Final Internalmed2

Hyperglycaemia:-
Obesity , dry mouth , thirst , frequent urination , weight loss , skin dry , apical impulse shift left down
, heart boundary expand left , accent of 2nd sounds l over aorta , blood pressure slightly increased...
Cholesterol increased
GFR decreased
Hypoglycemia:-
Feeling of hunger , dizziness , trembling of extremities , skin wet , muscle tone increased,
Pulse rapid or slow both ,
Glucosuria, no acetone
Acute Hyperglycaemia:-
Same as Hyperglycaemia but...
Polyuria , epigastric pain , dyspeptic symptoms , smell of acetone in exhaled air , eye ball soft
Hyperthyroidism :-
Palpitations , difficulty in swallowing , sweating , weight loss , irritability , glazed eyes , frequent
stools
Graefe , kocher , mobius , pretibial myxedema
Skin moist
TSH decreased
T3 T4 increased, sinus tachycardia , atrial fibrillation
If "leukocytes" then acute inflammation of thyroid gland...
If "lymphocytes" answer will be sub-acute inflammation
Acute inflammation's pathogens - microbial
Sub-acute inflammation's pathogens – viral
cushingoid or Cushing syndrome in question....then answer will be hypercorticism

Internal Medicine (Endocrine System)
1. Factors predisposing to the development of hyperglycemia syndrome:

A. obesity, physical inactivity
B. excess in the diet of coarse fiber
C. excessive physical activity
E. environmental influences
D. hypоthyroidism
2. A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the clinic with complaints of dry mouth,
thirst, frequent urination, itching of the genitals. The above complaints began to
bother about 3 years ago, had not been treated anywhere before, there is a child,
weight 4.8 kg. Objective data: weight 88 kg, height 156 cm, dry skin. Vesicular
breathing above the lungs, rhythmic heart sounds, with an emphasis on 2 sounds
above the aorta. The abdomen is soft, painless. Laboratory data: fasting blood
glucose level of 15.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after eating - 19.3 mmol / l, cholesterol - 7.4
mmol / l. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypercortisolism
C. hyperthyroidism
D. hyperparathyroidism
E. hyperglobinemia
3. A 16-year-old patient complains of intense thirst (the volume of liquid drunk up

to 6 liters per day), dry mouth, increased urine output, weight loss by 6 kg in 2
months, severe weakness. From the anamnesis: these complaints began to bother
after suffering a severe flu. Diabetes mellitus heredity is not burdened. Objective
data: height 167 cm, weight 50 kg, dry skin, facial rubeosis. Above the lungs,
vesicular breathing, heart sounds are clean, rhythmic, heart rate-89 beats 1 min,
blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft, painless, the liver is not
enlarged. What analysis should be done first of all in these cases?
A. total cholesterol
B. liver test
C. kidney test
D. glucose level
E. urea
4. Causes of hypoglycemia
A. fatty food
B. excessive exercise
C. stress
D. excess in the diet of coarse fiber
5. An 18-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital unconscious. It is known

from the anamnesis that he has been suffering from diabetes mellitus for 5 years
and receives insulin. According to relatives, in the morning the patient
independently increased the dose of this insulin, explaining this by the fact that it
was an increased thirst and dry mouth recently. In the morning he felt good, and
after 3 hours he was found unconscious by his relatives.
Objective data: there is no consciousness, the skin is moist, the muscle tone is
increased. Vesicular breathing, rhythmic heart sounds, blood pressure 118/75 mm
Hg, pulse 80 beats per minute. The abdomen is painless on palpation. What help is
needed in this case?
A. in / in the jet introduction of 40% glucose
B. iv administration of glucagon + insulin
C. s / c administration of short-acting insulin
D. s / c injection of ultrashort action insulin
6 Rare blinking in hyperthyroidism syndrome, this is a symptom:

A. Kocher
B. Shtelvaga
C. Moebius
D. Krause
7. Patient K., 23 years old, complains of irritability, sharp weight loss, rapid mood
swings, tearfulness, palpitations throughout the year.
Objectively: height 170 cm, body weight 59 kg. the skin is clean, moist, hot to the
touch. The thyroid gland is enlarged. Pulse 118 in I min. BP - 160/60 mm Hg. Art.,
Heart sounds are quite loud, arrhythmic. Tests: cholesterol - 2.8 mmol / l.
Laboratory: TSH is reduced, T3, T4 is increased. Diagnosed with hyperfunction of
the thyroid gland, taking into account tachycardia, which examination method
should be recommended in this case?
A. CT scan
B. Ultrasound
C. ECG
D. X-ray
E. MRI
8. Patient K., 30 years old, complains of severe weakness, headache, chilliness,

apathy, loss of appetite, constipation.Objectively: height 180 cm, body weight 89
kg. Adynamic, the skin is pale, cold. The thyroid gland is not palpable. Pulse 59 in
I min. BP- 100/60 mm Hg. heart sounds are weakened. The rest of the data are
without deviations from the norm.Tests: cholesterol 8.8 mmol / l. TSH increased,
T3, T4 decreased. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. hypoglycemia
B. hypothyroidism
C. hypoparathyroidism
D. hypopituitarism
E. Hypocorticism
9. Patient A., 46 years old. Complaints: the appearance of edema on the face and
lower extremities, lethargy, weakness, increased fatigue, hearing loss, baldness.
The patient lives in an endemic area. Since childhood, an enlarged thyroid gland. A
year ago, the size of the thyroid gland increased, weakness began to progress, and
edema appeared. Objectively: the patient is lethargic, answers questions slowly,
speech is recognized. The skin of the hands is thick, rough, cold, pigmented, does
not collect folds. Respiratory organs without pathology. The heart is enlarged on
the left. Heart sounds are muffled, rhythmic, pulse 54 beats per minute, blood
pressure 100/60 mm Hg. The tongue is thickened with dental facets. What analysis
is necessary in this case, given the patient's complaints?
A. TTG, T3, T4
B. cortisol
C. ACTH
D. prolactin
E. FSH, LH
10. Patient K.A., 50 years old, complained of weight gain, constipation,

drowsiness, swelling of the face and body, dry skin, hair loss. From the anamnesis:
these complaints have been disturbing for 1 year. Was not examined, treatment
was not treated. According to the patient, she previously suffered from
autoimmune thyroiditis.On physical examination: the food is moderate, the skin is
pale, dry to the touch, there is continuous swelling on the lower limbs. Rhythmic
heart sounds, weakened, pulse 60 beats per minute, blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
The tongue is thickened, with imprints of teeth. On palpation, the thyroid gland is
not enlarged, the consistency is dense, painless. Laboratory: TSH increased, T3, T4
decreased. The patient is diagnosed with hypofunction of the thyroid gland, taking
into account the symptoms, which analysis should also be performed
A. CT scan
B. Ultrasound
C. Аngiography
D. X-ray
E. MRI.
11. A 40-year-old patient fell ill acutely: chills, weakness, difficulty swallowing,
pain in the neck with irradiation to the ears, head, aggravated when turning,
temperature 38 ° C. The patient is worried about sweating. On palpation, the
thyroid gland is enlarged, painful, not soldered to the surrounding tissues,
compacted, there are no fluctuating areas. Submandibular, cervical lymph nodes
are not enlarged. In the analysis of blood: leukocytosis, ESR up to 21 mm / h.
What is your preliminary syndrome?
A. syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland
B. syndrome of chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland
C. syndrome of hypothyroidism
D. thyroid nodule syndrome
E. syndrome of hypofunction of the parathyroid glands
12. Patient A. 40-year-old applied to a polyclinic with complaints of an increase in

body temperature up to 39˚C, pain in the thyroid gland, aggravated by swallowing,
coughing, chills, tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent tonsillitis.
Objectively: On palpation, the thyroid gland is sharply painful and dense.
Laboratory: Complete blood count: leukocytosis with a shift to the left, increased
ESR. Choose the most informative thyroid examination method in this situation:
A. determination of T3, T4 in blood
B. thyroid scan with 131 I
C. ultrasound with biopsy
D. lateral radiography of the neck.
E. auscultation of the thyroid gland

13. The main symptoms of thyroid inflammation syndrome:
A. increased body temperature

B. Thyroid gland is painless
C. Lowering blood pressure
D. lymph nodes are not enlarged
E. hoarseness, constipation
14. Subacute thyroiditis is a consequence of:
A. viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Fungal infection
D. traumatic injury
E. radiation injury
15. Patient A., 40 years old, went to the clinic with complaints of pain in the bones,
especially in the feet, long-term healing fractures, decreased appetite, nausea,
vomiting, not associated with food intake, diarrhea.
A biochemical blood test revealed: hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia. X-ray
examination revealed osteoporosis of the bones. What is your preliminary
syndrome?
A. thyroid inflammation syndrome
B. hyperthyroidism syndrome
C. hypercortisol syndrome
D. hyperparathyroidism syndrome
E. hyperglycemic syndrome
16. Which symptom is characterized by, if the patients lower limb is held at the
knee joint and flexed strongly at the hip joint there will soon be an extensor spasm
at the knee joint with extreme supination of the foot.
A. Trousseau̕ s sign
B. Chvostek ̕ s sign
C. Schlesinger̕ s sign
D. Hoffmann̕ s sign
E. Weiss sign
17. Patient A., 32 years old, after a traumatic injury to the neck, notes the periodic
appearance of paresthesias (pathological discomfort, for example, "creeping") with
the subsequent development of seizures. Before the development of seizures, he
has nausea, vomiting. Convulsions are tonic in nature, beginning in the upper
limbs and face. Consciousness during this period is preserved. Positive symptoms
of Trousseau and Chvostek. Which laboratory changes are typical for this
syndrome?
A. hypophtoremia
B. hypocalcemia
C. hypophosphatemia
D. hypokalemia
E. hyponatremia
18. Causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism:

A. hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
B. chronic renal failure
C. Lack of calcium in food
D. removal of the thyroid gland
E. pituitary adenoma
19. Patient V., 65 years old, consulted a doctor at the place of residence with
complaints of increased body weight, pain in the lumbar region, increased blood
pressure up to 200/100 mm Hg. Objectively: height - 165 cm, body weight - 121
kg. Obesity with redistribution of subcutaneous fat according to the "cushingoid"
type, redness of the cheeks, striae of red-violet color in the hips and abdomen,
multiple acne on the face and back, hypotrophy of the limbs. Fasting blood glucose
- 15 mmol / l, urine sugar 6%. What hormonal research method will help in making
a diagnosis?
A. cortisol
B. insulin
C. thyroxine
D. vasopressin
E. testosterone
20. Patient,67 years old. At the endocrinologist's appointment for the first time.
Complaints of increased fatigue, overweight. From the anamnesis: the patient's
mother suffered from type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity. Objectively: height 173 cm,
body weight 102 kg. The type of distribution of adipose tissue is abdominal
obesity. The skin is normal in color, dry to the touch. Blood pressure -130/80 mm
Hg, heart rate - 82 per minute. Laboratory results: fasting glycemia 11.5 mmol / l.
Calculate body mass index (kg / m2).
A. 24,6
B. 34.1
C. 38.7
D. 42.0
E. 44.3
21.Patient E., 42 years old, at a doctor's appointment complains of muscle

weakness, rapid physical fatigue, lack of appetite, addiction to salty foods,
menstrual irregularities. She had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 3 years ago.
On examination, reduced nutrition, weight - 50 kg, height - 165 cm. The skin has a
bronze color, dark spots on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, subcutaneous
fatty tissue is thinned. BP - 80/50 mm Hg. Laboratory data: blood glucose - 3.2
mmol / l, blood cortisol - 28.9 nmol / l. What the main physical symptom of this
syndrome has patient ?
A. hyperpigmentation
B. hirsutism
C. prognatisn
D. striae
E. xanthelasma
Pathophysiology
Module "Endocrine system" Option 2
1. With an increase in ACTH production, synthesis is primarily increased:

A. cortisol
B. aldosterone
S. estrogen
D. androgen
2. Which of the following factors leads to the development of acromegaly:
A. increased formation of reactivity of IGF 1
B. STH producing tumors outside the pituitary origin
C. hypothalamic tumors producing GH
D. all of the above
3. Pan-hypopituitarism does not affect the function of:
A. Thyroid
B. adrenal cortex
C. gonads
D. parathyroid glands
4. Specify the statements typical for hypoproduction of vasopressin (ADH):
A. characterized by hypernatremic hyperhydration
AT. . characterized by hyponatremic hyperhydration
S. is characterized by the development of dehydration
D. characterized by an increase in urine density (specific gravity)
5. In the pathogenesis of an increase in the size of the thyroid gland with endemic goiter,
it matters:
A. increase TSH production by feedback mechanism
B. decrease TTG production by feedback mechanism
C. increase production of T3, T4
D. increase IGF 1 (insulin-like growth factor)
6. Autoimmune damage to the thyroid gland leads to the development of:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. endemic goiter
D. diffuse toxic goiter
7. The pathogenesis of secondary hypothyroidism is associated with:
A. decreased secretion of thyroliberin
B. Thyroid Immunity to TSH
C. increased secretion of TSH
D. Decreased TSH secretion
8. Indicate the main reason for the development of diabetes in the disease or Cushing's
syndrome:
A. stimulation of lipolysis
B. activation of gluconeogenesis
C. activation of glycogenolysis
D. activation of proteolysis
9. For idiopathic primary hyperaldosteronism, all statements are true, except:
A. Basal aldosterone levels are elevated, reninaplasma activity is seen
B. Hyperplasia of the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex
C. Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
D. With orthostatic load (march test), an increase in aldosterone levels is noted
10. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of chromafin tissue producing:
A. Androgens
B. Aldosterone
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Adrenaline
11. Indicate the hallmark of the manifestation of Cushing's syndrome due to
corticosteroma:
A. Unilateral adrenal enlargement
B. Bilateral adrenal enlargement
C. Basophilic pituitary adenoma
D. Increased ACTH
12. hypothyroidism (myxedema) is characterized by the following changes:

A. Increased sensitivity to high temperatures
B. Decrease in sensitivity to high temperatures
C. Increase in glycosaminoglycans in tissues
D. Decrease in glycosaminoglycans in tissues
13. Indicate the role of antibodies (Ig G) in the mechanism of development of diffuse toxic
trunk (bazedova disease):
A. Stimulate thyroid receptors
B. Inhibit thyroid receptors
C. Block thyroid receptors
D. Destroy thyroid receptors
14. Select characteristic changes in the cardiovascular system with hyperthyroidism

(diffuse toxic goiter):
A. Increased diastolic pressure
B. Decrease in systolic pressure
C. Hypertrophy of the heart muscle
D. Atrial fibrillation
15. Diabetes insipidus develops in defeat:

A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. The posterior pituitary gland
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal glands
Module "Endocrine system" Option 1
1. The development of panhypopituitarism in adults Does not include:

A. Ischemic damage to the pituitary gland
B. hypophysectomy
C. severe physical exertion
D. Radiation therapy of the pituitary gland
2. Indicate the characteristic metabolic changes with excess STH:
A. negative nitrogen balance
B. positive nitrogen balance
C. development of hypoglycomia
D. decrease in basal metabolism
3. Basophilic pituitary adenoma causes the development of:
A. gigantism
B. hypercortisolism
C. hyperthyroidism
D. acromegaly
4. The development of panhypopituitarism in the experiment is associated with the
removal of:
A. Thyroid
B. adrenal glands
C. pituitary gland
D. pancreas
5. The excessive action of thyroid hormones in the body causes:
A. Strengthening the processes of protein synthesis and inhibition of catabolism
B. increased catabolism
C. enhanced TTG production
D. increases insulin activity
6. Thyrotoxicosis is characterized by:
A. increased metabolism
B. increased heat production
C. increased catecholamine activity
D. All of the above is true.
7. Choose the mechanisms of development of endocrine ophthalmopathy:
A. autoimmune inflammation
B. Infectious edema of retrobulbar fiber
C. hypertrophy of retrobulbar fiber
D. increase in intraocular pressure
8. Hypothyroidism is characterized by all of the following clinical and laboratory
manifestations, with the exception of:
A. swelling of the face and limbs
B. Bradycardia and hypotension
C. weight gain
D. lower cholesterol
9. For hyperthyroidism, all of these symptoms are characteristic except for:
A. tachycardia
B. weight gain
C. hand tremor
D. exophthalmos
10. Choose the least typical symptom characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency:
A. hyperpigmentation of the mucous membranes and skin
B. asthenic syndrome
C. hyperglycemia
D. arterial
11. Indicate the most likely cause of acute adrenal insufficiency:
A. Adrenal gland adenoma
B. autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex
C. withdrawal of glucocorticoid therapy after prolonged use
D. Pituitary hemorrhage
12. With pituitary nanism, the following changes are observed:
A. proportional reduction in the size of all parts of the body
B. Inhibition of mental development
C. Decrease limb size with normal body size
D. all answers are incorrect
13. Primary hypocorticism occurs in associations:
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. autoimmune thyroid disease
C. hypogonadism
D. hypoparathyroidism
14. Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex leads to:
A. virilization
B. hyperglycemia
C. arterial hypertension
D. all answers are correct
15. What is the sign of primary hypocorticism will not occur with secondary:
A. body weight reduction
B. hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes
C. General weakness of asthenia
D. hyponatremia
Pediatric
The Training Tests Module “Endocrine System”

For students of 3d course ЛДАЯО
1. Select, from the listed which is the main thyroid hormone?

