Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 53

I B PS PO-M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T-53

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-3): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold. If
two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and

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grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
1. The first Conference (A) institution established for the purpose of settling
international disputes (B) was the Permanent Court of Arbitration, which was

2) BA
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created (C) by the Hague Peace permanent (D) of 1899.
1) DC 3) DA 4) CB 5) All correct
2. The use of different measures (A) leads to a lack of problematic (B), which is
comparability (C) when monitoring progress towards targets (D).

3.
1) CA 2) DC

E 3) BA 4) CB 5) All correct
A second Peace arbitral (A) in 1907, which involved most of the world’s sovereign
d
(B) states, revised the convention (C) and enhanced the rules governing
Conference (D) proceedings before the PCA.
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1) DA 2) CA 3) DB 4) DC 5) All correct
Directions (4-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
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The WannaCry ransomware attack raised perplexing questions, such as who
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was behind it, how did it get unleashed, and why the code was configured the
way it was. The malware exploited vulnerabilities in Windows 7 that the US
National Security Agency (NSA) apparently knew about for a few years. At some
point, these vulnerabilities were either leaked or electronically stolen, and in
March, an entity known as Shadow Brokers made them public.
Microsoft very soon released an update that removed the vulnerabilities.
Windows systems have the capability to automatically install updates, but in
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many corporate setups, the auto-update is disabled to give IT departments more
control over company machines. This left many machines vulnerable to the attack.
This is where the discussion moves out of the realm of the purely technical and
becomes a matter of public_____(A)_______.
Despite the best efforts of software companies, their products will have flaws,
including security weaknesses. Rigorous testing would prevent many exploits,
but it takes too many resources to consider every possibility. So, independent
security researchers, commercial security companies and intelligence agencies
such as the NSA specialise in trying to find weaknesses that were missed.
Some researchers privately notify software makers when they find a
vulnerability, but there are also companies that sell them; selling can be lucrative.
It is believed that the FBI paid $9,00,000 to a private company to access a locked
iPhone. Intelligence agencies and even police departments have been collecting
vulnerabilities known as “zero-days”.
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 53

Clearly, the motivation (B) is to protect national interest and public is (C),
yet it is worth asking what the trade-off safety (D). Security expert Bruce Schneier
has criticised governments for hoarding zero-days. He argues that it is better for
the common good to disclose the vulnerabilities before someone else uses them
for ill. The WannaCry incident seems to bear this out. Policymakers need to dig
into the claims that zero-days are effective at preventing terrorism and crime.
4. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
1) WannaCry Ransomware is a Malware.
2) It has exploited vulnerabilities in Windows 10.

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3) Microsoft released an update that added vulnerabilities.
4) Windows systems doesn’t have the capability to automatically install updates
5) The products of the software companies are flawless.
5. How can Software companies prevent weaknesses in their softwares?
1) By rigorous testing 2) By updating their softwares
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3) By consulting Security agencies
4) By installing additional softwares 5) None of the above
6. What are ‘Zero Days’?

E
1) The specific days of the year when Ransomware attacks computers.
2) Software’s Vulnerabilities.
d
3) The specific days of the years when Security agencies around the world do
rigorous testings on Softwares.
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4) The motivation is to protect national interest and public safety

5) None of the above
7. Choose the word which is Opposite to the word ‘exploit’ printed in bold in the
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passage.
1) employ 2) misuse 3) deed 4) work 5) achievement
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8. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (A) to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
1) agreement 2) debate 3) peace 4) quiet 5) harmony
9. In the passage three words highlighted in bold (B, C & D). Select the option that
gives the correct set of words as a replacement to the bold words.
1) CBD 2) BDC 3) BCD 4) DCB 5) DBC
C
10. Choose the word which is Similar to the word ‘lucrative’ printed in bold in the
passage
1) unfavorable 2) poor 3) profitable 4) scanty 5) destitute
Directions (11-15): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
Microsoft launched a new hybrid cloud solution in India for organisations to
_____(11)_____ and run cloud-native applications with seamless access to on-
premise cloud services with existing tool, processes, and skillsets. Azure Stack
hyper converged infrastructure (HCI), the new addition to the Azure Stack portfolio
is _____(12)______ with both Windows and Linux virtual machines, and will be

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available from 20 partners _____(13)______ Microsoft-validated hardware systems.

