) Conductor c) i
d) All of these d) e
10) The materials having no free electrons are 19) Electric field intensity is:
called: a) Vector quantity
a) Conductor b) Scalar quantity
b) Insulator c) Both of these
c) Semi conductor d) None of these
d) none of these 20) The strength of electric field t any point is
11) materials are example of: known as:
a) conductors a) Electric conductor
b) insulators b) Electro statics
c) semi conductors c) Intensity
d) Electric field intensity c) 9 × 109 Nm2/c2
21) Electric field lines are introduces by: d) 9 × 1010 Nm2/c2
a) J.J. Thomson 30) Electric potential is represented by:
b) Neil Bohr a) E
c) Madam Currie b) V
d) Micheal Faraday c) P
22) Electric field lines are: d) None of these
a) Imaginary 31) What is the SI unit of electric field intensity:
b) Real a) J/C
c) Does not exist b) J
d) None of these c) N/C
23) The tangent any point on electric field lines d) None of these
gives the direction of: 32) What is the SI unit of electric potential:
a) Electric field a) J/C
b) Electric current b) J
c) Electric potential c) N/C
d) Electric field intensity d) None of these
24) Electric field lines always starts from: 33) What is the equivalent of 1eV?
a) Positive charge a) 1.6 × 10-29J
b) Negative charge b) 1.6 × 1019J
c) Both of these c) 1.6 × 1029J
d) None of these d) 1.6 × 10-19J
25) The electric field lines due to positive unit 34) Electron volt is the unit of:
charge are directed: a) Electric current
a) Outward b) Electric charge
b) Inward c) Electricity
c) Upward d) Energy
d) Downward 35) What is the SI unit of energy?
26) Electric field lines always terminates at: a) J
a) Positive charge b) J/C
b) Negative charge c) Newton
c) Both of these d) N/C
d) None of these 36) Which device is used to store electric
27) The direction of electric field line due to charge:
negative charge is: a) Inductor
a) Upward b) Electroscope
b) Downward c) Capacitor
c) Inward d) Resistor
d) Outward 37) What is the SI unit of capacitance:
28) If the distance between electric field lines is a) Volt
great then electric field intensity is: b) Joule
a) Greater c) Farad
b) Smaller d) Newton
c) Independent of distance 38) In which combination all the capacitors are
d) None of these connected in such a way that each capacitor has
29) what is the value of coulombs constant ? same potential:
a) 9 × 1019 Nm2/c2 a) Series combination
b) 9 × 1020 Nm2/c2 b) Parallel combination
c) Both combination 47) Which are of the following is the use of
d) None of these electrostatics:
39) In parallel combination all the capacitors are a) Photocopying
connected in such a way that each capacitor has b) Spray painting
potential: c) Vacuum cleaners
a) Same d) All of these
b) Different 48) The ability of a capacitor to store electric
c) Triple charge is called:
d) Double a) Farad
40) The capacitance depends upon the: b) Capacitance
a) Size of capacitor c) Both of these
b) Distance between plates d) None of these
c) Type of insulators between plates 49) The amount work done in moving a unit
d) All of these positive charge from infinity to that point is
41) The fixed capacitance of fixed capacitor is called:
due to: a) Capacitance
a) Constant area b) Equivalent capacitance
b) Constant applied voltage c) Electric field intensity
c) Both a and d) Electric potential
d) None of these 50) Aeroplane gets excessive charge due to:
42) In power capacitors the dielectric medium a) Air friction
is: b) Tire friction
a) Greased paper c) Earth friction
b) Thin plastic sheet d) All of these
c) Both a and b 51) If there are capacitors of each of 6F are
d) None of these connected in series then what will be the
43) The dielectric medium used in mica equivalent capacitance:
capacitor is: a) 3F
a) Greased paper b) 2F
b) Air c) 1/2F
c) Plastic sheet d) 1F
d) Mica sheet 52) If a there are three capacitors of 6F, 3F and
44) Electrostatic means: 12F are connected in series then will be the
a) Electricity equivalent capacitance:
b) Electric charge a) 12/7F
c) Static b) 7/12F
d) Both b and c c) 18/7F
45) Which one of the following is fixed d) 7/18F
capacitor: 53) Three capacitors with capacitance of 3pF,
a) Paper capacitor 4pF and 5pF are arranged in parallel
b) Mica capacitor combination then what will be the equivalent
c) Both of these capacitance:
d) None of these a) 3pF
46) Capacitors are used in: b) 4pF
a) Filter circuits c) 16pF
b) Turning circuits d) 12pF
c) Electric fans
d) All of these
54) Three capacitors with the capacitance of d) Electrostatic induction
3pF, 4pF and 5pF are connected in series then 62) If the distance between the electric field
what will be the equivalent capacitance: lines is greater then electric field is:
a) 13pF a) Stronger
b) 1.3pF b) Weaker
c) 23pF c) Negligible
d) 2.3pF d) None of these
55) What is the equivalent of 1pF: 63) The charge of how many negatively charged
a) 1012F particles would be equal to 100µC. Assume
b) 106F charge on one negative particle is 1.6 × 10-19C.
c) 10-12F a) 6.25 × 10-13
d) 10-16F b) 6.25 × 1013
56) The capacitance if parallel plate capacitor is c) 6.25 × 1040
100pF and voltage applied across its plates is d) 6.25 × 10-40
50µ then what will be the amount of charge 64) If the distance between the electric field
stored: line is smaller then electric field is:
a) 5c a) Stronger
b) 5µc b) Weaker
c) 5nc c) Negligible
d) None of these d) None of these
57) If the capacitors are connected in parallel 65) In which combination all the capacitors are
then each capacitor have connected in such a way that each capacitor has
a) Same capacitance same charge:
b) Same voltage a) Parallel combination
c) Same charge b) Series combination
d) None of these c) Both of these
58) If the number of capacitors are connected in d) None of these
series then all each capacitors has: 66) In series combination all the capacitors are
a) Same capacitance called in such a way that:
b) Same voltage a) Same
c) Same charge b) Different
d) None of these c) Directly proportional
59) Electric potential is given by: d) Inversely proportional
a) W = qF 67) What is the equivalent of 1 nc
b) q = V/W a) 10-12
c) V =W/Q b) 10-6
d) All of these c) 10-9
60) What will be the equivalent of 1µC? d) 10-18
a) 10-6C 68) What would be the amount of work done if
b) 106C the potential at a point in an electric field is
c) 10-9C 104V and a charge of 100µC is brought from
d) 1012C infinity to that point:
61) The process of charging an insulated a) 10J
conductor develops positive charge at one and b) 1J
negative charge at other end is called: c) 100J
a) Induction d) 104J
b) Conduction
c) Electrostatic conduction
69) What will be the equivalent capacitance if a d) Unpredictable
capacitor holds 0.06c of charge when fully 77) When you rub a plastic rod against your hair
charged by 9V battery: several times and put it near some bits of
a) 6.67F paper, the pieces of papers are attracted
b) 6.67 × 103 F towards it.
