OYM For AIATS Test - 08

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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BOTANY
Q.127 (Mineral Nutrition: Deficiency symptoms of (3) Inhibition of cell division
essential elements) (4) Grey spots in oats
1. Low concentration of which of the given set of 3. Choose the incorrect statement for zinc.
elements in plants delay flowering? (1) Activates carboxylases
(1) K, Mg and Fe (2) N, S and Mo (2) Required for auxin synthesis
(3) Mn and Zn (4) Ca and K (3) It has role in tryptophan synthesis
2. Lack or low level of which of the given set of (4) Its deficiency causes accumulation of
elements inhibits cell division? anthocyanin
(1) N, K, S and Mo (2) Mg and Fe 4. Which element causes plastid disintegration?
(3) Mn and Zn (4) Cu and Ca (1) Ca (2) Mn
3. Read the given statements and select the correct (3) Cu (4) K
option. 5. Deficiency of an element ‘A’ causes accumulation
Statement A: Chlorosis is caused by the of anthocyanin. The element ‘A’ is
deficiency of elements N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, Zn and (1) Zn (2) K
Mo. (3) Mn (4) S
Statement B: Necrosis is caused due to the Q.110 (Respiration in Plants: Respiratory
deficiency of Ca, Mg, Cu, K. quotient)
(1) Only statement A is correct 1. Read the statements and select the correct
option.
(2) Only statement B is correct
A. Organic acid contains high proportion of
(3) Both statements are correct
oxygen as compared to C & H.
(4) Both statements are incorrect B. RQ of organic acid is more than 1.
4. Necrosis refers to (1) Only A is correct
(1) Death of leaf tissue (2) Only B is correct
(2) Loss of chlorophyll (3) Both A & B are correct
(3) Yellowing in leaves (4) Both A & B are incorrect
2. During aerobic respiration of which of the given
(4) Both (2) & (3)
substrates, less oxygen is absorbed than CO2
Q.100 (Mineral Nutrition: Essential mineral elements)
liberated.
1. All of the following are deficiency symptoms
(1) Glucose (2) Fat
caused by phosphorus, except
(1) Purple spot on leaves (3) Organic acid (4) Protein
(2) Delay in seed germination 3. The RQ depends on
(3) Red spot on leaves a) Type of respiratory substrate
(4) Plastid disintegration b) Volume of CO2 consumed
c) Volume of O2 evolved
2. Deficiency of manganese causes
d) Proportion of C & O present in substrate
(1) Necrosis
(1) a only (2) a & c only
(2) Late flowering
(3) a & d only (4) All a, b, c & d

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CSS-08 (Based on AIATS-08) OYM Botany

4. RQ of which of the following substrate is less than (4) A solution having less solute concentration
unity? than cell
(1) Malic acid (2) Glucose 2. When plasmolysis occurs then
(3) Tripalmitin (4) Oxalic acid (1) Water moves inside the cell
Q.134 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants: Hatch & (2) There is no flow of water at all in any direction
Slack Pathway)
1. Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have (3) Water comes out of the cell
the (4) Cell bursts and ruptures the cell wall
(1) C4 pathway of CO2 assimilation 3. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution then
(2) Only C3 pathway of CO2 assimilation which of the following will be correct?
(3) Process of photorespiration (1) OP of solution is less
(4) Single type of chloroplast (2) ψp becomes more negative
2. The leaves of which plants show Kranz anatomy? (3) No reversible flow of water between cell and
(1) Wheat & Sugarcane the solution
(2) Rice & Barley (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Maize & Sorghum
4. There is no net flow of water when the cell is
(4) Pea & Amaranthus placed in
3. ‘Kranz’ means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the (1) Hypotonic solution
arrangement of (2) Solution which has more OP than the cell
(1) Cells around the stomatal aperture
(3) Isotonic solution
(2) Cells around the vascular bundles
(4) Hypertonic solution
(3) Cells around the pith
Q.95 (Transport in Plant: Water Potential)
(4) Chloroplasts inside the cells
4. The C4 pathway that has been named the 1. Cytoplasmic pressure against the cell wall is
(1) EMP pathway (2) Calvin pathway (1) Called diffusion pressure deficit
(3) Hatch and Slack pathway (2) Called turgor pressure
(4) Krebs’ Pathway (3) Lowest in turgid cell
5. The primary CO2 acceptor in Hatch and Slack (4) Highest in plasmolysed cell
cycle is 2. Which of the following is incorrect about the turgid
(1) RuBP (2) PEP cell?
(3) OAA (4) Malic acid (1) Cell wall pressure is high in a turgid cell
Q.109 (Respiration in Plants: Amphibolic Pathway) (2) Water will enter into turgid cell when
1. Raw material for cytochromes is placed in hypertonic solution
(1) Succinyl CoA (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Turger pressure is equal but opposite to cell
wall pressure
(3) OAA (4) α-ketoglutaric acid
2. Acetyl CoA is raw material for all, except (4) No volume change if turgid cell is placed in
(1) Carotennids (2) Terpenes isotonic solution
(3) Pyrimidines (4) Gibberellins 3. Read the statement and select the correct option.
3. Raw material for Pyrimidines is A. Water potential is high in a turgid cell as
compared to plasmolysed cell.
(1) OAA (2) Acetyl CoA
(3) α-ketoglutaric acid (4) Succinyl CoA B. Solute potential is high in a turgid cell as
compared to plasmolysed cell.
4. Succinyl CoA is raw material for
(1) Both A and B statements are correct
(1) Amino acid synthesis
(2) Only statement A is correct
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Only statement B is correct
(3) Pyrimidines (4) Alkaloids (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
Q.122 (Transport in Plants: Plasmolysis)
4. Water will enter into the cell
1. Plasmolysis occurs when a cell is placed in
(1) Having high turgor pressure
(1) Hypotonic solution
(2) Having low water potential
(2) Hypertonic solution (3) When it is placed in isotonic solution
(3) Isotonic solution (4) When it is placed in hypertonic solution