Consistent hybrid tools and experiences have never been more _____(14)______
and Azure Stack HCI brings together the familiarity and flexibility of on-premises
virtualisation with powerful new hybrid _____(15)______.
11. 1) build 2) framing 3) assembled 4) evolved 5) demolished
12. 1) improper 2) unfitting 3) compatible 4) unsuitable 5) antipathetic
13. 1) offering 2) gift 3) charity 4) present 5) subscribe
14. 1) inessential 2) important 3) insignificant 4) meaningless 5) miniature
15. 1) impotence 2) inability 3) ineptness 4)capabilities 5) ineffectiveness

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Directions (16-20): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
(A) It smelt so sweet that all cares and sorrows were forgotten by him who inhaled
its fragrance.
ha
(B) to marry. It was certainly rather cool of him to say to the Emperor’s daughter,
“Will you have me?” But so he did; for his name was
(C) renowned far and wide; and there were a hundred princesses who would have

E
answered, “Yes!” and “Thank you kindly.” It happened that where the Prince’s
father
d
(D) There was once a poor Prince, who had a kingdom. His kingdom was very
small, but still quite large enough to marry upon; and he wished
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(E) lay buried, there grew a rose tree—a most beautiful rose tree, which blossomed
only once in every five years, and even then bore only one flower, but that was a
rose!
C
16. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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17. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
18. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
19. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
C
20. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (21-30): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(1), (2), (3) and (4) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is
any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
21. President Roosevelt intervened and refuse to back the mine owners, who had to
concede higher wages.
1) President Roosevelt intervened and
2) refuse to back the mine owners,
3) who had to concede 4) higher wages. 5) No error

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22. In domestic politics the president’s powers is limited by the rights of the two
Houses of Congress, the Senate and the House of Representatives, and by the
Supreme Court, the final arbiter of any dispute about constitutional rights.
1) In domestic politics the president’s powers is limited by
2) the rights of the two Houses of Congress, the Senate
3) and the House of Representatives, and by the Supreme Court,
4) the final arbiter of any dispute about constitutional rights. 5) No error
23. Burnley Football Club is a English association football club based in Burnley,
Lancashire.

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1) Burnley Football Club 2) is a English association
3) football club based 4) in Burnley, Lancashire. 5) No error
24. The club entered the FA Cup for the first time in 1885–86 and was one for the 12
founder members of the Football League in 1888–89.
ha
1) The club entered the FA Cup for the
2) first time in 1885–86 and was one for the
3) 12 founder members of the

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4) Football League in 1888–89. 5) No error
d
25. In 1689, French-Canadian trader Martin Chartier established a trading post on
1689 on the Cumberland River, near the present-day site of the city.
1) In 1689, French-Canadian trader Martin Chartier
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2) established a trading post on 1689 on the

3) Cumberland River, near the present-day
4) site of the city. 5) No error
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26. By 1860, when the first rumblings of secession began to be heard across the
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South, antebellum Nashville was a prosperous city.

1) By 1860, when the first rumblings of
2) secession began to be heard across the
3) South, antebellum Nashville
4) was a prosperous city. 5) No error
27. Attrition warfare is a military strategy consist of belligerent attempts to win a
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war by wearing down the enemy to the point of collapse through continuous
losses in personnel and materiel.
1) Attrition warfare is a military strategy
2) consist of belligerent attempts to win a war by
3) wearing down the enemy to the point of collapse
4) through continuous losses in personnel and materiel. 5) No error
28. The cholera epidemic that struck Nashville in 1849–1850 took the life of former
U.S. President James K. Polk and result in high fatalities.
1) The cholera epidemic that struck
2) Nashville in 1849–1850 took the life of
3) former U.S. President James K. Polk
4) and result in high fatalities. 5) No error

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29. The national organization assembled annually in a general convention and social
reunion, presided on by the Commander-in-Chief.
1) The national organization assembled
2) annually in a general convention and
3) social reunion, presided on
4) by the Commander-in-Chief. 5) No error
30. The difference between war of attrition and other forms of war is somewhat
artificial since even a single battle normally contains an element of attrition.
1) The difference between war of attrition
2) and other forms of war is somewhat

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3) artificial since even a single battle
4) normally contains an element of attrition. 5) No error
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (31-35): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
607.89 ?
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31. 
? 37.989
1) 200 2) 130

E 3) 140 4) 152 5) 160

d
32. ? % of (5389.98 ÷ 6.95) =8459.96 – 4799.98
1) 270 2) 730 3) 360 4) 590 5) 470
ee

33. 29.9% of 1240 + 72.02 × 14.95 =?

