Tutorial 2 Solutions

December 8, 2021

1. The (x, y) system can be thought of as a rotation from the (x̃, ỹ) system. The 2 are
related by the transformation law:
    
x cos ϕ sin ϕ x̃
=
y − sin ϕ cos ϕ ỹ

d2 x d2 x̃ d2 ỹ
∴ = cos ϕ + sin ϕ ,
dt2 dt2 dt2

d2 y d2 x̃ d2 ỹ
= − sin ϕ + cos ϕ . (1)
dt2 dt2 dt2

Now in the (x̃, ỹ) system, the equations of motion are

mx̃¨ = 0, (2a)
mỹ¨ = −mg. (2b)

Putting equations (2a) and (2b) into eq. (1), we get

1
 d2 x
= −g sin ϕ, (3a)
dt2
d2 y
= −g cos ϕ. (3b)
dt2

Equations (3a) and (3b) can be solved to give

vx = −gt sin ϕ + k1 ,
vy = −gt cos ϕ + k2 .

when t = 0, vx = v0 cos θ and vs = v0 sin θ, (this fixes the constants k1 and k2 ).

∴ vx = −gt sin ϕ + v0 cos θ,

Integrating once again, we get

−gt2
x(t) = sin ϕ + v0 t cos θ + c1 ,
2
−gt2
y(t) = cos ϕ + v0 t sin θ + c2 .
2
at t = 0, x(t) = y(t) = 0

∴ c1 = c2 = 0

Hence
−gt2
x(t) = sin ϕ + v0 t cos θ, (4a)
2
−gt2
y(t) = cos ϕ + v0 t sin θ. (4b)
2

Now, y(t) = 0 at the start, i.e., t = 0 and at t = T at the end

Therefore, putting this condition into Eq.(4b), we get

2v0 sin θ
T = .
g cos ϕ
Now, the expression for x(t) will give the range R
 2
g 2v0 sin θ 2v0 sin θ
∴ R = − sin ϕ + v0 cos θ
2 g cos ϕ g cos ϕ

2
.
Thus,
v02 sin θ v02 sin θ
R=2 [− sin θ sin ϕ + cos θ cos ϕ] = 2 cos(θ + ϕ). (5)
g cos2 ϕ g cos2 ϕ
Now, to get the maximum range, with the expression of R as given in Eq. 5
dR
=0
dθ

Therefore from the above equation of the range R, we have:

cos θ cos(θ + ϕ) − sin θ sin(θ + ϕ) = 0,

which can be conveniently re-written as:

cos(2θ + ϕ) = 0.

π
=⇒ 2θ + ϕ =
2
[If ϕ = 0 given θ = π4 ; which is the correct limit we know from high school] This implies
for maximum range, we get
1 π 
θ= −ϕ . (6)
2 2
Now, substituting Eq. 6, into Eq. 5, and noting that
 
π ϕ π ϕ π ϕ 1 ϕ ϕ
sin θ = sin − = sin cos − cos sin = √ (cos − sin ),
4 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2
and
 
π ϕ π ϕ π ϕ 1 ϕ ϕ
cos(θ + ϕ) = cos + = cos cos − sin sin = √ (cos − sin ),
4 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2
we get: 2
2v02
 
1 ϕ ϕ
Rmax = cos − sin .
g cos2 ϕ 2 2 2
This can be further manipulated to get:

v02 ϕ ϕ v02 v02 (1 − sin ϕ) v02

Rmax = (1−2 cos sin ) = (1−sin ϕ) = = ,
g cos2 ϕ 2 2 g cos2 ϕ g(1 − sin ϕ)(1 + sin ϕ) g(1 + sin ϕ)
and finally,
v02
Rmax =
g(1 + sin ϕ)

3
2. We start with the expression for the velocity:

d⃗r dreˆr
v= =
dt dt
= ṙeˆr + reˆ˙r .
Now, in class we have shown that
eˆ˙r = θ̇eˆθ .
This
=⇒ v = ṙeˆr + rθ̇eˆθ .
To get the acceleration, we need the differentiate the expression for velocity once again
with respect to time. Thus, we have,

⃗a = r̈eˆr + ṙeˆ˙r + ṙθ̇eˆθ + rθ̈eˆθ + rθ̇eˆ˙θ . (7)

Now, use eˆ˙θ = −θ̇eˆr (from class) along with the relation for eˆ˙r from above to get

⃗a = (r̈ − rθ̇2 )eˆr + (rθ̈ + 2ṙθ̇)eˆθ (8)

This is the expression for the acceleration in the plane polar co-ordinate system that you
have derived in class.
Now, the conditions that are given implies that

θ̇ = constant = ω =⇒ θ = ωt + θ0 ,

ṙ = constant = v =⇒ r = vt + r0 .
Thus, substituting in (8), we
a = −rω 2 eˆr + 2vω eˆθ .