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 CSS-08 (Based on AIATS-08)_OYM Botany

5. Which of the following is correct about the 2. An excess of auxin in the culture media in
plasmolysed cell? comparison to cytokinin
(1) Water will enter into the cell when placed in (1) Promotes root regeneration
hypotonic solution (2) Inhibits root regeneration
(2) Exosmosis will occur when placed in hypotonic (3) Promotes shooting
solution (4) Promotes leaf formation
(3) Water potential is high in plasmolysed cell 3. Excess of cytokinin in comparison to auxin in the
culture media
(4) Turger pressure will be high in plasmolysed
(1) Inhibits shoot regeneration
cell (2) Promotes rooting
Q.124 (Transport in Plants: Long-distance Transport (3) Promotes shoot regeneration
of Water – Factors affecting water absorption)
(4) Promotes root hair formation
1. Select the correct option w.r.t. soil-temperature 4. If the concentration of auxin and cytokinin is almost
which has favourable impact on water absorption equal in the culture media
by plants?
(1) Root formation takes place
(1) Up to about 45° C (2) At 0° C
(2) Shoot formation takes place
(3) Up to about 30° C (4) Above 50° C (3) Only root hairs and trichomes are formed
2. Absorption of water almost stops when soil (4) There is formation of callus
temperature is 5. Cytokinins helps to produce
(1) 30° C (2) 0° C (1) Lateral shoot growth
(3) 20° C (4) 40° C (2) Adventitious shoot formation
3. Water absorption by plants decreases when the (3) Root growth and root hair formation
soil temperature is (4) Option (1) & (2) are correct
(1) About 30° C (2) Between 20-25° C Q.107 (Respiration in Plants: Aerobic Respiration)
(3) Above 40° C (4) Between 25-30° C 1. Carbohydrates enter the TCA cycle after being
4. Consider the following soil-water factors. converted into
a. Available soil water (1) Oxalic acid (2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Malic acid
b. Soil air
(4) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
c. Concentration of soil solution
2. Before entering the respiratory pathway, fatty
d. Soil temperature acids are converted into
Which of the factors affect water absorption by (1) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
plants?
(2) Pyruvic acid
(1) a, b, c and d (2) Only c and d (3) Acetyl CoA (4) Succinyl CoA
(3) a and c only (4) Only a and b 3. To enter the respiratory pathway, product of which
5. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. soil of the following substrates enters as intermediate
temperature and water absorption of glycolysis?
(1) An increase in soil temperature up to 30° C (1) Glycerol (2) Amino acid
favours water absorption (3) Protein (4) Malic acid
(2) At higher temperatures, i.e, above 45° C 4. Pyruvic acid can be common intermediate w.r.t.
respiratory pathway for
absorption of water decreases.
(a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate
(3) At higher temperatures, i.e. above 45° C
(c) Glycerol
absorption of water increases.
The correct one(s) is/are
(4) Water absorption almost stops at 0° C (1) Only (b) (2) Only (b) & (c)
Q.117 (Plant Growth & Development) (3) Only (a) & (b) (4) All (a), (b) & (c)
1. Shoot and root regenerations are controlled by 5. Regarding respiration, oxidative decarboxylation is
(1) Only auxin the conversion of
(1) Succinic acid into fumaric acid
(2) Only cytokinin
(2) Pyruvic acid into Acetyl CoA
(3) Gibbrellins only
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate into pyruvic acid
(4) Auxin-cytokinin balance (4) Fumaric acid into malic acid

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 CSS-08 (Based on AIATS-08) OYM Botany