c) 6.67 × 10-3F What does this observation indicate?
d) None of these a) The rod and the paper are oppositely
70) What will be the equivalent capacitance if charged
two capacitors of capacitance 10µF and 12µF b) The rod acquires a positive charge
are connected in series: c) The rod and the paper have the same
a) 18µF charged
b) 4µF d) The rod acquires a negative charge
c) 6µF 78) According to Coulomb’s law, what happens
d) 16µF to the attraction of two oppositely charged
71) What will be the equivalent capacitance if objects as their distance of separation
two capacitors of capacitance 6µF and 18µF are increases?
connected in parallel: a) Increases
a) 24µF b) Decreases
b) 2.4µF c) Remains unchanged
c) 3.4µF d) Cannot be determined
d) 1.2µF 79) The coulomb’s law is vaild for the charges
73) A point charge of +2C is transferred from a which are
point at potential 100V to a point at potential a) Moving and point charges
80V what would be the energy supplied by the b) Moving and non-point charges
charge c) Stationary and point charges
a) 10J d) Stationary and large size charges
b) 1000J 80) A positive and a negative charges are
c) 100 initially 4 cm apart. When they are moved
d) 104J closer together so that they are now only 1cm
74) A positive eletrice charge: apart, the force between them is
a) Attracts positive charge a) 4 times smaller than before
b) Repels other positve charge b) 4 times larger than before
c) Attracts a neutral charge c) 8 times larger than before
d) Repels a neutral charge d) 16 times larger than before
75) An object gains exess nagetive charge after 81) Five joules of work is needed to shift 10C of
being rubbed against another object which is: charge from one place to another. The potential
a) Neutral difference between the places is
b) Negatively charged a) 0.5V
c) Positively charged b) 0.2V
d) Either a, b or c c) 5V
76) Two uncharged object A and B are rubbed d) 10V
against each other. When object B is placed 82) Two charged spheres are separated by
near a negatively charged object C, the two 2mm. Which fo the following would produce
objects repel each other. Which of these the greatest attractive froce?
statements is true about object A? a) +1q and +4q
a) Remains uncharged b) -1q and -4q
b) Becomes positively charged c) +2q and +2q
c) Becomes negatively charged d) +2q and -2q
83) Electric field lines 84) Capacitance is defined as
a) Always cross each other a) VC
b) Never cross each other b) Q/V
c) Cross each other in the region of strong field c) QV
d) Cross each other in the region of weak field d) V/Q

ch#14
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) The rate of flow of charge is called as: 7) The current which flows due to the flow of
a) Electric current positive charges from higher potential to lower
b) Conventional current potential of battery is called:
c) Both of above a) Electric current
d) None of these b) Conventional current
2) SI unit of current is : c) Both of above
a) Faraday d) None of these
b) Volt 8) Galvanometer is used to detect
c) Ampere a) Electric current
d) Electron volt b) Electric potential
3) If one coulomb charges flow through any c) Both of above
cross section area of wore in one second then d) None of these
current is said to be: 9) Ammeter is used to detect and measure
a) One faraday a) Electric current
b) One ampere b) Electric potential
c) One volt c) Both of above
d) None of these d) None of these
4) If Q denotes the amount of charge flow 10) In which combination galvanometer and
through any cross section in time ‘t’ then value ammeter always connected
of current I is given by: a) Series combination
a) Q = It b) Parallel combination
b) I = Qt c) Both of above
c) t = Ql d) None of these
d) None of these 11) Galvanometer is used to detect electric
5) If 0.5 C charge passes through a wire in 10sec current of the range
then what will be the value of current flowing a) Large current
through it? b) Amperes
a) 5 A c) Few milliamperes
b) 5 mA d) None of these
c) 0.5 mA 12) Ammeter is used to measure and detect
d) 0.5 A current range of
6) How does it take a current of 10 mA to a) 1 A
deliver 30C of charge? b) 10 a
a) 50 sec c) 100 A
b) 50 mA d) 1A __ 10A
c) 50 min 13) SI unit of electric potential is:
d) 5 sec a) Faraday
b) Volt
c) Ampere
d) Electron volt b) Voltage
14) Potential difference across any resistance c) Electric potential
can be measured by using: d) Resistance
a) Ammeter 22) SI unit of resistance are called as:
b) Voltmeter a) Volt
c) Galvanometer b) Ohms
d) Electron volt c) Faraday
15) Voltmeter is always connected in; d) Electron volt
a) Series combination 23) If a potential difference of one volt across
b) Parallel combination the conductor produces an electric current of
c) Both of above one ampere then resistance is said to be one;
d) None of these a) Volt
16) The energy supplied by a battery to a unit b) Ampere
charge when it flows through the electrical c) eV
circuits is called : d) ohm
a) Electric potential 24) the materials which have constant
b) Electric current resistance over a wide range is called as:
c) Emf a) ohmic conductors
d) Conventional current b) non-ohmic conductors
17) SI unit of emf is: c) conductors
a) Volt d) insulators
b) j/c 25) the material whose resistance changes with
c) both of above voltage is called as:
d) none of these a) ohmic conductors
18) the energy converted from non-electrical b) non-ohmic conductors
forms to electrical form when one coulomb of c) semiconductors
positive charge passes through the battery is d) insulators
called as; 26) filament of bulb and semiconductors are an
a) electric potential example of
b) EMF a) ohmic conductors
c) Electric current b) conductors
d) Conventional current c) non-ohmic conductors
19) EMF can be measured by using: d) insulators
a) Voltmeter 27) what is the effect on resistance of
b) Ammeter thermistor with the decrease in temperature?
