1. Which of the following statements are true?

 
I. Unit testing is executed by developer 
II. In Unit testing individual functions or procedures are tested 
III. It is kind of white box testing 
 
a. I,II, III ---------------Ans  (crct) 
b. Both I and II 
c. Only I 
d. Only II 
 
2. public final class Constraints 
        { 
Public Static final String   DEFAULT_ROLE="EMPLOYEE", 
} 
What does the above statement indicate? 
 
a. None of the Listed 
b. EMPLOYEE role information set in the field 
c. syntax errors 
d. creating the constraints file to make use of the defined constraints in other
class ---------ANS 
e. DEFAULT_ROLE set to EMPLOYEE field 
 
3. Which of the following is true? 
 
a. the requirement document describes how the requirements that are listed in the document
are implemented efficiently 
b. consistency and completeness of functional requirements are always achieved in practice 
c. Prototyping is a method of requirements validation --------------------------ANS  (crct) 
d. requirements review is carried out to find the errors in system design 
 
4. Providing full time application support through multiple shifts and by operating at
different time zones and countries is known as 
 
a. Follow-the-support model 
b. Follow-the-sun model ---------------ANS 
c. Follow-the-moon model 
d. none of these 
 
5. If l0/l1 team is unable to find the resolution in the knowledge database, whom do they
contact for further troubleshooting? 
        a. L3 support 
        b. L4 support 
        c. none of these 
        d. L2 support---------------ANS 
 
6. Which of the following are the best practices? 
               I. Move all the hardcoded values to the constant file. 
               II. Have log file to log all the activities. 
               III. Better to catch general exceptions than specific exceptions. 
 a. All of the listed options 
b. Only III 
c. Only I and II----------------------------------------------------ANS 
d. Only II and III 
 
7. ______ is the process of applying as much creativity as possible and validating the
application against invalid data. 
 
a.White box Testing 
b. Sanity Testing 
c. Negative Testing------------------------------ANS 
d. Regression Testing 
 
8. The detailed study of existing system is referred to as: 
a. System Planning 
b. System Analysis ------------------------------ANS 
c. Feasibility Study 
d. Design DFD 
9. Through Shift Left Methodology, the knowledge flows from_________. 
 
a.L4,L3,L2toL1----------------------ans 
b.L1,L2,L4toL4 
c.L1.L2,L4toL3 
d.L1,L3,L4toL2 
 
10. Which key constraint can accept null value 
a.Check 
b.Unique key ---------------------------------ANS 
c.Primary key 
d.Foreign key 
 
11. If an urgent RFC is raised , which board needs to take an immediate action? 
 
a.ECAB(Emergency Change Advisory Board)------------------------------------------
ANS 
b.ECAB(Exclusive Change Advisory Board) 
c.None of the listed options 
d.CAB(Change Advisory Board)) 
 
12. The ability to resolve known incidents in known error resolution services in ---
downtime to the business, which in turn means ----- availability of the service? 
a.Lower, higher----------------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
b.Lower,Lower 
c.higher,higher 
d.higher,Lower 
13. Which key attributes of incidents handling, refers to the time when the solution to
the problem was found and the work started? 
A. Status Time 
B. Response Time 
c. Resolution time 
 D. Restoration Time---------------------ANS 
14. L2 support team provides ----- for solving basic technical problems 
a. Output to L3 support team 
b. Output to L0/L1 support team 
c. Input to L0/L1 support team--------------------ANS 
d. Input to L3 support team  
 
15. Benchmarking is the process of comparing one business process and performance
metrics 
to industry bests or best practices from other industry and setting uop a target level
for  
each of the metrics.  
 
true--------------------------ans 
false  
16. What are the advantages of exception handling  
 
a.None of the listed options. 
b.In Exception handling,generic Exception object can be extended to any specific type of
exception--ANS 
c. Exception handling maintains the normal flow of the application-------------ANS 
d. With the exception handling mechanism, the developer can write their code much
"cleaner" and have exception automatically handled-----------ans 
e.With the exception handling mechanism, when an exception occurs, the execution of
the program is transferred to an appropriate exception handler and terminate the
program----------ANS 
 
17.Which of the following is the incident status correct order? 
a. None of the listed options 
b. New, Active,Resolved,Closed-------------ans  
c. Active,New,resolved,Closed 
d. New,Resolved,Active,Closed  
 