OYM For AIATS Test - 08

Dated 31/01/2021

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-08
BOTANY
ANSWERS

Q.127 (Mineral Nutrition: Deficiency symptoms of 1. (2)

essential elements) 2 (3)
1. (2) 3 (4)
2. (1) 4 (3)
3. (3) Q.95 (Transport in Plant: Water Potential)
4. (1) 1. (2)
Q.100 (Mineral Nutrition: Essential mineral 2. (2)
elements) 3. (1)
1. (4) 4. (2)
2. (4) 5. (1)
3. (4) Q.124 (Transport in Plants: Long-distance
4. (4) Transport of Water – Factors affecting water
5. (4) absorption)
Q.110 (Respiration in Plants: Respiratory quotient) 1. (3)
1. (3) 2. (2)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (3) 4. (1)
4. (3) 5. (3)
Q.134 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants: Hatch & Q.117 (Plant Growth & Development)
Slack Pathway) 1. (4)
1. (1)
2. (1)
2. (3)
3. (3)
3. (2)
4. (4)
4. (3)
5. (4)
5. (2)
Q.107 (Respiration in Plants: Aerobic Respiration)
Q.109(Respiration in Plants: Amphibolic Pathway)
1. (2)
1. (1)
2. (3)
2. (3)
3. (1)
3. (1)
4. (4)
4. (2)
5. (2 )
Q.122 (Transport in Plants: Plasmolysis)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-08
Chemistry
Q.85. (Reaction of alkanes) 2. Maximum number of enolisable hydrogen present
1. In the given reaction product (P) formed is in cyclohexanone is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Formic acid 3. The compound which does not show keto-enol
(3) Methyl alcohol (4) Dimethyl ether tautomerism is

2. 2-Methylpropane on reaction with potassium

permanganate forms
(1) Ethanoic acid (2) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (1) (2)

(3) Butanone (4) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol

3. Major product of the given reaction is

(3) (4)

(1) (2) 4. Enol form(s) of the given compound is/are

(3) (4)
(1) (2)
4. n-alkanes on heating with which of the following
reagents isomerise to branched chain alkanes (3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Anhy. AlCl3/HCl (2) Cu 5. Keto-enol tautomerism will be observed in
(1) CH3–CH=CH–OH
(3) (CH3COO)2Mn (4) Cr2O3
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–CH2OH
5. Product formed in the given reaction is

(1) Ethanol (2) Oxalic acid (3)

(3) Glyoxal (4) Ethanoic acid
Q.60. (Tautomerism)
1. Highest percentage of enol content is obtained in

(4)
(1) (2) CH2(CO2C2H5)2
(3) CH3COCH2COCH3 (4) CH3COCH2CO2CH3

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CSS-08 Chemistry

Q.70. (Friedel Crafts reaction)

1. Major product of the given reaction is

(2)

(3)
(1)

(4)
(2)

5. For a given alkyl group, correct order of reactivity

of alkyl halides towards Friedel Crafts alkylation
reaction will be

(3) (1) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (2) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
(3) RI > RF > RBr > RCl (4) RF > RI > RCl > RBr
Q.88. (Shape and hybridization)
1. Hybridization of C-1, C-2 and C-3 in the given
species respectively are
(4)

2. Least reactive compound towards Friedel Crafts

(1) sp3, sp2, sp3 (2) sp2, sp2, sp3
reaction is
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp, sp3
(1) (CH3)3C–Cl (2) CH3CH2–Cl
2. Number of sp hybridised and sp2 hybridised
(3) CH3–CH=CH–Cl (4) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl
carbons in the given compound respectively are
3. The reactant (X) in the given reaction will be
CH2=CH–CH=C=CH–CN
(1) 2 and 4 (2) 1 and 5
(3) 3 and 3 (4) 4 and 2
3. In which of the given species all carbons are sp2
hybridised?
(1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3COCH2Cl (4) CH3CH2COCl
4. Major products (A) and (B) of the given reactions
respectively are (1) (2)

(3) (4)
4. Which among the following is linear in shape?
(1) CH2=C=CH2 (2) C2(CN)2
(1)
(3) CH3–CCN (4) C2H4

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CSS-08 Chemistry

5. In the given molecule the number of unhybridised

p orbitals are
CH2=C=C=CH2 (3)

(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 5
Q.52. (Electrophilic Substitution Reactions) (4)
1. When aniline is treated with bromine water at room
temperature, gives 5. Which of the following reaction is an example of
electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction?
(1) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(2) Finkelstein reaction
(3) Etard reaction
(1) (2)
(4) Dow’s reaction
Q.80. (Halogenation of alkanes and structural
isomers)
1. How many structural isomers will be obtained by
the monochlorination of neo pentane?
(3) (4) (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
2. Which of the following compounds will be most 2. When cyclopentane undergoes dichlorination then
easily attacked by an electrophile? number of structural isomers obtained will be
(1) Phenol (2) Benzaldehyde (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Toluene (4) Nitrobenzene (3) 4 (4) 5
3. When phenol is treated with dilute nitric acid at 298 K, 3. The isomer of C6H14, which will give maximum
gives number of monochloro derivatives is
(1) 2-methyl pentane (2) 3-methyl pentane
(3) n-hexane (4) 2,3-dimethyl butane
4. Which of the following halide is sec butyl bromide?
(1) (2)
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br

(2)

(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

(3)

(4)
4. Correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic
substitution reaction is
5. The total number of structural isomers possible for
the molecular formula C4H9Br is

(1) (1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 5 (4) 6
Q.82. (Electromeric effect)
1. Which of the following is a temporary effect?
(2) (1) Mesomeric effect (2) Inductive effect
(3) Electromeric effect (4) Hyperconjugation