c) Galvanometer a) Increases
d) None of these b) Decreases
20) According to ohm’s law the relationship c) Remain same
between voltage across any resistance and d) None of these
current is 28) The resistance of a conductor of resistance
a) Directly proportional of conductor and its length
b) Inversely proportional a) Directly proportional
c) Equals b) Inversely proportional
d) None of these c) Equals
21) The property of substance which offers d) None of these
opposition to the flow of current through is 29) The resistance of a conductor of unit length
called as; and of unit area of cross section is called:
a) Current a) Resistance
b) Resistivity 37) If a number of resistance are connected in
c) Specific resistance such a way that there is only one path to flow
d) Both a and b the current then such combination is called as:
30) Reading on a voltmeter connected across a a) Short circuited
heating element 60v. the amount of current b) Parallel combination
passing through the heating element is 2A. the c) Open circuited
resistance of heating element will be: d) Series combination
a) 30V 38) If a number of resistance are connected in
b) 30Ω such a way that there that there are more than
c) 300V one path to flow the current then such
d) 300 Ω combination is called as:
31) SI unit of specific resistance is : a) Short circuited
a) Ohm-meter b) Parallel combination
b) Meter c) Open circuited
c) Ohm d) Series combination
d) Volt 39) In series combination the current through
32) The resistivity of conductor depends upon; all individuals remains:
a) Nature of conductor a) Same
b) Temperature of conductor b) Different
c) Both of above c) Equals to total current
d) None of these d) None of these
33) If the length of copper wire is 1 meter and 40) In parallel combination the voltage through
its diameter of conductor the resistance of this all individuals remains:
copper wire will be a) Same
a) 1.54 × 10-4 Ω b) Different
b) 0.64 × 10-3 Ω c) Equals to total current
c) 0.54 × 10-3 Ω d) None of these
d) 0.54 × 10-2 Ω 41) The amount of energy supplied by current
34) The materials which offer low resistance to in unit time is known as:
pass current through them are called as: a) Electric power
a) Semiconductors b) Electric potential
b) Insulators c) Electric current
c) Conductors d) None of these
d) None of these 42) SI unit of electric power is:
35) The materials which offer high resistance a) Watt b) j/s
and negligible current to passes through are c) both of above
called as: d) none of these
a) Semiconductors 43) 1kwh is equal to:
b) Insulators a) 36 × 106 j
c) Conductors b) 3.6 × 106 j
d) None of these c) 0.36 × 106 j
36) Rubber, glass and wood are good examples d) None of these
of 44) The current which does not changes is
a) Semiconductors direction of flow is known as:
b) Insulators a) Electric current
c) Conductors b) Direct current
d) None of these c) Alternating current
d) None of these
45) The current which changes its direction of b) High electric potential
flow after regular intervals of time is know as; c) Low electric potential
a) Electric current d) No electric current
b) Direct current 54) The resistance of dry human skin is about:
c) Alternating current a) 100Ω
d) None of these b) 100000 Ω
46) The frequency for alternating current in c) 1000 Ω
Pakistan is: d) 10000 Ω
a) 5Hz 55) In which combination fuse is connected to
b) 15Hz lie wire:
c) 25Hz a) Series combination
d) 50Hz b) Parallel combination
47) The supply of electricity in houses is done by c) Open circuited
using: d) Short circuited
a) Single phase supply 56) If three resistance of 6 Ω are connected in
b) Double phase supply parallel then what will be equivalent resistance
c) Three phase supply a) 12Ω
d) None of these b) 2 Ω
48) In houses, the potential difference between c) 38 Ω
live and neutral wire is: d) 5 Ω
a) 120A 57) Electrical power can be given by:
b) 110A a) P = VI
c) 220A b) P – V2R
d) 210A c) P = I2/R
49) The fuses of main box rated at current of : d) All of above
a) 3A 58) All the household appliances are connected
b) 13A in:
c) 300A a) Series combination
d) 30A b) Parallel combination
50) The electric potential that a live wire has: c) Open circuited
a) Alternating d) Short circuited
b) Direct 59) A current of 3mA flowing through a wire for
c) Zero 1minute . what is the charge flowing through
d) Grounded the wire?
51) Which color of insulator is used for covering a) 180mC
of live wire: b) 180C
a) Alternating c) 180A
b) Direct d) 180F
c) Zero 60) Which instrument is used to detect and
d) Grounded measure electric current?
52) Which color of insulator is used for covering a) Ammeter
of neutral wire: b) Galvanometer
a) Grey c) Voltmeter
b) Blue d) Both a and b
c) Brown 61) Voltmeter is used to detect and measure:
d) Red a) Resistance
53) Earth and ground wires carry; b) Potential difference
a) High electric current c) Electric current
d) Capacitance 68) why should household appliances be
62) If there are number of resistor connected in connected in parallel with the voltage sourece?
series then each resistor has; a) To increase the resistance of the circuit
a) Same voltage b) To decrease the resistance of the circuit
b) Different voltage c) To provide each appliance the same voltage
c) Same current as the power source
d) Different current d) To provide each appliance the same current
63) What is the equivalent resistance for as the power source
resistors connected in series? 69) Electric potential and e.m.f
a) Req = n/R a) Are the same terms
b) Req = nR b) Are the different terms
c) Req = R/n c) Have different units
d) None of these d) Both a and b
64) What is the equivalent resistance for 70) When we double the voltage in a simple
resistors connected in parallel? electric circuit, we double the
a) Req = n/R a) Current
b) Req = nR b) Power
c) Req = R/n c) Resistance
d) None of these d) Both a and b
65) If there are number of resistors connected 71) If we double both the current and the
in parallel then each resistor has: voltage in a circuit while keeping its resistance
a) Same voltage constant, the power
b) Different voltage a) Remains unchanged
c) Same current b) Halves
d) Different current c) Four times
66) If two resistors of 6k and 4k are connected d) Quarter
in series then what will be the equivalent 72) What is the power rating of a lamp
resistance? connected to a 12 V source when it carries 2.5 A
a) 24k ?