18. design document is  developers  
 
a. blueprint-------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
b.handbook 
c.Reference Material 
d.Guide 
19. Application Consolidation services focuses on consolidating multiple application
which are______________in nature to cohesive IT application landscape 
 
a.dissimilar-------------ans 
b.similar 
c.unrelated 
d.disconnected 
 
20 .Which SERVICE HAS THE PRIMARY OBJECTIVE as to prevent problems
before happening to production environment? 
 
a.Continous Build & Release 
b.Application Strengthening------------ans 
c. Compliance & Regulatory Updates 
d.Release Planning 
 
21.Which process grants authorised users the right to use a service 
 
a.access management------------------------------------------------ANS 
b.Event management 
c. Problem Management 
d.Incident management 
 
22.which statement can enclose a continue statement  
 
a.while , do , for , or foreach-------------------------------ANS 
b.try,while,do,for,or foreach 
c.switch,while,do,for,or foreach 
d.while,do,for,or foreach 
 
23. What is the use of creating an index in the table ? 
a.To increase the performance of the table 
b.All the listed options--------------------------------------------ANS 
c.To order the records in the table 
d. To search the records in the table 
 
24.what is the difference between white box testing and black box testing 
a.White box testing is testing on the QA environment and Black box testing is testing on the
UAT environment 
b. All the listed options 
c.White box testing requires the knowledge of the structure of the code and black box
testing is done to test the business requirement at a high level-----------ans 
d.Whitebox testing is done by the testing team and bleck box testing is done only by the
developer during development. 
 
25. Activities in traditional AVM model are broadly classified under  
I.Application/Production support 
II.Bug Fix 
What is the third one? 
 
a.Enhancements-------------------------------ANS 
b.Product upgrade 
c.Ad hoc Requests 
d.Batch Monitoring 
 
26. The key analysis involved in feasibility analysis is/are  
a.Economic 
b.Technical 
c.Behavioral 
d.All of the listed options----------------------------------ANS 
 
27. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of Best Practices in AVM engagement 
a.Efficient and Effective Operations 
b.Improve Reliability 
c.Improves Customer Satisfaction 
d.Increased Manitenance and Operating costs---------------------------------ANS 
 
28. In which phase of the AVM Lifecycle are the customer's requirements actually
fulfilled  
a.None of the listed options 
b.Initiation and Planning Phase 
c.Service Phase --------------------------------------------ANS 
d.Knowledge Transition Phase 
 
29. If an incident is not responded to/resolved within the defined SLA time limits, it is
considered as 
 
a.SLA Breach-------------------------------------------ANS 
b.SLA Met 
c.Penality Clause 
d.None of the listed options  
 
30. ........ activity is a part of support and it is required for any customer business
availability/continuity. 
 
A-Monitoring-------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
B-online processing 
C-analyzing 
D-testing 
 
31. ...... is harder for complex systems in particular, when various subsystems are tightly
coupled as changes in one system or interface may cause bug to emerge in another . 
A-compilation 
B-testing 
C-debugging----------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
D-execution 
 
32. select ename, sal 
FROM emp 
WHERE deptno=(SELECT*FROM dept 
WHERE lock='NEW YORK'); 
what will be the output of the above example? 
 
A-will throw an error-------------------------------------------------------------------------
ANS 
B-will give multiple record 
C-will display nothing 
D-will give single record 
33. What are all the services under Product Engineering Services?? 
A-white box testing, black box testing 
B-test automation and black box testing 
 c-test automation and white box
testing----------------------------------------------------------ANS 
D-none of the listed options 
 
31. In AVM projects, inefficent processes leads to _____ productivity and _____ support
costs. 
A-higher,increased 
B-lesser,decreased 
            C-
lesser,increased------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
D-higher,decreased 
 
32. In AVM, Best Practices can be categorized under which of the following? 
 
        A-All of the listed options------------------------------------------------------------------------
ANS 
        B-Transformation 
        C-Effectiveness 
        D-Innovation 
        E-Efficiency 
 
33. Which support level majorly deals with unknown incidents? 
A-L3 Support 
B-L4 Supprt 
C-L2 Support-------ans 
            D-L0/L1 Support 
 
34.Design documents does not contain details on the infrastructure associated with the
system. 
State true or false. 
 