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CSS-08 Chemistry

2. When the  electrons of the multiple bond are 4. Stability of carbocation can be influenced by
transferred to that atom to which the reagent gets (1) Inductive effect
attached is called (2) Mesomeric effect
(1) Positive resonance effect (3) Hyperconjugation effect
(2) Positive electromeric effect (4) All of these
(3) Negative electromeric effect 5. Which of the following carbocation does not
(4) Negative resonance effect rearrange?
3. Electromeric effect is observed in
(1)
(1) CH3CH=CH2 (2) CH3OH
(3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) CH3OCH3
4. Which of following statement is incorrect? (2)
(1) Electromeric effect occurs in the presence of
an attacking reagent only
(3)
(2) Electromeric effect occurs always in the
absence of attacking reagent
(3) In negative electromeric effect the -electrons (4)
of the multiple bond are transferred to that
atom to which the attacking reagent does not Q.69. (–I Effect)

get attached 1. Which among the following groups has minimum –I

(4) Electromeric effect is annulled as soon as the effect?

attaking reagent is removed from the domain (1) –OH (2) –Br

of the reaction (3) –Cl (4) –F

Q.58. (Stability of Carbocation) 2. Maximum –I effect is shown by

1. The most stable carbocation among the following (1) –CN (2) –COOH

is (3) –F (4) –NO2

3. Which one of the following orders is correct
regarding –I effect of substituents?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
2. Select the most stable carbocation among the (3) (4) –COOH > –NO2

following 4. Maximum +I effect is shown by

(1) –COO– (2) –CH3
(1) (2) (3) –O– (4) –C(CH3)3
5. Correct order regarding –I effect of substituents is
(1) –SO2R > –OH > –OR
(3) (4) (2) –OH > –OR > –SO2R
(3) –OR > –OH > –SO2R
3. Least stable carbocation among the following is
(4) –SO2R > –OR > –OH
Q.72. (Stability of Alkenes)
1. Most stable alkene among the following is
(1) (2) (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2)
(3) (4)

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CSS-08 Chemistry

4. Six -H atoms are present in

(3) (1) But-1-ene (2) Isobutylene
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3 (3) Pent-2-ene (4) 2-methylbut-2-ene
2. Among the following heat of hydrogenation is 5. Hyperconjugation is not possible is
maximum for
(1) Isobutylene
(2) Trans-2-butane
(1) (2)
(3) Cis-2-butene
(4) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
3. Most stable alkadiene is
(1) CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3
(2) CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (3) (4)
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2
(4) All are equally stable

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-08 (Chemistry)
Answers Key

Q.85. (Reaction of alkanes) Q.80. (Halogenation of alkanes and structural

1. (1) isomers)
2. (2) 1. (4)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (1)
5. (4) 4. (3)
Q.60. (Tautomerism) 5. (1)
1. (3) Q.82. (Electromeric effect)
2. (3) 1. (3)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (3) 3. (1)
5. (1) 4. (2)
Q.70. (Friedel Crafts reaction) Q.58. (Stability of carbocation)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (3) 4. (4)
5. (2) 5. (3)
Q.88. (Shape and hybridization) Q.69. (–I Effect)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (2) 5. (4)
Q.52. (Electrophilic substitution reactions) Q.72. (Stability of Alkenes)
1. (4) 1. (3)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (1) 5. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-08
Physics

Q. 16. (Simple pendulum) 5. For a simple pendulum, graph between L and

1. The period of a simple pendulum suspended T2 will be
from the ceiling of a car is T when the car is at (1) Rectangular hyperbola
rest. If the car moves with constant acceleration
(2) Parabola
the period of pendulum
(3) Straight line passing through origin
(1) Remains same
(2) Decreases (4) Straight line having positive y-intercept

(3) Increases Q32. (Doppler effect)

(4) May increase or decrease 1. A small source of sound moves with uniform
speed on a circle in given direction as shown in
2. The free end of a simple pendulum is attached
figure. An observer is sitting at O. The minimum
to the ceiling of an elevator. The elevator is at
frequency may be heard by observer when
rest at some height having pendulum initially
source is at a point
oscillating. When the bob is at its mean position.
The elevator starts moving up with an
acceleration (a = g). As seen from elevator
during this period the bob will
(1) Continue its oscillations
(2) Move on straight line
(3) Stop
(4) Go in a circular path (1) A and F (2) B and E
3. The bob of a simple pendulum is released (3) A (4) F
from extreme position. The restoring force
2. A small source of sound moves with uniform
which brings the bob towards the mean position
speed on a circle in given direction as shown in
is equal to
the figure. An observer is sitting at O. The same
(1) Weight of the bob frequency heard by observer as produced by
(2) Radial component of weight of the bob the source is at point
(3) Tangential component of weight of bob
(4) Resultant of radial and tangential
component of weight of bob
4. For a simple pendulum force responsible for
radial acceleration of the bob is equal to
(1) Weight of the bob
(2) Radial component of weight of the bob (1) E and B
(3) Tangential component of weight of the bob (2) A and F
(4) Resultant of tension in string and radial
(3) C and D
component of weight of the bob
(4) G and H

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CSS-08 Physics

3. A whistle of frequency 540Hz rotates in a circle 1 1

(1) (2)
of radius 2 m at a linear speed 30 m/s an ( n1 + n2 ) ( n1 – n2 )
observer sitting at O as shown in figure. The
maximum frequency heard by observer will be 1 1
(3) (4)
(Speed of sound is 330 m/s) 2 ( n1 + n2 ) 2 ( n1 – n2 )