A. thriiodthyronine
B. thyroxine
C. thyrocalcitonin
D. thyroglobulin
E. TSH
2. What is the main effect of the thyroid gland on the growing body of the child?
A. immunoglobulin content
B. development of the muscles
C. mental development
D. Fformation of immunity
E. motor function
3. Indicate the blood glucose level in healthy children (mmol/l

A. 1,55-2,33
B. 3,33-5,55
C. 6,65-7,55
D. 7,99-8,88
E. 9,22-9,99
4. Describe the stool for hypothyroidism in early childhood:

A. form as a pea puree
B. persistant constipation
C. frequent with blood
D. form of rice water
E. frequent, frothy with mucus
5. Explain the cause of overweight in hypothyroidism:

A. hypoproteinemia
B. mixedema edema
C. violation of oxydative processes
D. hypernatriemia
E. Hyperlipidemia
6. What disorders lead to the development of hyperglycemia syndrome?

A. liver function
B. intestinal digestion
C. deficiency of insulin secretion
D. assimilation of fats
E. absorption of fats
7. Explain, why accelerated growth and ossification occurs with hyperthyroidism
syndrome?
A. high levels of thyrocalcitonin
B. hypercalcemia
C. development of bone epiphyses
D. high growth hormone levels
E. high thyroglobulin levels
8. Baby, 4 months with mother turned to the family doctor with complaints on
constipations, overweight, drowsiness, difficulty swallowing. Anamnesis: 2-nd
pregnancy with toxicosis, 2nd delivery, urgent, sucked sluggishly. The umbilical
residue disappeared on the 14th days. Jaundice was noted up to 1,5 months.
Objectively: weight-8000,0. The face is edematous, the tongue is large, sticking out.
The skin is pale with yellowness, dry. Heart tones very weak, bradycardia. Pulse rate
is 100 in 1 minute. What is the first diagnostic test to use?
A. bilirubin, cholesterol
B. T4, TSH
C. chest X-ray
D. calcium, phosphorus
E. common analysis of blood
9. At what level of glucose hypoglycemia syndrome develops (below…mmol/l)?

A. 7,9
B. 6,9
C. 5,9
D. 4,9
E. 3,9
Radiology
Exam questions for students of the Faculty of Foreign Citizens according to the module
"Endocrine System"
1.When conducting a test with triiodothyronine, toxic goiter is characterized by:
A) the absence of inhibition of the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland
B) increasing the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland by 30%
C) a decrease in the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland (by 50%)
D) increasing the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland by 50% and>
E) inhibition of the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland (by 60% and>)
2.The mechanism of action of radioactive iodine in diffuse toxic goiter is due to:
A) exposure to cells of the follicular epithelium with their replacement with connective tissue
B) impact on the autoimmune process in the thyroid gland
C) blocking the flow of iodine into the thyroid gland
D) inhibition of the conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine
E) blocking TSH
3.Preparation of patients with thyrotoxicosis for radioiodine therapy includes:
A) reaching the euthyroid state before the appointment of radioactive iodine
B) treatment against the background of thyrotoxicosis
C) treatment against the background of reaching hypothyroidism
D) treatment against the background of beta-blockers
E) treatment with radioactive iodine for any function of the thyroid gland
4. A 38-year-old patient came to the clinic for thyroid gland removal. The removal operation
was successful, but then there were convulsions. Identify what went wrong, what was damaged?
A. vagus nerve
B. lower laryngeal nerve

C. sympathetic trunk
D. parathyroid gland
E. inferior laryngeal artery
5. Name which diagnostic method is more applicable for the diagnosis of the hypothalamic-
pituitary system:
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Positron Emission Tomography
C. Craniography
D. Computed tomography
E. Endoscopy
6. On computed tomography, the pancreas is located centrally, the contours are even, clear, the
structure is homogeneous, focal changes are not observed. Determine the condition of the
pancreas:
A. endothelial cancer
B. metastatic tumor
C. normal pancreas
D. chronic pancreatitis
E. cystadenoma in the stage of resorption
7. young woman M., 28 years old, smoking 8 years old, found in the right
the mammary gland is a nodular formation up to 2 cm in diameter. She turned to a

mammologist, who confirmed her education.
Predict which studies a patient should be referred to in order to obtain reliable information?
A. multispiral computed tomography

B. mammography
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. chest x-ray
E. echocardiography
8.Scintigraphy for autoimmune thyroiditis is characterized by:
A) "cold" node
B) "hot" node
C) no absorption of the radiopharmaceutical
D) uneven absorption of the radiopharmaceutical
E) increased absorption of the radiopharmaceutical
9.In a pregnant woman with an increased level of total T3 and total T4, first of all, it is necessary
to carry out:
A) definition of TSH
B) determination of free T3 and T4
C) ultrasound of the thyroid gland
D) radioisotope scintigraphy of the thyroid gland
E) study of intrathyroid iodine
10. In a 36-year-old woman, an ultrasound of the right adrenal gland revealed a homogeneous
hypoechoic structure, a well-limited solid formation of a rounded shape, 1.9 cm in size.
Complaints about weight gain with the deposition of adipose tissue in the neck, chest, abdomen;
moon face; also complains of general weakness, memory loss, depression, bone pain. What
research method can be prescribed additionally to clarify the diagnosis:
A. radiography
B. endoscopy
C. computed tomography with contrasting
D. Magnetic resonance imaging
E. scintigraphy
Previous year Internal Medicine
"Endocrine System"
1) What is the level of blood glucose corresponds to the hypoglycemia

syndrome in venous plasma:
A. 2.8 mmol / L
B. 4.0 mmol / L
C. 4.7 mmol / L
D. 5.6 mmol / L
E. 7.0 mmol \ L
2) Which of the following corresponds to impaired glucose tolerance (venous

plasma):
A. Fasting glucose - 7.4 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 12.2 mmol / l

B. Fasting glucose - 6.8 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 10.9 mmol / l
C. Fasting glucose- 6.2 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 7.7 mmol / l
D. Fasting glucose- 5.6 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 7.4 mmol / l
E. Fasting glucose- 4.0 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 6.8 mmol / l
3) List the triad of symptoms in hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. Polydipsia, polyphagy, polyuria

B. Hypertension, hyperpigmentation, obesity
C. Hypotension, anorexia, anuria
D. Exophthalmos, hypertension, hyperthermia
E. Alopecia, bradycardia, hypercholesterolemia
4) Complaints of patients with hypoglycemia syndrome may be:

A. Epigastric pain
B. Slow wound healing
C. Burning in the lower extremities
D. Pustular skin lesion
E. Tremor in the body and limbs
5) List the main risk factors for the development of hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. Heredity, obesity, lack of physical activity
B. Long-term stress, puberty, smoking
C. Age, Gender, Ethnicity
D. viral infections, radiation, injuries
E. Regular nutrition, pregnancy, alcoholism
6) Which of the following is the cause of hypoglycemic syndrome:

A. Hypercorticism syndrome
B. Overweight
C. Hypocorticism syndrome
D. Thyroid inflammation syndrome
E. Hyperthyroidism syndrome
7) Which of the following is the cause of hyperglycemic syndrome:

B. Hypothyroidism syndrome
D. Hypoparathyroidism syndrome
E. Anorexia Syndrome
8) The glucose level in the plasma of venous blood is normal:

A. Fasting 3.3-5.5 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals> 7.8 mmol / l
B. Fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals 6.1-7.0 mmol / l
C. Fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals<6.7 mmol / l
D. Fasting 4-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after a meal <7.8 mmol / l
E. Fasting 4.6-5.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals <8.5 mmol / l
9) The appearance of edema in hypercorticism syndrome is associated with:

A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
E. Hyponatremia
10) An oral glucose tolerance test is performed:

A. On the background of acute illness
B. When glycogemoglobin is more than 6.5%.
C. In case of doubtful glycemia for clarification
the diagnosis
D. When blood glucose is greater than 11.0 mmol / L.
E. When fasting blood glucose is less than 3.3 mmol / L.
11) When viewed in the oral cavity with hyperglycemia syndrome can be
identified:
A. Loosening and early tееth loss

B. Geographic language
C. Tongue is covered with yellow bloom
D. Black spots on tongue and gums
E. Varnished language
12) Rare blinking in hyperthyroidism syndrome, this is a symptom:

A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Moebius
D. Krause
E. Elinek
13) The appearance of myxedema on the limbs of a patient with

hypothyroidism syndrome is due to a violation of:
A. Basic exchange
B. Carbohydrate Exchange
C. Lipid metabolism
D. Protein metabolism
E. Water-salt metabolism
14) A man, 36 years old, went to the clinic to the local doctor with complaints
of pain and swelling in the chest area from 2 sides. On examination: increased
nutrition, uneven distribution of the subcutaneous fat layer with a
predominant deposition in the upper body and on the face, on the front
surface of the abdomen and on the inner thighs of the strip of red-purple
color, palpation in the chest reveals dense painful formations with a diameter
of up to 5, blood pressure - 160/100 mm Hg
Highlight the main syndrome:
A. Thyroid hyperfunctions
B. Hypofunction of the thyroid gland
C. Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex
D. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex
E. Hyperfunctions of the parathyroid glands
15) On examination of the skin in a patient with hyperglycemia syndrome, it is

determined:
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Humidity
C. Rubeosis of the cheeks
D. Cyanotic
E. Facial hair growth in women
16) For hyperfunction of the thyroid gland is characteristic:
A. Sleepiness
B. Bradycardia
C. Puffiness of the face and narrowing of the palpebral fissures
D. Hyperexcitability
E. Obesity
17) With acute hypoglycemia syndrome:

A. Skin is wet, motor agitation
B. Breathing is noisy and rare
C. Skin is dry
D. Reduced turgor
E. Thirst
18) Gynecomastia in patients with hypercorticism syndrome occurs due to

metabolic changes:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Sex hormones
D. Mineralocorticoids
E. Pituitary hormones
19) Symptoms of hypothyroidism include:
A. Diarrhea
B. Sweating
C. Constipation
D. Cyanosis
E. Heartbeat
20) Laboratory signs of hypothyroidism syndrome:
A. Decrease in T3 and T4 in the blood

B. Increase in T3 and T4 in the blood
C. Elevation of TSH and T4 in the blood
D. Decrease in the level of TSH in the blood
E. Increased T3 and T4, decreased TSH
21) Hypocorticism syndrome is characterized by:
A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin

B. Weight gain
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Tachycardia
E. Polyphagia
22) The volume of the waist in men normally should not exceed?
A. Not more than 94 cm
B. Not more than 106 cm
C. Not more than 86 cm
D. Less than 60 cm
E. Morethan 102 cm
23) How to calculate BMI (body mass index)?

A. Height / weight2
B. Weight / Height2
C. Height2/ weight
D. Weight2 / Height
E. Weight / Height
24) In which units is body mass index measured?

A. m2 / kg
B. m / kg2
C. kg / m2
D. kg2 / m
E. kg / m
25) Waist size in women is normal?

D. Less than 60 cm
E. More than 88 cm
26) The patient came to the endocrinologist. When calculating the body mass
index was 29.8 kg / m2. Determine the degree of impaired fat metabolism.
A. Underweight
B. Overweight
C. Obesity I degree
D. Obesity II degree
E. Obesity III degree
27) With the introduction of 1 mg of dexamethasone at 12 o'clock at night, a

decrease in cortisol by 50% or more the next morning indicates:
A. Hypocorticism
B. About the normal function of the adrenal cortex
C. About hypercorticism
D. About secondary hypocorticism
E. On increased secretion of ACTH
28) The following changes on an ECG are characteristic of a syndrome of a

hypofunction of a thyroid gland:
A. reduction of teeth voltage, bradycardia
B. tachycardia, ST segment reduction
C. atrial fibrillation
D. Pathological Q wave
E. AV blockade
29) Goiter is:
A. well palpable thyroid

B. thyroid disease, occurring in violation of its function
C. thyroid disease, complicated by tracheal compression
D. thyroid enlargement more than 18 ml in women and more than 25 ml in
men
E. An increase in volume of more than 16 ml in women and more than 18 ml in
men.
30) Laboratory criteria for hypoparathyroidism syndrome:
A. increased blood potassium levels

B. increased blood levels of parathyroid hormone
C. lower blood calcium levels
D. lower blood sodium levels
E. Increased blood glucose
31) With an enlargement of the thyroid gland of I degree (WHO):
A. The thyroid gland is invisible, palpable

B. The thyroid gland is not visible to the eye, is not palpable.
C. Thyroid visible on the eye, palpable
D. The thyroid gland is visible to the eye, not palpable.
E. Thyroid lobe smaller than the distal phalanx of the thumb studied
32) At the reception, patient Z., 36 years old. Height - 180 cm, weight - 95 kg.
Give an opinion on the violation of fat metabolism:
A. Deficiency of body weight

B. Overweight
C. Obesity I degree
33) A young man of 18 years old after a cold has thirst, polyuria, weakness.
Blood sugar level is 16mmol / l. What is the patient's syndrome?
A. hypoglycemia syndrome
B. hyperglycemia syndrome
C. thyroid hypofunction syndrome
D. Hypercortisolism syndrome
E. Thyroidhyperfunctionsyndrome
34) Palpation in adults in the normal thyroid gland:
A. soft, agile
B. Dense, welded to underlying tissues.
C. moderate soft, not mobile
D. soft, motionless
E. tight, painful
35) WHO classification of goiter:
A. 0,1,2,3,4 degrees
B. 0,1,2,3 degrees
C. 0,1,2 degrees
D. 1,2,3 degrees
E. 1,2,3,4,5 degrees
36) What changes in the content of thyroid-stimulating hormone,

triiodothyronine and thyroxin are characteristic of hypothyroidism
syndrome?
A. A decrease in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and an increase in

thyroxin (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) levels
B. Normal levels of TSH and increased serum T3 and T4 levels
C. Elevated levels of TSH and a decrease in serum T3 and T4
D. Normal serum TSH, T3 and T4
E. Elevated serum TSH, T3 and T4
37) Indicate the characteristic electrolyte disturbances in hypocorticism
syndrome:
A. Hypochloremia, hypermagnesemia
B. Hypomagnesaemia, hyperchloremia
C. Hypochloremia, hypomagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia
E. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia
38) Atrial fibrillation can occur when:
A. hyperglycemia syndrome
B. hypoglycemia syndrome
C. hyperthyroidism syndrome
D. hypothyroidism syndrome
E. hypocorticism syndrome
39) Features of edema in thyroid hypofunction syndrome:
A. dense, do not leave a fossa

B. leaves a hole for palpation
C. pronounced in the evening on the lower limbs
D. expressed under the morning under the eyes
E. mild, painful
40) General weakness, fatigue, severe muscle weakness, darkening of the skin,
weight loss, loss of appetite, hypotension - these complaints are characteristic
of the syndrome:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitarism
41) What syndrome is characterized by "matronism", "bull neck", "marble

skin pattern":
A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypothyroidism
42) Pigmentation of the eyelids (upper) with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome

is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Moebius
C. Krause
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
43) A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking
down with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Krause
E. Elinek
44) A white sclera line between the iris and upper eyelid when looking up with
thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
45) The wide opening of the eye slits for thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a
symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Delrymple
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Shtelvag
46) Enhanced pulsation of the carotid arteries, ascending apical impulse, pulse
110 beats. per minute, arrhythmic or rapid pulse are characteristic of:
A. Hyperglycemia syndrome
B. Hypoglycemia syndrome
C. Thyroid hyperfunction syndrome
D. Thyroid hypofunction syndrome
E. Hypopituitarism syndrome
47) In hyperthyroidism syndrome, the pulse:
A. Voltage, low speed

B. Tense, fast
C. Rare
D. Soft, slow
E. Large, rare
48) What is the amount of anhydrous glucose necessary for the oral glucose
tolerance test in adults?
A. 35 g
B. 50 g
C. 75 g
D. 50 mg
E. 100 mg
49) Indicate laboratory signs of primary hypocorticism syndrome:
A. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone, decreased cortisol

B. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone, increased cortisol
C. Decrease in adrenocorticotropic hormone, increased cortisol
D. Lowering adrenocorticotropic hormone, lowering cortisol
E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is normal, lowering cortisol
50) The patient has hyperglycemia syndrome, after exercise there was a
tremor, palpitations, severe hunger, weakness, anxiety. Your tactics:
A. In/v the jet introduction of 40% glucose

B. I/v administration of glucagon + insulin
C. S/c administration of short-acting insulin
D. S/c administration of insulin ultrashort action
E. Urgent feeding of the patient, give sweet tea
51) It is typical for hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. Polyuria
B. Hypertension
C. Anuria
D. Shortness of breath
E. Oliguria
52) Male 30 years old, height 170 cm, body weight 105 kg, fat deposition
predominates in the trunk, on the skin of the inner surface of the shoulders
and thighs of purple streak, on the face and back multiple acne vulgaris. BP
steadily increased at the level of 150/90 - 165/110 mm Hg. Art. Daily excretion
of cortisol in the urine is higher than normal. Fasting glycemia 6.0 mmol / l,
sugar in urine - neg., The reaction of urine to acetone is negative. Highlight
the main syndrome.
C. Syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
E. Overweight syndrome
53) Craving for salty foods is most characteristic of the syndrome:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypercorticism
D. Hypocorticism
E. Hypothyroidism
54) Patient L., 34 years old. Complains of overweight, fatigue. Body weight
increased significantly 5 years ago after childbirth. Menstruation from the age
of 13, regular. Loves flour products, sweets. Father and mother are obese 1-2
tbsp. The younger brother has obesity 1 tbsp. Objectively. Height - 168 cm,
body weight - 96 kg. BMI - 34kg / 2, waist circumference - 95 cm. Hip
circumference - 106 cm. Deposition of subcutaneous fat in the thighs.
Determine the types and degrees of obesity.
A. Android obesity type I

