BLOOD REVIEW TEST 9.

Abnormally low levels of white blood cells causes

a condition known as ________.
1. Normal blood pH falls in a range between A) leukocytosis
________ to ________. B) anemia
A) 7.1; 7.2 C) thrombocytopenia
B) 7.35; 7.45 D) leukopenia
C) 7.6; 7.75 Answer: D
D) 7.85; 8.05
Answer: B 10. White blood cells containing granules and lobed
nuclei are classified as ________.
2. An important plasma protein that contributes to the A) agranulocytes
osmotic pressure of blood is ________. B) granulocytes
A) thyroglobulin C) thrombocytes
B) fibrin D) neutrophils
C) albumin Answer: B
D) glucose
Answer: C 11. Platelets are fragments of a multinucleate cell
known as a ________.
3. The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known A) megakaryocyte
as the ________. B) erythrocyte
A) hematocrit C) reticulocyte
B) buffy coat D) monocyte
C) hemoglobin Answer: A
D) plasma
Answer: A 12. The process by which bleeding is stopped is
called ________.
4. Each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport A) hematopoiesis
________ molecules of oxygen. B) erythropoiesis
A) 1 (one) C) homeostasis
B) 2 ( two) D) hemostasis
C) 3 (three) Answer: D
D) 4 (four)
Answer: D 13. The rate of erythrocyte production is controlled
by a hormone known as ________.
5. A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the A) erythropoietin
blood, for any reason, is a condition known B) insulin
as ________. C) growth hormone
A) polycythemia D) aldosterone
B) leukemia Answer: A
C) anemia
D) leukocytosis 14. During coagulation, long, hairlike molecules
Answer: C known as ________ form the basis for a clot.
A) thrombin
6. Lifeat a high altitude can lead to a red blood cell B) prothrombin
disorder known as ________. C) fibrin
A) anemia D) fibrinogen
B) polycythemia Answer: C
C) leukocytosis
D) leukemia 15. Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack
Answer: B of clotting factors are referred to as
________.
7. A total white blood cell count above 11,000 A) petechiae
cells/mm3 is a condition known as ________. B) hemophilia
A) leukopenia C) aplastic anemia
B) leukocytosis D) thrombocytopneia
C) polycythemia Answer: B
D) anemia
Answer: B 16. Substances that the body recognizes as foreign
are called ________.
8. The process by which white blood cells travel A) antigens
through the wall of blood vessels is termed B) antibodies
________. C) formed elements
A) diffusion D) megakaryocytes
B) diapedesis Answer: A
C) filtration
D) chemotaxis 17. When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign
Answer: B blood types, clumping or ________ occurs.
A) coagulation plasma contains ________.
B) hematopoiesis A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
C) agglutination B) platelets and erythrocytes
D) alkalosis C) leukocytes and platelets
Answer: C D) eythrocytes only
E) leukocytes only
18. The ABO blood groups are based on two antigens: Answer: C
antigen ________ and antigen ________.
A) A; B 26. Blood is ________.
B) A; O A) acidic
C) AB; O B) cooler than body temperature
D) B; O C) sweet tasting
Answer: A D) composed mostly of white blood cells and
platelets
19. The blood type that contains both antigens A and E) slightly alkaline
B is ________. Answer: E
A) AB
B) A 27. The hematocrit is the percentage of ________.
C) B A) plasma in blood
D) O B) erythrocytes in blood
Answer: A C) leukocytes in blood
D) formed elements in blood
20. A person with type B blood can receive blood E) platelets in blood
from blood type(s) ________. Answer: B
A) AB, B
B) B, O 28. Which formed element is the most abundant in
C) A, B, AB, O blood?
D) B, O, AB A) erythrocyte
Answer: B B) eosinophil
C) platelet
21. If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as D) basophil
Rh ________. E) lymphocyte
A) positive Answer: A
B) sensitive
C) negative 29. Erythrocytes ________.
D) compatible A) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules
Answer: A B) lack a nucleus and most organelles
C) are the least common of all formed elements
22. The condition in which maternal antibodies cross D) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels
the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs E) clot blood
is called ________. Answer: B
A) hemophilia
B) thrombus 30. Normal whole blood contains ________ g of
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn hemoglobin per 100 mL.
D) physiologic jaundice A) 4-8
Answer: C B) 12-18
C) 15-20
23. The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed D) 30-35
faster than the infant liver can rid the body E) 42-48
of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called Answer: B
________.
A) hemolytic disease of the newborn 31. Which of the following red blood cell disorders
B) pernicious anemia may result from life at a higher altitude?
C) sickle cell trait A) aplastic anemia
D) physiologic jaundice B) sickle cell anemia
Answer: D C) pernicious anemia
D) polycythemia
24. The matrix of blood is called ________. E) hemolytic anemia
A) buffy coat Answer: D
B) plasma
C) erythrocytes 32. White blood cells differ from red blood cells
D) lymphocytes because only they contain ________.
E) formed elements A) a biconcave shape
Answer: B B) a nucleus and most organelles
C) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon
25. In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat dioxide
situated between the formed elements and the D) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin
E) cytoplasm C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
Answer: B D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
33. Jordan works in a hematology lab and received a Answer: E
blood report showing 22,000 white blood
cells per cubic millimeter of blood for a patient. He 40. Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells
determines this patient has ________. called ________.
A) a normal blood count A) erythrocytes
B) polycythemia B) eosinophils
C) anemia C) basophils
D) leukocytosis D) megakaryocytes
E) leukopenia E) macrophages
Answer: D Answer: D