3. Two sound waves of equal amplitude have

frequency 300 Hz and 303 Hz produces beats.
The time interval between the maxima to next
minima is

1 2
(1) s (2) s
3 3

(1) 594Hz (2) 604Hz 1 1

(3) s (4) s
6 2
(3) 540Hz (4) 576Hz
4. A whistle of frequency 540Hz rotated in a circle Q.23. (Equation of wave)
of radius 2m at a linear speed of 30 m/s. An
1. The equation of a transverse wave is given by
observer is sitting at O as shown in figure. The
y = A sin (4x – 5t). If all the quantities are in SI
minimum frequency heard by observer will be
units, then the speed of the wave will be

(1) 0.8 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s

(3) 4m/s (4) 1.25 m/s

2. The speed of a transverse wave is 2 m/s. If its

equation is given by y = 4 sin (kx – 6t) (where
all the quantities are in SI units). The value of k
(1) 524HZ (2) 495HZ is
(3) 495HZ (4) 540HZ
(1) 1 m–1 (2) 4 m–1
5. A car approaching a crossing at a speed of
20m/s sounds a horn of frequency 500Hz when (3) 6 m–1 (4) 3 m–1
car is at 80m from crossing. Speed of sound in
3. The equation of two transverse waves are given
air is 330 m/s. The frequency heard by a
as y1(x,t) = 2sin(4t–4x) and y2 (x,t) = sin(2x – 4t).
stationary observer, 60 m from the crossing on
If speeds of first wave and second wave are V1
the straight road (which crosses car road at right
and V2 respectively then select correct option.
angles) will be nearly
[All quantities are in S.I. units]
(1) 525Hz (2) 440Hz
(1) V1 < V2 (2) V1 > V2
(3) 560Hz (4) 490Hz
Q.24 (Beats) (3) V1  V2 (4) V2 = V1
1. Three sound waves of equal amplitude have
4. The equation of two transverse waves is y1 = 4
frequency 300Hz, 302Hz and 304 Hz. They
sin(kx – 4t) and y2 = 12 cos (3x – 16t). If the
superimpose to produce beats. The number of
speed of second wave is twice that of first wave,
beats produced per second will be
then value of k is (all quantities are in SI units)
(1) 1 (2) 3
3 6
(3) 4 (4) 2 (1) (2)
2 5
2. If n1 and n2 are frequency of sound waves which
produce beats, then the time interval between 4 16
(3) (4)
two consecutive maxima is 5 3
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CSS-08 Physics

Q.25. (Phase Difference) (1) The apparent frequency is increased

1. Two waves are represented as y1 = asinK(x +vt)
(2) The velocity of sound in the medium is
and y2 = acosK(x + vt + 4), where x is in metre
increased
and t in second. The phase difference between
them is (assume K =  m–1) (3) The wavelength of sound in the medium
towards the observer is decreased

(1) (2) 
2 (4) Amplitude of vibration of the particle
9 3 increased
(3) (4)
2 2 2. When a source of sound moves away from a
2. Two waves are represented as y1 = a sink(x + stationary observer, then
vt + 2) and y2 = a cosk(x + vt + 2), where x is in
(1) The frequency is increased
metre and t second. The phase difference
between them is (assume K =  m–1) (2) The velocity of sound in the medium is
 increased
(1) (2) 
2 (3) The wavelength of sound in the medium
5 3 towards the observer is increased
(3) (4)
2 2
(4) Amplitude of vibration of the particle
3. Two waves of same wavelength , represented as y1 increased
= a sink(x + vt + 2) and y2 = a cosk(x + vt + 2), where
x is in metre and t second. The path difference 3. When a source of sound and an observer move
between them is towards each other, then
(assume K =  m–1) (1) The true frequency is increased

(1) (2)  (2) The velocity of sound in the medium is
2 increased
 3
(3) (4) (3) The wavelength of sound in the medium
4 4
towards the observer is decreased
4. Two coherent waves of same wavelength 
represented as y1 = a sink(x + vt + 2) and y2 = a (4) Amplitude of vibration of the particle
cosk(x + vt + 2), where x is in metre and t increased
second are superimposed. The resultant 4. When a source of sound of wavelength 5 m is
amplitude of them is moving towards a stationary observer, with a
(assume K =  m–1) speed of 10 m/s. If the speed of sound is 330
a m/s. Then the wavelength of the sound received
(1) a (2)
2 by the observer will be

(3) 2a (4) 3a (1) 4.84 m (2) 9.1 m

5. Two waves are represented as y1 = a sink(x + vt ) and (3) 1.9 m (4) 2.67
y2 = a cosk(x + vt – 2), where x is in metre and
t second. The phase difference between them Q.13 (Phase angle between two particles)
is 1. Two particles execute SHM of same amplitude
(assume K =  m–1) and frequency along the same line. They pass
 one another when going in opposite directions.
(1) (2) 
2 Each time, their displacement is half of their
amplitude. What is phase difference between
5 3 them
(3) (4)
2 2
(1) 120° (2) 60°
Q.34. (Doppler Effect in sound waves)
(3) 180° (4) 37°
1. When an observer of sound moves towards a
stationary source
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CSS-08 Physics