1) 1450 2) 1590 3) 1250 4) 1740 5) 1650

34. 891.98÷23.89 × 323.8 -186.8 =?2

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1) 25 2) 35 3) 15 4) 10 5) 22
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35. 624% of 31.89+ 1088 × 4.89 =?

1) 100 2) 270 3) 245 4) 140 5) 290
Direction (36-40) what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
number series?
C
36. 11 44 396 6336 158400 ?
1) 5702400 2) 5720200 3) 5720760 4) 5705500 5)5702540
37. 33 75 131 201 285 ?
1) 374 2) 383 3) 375 4) 385 5) 369
38. 250 1500 300 1200 400 ?
1) 400 2) 100 3) 600 4) 200 5) 800
39. 14 35 81 163 294 ?
1) 469 2) 465 3) 489 4) 463 5) 369
40. 21 36 60 148 261 ?
1) 521 2) 537 3) 548 4) 590 5) 459

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Direction (41-45): In each of these questions, two equations are given. You need
to solve these equations and find out the value of x and y and given an answer.
41. I. 3x2+21x +36=0
II. 3y2 +34y+63 = 0
1) y > x 2) y < x 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
2
42. I. 6x +12x +6 = 0
II. 6y2 +14y + 8 =0
1) y > x 2) y < x 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
2
43. I. x + 25x +114 = 0

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II. y2 +44y+484=0
1) y > x 2) y < x 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
2
44. I. 8x +23y+15 =0
II. 8y2+8y +2=0
1) y > x 2) y < x 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
45. I. x4 = 38416
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II. y = 3
2744

46.
1) y > x 2) y < x

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3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
The respective ratio between the number of days taken by P, Q, and R to complete
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the work is 5: 3: 8. If the number of days taken by P alone to complete the work in
8 days more than the number of days taken by Q alone, then find how many days
will they take to complete the whole work with 50% of their efficiency? (In days)
ee

12 12 12 12 12
1) 6 2) 16 3) 14 4) 12 5) 15
79 79 79 79 79
47. There was 396 liters Pure mango pulp in Vessel Y. 25% of the mango pulp was
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2
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replaced with water in the vessel Y. Again th of the mixture is extracted and
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equal amount of water is added, then find water find the final mixture is
approximatelywhat percent more or less than mango pulp in the final mixture?
1) 29 2) 60 3) 67 4) 35 5) 25
48. Shish invested Rs.268900 in scheme M offering simple interest of Y % p.a. for 4
years. He reinvests the interest received from scheme M in scheme N offering
compound interest of 30 % p.a. and the amount received Rs.254486.96 at the end
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of 2years. Find the value of Y?
1) 19 2) 16 3) 17 4) 14 5) 12
49. A Car travels from station M to N at a constant speed. If its speed was increased
by 30 kmph, then it would have taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. If the
speed was further increased by 30 kmph, then it would have taken further 30
minutes lesser, then find the distance between station M to station N?
1) 190 2) 180 3) 170 4) 140 5) 120
50. There are two schools M and N, the total number of boys in school N is 50 % more
than that of in school M and the total number of girls in school N is 864 more than
that of in school M, If the total number of boys in the school N is increased by 20
% and the total number of girls in the school M is increased by 40 %, then the
total number of students in the school N and M will become 5664 and 4288,
respectively, then find the original number of girls in the school N?
1) 2400 2) 1600 3) 2784 4) 3400 5) 3600

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51. The speed of the boat is twice more than the speed of the current if the boat
travels 60 km downstream and 48 km upstream in 13 hrs, and then finds how
much time will it take to cover 84km downstream and 36km upstream?
1) 15 2) 20 3) 13 4) 14 5) 16
52. The number of pens to be distributed among a certain number of people increases
in the ratio 22: 41, while the number of persons decreases in the ratio 35:24,
then find the original number of pens to be distributed if the present of pens is
7872?
1) 6260 2) 6160 3) 6460 4) 6660 5) 6890
53. A and B together can complete 20% of work in 9 days while B and C can complete
the whole work in 60 days. B alone can complete the work in 120days, and then

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find the time taken by A and C together can complete the whole work?
1) 60 2) 45 3) 70 4) 80 5) 90
Direction (54-59): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
The given below bar graph shows that the six different types of pants sold in
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three different shopping malls in the month of July.

