Genral Pharma -9 (1-9)

1. Ephedrine was repeatedly administered to an anaesthesised experimental animal and his blood
pressure was being monitored. It was observed that the response is rapidly diminishing and after few
doses it comes on the baseline. This phenomenon is called:-
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Tolerance
c. Supersensitivity
d. Tachyphylaxis
e. Idiosyncrasy
2. A Sympathomimetic drug is administered to an experimental animal and its heart rate in being
monitored. The maximum effect (E max) will be the measure of its:-
a. Potency
b. Efficacy
c. Therapeutic Index
d. Quantal Response
e. Receptor Affinity
3. In the absence of increased sympathetic activity ,Pindolol causes an increase in heart rate by
activating β adrenoceptors. In the presence of highly effective β stimulants like adrenaline, Pindolol
causes a dose dependent reversible decrease in heart rate. Which of the following expression best
describes Pindolol?
a. A chemical antagonist
b. An irreversible antagonist
c. A partial agonist & antagonist
d. A physiological antagonist
e. A spare receptor agonist
4. A patient is administered an anticholinergic drug that follows first order kinetics and has a half-life of
08 hours. A peak serum level obtained after a single I.V bolus dose of 200 mg is 16 μg/ml. After 16
hours, the serum level is expected to be:
a. 06μg/ml
b. 08μg/ml
c. 50μg/ml
d. 04μg/ml
e. 02μg/ml
5. Adrenaline is a life saving drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis. Reversal of histamine induced
bronchospasm and vasodilation, by adrenaline is due to:
a. Physiological antagonism
b. Pharmacological antagonism
c. Chemical antagonism
d. Competitive antagonism
e. None Competitive antagonism
6. Which of the following parameter is calculated as the ratio of the area under the curve (AUC)
obtained by oral administration and the AUC after intravenous administration of the same drug?
a. Absorption
b. Bioavailability
c. Hepatic clearance
 d. Elimination rate
e. Extraction ratio
7. Lipid-soluble drugs cross the body membranes at a rate that is function of their concentration gradient
across the membrane and the lipid: water partition coefficient of the drug.
a. Filtration
b. Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Active transport
e. Endocytosis
8. A patient undergoes decreasing response to a drug on repeated administration, but the same response
can be achieved by increasing the dose of the drug. This phenomenon is termed as:
a. Photosensitivity
b. Tachyphylaxis
c. Drug allergy
d. Drug dependence
e. Tolerance
9. In case of competitive/ reversible pharmacological antagonism, Which of the following is the correct
statement?
a. Parallel shift of curve to the right
b. Have longer duration of action
c. Covalent binding with the receptor
d. Decrease maximal efficacy of agonist
e. Clinically they are not useful drugs
ANS -8 (10 -17)
10. A 45-year old woman presents with symptoms of parasympathetic over activity. She is not currently
taking any medication. which drug could reverse the parasympathetic tone in this woman?
a. Atropine
b. Carbachol
c. Succinylcholine
d. Hexamethonium
e. Tubocurarine
11. A patient is administered a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts directly on the contractile mechanism of
the muscle fibers. Which of the following drugs could it be?
a. Gallamine
b. Dantrolene
c. Pancuronium
d. Baclofen
e. Succinylcholine
12. A 2 year BDS student comes to your ophthalmic clinic for some visual problem. He has to appear in
nd

pharmacology paper next morning. You want to dilate his pupil for fundoscopy. Which of the
following drug you will prefer which has short duration of action and will not affect his studies at
night before exam?
a. Atropine
b. Homatropine
c. Cyclopentolate
d. Tropicamide
e. Eucatropine
13. In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized the blood pressure, reduced resting
heart rate to 56/min. Which of the following β-blocker will be most suitable for him as an alternate so
 that heart rate is not markedly reduced?
a. Pindolol
b. Bisoprolol
c. Atenolol
d. Timolol
e. Propranolol
14. Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages over other antimuscarinic drugs, when
used in bronchial asthma and COPD:
a. Does not decrease respiratory secretions
b. Doesn,t depress mucocilliary clearance
c. Has faster onset of bronchodilator action
d. Produces less marked systemic side effects
e. Produces more marked bronchodilatation
15. After subcutaneous injection of a clinical dose of a drug into a healthy young adult, dilatation of
the pupil but reacting to light and a rise in systolic blood pressure are produced. Which of the
following drugs it could be?