2. Simple harmonic motion of two particles are (1) 10 % (2) 5%

given by y1 = 5 sin (100 t) and y2 = 10 cos
(3) 20 % (4) 15 %
 
 100 t + 4  . Phase difference between them is 3. The driver of a car travelling with speed of 40
 
m/s towards a hill, sounds a horn of frequency
  600 Hz. If sound velocity in air is 340 m/s, the
(1) (2)
4 2 frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver
is
3 5
(3) (4)
4 4 (1) 640 Hz (2) 680 Hz

3. What is phase difference between two SHMs (3) 760 Hz (4) 560 Hz
represented as y1 = 4 (sin t + cos t) and 4. A whistle with frequency 1020 Hz is blown at a
  station. A man travelling in a train which is
y2 = 3 sin  t +  in radian
 4 moving towards the station at 30 m/s hears the
sound of the whistle. If speed of sound is 340
  m/s, apparent frequency heard by him is
(1) (2)
8 2
(1) 1110 Hz (2) 970 Hz
3
(3) (4) Zero (3) 890 Hz (4) 1320 Hz
2
5. A train is approaching a railway station with
4. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by
speed of 30 m/s. It emits sound of frequency
 
y1 = 5(sin 2t + √3 cos 2t) and y2 = 5 sin  t + 1800 Hz. What is wavelength of sound
4 
.
 observed by a stationary observer at station. (
The phase difference between particles is Velocity of sound in air = 360 m/s )
  (1) 12.66 cm (2) 13.77 cm
(1) rad (2) rad
3 12
(3) 20.00 cm (4) 18.33 cm
 
(3) rad (4) rad Q.38 (End correction in Resonance Tube)
6 2
1. A tube of certain diameter and length 48 cm is
5. Two simple harmonic motions are given as
open at both ends. Its fundamental frequency of
a
x1 = a sin t + a cos t and x2 = a sin t + resonance is found to be 320 Hz . The velocity
3 of sound in air is 320 m/s. What is radius of tube
cos t. The phase difference between particles
(1) 1.67 cm (2) 1.92 cm
is
(3) 0.86 cm (4) 3.26 cm
 
(1) (2)
12 6 2. A tube of diameter 3.33 cm has length of 48 cm
is closed at one end. What is lowest frequency
 of resonance for the tube. The velocity of sound
(3) (4) Zero
4 in air is 320 m/s.
Q.36 (Doppler’s effect in sound) (1) 212 Hz (2) 163.3 Hz
1. With what velocity should an observer approach (3) 317.2 Hz (4) 416.3 Hz
a stationary sound source so that apparent
3. A tube open at both ends has fundamental
frequency is double the actual frequency (v is
frequency of 160 Hz. The velocity of sound in
velocity of sound )
air is 360 m/s. What is end correction, if length
(1) v/2 (2) v/3 of tube is 1.1 m.
(3) v (4) 2v (1) 1.5 cm (2) 1.25 cm
2. An observer moves towards a stationary source (3) 2.5 cm (4) 3.0 cm
of sound with velocity one fifth the velocity of
sound. The apparent increase in frequency is
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CSS-08 Physics

4. The end correction of a resonance tube is 1.5 3. The phase difference between displacement
cm. Its shortest resonance length with a tuning equation and pressure equation in case of
fork is 19 cm. then next resonating length would sound wave propagating through air is
be

(1) 60 cm (2) 80 cm (1)  (2)
2
(3) 58 cm (4) 58.5 cm
(3) 2  (4) Zero
5. The shortest resonance length in resonance
tube with a tuning fork is 21 cm and next 4. The pressure variation equation of sound wave
resonance length with same tuning force is propagating through gas is P = 8 cos (4x –
found to be 65 cm. The end correction is 3000t) (N/m2). x is in metre and t in second.
What is sound velocity through the gas
(1) 1 cm (2) 1.2 cm
(3) 1.6 cm (4) 0.66 cm (1) 300 m/s (2) 1200 m/s
Q.42 (Pressure nodes and antinodes) (3) 750 m/s (4) 600 m/s
1. What is maximum possible value of sound
intensity in air . Given that density of air is 1.3 5. Two sound waves travelling in opposite
kg/m3, sound velocity in air 330 m/s and direction interfere to produce a standing wave
atmospheric pressure is 1.01 X 105 N/m2 in resonance column tube. The equation of
(1) 1.18 X 107 W/m2 (2) 1.36 W/m2 standing wave is y = 2 sin (0.2x)
(3) 2.36 X 107 W/m2 (4) 1.78 W/m2 cos(100t),where x is in metre and t is in
seconds. What is the distance of first pressure
2. The displacement time equation of sound wave
node from closed end of tube
propagation is y = A sin (kx – wt). Then possible
pressure equation will be
(1) 7.85 cm (2) 6.9 cm
(1) BAK Cos (kx –t)
(2) – BAK Cos (t + kx)
(3) 4.3 cm (4) 5.72 cm
(3) BAK Cos (kx – t)
(4) BAK sin (t – kx)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET
CSS-08 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q. 16. (Simple pendulum) Q.34. (Doppler Effect in sound waves)