1400
1200

E
d
1000
800 PVP
ee

PVR
600
Trendset Mall
400
C
200
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0
Aramani Levi's Wrangler Disel Lee jeans Pepe
Jeans
54. What is the respective ratio between the total number of Armani pants sold in a
PVP and PVR together to that of Pepe Jeans sold in the stores PVR and Trend set
together?
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1) 109:108 2) 107:108 3)103:108 4) 109:108 5) 107:109
55. The total number of Levi’s pants sold in PVP and PVR together is approximately
what percent of the total number of Diesel pants sold in PVR and Trend set
together?
1) 55 2) 70 3) 89 4) 45 5) 35
56. What is the average number of Wrangler pants sold in all the malls together?
1) 880 2) 980 3) 850 4) 750 5) 960
57. What is the difference between the number of Lee Jeans and PEPE jeans together
sold in PVP to that of wrangler and Diesel together sold in Trend set?
1) 180 2) 160 3) 170 4) 150 5) 120
58. The total number of Armani pants all the malls together is approximately what
percent more or less than the total number of Diesel pants sold in all the malls
together?
1) 5 2) 15 3) 10 4) 18 5) 25

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59. If the number of peter England pants sold in PVR is 40 % more than the number
of Levi’s pants sold in the Trend set, then find the total number of Peter England
pants sold in PVR.
1) 1752 2) 1512 3) 1610 4) 1628 5) 1425
Directions (60-65): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The given below table shows the total number of runs scored in five different
Leagues of five different Persons in a Year.
The given below data distribution based on the cumulative Frequency.

r’s
League Kohli Pant Surya Rohit

KPL 450 490 530 420

MPL
ha 970 940 950 930

CPL

E 1380 1430 1420 1390

d
NPL 1890 1950 1870 1830
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WPL 2380 2570 2430 2440

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60. What is the respective ratio between the total number of runs scored in KPL to
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that of WPL all the persons together?

1) 191:982 2) 53:982 3) 193: 76 4) 169:18 5) 63:76
61. The total number of runs scored by pant in NPL is approximately what percent of
the total number of runs scored in KPL all the persons together?
1) 20 2) 28 3) 70 4) 10 5) 35
62. What is the average number of runs scored by all the persons together in all the
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tournaments?
1) 1957 2) 1850 3) 1964 4) 1753 5) 1695
63. What is the difference between the total number of runs scored by Pant and Rohit
together in five different tournaments to that of Kohli and Surya together?
1) 130 2) 140 3) 200 4) 110 5) 100
64. The total number of runs scored by Kohli, Surya, and Rohit together on NPL
is approximately what percent more or less than the total number of people who
scored by Kohli and Pant together on CPL?
1) 40 2) 45 3) 55 4) 50 5) 60
65. If the number of runs scored by Dhoni is 20% more than the number of runs
scored by Pant in WPL, then find the number of runs scored by Dhoni in WPL?
1) 844 2) 845 3) 755 4) 744 5) 860

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REASONING
Directions: (66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are purchasing different items in different
months of the same year and same date i.e. January, March, April, May, June,
August, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.
There is only four persons are purchasing between T and S, who purchasing
in the month having less than 31 days. Two persons are purchasing between Q
and V, who purchased before S. Q is purchasing in the month having an odd
number of days. Number of persons purchasing items before V is same as

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purchasing items after R. U is purchasing items in August. X is purchasing items
before W. P is purchasing items before S and after W.
66. Which of the following month does P is purchasing items?
1) June 2) August 3) October 4) March 5) December
67. Who among the following persons are purchasing items in March and June
respectively?
1) T, S 2) P, W
ha 3) Q, V 4) X, W 5) P, X
68. How many people are purchasing items before W?
1) Four 2) One 3) Three 4) Five 5) Two
69.

