The process of moving data between two or more storage systems, data formats,

warehouses or servers.
Data Migration
Answer: 

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database
A Answer  is an organized collection of data.

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DevOps
The Answer  software development method emphasizes collaboration,
communication and integration between developers and other IT personnel with the goal of
streamlining software development and quality assurance.

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An amalgamation of “development” and “operations”.
DevOps
Answer: 

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DevOps
Answer  is the combination of tasks performed by an organization’s applications
development and systems operations teams.

This software allows a business or organization to manage a suite of integrated

applications  which are used to collect, manage, and store data on a variety of business
activities. 
ERP
Answer: 

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Enterprise Applica
 An Answer  is an application (or software) that is intended for large scale use
by a (large) business.

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This is a term used to reference the ability of a system to adapt to changing workload
demand by provisioning and deprovisioning pooled resources so that provisioned resources
match current demand as well as possible.
 Elasticity
Answer: 

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The ability of a cloud solution to add new runtime and framework support via community
buildpacks.
Extensibility
Answer: 

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A system in which multiple databases appear to function as a single entity. 
Federated Database
Answer: 

Enumerate the evolution of cloud computing.

Select one or more:

a.
Grid Computing

b.
Software as a Service
 c.
Utility Computing

d.
Cloud Computing

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The correct answers are: Grid Computing , Utility Computing, Software as a Service, Cloud
Computing

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In Process Mechanism, Computers rely on message passing.

Select one:
a.
Parallel Computing

b.
Distributed Programming

c.
Distributed Computing
 d.
Parallel Programming

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The correct answer is: Distributed Computing

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 _______ computing system is a multiprocessor machine capable of executing the same
instruction on all the CPUs but operating on different data streams.

Select one:
a.
Multiple-instruction, Single-data

b.
Multiple-instruction, Multiple-data

c.
Single-instruction, Single-data
 d.
Single-instruction, Multiple-data

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The correct answer is:
Single-instruction, Multiple-data

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_______ computing system is a multiprocessor capable of executing multiple instructions on
multiple data sets.

Select one:
a.
Single-instruction, Multiple-data

b.
Multiple-instruction, Multiple-data

c.
Multiple-instruction, Single-data
 d.
Single-instruction, Single-data

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The correct answer is: Multiple-instruction, Multiple-data

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_______ computing system is a multiprocessor machine capable of executing different
instructions on different Pes all of them operating on the same data set.

Select one:
a.
Single-instruction, Single-data

b.
Multiple-instruction, Multiple-data

c.
Multiple-instruction, Single-data

d.
Single-instruction, Multiple-data
 Feedback
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The correct answer is: Multiple-instruction, Single-data

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It used to share resources and to increase scalability.

Select one:
a.
Parallel Computing

b.
Parallel Programming

c.
Distributed Programming

d.
Distributed Computing

Feedback
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The correct answer is: Distributed Computing
Question 7
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Each computer has their own memory.

Select one:
a.
Parallel Computing

b.
Distributed Computing

c.
Distributed Programming

d.
Parallel Programming

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The correct answer is: Distributed Computing

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Evolution of Cloud Computing

Select one or more:

a.
Cloud Computing

b.
Parallel Computing

c.
Utility Computing

d.
Utility Network

e.
Grid Computing

f.
Software as a Service

g.
Cloud Service
 h.
Grid Service

Feedback
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The correct answers are: Grid Computing, Utility Computing, Software as a Service, Cloud
Computing

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In Process Mechanism, Multiple processors perform processing.

Select one:
a.
Distributed Programming

b.
Distributed Computing

c.
Parallel Programming

d.
Parallel Computing
 Feedback
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The correct answer is: Parallel Computing

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When did Cloud Computing began?

Select one:
a.
2001

b.
2010

c.
2017

d.
2007

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The correct answer is: 2007
Question 11
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A device that measures real world condition

Select one:
a.
Digital

b.
Actuator

c.
Sensor

d.
Analog

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The correct answer is: Sensor

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 Flag question

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All but one, are the components of a microcontroller.

Select one:
a.
Number of general purpose input & output pins

b.
Peripheral communication

c.
Communication capabilities

d.
Low memory size

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The correct answer is: Low memory size

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Cloud Computing is a set of ______________ architectures, which allow users to access a
number of resources in a way that is _____, _____, and _____.

Select one:
a.
service-oriented, flexible, cost-efficient, and on-demand.

o  service-oriented, flexible, cost-efficient, and on-demand.

ation capabilities

b.
self-oriented; flexible, cost-friendly, and on-demand.

c.
service-oriented; elastic, cost-efficient, and on-demand.

o  service-oriented; elastic, cost-efficient, and on-demand.

er of general purpose input & output pins

d.
self-oriented, elastic, cost-friendly, and on-demand.

ion

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The correct answer is:

service-oriented; elastic, cost-efficient, and on-demand.

o  service-oriented; elastic, cost-efficient, and on-demand.
er of general purpose input & output pins

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It uses to increase performance and for scientific.

Select one:
a.
Distributed Computing

b.
Distributed Programming

c.
Parallel Computing

d.
Parallel Programming

Feedback
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The correct answer is: Parallel Computing

In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the
supplicant.
Select one:
True
False

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How can SNMP access be restricted to a specific SNMP manager?

Select one:
a.
Define an ACL and reference it by using the snmp-server community command.

b.
Use the snmp-server traps command to enable traps on an SNMP manager.

c.
Specify the IP address of the SNMP manager by using the snmp-server host command.

d.
Use the snmp-server community command to configure the community string with no
access level.