B. Guinea type II obesity
C. Cushingoid type of obesity grade II
D. Android type II obesity
E. Ginoid type of obesity I degree
55) What syndrome is manifested by an increase in the size of the thyroid
gland, bug-eyed, weight loss, tachycardia, increased blood pressure:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitarism
56) For what syndrome are dry, wrinkled, cold, thickened skin, anemia,
narrowing of the palpebral fissures, thickening of the lips, tongue,
constipation, bradycardia, hypothermia?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Pituitary Hyperfunction
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
57) Hypoaldosteronism syndrome is a manifestation of the following
syndrome:
A. Hypercorticism
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypocorticism
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Hypoparathyroidism
58) Under what pathology skin is smooth, warm, tender to the touch with
hyperhidrosis:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
D. Pituitary hypofunction
E. Hyperglycemia
59) The manifestation of which pathology is mental excitement, imbalance,

quickness of mood changes, constant anxiety:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
E. Obesity
60) Patient B., 48 years old. Complaints of swelling of the face, extremities,
chilliness, weakness, memory loss, hoarseness, constipation. Objectively:
height - 170 cm, body weight - 89 years. The skin is dry, pale, flaky. The voice
is low. Pulse - 50 per min., Blood pressure - 110/80 mm Hg. What syndrome
are we talking about?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Obesity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hyperglycemia
61) A young man of 17 years old after severe stress appeared thirst, polyuria.
General weakness, blood sugar level - 20 mmol / l, in urine - 5%, acetone in
urine is positive. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperthyroidism
E. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
62) Patient 56 years old, height 160 cm, weight 105 kg. No complaints. Fat
distribution is even, especially on the limbs, abdomen, thighs. Borders of the
heart are increased to the left, the deaf tones, systolic murmur at the apex.
Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
D. pituitary hypofunction
E. Obesity syndrome
63) A patient came to see an endocrinologist. When calculating the BMI was
30.8 kg / m2. Determine the degree of violation of fat metabolism?
A. Overweight
B. Obesity grade II
C. Obesity grade I
D. Grade III obesity
E. Normal body weight
64) Abdominal obesity in women is considered to be a waist circumference
greater than:
A. 76 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 84 cm
D. 88 cm
E. 92 cm
65) Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in
women is:
A. Up to 16 ml
B. Up to 18 ml
C. More than 20 ml
D. Up to 25 ml
E. Up to 30 ml
men is:
A. Up to 16 ml
B. Up to 18 ml
C. To 20 ml
D. Up to 25 ml
E. More than 30 ml
67) The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is:
A. Infections
B. Autoimmune adrenal disease
C. Tuberculosis
D. Syphilis
E. Nephroangiosclerosis
68) What is the characteristic sign of hypercorticismsyndrome:
A. Exophthalmos
B. Matronism
C. Hypogonadism
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Alopecia
69) Patient C., 46 years old, complains of severe weakness, lack of appetite,
weight loss in 6 months per 10 kg, nausea, occasionally loose stools, and at
times decrease in blood pressure. From the anamnesis: ill for six months, the
above symptoms gradually appeared and progressed. Highlight the main
syndrome.
C. Pituitary gland syndrome
D. Syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
E. Thyroid hyperfunction syndrome
70) Patient D., 32 years old. Complaints of significant muscle weakness,
dizziness, pain in the heart, emaciation, loss of appetite. History: ill for about
6 months. The disease does not bind to anything. At the age of 26 he suffered
pulmonary tuberculosis. Objectively: height - 176 cm, weight - 60 kg, the skin
on the open parts of the body is pigmented. What syndrome has a patient
developed?
B. syndrome of hypofunction of the thyroid gland
C. Hypercortisolism syndrome
D. syndrome hypopituitrism
E. syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
71) Patient D., 50 years old, housewife. She complains about weight gain,
flashing of “flies” before her eyes, headaches, weakness. From the anamnesis:
the above complaints began with a change in appearance: the face was
rounded, the belly increased in volume. Objectively: the patient looks much
older than her years. Height-156 cm, weight - 90 kg, on the thighs - wide
purple strii. Determine the pre-syndrome:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
E. Hypercoticism
72) For what syndrome are typical "moonlike" face, increased hair growth
over the upper lip, in the chin area and on the lateral surfaces of the face. The
skin is dry, with a marble pattern. Hyperpigmentation of the neck. In axillary
areas, on the thighs and lateral surfaces of the abdomen, broad purple-red
bands:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
73) Patient I., 65 years old, complains of chilliness and swelling. Anamnesis is
difficult to collect because of the pronounced loss of memory and inhibition of
the patient. Survey results: T4 free - 0.1 pmol / l; TTG - 69 mMe / l;
Antibodies to TPO - 1000 IU / ml. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Obesity I degree.
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
74) Chilliness, swelling, change in voice, impaired speech, dry skin,
constipation - these complaints are characteristic of the syndrome:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypocorticoidism
C. Hypercortisolism
D. Hypopituitarism
E. Hypothyroidism
gland, a puffy, emaciation, tachycardia, an increase in blood pressure?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitism
76) Patient Sh., 47 years old, for four years addressed various specialists with
complaints of weakness in the limbs, persistent pain in the calf muscles and
back. Osteoporosis, cysts and pathological fractures were found on
radiographs of the bones. Specify the syndrome.
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Hypothyroidism
77) The patient after strumectomy had convulsions and a positive symptom of
Chvostek. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Obesity syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis syndrome
C. Anorexia syndrome
E. Hyperparathyroidism syndrome
78) Thin arms and legs, excessive deposition of fat on the face and torso,
“moon-shaped” hyperemic face occur with the syndrome:
A. Hypocorticoidism
B. Hypercortisolism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hyperthyroidism
79) A 40-year-old patient complains of chilliness, drowsiness, constipation, dry
skin. An objective study found an enlarged thyroid gland. To confirm this
syndrome the most informative:
A. Determination of the level of Ca2 + in the blood

B. Determination of the level of TSH, sv. T4
C. Ultrasound of the thyroid gland
D. Determination of blood cholesterol
E. Definition of T3
80) Patient Z., turned to the local doctor with complaints of a change in skin
color and severe muscle weakness. From the anamnesis it is known that 6
years ago the patient suffered a tuberculous lesion of the lungs. Objectively:
low nutrition, depigmentation of open areas of the body.
What research is needed?
A. Free thyroxine, thyroid stimulating hormone

B. Cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone
C. Fasting plasma glucose, glycohemoglobin
D. Parathyroid hormone, ionized calcium
E. Progesterone, luteinizing hormone
81) Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: right lobe: length - 6.8 cm, width - 3.0
cm, thickness - 1.8 cm; left lobe: length - 6.0 cm, width - 2.0 cm, thickness - 1.9
cm. Determine the volume of the thyroid gland.
A. 14.0 ml
B. 18.0 ml
C. 18.4 ml
D. 28.4 ml
E. 40.0 ml
Previous year Pediatric
Endocrine System
1. Important complain in congenital hypothyroidism in newborn:
A. moist skin
B. constipation
C. bug - eyed
D. loss of weight
E. diarrhea
2. In congenital hypothyroidism skin is:

A. dry
B. moist
C. hyperemia
D. hat
E. hyperhidrasis
3. Clinical sign of hypothyroidism:

A. prolonged jaundice
B. exphthalmas
C. growth acceleration
D. hypertension
E. oss of weight
4. In hyperthyroidism skin is:

A. dry
B. moist
C. pink
D. cyanotic
E. jaundice
5. Hormones in congenital hypothyroidism are:

A. T3, T4 high
B. TSH decrease
C. T3, T4 decrease
D. not change
E. TSH high
6. Laboratory sign of syndrome hyperthyroidism:
A. T3, T4 high
B. TSH increase
C. T3, T4 decrease
D. hormones not change
E. cholesterol decrease
7.Main hormone of thyroid gland is:
A. TSH
B. thyroglobulin
C. thyroxin
D. triiodthyronine
E. thyrocalcitonin
8.The main function of the regulation of thyroid gland in children is:
A. physical and mental development
B. fat metabolism
C. glucore metabolism
D. mineral metabolism
E. water – salt metabolism
9. Main signs in diabetes mellitus syndrome:
A. high temperature
B. obesity
C. diarrhea
D. palydipsia and polyuria
E. nervous irritability
10.Blood glucose norm in children (mmol/l):
A. 2,0-2,5
B. 3,33-5,55
C. 1,5-2,0
D. 7-8
E. 9-10
1
1)Typical symptoms of hypoglycemia syndrome:
A. hunger, increased sweating
B. fatigue, thirst
C. nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
D. pain in the heart, increased blood pressure
E. dry skin
2) First aid of hypoglycemic syndrome, if the patient is conscious:
A. urgent feeding the patient, give sweet tea
B. i / v administration of glucagon
D. s / c administration of insulin ultrashort action
E. i / v jet injection of 40% glucose - 100.0
3) The triad of symptoms in hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
B. reduced vision, hearing, memory
C. nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
D. Headache, dizziness, tinnitus
E. diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea
4) Causes of hypoglycemia:
A. obesity
B. excessive exercise
C. stress
D. hypodynamia
E. pregnancy
5) Predisposing factors for the development of hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. obesity, hypodynamia, stress
B. excess in the diet of coarse fiber
C. excessive exercise
D. Underweight
E. Inadequate nutrition
6) Which of the following is the cause of the hypoglycemic syndrome:
A. syndrome hypercortisolism
B. overweight
C. hypocorticism syndrome
D. thyroid inflammation syndrome
E. hyperthyroidism syndrome
7) Which of the following causes hyperglycemic syndrome:
A. syndrome hypercortisolism
C. hypocorticism syndrome
E. anorexia
A. on an empty stomach 3.3–5.5 mmol / l, 2 hours after a meal> 7.8 mmol / l
B. fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after eating 6.1-7.0 mmol / l
C. fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after eating <6.7 mmol / l
D. fasting 4-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after eating <7.8 mmol / l
E. fasting 4.6-5.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after eating <8.5 mmol / l
9) Conditions for conducting an oral glucose tolerance test:
A. The test is conducted in the evening.
B. Pre-test analgesics
C. reception on the eve of at least 300 g of carbohydrates per day
D. The patient must not eat at least 4 hours before the test
E. OGTT should be carried out in the morning on the background of not less
than 3-day unlimited power.
10) The oral glucose tolerance test is performed:
A. amid acute illness
B. When glycohemoglobin is more than 6.5%.
C. in case of doubtful glycemia values to clarify diagnosis
D. When blood glucose is more than 11.0 mmol / L.
11) When viewed in the oral cavity with hyperglycemia syndrome can be identified:
A. loosening and early tooth loss

B. geographic language
C. tongue is covered with yellow bloom
D. black spots on tongue and gums
E. varnished language
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Moebius
D. Krause
E. Elinek
13) Heart rate in 1 minute with hyperthyroidism syndrome:
A. less than 50 beats / min
B. 50-60 beats / min
C. 60-70 beats / min
D. 70-80 beats / min
E. more than 80 beats / min
14) Palpation of the thyroid gland reveals:
A. size, consistency, pain
B. total thyroid volume
C. retinal goiter
D. Thyroid function
E. iodine deficiency

determined:
A. hyperpigmentation
B. humidity
C. rubeosis of the cheeks
D. cyanotic
E. facial hair growth in women
A. sleepiness
B. Bradycardia
C. puffiness of the face and narrowing of the palpebral fissures
D. hyperexcitability
E. obesity
A. skin is wet, motor agitation
B. breathing is noisy and rare
C. skin is dry
D. reduced turgor
E. thirst

A. polyuria
B. cyanosis
C. melasma
D. aglucosuria
E. hand tremor
A. diarrhea
B. sweating
C. constipation
D. cyanosis
E. heartbeat
A. decrease in T3 and T4 in the blood
B. increase in T3 and T4 in the blood
C. elevation of TSH and T4 in the blood
D. decrease in the level of TSH in the blood
E. increased T3 and T4, decreased TSH
A. hyperpigmentation of the skin
B. weight gain
C. increased blood pressure

D. tachycardia
E. polyphagia
A. not more than 94 cm
B. not more than 106 cm
C. not more than 86 cm
D. less than 60 cm
E. morethan 102 cm
A. height / weight2
B. Weight / Height2
C. height2/ weight
D. Weight2 / Height
E. Weight / Height
A. m2 / kg
B. m / kg2
C. kg / m2
D. kg2 / m
E. kg / m
A. not more than 65 cm
B. not more than 70 cm
C. not more than 80 cm
D. less than 60 cm
E. more than 88 cm
26) A patient came to see an endocrinologist. When calculating the body mass
index was 29.8 kg / m2. Determine the degree of violation of fat metabolism?
A. overweight
B. obesity grade II
C. obesity grade I
D. No fat metabolism abnormalities - normal body weight
E. Guinoid obesity

A. Hypocorticism
C. about hypercorticism
E. on increased secretion of ACTH


E. AV blockade
29) Goiter is:
D. thyroid enlargement more than 18 ml in women and more than 25 ml in men

men.
C. thyroid visible on the eye, palpable
32) In hyperglycemia syndrome, whole capillary blood sugar on an empty
stomach:
A. 3.5-4.4 mmol / l
B. 5.2-5.9 mmol / l
C. more than 6.1 mmol / l
D. 3.3-5.5 mmol / l
E. 3.3 - 5.6 mmol / l
33) A young man of 18 years old after a cold has thirst, polyuria, weakness. Blood
sugar level is 16mmol / l. What is the patient's syndrome?
A. soft, agile
D. soft, motionless
E. tight, painful
B. 0,1,2,3 degrees
C. 0,1,2 degrees
D. 1,2,3 degrees
36) What changes in the content of thyroid-stimulating hormone, triiodothyronine

and thyroxin are characteristic of hypothyroidism syndrome?
A. a decrease in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and an increase in

C. elevated levels of TSH and a decrease in serum T3 and T4
E. elevated serum TSH, T3 and T4
37) What research should be carried out in the first place with hyperparathyroidism
syndrome:
A. complete blood count
B. urinalysis
C. blood glucose
D. level of calcium and blood phosphorus
E. level of potassium and sodium in the blood
E. mild, painful
weight loss, loss of appetite, hypotension - these complaints are characteristic of
the syndrome:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypopituitarism
41) What syndrome is characterized by "matronism", "bull neck", "marble skin

pattern":
A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypothyroidism
42) Pigmentation of the eyelids (upper) with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a
symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Moebius
C. Krause
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
43) A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down
with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Krause
E. Elinek
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Delrymple
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Shtelvag
46) Enhanced pulsation of the carotid arteries, ascending apical impulse, pulse 110
beats. per minute, arrhythmic or rapid pulse are characteristic of:
C. thyroid hyperfunction syndrome
D. thyroid hypofunction syndrome
E. hypopituitarism syndrome
A. low voltage, low speed
B. tense, fast
C. rare
D. soft, slow
E. large, rare
A. 35 g
B. 50 g
C. 75 g
D. 50 mg
E. 100 mg
49) What is characteristic of hypoparathyroidismsyndrome:
A. Frequent pathological bone fractures
B. epigastric pain, dyspepsia
C. the appearance of kidney stones
D. severe thirst
E. Increased neuromuscular excitability with tetany attacks
50) The patient has hyperglycemia syndrome, after exercise there was a tremor,
palpitations, severe hunger, weakness, anxiety. Your tactics:
A. In / v the jet introduction of 40% glucose
B. i / v administration of glucagon + insulin
D. s / c administration of insulin ultrashort action
E. urgent feeding of the patient, give sweet tea
A. polyuria
B. hypertension
C. anuria
D. shortness of breath
E. oliguria
predominates in the trunk, on the skin of the inner surface of the shoulders and
thighs of purple streak, on the face and back multiple acne vulgaris. BP steadily
increased at the level of 150/90 - 165/110 mm Hg. Art. Daily excretion of cortisol
in the urine is higher than normal. Fasting glycemia 6.0 mmol / l, sugar in urine -
neg., The reaction of urine to acetone is negative. Highlight the main syndrome.
C. syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
53) For carrying out a large dexamethasone test for hypercorticism, use:
A. 1 mg of dexamethasone
B. 8 mg dexamethasone
C. 16 mg dexamethasone
D. 2 mg dexamethasone
E. 4 mg dexamethasone
increased significantly 5 years ago after childbirth. Menstruation from the age of
13, regular. Loves flour products, sweets. Father and mother are obese 1-2 tbsp.
The younger brother has obesity 1 tbsp. Objectively. Height - 168 cm, body weight
- 96 kg. BMI - 34kg / 2, waist circumference - 95 cm. Hip circumference - 106 cm.
Deposition of subcutaneous fat in the thighs. Determine the types and degrees of
obesity.
A. android obesity type I
D. android type II obesity
E. ginoid type of obesity I degree