3. We use Eq. 8 from the previous problem to write down the radial component of the
acceleration
r̈ − rθ̇2 = 0,
=⇒ r̈ = rθ̇2 . (9)

Now, in a similar vein, the ”θ” component can be gleaned to be (once again from Eq. 8)

Fθ
rθ̈ + 2ṙθ̇ = = 3ṙθ̇,
m
which
=⇒ rθ̈ = ṙθ̇. (10)
The above equation can be re-written to yield

dθ̇ 1 dr dθ
= ,
dt r dt dt

4
 dθ̇ dr
∴ = .
θ̇ r
Integrating the above, we get
θ̇ = Ar,
where A is a constant
Now the r equation of motion; Eqn.(9) becomes

d2 r
= A2 r3 . (11)
dt2

The above Eq.(11) can be re-written as

dṙ
= A2 r3 , (12)
dt
dr
with ṙ ≡ dt
. Now, we use a trick to solve Eq. 12. To do so, note that

dṙ2 dṙ
= 2ṙ . (13)
dt dt

Therefore, multiplying Eq. 12 by ṙ and using Eq. 13 gives

1 dṙ2 dr
= A2 r3 .
2 dt dt

Integrating, we get

ṙ2 A2 4
= r + C,
2 4
r
A2 4
=⇒ ṙ = ± r + 2C.
2
A2
Call 2
≡ A and 2C = B to give
√
ṙ = ± Ar4 + B.

Now, we are given that ṙ > 0

T r
dr′
Z Z
∴ dt = √ ,
0 r0 Ar4 + B
where,
r0 ≡ r(t = 0).

Now, using the condition, θ̇(t = 0) = 0

=⇒ r0 = 0.

5
 Thus, Z ∞
dr
T∞ = √ .
0 Ar4 + B
For large r, the integral behaves as
Z ∞
1 dr
T∞ <√ ,
A r˜0 r2
1
∼√ < ∞.
Ar˜0
4. From Problem (1), solving the equations of motion gives

x(t) = v0 t cos θ, (14)

gt2
y(t) = v0 t sin θ − . (15)
2
At the end of flight, y(t) = 0
2v0 sin θ
=⇒ T = .
g
Substituting this in (14) we get the range R to be
v02 sin 2θ
R= .
g
π
The maximum range is obtained when θ = 4
. Substituting this into (14) and (15), we
get
v0 t
x(t) = √ , (16)
2
v0 t gt2
y(t) = √ − . (17)
2 2
Using (16) and (17),we get
gx2 (t)
y(t) = x(t) −
v02
=⇒ when y(t) = h,, there is a quadratic equation that we have to solve that is given by
v02 v2h
x2 − ( )x + 0 = 0.
g g
The roots of this equation are
s
v0 v04 4v02 h
1
x1,2 = ± − ,
2g 2g2 g
p
v0 v02 − 4gh
=⇒ x2 − x1 = d = .
g

6
5. The equation of motion is
dv
m = mg − kmv 2 .
dt
Thus,
dv
= g − kv 2 .
dt
Now, we use
dv dv dv
=v =⇒ v = (g − kv 2 ).
dt dx dx
Integrating on both sides we
Z Z
vdv
x = dx = .
(g − kv 2 )
Solving, we get
1
log(g − kv 2 ).
−x + c =
2k
Applying the condition, x = 0 when v = v0
1
c= log(g − kv02 ).
2k
1 g − kv02
x= log .
2k g − kv 2
Thus, the distance traversed, d equals

1 g − kv02
d= log( )
2k g − kv12

6.
⃗ q2 (r1 ) = 1 q2
E ŝ
4πϵ0 s2
r1 −⃗
⃗ r2
Here, ŝ = .
This is the E due to q2 at r1 .
|r1 −r2 |
⃗ 1 q2
Similarly, Bq2 (r1 ) = 4πϵ ⃗ due to q2 at r1 .
⃗2 × ŝ). This is B
2 (v
0 s

(a)
F⃗12
mag
+ F⃗21
mag ⃗ q2 (⃗
= q1⃗v1 × B r1 ) + q2⃗v2 × Bq1 (⃗
r2 ).
Substituting from the expressions for the electric and magnetic field of a moving
charge we get
µ0 q1 q2
= [v⃗1 × (v⃗2 × ŝ) + v⃗2 × (ŝ × v⃗1 )],
4π s2
which can be re-written as
µ0 q1 q 2
=− [ŝ × (v⃗1 × v⃗2 )]
4πs2
This vanishes only when v⃗1 is parallel to v⃗2 .

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 |F mag |
(b) Now to compare the ratio of the magnitude of the forces |F12elec | ;
12
we start with
mag µ0 q1 q2
F12 = |v⃗1 × (v⃗2 × ŝ)|,
4πs2
which can be re-expressed in terms of an angle (θ) between v2 and ŝ as
µ0 q1 q 2
= |v⃗1 × v2 (−eˆz sin θ)|.
4πs2
But | sin θ| ≤ 1,
mag µ0 q1 q2 v1 v2
therefore F12 ≤ 4πs2
.
mag
|F12 | ( µ0 q4πs
1 q2 v1 v2
2 ) v1 v2
=⇒ elec
≤ q1 q2 = µ0 ϵ0 v1 v2 = 2 ,
|F12 | ( 4πϵ0 s2 ) c
1
where we have used c2 = µ0 ϵ0
.

As stated above, the third law holds for magnetic forces when ⃗v1 = ⃗v2 . This fact can be
understood (without calculation) if you go to a frame of reference which is moving with
the same velocity as the charges. You will now see the charges at rest, and you will only
see them interacting through a purely electrostatic field, for which we know the third
law holds. If you now demand that laws of mechanics should be the same in all inertial
frames (this is known as the principle of Galilean relativity), you immediately deduce
why the third law must hold when ⃗v1 = ⃗v2 . Thought experiments of this kind, involving
electromagnetic phenomenon in addition to mechanics, is what eventually lead Einstein
to an extension of Galilean relativity – Special relativity.