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What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a switch buffer
overflow?

Select one:
a.
Place unused ports in an unused VLAN

b.
 Disable DTP

c.
Enable port security

d.
 Disable STP

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snooping
DHCP Answer   is a mitigation technique to prevent rogue DHCP servers
from providing false IP configuration parameters.

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Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) was developed to allow administrators
to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances,
on an IP network.

Select one:
True
False

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DHCP is the protocol that automatically assigns a host a valid IP address out of a DHCP
pool.

Select one:
True
False

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SNMP is an application layer protocol that provides a message format for
communication between managers and agents

Select one:
True
False

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MAC address table flooding attacks are addressed with port security.
Select one:
True
False

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It is a type of DHCP where the  attacker floods the DHCP server with bogus DHCP requests
and eventually leases all of the available IP addresses in the DHCP server pool.
DHCP
Answer: 

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It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker continuously requests Telnet connections in
an attempt to render the Telnet service unavailable and preventing an administrator from
remotely accessing a switch.
Telnet DoS Attack
Answer: 

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 port mirroring
Answer  allows source and destination ports to be in different switches. 

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Which mode is used to configure SNMP?

Select one:
a.
privileged mode 

b.
 router configuration mode 

c.
global configuration mode 

d.
interface configuration mode 

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The show monitor command is used to verify the SPAN session.

Select one:
True
False

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Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) was developed to allow administrators
to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances,
on an IP network.

Select one:
True
False

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The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary Layer 2 link discovery protocol.

Select one:
True
False

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What is an SNMP management agent?

Select one:
 a.
a communication protocol that is used by SNMP 

b.
software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP 

c.
a computer loaded with management software and used by an administrator to monitor a
network 

d.
a database that a device keeps about network performance 

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It is a type of DHCP  attack where the attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the
network to issue IP  addresses to clients. 
In DHCP spoofing attacks
Answer: 

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VLAN attacks are controlled by disabling DTP and following basic guidelines for
configuring trunk ports.

Select one:
True
False
Question 19
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It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker may use a list of common passwords,
dictionary words, and variations of words to discover the administrative password
Brute Force Passw ord Attack
Answer: 

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Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information
about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?

Select one:
a.
LLDP 

b.
HTTP 

c.
CDP

d.
FTP 

Match the term/details to complete each statement. 

A diagram of a software system or module, consisting of a Answer 1
rectangle on the left listing inputs, a rectangle in the center input-process-output chart
listing processing steps, a rectangle on the right listing outputs,
and arrows connecting inputs to processing steps and
processing steps to outputs.  input-process-output chart

A manual testing technique in which program documents

[specifications (requirements, design), source code or user's
manuals] are examined in a very formal and disciplined manner Answer 2
to discover errors, violations of standards and other problems. inspection

 
A programming language which requires little knowledge of
the target computer, can be translated into several different
machine languages, allows symbolic naming of operations and
addresses, provides features designed to facilitate expression of Answer 3
data structures and program logic, and usually results in several high-level language
machine instructions for each program statement.

A sequence of program statements that can never be executed.  Answer 4

infeasible path

An assessment of the consequence of the worst credible mishap

that could be caused by a specific hazard. Answer 5
hazard severity

Match the term/details to complete each statement. 

A language used to identify a sequence of
jobs, describe their requirements to an Answer 1
operating system, and control their job control language
execution.
A standard interface for hard disks which
Answer 2
provides for building most of the controller
integrated drive electronics
circuitry into the disk drive to save space.
 An organization involved in the
generation and promulgation of standards.
IEEE standards represent the formalization
Answer 3
of current norms of professional practice
Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers
through the process of obtaining the
consensus of concerned, practicing
professionals in the given field.
A requirement that specifies an external Answer 4
item with which a system or system interface requirement
component must interact, or sets forth
constraints on formats, timing, or other
factors caused by such an interaction.
The complete set of instructions
recognized by a given computer or Answer 5
provided by a given programming instruction set
language.
Feedback
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When was the officially released of Java?

Select one:
a.
1991
b.
1996
c.
1995
d.
1992

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Which of the following is not usable for writing java source code?

Select one:
a.
NetBeans
b.
BlueJ
c.
Notepad
 d.
None of the choices
e.
eclipse

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The Java feature, "write once, run anywhere", is termed as

Select one:
a.
Robust
b.
Object Oriented
c.
Platform independent
d.
High Performance

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What is the extension name of a Java Source code?

Select one:
a.
java
 b.
j
c.
class
d.
javac

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Which of the following is not the feature of java?

Select one:
a.
Code Security
b.
Robust
c.
None of the choices
d.
Static
e.
Platform independent

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What is the correct statement to compile Java program in command line?
Select one:
a.
java HelloWorld
b.
java HelloWorld.java
c.
javac HelloWorld
d.
javac HelloWorld.java

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Can we directly compile codes from NetBeans?

Select one:
a.
Yes, because we can call Java compiler from NetBeans
b.
No, we can only write codes in NetBeans
c.
No correct answer
d.
It depends, if there is a compiler embedded in NetBeans.

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Why do we need to set the path for JavaC in command line?

Select one:
a.
To resolve syntax error
b.
To make JavaC available or accessible in command line.
c.
To resolve runtime error
d.
It is part of the compilation process
e.
None of the choices

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What did java generates after compiling the java source code?

Select one:
a.
Image file
b.
Executable file
c.
Byte Code
d.
Class Code

Question 10
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 Flag question

Question text
What is the correct statement to set JavaC path in command line?