b) 12k a) 4.8 W
c) 10k b) 14.5 W
d) 2.4k c) 30 W
67) What happens to the intensity or the d) 60 W
brightness of the lamps connected in series and 73) The combined resistance of two identical
more lamps are added? resistors, connected in series is 8 Ω. Their
a) Increases combined in a parallel arrangement will be
b) Decreases a) 2 Ω
c) Remains the same b) 4 Ω
d) Cannot be predicted c) 8 Ω
d) 12 Ω

ch#15
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) The strength of magnetic field depends upon d) None of these
a) Current 2) Direction of magnetic field lines can be
b) Distance from wire determined by
c) Both of these a) Right hand rule
b) Fleming’s left hand rule d) 120o
c) Lenz’s law 11) Direction of magnetic force can be
d) Ohm’s law determined by
3) MRI stands for a) Right hand rule
a) Medical resonance imaging b) Lenz law
b) Magnetic imaging c) Faraday’s law
c) Magnetic resonance imaging d) Fleming left hand rule
d) None of these 12) An electrical device which converts
4) MRI is used to diagnose mechanical energy to electrical energy called is
a) Brain disease a) motor
b) Eye disease b) generator
c) Stomach disease c) transformer
d) None of these d) none of these
5) Magnetic field inside the solenoid is 13) An electrical device which converts
a) Weak electrical energy to mechanical energy called is
b) Uniform .
c) Irregular a) motor
d) None of these b) generator
6) The polarity of current carrying solenoid can c) transformer
be determine by . d) none of these
a) Right hand rule 14) External magnetic field to motor is applied
b) Negligible through
c) Stronger a) permanent magnetic
d) None of these b) prime mover
7) When a current carrying conductor placed c) generator
inside the magnetic field the magnetic field d) transformer
then it is experiences a force called as 15) The phenomenon of producing an induced
a) Electromagnetic force emf in a circuit by changing number of magnetic
b) Mechanical force lines passing through it is called
c) Electric force a) induction
d) Magnetic force b) electromagnet induction
8) Magnetic force will be maximum when c) MRI
conductor is placed the magnetic field d) Transformer
a) 90o 16) The number of magnetic lines of force
b) 180o passing through surface area is called as
c) 0o a) Electric flux
d) Both b and c b) Magnetic flux
9) When the conductor is right angle to the c) Electromagnetic induction
magnetic field the magnetic force will be d) None of these
a) Maximum 17) Magnetic flux is maximum when magnetic
b) Minimum field lines are ________ to surface area
c) Negligible a) Perpendicular
d) None of these b) Parallel
10) Magnetic force will be minimum when the c) Directly proportional
angle between conductor and magnetic field is d) Inversely proportional
a) 0o 18) Magnetic flux is minimum when the
b) 90o direction of magnetic field lines and surface
c) 45o area is
a) Perpendicular a) Watt
b) At some angle b) Henry
c) Parallel c) Newton
d) Upward d) Becquerel
19) According to Faraday’s law the relationship 29) Strength of magnetic field outside the
of induced emf and rate of change of magnetic solenoid
flux is a) Stronger
a) Directly proportional b) Weaker
b) Inversely proportional c) Negligible
c) Equal d) None of these
d) None of these 30) An electrical device which is used to
20) Direction of induced current can be increase or decrease the voltage level is called
determined by a) Motor
a) Lenz law b) Generator
b) Right hand rule c) Transformer
c) Grip rule d) All of above
d) Left hand rule 31) Transformer only works on supply
21) When the magnetic field lines are parallel to a) AC
surface area then magnetic flux will be b) DC
a) Maximum c) Both of these
b) Minimum d) None of these
c) Moderate 32) Transformer works on principle of
d) None of these a) Mutual induction
23) Right hand grip rule is used to find the b) Self induction
direction of c) Len’s law
a) Magnetic flux d) Faraday’s law
b) Magnetic force 33) Transformer has coils
c) Polartity of solenoid a) Two
d) None of these b) Three
24) The magnitude of induced emf depends c) One
upon d) Four
a) Number of turns of coil 34) In transformer input voltage is applied
b) Cross sectional area of coil across
c) Current passing through coil a) Primary coil
d) All of above b) Secondary coil
25) Len’s law is in accordance with c) Both coils
a) Faraday’s law d) None of these
b) Law of conservation of energy 35) In transformer output voltage is obtained
c) Right hand rule across
d) Fleming left hand rule a) Primary coil
27) The phenomenon of producing induced emf b) Secondary coil
in one coil due to change of current in c) Both a and b
neighbouring coil is called d) None of these
a) Lenz’s law 36) Core of transformer is made up of
b) Electromagnetic induction a) Soft iron strips
c) Mutual induction b) Metal
d) Self induction c) Copper
28) What is the Si unit of mutual induction d) None of these
37) Voltage across the coils of transformer is d) Input power
______ to number of turns 45) An electrical switch than opens and close
a) Inversely proportional under the control of another elutric crunit
b) Directly proportional a) Relay
c) Equal b) Transistor
d) Less c) Solenoid
38) An electrical device which steps up or step d) None of these
down the voltage is called 46) If a transformer is used to supply voltage to
a) Motor a 24v which draws a current in primary if
b) Generator voltage source is 240v
c) Transformer a) 0.16v
d) Battery b) 0.16Ma
39) Transformer is used for c) 0.16uA
a) voltage up d) 0.56A
b) voltage down 47) The magnetic force and field strength are
c) Both of these a) Directly proportional
d) None of these b) Inversely proportional
40) If transformers steps up the voltage level c) Equal d) None of these
then it is called as 48) The relationship of magnetic force and
a) Ideal transformer current is
b) Step up transformer a) Directly proportional
c) Step down transformer b) Inversely proportional
d) None of these c) Equal
41) If the number of turns of secondary coil is d) None of these
greater than number of turns of primary coil 49) The relationship of magnetic force and
then transforming is length is
a) Step up transformer a) Directly proportional
b) Step down transformer b) Inversely proportional
c) Ideal transformer c) Equal
d) All of these d) None of these
42) If the number of turns of secondary coil is 50) Which statement is true about the magnetic
less than number of turns of primary coil then poles?