34. The two major groups of white blood cells are 41. Where does hematopoiesis produce new red
________. blood cells?
A) leukocytes and erythrocytes A) yellow bone marrow
B) platelets and megakaryocytes B) articular cartilage
C) neutrophils and basophils C) red bone marrow
D) granulocytes and agranulocytes D) epiphyseal line
E) granulocytes and leukocytes E) synovial membrane
Answer: D Answer: C

35. Which of the following cells are classified as 42. Low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the
granulocytes? release of erythropoietin by the ________.
A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils A) stomach
B) lymphocytes and monocytes B) pancreas
C) eosinophils and monocytes C) kidneys
D) basophils and lymphocytes D) hypothalamus
E) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils E) spleen
Answer: A Answer: C

36. Which type of granulocyte produces antibodies? 43. The average functional lifespan of an RBC is
A) eosinophils ________.
B) basophils A) 20-30 days
C) neutrophils B) 50-75 days
D) lymphocytes C) 100-120 days
E) monocytes D) one year
Answer: D E) the body's lifetime
Answer: C
37. The most numerous of the white blood cells are
the ________. 44. An immature RBC which contains some
A) lymphocytes endoplasmic reticulum is called a(n) ________.
B) neutrophils A) megakaryocyte
C) eosinophils B) hemocytoblast
D) monocytes C) reticulocyte
E) basophils D) agranulocyte
Answer: B E) granulocyte
Answer: C
38. Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an
anticoagulant? 45. What enzyme joins soluble fibrinogen proteins
A) neutrophil into long molecules of fibrin during
B) monocyte coagulation?
C) lymphocyte A) PF3
D) basophil B) thrombin
E) eosinophil C) tissue factor
Answer: D D) prothrombin
E) calcium
39. Place these leukocytes in order from the most Answer: B
common to the least common:
1) basophil 46. The application of a sterile gauze to a cut aids
2) eosinophil with ________.
3) lymphocyte A) platelet plug formation
4) monocyte B) the release of tissue factor
5) neutrophil C) the formation of fibrin
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) coagulation
B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 E) vascular spasms
Answer: A E) leukopenia
Answer: D
47. The series of reactions that stop blood flow
following a cut is called ________. 54. Which of the following is a blood clotting
A) homeostasis disorder?
B) coagulation A) polycythemia
C) hemostasis B) hemophilia
D) erythropoiesis C) leukocytosis
E) agglutination D) leukopenia
Answer: C E) anemia
Answer: B
48. Which one of the following represents the proper
sequence of hemostasis? 55. Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of
A) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular which one of the following vitamins
spasm ________.
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug A) vitamin B12
formation B) vitamin A
C) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug C) vitamin C
formation D) vitamin D
D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, E) vitamin K
coagulation Answer: E
E) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular
spasm 56. The ion essential for blood clotting is ________.
Answer: D A) sodium
B) calcium
49. Why do you think Mrs. Gonzalez was prescribed C) iodine
heparin, an anticoagulant? D) potassium
A) to enhance hematopoiesis E) hydrogen
B) to inhibit release of erythopoietin Answer: B
C) to enhance the formation of clots
D) to increase vascular spasms 57. The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of
E) to inhibit the formation of clots clotting factors is the ________.