Select one:
a.
C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_23\bin
b.
< JavaC directory >
c.
All of the given choices are correct
d.
set path
e.
No correct answer
f.
path C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_23\bin
Let us assume that we have the following variables in our program:

int a = 2;
int b = 5;
int c = 3;
int intResult = 0;
boolean x = true;
boolean y = false;
boolean booleanResult = false;

What will be the value of intResult or booleanResult if we execute the following expressions?
intResult += c;

1
Answer: 

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Which of the following has the correct form for an if statement?

Select one:
a.
if (boolean_expression)
b.
boolean_expression
c.
none of the choices
d.
if boolean_expression
e.
if boolean_expression

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Let us assume that we have the following variables in our program:

int a = 2;
int b = 5;
int c = 3;
int intResult = 0;
boolean x = true;
boolean y = false;
boolean booleanResult = false;
What will be the value of intResult or booleanResult if we execute the following expressions?
intResult = a >> 2;

booleanResult = !((a + c) > b) && x;

Answer: 

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Let us assume that we have the following variables in our program:

int a = 2;
int b = 5;
int c = 3;
int intResult = 0;
boolean x = true;
boolean y = false;
boolean booleanResult = false;

What will be the value of intResult or booleanResult if we execute the following expressions?
intResult = 1; 

1
Answer: 

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Let us assume that we have the following variables in our program:
int a = 2;
int b = 5;
int c = 3;
int intResult = 0;
boolean x = true;
boolean y = false;
boolean booleanResult = false;

What will be the value of intResult or booleanResult if we execute the following expressions?
intResult = ++b * a + c;

15
Answer: 

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what will be the output if you execute this code?
int x=1;
switch(x){
case 1:
                System.out.print(“1”);
case 2:
                System.out.print(“1”);
case 3:
                System.out.print(“1”);
default:
                System.out.print(“1”);
}
 
Select one:
a.
None of the above}

b.
display nothing
 

c.
display 1111
 

d.
display 1234
 

e.
display 1
 

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Which statement will check if x is equal to y?
 

Select one:
a.
if (y>y)
 

b.
none of the choices

c.
if (x>y)
 

d.
if (x<>y)
 

e.
if (x!<y)
 

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Which is not a repetition control structure?

Select one:
a.
switch
b.
None of the choices
c.
while
d.
for
e.
do while

Question 9
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 Flag question

Question text
Let us assume that we have the following variables in our program:

int a = 2;
int b = 5;
int c = 3;
int intResult = 0;
boolean x = true;
boolean y = false;
boolean booleanResult = false;

What will be the value of intResult or booleanResult if we execute the following expressions?
booleanResult = !((a + c) > b)   && x;

Select one:
True
False

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What will be the value of x after executing this code
for(int x=0; x<=10; x++) {} is run?
 

Select one:
a.
10
 

b.
1
 

c.
11
 

d.
none of the above

e.
0
 

Enables you to view your requirements hierarchically in a tree.

Select one:
a.
Requirement Details

b.
Requirement Tree

c.
Requirements Grid

d.
Coverage Analysis
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Enables you to associate the selected requirement with other requirements in the
requirements tree

Select one:
a.
Requirements Traceability

b.
Risk assessment

c.
Test Coverage

d.
Details
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A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application at any point in the
application management process.

Select one:
True 
 False

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This area displays the assigned or calculated values of the risk and functional complexity of
an assessment requirement.

Select one:
a.
Assessment plan tab

b.
Assessment Results tab

c.
Assessment Questions tab

d.
Assessment tab
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Enables you to add and remove traceability links between requirements
Select one:
a.
Description

b.
Comments

c.
Relationships

d.
Impact Analysis
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The ________ module addresses the need for a stronger connection between business
process modeling, quality assurance management, and requirement definition.

Select one:
a.
ALM Business Models

b.
Mailing Requirements

c.
Application LifeCycle Intelligence (ALI)

d.
Linked Defects
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This tab enables you to determine the business criticality, failure probability, and functional
complexity of a requirement by assigning it values directly or by assigning values to a set of
criteria.

Select one:
a.
Assessment Results tab

b.
Assessment Questions tab

c.
Assessment plan tab

d.
Assessment tab
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 Question text
What is the third stage of the testing process?

Select one:
a.
Test Execution

b.
Test Planning

c.
None of the choices

d.
Test Control
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After finalizing the testing policy for your requirements, you can ______ a risk report that
details your testing strategy for the analysis requirement.

Select one:
a.
Generate

b.
Plan
c.
Start
 d.
None of the choices
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The Test Plan module enables you to ____ your application according to functionality.

Select one:
a.
None of the choices

b.
Multiply

c.
Plan

d.
Divide
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A test can cover more than one______ and a requirement can be covered by more than one
test.

Select one:
a.
Activity

b.
Plan

c.
None of the choices

d.
Requirement
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After you select an automatic method for conversion, you cannot customize the conversion.

Select one:
True
False 

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 Flag question

Question text
Enables you to create links between requirements and other entities.

Select one:
a.
Coverage Analysis

b.
Requirements Grid

c.
Requirement Tree

d.
Requirements Details
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After defining the subjects in the Test Plan tree, the next step is to add and define the
specific tests to be performed for each subject.

Select one:
True 
 False

Question 15
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To create the Test Plan tree in the Test Plan module, you manually create folders and add
tests to these folders.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 16
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Question text
Before defining manual tests, you specify the detailed steps to execute each test.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 17
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 Flag question

Question text
A _______ is a variable that can be assigned a value during test execution.

Select one:
a.
Test planning

b.
Parameter

c.
Test

d.
Template
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You convert requirements to tests to automatically create a one-to-one mapping between
____________ and ______.