transformer is a) Unlike poles repel
a) Step up b) Like poles attract
b) Step down c) Magnetic poles do not effect each other
c) Ideal d) A single magnetic pole does not exist
d) All of these 51) What is the direction of the magnetic field
43) If the input power is equal to the output lines inside a bar magnet?
power then transformer is said to be: a) From north pole to south pole
a) Step up b) From south pole to north pole
b) Step down c) From side to side
c) Ideal d) There are no magnetic field lines
d) All of these 52) The presence of a magnetic field can be
44) For ideal transformer output power must be detected by a
equal to a) Small mass
a) Losses b) Stationary positive charge
b) Applied frequency c) Stationary negative charge
c) Input voltage d) Magnetic compass
53) If the current in a wire which is placed a) The armature
perpendicular to a magnetic field increases the b) The commutator
force on the wire c) The brushes
a) Increase d) The slip rings
b) Decreases 56) The direction of induced e.m.f in a circle is
c) Remains the same in accordance with conservation of
d) Will be zero a) Mass
54) A.D.C motor converts b) Charge
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy c) Momentum
b) Mechanical energy into chemical energy d) Energy
c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy 57) The step-up tranformer
d) Electrical energy into mechanical a) Increases the input current
55) Which part of a D.C motor reverses the b) Increases the input voltage
direction of current through the coil every half- c) Has more turns in the primary
cycle? d) Has les turns in the secondary

ch#16
Objective Type
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Electronics is the branch of science which 6) Thermionic emission can also be produced by
deals with the behavior of ___________using electrically heating :
different devices for various purposes . a) Vacuum tube
a) Atoms b) Tungsten filament
b) Electrons c) Electron gun
c) Protons d) None of above
d) Neutrons 7) ___________ is used to investigate the
2) The charge carried by cathode rays are properties of electron beam .
a) Negative a) Vacuum tube
b) Positive b) Tungsten filament
c) Both of above c) Electron gun
d) None of above d) None of above
3) Cathode rays were discovered in : 8) Which one supply is sued to heat tungsten
a) 1895 filament in thermionic emission :
b) 1896 a) 26V
c) 1987 b) 16V
d) 1897 c) 6V
4) Cathode rays are also called as: d) 60V
a) Atoms 9) In thermionic emission the high positive
b) Electrons potential is supplied to :
c) Protons a) Cathode
d) Neutrons b) Anode
5) Cathode rays are discovered by : c) Cylinder
a) Eugene Goldstein d) Plates
b) Neil Bohr 10) The instrument which is used to display the
c) Rutherford magnitude of changing elelctric current or
d) J.J.Thomson potential is called as :
a) Tungsten filament lamp
b) C.R.O 19) Digital quantities are those values vary in
c) Vacuum tube ___________ manner :
d) None of these a) Remain constant
11) C.R.O consist of b) Continuous
a) Electron gun c) Non continuous
b) Deflecting plates d) All of these
c) Fluorescent screen 20) Digital quantities are expressed in form of
d) All of above a) Digits
12) __________ is the part of cathode ray b) Numbers
oscilloscope . c) None of these
a) Tungsten filament lamp d) All of these
b) Electron gun 21) The branch of electronics which deals with
c) Vacuum tube digital quantities is called_________ electronics
d) All of these .
13) The C.R.O electron gun is used for a) Digital
production of b) Logical
a) Fast moving protons c) Analogue
b) Fast moving electrons d) Binary
c) Fast moving neutrons 22) In which form data is provided in digital
d) All of these system ?
14) The electrode of electron gun is called as : a) Decimal
a) Electron source b) Binary
b) Grid c) Octal
c) None of these d) Hexadecimal
d) All of these 23) A continuously varying signals is called as
15) The screen of C.R.O consist of a thin layer of a) Digital signals
a) Sulphur b) Electronics signals
b) Silicon c) Analogue signals
c) Phosphor d) Binary signals
d) Copper 24) Digital signal have only ____________values
16) C.R.O is used as : a) Continuous
a) Displaying waveforms b) Discrete
b) Displaying heartbeats c) Non discrete
c) Measure voltage d) Constant
d) All of above 25) The device which is used to convert digital
17) The branch of electronics consisting of to analogue one is:
circuits which process_________ quantities is a) DAC
called Analogue electronics . b) ADC
a) Digital c) CDA
b) Electronics d) CAD
c) Analogue 26) The device which is used to convert digital
d) All of these signal to analogue signal one is :
18) Amplifier is an analogue circuit which a) ADC
amplifies the signal without changing its : b) ACD
a) Shape c) DAC
b) Length d) DCA
c) Phase difference 27) A switches has only _________states
d) Angle a) 1
b) 2 36) For AND operation when any one of the
c) 3 switch is open then lamp is :
d) 4 a) ON
28) The 0 and 1 is also called: b) OFF
a) Logic variables c) Blinking
b) Logic states d) None of these
c) None of these 37) For OR operation when all switches are
d) Both of these open then the lamp is
29) Boolean variables can have only ________ a) ON
values b) OFF
a) 1 c) Blinking
b) 2 d) None of these
c) None of above 38) For OR operation when all switches are
d) Both of above closed then the lamp is
30) For AND operation switches are connected a) ON
in b) OFF
a) Series c) Blinking
b) Parallel d) None of these
c) Open circut 39) For OR operation when any one of the
d) None of above switch is open then lamp is
31) X=A.B shows __________ operation . a) ON
a) AND b) OFF
b) OR c) Blinking
c) NAND d) None of these
d) NOT 40) For NOT operation when switch is closed
32) X=A+B shows ___________ operation . then lamp is
a) AND a) ON
b) OR b) OFF