Answer: E A) pancreas
B) thyroid
50. Blood normally clots in approximately ________. C) liver
A) 1 minute D) spleen
B) 3 to 6 minutes E) kidneys
C) 5 to 10 minutes Answer: C
D) 15 minutes
E) 30 minutes 58. Treatment of hemophilia often involves
Answer: B ________.
A) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements
51. The formation of an insoluble clot during B) injections of missing clotting factors and vitamin
hemostasis is termed ________. B12 injections
A) agglutination C) vitamin K supplements only
B) coagulation D) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing
C) hematopoiesis clotting factor
D) positive chemotaxis E) vitamin K supplements and vitamin B12 injections
E) diapedesis Answer: D
Answer: B
59. Severe shock that can be fatal occurs with blood
52. Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a loss exceeding ________.
mesh network and the basis for the A) 5 percent
formation of a clot during coagulation? B) 10 percent
A) albumin C) 20 percent
B) fibrin D) 30 percent
C) thrombin E) 50 percent
D) fibrinogen Answer: D
E) hemoglobin
Answer: B 60. A substance that stimulates the immune system to
release antibodies is the ________.
53. A persistent clot in an unbroken blood vessel is A) antigen
known as ________. B) antibody
A) an embolus C) interleukin
B) polycythemia D) fibrinogen
C) hemophilia E) prothrombin activator
D) a thrombus Answer: A
61. The process whereby the binding of antibodies to D) RhoGAM
antigens causes RBCs to clump is called E) fibrinogen
________. Answer: D
A) hemostasis
B) coagulation 68. Which of these blood types carries no antigens?
C) agglutination A) blood type A
D) clotting cascade B) blood type B
E) hemolysis C) blood type AB
Answer: C D) blood types A, B, and AB
E) blood type O
62. Which blood type contains the A antigen only? Answer: E
A) blood type A
B) blood type B 69. Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor
C) blood type AB RBCs by the recipients' serum is called
D) blood types A and AB ________.
E) blood type O A) blood typing
Answer: A B) transfusion reaction
C) cross matching
63. Themost common type of blood in the U.S. D) hemolysis
population is ________. E) hemodialysis
A) A Answer: C
B) B
C) AB 70. Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns
D) O results from ________.
E) AO A) bone marrow disorders
Answer: D B) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells
C) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be removed
64. Molly has blood type A and her daughter has D) erythrocyte mutations
blood type B. Why can't Molly donate blood to E) vitamin deficiencies
her daughter? Answer: B
A) Blood types A and B will coagulate during a
transfusion.
B) Mothers cannot donate blood to their daughters.
C) Blood type B contains anti-A antibodies, which
will agglutinate with type A blood.
D) Blood transfusions cannot be performed among
relatives.
E) Only fathers can donate blood to their daughters.
Answer: C

65. Hemolysis most likely will occur when ________.

A) an Rh negative person receives the first
transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
B) any person receives blood type O during a
transfusion
C) an Rh positive person receives the first transfusion
of blood that is Rh negative
D) an Rh negative person receives the second
transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a
blood vessel
Answer: D

66. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type

O receive?
A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood type O
E) blood types A, B, AB, or O
Answer: D