Select one:
a.
Requirements and tests
 b.
Planning and activity

c.
Requirements and activities

d.
Activity and tests
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Question text
Clearly defined requirements help developers set a target for themselves and the testing
team to identify their testing priorities.

Select one:
a.
Saves time and money

b.
Helps prevent scope creep

c.
Sets clear expectations between teams

d.
Aids development and testing
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Question text
A _______ contains the actions that must be performed during test execution.

Select one:
a.
Test planning

b.
Test script

c.
None of the choices

d.
Designing test
Feedback
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Enables you to instruct ALM to automatically send a status alert email to the author when
the test set completes execution.

Select one:
a.
Develop the Test Sets tree

b.
Set automation options

c.
Organize test runs

d.
Run the tests
 Feedback
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Question text
You use the ________ to add an existing test or component to the Tests and Components list.

Select one:
a.
None of the choices

b.
Open button

c.
New button

d.
Save button
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Question text
Enables you to control the execution of automated tests by setting test run conditions and
creating a schedule.
Select one:
a.
Run the tests

b.
Organize test runs

c.
Set automation options

d.
Develop the Test Set Tree
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Enables you to create and edit tests or components directly in Sprinter and save them to
ALM.

Select one:
a.
Button Plan mode

b.
None of the choices

c.
ALM Plan mode

d.
Sprinter's Plan mode
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Question text
You run tests ________ from ALM using HP Sprinter.

Select one:
a.
Manually and Automatically

b.
Automatically

c.
None of the choices

d.
Manually
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Question text
Provides a clear picture of the test building blocks and assists in the execution of the actual
tests.

Select one:
a.
Develop the Test Sets tree

b.
Run the tests

c.
Set automation options

d.
Organize test runs
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Question text
When you are in ________, Sprinter keeps a record of all your user actions, which you can
view as a list or in the Storyboard at the end of your run.

Select one:
a.
Power mode

b.
None of the choices
c.
Automatic mode
 d.
Manual mode
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Question text
Which of the following new features allows you to perform testing with a single motivation
of identifying defects?

Select one:
a.
Access the storyboard

b.
View the storyboard

c.
None of the choices

d.
Exploratory testing
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 Question text
You can _______ to a Word or PDF file. This file contains the run summary, step status, and
defect information for the run session.

Select one:
a.
Export a Storyboard

b.
View the Storyboard

c.
None of the choices

d.
Access the Storyboard
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Question 10
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Question text
A group of tests designed to achieve specific testing goals.

Select one:
a.
Test Set folder

b.
Test Set

c.
Test Sets Tree
 d.
None of the choices
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Question text
This allows you to design a scanner that detects the desired items in your application.

Select one:
a.
spell check scanner

b.
web standards scanner

c.
Broken links scanner

d.
Custom scanner
Feedback
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Question text
Which of the following is not part of the steps to run in Power mode using injection?

Select one:
a.
Click the Browse button

b.
Click a row of data and click the Injection Data button

c.
Click the Run the Active Test button

d.
Click the Data Injection sidebar
Feedback
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Question text
If you know that a test in your test set might fail, but you want to make sure that
subsequent tests in the test set still execute, which of the following should you do?

Select one:
a.
Disconnect the test from the flow.

b.
Ensure that the execution condition for the arrow running into the test is set to Finished.
 c.
All of the choices

d.
Ensure that the execution condition for the arrow running out from the test is set to
Finished.

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Enables you to record additional details about the actual test execution results.

Select one:
a.
None of the choices

b.
Status Column

c.
Actual Field

d.
Compact View Button
Feedback
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Question 15
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Question text
Contains tests that you can assign to cycles in the Management module. This association
allows you to review the progress of tests, determine the number of resolved and
outstanding defects, and enhance your reporting ability.

Select one:
a.
Test Sets Tree

b.
Test Set folder

c.
None of the choices

d.
Test Set
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Question text
This scanner checks your application for errors resulting from translating the application’s UI
into different languages.
Select one:
a.
Spell check scanner

b.
Web standards scanner

c.
Broken links scanner

d.
Localization scanner
Feedback
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Question 17
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To create a _____, click the New button in the Plan area.

Select one:
a.
New Test

b.
Test

c.
Application

d.
Set Test
Feedback
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Question 18
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Question text
Enables you to manage the execution of manual and automated tests and document their
results.

Select one:
a.
Run the tests

b.
Set automation options

c.
Develop the Test Set Tree

d.
Organize test runs
Feedback
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The ______ module allows you to view all test runs for your project in a grid.
Select one:
a.
Test Set Tree

b.
None of the choices

c.
Test Set

d.
Test Runs
Feedback
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Question text
This scanner, relevant only for web applications, checks your application for broken
hyperlinks and missing referenced content.

Select one:
a.
Spell check scanner

b.
Location scanner

c.
Broken links scanner

d.
Web standards scanner
Feedback
Your answer is correct.

What entities may be connected to a defect? (Select two.)

Select one or more:

a.
Tests

b.
Reports

c.
Cycles

d.
Releases

e.
Defects
Feedback
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Question 2
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Question text
What enables you to do Risk-based Quality Management?

Select one:
 a.
Determine which requirements to add to the application

b.
Calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested***

c.
Predict defect per requirement

d.
Calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement

Feedback
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Question text
______ are the means for setting objectives on Project Planning and Tracking releases and for
planning and tracking release progress towards these objectives throughout its duration.