55) What syndrome is manifested by an increase in the size of the thyroid gland,
bug-eyed, weight loss, tachycardia, increased blood pressure:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypopituitarism
56) For what syndrome are dry, wrinkled, cold, thickened skin, anemia, narrowing
of the palpebral fissures, thickening of the lips, tongue, constipation, bradycardia,
hypothermia?
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. hypercortisolism
57) At what syndrome are observed loss of eyelashes, eyebrows, mustaches, hair
on the head, massive, dense edema:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
hyperhidrosis:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
E. hyperglycemia

A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
E. obesity
chilliness, weakness, memory loss, hoarseness, constipation. Objectively: height -
170 cm, body weight - 89 years. The skin is dry, pale, flaky. The voice is low.
Pulse - 50 per min., Blood pressure - 110/80 mm Hg. What syndrome are we
talking about?
A. hyperthyroidism
B. obesity
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypothyroidism
E. hyperglycemia
General weakness, blood sugar level - 20 mmol / l, in urine - 5%, acetone in urine
is positive. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperthyroidism
distribution is even, especially on the limbs, abdomen, thighs. Borders of the heart
are increased to the left, the deaf tones, systolic murmur at the apex. Highlight the
main syndrome.
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypoglycemia
E. obesity syndrome
63) A patient came to see an endocrinologist. When calculating the BMI was 30.8
kg / m2. Determine the degree of violation of fat metabolism?
A. overweight
B. obesity grade II
C. obesity grade I
E. normal body weight
64) Hypopituitarism is a decrease in function:
A. thyroid gland
B. hypothalamus
C. adrenal glands
D. pituitary gland
E. pineal gland
65) Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in women
is:
A. up to 16 ml
B. up to 18 ml
C. more than 20 ml
D. up to 25 ml
E. up to 30 ml
66) Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in men is:
A. up to 16 ml
B. up to 18 ml
C. to 20 ml
D. up to 25 ml
E. more than 30 ml
A. infections
C. tuberculosis
D. syphilis
E. nephroangiosclerosis
68) When examining a patient with hypercortisol syndrome, it is revealed:
A. uniform obesity
B. facial hair growth in women
C. muscle wasting
D. thick, rough skin
E. weight loss
69) Patient C., 46 years old, complains of severe weakness, lack of appetite, weight
loss in 6 months per 10 kg, nausea, occasionally loose stools, and at times decrease
in blood pressure. From the anamnesis: ill for six months, the above symptoms
gradually appeared and progressed. Highlight the main syndrome.
C. pituitary gland syndrome
D. syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
70) Patient D., 32 years old. Complaints of significant muscle weakness, dizziness,
pain in the heart, emaciation, loss of appetite. History: ill for about 6 months. The
disease does not bind to anything. At the age of 26 he suffered pulmonary
tuberculosis. Objectively: height - 176 cm, weight - 60 kg, the skin on the open
parts of the body is pigmented. What syndrome has a patient developed?
71) Patient D., 50 years old, housewife. She complains about weight gain, flashing
of “flies” before her eyes, headaches, weakness. From the anamnesis: the above
complaints began with a change in appearance: the face was rounded, the belly
increased in volume. Objectively: the patient looks much older than her years.
Height-156 cm, weight - 90 kg, on the thighs - wide purple strii. Determine the
pre-syndrome:
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypoglycemia
E. hypercoticism
72) For what syndrome are typical "moonlike" face, increased hair growth over the
upper lip, in the chin area and on the lateral surfaces of the face. The skin is dry,
with a marble pattern. Hyperpigmentation of the neck. In axillary areas, on the
thighs and lateral surfaces of the abdomen, broad purple-red bands:
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. hypercortisolism
difficult to collect because of the pronounced loss of memory and inhibition of the
patient. Survey results: T4 free - 0.1 pmol / l; TTG - 69 mMe / l; Antibodies to
TPO - 1000 IU / ml. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. obesity Art. I
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. hypercortisolism
74) Chilliness, swelling, change in voice, impaired speech, dry skin, constipation -
these complaints are characteristic of the syndrome:
A. hyperthyroidism
B. Hypocorticoidism
C. hypercortisolism
D. hypopituitarism
E. hypothyroidism
75) What syndrome is manifested by an increase in the size of the thyroid gland, a
puffy, emaciation, tachycardia, an increase in blood pressure?
A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypopituitism
complaints of weakness in the limbs, persistent pain in the calf muscles and back.
Osteoporosis, cysts and pathological fractures were found on radiographs of the
bones. Specify the syndrome.
A. hypoparathyroidism
B. thyrotoxicosis
C. hyperparathyroidism
D. hypoglycemia
E. hypothyroidism
A. obesity syndrome
B. thyrotoxicosis syndrome
C. anorexia syndrome
E. hyperparathyroidism syndrome
78) Thin arms and legs, excessive deposition of fat on the face and torso, “moon-
shaped” hyperemic face occur with the syndrome:
A. Hypocorticoidism
B. hypercortisolism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. hypothyroidism
E. hyperthyroidism

A. determination of the level of Ca2 + in the blood
B. determination of the level of TSH, sv. T4

D. determination of blood cholesterol
E. Definition of T3
80) Woman A., 33 years old, six months after strumectomy, had complaints of
weakness, apathy, drowsiness, constipation, and her menstrual cycle was disrupted.
Objectively: height - 167 cm, body weight - 78 years kg. The skin is dry, hair is
dry, brittle, hair loss of the outer parts of the eyebrows. Pulse - 56 per minute,
rhythmic. BP - 120/80 mm Hg. Art. The boundaries of the relative dullness of the
heart is normal, the tones are weakened. Highlight the syndrome.
A. Hypothyroidism syndrome
B. Hyperthyroidism syndrome
C. obesity syndrome
D. Hypoglycemia syndrome
E. hyperglycemia syndrome
81) Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: right lobe: length - 6.8 cm, width - 3.0 cm,
thickness - 1.8 cm; left lobe: length - 6.0 cm, width - 2.0 cm, thickness - 1.9 cm.
Determine the volume of the thyroid gland.
A. 14.0 ml
B. 18.0 ml
C. 18.4 ml
D. 28.4 ml
E. 40.0 ml
2
1. Diffuse alopecia is:
A. Increased hair breakage
B. Dryness and section of hair
C. Uniform hair loss
D. Local alopecia
E. Excessive hair growth
2. Lupus cheilitis is:
A. Bubble eruptions on the mucosa of lips
B. Painless ulcers on the gum mucosa
C. Dense dry grayish scales, with inflammation of the red border of the
lips
D. "Bits" at the corners of the mouth
E. Aphthous stomatitis on the background of DBST
3. "Dermatomyositis glasses" are:
A. Periorbital edema with purplish-purple erythema
B. Cyanotic eyelid skin staining
C. Dark circles under the eyes
D. Hyperpigmentation of the upper eyelids
E. Eye constriction with erythema of eyelids
4. Sjogren syndrome is:
A. "dry" syndrome due to dehydration
B. "dry" syndrome due to lesions of the endocrine glands
C. "dry" syndrome due to lesions of the exocrine glands

D. “dry” syndrome associated with dry skin eczema
E. “dry” syndrome due to photosensitivity
5. Raynaud's syndrome is:
A. Episodes of limb arteriole constriction, manifested by whitening and

cyanosis of the fingers
B. Numbness of fingers
C. Redness of the fingertips after changing the temperature
D. The appearance of ulcers in the periungual bed
E. The appearance of areas of skin atrophy at the tips of the fingers of the
hands and feet
6. DIC syndrome stands for:
A. Degenerative intraarticular syndrome
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome
C. Diffuse vegetative-vascular syndrome
D. Diffuse intravascular sclerosis
E. Demyelinating intracranial sclerosing syndrome
7. DIC may be a complication of:
A. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of connective tissue
B. Syndrome of degenerative lesions of the joints
C. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions around the articular tissues
D. Osteopenic syndrome
E. Sjogren's syndrome
8. Antiphospholipid syndrome occurs in:
A. Degenerative lesions of the joints
B. Inflammatory lesions of the joints

C. Diffuse lesions of connective tissue syndrome
D. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions around the articular tissues
E. Osteopenic syndrome
9. Viscerites are:
A. Pathognomonic symptomacomplexes, characteristic of lesions within the

same system
B. Concurrent lesions of internal organs
C. Complications of drug therapy for visceral organs
D. Affection of the peritoneum in the syndrome of diffuse lesion of the

connective tissue
E. Syndromes caused by damage to internal organs
10. Viscerite includes:
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Onychodystrophy
C. Cardit
D. Alopecia
E. Arteritis
11. Of the extra-articular manifestations in the syndrome of diffuse lesions of

the connective tissue, the most important is:
A. Lesions of the lymphatic vessels
B. Kidney damage
C. Lesion of the spleen
D. Liver damage
E. Damage of exocrine glands
12. Livedo reticularis is:

A. Varicose saphenous veins
B. Damage to blood vessels with spasm of the capillary bed
C. Resistant bluish color, uneven skin color in the form of tree spots
D. The appearance of bruises of various sizes on the skin of the limbs
E. Palpable nodules along the arteries of medium caliber
13. Osteolysis is:
A. Formation of bone defects in spongy bones
B. Decrease in bone mass per unit volume
C. Bone resorption, often of nail phalanges
D. Thinning of the bones
E. Cystic bone remodeling
14. Aseptic bone necrosis is:
A. Cellular (holes) pattern of bone tissue
B. Complete necrosis of spongy bone tissue and bone marrow
D. Decrease in bone mass per unit volume
E. Formation of bone defects in tubular bones
15. Patient M., 36 years old. There is hyperemia, hyperthermia, sharp pain in
1 metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot on the left. Uric acid 455mmol / l. ESR
20 mm / hour. Specify the main syndrome:
A. Syndrome of degenerative-dystrophic lesions of the joints
B. Syndrome of inflammatory lesions of the joints
C. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of the connective tissue
E. Syndrome of soft tissue damage near the articular tissues
16. 16-years old girl complaints of periodic whitening and cyanosis of the
fingers. Weight loss up to 6 kg for 2 months. Hardening of the skin on the hands
and face. Diffuse alopecia. Antibodies to topoisomerase -1 in blood serum
analysis. Specify the main syndrome:
A. Anemic syndrome
B. Syndrome of diffuse connective tissue damage
C. Astheno-vegetative syndrome
D. Sjogren's syndrome
17. The clinical features of autoimmune diseases are:
A. Predominant involvement of males;
B. Full recovery with continuous treatment;
C. Propensity for progression and recurrence;
D. There are no changes in blood tests;
E. Lack of complete remission;
18. The primary role in the development of diffuse diseases of the connective
tissue is:
A. Congenital anomalies of the internal organs;
B. Children's age;
C. A combination of environmental problems with nutritional patterns;
D. A combination of genetic predisposition and immune disorders;
E. Bad habits (smoking);
19. Female 35-years old. The complaints of marked myasthenia (muscle

weakness) and fever. Objectively: periorbital edema with a purple-lilac
erythema around the eyes, thickening of the muscles of the shoulders and hips
with a painful reaction to palpation. In the blood, an increase in CRP, ESR.
What analysis needed to send the patient to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Creatine phosphokinase;
B. Rheumatoid factor;
C. Antistreptolysin O;
D. Antibodies to DNA strands
E. Creatinine blood;
20. The patient has complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee joint. The
ultrasound in the joint cavity shows about 50 ml of fluid. It corresponds to:
A. A pronounced degree of joint defiguration;
B. Weak degree of joint defiguration;
C. No defiguration;
D. Moderate joint defiguration;
E. Permissible fluid volume;
21. In a patient with pain and limitation of range of motion in the hip joint, an
X-ray examination can determine:
A. Thickness of the synovial membrane;
B. Atrophy of muscles;
C. Viscosity of synovial fluid;
D. The presence of destructive changes in the joint;
E. Volume of synovial fluid;
22. Boutonniere deformation is:
A. Deformation with flexion of the proximal and over-flexion of the distal

interphalangeal joints
B. Deformation, accompanied by subluxation of the distal phalanges of the hands
C. Deviation of the wrist to the radial side
D. Thickening of the distal interphalangeal joints resembling a flower bud
E. Deviation of the hand to the elbow side
23. Ulnar deviation is:
A. Lateral over-extension of the hand

B. Deformation, accompanied by the deviation of the wrist in the radial direction
C. Deformity of the joints of the hands, resembling a snail
D. Deformation, accompanied by a deviation of the hand in the elbow side
E. Deformation, accompanied by subluxations of the distal phalanges of the hands
24. Deformation in the form of mutilating arthritis is characterized by:
A. Abnormal development of the hands and feet due to various genetic mutations
B. Multidirectional curvature and shortening of the phalanges
C. Disruption of the axis of the joints of the hands and feet
D. The fusion of the phalanges between the fingers
E. Deviation of the hand to the radial side
25. Bone erosion detected by X-ray examination is:
A. Marginal bone tissue defects in the form of uzura
B. Bone cysts
C. Subluxations of joints
D. Sharp narrowing of the joint space
E. "punched-out" lesion
26. Monoarticular lesions are:
A. Damage to the joints on one side
B. Damage to one joint
C. A single, non-recurrent joint disorder
D. Monotonic, chronic lesions of the joints
E. Damage of one tendon
27. Visual analog scale (VAS) is:
A. Visual inspection of the joints
B. Evaluation of the function of similar joints compared with the symmetrical side
C. Assessment of the condition of the joint using visualizing methods of instrumental
diagnostics
D. Method of objectification of pain syndrome, assessed by the patient
E. Evaluation of muscle function using visualization methods of instrumental

diagnostics
28. Morning stiffness is:
A. morning stiffness in the whole body
B. Feeling of stiffness in the joints in the morning after waking up
C. Joint pain in the morning
D. Tight swelling of the joints in the morning
E. General weakness in the morning due to intoxication
29. Tophi are:
A. Subcutaneous accumulations of sodium monourate salts
B. Marginal bone formation in the distal phalanges of the fingers
C. Subcutaneous inflammatory masses with central fibrinoid necrosis
D. Subcutaneous calcium deposits in periarticular tissue
E. Subcutaneous nodules with purulent contents
30. Rheumatoid nodules are most characteristic of:
A. Syndrome of degenerative lesions of the joints
B. Syndrome of inflammatory lesions of the joints
C. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of the connective tissue
D. CREST syndrome
E. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions of the periarticular tissues
31. In inflammatory lesions of the joint, the ultrasonography can identify the
following characteristic features:
A. Cluster of synovial exudate, proliferation of the synovial membrane

B. The presence of microorganisms that cause joint disease
C. Bone UZURATIONS
D. "punched-out" symptom
E. Regional osteosclerosis
32. Rheumatoid factor is:
A. Risk factor for developing rheumatoid arthritis
B. Factor contributing to the development of deformities in rheumatoid arthritis
C. Serologic marker for rheumatoid arthritis
D. Mandatory criteria for rheumatoid arthritis
E. Factor showing reactive arthritis
33. Myasthenia is:
A. Pain in the muscles of the limbs
B. Muscle hypotrophy
C. Muscle weakness
D. Muscle hyperkinesis
E. Muscle atrophy
34. What is the term for increased sensitivity to ultraviolet irradiation of open
skin surfaces?
A. Photosensitization
B. Dermafotosis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Ringworm
E. Photophobia
35. Patient R., 36 years old, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of pain
in the metacarpophalangeal, wrist, knee joints, swelling of these joints,
restriction of movements in them. In the morning, notes stiffness in the affected
joints until 12 o'clock in the afternoon. Specify the main syndrome:
A. Syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
B. Osteopenic syndrome
C. Syndrome of inflammatory changes of the joints
D. Muscle inflammatory syndrome
E. Syndrome of inflammation of the soft periarticular tissues
36. The most typical sign of deformity of the hand in the syndrome of
degenerative joint damage is:
A. Heberden's nodules
B. Ulnar deviation
C. "swan neck" deformity
D. "buttonhole" deformity
E. "m-shaped deformation"
37. Which joints are often affected in degenerative-dystrophic lesions of the

osteo-articular system:
A. elbow joint
B. knee joints
C. first metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Thoracic spine joints
E. shoulder joints
38. Bouchard nodes appear:
A. in the syndrome of damage to the soft periarticular tissues
B. in the syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints
C. in the syndrome of degenerative joint damage
D. in diffuse connective tissue syndrome
E. in the syndrome of inflammatory muscle changes
39. The characteristic symptom of degenerative joint disease is:

A. Fever
B. morning stiffness for more than 1 hour
C. myalgia
D. hemorrhagic rash
E. “starting” character of pain
40. Deformation of the joint is due to:
A. Lack of joint pathology
B. Exudative- proliferative phenomena in the joint and periarticular tissues
C. bone ingrowths (fusion)
D. destruction of muscles
E. tight formation, rising above the skin
41. Ankylosis is:
A. lack of mobility in the joint due to bone adhesions.
B. due to proliferative changes in the joint or soft tissues
C. loss of joint native form
D. destruction of articular surfaces
E. restriction of movement in the joint
42. The measurement of the circumference of the joint is performed using:
A. Visually
B. centimeter tape
C. protractor
D. special pattern
E. Stopmeter
43. Which of the following is used to determine the range of motion in the joint:
A. Arthroscope
B. Osteometer
C. Goniometer
D. Caliper
E. Densitometry
44. Crepitation is:
A. limiting the range of motion in a joint in a certain direction
B. The presence of “joint muscle” inside the joint
C. palpation of cracking sound in the joint when moving
D. abnormal movement in the joint
E. fluid accumulation inside the joint
45. The symptom of "blockade" of the joint is:
A. Periodic acute pain in the joint with movements, fragments of cracking

cartilage getting into the joint space
B. inability to move in the joint due to fusion of the articular surfaces
C. increased pain in the joint after intra-articular blockade of the joint
D. morning joint pain upon waking
E. Periodic "stumbling" of the joint while walking
46. The starting nature of the pain is:
A. joint pain in an athlete during the start
B. pain in the joint at the beginning of the movement
C. morning pain in the joint after waking up
D. pain, aggravated at rest and relieved by movement
E. Arthralgia more disturbing in the evening and in the first half of the night.
47. One of the features of pain in a degenerative lesion of the hip joint is:
A. increased pain in the morning
B. irradiation of the pain to the groin area

C. Pain of "lumbago" type
D. burning character of the pain
E. pain worsening at rest
48. In a laboratory study in the case of degenerative lesions of the joints reveal:
A. high ESR
B. increasing level of antibodies to microorganisms
C. leukocytosis
D. Normal KLA scores
E. positive RF
49. Patient A., 67-years old. Complaints of pain in the knee, hip joints, when
moving and when going down the stairs. From the anamnesis: pain in the joints
for 5-6 years. The nodes of Heberden and Bouchard are noted on the hands.
CRP - neg. RF - neg. X-ray of the knee joints: narrowing of the interarticular
crevices, subchondral osteosclerosis, osteophytes. What syndrome are we
talking about?
A. diffuse lesion syndrome of connective tissue
B. muscle inflammatory syndrome
C. syndrome of degenerative joint damage
D. syndrome of lesions of the soft periarticular tissues
E. syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints
53. Patient D., 54 years old, complaints of pain in the knee joints, which are
worse in the evening. Locally: In the area of the interphalangeal joints of the
hands, the Heberden nodules are defined, the knee joints are de-configured and
varus deformity. There is a crunch in the knee joints. UAC, OAM: no change.
What is your intended syndrome?
A. muscle inflammatory syndrome
B. syndrome of degenerative joint damage
C. syndrome of lesions of the soft periarticular tissues
D. syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints

E. diffuse connective tissue syndrome
54. Osteopenic syndrome is:
A. Vascular pathology characterized by transient ischemia of the fingers, tip of the

nose and / or ears, caused by external factors (for example, cold).
B. It is the presence of an inflammatory process (edema, increased local temperature,

redness, soreness and impairment of function) in the joints, which is determined by
an objective examination.
C. Intermittent muscle weakness in patients with obliterating arteriosclerosis without

marked trophic disturbances.
D. The decrease in bone mineral density and the disruption of its

microarchitecture with the subsequent transition to osteoporosis
E. Aseptic necrosis of metacarpal bones with secondary osteosclerosis and arthrosis.
55. Which bone cells are responsible for resorption during bone remodeling?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocyte
C. Osteoclasts
D. Osteoid
E. Chondrocytes
56. The most informative instrumental method of diagnosis of osteopenic

syndrome is:
A. X-ray densitometry
B. Conventional radiography
C. Computed tomography
D. Ultrasound of the joints
E. Arthroscopy
57. Densitometry determines:
A. Bone mineral density
B. The ratio of trace elements in bone tissue

C. The presence of synovial fluid
D. Swelling of periarticular soft tissue
E. Cartilage structure
58. The most frequent localization of osteopenic fractures:
A. Neck of the femur, vertebral body, fracture of the radius
B. Ribs, clavicle, shoulder blade,
C. Upper and lower jaw
D. Tibia and ankles
E. Bones of fingers and facial skull
59. Bone Formation Marker
A. Pyridinoline (PD, NTX) and deoxypyridinoline (U-DPD - free)
B. Bone alkaline phosphatase (bone ALP)
C. Hydroxproline (OP)
D. Galactosyloxylysin (GOP)
E. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (t ARF)
60. Age-related changes in bone tissue are related:
A. with increasing bone sensitivity to parathyroid hormone
B. with increasing calcium excretion
C. with calcitonin deficiency
D. with inhibition of the synthesis of vitamin D3
E. with increasing testosterone levels
61. The defiguration is due to:
A. lack of mobility in the joint
B. Exudative- proliferative phenomena in the synovial membrane

C. Loss of joint native form
D. Destruction of articular surfaces
E. Restricted joint mobility
62. Nodules are:
A. A sign of active rheumatic fever, a pale pink, narrow thread that creates a lace
pattern on the skin, quickly appears and disappears
B. Skin infiltrates of red-purple color, clearly elevating above the skin surface, are
located mainly on the front surface of the tibia
C. on the nose and cheeks, such as erythema
D. Multiple aphthous and ulcerative lesions of the mucous membranes
E. dense formation, rising above the skin level, located in the deep layers of the
dermis and subcutaneous tissue
63. A LE cell is:
A. Eosinophils modified
B. Small Platelet Count
C. Discoid erythrocytes
D. Mature neutrophils phagocytizing altered nuclear inclusions
E. Ragocyte
64. When the joint function is changed, it changes:
A. Joint circumference
B. Gait
C. Patient Weight
D. Analysis of synovial fluid
E. Patient growth
65. The method of research that reveals flat feet is:
A. Plantography
B. Futoscopy
C. Stopometry
D. Sledoscopy
E. Tonometry
66. Modifiable risk factors for osteopenia syndrome:
A. Female gender, age over 65
B. Caucasian race, family history
C. Anterior fractures, hypogonadism
D. Insufficient intake of calcium from food and vitamin D deficiency
E. Early menopause in women
67. Measuring the circumference of a joint helps to identify:
A. Swelling of the joint
B. Joint deformity
C. Impaired joint function
D. Hypermobility of the joint
E. Crunch and Crepitations
68. Compensatory fractures of the spine are manifested by:
A. There are no manifestations
B. Swelling of the soft tissue of the back
C. Redness of the skin in the paravertebral zone
D. Acute pain in the lower back arising after exercise
E. Constant pain, aggravated at night
69. A synovial biopsy can be used to identify:
A. Tumors, granulomatous diseases
B. Defibration and necrosis of cartilage
C. Quantities of synovial fluid

D. A large number of ragocytes
E. Viscosity reduction
70. In the analysis of synovial fluid take into account:
A. Cytosis, protein content, the presence and nature of salt crystals
B. pronounced nuclear cell pathology
C. a large number of ragocytes
D. white blood cell count
E. number of uniform elements
71. Tendonitis is:
A. Isolated tendon lesion
B. Inflammation of the joint capsule
C. sprain
D. inflammatory lesion of periarticular tissue
E. lesion located in the tendon-muscular ligament area
72. Ligamentitis is:
A. inflammatory lesion of the joint capsule
B. Inflammatory lesion of extra-articular ligaments, most often the ligamentous

canal.
C. sprain
D. Isolated tendon lesion
E. Inflammatory lesion of fascia and aponeurosis
73. Myotendinitis is:
A. lesion located in the region of the tendon-muscular ligament

canal through which the tendon passes
C. lesion of the joint capsule

D. Isolated lesion of the tendon of the corresponding muscle
E. Inflammatory lesion of periarticular lymph nodes
74. Fibrositis is:
A. Isolated lesion of the tendon of the corresponding muscle
B. lesion of the joint capsule
C. Inflammation of the fascia and aponeuroses
D. inflammatory lesion of extra-articular ligaments, most often the ligamentous

E. Sprain
75. Paniculitis is:
A. inflammatory foci in subcutaneous perivascular tissue with the development

of necrosis and sclerosis in them
B. Isolated tendon lesions
C. inflammatory lesion of extra-articular ligaments, most often the ligamentous

D. Periarticular lymph node inflammation
E. Sprain
76. The syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue is

characterized by:
A. Systemic autoimmune inflammatory lesions of the connective tissue
B. Degenerative lesions of the joints and internal organs
C. Inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
D. Polyarticular inflammatory lesion type
E. Infectious-inflammatory lesions of the connective tissue
77. The butterfly skin symptom is:
A. Erythematous-squamous foci on the back of the nose, in the brow area and
cheeks
B. allergic skin rash
C. disturbed skin pigmentation in the form of a butterfly
D. violet erythema of the paraorbital region
E. Discoid eruptions
78. A typical manifestation of the outer epicondylitis of the shoulder is
A. Deformity of the elbow joint
B. presence of effusion in the synovial bag of the process of the ulna
C. pain when straightening fingers
D. Pain when bending fingers
E. pain with shoulder rotation
79. The formation of the "snapping" finger due to:
A. Severe osteoarthritis of the hand joints
B. mismatch between the diameter of the fibrous ring and the thickness of the flexor
tendon of the finger
C. nodular tendovaginitis of the flexor of the finger
D. arthritis of the interphalangeal joint of the hand
E. arthritis of the shoulder joint
80. Patient S., 18 years old, complaints of weakness and pain in muscles, fever,
shortness of breath, weight loss of 6 kg. From the anamnesis: after a viral
infection pains in the joints and muscles appeared. Objectively: The condition
is serious. He can not raise his head, stand up, eat on their own. Periorbital
edema, purple spots on the skin of the thighs. Which examination of the above
is most appropriate for verification of the diagnosis?
A. Determination of creatine phosphokinase
B. Determination of rheumatoid factor
C. Determination of antinuclear factor
D. Determination of antibodies to double-stranded DNA

E. Detection of antibodies to topoisomerase (SCL-70)
81. Patient J. 38 years. She has admitted with the complaints of face and arm
skin tightening, weight loss of 12 kg, pain in the joints, difficulty swallowing dry
food, shortness of breath. From the anamnesis: Sick for 5 years, there were
thick edema on the hands and face, arthralgia, and swallowing disorders.
Objective: Low body nutrition. Teleangiectasia on the neck, chest. Masked face.
Restricted mouth. Dummy fingers. The skin in the fold is not taken by
grabbing. What examination is most appropriate for verification of the
diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Antinuclear antibodies
C. Antibodies to double-stranded DNA
D. Antibodies to topoisomerase (SCL-70)
E. Antibodies to cyclic-citrulinated peptide
82. Patient V., 23 years old. Complaints: pain in the joints, cough, shortness of
breath, rashes on the skin, appearing after exposure to the sun, general
weakness, alopecia, irregular menstruation. From the anamnesis: is ill for the
past six months, started after abortion. Worried about joint pain and
subfebrile. Objectively: General condition of moderate severity. In the area of
the cheekbones and the back of the nose erythema. On the lips - scaly crusts.
What is your presumed syndrome?
A. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of the connective tissue
C. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions of the periarticular tissues
E. Syndrome of inflammatory changes of the joints
83. Joint pain is:
A. Ossalgia
B. Myalgia
C. Arthralgia
D. Tendalgia
E. Odontalgia
84. Dorsalgia is
A. Pain in the joints of the lower limbs
B. Pain in the sacrum
C. Back pain
D. Pain in tailbone
E. Pain in the pelvic region
85. Ossalgia is:
A. Bone pain
B. Muscle pain
C. Pain in the joints
D. Pain in the hands
E. Pain in the whole body
86. The rheumatoid factor is:
A. Subtype of antinuclear antibodies.
B. Antibodies to the Fc fragment of IgG.
C. Antibodies to the components of the synovial membrane of the joints.
D. Immune complex containing IgM class antibodies and IgG Fc fragment.
E. A set of cytokines that play a key role in the pathogenesis of RA.
87. Varus deformity is:
A. O-shaped deformity of the knee joint
B. X-shaped deformity of the knee joint
C. Knee over-bending
D. Z-shaped deformity of the knee joint

E. M-shaped deformity of the knee
88. Valgus deformity is:
89. Arthrocentesis is
A. Puncture of the joint
B. Joint prosthetics
C. Measuring the range of motion of the joint
D. Measurement of the circumference of the joint
E. Muscle puncture
90. The manifestation of degenerative changes in which Bouchard's nodules are

found?
A. proximal interphalangeal joints of the hand;
B. Distal interphalangeal joints of the hand;
C. knee joints;
D. first metatarsophalangeal joint;
E. elbow joint.
91. What method is used to evaluate the functions of the wrist?
A. palpation method
B. physical examination
C. Duplex compression method
D. active squeezing fingers
E. uplift
92. Pain of the “mechanical” type, intermittent “blockage” of the joints, slow
progression of the disease, predominant lesion of the stressed joints are
characteristics if which syndrome:
A. Syndrome of inflammatory lesions of the joints
B. Syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
C. Osteopenia syndrome
D. Syndrome of degenerative-dystrophic changes of the joints
E. Reiter's syndrome
93. Increased radiolucency of the bone tissue, underlined contours of the

vertebral bodies, thinning of the cortical layer of the diaphysis of the tubular
bones, what syndrome are we talking about:
A. Syndrome of inflammatory lesions of the joints
B. Syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
C. Osteopenia syndrome
D. Syndrome of degenerative-dystrophic changes of the joints
E. Reiter's syndrome
94. Kushelevsky symptom is characteristic of damage to:
A. the joints of the lumbar spine;
B. pubic symphysis;
C. hip joints;
D. ileosacral articulations;
E. costal sternum
95. What determines Forestier's symptom?
A. mobility of the cervical spine
B. mobility of the lumbar spine
C. mobility of the thoracic spine
D. severity of cervical kyphosis

E. severity of lumbar kyphosis
96. Talalgia is:
A. Pain in the palm
B. Pain in the chest
C. Pain in the scapula
D. Pain in the heel
E. Pain in the patella
97. A patient is 57-years old, had an episode of pain in the area of the hip joint
a month ago when walking. Which of the following testifies in favor of above
symptoms:
A. palpable tenderness in the trochanter area
B. limiting the hip rotation on the affected side
C. shortening the right leg by 4 cm
D. Lassega positive symptom on the right
E. positive Kushelevsky symptom
98. In osteopenia, according to the results of densitometry, the T-criterion is

equal to:
A. "-1" and above
B. "-1" - "-2.5"
C. "-2.5" and below
D. “+1” and above
E. "+2.5" and below
A. Macrophage phagocytizing antinuclear antibodies
B. Immunoglobulin M
C. Immunoglobulin E
D. Immunoglobulin A
E. antinuclear factor
100. Rheumatoid factor is determined in the reaction of:
A. Bordet-Zhangu
B. Wasserman
C. Coombs
D. Vaaler-Rose
E. Hedelson Reaction
3
Examination of patients
1. Clinical manifestations of the facies refritica are:
A. pallor and swelling of the face
B. acrocyanosis
C. hemorrhagic rash on face
D. swelling of the neck veins
E. Xanthelasma on face
2. Which of listed scientists made greatest contribution to the development of nephrology?

A. KOH
B. Pasteur
C. Mechnikov
D. Brightz
E. Zakharyin
3. What causes chronic pyelonephritis:

A. gram positive flora
B. Gram-negative floras
C. viruse
D. rickettsia
E. protozoa
4. Under the action of the renin occurs

A. arteriole glomerular contraction
B. expansion of glomerular afferent arterioles
C. Reducing the pore size of the basement membrane
D. hypertrophy of the vascular loops of the glomerulus
E. Reduced protein reabsorption
5. When urinary tract infection syndrome in the sample according to Nechyporenko observe:
A. 1. leukocytes - 1500, E - 800, cyl - 450
B. 2. leukocytes - 2000, E - 1000, cyl - 500
C. 3. leukocytes - 5000, E - 1000, cyl - 500
D. 4. leukocytes - 2000, E - 800, cyl - 250
E. 5. leukocytes - 200, E - 7300, cyl - 450
6. To establish the fact hematuria is used:

A. urine sediment microscopy
B. prednisolone test
C. Zimnitsky's test
D. excretory urogram
E. urine dilution test
7. Effect of antidiuretic hormone is carried out in

A. proximal tubule
B. loop of Henle
C. distal tubules
D. collecting tubule
E. along the entire nephron
8. Bacteriuria is considered to be excretion with urine of opportunistic flora in an amount of

more than:
A. 100 microbial cell per ml
B. 1000 microbial cell per ml
C. 10,000 microbial cell per ml
D. 100,000 microbial cells per ml
E. 1,000,000 microbial cell per ml
9. Acute pain syndrome glomerulonephritis due to:

A. violation of urine outflow;
B. inflammatory edema of the ureter;
C. stretching the renal pelvis;
D. spastic contraction of the ureter;
E. stretching the kidney capsules .
10. When infection of urinary tract affects:

A. vascular and lymphatic system of the kidney
B. tubules, cup and pelvis apparatus, and interstices
C. a ball
D. bladder mucosa
E. RAAS
11. Low urine the specific gravities are indicated as

A. hypostenuria
B. hyperstenuria
C. isostenuria
D. ishuria
E. dysuria
12. the Urinary frequency is called:

A. pollakiuria;
B. nocturia ;
C. polyuria;
D. oliguria ;
E. stranguria .
13. In acute nephritis syndrome affects:
A. kidney interstitial tissue
B. glomerules
C. tubules, cup and pelvis apparatus, and interstitium
D. cortex and medulla of the kidney
E. bladder mucosa
14. What are signs characteristic of acute nephritic syndrome ?