c) NAND c) Blinking
d) NOT d) None of these
33) For OR operation switches are connected in 41) For NOT operation when switch is open
a) Series then lamp is
b) Parallel a) ON
c) Open circuit b) OFF
d) None of above c) Blinking
34) For AND operation when all switches are d) None of these
closed then lamp is : 42) The particles emitted from a hot cathode
a) ON surface are :
b) OFF a) Positive ions
c) Blinking b) Negative ions
d) None of these c) Protons
35) For AND operation when all switches are d) Electrons
open then lamp is 43) The process by which electrons are emitted
a) ON by a hot metal surface is known as
b) OFF a) boiling
c) Blinking b) evaporation
d) None of these c) conduction
d) Thermionic emission
44) The tables which gives the values of input 47) If X=A.B then X is 1 when
and output basic types of logical gates is called a) A and B are 1
as: b) A or B is 0
a) AND table c) A is 0 and B is 1
b) OR table d) A is 1 and B is 0
c) Truth table 48) The output of a two-input NOR gate is1
d) NOR table when
45) Can be used for house safety alarm a) A is '1' and B is '0'
a) AND gate b) A is '0' and B is '1'
b) OR gate c) both A and B are '0'
c) NAND gate d) both A and B are '1'
d) NOR gate 49) AND gate can be formed by using two
46) The output of a NAND gate is 0 when a) NOT gates
a) both of its inputs are 0 b) OR gates
b) both of its inputs are 1 c) NOR gates
c) any of its input is 0 d) NAND gates
d) any of its inputs is 1
ch#17
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) ICT stands for: b) information technology
a) introduction to computer technology c) Flow of information
b) Introduction to computing technology d) None of these
c) information and communication 6) CBIS stands for;
techonology a) computer Based intelligence System
d) introduction to communication technology b) Computer Based Interface System
2) the method that is used to communicate c) computer Based information System
information to far off places instantly is called: d) None of these
a) Communication technology 7) How many components of CBIS are there?
b) information technology a) 5
c) Flow of information b) 6
d) None of these c) 7
3) the scientific method for storing, arranging d) 8
information for proper use and to communicate 8) The term hardware refers to;
them to others is called: a) Computer software
a) Communication technology b) computers windows
b) information technology c) Machinery
c) Flow of information d) None of these
d) None of these 9) the term software refers to:
4) Computers and internet are the main sources a) Computer programs
of; b) computers devices
a) Communication technology c) Machinery
b) information technology d) None of these
c) Flow of information 10) Data is usually stored on:
d) None of these a) Computer programs
5) Radio, telephone, fax machine and cell phone b) Disks
are the main sources‫۔‬ c) CPU
a) Communication technology d) None of these
11) The transfer of information from one place d) Electrical
to another is called as: 20) The central part of optical fiber fiber
a) Transfer of information through which travels is called;
b) Flow of information a) Cladding
c) Both of these b) Core
d) None of these c) Transmitter
12) Transmitter process the: d) Receiver
a) Input signal 21) documents are sent from one place to the
b) Output signal other through:
c) Transmitted signal a) Printer
d) None of these b) Scanner
13) Telephone invented by: c) Fax machine
a) Graham Bell d) Mobile phone
b) Albert Einstein 22) A fax means scanning a page to make a
c) Newton ____________ representation of its text or
d) None of these graphics.
14) Telephone invented in: a) Electromagnetic
a) 1867 b) Electronic
b) 1865 c) Magnetic
c) 1875 d) Mechanical
d) 1876 23) Fax machine transmitted data to other fax
15) Telephone sends voice in the form of machine through:
_________ signals from one place to another. a) Telephone line
a) Electromagnetic b) Scanner
b) electrical c) printer
c) magnetic d) Sound waves
d) Mechanical 24) Optical fibers works on the principle of:
16) Mouthpiece contains electrically conductive a) Total internal reflection
__________ granules. b) Reflection
a) Carbon c) Refraction
b) Sulphur d) Diffraction
c) phosphor 25) The transmission rate of optical fibers is.
d) None of these a) Low
17) BSc stands for: b) High
a) Bachelor of science c) Moderate
b) base stations d) None of these
c) Both of above 26) the single mode cable are use for:
d) none of these a) short range
18) Optical means: b) Medium range
a) Lens c) Long range
b) Sensor d) None of these
c) Light 27) the multimode cable use for:
d) None of these a) short range
19) Optical fiber uses _________ signal to b) Medium range
transfer information from one place to another. c) Long range
a) Electromagnetic d) None of these
b) light 28) dingle mode cable has:
c) Sound a) large diameter core
b) Small diameter core 38) Audio cassettes consist of ______________
c) Highest bandwidth rating tapes on which sound is saved in particular form
d) none of these by the help of magnetic field.
29) Multi mode cable has: a) Electromagnetic
a) large diameter core b) Electronic
b) Small diameter core c) Magnetic
c) Highest bandwidth rating d) Mechanical
d) none of these 39) Floppy disk has storage capacity:
30) The diameter of single mode cable is a) 1MB - 3MB
a) 7 - 8 microns b) 10MB - 30MB
b) 7 - 9 microns c) 10MB - 13MB
c) 7 - 11 microns d) 11MB - 30MB
d) 7 - 10 microns 40) Hard disk is made up of:
31) 1 micron = ______________ a) Plastic
a) 10-8 b) Aluminium
b) 10-7 c) Metal oxide
c) 10-16 d) Carbon
d) 10-6 41) The data storage capacity of hard disk is:
32) The diameter of multimode cable is: a) smaller
a) 70 - 80 microns b) Larger
b) 70 - 90 microns c) moderate
c) 50-180 microns d) specific
d) 50- 80 microns 42) CD contains __________ data.