Select one:
a.
Scope items

b.
Thresholds

c.
Analysis

d.
Scoreboard
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 Which does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign by default when a new defect is
created? (Select two.)

Select one or more:

a.
A unique test set

b.
A unique defect ID

c.
The status New

d.
A version number

e.
The status Created

Feedback
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Question text
The save options are disabled when more than one test or component is selected.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 6
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Question text
Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application Lifecycle
Management? (Select two.)

Select one or more:

a.
Smart Defects Identification

b.
Defect Checking

c.
Smart Identification

d.
Defect Reminder

e.
Smart Defects

Feedback
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Question 7
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Question text
 Having a direct link between a defect and a test has an implication of what?

Select one:
a.
The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.

b.
The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.
 c.
The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.

d.
The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.

Feedback
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Question text
You can add ______ to a cycle.

Select one:
a.
Links

b.
Tests

c.
Tabs

d.
Attachments
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 Flag question

Question text
Match the missing word/details to complete each statement. 
___________________ should have functionality that helps you make
Answer 1
sense of your requirements and ideally the tools should be adaptable to ALM tools
your methodology and processes rather than the other way around.  
In the past, before the ________________ was published and before
organizations realized that their previous waterfall approach to
Answer 2
software development was inefficient and prone to scope creep, cost Agile Manifesto
overruns and missed deadlines, each of the disciplines that made up the  
overall software process was completely separate.
Once organizations realized how much more efficient they can be
having _________________ that collaboratively define the
Answer 3
requirements, plan the releases and sprints, test the product during integrated teams
development and deploy the latest update in a seamless way, the old  
separate processes didn’t make sense. 
__________________ is basically the fusing together of the Answer 4
disciplines concerned with all aspects of the software delivery process: ALM
 
Instead of a set of _______________________ working in a vacuum to
define the vision and requirements, handing off the design to the
developers, handing off the code to the testers, handing off the product Answer 5
to the IT support team to deploy and maintain, you now have a single business analysts
 
ALM process spanning all these elements continuously delivering
new features every X weeks.
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Question text
Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during a test run on HP Sprinter?
(Select two.)

Select one or more:

a.
Ruler tool

b.
Align tool

c.
Step tool

d.
Click tool

e.
Guides tool

Feedback
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Question text
Displays the progress of a release in a Gantt chart.
Select one:
a.
Master Plan tab

b.
Content tab

c.
Detailed tab

d.
Scorecard tab
Feedback
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Question 12
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Question text
You can associate defects with tests to ensure their traceability throughout the testing
process.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 13
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Question text
Sprinter runs auto tests in ALM from the Test Lab module.
Select one:
True
False 

Question 14
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Question text
Which tool can be used to store HP Sprinter information on a defect without interrupting
the test flow?

Select one:
a.
Test Defect tool

b.
Defect Reminder tool

c.
Defect Highlighter tool

d.
Smart Defect tool

Feedback
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Question text
A group of tests designed to achieve specific testing goals.

Select one:
a.
Test Sets Tree

b.
Test Set folder

c.
Test Set

d.
None of the choices
Feedback
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Question 16
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Question text
Enables you to manage the execution of manual and automated tests and document their
results.

Select one:
a.
Develop the Test Set Tree
 b.
Run the tests

c.
Organize test runs

d.
Set automation options
Feedback
Your answer is correct.

If you begin to make changes to an entity in a version control-enabled project, you are
prompted to check in the entity.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 2
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Question text
You run tests ________ from ALM using HP Sprinter.

Select one:
a.
Manually and Automatically

b.
Manually

c.
None of the choices
 d.
Automatically
Feedback
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Question 3
Correct
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Question text
What enables you to do Risk-based Quality Management?

Select one:
a.
Determine which requirements to add to the application

b.
Predict defect per requirement

c.
Calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested***

d.
Calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement

Feedback
Your answer is correct.

Question 4
Correct
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Question text
In the dashboard pages, you can arrange and view multiple graphs on a single page.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 5
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You can use the Project Report reporting tool, available in the Analysis View module, to
design and generate comprehensive reports of project data.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 6
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 Question text
For which modules does the Automail customisation feature apply?

Select one:
a.
All licensed modules

b.
Only Defects

c.
Only Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, and Defects

d.
Only Test Lab and Defects

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This cycle ensures that the new features meet the expectations of the business.

Select one:
a.
Cycle 2-Integrated System Testing
 b.
Cycle 1-New Features

c.
Cycle 4-User Acceptance Testing

d.
Cycle 3-Performance Testing
Feedback
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Question text
What organizations do support the regulation of versions? (Select three.)

Select one or more:

a.
Test steps

b.
Test resources

c.
Requirements

d.
Tests

e.
Defects
 f.
Cycles

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Question text
What use cases for customization can only be accommodated by editing workflow code?

Select one:
a.
Adding a new status called “Pending Review” to the Test Status system field

b.
Denying access to the Releases module for certain groups of users

c.
Sending an email to a test’s owner whenever a linked requirement is updated

d.
Permitting developers to see only the defects submitted by their team

Feedback
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Question 10
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Question text
Enables you to view requirements in a flat non-hierarchical view.

Select one:
a.
Traceability Matrix

b.
Requirements Details

c.
Requirements Grid

d.
Coverage analysis
Feedback
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Question text
Enables you to increase the number of parallel calculations performed on an entire site.

Select one:
a.
Scheduling Area
 b.
Purge Area

c.
Advanced Area

d.
None of the choices
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Question text
To create a _____, click the New button in the Plan area.

Select one:
a.
Set Test

b.
Test

c.
Application

d.
New Test
Feedback
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Question 13
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Question text
Contains the Dashboard tree in which you organize dashboard pages.