E
The number of persons purchasing in between P and T is same as between____
and ____?
d
1) R, U 2) Q, W 3) V, R 4) S, T 5) Q, S
70. Four of the following five belong to a certain way and hence form a group, then
which of the following one doesn’t belong to that group?
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1) Q 2) S 3) R 4) P 5) X
Direction: (71-73) In the question below contains two/there statements followed
by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be
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true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
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disregarding commonly known facts.

71. Statements: Some Books are Papers Only a few Papers are Pens
All Tables are Papers
Conclusions: I. All Pens can be Tables
II. Some Books are Pens
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
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5) Both conclusions I and II follow
72. Statements: Only a few Apples are Mangos Some Mangos are not Kiwis
Only a few Kiwis are Cherries
Conclusions: I. Some Apples are Cherries
II. Some Apples are not Cherries
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
73. Statements: Only a few Red is Orange Only Orange is Yellow
No Orange is Brown
Conclusions: I. Some Oranges are not Red
II. Some Yellows are not Brown
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
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Directions: (74-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, K and L are living in a five storey building
that has five floors but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is
numbered 1 just above to it numbered 2 and so on top floor is numbered 5. On
each floor, there are two flats viz. Flat 1 and Flat 2. Flat 1 is to the West of Flat
2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above Flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below
Flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only one person is living in each flat.
G lives in an even-numbered floor and but not an even numbered flat. The
number of floors above G is same as below E and both are living in different flats.

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H lives immediately above floor of E. B lives below floor of K and both are living
different flat. H lives immediately above floor of K both are living in the same flat.
There is only one floor between B and D. F and L living in the same floor. The
number of floors between C and H is same as C and L and all are in same flat.
74. C lives on which of the following floor and flat?
ha
1) Third floor, second flat 2) Third floor, first flat
3) Fourth floor, second flat 4) First floor, Second flat
5) Fifth floor, First flat
75.
2) C

E
Who lives on the fifth floor of First flat?
1) A 3) F 4) H 5) D
d
76. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) H 2) K 3) A 4) C 5) L
77. Who among the following person lives two floors below D?
ee

1) B 2) F 3) L 4) C 5) Both 1 and 4
78. Who among the following person lives North-West of B?
1) E 2) C 3) F 4) H 5) D
C
Directions: (79-81) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Sr

Roma is now at Home and he started walking towards South direction for
8m and then took a right turn and walks 8m. He then turns right side and walks
3m and then took left turn walks 4m to reach Coffee shop. Ruhi is now at office
and he started walking towards East direction for 4m and then took a left turn
and walks 5m and then took a right turn and walks 2m and finally he takes left
turn and walks 3m to reach Coffee shop.
C
79. What is direction of Coffee shop with respect to Ruhi’s initial point?
1) South-West 2) South-East 3) North-East 4) North-West 5) North
80. Find the shortest distance between Coffee shop and Roma’s Home?
1) 12m 2) 13m 3) 15m 4) 9m 5) 11m
81. What is direction of Ruhi’s initial point with respect to Roma’s initial point?
1) South-West 2) South-East 3) North-East 4) North-West 5) North
Directions: (82-86) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and some of
them are facing the center while some of them are facing away from the center
but not necessarily in the same order.
P sits second to the left of the one who sits third to the left of W. P is not an
immediate neighbour of W and V. Only one person sits between R and the one
who sits immediate right of Q, who is facing the center. T sits second to the right

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of Q. W sits opposite to T, who sits third to the right of S. P and S are facing same
direction. W sits second to the right of V, who sits third to the right of U. Immediate
neighbours of Q is facing same direction but opposite to T. Q is facing same
direction as V.
82. How many persons are facing the center?
1) Three 2) Five 3) Four
4) Six 5) Can’t be determined
83. Who among the following person sits exactly middle of R and P?
1) T 2) V 3) Q 4) W 5) Both 1 and 4
84. Who among the following person sits third to the left of Q?