67. The immune serum used to prevent maternal

sensitization to Rh antigens is ________.
A) serotonin
B) interleukin
C) agglutinin
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM REVIEW TEST C) ductus venosus
D) myocardium
1. The partition where the bundle branches are located Answer: A
is called the ________.
A) left atrioventricular groove 9. Oxygented blood nourishing the myocardium
B) interatrial septum comes from vessels that branch off the aorta
C) interventricular septum called ________.
D) right atrioventricular groove A) pulmonary arteries
Answer: C B) pulmonary veins
C) coronary arteries
2. The pointed, inferior portion of the heart, known as D) venae cavae
the ________, rests on the diaphragm and Answer: C
is oriented toward the left hip.
A) base 10. The walls of the ________ are substantially
B) mediastinum thicker because that chamber acts as the more
C) apex powerful systemic pump of the heart.
D) pericardium A) left atrium
Answer: C B) left ventricle
C) right atrium
3. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is D) right ventricle
actually the same layer as the ________. Answer: B
A) epicardium
B) myocardium 11. The bicuspid valve is also referred to as the
C) fibrous pericardium ________ valve.
D) endocardium A) mitral
Answer: A B) pulmonary
C) semilunar
4. The two superior receiving chambers of the heart D) aortic
are known as the ________, while the two Answer: A
inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known
as the ________. 12. When ventricles ________, the AV valves are
A) ventricles; atria closed.
B) atria; ventricles A) relax
C) arteries; veins B) open
D) veins; arteries C) contract
Answer: B D) dilate
Answer: C
5. The valves located between the atria and ventricles
are known as the ________ valves. 13. The coronary veins empty blood from the
A) pulmonary myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side
B) atrioventricular (AV) of the heart known as the ________.
C) aortic A) pulmonary vein
D) semilunar B) inferior vena cava
Answer: B C) superior vena cava
D) coronary sinus
6. Blood leaves the left ventricle through an artery Answer: D
known as the ________.
A) pulmonary trunk 14. The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of
B) aorta the heart, is often called the ________.
C) superior vena cava A) pacemaker
D) coronary sinus B) pericardial cavity
Answer: B C) atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
D) auricle
7. The transportation of blood from the right side of Answer: A
the heart to the lungs and back to the left
side of the heart is known as ________ circulation. 15. The length of the cardiac cycle is normally
A) systemic ________ second(s) in length.
B) cardiac A) 2
C) pulmonary B) 4
D) coronary C) 0.8
Answer: C D) 0.3
Answer: C
8. The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps
of endocardium to the walls of the 16. The electrocardiogram (ECG) wave that results
ventricles are called the ________. from the firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node is
A) chordae tendineae the ________ wave.
B) ligamentum arteriosum A) QRS
B) T C) media
C) P D) adventitia
D) S-T Answer: C
Answer: C
25. Arteries are normally depicted as red while veins
17. The first heart sound, "lub," is caused by the are colored blue. The exceptions to this
closure of the ________ valves. rule are the ________ arteries and veins.
A) semilunar A) systemic
B) pulmonary B) hepatic
C) atrioventricular (AV) C) coronary
D) aortic D) pulmonary
Answer: C Answer: D

18. The term that means heart contraction is 26. Capillary beds are drained by vessels known as
________. ________.
A) diastole A) venules
B) tachycardia B) venae cavae
C) systole C) arterioles
D) fibrillation D) arteries
Answer: C Answer: A

19. During mid-to-late diastole, blood flows from the 27. Large veins have ________ to prevent the
atria to the ________. backflow of blood.
A) ventricles A) tunics
B) lungs B) sphincters
C) aorta C) valves
D) pulmonary trunk D) shunts
Answer: A Answer: C

20. The average heart beats about ________ times 28. The flow of blood through a capillary bed is
per minute. called ________.
A) 35 A) pulmonary circulation
B) 50 B) hepatic portal circulation
C) 75 C) systemic circulation
D) 105 D) microcirculation
Answer: C Answer: D