Select one:
a.
Analysis Menus tab

b.
Dashboard View module

c.
Live Analysis graphs

d.
Live Analysis graphs
Feedback
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Question 14
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Question text
Which does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign by default when a new defect is
created? (select 2)
1. A unique defect ID.
2. The status Created
3. A version number
4. The status New
5. A unique test set
Select one:
a.
D - (1) (2) and (4) only

b.
B - (2) and (3) Only

c.
C - (2) (4) and (5) Only

d.
A - (1) only (4) only

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Question text
The ALM Synchronizer is a device that combines with what resources outside the box?
(Select three.)

Select one or more:

a.
Rational RegPro

b.
Microsoft Project

c.
CollabNet TeamForge

d.
Defects between two ALM Projects

e.
Rational CIearQuest

f.
Tasktop

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Question text
You can _____graphs for viewing in a web browser without downloading an ALM client.

Select one:
a.
Share and Download

b.
None of the choices

c.
Download

d.
Share
Feedback
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Before you create a report, you can add sub-reports. A sub-report adds an extra layer of
information related to the parent report.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 2
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Question text
To compare two versions, press the Alt key and select each version. Click the Compare
button.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 3
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Question text
Contains the Analysis tree in which you organize all of your analysis items.
Select one:
a.
Analysis graphs

b.
Dashboard view module

c.
Analysis view module

d.
Dashboard module
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Question text
Live _________ enable you to create and display a dynamic graphic representation of data
related to test plans.

Select one:
a.
Dashboard module

b.
Dashboard view module

c.
Analysis view module

d.
Analysis graphs
Feedback
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Question 5
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In a version control-enabled project, you can only make changes to an entity by checking it
in.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 6
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Question text
You can define what data appear in a graph and how the data are organized.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 7
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 Flag question

Question text
Contains the Dashboard tree in which you organize dashboard pages.

Select one:
a.
Analysis view module
b.
Dashboard modules

c.
Analysis graphs

d.
Dashboard view module
Feedback
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Question text
You can _____graphs for viewing in a web browser without downloading an ALM client.

Select one:
a.
Download

b.
Share
 c.
Share and Download

d.
None of the choices
Feedback
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Question 9
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Question text
In the _________, you analyze ALM data by creating graphs, project reports, and Excel reports.

Select one:
a.
Dashboard view module

b.
Analysis graphs

c.
Dashboard modules

d.
Analysis view module
Feedback
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Question text
You can view a list of all entities in the current module that you have checked out, and
check in or undo the check out for selected entities.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 11
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Question text
If you begin to make changes to an entity in a version control-enabled project, you are
prompted to check in the entity.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 12
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 Question text
You can use the Project Report reporting tool, available in the Analysis View module, to
design and generate comprehensive reports of project data.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 13
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Question text
You use the Graph wizard to generate an old graph.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 14
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Question text
In the dashboard pages, you can arrange and view multiple graphs on a single page.

Select one:
 True 
False

Question 15
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Question text
Version control enables you to create and manage ALM entities while maintaining previous
versions of these entities.

Select one:
True 
False

Finish review
◄ W13 Module 11-Reporting and Analysis - PRESENTATION
Jump to...
Before navigating to the Test Instance Details dialog box, you link a defect to the test
instance.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 2
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 Question text
You can ________ a defect to record all the information about an issue and to record the
decisions made as different individuals review the defect.

Select one:
a.
None of the choices

b.
Automatically update

c.
Not regularly update

d.
Regularly update
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Question text
After you make changes to an entity, you _____ the entity.

Select one:
a.
Check out

b.
None of the choices

c.
Check in
 d.
Check in and out
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Question text
If you would like to revert an entity to a previous version, which of the following actions
would you take?

Select one:
a.
Check out the entity

b.
Check in the entity

c.
Promote the entity
d.
Change the history of the entity
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 Question text
The ____________ relationship enables you to identify the status of defects to determine
whether requirements have been met.

Select one:
a.
Tracking-Requirement

b.
Defect-Requirement

c.
ALM-Requirement

d.
None of the choices
Feedback
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Question text
Managing and tracking defects is a critical step in the testing process because it involves a
lot of time and money.

Select one:
True 
False

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Question text
Provides a tabular list of the defects logged for a project.

Select one:
a.
Attachment tab

b.
Description tab

c.
Defects grid

d.
History tab
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Question text
The project administrator for your organization can _______ version control through ALM Site
Administration.

Select one:
a.
None of the choices
 b.
Disable

c.
Enable or Disable

d.
Enable
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Question text
If you want to make changes to an entity in a version control enabled project, what is the
first thing you must do?

Select one:
a.
Promote the entity

b.
Check out the entity

c.
Turn off version control

d.
Check in the entity
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Question text
Evaluating defects and defect trends helps you make effective go/no-go decisions.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 11
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Question text
Provides filter fields from where you can define criteria for filtering the data listed in the
Defects grid.

Select one:
a.
Grid filter

b.
Description tab

c.
Defects grid

d.
Attachment tab
Feedback
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Question 12
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If test instances are present in multiple test sets, you can associate defects with test
instances to ensure easy traceability.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 13
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Question text
Provides an audit trail of changes made to each defect.

Select one:
a.
History tab

b.
Defects grid

c.
Attachment tab
d.
Description tab
 Feedback
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Question text
You can associate defects with tests to ensure their traceability throughout the testing
process.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 15
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Question text
You can create and manage entities in a version control-enabled project in both tree and
grid views.