a. Ganglion blocker
b. Beta agonist
c. Atropine
d. Adrenaline
e. Physostigmine
16. Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops for treating glaucoma because of which of the
following reasons?
a. It is much more effective than pilocarpine.
b. It act by enhancing uveo-scleral out flow
c. It acts by contraction of the ciliary muscle
d. Doesnot affect accommodation & pupil size
e. Acts by contracting sphinterpupillae muscle
17. One of the following drugs acts by inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine from synaptic cleft of
adrenergic nerve terminals. Which one it could be?
a. Cocaine
b. Reserpine
c. Ephedrine
d. Methoxamine
e. Albuterol

CVS & Diuretics -8 (18 – 25)

18. Mr. Ali 70 year of age known hypertensive for the last 2 years, on antihypertensive therapy presents in ER
with severe hypertension. History revealed that he has not taken his drug for the last 12 hours. Which of the
following drug is responsible for his condition?
a. Propranolol
b. Captopril
c. Prazosin
d. Clonidine
e. Diltiazem
19. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure, it works by exerting a positive effect on
which of the following parameter?
a. Stroke volume
 b. Peripheral resistance
c. Cardiac rate
d. Blood pressure
e. Venous return
20. A women in the 20th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood
pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her:
a. Verapamil
b. Methyl dopa
c. Labetalol
d. Clonidine
e. Captopril
21. An elderly patient presented in the cardiac emergency with cardiac arrhythmia secondary to digitalis
toxicity, as he was taking digoxin for the treatment of CHF. The most suitable drug for the above condition
would be:
a. Amiodarone
b. Lidocaine
c. Quinidine
d. Sotalol
e. Verapamil
22. A patient came to OPD with acute angina attack, having previous history of migraine. Which drug // drug
group should be avoided in such patient?
a. ACE Inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Organic nitrates
d. Verapamil
e. Hydrochlorothiazide
23. While planning for surgery in a patient of angle closure glaucoma, Which of the following can be used
topically to lower the inraoccular pressure before surgery:
a. Furosemide
b. Dorzolamide
c. Mannitol
d. Indapamide
e. Spironolactone
24. A patient presents with acute pulmonary oedema, secondary to Congestive Heart Failure being treated
with digoxin. She is given Frusemide to treat acute pulmonary oedema, but after several hours, the
patient develops signs of digoxin toxicity. What could be the cause?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Digoxin overdosage
c. Renal failure
d. Hypokalemia
e. Hepatic dysfunction
25. A 30 year old woman being treated for hypertension has the sudden onset of fever & malaise. On
examination she has a temperature of 101 F and is normotensive. She has a malar rash, swelling and
tenderness of her wrists and knees and a friction rub at the left lower sternal border. The drug most
likely to have caused these findings is:
a. Captopril
 b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidil
d. Sodium Nitroprusside
e. Propranolol
Blood – 7 ( 26 – 32)
26. Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta and has no significant concentration in milk
in the lactating female and can be safely used in nursing mothers?
a. Heparin
b. Dicoumarol
c. Warfarin
d. Phenindione
e. Phenytoin
27. A patient receiving an anti-hyperlipidemic drug experiences cutaneous vasodilation after each dose at
onset. Which anti-hyperlipidemic drug is he receiving?
a. Gemfibrozil
b. Lovastatin
c. Niacin
d. Cholestyramine
e. Cholestipol
28. A 75 year old woman MrsC.L.Rice has stable angina and stenosis of a branch of coronary artery that
perfuses a large segment of the myocardium. She is scheduled to undergo Percutaneous Transluminal
Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) to revascularize the myocardium. Which one of the following agents
would most likely be given to prevent platelet aggregation during PTCA and acts by binding to
glycoprotein receptors?
a. Abciximab
b. Dipyridamole
c. Ticlopidine
d. Aprotinin
e. Clopidrogel
29. The important complication of streptokinase therapy can be:
a. Hypotension
b. Bleeding
c. Fever
d. Allergy
e. Stroke
30. You have recently put a patient on warfarin therapy. Which lab test will be required for monitoring
of this patient to prevent warfarin toxicity?
a. aPTT
b. PT
c. PT & INR
d. Bleeding time
e. No test required
31. A patient was being treated with an anticoagulant, now he presented in OPD with painful toe of his
right foot. On examination his toe is swollen, tender with blue discoloration. Which is the most
probable drug he was receiving?