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1) R 2) T 3) S 4) V 5) U
85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) T 2) W 3) Q 4) S 5) V
86. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE regarding T?
ha
1) T is facing the center 2) Two persons sit between T and S
3) T sits third to the left of U 4) T is facing opposite direction of P
5) Adjacent persons of T are facing same direction

E
Directions: (87-89) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
d
In a family having nine persons in which three are married couples. M is the
only son of Q’s father. H is daughter-in-law of K. G is brother-in-law of M. M and Q
are married couples. S is grandfather of T, who is the only child of H. N is maternal
ee

aunt of T. P is father-in-law of M. Both H and N are siblings.

87. How is M related to K?
1) Husbend 2) Son 3) Brother 4) Father 5) Uncle
C
88. How is K related to S?
1) Sister-in-law 2) Sister 3) Daughter
Sr

4) Wife 5) Mother
89. How many Male persons are there in the given family?
1) Two 2) One 3) Four
4) Three 5) Can’t be determined
Directions: (90-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
C
Six persons E, F, G, H, K and L got a different awards viz. Bharat Ratna,
Padma vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Sri, Khel Ratna and Arjuna in different
years viz. 1985, 1987, 1996, 1999, 2005 and 2010 but not necessarily in the same
order.
The one who got Padma Sri award in the 21st century. G got award in 1987.
K got award in Sports. The one who got award in 1999 is highest sports award. F
got one of the Padma award. Bharat Ratna award is given in 20th century. E got
the Padma Bhushan award. G does not get Padma awards. E got award in an even
numbered year. L got Arjuna award. L got award before E and after H.
90. Who among the following person got Padma Sri Award?
1) G 2) F 3) L 4) E 5) H
91. Which among the following award is given to H?
1) Khel Ratna 2) Bharat Ratna 3) Padma Bhushan
4) Padma Vibhushan 5) Padma Sri

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 53

92. In Which year Padma Bhushan Award was given?

1) 2010 2) 1987 3) 2005 4) 1996 5) 1987
93. Which among the following statement is TRUE regarding given information?
1) H – Padma Bhushan – 1987 2) F – Padma Sri – 2010
3) L – Khel Ratha – 1996 4) G – Bharat Ratna – 1987
5) E – Padma Vibhushan – 2010
94. Who among the following person got Khel Ratna Award?
1) H 2) F 3) G 4) E 5) K
95. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word “STANDOFF” each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward

r’s
directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
Direction: (96-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
ha
A certain number of persons are setting in a horizontal row with an equal
distance between adjacent persons and all of them are facing North. There is
only five persons are sitting between K and G. There is only three persons are
sitting between L and M, who sits immediate left of G. As many as persons sitting

E
between L and G is same as N and O. L is not an immediate neighbour of K. N sits
d
third to the right of K. O sits immediate right of P, who sits second from one of the
end. Number of persons are sitting between K and P is same as to the left of G.
Number of persons sitting between N and P is same as R and M. R sits second
ee

from one of the extreme ends.

96. How many persons are sitting in a liner row?
1) 20 2) 18 3) 19 4) 17 5) 16
C
97. How many persons are sitting between K and R?
1) Eight 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Nine 5) Six
Sr

98. The number of persons sitting between G and L is same as between____ and
____?
1) R, G 2) L, N 3) N, O 4) P, O 5) Both 1 and 3
99. What is the position of O with respect to N?
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Third to the right
4) Second to the left 5) Fourth to the left
C
100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) L, K 2) M, L 3) K, N 4) G, L 5) N, O

KEY
1.3 2.4 3.1 4.1 5.1 6.2 7.2 8.2 9.2 10.3 11.1 12.3 13.1
14.2 15.4 16.1 17.2 18.4 19.5 20.3 21.2 22.1 23.2 24.2 25.2 26.5
27.2 28.4 29.3 30.5 31.4 32.5 33.1 34.5 35.3 36.1 37.2 38.5 39.3
40.4 41.5 42.3 43.2 44.1 45.4 46.4 47.1 48.4 49.2 50.3 51.3 52.2
53.2 54.2 55.3 56.2 57.1 58.1 59.2 60.5 61.2 62.3 63.3 64.3 65.4
66.3 67.4 68.1 69.5 70.2 71.1 72.3 73.5 74.2 75.4 76.3 77.5 78.4
79.3 80.2 81.1 82.2 83.5 84.3 85.4 86.5 87.2 88.4 89.5 90.2 91.4
92.1 93.4 94.5 95.3 96.4 97.1 98.5 99.3 100.2

12