Select one:
True 
False

What does a VLAN do?

Select one:
a.
Acts as the fastest port to all servers
 b.
Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork  

c.
Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port  

d.
Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain
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Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?

Select one:
a.
overlay network

b.
chief network

c.
prime network

d.
prior network
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The execution of the functions on a single server  or across servers on the network is called:

Select one:
a.
Some are committed and some are roll backed

b.
All are roll backed regardless of whether they issue any one

c.
All are roll backed  if they issue rollback

d.
All are committed if they issue commit
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Which of the following statements regarding Client-server computing are true?

Select one:
a.
The Client server environment is typically homogeneous and single-vendor. The hardware
flat form and operating system of Client and Server are usually the same

b.
Clint-server computing is merely a transitional phase in the larger trend towards fully
distributed computing
 c.
Client Server computing can be divided into three components, a Client process, a server
process and a Middleware in between them for their interaction

d.
Database, transaction servers are more advanced and sophisticated types of servers than
disk and file servers
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A client device designed so that most processing and data storage occurs on the client side
describes

Select one:
a.
Active Client

b.
Application Client

c.
 Fat Client

d.
Thin Client 
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What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

Select one:
a.
IP

b.
RARP 

c.
ARP 

d.
ICMP
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The execution of the functions on a single server  or across servers on the network is called:

Select one:
a.
TP-Heavy

b.
TP- Lite

c.
ORB 
 d.
TP Monitor
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A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called:

Select one:
a.
protocol file

b.
protocol architecture

c.
protocol suite

d.
protocol stack
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NetBEUI is an enhanced version of ------ Protocol

Select one:
 a.
IPX

b.
NetBIOS

c.
SPX

d.
TCP/IP 
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When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is
called:

Select one:
a.
computer network

b.
client server

c.
distributed system

d.
networking system
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Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

Select one:
a.
virtual private network

b.
metropolitan area network

c.
broadcast network

d.
local area network

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A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.

Select one:
a.
firewall
 b.
bridge

c.
bridge, firewall and router

d.
router
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TP monitor done its responsibilities with the help of which protocol?

Select one:
a.
IP

b.
 Two-Phase Commit Protocol

c.
TCP/IP 

d.
SNA 
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The principle of serial equivalence for distributed transactions says that:

Select one:
a.
Concurrent transactions should be atomic

b.
Sequential transactions should never be executed concurrently, because of the dangers of
lost updates

c.
When several transactions are executed concurrently, the result should be the same as if
they had been executed in sequence

d.
Concurrent transactions should always be executed in sequence
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Two devices are in network if:

Select one:
a.
a process is running on both devices

b.
a process is internally oriented
 c.
a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device

d.
PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
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In computer network nodes are:

Select one:
a.
the computer that terminates, originates and routes the data

b.
the computer that routes the data

c.
the computer that originates the data

d.
the computer that terminates the data
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In the Client-Server architecture, the component that processes the request and sends the
response is 

Select one:
a.
Client

b.
Server

c.
Protocol

d.
Network
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Which of the following does not refer to middleware?

Select one:
a.
(e)  JAVA and C

b.
DCOM

c.
COM

d.
JAVA 

e.
 C  
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Which of the following is not a likely configuration of a Client-Server System?

Select one:
a.
Single Client- Single Server

b.
 Multiple Clients- Multiple Servers System

c.
Single Client- Multiple Server System

d.
Multiple Clients- Single Server System
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Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

Select one:
a.
unicast network

b.
broadcast network

c.
monocast network

d.
multicast network
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This is the process of assigning storage, usually in the form of server disk drive space, in
order to optimize the performance of a storage area network.

Select one:
a.
 Storage Provisioning

b.
Data Warehousing

c.
Data mining

d.
Storage assignment
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Question 2
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A tape library does not contain:

Select one:
a.
Robotic Arm

b.
Tape Drive

c.
Bar Code Reader

d.
RAID Array
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Nested RAID provides better performance characteristics than the RAID levels that comprise
them

Select one:
a.
True

b.
False
 Feedback
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 Select the correct option regarding tape drive

Select one:
a.
Tape drives have fast average seek times

b.
Tape drives can be used t store data on optical disks

c.
Archival life of data stored on tape is around 5 years

d.
Tape drives can stream data at a very fast rate
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Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?

Select one:
a.
IP address of Server
 b.
Port number

c.
Client Server

d.
Both IP address of Server & Port number
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The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource
referred by the URL.

Select one:
a.
 True

b.
False
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Network congestion occurs when:
Select one:
a.
in case of traffic overloading

b.
when connection between two nodes terminates

c.
none of the mentioned

d.
when a system terminates
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Which of the following is false about tape devices?

Select one:
a.
Tape drives are used for archival storage of data

b.
Tape drives allow random access of data

c.
A tape drive is a data storage device that reads and writes data stored on a Magnetic tape

d.
Tape media has low unit cost and long archival stability
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Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?

Select one:
a.
virtual private network

b.
storage area network

c.
local area network

d.
enterprise private network
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Question 10
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For long term storage (archival) of data which of the following storage devices is generally
used:

Select one:
a.
CD Rom

b.
Tape Cartridges
 c.
Hard Disk

d.
Floppy Disk
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Question 11
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RAID Level 6 has dual parity where as RAID Level 5 has single parity and both does block
level striping

Select one:
a.
True

b.
False
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Question 12
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Which of the following Company manufactures RAID devices?

Select one:
a.
Quantum

b.
Qlogic

c.
LSI

d.
Falconstor
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This is a repository for the storage, management, and dissemination of data in which the
mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy
efficiency and minimum environmental impact.