a. LMWH
b. Warfarin
c. UF heparin
d. Tirofiban
e. Clopidogrel
 32. A 35 years old pregnant female comes with gestational amenorrhea . She has previous
history of miscarriage because of abnormal development/ neural tube defects in the
child. Which of these is given pre-conception to reduce chances of neural tube defects:
a. Ferous sulphate
b. Vitamin - A
c. Folic acid
d. Vitamin E
e. Vitamin B12
GIT, RespMisc -8 (33- 40)
33. A 45 year old women complains of persistent heart burn and unpleasant acid like taste
in her mouth. The clinician suspects that she has gastro-esophegeal reflux disease and
advises her to raise the head of her bed 6 to 8 inches, not to eat for several hours before
retiring, and to eat smaller meals. Two weeks later, she returns and says the symptoms
have decreased slightly but still are a concern. The clinician will likely prescribe which
of the following drugs:
a. Al hydroxide
b. Dicylomine
c. Alprazolam
d. Lansoprazole
e. Misoprostol
34. Mucolytic drugs are commonly used in various respiratory ailments. Which of the following effect is
produced by a mucolytic agent?
a. Reduces airway mucus secretion
b. Increase airway mucus secretion
c. Liquifies the mucous secretions
d. Stimulates mucociliary activity
e. Irritates respiratory mucosa
35. A 35 year old female treated for bronchial asthma develops skeletal muscle tremors and tachycardia
that are drug-induced. Which one of the following drugs was he administered?
a. Albuterol
b. Beclomethasone
c. Cromolyn
d. Ipratropium
e. Montelukast
36. Mrs. H. Clinton is prescribed zafirlukastfor her long term asthma control. Which mechanism of
action of this drug is involved for asthma control?
a. Increased release of corticosteroids
b. Augmentation of of beta-2 agonists
c. Inhibition of lipo-oxygcnase enzyme
d. Blockade of Leukotriene receptors
e. Stabilization of mast cell membrane
37. A patient is consuming large amounts of aspirin for an arthritic condition. Which drug, if taken
concurrently, is most apt to prevent the development of peptic ulceration? It was recently described
as being a component of a "do-at-home" abortifacient.
a. Carboprost
b. Pirenzepine
 c. Syrup ipecac
d. Misoprostol
e. Sucralfate
38. A 61 year old chain smoker develops lung cancer for which he is given anti-cancer drugs. He is
having severe nauseating feeling and vomiting. Which one of the following drugs would be most
suitable for these bothersome adverse effects?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Meclizine
c. Ondansetron
d. Atropine
e. Chlorpromazine
39. A physician prescribes metoclopramide for gastroparesis associated with diabetes. Side effects
include sedation, diarrhea and extrapyramidal effects. These effects are primarily due to blockade of:
a. Muscarinic Receptors
b. Dopamine Receptors
c. Histamine H2 Receptors
d. H+ / k+ proton pump
e. Prostaglandin receptors
40. A 55-year-old female who is taking Propranolol for the management of cardiovascular disease
experiences an acute asthmatic attack. Which of the following would you prescribe to attenuate this
asthmatic attack?
a. Cromolyn Na
b. Salbutamol
c. Beclomethasone
d. Ipratropium
e. Montelukast
CNS-8 (41-48)
41. Use of this agent is associated with a high incidence of disorientation, sensory and perceptual
illusions, and vivid dreams during recovery from anaesthesia, termed as emergence phenomenon.
Which drug it could be?
a. Diazepam
b. Fentanyl
c. Ketamine
d. Midazolam
e. Thiopental
42. One of the following local anesthetic causes irreversible cardiac arrest if it is given intravenously.
Which local anaesthetic it could be?
a. Lidocaine
b. Procaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Ropivacaine
e. Mepivacaine
43. One of the following antipsychotic drugs has weak dopamine D2 but prominent 5HT2 receptor blocking
activity and benefits both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which one it could be?
a. Haloperidol
b. Clozapine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Clopenthixol
 e. Thioridazine
44. If ketamine is used as the sole anaesthetic in the attempted reduction of a dislocated shoulder joint, its action
will include:
a. Analgesia
b. Bradycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Muscle rigidity
e. Respiratory depression
45. One of the following local anesthetic causes irreversible cardiac arrest if it is given intravenously. Which one it
could be?