1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (1)
4. (4)
Q.13 (Phase angle between two particles)
5. (3)
1. (1)
Q32. (Doppler effect)
2. (3)
1. (3)
3. (4)
2. (4)
4. (2)
3. (1)
5. (1)
4. (2)
Q.36 (Doppler’s effect in sound)
5. (1)
1. (3)
Q.24 (Beats)
2. (3)
1. (3)
3. (3)
2. (2)
4. (1)
3. (3)
5. (4)
Q.23. (Equation of wave)
Q.38 (End correction in resonance Tube)
1. (4)
1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (1)
Q.25. (Phase Difference) 5. (1)
1. (3) Q.42 (Pressure nodes and antinodes)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (3)
3. (2)
4. (3)
4. (3)
5. (4)
5. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-08
ZOOLOGY

Q.167 (Phylum-Vertebrata/craniata) b. Body is covered by dry and cornified skin,

epidermal scales
1. Which of the following is not a mammal?
c. External ear openings are absent
(1) Sea horse (2) Sea cow
Above characters are present in members of class
(3) Dolphin (4) Whale
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
2. Sea horse is a common name of
(3) Aves (4) Mammalia
(1) Hippocampus (2) Delphinus
4. Tympanum represents the ear in members of class
(3) Balaenoptera (4) Exocoetus
(1) Amphibia and Reptilia
3. Hippocampus belongs to which class of
vertebrates? (2) Reptilia and Mammalia
(1) Mammalia (2) Aves (3) Reptilia and Aves
(3) Osteichthyes (4) Chondrichthyes (4) Amphibia and Mammalia
4. Read the following statements and choose the 5. Internal fertilization and direct development occurs
correct option in all except
Statement-A : Whale, sea cow and seal are (1) Amphibians (2) Reptiles
examples of aquatic mammals. (3) Birds (4) Mammals
Statement-B : Dolphin is a cartilaginous fish. Q.162 (Phylum-Echinodermata)
(1) Only statement A is correct 1. Choose the correct set of phylum where animals
(2) Only statement B is correct are exclusively marine in habitat
(3) Both A and B statements are correct (1) Echinodermata, Porifera
(4) Both A and B statements are incorrect (2) Ctenophora, Echinodermata
5. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (3) Arthopoda, Coelenterata
(1) Balaenoptera is the largest living fish (4) Mollusca, Arthropoda
(2) Great white shark belongs to class 2. Select the phylum in which all its members lead a
Chondrichthyes marine life?
(3) Dolphin is an aquatic mammal (1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca
(4) Presence of seven cervical vertebrae is a (3) Hemichordata (4) Annelida
mammalian feature 3. Read the following statements are choose the
Q.144 (Phylum-vertebrata/craniata) correct answer
1. Pulmonary respiration is a characteristic of A : Subphyla Urochordata and Cephalonchordata
are often referred to as protochordates and are
(1) Reptiles and Cyclostomes exclusively marine.
(2) All members of super class Tetrapoda B : Most of the members of phylum Porifera are
(3) All members of super class Pisces marine in habitat but some are fresh water
(4) Only Mammals and Reptiles also.

2. Members to all of the following classes lack the (1) Both statements are correct
ability to regulate their body temperature except (2) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Reptilia (2) Mammalia (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) Amphibia (4) Chondrichthyes (4) Only statement B is correct
3. Read the following characters
a. Mostly terrestrial animals