33) the bandwidth of single mode cable is a) Analogue
a) Shortest b) Digital
b) Highest c) Binary
c) Moderate d) Magnetic
d) none of these 43) HTML stands for:
34) CPU contains tiny rectangular chip called as: a) Hotmail
a) processor b) Hyper text markup language
b) Controller c) Hyper text makeup language
c) microprocessor d) none of these
d) Microcontroller 44) TCP stands for:
35) RAM stands for: a) Transmitter control process
a) Read only memory b) Transmission central process
b) Random Accept memory c) Transmission control process
c) Random access memory d) None of these
d) None of these 45) IP stands for;
36) CD stands for: a) Internal protocol
a) Computer disks b) Internet process
b) Controller disks c) Internet protocol
c) Compact text d) None of these
d) copy disks 46) e-mail stands for:
37) IC stands for: a) Electrical mail
a) information communication b) Electronic mail
b) Internal circuit c) Erasable mail
c) integrated circuits d) None of these
d) None of these
47) Cell phone is two way ____________ 56) From which of the following you can get
communications. information almost about everything:
a) sound a) Book
b) Radio b) Internet
c) Both of above c) Teacher
d) None of these d) Computer
48) FTP stands for: 57) Which of the following is not processing?
a) Flexible transfer protocol a) Arranging
b) Floppy transfer protocol b) Manipulating
c) File transfer protocol c) Calculating
d) None of these d) Gathering
49) URL stands for: 58) ROM stands for:
a) united resource language a) Read only memory
b) United resource locations b) Random accept memory
c) uniform resource language c) Random access memory
d) uniform resource locators d) None of these
50) WWW stands for: 59) Cell phones transmission are made with:
a) World Web Wide a) Magnetic waves
b) Web World Wide b) Sound waves
c) Wide World Web c) Micro waves
d) World Wide Web d) None of these
51) An unauthorized access computer for any 60) CD's are based on:
illegal work is called: a) laser technology
a) Hacking b) light technology
b) Accessing internet c) Magnetic technology
c) Virus d) None of these
d) None of these 61) In computer terminology information
52) The storing capacity of CD is: means:
a) 860 MB a) any data
b) 680 MB b) raw data
c) 760 MB c) processed data
d) 670 MB d) large data
53) The storing capacity of DVD is: 62) Which is the most suitable means of reliable
a) 17 GB continuous communication between an orbiting
b) 170 GB satellite and Earth?
c) 70 GB a) microwaves
d) 17 GB b) radio waves
54) In computer terminology information c) sound waves
means: d) any light waves
a) Any data 63) The basic operations performed by a
b) Processed data computer are:
c) raw data a) arithmetic operations
d) large data b) Non-arithmetic operations
55) The brain of any computer system is: c) logical operations
a) Monitor d) both a and c
b) Hard disk 64) Which of the following is not processing?
c) CPU a) arranging
d) Keyboard b) manipulating
c) calculating b) electronic mail
d) gathering c) extra mail
65) What does the term e-mail stand for? d) external mail
a) emergency mail

ch#18
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Who discovered neutrons? d) Nucleons
a) James Chadwick 9) Number of nucleons are the sum of
b) J.J Thomson a) Protons
c) Newton b) Neutrons
d) none of these c) Both of above
2) When neutrons were discovered? d) None of these
a) 1930 10) Which symbol is used to represent atomic
b) 1913 number?
c) 1923 a) A
d) 1932 b) Z
3) When protons were discovered in nucleus? c) N
a) 1919 d) P
b) 1920 11) Which symbol is used to represent neutrons
c) 1918 number?
d) 1912 a) A
4) Which one is the fundamental particle of b) Z
atom? c) N
a) Protons d) O
b) Neutrons 12) Which symbol is used to represent atomic
c) Electrons mass?
d) All of these a) A
5) Electrons have charge: b) Z
a) Positive c) N
b) Negative d) O
c) Neutral 13) What is the relationship between protons
d) None of these and neutrons?
6) Protons have charge? a) A = N – P
a) Positive b) A = P – N
b) Negative c) A = (P + N)
c) Neutral d) P = (A + 2 N)
d) None of these 14) Iso means:
7) The number of protons in a nucleus is called? a) Different
a) Atomic number b) Many
b) Mass number c) Same
c) Neutron number d) None of these
d) Nucleons 15) Isotopes have:
8) The number of neutrons in a nucleus is called a) Same atomic number
a) Atomic number b) Different atomic number
b) Mass number c) Same atomic masses
c) Neutron number d) None of these
16) Hydrogen has isotopes: 25) The radiation which our earth receives from
a) 2 outer space are called as:
b) 3 a) Cosmic radiations
c) 4 b) Background radiations
d) 1 c) Primary radiations
17) Simple hydrogen is called: d) Secondary radiations
a) Protium 26) When cosmic radiations interact with atoms
b) Deuterium in atmosphere then radiations created are
c) Tritium called:
d) None of these a) Cosmic radiations
18) Protium has: b) Background radiations
a) One proton c) Primary radiations
b) One neutron d) Secondary radiations
c) One electron 27) Secondary radiations includes:
d) Both a and c a) X-rays
19) Deuterium has: b) Muons
a) One proton c) Protons
b) One neutron d) All of these
c) One electron 28) Which device is used to count background
d) All of these radiations?
20) Tritium has: a) GM tube
a) One proton b) Vacuum tube
b) two neutron c) Digital stop watch
c) three electron d) All of these
d) None of these 29) How many types of radiations emitted from
21) What is the SI unit of radioactivity radioactive elements?