a. Lidocaine
b. Procaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Ropivacaine
e. Mepivacaine
46. An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia, which of the following agents would have the best chance
to improve his apathy and social withdrawal?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Fluphenazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Risperidone
e. Thioridazine
47. A 52 year old woman presented with intense pain, warmth, and redness in the first toe on her left
foot. Aftr initial symptomatic relief, it was decided to put her on chronic drug therapy. Which of the
following drugs could be used to decrease the rate of production of uric acid?
a. Aspirin
b. Colchicine
c. Allopurinol
d. Sulfinpyrazone
e. Probenecid

48. Select the antiparkinsonian drug which directly activates dopaminergic D2 receptors in the striatum
and is also has got free rdicalscavenging activity:
a. Pramipexole
b. Entacapone
c. Benserazide
d. Selegiline
e. Levodopa
Chemo -10 (49 – 58)
49. A child of 6 year old presents to you in OPD with teeth discoloration. The parents give history of
antibiotic use which was prescribed by a quack. Which antibiotic is likely to be cause of this
discoloration?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Tetracycline
d. Ampicillin
e. Erythromycin
50. A 40 year old women was undergoing treatment for aspergillosis, she was receiving I/V antifungals.
Routine RFTs showed an increase in creatinine levels and GFR also decreased. What drug was she
 likely receiving?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Nystatin
c. Flucytosine
d. Amphotericin
e. Fluconazole
51. A 35 year old Mexican-American man presents to his family physician because his mother was found
to have T.B. The family physician recommends prophylaxis against T.B. Which of the following is
indicated for TB prophylaxis in exposed adult patient:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutal
c. Isoniazid
d. Streptomycin
e. Pyrazinamide
52. One of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotonic:
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutal
e. Streptomycin
53. Occurrence of the following adverse reactions absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in
the treatment of tuberculosis
a. Respiratory syndrome
b. Cutaneous syndrome
c. Flu syndrome
d. Abdominal syndrome
54. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of
tuberculosis is
a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
b. To obtain bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
e. None of the above
55. Multidrug resistance (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to:
a. Any two or more anti-tuberculosis drugs
b. Isoniazid + any other anti-tubercular drug
c. Isoniazid + rifampin ± any one or more anti-tubercular drug
d. All first line anti-TB drugs
e. All second line anti-TB drugs
56. A patient who recently had prostate surgery develops a urinary tract infection. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa is cultured. Suitable therapy would include all of the following agents except:
a. Amoxicillin &Clavulanate
b. Ceftazidime
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Tobramycin
 e. Aztreonam
57. Which of the following would be the antibiotic of choice in a patient of hepatic coma?
a. Neomycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Cephalothin
e. Penicillin G
58. The most effective drug for immunosuppression of rejection of the allografted kidney is:
a. Azathioprine
b. Cyclosporine
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Vincristine
e. 5-Fluorouracil
59. A woman in her post-menopausal stage is suffering from osteoporosis. Which of the following drugs
would be most effective in relieving osteoporosis in this patient?
a. Clomiphene
b. Ethinyl Estradiol
c. Tamoxifen
d. Norethindrone
e. Progesterone
60. A patient is taking gonadotropin therapy for the treatment of infertility. This may result in:
a. Amenorrhea
b. Galactorrhea
c. Ovarian hyperstimulation
d. Thyroid gland stimulation
e. Menorraghea
61. A substance that enhances the probability of ovulation by blocking the inhibitory effect of estrogens
and thus stimulating the release of gonadotropin from the pituitary is:
a. Diethylstilbestrol
b. Clomiphene
c. Ethinyl Estradiol
d. Progesterone
e. Tamoxifen
62. A patient is suffering form Paget’s disease of the bone. Which naturally occurring substance is useful
in treating the disease of this patient?
a. Calcitonin
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Thyroxin
d. Cortisol
e. Calcium Salt
63. A hypothyroid patient requires maintenance replacement therapy. Which of the following is the drug
of choice?
a. Liothyronine
b. Protirelin
c. Levothyroxin
 d. Liotrix
e. Thyroxine
64. Bromocriptine is used to treat some women with amenorrhea because it:
a. Stimulates release of GnRH
b. Stimulates the ovary directly
c. Inhibits prolactin release
d. Increases the synthesis of FSH
e. It increases prolactin levels
65. A patient is on regular chronic therapy with Leuprolide. Which of the following effects could result?
a. Increased GnRH receptors
b. Increased gonadotropin release
c. Decreased gonadotropin release
d. Reinitiation of menstrual cycles
e. Pituitary Stimulation