A-True-------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
B-False 
 
35. What is the exception that should be raised by the below situation ? 
 { 
try 
{ 
result=num1/num2 
} 
catch(-----e) 
 
a-OutOfMemoryException 
b-DivisionError 
c-DivideByzeroException-----------------------------------------------ANS 
d-ApplicationError 
 
36.Service portfolio management ensures we dont waste money with excess capacity.  
true or false ?  
 
 a.True 
b. false--------------------------------------------ANS 
 
37. What are the various purposes of Business requirement document(BRD) ? 
 
 a- A BRD details the business solution for a project including the documentation of  
        customer needs and expectations.---------------ans 
b- A BRD is a formal document that provides a contract between supplier and
client..----------ans 
c- A BRD contains detailed project plan and design 
d- A BRD effectively defines the scope of the
project.---------------------------------------ANS  
 
38. Design document details ? select one or more 
 
a- How the requiremnts should be implemented---------------------------------------
ANS  
b- software to be used 
c- technology to be used in development---------------------------------------ANS 
            d-Architecture design of the system.---------------------------------------ANS 
 
39. Which step of SDLC performs cost/benefit analysis ? 
 
a- Feasibility study---------------------------------------ANS 
b- Analysis 
c- Design 
d- none of the above. 
 
40. In which ITIL service lifecycle phase is the value of services actually realised by
a customer ? 
 
a-Service transition 
b-Service operations---------------------------------------ANS 
c-Continual Service improvement 
            d-Service design 
 
41. Which service manages the versions of the code base, ensures retrofitting the code
and ensures planning,scheduling, and execution of a successful build? 
     
a) Application Strengthening 
b) Continuous Build & Release------------------------------------------------------------
Ans 
c) Release Planning 
d) compliance & Regulatory Updates.  
 
42. Which of the following statement is false? 
 
a) The process of destroying unreferenced objects is called Garbage Collection 
b) None of the listed options----------------------------------------------------------------Ans 
c) Garbage Collector frees the memory occupied by the unreachable objects during the
program execution 
d) An object becomes eligible for garbage collection when no live thread can access it 
e) Heap part of the memory is involved in Garbage Collection  
 
43.  Select the validations that are applicable for the text box field. 
    Enter username 
    [Submit] 
 
a) Should check if the text box is null 
b) Must check the special characters 
 c) Should check whether the user has access 
d) Should check the number of characters 
e) All of the listed options.-------------------------------------------------------Ans 
 
44. ______ is the only trigger type you can have on any type of view. 
 
a) Insert trigger 
b) Delete trigger 
c) Instead-of trigger----------------------------------------------------Ans 
d) Row trigger 
 
45. What will be the result of the following SQL when executed? 
    SELECT TOP 10[Name] 
    FROM [GLS2_PROD ].[dbo].[tblAssociate] 
   Sample Data 
   ID Name 
   31208 Rajashekar Gupta P 
   103210 Nagarajan,Rajeswari 
a) Returns Null 
b) Returns top 10 Names in the table-----------------------------------------Ans 
c) Returns top 10 rows in the table 
d) Syntax error in the SQL   
46. Primary Key in a table can have null value. State True or False. 
True 
False-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------Ans  
 
47. Identify the benefit of CSI 
 
  ANS) ALL  
 
48. WHICH OF THE FOLOWING IS NOT COVERED BY L0/L1 SUPPORT TEAM 
 
   ANS) PROMOTE ENHANCEMENT CHANGES TO PRODUCTION BY WORKING
WITH RELES MANAGEMENT TEAM 
 
49. which analysis prevents the recurrence of incidents or prevents incidents even
before they happen and lead to automation to reduce manual interventions, errors and
efforts in L2 support? 
 
I. Reactive analysis 
II. Proactive analysis 
a. I 
b. Neither I nor II 
c. II----------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
d. Both I and II 
 
50. which of the following statements are true? 
I. A well written logging code offers quick debugging, easy maintenance, and structured
storage of an application's runtime information. 
II. LOG.info("Data base operation failed. Check your SQL connection") statement logs
the above lines in logger for best understanding. 
 
a. Only II 
b. Only I 
c. Neither I nor II 
d. Both I and II----------------------------------ANS 
 
51. Unit testing done by tester true or false?   Ans: False 
 
52. Breaking the system modules into smaller programs and allocating these programs
to the members of the system development team is the activity involved in .............. 
 