21. The volume of blood pumped out of a ventricle 29. The largest artery in the body is the ________.
with each heartbeat is known as ________. A) brachiocephalic artery
A) heart rate (HR) B) pulmonary trunk
B) stroke volume (SV) C) aorta
C) cardiac output (CO) D) common carotid artery
D) blood pressure (BP) Answer: C
Answer: B
30. The organs served by the renal arteries and veins
22. The vagus nerve operates under the control of the are the ________.
parasympathetic nervous system and A) ovaries
causes the ________. B) kidneys
A) heart rate to decrease C) testes
B) heart rate to increase, then decrease D) lungs
C) heart rate to increase Answer: B
D) blood pressure to increase
Answer: A 31. The longest veins in the body drain the leg and
are the ________.
23. Large blood vessels that carry blood away from A) femoral veins
the heart are called ________. B) great saphenous veins
A) arteries C) venae cavae
B) capillaries D) anterior and posterior tibial veins
C) veins Answer: B
D) venae cavae
Answer: A 32. Veins draining the head and arms empty into the
________, which carries blood to the right
24. Tunica ________, the middle layer of a typical atrium of the heart.
blood vessel, contains smooth muscle and A) superior vena cava
elastic fibers. B) inferior vena cava
A) intima C) common iliac vein
B) externa D) great saphenous vein
Answer: A 40. Sustained elevated arterial blood pressure above
140/90 mm Hg is a condition known as
33. The single vessel that drains blood from the ________.
digestive tract organs to the liver is the A) hypertension (high blood pressure)
________. B) orthostatic hypotension
A) hepatic vein C) circulatory shock
B) hepatic portal vein D) myocardial infarction
C) renal vein Answer: A
D) inferior vena cava
Answer: B 41. Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by
________ while ________ tends to draw
34. Branches of the common carotid arteries, known fluid into the capillary bed.
as the ________, travel through the neck A) systolic pressure; diastolic pressure
into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the B) blood pressure; osmotic pressure
brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of C) osmotic pressure; diastolic pressure
Willis) with blood. D) osmotic pressure; blood pressure
A) external carotid arteries Answer: B
B) internal carotid arteries
C) brachiocephalic trunk 42. The heart is situated within the medial section of
D) subclavian arteries the thoracic cavity known as the ________.
Answer: B A) mediastinum
B) hiatus
35. The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient- C) pleural cavity
rich blood to the fetus is the ________. D) hilus
A) hepatic portal vein E) diaphragm
B) umbilical vein Answer: A
C) ductus arteriosus
D) umbilical artery 43. The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the
Answer: B visceral layer of the serous pericardium is
________.
36. The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of A) myocardium
the fetus through which blood is shunted B) endocardium
directly from the right atrium to the left atrium is the C) epicardium
________. D) parietal layer of the serous pericardium
A) ductus arteriosus E) either endocardium or epicardium
B) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: C
C) ductus venosus
D) foramen ovale 44. Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and
Answer: D from the heart and the ________.
A) body
37. The pressure that draws fluid into capillaries B) digestive organs
since blood has a higher solute concentration C) skin
than interstitial fluid is known as ________. D) lungs
A) blood pressure E) brain
B) systolic pressure Answer: D
C) osmotic pressure
D) diastolic pressure 45. The left atrium receives blood from the ________.
Answer: C A) pulmonary arteries
B) superior vena cava
38. The alternating expansion and recoil of an artery C) aorta
that occurs with each beat of the left D) pulmonary veins
ventricle creates a pressure wave known as a(n) E) inferior vena cava
________. Answer: D
A) cardiac output
B) pulse 46. Pulmonary arteries transport ________.
C) pressure point A) oxygenated blood to the lungs
D) stroke volume B) blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs
Answer: B C) oxygenated blood to the heart
D) oxygenated blood directly to the aorta
39. The narrowing of blood vessels is known as E) blood rich in carbon dioxide to the right atrium of
________. the heart
A) vasodilation Answer: B
B) diastole
C) vasoconstriction 47. What structure divides the left atrium from the
D) systole right atrium?
Answer: C A) interventricular septum
B) interatrial septum
C) bicuspid valve 55. Which one of the following represents the correct
D) tricuspid valve path for the transmission of an impulse in
E) chordae tendineae the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
Answer: B A) atrioventricular (AV) node, sinoatrial (SA) node,
atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of
48. When the ventricles contract, the bicuspid (mitral) His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
valve prevents blood from flowing from B) atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV)
the ________. bundle (bundle of His), sinoatrial (SA)
A) right ventricle to the right atrium node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