a) N/s, a) 1
b) Becquerel b) 2
c) Diopter c) 3
d) Disintegration/sec d) 4
22) 1 Becquerel d equal to: 30) Alpha particle is
a) One N/s a) Stable
b) 10, b) Unstable
c) 1 disintegration/sec c) More stable
d) None of these d) None of these
23) Who discovered radium and polonium? 31) Alpha particle has ionizing power
a) Marie Curie a) Highest
b) Henry Becquerel b) Lowest
c) J.J Thomson c) Moderate
d) Rutherford d) None of these
24) Radiations present in atmosphere due to 32) The highest ionizing power of alpha particle
different natural radioactive substances are is due to its:
called: a) Large mass
a) Cosmic radiations b) Small mass
b) Background radiations c) Stability
c) Primary radiations d) Unstability
d) Secondary radiations 33) The range of alpha particles is
a) Large
b) Very large b) negative
c) Intermediate c) neutral
d) Short d) none of these
34) The process in which a parent unstable 43) Radioactive elements have atomic number
nucleus changes into more stable daughter a) Less than 82
nuclide with the emission of radiations is called: b) 82 and less than 82
a) α-decay c) More than 82
b) β-decay d) 82 and more than 82
c) γ-decay 44) Non-radioactive elements can be changed
d) nuclear transmutation into radioactive elements by bombarding them
35) In de-excitation, extra energy is released in with
the form of a) Alpha-particles
a) α-radiations b) Protons
b) β-radiations c) Neutrons
c) γ-radiations d) All of these
d) X-rays 45) Half life of hydrogen
36) The penetrating power of alpha particle is a) 22.3 years
a) Less than β rays b) 5730 years
b) More than β rays c) 52.3 years
c) More than γ rays d) 12.3 years
d) More than β and 46) Half life of cobalt is
37) The ionizing power of β particle is a) 22 years
a) Less b) 30 years
b) More c) 36 years
c) Intermediate d) 40 years
d) None of these 47) Half life of iodine is
38) β-particle has range a) 8 years
a) several meters b) 9 years
b) few centimeters c) 10 years
c) thousands meters d) 11 years
d) none of these 48) Half life period of lead (Pb) is
39) The range of γ-particles is a) 10.6 hours
a) Lowest b) 10.6 mins
b) Intermediate c) 10.6 years
c) Highest d) 10.6 months
d) None of these 49) Half life period of polonium21084Po is
40) Alpha particles contains charge a) 138 years
a) +2 b) 138 sec
b) -2 c) 138 min
c) +1 d) 138 days
d) -1 50) In nuclear fusion reaction, amount of
41) β particles contains charge energy released
a) +2 a) 17.6 eV
b) -2 b) 17.5 MeV
c) +1 c) 17.6 V
d) -1 d) 17.6 W
42) γ-particles contains charge 51) Phosphorous 32 is used for the diagnosis of
a) positive a) Thyroid gland
b) Brain tumor 60) When deuterium is fused with an atom of
c) Both of above tritium then _________is formed
d) None of these a) α-particles
52) Cobalt-60 is used for the curing of b) muons
a) Cancerous tumor c) β- particles
b) Stomach disease d) γ- particles
c) Throat disease 61) what is the temperature of sun.
d) All of these a) 20 K
53) Which one radioactive isotope is present in b) 20 million K
rocks c) 20 billion K
a) Plutonium d) None of these
b) Potassium 62) Lekuemia is
c) Uranium a) Cancer
d) Carbon b) Brain tumor
54) Half life period of argon-40 is c) Thyroid gland
a) 2.4 years d) Blood cancer
b) 2.6 ×108 years 63) Radioactive elements are also called as
c) 2.4 ×108 years a) Stable elements
d) 5.4 ×1016 years b) Unstable elements
55) The age determination of very old objects c) Radio isotopes
like dead plants, animals and stones is based on d) All of these
half life of radioactive elements is called: 64) Nuclear radiations is measured in
a) Radio isotopes a) Becquerel
b) Radio isotope dating b) N/s,
c) Carbon dating c) Rem
d) Both a and c d) None of these
56) Age determination of old carbon containing 65) What is the safe limit of radiation exposure
objects by measuring radioactivity of C-14 is per year
called: a) 6 rem
a) Radio isotopes dating b) 4 rem
b) Dating c) 3 rem
c) Carbon dating d) 5 rem
d) None of these 66) Patients should be exposes to x-rays limit of
57) Energy-mass relationship is a) 1rem to 5 rem
a) E = mc2 b) 0.1 rem to 0.5 rem
b) m = Ec2 c) 0.1 rem to 10 rem
c) E = mc d) None of these
d) None of these 67) Becquerel is denoted by
58) Half life period of uranium 235 is a) B
a) 7.1 × 1080years b) Bq
b) 7.1 × 1018 years c) Ba
c) 7.1 years d) Bu
d) 7.1 × 108 years 68) Artificially produced radioactive elements
59) Half life period of uranium -238 is by bombardment of different particles are
a) 4.5 × 1090 years called
b) 4.51 × 109 years a) Isotopes
c) 7.1 × 108 years b) Radio isotopes
d) 4.6 × 1010 years c) γ-particles
d) mouns 76) What happens to the atomic number of an
69) Half life period of plutonium-236 is element which emits one alpha particle and a
a) 2 years beta particles?
b) 2.65 years a) Increases by 1
c) 2.75 years b) Stays the same
d) 2.85 years c) Decreases by 2
70) Breaking of heavy nucleus in to smaller d) Decreases by 1
nuclei is called 77) The half–life of a certain isotope is 1 day.
a) Nuclear fusion What is the quantity of the isotope after 2 days.
b) Nuclear fission a) One half
c) α-decay b) One quarter
d) β-decay c) One eighth
71) The process in which two light nuclei d) Zero
combine to form heavier nucleus is called 78) When uranium (92 protons) ejects a beta
a) Nuclear fusion particle, how many protons will be in the
b) Nuclear fission remaining nucleus?
c) Nuclear transmutation a) 89 protons
d) All of these b) 90 protons
72) The elements which emits radiations are c) 91 protons ‘
called as: d) 93 protons
a) Non-radioactive elements 79) Release of energy by the Sun is due to
b) Radioactive elements a) Nuclear fission
c) Radioactive isotopes b) Nuclear fusion
d) None of these c) Burning of gases
73) Carbon has isotopes d) Chemical reaction
a) 2 80) When a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter
b) 4 nuclei, the process would
c) 6 a) Release nuclear energy
d) 8 b) Absorb energy
74) One of the isotopes of uranium is 23892U, c) Release chemical energy
The number of neutrons in this isotope is d) Absorb chemical energy
a) 92 81) The reason carbon-dating works is that
b) 146 a) Plants and animals are such strong emitters
c) 238 of carbon-14
d) 330 b) After a plant or animal dies, it stops taking
75) Which among the following radiations has in fresh carbon-14
more penetrating power? c) There is so much non-radioactive carbon
a) A beta particle dioxide in the air
b) A gamma ray d) When a plant or an animal dies it takes in
c) An alpha particle fresh carbon
d) All of these
Best of Luck