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 CSS-08 Zoology

4. Only aquatic form of life are generally found in all 3. Select the incorrect match
phylum except (1) Bufferfly - Dioecious
(1) Coelenterata, Porifera (2) Leech - Metameric segmentation
(2) Ctenophora, Echinodermata (3) Cuttlefish - Monoecious
(3) Porifera, Echinodermata (4) Toad - Oviparous
(4) Arthoropoda, Mollusca 4. Which of the following animals is monoecious,
5. Choose the correct set of phylum whose members oviparous and segmented?
are exclusively marine in habitat (1) Butterfly (2) Leech
(1) Hemichordata, Echinodermata (3) Cuttlefish (4) Toad
(2) Cephalochordata, Urochordata 5. Choose the odd one in following organisms w.r.t.
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca segmentation of body and serial repetition of
(4) Porifera, Coelenterate certain organs
Q.177 (Reprodcutive system of cockroach) (1) Butterfly (2) Leech
1. In female cockroach, each ovary is formed of a (3) Toad (4) Cuttlefish
group of __A___ ovarian tubules or ovarioles. Q.153 (Animal kingdom)
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A 1. Which of the following is a marine bony fish?
(1) Four (2) Eight (1) Exocoetus (2) Torpedo
(3) Twelve (4) Sixteen (3) Betta (4) Clarias
2. Read the following statements w.r.t. male 2. Complete the analogy
cockroach and choose the correct answer.
Betta : Fresh water fish :: _____ Marine water fish
A : The extermal genitalia are represented by
male gonapophysis or phallomeres. (1) Hippocampus (2) Clarias
B : Phallomeres are chitinous, asymmetrical (3) Pterophyllum (4) Labeo
structures, surrounding the male gonopore. 3. Air bladder is present in
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Bony fishes (2) Cartilaginous fishes
(2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Birds (4) Reptiles
(3) Only statement A is correct 4. Torpedo is commonly known as
(4) Only statement B is correct (1) Sting ray (2) Sea horse
3. Choose the odd one w.r.t. unpaired structure of (3) Electric fish (4) Flying fish
male reproductive system 5. Terminal mouth and ctenoid scales are present in
(1) Mushroom gland (2) Vas deferens (1) Betta (2) Torpedo
(3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Phallic gland (3) Scoliodon (4) Pristis
4. Which of the following structure in cockroach are Q.157 (Phylum-Porifera)
present at the junction of midgut and hindgut, help
in excretion? 1. Which of the following is a flagellated cell present
in sponges?
(1) Gizzard (2) Crop
(1) Pinacocytes (2) Choanocytes
(3) Malpighian tubules (4) Hepatic caeca
(3) Trophocytes (4) Scleroblasts
5. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach
2. Central body cavity of sponges, lined by
(1) It is ureotelic organism choanocytes is called
(2) Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules (1) Osculum (2) Ostia
(3) Each Malpighian tubule is lined by ciliated cells (3) Spongocoel (4) Coelenteron
(4) Seminal vesicles are present only in male 3. Water enters in the body of sponges through
cockroach minute pores in body wall are called
Q.143 (Animal kingdom) (1) Osculum (2) Ostia
1. Which of the following animal belongs to phylum (3) Spongocoel (4) Hypostome
Mollusca?
4. In the body of sponges, water exit through
(1) Butterfly (2) Leech
(1) Ostia (2) Osculum
(3) Toad (4) Cuttlefish
(3) Choanocytes (4) Porocytes
2. Metameric segmentation is represented by
animals placed in all of the following phyla except 5. Choanocytes of sponges are
(1) Chordata (2) Mollusca (1) Multinucleated cells (2) Flagellated cells
(3) Arthropoda (4) Annelida (3) Ciliated cells (4) Muscle cells

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 CSS-08 Zoology

Q.175 (Digestive system) 3. A triploblastic acoelomate organism, among the

1. Choose the correct location of gastric caeca in following is
cockroach (1) Meandrina (2) Sycon
(1) Between foregut and midgut (3) Fasciola (4) Limulus
(2) Between crop and gizzard 4. Endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm is present in
(3) Between pharynx and gizzard (1) Meandrina (2) Sycon
(4) Between midgut and hindgut (3) Fasciola (4) Aurelia
2. Number of hepatic caeca in the digestive system
5. Choose the correct match
of cockroach are
(1) Meandrina - Triploblastic coelenterate
(1) 6-8 (2) 4-6 pairs
(3) 100-150 (4) 10 pairs (2) Sycon - Diploblastic true coelomate
3. Which of the following structure is present at the (3) Fasciola - Diploblastic Platyhelminthes
junction of midgut and hindgut? (4) Limulus - Triploblastic arthropod
(1) Gastric caeca (2) Hepatic caeca Q.151 (Vertebrate)
(3) Malpighian tubules (4) Salivary reservoir 1. All members of super class Pisces are
4. Which of the following structure is a part of male (1) Aquatic (2) Marine
reproductive system?
(3) Freshwater (4) Terrestrial
(1) Gastric caeca
2. Gnathostomata is divisible into two super classes,
(2) Hepatic caeca
namely
(3) Malpighian tubules
(1) Pisces and tetrapoda
(4) Mushroom gland
(2) Cyclostomata and pisces
5. Mushroom gland and Malpighian tubules, are
associated with ______ and _____ system (3) Agnatha and tetrapoda
respectively (4) Cyclostomata and tetrapoda
(1) Reproductive and digestive system 3. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. Cyclostomes
(2) Excretory and digestive system (1) All living members are ectoparasites on some
(3) Digestive and respiratory system fishes
(4) Digestive and excretory system (2) They have a sucking and circular mouth
Q.138 (Germ layers) (3) They possess paired fins and scales on body
1. Select a diploblastic animal (4) They are the most primitive vertebrates
(1) Meandrina (2) Sycon 4. The most primitive vertebrates are
(3) Fasciola (4) Limulus
(1) Cyclostomes (2) Cephalochordates
2. Mesoglea is an undifferentiated layer present
(3) Urochordates (4) Protochordates
between ectoderm and endoderm germ layers of
animals that belongs to phylum 5. Select a super class, among the following
(1) Porifera (2) Cnidaria (1) Pisces (2) Chondrichthyes
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Arthropoda (3) Osteichthyes (4) Cyclostomata

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ANSWERS

Q.167 Q.153
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (1)
4. (1) 4. (3)
5. (1) 5. (1)
Q.144 Q.157
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (2)
5. (1) 5. (2)
Q.162 Q.175
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (1)
Q.177 (Reproductive system cockroach) Q.138
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (3)
4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (1) 5. (4)
Q.143 Q.151
1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (4) 5. (1)

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