B) left ventricle to the left atrium C) sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle
C) left atrium to the right atrium (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV)
D) right atrium to the left atrium node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
E) left ventricle to the right ventricle D) sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle
Answer: B (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV)
node, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
49. The tricuspid valve is located between the E) sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node,
________. atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of
A) right atrium and left atrium His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
B) right atrium and right ventricle Answer: E
C) left ventricle and pulmonary artery
D) left ventricle and aorta 56. Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood from
E) right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the
Answer: B heart?
A) coronary sulcus
50. What anchors the flaps of the atrioventricular B) coronary artery
valves to the walls of the ventricles? C) coronary sinus
A) ligamentum arteriosum D) circumflex artery
B) fossa ovalis E) pulmonary vein
C) chordae tendineae Answer: C
D) interatrial septum
E) coronary sulcus 57. Which of these events is NOT associated with
Answer: C ventricular systole?
A) atrioventricular valves close
51. Which one of the following blood vessels carries B) heart is relaxed
oxygenated blood? C) blood rushes out of the ventricles
A) superior vena cava D) pressure in ventricles rises
B) inferior vena cava E) semilunar valves open
C) coronary sinus Answer: B
D) pulmonary artery
E) pulmonary vein 58. The mitral valve is normally closed ________.
Answer: E A) when the ventricle is in diastole
B) when the ventricle is in systole
52. Which valve guards the base of the aorta and C) when the atrium is contracting
opens when the ventricles are contracting? D) by the movement of blood from the atrium to the
A) mitral valve ventricle
B) aortic semilunar valve E) when the ventricle is relaxed
C) bicuspid valve Answer: B
D) pulmonary semilunar valve
E) tricuspid valve 59. A person with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute
Answer: B and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has
a cardiac output of ________.
53. Which blood vessels are direct branches of the A) 4500 mL/minute
left coronary artery? B) 1.25 mL/minute
A) circumflex and marginal arteries C) 0.8 mL/minute
B) anterior and posterior interventricular arteries D) 6000 mL/minute
C) anterior interventricular and marginal arteries E) 120 mL/minute
D) anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries Answer: A
E) posterior interventricular and marginal arteries
Answer: D 60. The heart sounds "lub" and "dup" result from
________.
54. The sinoatrial node is located in the ________. A) opening of the heart valves
A) aorta B) firing of the nodes of the intrinsic conduction
B) right atrium system
C) left atrium C) blood rushing through the chambers
D) right ventricle D) closure of heart valves
E) interventricular septum E) contraction of the heart
Answer: B Answer: D
61. The volume of blood pumped out by each B) left internal carotid artery
ventricle with each beat of the heart is called the C) right pulmonary artery
________. D) left brachiocephalic artery
A) cardiac output E) right and left coronary arteries
B) cardiac cycle Answer: E
C) stroke volume
D) heart rate 69. Which one of the following does NOT receive
E) diastolic pressure blood directly from the aortic arch?
Answer: C A) brachiocephalic artery
B) left subclavian artery
62. The path of blood flow within the systemic C) left common carotid artery
vascular system is ________. D) right common carotid artery
A) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins E) thoracic aorta
B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules Answer: D
C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds
D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules 70. Which of the following arteries is the first branch
E) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins of the abdominal aorta?
Answer: E A) splenic artery
B) superior mesenteric artery
63. You notice a missing P wave on a patient's C) celiac artery
electrocardiogram (ECG) and believe there is a D) femoral artery
problem with the ________. E) hepatic artery
A) atrioventricular (AV) node Answer: C
B) Purkinje fibers
C) left bundle branch 71. Which of these pathways correctly traces blood as
D) atrioventricular (AV) bundle it travels from the aortic arch to the left
E) sinoatrial (SA) node arm?
Answer: E A) aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, right common
carotid artery
64. Which of the following increases heart rate? B) aortic arch, left common carotid artery, left
A) low levels of calcium internal carotid artery
B) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation C) aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary
C) vagus nerve stimulation artery, left brachial artery
D) cold D) ascending aorta, right coronary arteries
E) epinephrine E) abdominal aorta, celiac trunk, left gastric artery
Answer: E Answer: C