A. swelling , hyperlipidemia
B. hematuria , itchy skin
C. arterial hypertension , pallor of the skin
D. hyperlipidemia , xanthomas , hypotension
E. edema, hematuria, the arterial hypertension
15. In the etiology of acute nephritic syndrome is of the great importance:

A. bacterial infection
B. heavy metal salts
C. unbalanced diet
D. alcohol abuse
E. birth defects of the renal vascular system
16. What syndrome is characterized by radiographic signs: blurred borders of renal pelvis,
deformity of the renal cups, narrowing and retraction of the necks?
A. acute-nephritic
B. urinary tract infections
C. nephrotic
D. hypertension
E. acute renal failure
17. What syndrome involves the detection of leukocyte cylinders in urine ?

A. acute-nephritic
B. urinary tract infections
C. nephrotic
D. hypertension
E. acute renal failure
18. Occurrence of urine leukocyturia and bacteriuria (more than 100,000 bacteria in 1 ml of
urine) suggests that patient has the syndrome:
A. uric
B. acute renal failure
C. chronic renal failure
D. acutely - nephritic
E. urinary tract infections
19. For orthostatic proteinuria, the following is true:

A. Most patients develop chronic renal failure.
B. proteinuria exceeds 2 g / day
C. proteinuria is absent in the horizontal position of the patient
D. proteinuria is always combined with edema
E. proteinuria occurs in patients in old age
20. What syndrome is characterized by the sudden onset of increasing edema, hematuria and
proteinuria, arterial hypertension combined with signs of impaired renal function (decreased GFR,
azotemia):
A. nephrotic
B. acutely - nephritic
C. acute renal failure
D. eclampsia
E. chronic r9enal failure
21. Nephrotic syndrome is talked about in the presence of:

A. hyperproteinemia
B. hypocholesterolemia
C. hypokalemia
D. hypertension
E. proteinuria> 3.5 g / day
22. Note the reasons for the formation of o- oligo anuria and acute renal failure:
A. Increase effective filtration pressure.
B. Reducing effective filtration pressure.
C. Reducing the number of ADH.
D. Increasing the number of ADH.
E. Angiospasm and blockage of tubules with cylinders, blood clots .
23. What syndrome is characterized by a combination of the following symptoms: edema, high
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia , dysproteinemia , hyperlipidemia ?
A. Nephrotic
B. uric
C. hypertensive
D. infectious complications syndrome
E. chronic renal failure
24. Edema in nephrotic syndrome:

A. common
B. local
C. intensify in the evening
D. accompanied by hyperproteinemia
E. pass independently
25. What characterizes an arrester?

A. night diuresis above daytime
B. isostenuria in the absence of azotemia
C. azotemia with isohyposthenuria
D. polyuria with azotemia
E. azotemia with hypostenuria or oligoanuria
26. What pathological processes are the main cause of CRF?

A. hardening of the majority of nephrons
B. necrosis of glomeruli
C. renal artery vasculitis
D. glomerular inflammation
E. tubular dystrophy
27. What pathological processes are the main cause of AKI?

A. hardening of the majority of nephrons
B. tubular necrosis
C. renal artery vasculitis
D. glomerular inflammation
E. tubular dystrophy
28. In the clinical course of acute renal failure produce

A. 1 period
B. 2 periods
C. 3 periods
D. 4 periods
E. 5 periods
29. Indicate the causes of prerenal ARF.

A. Increase in cardiac output
B. Dehydration
C. Hypervolemya
D. urolithiasis disease
E. Hypertensive crisis
30. Indicate the most common causes of anemia in chronic renal failure:
A. metroragia
B. Lack of vit. B-12 and folic acid
C. Chronic hemolysis
D. Reduced erythropoietin synthesis
E. Chronic aluminum intoxication
31. When CRF is available

A. tubular damage
B. glomerular defeat
C. interstitial lesion
D. combined defeat of the glomeruli and tubules
E. defeat pelvis
32. What are the earliest symptoms in the development of CRF?

A. polyuria
B. dyspeptic disorders
D. swelling
E. anemia
33. What kind of syndrome is a sudden, rapid, but potentially reversible renal dysfunction,
sufficient to lead to the accumulation of nitrogenous slags in body fluids:
A. acute renal failure
B. chronic renal failure
C. nephrotic syndrome
D. eclampsia
E. dysuric syndrome
34. Acute renal failure may result from:
A. significant reduction in renal perfusion
B. History of prolonged arterial hypertension
C. Systemic diseases
D. Metabolic diseases
E. progressive and irreversible destruction of nephrons
35. A sample of Zimnitsky allows you to identify:

A. nocturia
B. leukocyturia
C. calcium ion
D. oxaluria
E. proteinuria
36. Ways of infection of the renal pelvis and interstitium :

A. hematogenous spread
B. lymphogenous spread
C. ascending path
D. contact
E. airborne
37. Units of glomerular filtration:

A. mmol / l
B. ml / s
C. international units
D. ml / min
E. ml / h
38 What is the value of tubular filtration in the norm:

A. 50-60 ml / min
B. 70-80 ml / min
C. 80-120 ml / min
D. 120-160 ml / min
E. more than 160 ml / min
39 Nechiporenko's test allows:

A. determine the value of daily proteinuria
B. determine glomerular filtration
C. determine urine creatinine concentration
D. to determine the amount of leukocyturia and erythrocyturia
E. Evaluate the degree of canalicular reabsorption
40 Kidneys are palpable at :

A. pyelonephritis;
B. hydronephrosis ;
C. glomerulonephritis ;
D. amyloidosis of the kidney;
E. diabetic nephropathy.
41 Determining which indicator is the most informative for detecting nephrotic syndrome:
A. daily proteinuria value
B. the concentration of serum creatinine
C. serum cholesterol concentration
D. Size of canalicular reabsorption
E. uric acid concentration
42 Microalbuminuria is:
A. Albumin daily excretion 1-2 g / day
B. Daily excretion of albumin 30-300 mg / day
C. proteinuria with albumin excretion of 2-3.5 g / day
D. Albumin daily excretion of less than 50 mg / day
E. Daily excretion of albumin more than 5 g / day
43 Brush rim in nephron is available in :

A. Proximal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Linking department
E. Collecting tube
44. Specify the early sign of chronic renal failure (CRF):

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Nocturia
D. Azotemia
E. Reduced kidney size
45. The leading pathogenetic mechanism in chronic renal failure is:

A. acute kidney ischemia
B. progressive nephron death
C. increase in the mass of active nephrons
D. necrosis of the tubular epithelium
E. ischemia of the cortical layer of the kidney
46. Indicate signs of renal edema.

A. blue, cold, dense
B. blue, warm, soft
C. pale, warm, soft
D. pale, cold, dense
E. red, warm, soft
47. The leading mechanism of edema in nephrotic syndrome is:

A. increased capillary permeability
B. reduction of oncotic pressure of blood plasma
C. Delay in blood and tissue of sodium ions
D. acute urinary excretion of urine
E. increase of hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
48. The leading mechanism of hypertension is:

A. reduced glomerular filtration of water and sodium
B. calcium accumulation in the vascular wall
C. activation of the renin- angiotensin - aldosterone system
D. catecholamine retention
E. decrease in depressor kidney function
49. Swelling of renal origin is most often accompanied by the following coloring of the skin:
A. cyanotic
B. red
C. pale
D. icteric
E. plain, pale pink
50. The main morphological and functional unit of the kidney is:
A. cup and pelvis system
B. vascular glomerulus
C. renal tubules
D. nephron
E. renal body
51. The permissible amount of protein in daily urine is:

A. 500 mg / day
B. 50 mg / day
C. 150 mg / day
D. Should not be
E. traces of protein
52. Urea, creatinine , glucose are filtered in the ball:

A. completely;
B. partially;
C. not filtered;
D. Only glucose is completely filtered.
E. only creatinine is completely filtered
53. The formation of angiotensin II occurs

A. only in the lungs
B. only in the heart
C. kidney only
D. Liver only
E. mainly in the lungs and kidneys
54. Protein reabsorption occurs.

A. in the proximal tubule
B. in the loops of genle
C. in distal convoluted tubule
D. in collecting tubules
E. in bellium duct
55 . What causes edema in nephrotic syndrome?

A. Ischemia of the kidney;
B. Oliguria ;
C. Decreased blood pressure;
D. Reduced oncotic pressure;
E. Increased hydrostatic pressure.
56 . In the study of blood in patients with nephrotic syndrome revealed:

A. Hyperproteinaemia ;
B. Hypoalbuminemia ;
C. Hyperalbuminemia ;
D. Hypolipidemia ;
E. Hyperglycemia.
57 . The signs of nephrotic syndrome include I tsya:

A. Hypertension;
B. Massive swelling;
C. hematuria;
D. Proteinuria> 1.5 g / day ;
E. Leukocyturia .
58. Signs of urinary syndrome:

A. glucosuria ;
B. Proteinuria;
C. Protein Bens- Jones;
D. Bacteriuria;
E. Hiluria.
59. What proteinuria is characteristic of acute-nephritic syndrome?

A. Glomerular ;
B. Tubular;
C. Orthostatic;
D. Proteinuria voltage;
E. Proteinuria overflow.
60. What test can detect a decrease in glomerular filtration?

A. Nechiporenko's test;
B. Test Zimnitsky ;
C. Sample Reberga-Tareeva ;
D. Addis – Kakovsky test ;
E. Pasternatsky test .
61. For nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:

A. The increase in serum VLDL and LDL;
B. Development of hypocoagulation disorders;
C. Hypercalcemia ;
D. Convulsive syndrome;
E. Arterial hypertension.
62. Characteristic hematological disorders in chronic renal failure:
A. Anemia;
B. Erythrocytosis;
C. Leukocytosis;
D. Thrombocytosis;
E. Pancytopenia .
63. What signs carry information about the functional abilities of the kidney?
A. urine protein content;
B. isostenuria ;
C. decrease in glomerular filtration;
D. increased plasma creatinine ;
E. Increased blood pressure.
64. What determines the dark and yellowish color of the skin in chronic renal failure?
A. from increasing direct bilirubin;
B. from increasing indirect bilirubin;
C. violation of urochromic excretion ;
D. from eating dyes;
E. From violation of the synthesis of bilirubin.
65. The nitrogenous function of the kidneys can be judged:

A. by plasma protein level;
B. urine protein level;
C. in terms of urea and plasma creatinine ;
D. on the relative density of urine;
E. according to blood lipids.
66. The predominance of nighttime diuresis over daytime is called:

A. oliguria ;
B. anuria;
C. nocturia ;
D. pollakiuria;
E. stranguria .
67. Criteria for determining chronic renal failure:

A. GFR <100 ml / min / 1.73 m 2 for> 3 months;
B. GFR <60 ml / min / 1.73 m 2 for> 3 months;
C. GFR <30 ml / min / 1.73 m 2 for> 3 months;
D. Renal impairment for> 3 months;
E. Kidney damage for <3 months.
68. For the appearance of a patient with nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:
A. skin color "coffee with milk";
B. bronze skin tone;
C. cyanosis of the lips, earlobes, fingers;
D. severe swelling of the face;
E. pronounced cyanotic swelling of the lower extremities.
69. In CKD C5 note :
A. lubochkov speed to the second filtration and less than 15 ml / min;
B. Poliuri Yu ;
C. Hypokalemia th;
D. Hypercalcemia th;
E. Increase the size of the kidneys on ultrasound.
70. Normal level of potassium in blood serum:

A. 1.5 - 2.5 mmol / l.
B. 2.5-3.5 mmol / l;
C. 3.5-5.5 mmol / l;
D. 5.5-6.5 mmol / l;
E. 6.5-8.5 mmol / l;
71. Normal serum creatinine level:

A. 25-44 µmol / l;
B. 44-105 μmol / l;
C. 130-140 μmol / l;
D. 145-265 μmol / l.
E. 265-618 µmol / L;
72. The leukocyte indices in the urine analysis according to Nechipo p enko are normal :
A. up to 6000 in 1 ml;
B. up to 2000 in 1 ml;
C. up to 4000 in 1 ml;
D. up to 1000 in 1 ml;
E. up to 5000 in 1 ml.
73 . Indicators of e p itycocytes in the analysis of urine according to Nechipopenko are normal :

A. 1000 in 1 ml;
B. 2000 in 1 ml;
C. 4000 in 1 ml;
D. 6000 in 1 ml;
E. 10,000 in 1 ml;
7 4. The most accurate nature of the morphological changes in the kidneys allows you to
determine:
A. intravenous urografiya ;
B. retro pyelography ;
C. ultrasound study;
D. kidney biopsy;
E. Doppler sonography of the kidneys.
75. To determine glomerular filtration, the following method is used:

A. daily diupeza of determination;
B. urine analysis according to Zimnitsky ;
C. definition klipensa of endogenous kpeatininu;
D. Nechiporenko test;
E. determination of daily proteuria .
76. Which of the following pathogens is most often the cause of the development of acute nephritic
syndrome?
A. E. coli;
B. Viruses;
C. B-hemolytic streptococcus group A;
D. Chlamydia and other intermediate forms of bacteria;
E. The simplest.
77. Which of the following forms of acute renal failure (ARF)

is hypercatabolic ?
A. Medicinal
B. Postrenal
C. Crash syndrome
D. Prerenal
E. Hepato-renal syndrome
78 What signs distinguish renal eclampsia from hypertensive crisis?

A. The presence of convulsions
B. Brain edema
C. Lack of convulsive syndrome
D. Severe headaches
E. Blurred vision
79. In 1 5-year-old patient 2 weeks after suffering a sore throat there were edemas, gross
hematuria, increased blood pressure. Most possible diagnosis:
A. Acute - Nephritic Syndrome
B. Urinary syndrome
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. hypertension syndrome
E. acute renal failure syndrome
80. What methods can be used for the differential diagnosis of transient acute from
chronic irreversible renal failure?
A. Reberg Trial
B. Ultrasound examination of the kidneys
C. Zimnitsky's test
D. Prednisone challenge test
E. Determination of serum urea level
81. Urine color "meat slops" is typical for:

A. acute pyelonephritis;
B. acute glomerulonephritis ;
C. kidney amyloidosis;
D. nephrotic syndrome;
E. chronic pyelonephritis.
82. Aching, dull, bilateral pain in the lumbar region is typical for:
A. kidney infarction;
B. kidney prolapses;
C. urolithiasis;
D. bend of the ureter;
E. acute glomerulonephritis .
83. Acutely emerged headache, increased blood pressure, blurred vision, swelling of the face,
decrease in urine output and change its colors are characteristic:
A. acute pyelonephritis;
B. acute pyelitis;
C. acute glomerulonephritis ;
D. nephrotic syndrome;
E. terminal renal failure
4
PULMONOLOGY
1. Vesicular respiration results from….
A. Air swirls when passing through the glottis
B. Air swirls as it passes through the bronchi
C. Fluctuations of the alveolar walls in the inhalation and exhalation phases
D. Friction of pleural leaves in the inhalation and exhalation phases
E. Air swirls in cavities
2. Bronchial respiration results from….
A. Alveolar dissemination during inhalation
B. Air swirls when passing through the glottis
C. Fluctuations of the alveolar walls in the inhalation and exhalation phases
D. Friction of pleural leaves in the inhalation and exhalation phases
E. Air swirls in the nasal cavity
3. Identify the most characteristic changes in the chest with inflammatory compaction of the lung
lobe:
A. Reduction of half of the chest, its depression and lag in breathing

B. lag in breathing, an increase in the half of the chest and smoothing of the intercostal spaces
C. only lag in breathing of the chest
D. hypersthenic chest
E. an increase in anteroposterior and lateral dimensions of the chest, retraction of the intercostal
spaces in the lower lateral regions on both sides
4. What percussion sound appears when inflammatory compaction of the lung tissue?
A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. Tympanic
D. tympanic blunting
E. boxed
5. What is the purpose of using an additional technique for auscultation of the lungs - coughing?
A. to distinguish pleural friction noise from crepitus and wheezing
B. to detect hidden bronchial obstruction
C. to distinguish dry rales from wet rales
D. To distinguish wheezing from crepitus
E. for better listening for pathological bronchial respiration
6. What is the main respiratory noise most often heard with lobar inflammatory compaction?
A. weakened vesicular respiration
B. Amphora breath
C. bronchial respiration
D. hard breathing
E. mixed bronchovesicular respiration
7. What caused the appearance of crepitus?
A. the presence in the alveoli (near-wall) of a small amount of exudate or transudate