A. System Design Phase 
B. System Development Phase-----ans 
C. System Analysis Phase 
D. System Implementation Phase 
 
53.What is meant by Response time ? 
 
ANS:Response time refers to the time when the initial response was given by the production
support team 
 
54.Which service identifies and maintains a record of all installed applications? 
 
a.Application License Management--------------------------------------------------------------
ANS 
b.Adhoc Service request Fulfilment service 
d.Standard Service request Fulfilment service 
 
55. How to identify performance od select Query? 
 
a.Using hint 
b.Using Explain plan---------ans 
c.Table statistics 
d.Using Dbms_sql 
 
56. In CR process who sets priority for request determined by committee? 
 
ANS: Change MANAGER 
 
57.Unit testing is commonly automated but cannot still be performed? 
 
Ans; false 
 
58. High level design gives the overall system design in terms of functional architecture
and database design? T or F.........True 
 
59. In which step of sdlc project termination done? 
 
a. design phase  
b . System maintenance phase 
c. Feasibility study phase ----ans 
d. Coding phase 
 
60. Continual service improvement is __   type of initiative? 
 
a.A. Run better 
 b. Productivity improvement 
 c. Optimization 
d. Efficiency improvement---ans 
 
61. L2 is support team is _____ of functional escalation for L0&L1 teams? 
 
ANS:1ST LEVEL 
 
62. Function point sizing is dependent on technology ... T or f? ANS:TRUE 
 
63.Providing uninterrupted access to apps and system and ensuring app availability is
the main objective of AVM ... T or f?  ans:True 
 
64.Which one is not an outcome of best practice in AVM engagement . 
 
a.efficient and effective operations  
b.increased maintenance and operation costs. ----- ans 
C. Improves reliability.  
D.improves customer satisfaction 
 
65.Creating FAQ documents is an example of which csi method? 
 
a idea management system  
b. Process standardization  
c. Self service strategy  
d. None 
 
66. What type of testing is performed by independent testing team/testing service? 
 
a.Smoke Testing/Regression Testing/UAT/Unit Testing 
b.Unit Tseting?System/Functional Testing?SIT,Regression testing,UAT 
c.unit Tseting/SIT/UAT 
d.System/Functioanl Testing/SIT,Regression Testing,UA
T-------------------------------------------------ANS 
 
67.Which key attributes of incident handling,refers to the time when the solution to the
problem was found and the work started? 
 
a.Resolution Time 
b.Restoration Time-------------------------ans 
c.Status Time 
d.Response Time 
 
68.Through Shift left Medhodology,the knowledge flows from__________ 
 
a.L1,L2,L4toL3 
b.L4,L3,L2toL1---------------ans 
c.L1,L2,L3toL4 
d.L1,L3,L4toL2 
 
69.Which of the following are true? 
 
a.The requirements document describes how the requirements that are listed in the document
are implemented efficiently 
b.Consistency and completeness of functional requirements are always achieved in practice. 
c.Prototyping is a method of requirements
validation--------------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
d.Requirements review is carried out to find the errors in system design. 
 
70.Why should the team have Project demo to the customer on a regular basis? 
 
a.To make him feel confident that his requirements are being developed the way it is
expected 
b.To showcase that the requiremnts of highest bussiness value to the customer have
been priortized and developed for the customer. 
c.To ask for the customers feedback on the developers user stories 
D.aLL THE LISITED OPTIONS-----ANS 
 
71. Function point Sizing is dependent on technlogy.State True or False 
 
a.True--------------------------------------ANS 
b.False 
 
72.Which master service of AVM  managed services catalog focuses on long-
term functionality,stability and
preventive maintainance toavoid problems thta typically arise from incomplete or
short-term solutions? 
 
a.Governance Services 
b.Managed production Services------------------------------ans 
c.Product Services 
d.Managed Application Services. 
 
73. How much time should a daily standup usually take? 
 
a.One Hr 
b.20-40 Min 
c.10-15 min-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
d.Depending upon the team's clarifications and the amount of issues to be discussed. 
 