Select one:
a.
 Data Center

b.
Fabric

c.
Storage lab

d.
Data warehouse
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TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of?

Select one:
a.
Socket

b.
IP Address

c.
Protocol

d.
MAC Address
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What is the most basic level of storage?

Select one:
a.
SAN

b.
NAS

c.
ISCSI
 d.
DAS
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Question 16
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RAID Level 7 does Asynchronous cached striping with dedicated parity.

Select one:
a.
TRUE

b.
FALSE
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Simply stated, these are large boxes that hold lots of hard disks.

Select one:
a.
Tape library

b.
Host
 c.
Switch

d.
Disk Array
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Question 18
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Which of the following provides byte level striping?

Select one:
a.
RAID 2

b.
RAID 4

c.
RAID 5

d.
 RAID 6
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 Question text
This is the practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for
backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that
more hard disks can be made available, or for some other purpose.

Select one:
a.
Backup

b.
Archive

c.
Migration

d.
Compression
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Pick the false statement

Select one:
a.
RAID Level 1 provides disk mirroring

b.
RAID Level 5 provides block level striping and error correction information

c.
RAID Level 4 provides block level striping

d.
RAID Level 2 provides bit level striping with Hamming code ECC
 Feedback
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focal
The Answer  point is the center and the focus of an image.

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imagine
Before you start with your drawing you need to Answer  what your trying to
draw and then go for it.

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Programs that allow the user to create and edit bitmapped graphics
paint program
Answer: 

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8 bit image with a color depth of 256 colors
Visual Communication
Answer: 
Question 5
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Pictures of drawings, outlines, graphs, photos, sketches, or route catches that have been
made or altered on a PC or other computerized gadget

Select one:
a.
Font

b.
Color

c.
Balance and Space

d.
Digital Graphics
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Is an important choice in visual communication because each color has a meaning.

Select one:
a.
Balance and Space

b.
Digital Graphics

c.
Color

d.
Font
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In order to save with a transparent background you must save an image in this format
PNG
Answer: 

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Group of pixels that represents the quality of an image.
resolution
Answer: 

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 Question text
is an artifact that depicts visual perception, such as a photograph or other two-dimensional
picture
image
Answer: 

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It's the act doing something repeatedly until one mastered it.
practice is the key
Answer: 

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You should rehearse, practice, practice.

Select one:
True 
False

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Have everything to do with your audience’s engagement with your communication.

Select one:
a.
Digital Graphics

b.
Balance and Space

c.
Color

d.
Font
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The art of creating an image using only a hand with a pen or pencil
free hand
Answer: 

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Keeping the elements of your design balanced gives the design some form and stability.

Select one:
a.
Balance and Space

b.
Color

c.
Design Graphics

d.
Font
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Refers to pixels per inch. It is a unit of measure for bitmap images and the devices that
display them electronically.
PPI
Answer: 

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After your done with your creation you deliver it to your audience to receive Answer
feedback
 that will be use for improvement.

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 Flag question

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Its a simple software to create images and save in various formats
paint
Answer: 

Question 18
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24 bit image with a color depth of 16.7 million colors
full color depth
Answer: 

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Its the a part of the human capacity on make something artistic from ones concept.
creativity
Answer: 

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Programs that allow the user to create or edit vector graphics
draw program
Answer: 

Under WHEN SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER?

You need to manufacture a feeling of normal reason, or inspiration - or both - among
individuals.

Select one:
True 
False

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Incorporates physical ancient rarities or things you can grasp, for example, business cards,
enormous configuration standards, flyers, specialized manuals, or corporate letterhead.
Print Media Design
Answer: 

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Under WHY SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER?
 To supplant meeting minutes by making an area in the pamphlet committed to meeting
outlines.

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True 
False

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Computerized media planners are commonly prepared moving illustrations, screenwriting,
video altering, advanced sound generation and video creation.

Select one:
a.
Graphic Design
b.
Electronic Media
c.
Digital Media Design
d.
Visual Communication
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A comprehension of printmaking is likewise significant for illustrations intended to show up
on promoting materials.
Digital Media Design
Answer: 

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Under WHEN SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER?
You need the general population to see you as a dependable and critical gathering.

Select one:
True 
False

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Under WHY SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER? 
To teach all readers about issues and thoughts those worry your gathering.

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True 
False

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Includes all substance displayed in electronic arrangement, for example, sites, online
preparing, electronic reports, sound, video, and illustrations distributed in the virtual space.

Select one:
a.
Print Media Design
b.
Visual Communication
c.
Digital Media Design
d.
Electronic Media Design
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Basically, these two fields set out to make types of visual correspondence media that
regularly relate a thought, picture or brand to a group of people.
Visual Representation
Answer: 

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Is data or information that is made, appropriated and got to utilizing a type of hardware,
electromechanical vitality or any gear utilized in electronic interchanges.

Select one:
a.
Electronic Media
b.
Visual Communication
c.
Graphic Design
d.
Print Media Design
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Under WHY SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER? 
To sparkle new enthusiasm for, and increment acknowledgment of, your office.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 12
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Under WHY SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER? 
To stay up with the latest about what's happening.

Select one:
True 
False

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Under WHEN SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER?
You need to get a great deal of data to many individuals all the time.

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True
False 

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Data configuration is the arranging, organizing, and association of data in a way that is
productive for individuals to find.
data organization
Answer: 

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Under WHY SHOULD YOU CREATE A NEWSLETTER? 
To construct attachment and a feeling of pride among your individuals.

Select one:
True
False