65. Veins ________. 72. The external carotid artery serves the skin and
A) carry blood away from the heart muscles of the head and ________.
B) branch into smaller vessels called arterioles A) armpit
C) transport oxygen-rich blood B) groin
D) operate under high pressure C) neck
E) often have valves to prevent the backflow of blood D) abdomen
Answer: E E) leg
Answer: C
66. Which type of vessel is constructed only from
tunica intima? 73. Which vein returns blood to the superior vena
A) arteries cava?
B) arterioles A) brachiocephalic vein
C) capillaries B) renal vein
D) veins C) hepatic portal vein
E) venules D) common iliac vein
Answer: C E) great saphenous vein
Answer: A
67. The correct sequence of layers of a typical blood
vessel, from superficial to deep, are 74. The internal iliac vein empties blood directly into
________. the ________.
A) tunica media, tunica intima, tunica externa A) femoral vein
B) tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima B) common iliac vein
C) tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima C) superior vena cava
D) tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media D) hepatic portal vein
E) tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa E) external iliac vein
Answer: C Answer: B

68. Which of the following blood vessels is a direct 75. What organ receives blood from the hepatic
branch of the ascending aorta? portal vein?
A) right subclavian artery A) liver
B) kidney 82. What is the effect of parasympathetic nervous
C) pancreas system control on the vascular system?
D) large intestine A) little to no effect
E) brain B) heart rate increases
Answer: A C) blood pressure increases
D) vasoconstriction
76. The brachial vein ________. E) epinephrine release brings about many changes
A) drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then Answer: A
empties that blood into the axillary vein
B) drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then 83. Which of the following hormones promotes
empties that blood into the superior vena sodium ion reabsorption by the kidney in order
cava to increase blood pressure and blood volume?
C) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties A) glucagon
that blood into the external iliac vein B) thyroxine
D) drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties C) epinephrine
that blood into the superior vena cava D) aldosterone
E) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties E) antidiuretic hormone
that blood into the femoral vein Answer: D
Answer: A
84. Which of the following is NOT a method or
77. The umbilical vein carries ________. pathway of movement for substances traveling
A) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the across a capillary wall?
fetus to the placenta A) intercellular clefts
B) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the B) diffusion
placenta to the fetus C) endocytosis or exocytosis
C) oxygen and nutrients from the fetus to the placenta D) desmosomes
D) oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the E) fenestrated capillaries
fetus Answer: D
E) blood from the navel into the inferior vena cava
Answer: D 85. Substances tend to leave the bloodstream at the
arterial end of the capillary because
78. Which fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly ________.
connecting the right atrium and the left A) the osmotic pressure of the blood is higher at the
atrium? arterial end of the capillary
A) ligamentum arteriosum B) the osmotic pressure of the blood is higher at the
B) umbilical vein venule end of the capillary
C) foramen ovale C) blood pressure is higher at the arterial end of the
D) ductus arteriosus capillary
E) ductus venosus D) blood pressure is higher at the venule end of the
Answer: C capillary
E) interstitial pressure is higher at the arterial end of
79. Which one of the following areas is NOT a the capillary
pressure point? Answer: C
A) renal artery
B) radial artery 86. Coronary artery disease results from ________.
C) facial artery A) persistent parasympathetic nervous system
D) dorsalis pedis artery stimulation of the heart
E) posterior tibial artery B) the accumulation of fatty substances within blood
Answer: A vessels
C) temporary loss of oxygen to the heart
80. Which of the following vessels has the lowest D) incompetent venous valves
blood pressure? E) scar tissue in the myocardium of the heart from
A) veins repeated myocardial infarctions
B) capillaries Answer: B
C) venae cavae
D) arteries
E) arterioles
Answer: C

81. The friction blood encounters as it flows through

the vessels is called ________.
A) cardiac output
B) stroke volume
C) peripheral resistance
D) blood pressure
E) diastolic pressure
Answer: C