74. In legacy AVM  service phase activities can be catogorized as which of the
following ? 
 
a)production support 
b)maintance 
c) all of the listed options-----------------------------------------------ans 
d)enhancements 
 
75. How many phases are there in ITIL service life cycle? 
 
a.Four 
b.Three 
c.Six 
d.Five---------------------------ans 
 
76. Application services such as functional enhancements, business solution delivery and
environment management services are performed by which support group? 
 
a.L2 Support 
b.L4 Support---------------------------ans 
c.L3 Support 
d.L1 Support 
 
77. In which step of SDLC are enhancements , upgrades and bug fixes done?? 
 
a) maintenance and evaluation ----------------------------------------------------------------ans  
b)problem/opportunity identification 
c)design 
d)development and documentation 
 
78. In which phase of the AVM lifecycle are the customers requirements actually
fulfilled? 
 
a)none 
b) initiation and plannning phase  
c) service phase -----------------------------------------------------------ans 
d)knowledge transition phase 
 
79. Minor enhancements are handled by which support team ? 
 
a)L2 
B)NONE 
c) L3 support team ---------------------------- ans 
D)L4 
 
80. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Data Migration Service? 
 
a.Eliminates the risk of losing data. 
b.Meets regulatory and compliance requirements for data retention. 
c.Decreases system/product productivity and performance while minimizing disruption
due to data loss.--------------ANS 
d.Maintains integrity and availability of data to support business decisions. 
 
 
81.Which service provides real time monitoring of all jobs and constantly checks the
status of the jobs? 
  
a.Application monitoring service. 
b.Batch Scheduling/Execution Service. 
c.Batch monitoring service.----------------------------------ANS 
d.Mailbox and Ticketing Tool Monitoring Service. 
 
82. Enhancement services , assessment services and transformation services are
rendered by l4 support team? 
 
true ---------------------ans 
FALSE  
 
83. What is/are service benefit(s) for Application Problem Management service? 
 
A-All of the listed options 
B-Reduction of effort in fire-fighting or resolving repeated incidents----------ans 
C-Lesser productivity of business and IT 
D-Increased effort on workarounds and temporary fixes 
 
84.AVM projects faced lot of challenges prior to Service catalog approach. State true or
False. 
 
A-True-------------------------------ANS 
B-False 
 
85.Which service in MAS, follows SDLC phases and manages end to end delivery from
design, System Testing,Release Planning, Go live support and post production support? 
 
A-Functional Enhancements 
B-Application Integration Services-------------------------------------------ANS 
C-Application Strenghtening 
D-Release Planning 
 
86.Which support level deals with unknown incidents? 
 
A-L4 support 
B-L0/L1 support 
C-L2 support---------------------------ans 
D-L3 support 
 
87. One of the more challenging aspects of change management is ensuring that all
details of changes are sufficiently documented and all parties are in agreement as to
what is expected. State true or False 
 
true---------------------ans 
false 
 
88. Define product upgrade service 
 
I. Focuses on analyzing the current implementations, IDENTIFYING CLIENT specific
customizations, conducting a feasibility study, preparation of a comprehensive upgrade
roadmap and executing the same  
 
II. Focuses on to achieving a complete product integration through progressive
assembling of product components in a single stage or in incremental stages, with a
defined integration strategy and procedure 
 
a.I only--------------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
b.Both I and II 
c.Neither I nor II 
d.II only 
 
89. Which of the following UML diagram represents the relationship among the
classes? 
 
a. UseCase Diagram 
b. Class Diagram--------------------------------------------------- ANS 
c. Sequence Diagram 
d. Activity Diagram 
 
90. What does ITIL stands for? 
 
a. Information Technology Ideal Library 
b. Information Technology
Infrastructure Library -----------------------------------------------------------ANS 
c.Information Technology Interactive Library 
d.Information Technology Intelligence Library 
 
91. A _____ is a method or technique that has consistently shown results superior to
those achieved with other means and that is used as benchmark 
 
a. Best practice-------------------------------------------------ANS 
b. Process 
c. Scheme 
d. System 
 
92. A design document contains declaration for all new classes, procedures, global and
class variables and the description of all new procedures. State true or false 
 
a. true --------------------------ANS 
b. false 
 
93. Define CMDB 
I. It is a database that contains information about configurable IT components along
with relationship between these components  
II. It is repository of information that describes all of the conditions in your IT system
that might result in an incident for your customer and users. 
 
a. Only II 
b. Neither I nor II 
c. I only--------------------ans 
d. Both I and II 
 