B. inflammation of the pleura (“dry” pleurisy)
C. Alveoli are completely filled with exudate or transudate.
D. viscous bronchial secretion in large bronchi
E. viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or their spasm
8. Crepitus occurs in:
A. Alveoli
B. Small bronchi
C. The middle bronchi.
D. Large bronchi.
E. Bronchioles.
9. What sputum often occurs in patients with the syndrome of lobar compaction of the lung
tissue?
A. Vitreous
B. Muco-purulent
C. Three-layer
D. "Rusty."
E. Serous, frothy pink.
10. What is detected by X-ray examination of the lungs in lung tissue induction syndrome?
A. Fractional darkening of the lung tissue.
B. Increased pulmonary transparency
C. Lobular lumen tissue enlightenment.
D. The presence of a rounded focus of enlightenment with a fluid level.
E. Darkening of the course of the interlobar sulcus.
11. What is the difference between crepitus and finely bubbling moist rales?
A. occurs while exhaling;
B. occurs while inhaling;
C. occurs during inhalation and exhalation;
D. increases with forced breathing
E. increases after coughing
12. Select the symptom complex characteristic of the syndrome of inflammatory consolidation of
lung tissue:
A. chest pain radiating to the left arm
B. cough with a mouthful of sputum, mainly in the morning
C. fever, chills, cough with "rusty" phlegm
D. choking attacks with distant wheezing
E. swelling in the legs, liver enlargement
13. Identify the most characteristic changes in the chest with obstructive atelectasis:
A. Reduction of half of the chest, its depression and lag in breathing
C. only lag in breathing of the chest
D. Hyperstenotic chest
E. an increase in anteroposterior and lateral dimensions of the chest, retraction of the intercostal
spaces in the lower lateral regions on both sides
14. Under which syndrome is voice tremor enhanced?
A. Seals lung tissue
B. Enhancement of airiness of lung tissue
C. Accumulations of fluid in the pleural cavity
D. The presence in the lung cavity, not communicating with the bronchus
E. Accumulations of air in the pleural cavity

15. What is the main respiratory noise most often heard in the presence of a cavity that connects
to the bronchus?
B. bronchial respiration
C. amphoric breathing
D. hard breathing
E. Mixed bronchovesicular respiration
16. Strengthening vocal tremor, tympanic sound, bronchial, sometimes amphoraic breathing, an
abundance of moist sonorous wheezing in a limited area, profuse purulent sputum observed in
the syndrome:
A. increased airiness of the lungs
B. sealed lung tissue
C. the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity
D. availability of air in the pleural cavity
E. cavity in the lung
17. Characteristics of sputum for cavity syndrome in the lung tissue:
A. Abundant, goes with full mouth, with an unpleasant smell mixed with blood, purulent,
double-layered.
B. Goes in a large amount in the mornings, mucopurulent character.
C. Scanty, viscous.
D. Rusty, mucopurulent, odorless.
E. Muco-purulent in a small amount without admixture of blood.
18. What caused the appearance of moist, large wheezing?
A. viscous bronchial secretion in large bronchi
B. viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or their spasm

C. liquid bronchial secretion in the large bronchi or cavities communicating with the
bronchus
D. Liquid bronchial secretion in the small bronchi while maintaining the airiness of the
surrounding lung tissue
E. Liquid bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and inflammatory sealing of the surrounding
lung tissue
19. Which of the sputum elements reliably indicates the destruction of lung tissue?
A. Charcot-Leiden crystals;
B. leukocytes;
C. Kurshman spiral;
D. elastic fibers;
E. red blood cells.
20. Give the characteristic of wet wheezing:
A. are heard on the inhale and exhale, crackling or “bursting” bubbles, disappear with
imitation of respiratory movements
B. are heard on the inhale, the sound "f", over all the pulmonary fields, disappears when
imitating respiratory movements
C. are heard on the inhale and exhale over the larynx, the sound "f”, disappears when imitating
respiratory movements
D. are heard on the inhale and exhale above the lung fields, the sound "f", disappears when
imitating respiratory movements
E. listened only on inspiration, crackling or creaking of snow, disappears on inspiration
21. The most informative method for diagnosing the presence of cavity syndrome in the lung:
A. blood test
B. sputum analysis
C. spirometry
D. x-ray
E. bronchophony
22 The syndrome of bronchiectasis is characterized by the presence of:
A. caverns in the lung tissue
B. bronchial tumors
C. accumulations of purulent sputum in the enlarged areas of the bronchi
D. Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
E. thin-walled closed cavities in the lung
23. What is the change in respiration most characteristic of the spasm of the small bronchi?
A. wheezing breath
B. expiratory dyspnea
C. Kussmaul breathing
D. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
E. inspiratory dyspnea
24. What caused dry buzzing (bass) wheezing?
C. alveoli are completely filled with exudate or transudate.
E. viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or their spasm
25. What is the purpose of using an additional technique for auscultation of the lungs - forced
expiration?
A. to distinguish the pleural friction noise from crepitus and wheezing
C. in order to distinguish dry rales from wet rales
D. to distinguish wheezing from crepitus or pleural friction

26. For bronchial obstruction syndrome, the most characteristic auscultation signs are:
A. bronchial respiration and crepitus
B. breathing with prolonged expiration, the appearance or strengthening of wheezing

during forced expiration
C. vesicular breathing and wheezing
D. weakened vesicular respiration
E. bronchovesicular respiration with prolonged inhalation
27. The functional symptom of bronchial obstruction is:
A. change in tidal volume
B. decrease Tiffno index
C. decrease VC
D. increase residual volume
E. increase in MSV
28. The mechanism of dry wheezing is associated with the following factors:
A. Accumulation of fluid secretion in the lumen of the bronchi
B. Accumulation of viscous secretion in the lumen of the bronchi
C. Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
D. The surface roughness of the pleura
E. Accumulation of fluid secretion in the lumen of the alveoli
29. What are the distinguishing features of wet rales:
A. Listened to both phases of respiration.
B. Listened to at the height of breath.
C. The character of the sound changes after changing the position of the body.
D. The character of the sound does not change after coughing.
E. Listened better with tighter stethoscope

30. Asphyxiation is:
A. subjective feeling of lack of air, accompanied by a change in the frequency, depth and rhythm
of breathing
B. arbitrary or involuntary reflex act of protecting and self-cleaning the respiratory tract from
foreign bodies, mucus, pus and sputum
C. excretion of blood in sputum
D. a sudden onset of lack of air
E. agonizing "barking" cough
31. The peculiarity of cough in bronchial obstruction syndrome:
A. mucus or purulent sputum in the morning
B. simultaneous discharge of purulent sputum in large quantities
C. agonizing cough with scanty sputum
D. cough with a "rusted" sputum
E. cough with frothy pink sputum
32. What syndrome is characterized by mucous vitreous sputum with the discovery of
eosinophils, Kurshman spirals and Charcot-Leiden crystals in it?
A. pleura inflammation syndrome
B. pulmonary tissue compaction syndrome
C. cavity in lung tissue syndrome
D. syndrome of air in the pleural cavity
E. bronchial obstruction syndrome
33. What percussion sound appears when emphysema?
A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
E. boxed
34. Indicate the most characteristic changes in the chest during emphysema of the lungs:
A. reduction of half of the chest, its depression and lag in breathing
C. only lag in breathing half of the chest
E. an increase in the anteroposterior and lateral dimensions of the chest, the involvement of
the intercostal spaces in the lower lateral regions on both sides during inhalation.
35. The leading complaint of patients with lung tissue airiness is:
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Chest Pain
D. Hemoptysis.
E. Increased body temperature
36. With changes in what structures in the lung is associated the development of emphysema?
A. By overstretching the elastic fibers in the interstitium of the lung
B. Change in muco-ciliary index
C. Blood overflow of the cavernous venous plexus of the lower
nasal passage
D. Spasm of the muscle plate of the mucous membrane of the small bronchi
E. Violation of the synthesis of surfactant
37. Dyspnea is:

A. Subjective feeling of lack of air, accompanied by a change in the frequency, depth and
rhythm of breathing
B. arbitrary or involuntary reflex act of protection and
self-cleaning of the respiratory tract from foreign bodies, mucus, pus and
sputum
C. shallow breathing
E. sudden loss of consciousness
38. When conducting comparative percussion of the lungs, the doctor determined a boxed sound
over both lungs, the lower border of the lungs is lowered by 3 cm, and the active mobility of the
pulmonary edges is limited. What syndrome are we talking about?
A. pleural inflammation syndrome
B. lung tissue induction syndrome
C. cavity in lung tissue syndrome
D. syndrome of air in the pleural cavity
E. syndrome of increased pulmonary airiness
39. Predisposition to the development of increased airiness of lung tissue causes:
A. α-1-antitrypsin deficiency
B. excess α-1-antitrypsin
C. excess collagen
D. lack of creatine phosphokinase
E. excess phospholipase
40. What caused the appearance of pleural friction noise?

C. alveoli are completely filled with exudate or transudate.
D. viscous sputum in large bronchi
E. viscous sputum in the small bronchi and / or their spasm
41. Indicate the most characteristic changes in the chest with a closed pneumothorax:
A. a decrease in half of the chest, its depression and lag in breathing
B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and intercostal space leveling
D. hyperstenotic chest
E. an increase in the anterior-posterior and transverse dimensions of the chest, intercostal spacing
in the lower side of both parties
42. What is the main breathing noise most often heard in a closed pneumothorax?
B. amphora breath
D. hard breathing
43. Indicate the most characteristic changes in the chest with unilateral hydrothorax:
A. a decrease in half of the chest, its depression and lag in breathing
B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and intercostal space leveling
E. an increase in the anterior-posterior and transverse dimensions of the chest, intercostal spacing
in the lower side of both parties
44. What percussion sound appears when pneumothorax:

A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
E. boxed
45. What is the main respiratory noise most often heard in hydrothorax:
B. amphora breath
D. hard breathing
46. What is the difference between pleural friction noise and fine wheezing?
A. amplified in a horizontal position
B. is heard only on inhale;
C. heard only on exhale;
D. does not change with coughing;
E. changes with coughing.
47. Evaluate the result of the study of pleural contents: relative density - 1027, turbid liquid,
greenish-yellow, protein - 60 g / l, Rivalt sample ++++, sediment microscopy - neutrophils cover
all fields of view:
A. transudate;
B. purulent exudate;
C. hemorrhagic exudate;
D. serous exudate
E. chylous exudate
48. X-ray picture in the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity:
A. homogeneous darkening of the lower part of the lung with the Damozo line.
B. increased transparency of the lung fields.
C. light pulmonary field without pulmonary pattern.
D. spotty darkening of the pulmonary field.
E. darkening of the interlobar groove in the form of a spindle.
49. In the syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity over the area of fluid
accumulation is noted:
A. tympanic sound.
B. sound box.
C. pulmonary sound.
D. metallic tone tympanic sound
E. blunt or dull
50. Radiographic signs of syndrome of the presence of air in the pleural cavity:
A. homogeneous darkening of the lower part of the lung.
B. Increased transparency of the lung fields.
C. light pulmonary field without pulmonary pattern.
D. spotty darkening of the pulmonary pattern.
E. darkening along the interlobar pleura in the form of a spindle.
51. Mediastinum in the syndrome of fluid presence in the pleural cavity:
A. shifted to a healthy side
B. shifts to the affected side
C. does not shift anywhere
D. shifts down
E. shifts up
52. Mediastinum in the syndrome of air presence in the pleural cavity:
A. shifts to the healthy side
B. shifts to the sick side
C. does not shift anywhere
D. shifts down
E. shifts up
53. Tympanic percussion sound over the chest can be detected in the syndrome ....
A. sealed lung tissue
B. fluid accumulations in the pleural cavity
C. air accumulations in the pleural cavity
D. increase the airiness of the lung tissue
E. formation in the lung cavity, not communicating with the bronchus
54. A characteristic change in the composition of the blood during respiratory failure is:
A. anemia
B. hyperazotemia
C. hypoxemia
D. hyperlipidemia
E. hypoproteinemia
55. Obstructive type of respiratory failure syndrome occurs when:
A. bronchospasm.
B. hydrothorax.
C. pneumosclerosis.
D. pneumothorax.
E. kyphoscoliosis
56. The compensatory mechanisms for respiratory failure include:
A. lymphocytosis
B. thrombocytosis
C. erythrocytosis
D. eosinophilia
E. leukopenia
57. When respiratory failure III degree, the level of SpO2 is:
A.> 90%
B. 90-94%
C. 75-89%
D. <75%
E. <60%
58. The main causes of the development of the hypoxemic form of respiratory failure:
A. Diseases directly affecting the pulmonary parenchyma
B. Mechanical defects of muscle and rib cage of the chest
C. obesity
D. Violation of the regulatory functions of the respiratory center
E. Bronchial obstruction
59. What sign revealed during the general examination indicates the presence of respiratory
failure:
A. change in the shape of the chest
B. pallor of the skin
C. diffuse cyanosis
D. facial flushing
E. erythematous rash
60. The first degree of chronic respiratory failure is characterized by:
A. lack of shortness of breath on exertion
B. shortness of breath with considerable physical exertion
C. shortness of breath with little exertion and inclusion
compensatory mechanisms alone
D. dyspnea and cyanosis alone
E. dyspnea and cyanosis in sleep
61. Specify the place of the best listening valve of the pulmonary artery:
A. second intercostal space on the left at the sternum
B. second intercostal space on the right at the sternum
C. in the fifth intercostal space on the right
D. at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
E. in the fifth intercostal space on the left
62. How will II of the heart tone change with an increase in pressure in the pulmonary artery and
severe right ventricular hypertrophy?
A. weakening of the II tone on the pulmonary artery
B. only accent II of the pulmonary artery.
C. accent and splitting II tone on the pulmonary artery
D. only splitting of the II tone on the pulmonary artery
E. amplification of I tone over the pulmonary artery
63. A complication of the cardiovascular system that develops as a result of prolonged chronic
respiratory failure is:
A. arterial hypertension;
B. right ventricular hypertrophy;
C. hypotension
D. left ventricular hypertrophy
E. dilatation of the left atrium
64. A characteristic radiological feature of the pulmonary heart is:
A. expansion of the heart to the right due to the pancreas
B. expansion of the heart to the left due to LV
C. mediastinal displacement to the right
D. mediastinal dislocation to the left
E. thickening of the pulmonary pattern
65. Which of the following instrumental methods of investigation can confirm pulmonary arterial
hypertension:
A. bronchography
B. fluorography
C. ECG
D. ECHO
E. spirometry
66. What level of systolic pressure in the pulmonary artery is considered normal:
A. 25-30mmHg
B. 50-60 mm Hg
C. 100-200mm water column
D. 25-30mm water column
E. 70-80 mm Hg
67. Coughing is:
of breathing
B. arbitrary or involuntary reflex act of protection and self-cleaning of the respiratory

tract from foreign bodies, mucus, pus and sputum
E. sputum mucus or purulent character during the day
68. Hemoptysis is:
of breathing
B. arbitrary or involuntary reflex exhalation, act of protection and self-cleaning of the respiratory
tract from foreign bodies, mucus, pus and sputum
E. agonizing "barking" cough
69. What respiratory sounds are heard in the lung cavity formation syndrome with the level of
fluid communicating with the bronchus?
A. vesicular breathing
B. crepitus
C. bronchial breathing
D. wheezing dry
E. wheezing moist sonorous, large and medium bubble
70. What is the distinguishing feature of transudate?

A. Fluid density above 1015.
B. turbid liquid.
C. Protein content is more than 3%.
D. Trial Rivalta negative.
E. Trial Rivalta positive.
71. Name the syndrome in which on both sides of the symmetrical parts of the chest are
determined: weakened vocal tremor, boxed sound, weakened vesicular breathing.
A. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity.
B. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
C. Increased airiness of the lung tissue.
D. Compaction of the lung tissue.
E. Presence in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
72. In a patient in the area of the projection of the lower lobe of the right lung, enhanced voice
trembling, dull percussion sound, bronchial breathing, enhanced bronchophony are determined.
What syndrome are we talking about?
A. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity.
B. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
C. Increased airiness of the lung tissue.
D. Compaction of the lung tissue.
E. Education in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
73. Name the syndrome in which over one half of the rib cage the vocal trembling, the tympanic
sound is sharply weakened, the respiratory sounds are not heard.
A. Compaction of the lung tissue.
B. Increased airiness of lung tissue.
C. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity.
D. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
E. Education in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
74. Name the syndrome in which in the area of the projection of the lobe of the lung are
determined: increased voice tremor, dull sound, weakened vesicular breathing, crepitus.
A. Increased airiness of the lung tissue.
B. Compaction of the lung tissue.
C. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity.
D. Education in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
E. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
75. Name the syndrome in which both halves of the chest reveal: weakened voice trembling,
boxed sound, weakened vesicular breathing and dry "wheezing" wheezing, mainly during the
extended expiratory phase.
A. Compaction of the lung tissue.
B. Education in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
C. Violation of bronchial patency (broncho-obstructive).
D. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
E. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
76. A patient in the area of the projection of the lower lobe on the right sharply weakened vocal
tremor, with percussion dull sound, breathing noises are not heard. Name the syndrome.
A. Syndrome seal lung tissue.
B. Syndrome of air accumulation in the pleural cavity.
C. Syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
D. Syndrome violation of the patency of the bronchi.
E. Syndrome of increasing the airiness of the lung tissue.
77. Name the syndrome in which vocal tremor, tympanic sound, amphoraic breathing and moist
large-bubbly sonorous rales are enhanced in a limited area in the projection of the upper lobe of
the lung.
A. Syndrome seal lung tissue.
B. Syndrome violation of the patency of the bronchi.
C. Syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity.
D. Syndrome of education in the lung cavity, communicating with the bronchus.
E. Syndrome of increasing the airiness of the lung tissue.
78. Name the syndrome in which unilateral recession of the supra- and subclavian fossae is
detected, voice tremor is not performed in the projection of the upper lobe, a dull percussion
sound and breathing is not heard.
A. Syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity.
B. Syndrome compression atelectasis.
C. Obstructive atelectasis syndrome.
D. Syndrome violation of bronchial patency.
E. Syndrome of forming cavity in the lung, communicating with the bronchus.
79. The vital capacity of the lungs is ....