94. CSI is one of the key focus areas in ITIL framework. True/false 
 
a. true ----------------------------------------ANS 
b. false 
 
95. What are the various purpose of Business requirement document (BRD)? 
 
a. BRD details the business solution for a project including the documentation of
customer needs and explanation-----ANS 
b. BRD is formal document that provides a contract between supplier and client.
-------------ANS 
c. BRD contains the detailed project plan and design 
d. The BRD effectively defines the scope of the project-----------------ANS 
 
96. Application community and Resilience support services assist client in the analysis,
design and implementation of business continuity solutions. True/false 
 
a. true ----------------ANS 
b. false  
 
97. The phases in software testing life cycle are 
 
a)test planning 
b) test design 
c) test execution 
d) test closure 
e) all ---------------------------------------------------------------------ANS 
 
 
98. select ename. sal from emp where deptno = (select * from dept where loc ='New
york') 
 
a)multiple record 
b)displays nothing 
c)throw an error----------------------------------------------- ANS  
d)dispaly single row 
 
99. Which of the following statement is false 
 
a) the process of destroying unreferenced objects is called garbage collector 
b) none-----------------------------------------------------ANS 
c)an object becomes eligible for garbagae collection when there is no live thread 
d) heap part of the memory is involved in garbage collection 
e)garbage collection frees the memory occupied by the unreachable objects 
 
100. SDLC stands for 
 
a)software development life cycle---------------ANS 
b)system development life cycle 
c)software design life cycle 
d)system design life cycle 
 
101. Advantages of exceptional handling 
 
a)none 
b) with the exception handling mechanism when the exception occurs the execution of
the prgm is transfered to an appropriate exception handler and terminate
the pgm-----------------ANS 
c)exception handling maintains the nrmal flow of application------------------ANS 
d)with the exception handling mechanism the developer can code much cleanser
and have exception automatically decteced--------------------------------ANS 
e)in exception handling generic exception object can be extended to any specific type
exception-------ANS 
 
102. Who is responsible for reviewing the CR to verify that there is sufficient details 
 
a)project manager 
b)none of these 
c)change manager------------------------------------------------ ANS 
d)client manager 
 
103. HAVING Clause can be used only 
 
a)when select statement have where clause 
b)when the query has "group by" in select statements---------------------------- ANS 
c)when the order by clause is used in statement 
d)when conditiins is present in select statement 
 
104. Identify the priority of an incident that causes (or has the potential to cause) severe
disruption to business operations and/or significant fiscal impact  
 
a.Medium 
b.Critical----------------------------ans 
c.High 
d.Low 
 
105. Which process grants authorized users the right to use a service?  
 
a. access management-----------------------------------------------------------ANS 
b.Problem Management 
c.Event Management 
d.Incident Management 
 
106.  Which service is responsible for establishing a protocol for communication and
coordination between vendors using major outages? 
 
a.Application License Management 
b.Major incident and Mediator Support Service---------------------------------------------
ANS 
c.Known error Resolution Services 
d.Standard Service Request Fulfilment service 
 
107. Which of the following are the measurements of Batch Monitoring in AVM
projects?  
 
a.%Batch job abend---ANS 
b.%of Tickets Responed 
c.%Reduction in batch window---ANS 
d.%jobs complted within Target time ---ANS 
 
108. There is no process that needs to be followed in Scrum as it is only driven  
 
a.true 
b.false---------------------------------------------------------ANS 
 
109. What are all Three defined levels of benchmark? 
 
a.Threshold Limit 
b.Goal---------------------ans 
c.Upper Control Limit-----------------------------------------ANS 
d.Lower Control Limit----------------------------------------------ANs 
 
110. A scheduled batch process can consist of the execution of hundreds or thousands of
jobs in a random sequence  
 
true 
false---------------------ans 
 
111. How to we identify the performance of the select query? 
 
a.Using HINT 
b.Using Explain plan---------------------------------------------------ANS 
c.Using Table statistic 
d.Using DBMS_SQL 
 
112. enter user name -- not sure 
 
113.DISTINCT keyword used for_____________ 
ANS:- To find Unique records from table 
 
114. Which policy Cognizant follows__________ 
ANS:- Run Better, Run Different 
 
115.Which is Not DML command 
a. Insert 
b .Delete 
c. Update 
d. Truncate------------------------ANS