A. The volume of air that a person is able to exhale during the deepest breath after the
maximum inhalation
B. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air with quiet breathing
C. Air volume, determined at the fastest forced expiration
D. Breathing volume multiplied by breathing rate
E. Volume of air exhaled in the first second
80. Pulse oximetry is ...

A. Invasive method for determining blood gas composition
B. Non-invasive method for determining blood gas composition
C. Method for the determination of blood oxygen saturation
D. Method for determination of blood saturation with carbon dioxide
E. Method for determining respiratory rate in one minute
81. A pronounced decrease in FVC and a decrease in FEV1 is observed when ...
A. Syndrome of forming cavity in the lung, communicating with the bronchus.
B. Syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
C. Syndrome lung tissue compaction
D. Syndrome violation of bronchial patency
E. Syndrome of air accumulation in the pleural cavity
82. The most sensitive parameter for the determination of bronchial obstruction during
spirometry is ...
A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. VC
D. MVV
E. LVV
83. Peak flow measurement allows you to measure ....

A. Maximum inspiratory speed
B. peak expiratory flow rate
C. Forced expiration volume in the first second
D. VC
E. MVV
84. In which syndrome the main complaint is a cough with a separation of purulent and
sometimes offensive sputum in a daily amount of more than 100ml:
A. When focal compaction of the lung tissue
B. With a fractional compaction of the lung tissue.
C. In the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity.
D. If there is a cavity in the lung after opening.
E. With bronchial obstruction syndrome.
85. What syndrome is characterized by attacks of expiratory dyspnea:

A. seals lung tissue
B. the presence of air in the pleural cavity.
C. the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity.
D. having a cavity in the lung.
E. bronchial obstruction.
86. The patient complains of shortness of breath. On examination, it looks like a pink puffer. The
rib cage bulges in the lower side regions, the intercostal spaces are wide, the course of the ribs
approaches the horizontal, and the supraclavicular fossae are erupted. With topographic
percussion, the lower boundaries of the lungs are shifted down one edge. What syndrome are we
talking about:
A. syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue
C. syndrome of air in the pleural cavity.
D. syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity.
E. Lung cavity syndrome.
87. A patient has a complaint of cough with a separation of mucopurulent sputum, shortness of
breath on exertion. During auscultation over the entire surface of the lungs is determined hard
breathing, dry buzzing and whistling wheezing. What syndrome are we talking about:
A. compaction syndrome of the lung tissue
B. syndrome of air in the pleural cavity.
C. syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity.
D. Lung cavity syndrome
88. The patient complains of fever up to 39 ° C, chills, heaviness in the left half of the chest,
shortness of breath. With topographic percussion, the lower limit of the left lung passes through
the line of Demoiso. Below the line of the Demoiso on the affected side is determined the
absence of voice tremor. During auscultation in this zone, breathing is not heard. What syndrome
are we talking about:
89. A patient coughing out 300 ml of purulent sputum, which, upon standing, was divided into
three layers. What syndrome are we talking about?
90. The patient felt a sudden pain in the left side of the chest. On examination, the left half of the
chest bulges, lags behind in the act of breathing. Voice trembling on the left is amplified, with
percussion a tympanic sound is determined. What pathology are we talking about?
91. The patient complains of fever up to 39.6 ° C, chills, pain in the right half of the chest,
shortness of breath, mostly dry cough. On examination, there is a blush on the right cheek,
herpeslabialis, the right half of the chest lags behind in the act of breathing, voice tremor is
enhanced in the lower parts of the right lung. At auscultation in the same area crepitus is heard.
What syndrome are we talking about:
B. Syndrome compaction of the lung tissue
D. syndrome of the presence of bronchiectasis in the lung.
92. Sputum has a purulent character, three-layer, microscopic examination reveals a large
number of leukocytes, red blood cells, elastic fibers. Which of the following syndromes is
characterized by such sputum:
93. In the study of respiratory function is determined:
FVC - 70%; FEV1 - 45%; Tiffno index - 64%. In which syndrome observed such changes:
A. compaction syndrome of the lung tissue
B. syndrome of air in the pleural cavity.
C. bronchial obstruction syndrome
E. Lung cavity syndrome
94. When does pathological bronchial respiration occur?

A. in the syndrome of violation of bronchial patency
B. compaction syndrome of the lung tissue
C. In the syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue
D. In the syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
E. With gas accumulation syndrome in the pleural cavity
95. What method of diagnosis of bronchiectasis of the following is the leading one:
A. radiography
B. spirometry
C. bronchoscopy
D. bronchography
E. fluorography
96. The feature of pain syndrome in dry pleurisy:

A. short-term
B. long
C. is associated with coughing and breathing
D. stopped by nitroglycerin
E. is associated with physical activity
97. X-ray signs of the lung tissue compaction syndrome are:

A. the absence of pulmonary pattern, the presence of gas in the pleural cavity
B. The presence of a rounded shade with fluid level
C. the presence of inhomogeneous non-intensive shadow within a fraction without clear
boundaries
D. the presence of a homogeneous intense shadow with distinct boundaries
E. increased transparency of the lung fields
98. Examination and palpation of the heart area of a patient with a chronic pulmonary heart can
reveal the following abnormalities:
A. heart "hump";
B. precordial and epigastric pulsation;
C. spilled, shifted to the left apical impulse;
D. Systolic tremor along the left edge of the sternum
E. keeled chest
99. Which examination is decisive in addition to the clinical criteria for making a diagnosis of
lung tissue compaction syndrome:
A. respiratory function
B. bronchoscopy
C. X-ray of the chest
D. complete blood count
E. sputum analysis
100. With chronic pulmonary heart notes

A. Left and right ventricular hypertrophy
B. dilatation of the right ventricle and left atrial hypertrophy
C. Thickening of the interventricular septum and right atrium
D. hypertrophy and dilatation of the left heart
E. hypertrophy and dilatation of the right heart
101. The most reliable method for the diagnosis of bronchiectasis of the following is
A. fibrobronchoscopy
B. spirography
C. High Resolution Computed Tomography
D. open lung biopsy
E. X-ray
102. Indicate the objective characteristic characteristic of pulmonary hypertension:

A. Accent II tone over the pulmonary artery
B. systolic murmur at the base of the xiphoid process
C. severe shortness of breath
D. enlarged liver
E. peripheral edema
103. Pleural friction noise occurs when:

A. the presence in the alveoli (near-wall) of a small amount of exudate or transudate;
B. inflammation of the pleura (“dry” pleurisy);
C. Filling the alveoli with full exudate or transudate;
D. Cluster of viscous mucus in the large bronchi;
E. Cluster of viscous mucus in the small bronchi and / or their spasm.
104. What changes can be found on palpation of the chest above the fluid during exudative
pleurisy?
A. palpable sensation of pleural friction noise;
B. weakening of voice jitter;
C. weakening or disappearance of voice jitter;
D. a slight increase in voice jitter.
E. voice tremor does not change
105. What are the data auscultation with exudative pleurisy above the fluid?
A. bronchial respiration;
B. vesicular respiration;
C. vesicular respiration weakened or absent;
D. amphoric respiration;
E. pleural friction noise.
106. For which syndrome is hemoptysis most characteristic?

B. syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
C. syndrome of accumulation of fluid and gas in the pleural cavity
D. lung cavity syndrome
107. What is the pathological type of the chest is characterized by a pronounced elongation of
the anteroposterior size due to the protruding sternum?
A. emphysematous
B. paralytic
C. rachitic
D. Funnel chest
E. navicular thorax
108. At what pathological type of the chest is marked swelling of the posterolateral regions,
expansion of the intercostal spaces, participation of the auxiliary muscles in the act of breathing?
A. emphysematous
B. paralytic
C. rachitic
D. Funnel chest
E. navicular thorax
109. What is the location of the lower border of the right lung in the mid-clavicular line in a
healthy person of normostenic body type:
A. YI rib
B. YII rib
C. YIII rib
D. IX rib
E. X rib
110. What is the location of the lower border of the lung in the mid-axillary line in a healthy
person of the normostenic body type:
A. YI rib
B. YII rib
C. YIII rib
D. IX rib
E. X rib
111. A 25-year-old patient turned to a family doctor with complaints of coughing with a
discharge of a difficult-to-separate sputum of mucopurulent character, fever up to 38 degrees C.
From the anamnesis: she became ill acutely after hypothermia. When auscultation listened finely
wheezing left in the subscapularis area. There is also determined enhanced bronchophony and
dullness of percussion sound. In general blood analysis is marked leukocytosis and accelerated
ESR. Determine the syndrome:
A. Syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue
B. Syndrome lung tissue seal
C. Syndrome of air in the pleural cavity.
D. The syndrome of the presence of bronchiectasis in the lung.
E. Syndrome of the cavity in the lung.
112. A patient of 50 years old, for 2 weeks, notes weakness, pain in the right-hand chest. Fever,
cough with purulent sputum. On the radiograph in the upper lobe on the right is determined by a
rounded formation of 3 cm in diameter, filled with liquid. The most likely diagnosis:
D. Syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity.
113. A characteristic radiological sign of emphysema is:

A. Strengthening of the vascular pattern in the lungs
B. depletion of vascular pattern in the lungs, the expansion of the intercostal spaces
C. raising the diaphragm, lowering the transparency of the lung tissue
D. reduction of intercostal spaces
E. compaction of the roots of the lungs
114. Pleural friction noise ...

A. listens more often on expiration
B. listened during inhalation and exhalation.
C. weakens after coughing
D. worse after coughing
E. Bugs only while inhaling.
115. A 22-year-old man turned to the emergency department complaining of the appearance of
severe shortness of breath after being kicked in the side. BH - 40 in 1 minute. Body temperature
is normal. With auscultation - easing breathing on the right. Estimated diagnosis:
D. Syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity.
116. Specify the main mechanism of the appearance of pathological bronchial respiration:
A. reduced lung tissue elasticity
B. conduction of laryngo-tracheal respiration to the surface of the chest (with a change in
its timbre) during compaction of the lung or the presence of a cavity in it connected to the
bronchus
C. bronchoconstriction (spasm, viscous sputum)
D. the presence of a small center of compaction of the lung tissue, surrounded by unchanged
alveoli
E. increased alveolar wall vibration during breathing
117. Specify the main mechanism of the appearance of hard breathing:

A. reduced lung tissue elasticity
B. Laryngotracheal breathing on the surface of the thorax (with a change in its timbre) lung
consolidations or the presence of a cavity in it connected to the bronchus
C. bronchoconstriction (spasm, viscous bronchial secretion)
D. the presence of a small center of compaction of the lung tissue, surrounded by unchanged
alveoli
E. increased alveolar wall vibration during breathing
118. Respiratory rate in a healthy person alone is:

A. 10-12 respiratory movements per minute
B. 16-20 respiratory movements per minute
C. 20-25 breaths per minute
D. 25-30 respiratory movements per minute
E. More than 30 respiratory movements per minute
119. Give the characteristic of breathing in inspiratory dyspnea:

A. constant amplitude
B. Superficial
C. difficult and prolonged breathing
D. difficult and prolonged exhalation
E. difficult to inhale and exhale
120. Give a characteristic breathing during expiratory dyspnea:

A. constant amplitude
B. Superficial
C. difficult and prolonged breathing
D. difficult and prolonged exhalation
E. difficult to inhale and exhale
121. The expansion of the affected side of the chest, smoothing of the intercostal space,
weakening or absence of voice tremor, tympanic percussion sound, weakened vesicular
breathing are characteristic of the syndrome;
A. increased airiness of the lungs;
B. seals lung tissue;
C. the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity;
D. the presence of air in the pleural cavity;
E. cavity in the lung.
122. The most effective method of radiation diagnosis for the determination of small quantities
of fluid in the pleural cavity is?
A. magnetic resonance imaging;
B. radionuclide diagnosis;
C. radiography of the chest;
D. Ultrasound examination of the pleural cavities
E. fluorography.
123. What is characterized by emphysema of the lungs:

A. a decrease in lung capacity
B. increased residual lung volume
C. a decrease in lung minute volume
D. development of respiratory acidosis
E. reduced residual lung volume
124. Sputum discharge "full mouth" is observed in case of

A. increased airiness of the lungs;
B. seals lung tissue;
C. the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity;
D. the presence of air in the pleural cavity;
E. cavity in the lung.
125. What is the main respiratory noise most often heard with lobar inflammatory compaction?
A. weakened or weakened vesicular respiration
B. Amphora breath
D. hard breathing
E. Mixed bronchovesicular respiration
126. Indicate the irreversible component of bronchial obstruction:

A. bronchospasm;
B. inflammatory edema of the bronchial mucosa;
C. local expansion of the bronchial wall;
D. stenosis and obliteration of the lumen of the bronchi, as well as their expiratory collapse.
E. hypersecretion
127. The most reliable auscultatory sign of bronchial obstruction is:

A. Wet fine wheezing
B. crepitus
C. prolonged exhalation, dry rales
D. bronchial respiration
E. weakened vesicular respiration
128. The low voluntary ventilation (LVV) is the amount of air that:
A. ventilated through the lungs for 1 minute;
B. enters the lungs for 1 respiratory cycle;
C. as much as possible exhale after a deep breath;
D. as much as you can exhale after a normal breath
E. is inhaled and exhaled with calm breathing.
129. What ensures a quiet exhalation after inhalation is normal?

A. contraction of the small bronchi
B. contraction of expiratory muscles
C. contraction of the diaphragm
D. relaxation of expiratory muscles
E. relaxation of the inspiratory muscles
130. What is the minimum amount of fluid in the pleural cavity determined by physical
examination?
A. more than 100 ml
B. more than 500 ml
C. more than 1 l
D. 1.5 liters or more
E. more than 300 ml
131. Characteristics of the cavity in the lung, connected with the bronchus:
A. blunting, impaired breathing and bronchophony, displacement of the mediastinum in the
opposite direction
B. The same, but the bias towards blunting
C. Dullness with tympanic sound, amphora breathing, large bubble rales
D. blunting, bronchial respiration, enhanced bronchophony
E. inspiratory dyspnea, lung volume reduction, crepitus
132. The clinical sign of right ventricular hypertrophy in patients with pulmonary heart
syndrome is
A. Enhanced 2nd tone on the pulmonary artery
B. ripple 3-4 intercostal space to the left of the sternum
C. reinforced spilled apical impulse
D. precordial and epigastric pulsations
E. Offset relative dullness of the heart to the left
133. What is the purpose of using an additional technique for auscultation of the lungs - pressing
the stethoscope on the chest?
A. to distinguish pleural friction noise from crepitus and wheezing
C. in order to distinguish dry rales from wet rales
D. for better hearing of vesicular breathing
134. What value of blood oxygen saturation (SaO2) of the following can be considered normal?
A. ≥86%
B. ≥90%.
C. ≥95%
D. ≥76%
E. ≥69%
135. The respiratory volume is:

A. the maximum amount of air inhaled after the end of a normal breath;
B. the maximum amount of air exhaled after the end of a normal exhalation;
C. volume of inhaled or exhaled air;
D. the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration;
E. Maximum expiratory volume for the first second.
136. Residual lung volume is:

A. the maximum amount of air inhaled after the end of a normal breath;
B. the maximum amount of air exhaled after the end of a normal exhalation;
C. volume of inhaled or exhaled air;
D. the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration;
E. maximum expiratory volume in the first second;
137. What is the most likely reason for the limited mobility of the lower edges of the lungs?
A. bronchial obstruction
B. respiratory failure
C. atrophy of the respiratory muscles
D. Increased airiness of lung tissue
E. compaction of the lung tissue
138. A 15-year-old patient was admitted with complaints of cough with discharge of
mucopurulent sputum up to 200 ml per day, with an unpleasant smell, temperature rise up to 38.2
° С, shortness of breath. Since childhood, cough with purulent sputum often worries.
Auscultatory to the right below the angle of the scapula in a limited area, sonorous moist
various-sized wheezes are heard. The most likely diagnosis:
A. Syndrome of bronchial obstruction
B. Syndrome increased airiness of the lung tissue
C. Syndrome seal lung tissue
D. Syndrome of air in the pleural cavity.
E. Syndrome presence of bronchiectasis in the lung.
139. What changes on the ECG do you expect to receive in a patient with a chronic pulmonary
heart?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Left atrial hypertrophy
D. Reduced ECG voltage
E. Pathological Q wave
140. In laboratory studies of blood in hypoxemia is noted

A. an increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit;
B. decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit;
C. leukopenia and thrombocytopenia;
D. leukocytosis and thrombocytosis;
E. lymphopenia.
5
DEPARTMENT OF PROPEDEUTICS OF INTERNAL DISEASES WITH COURSE OF
ENDOCRINOLOGY
Tests for the 3rd course
GASTROENTEROLOGY
1. In physiological conditions, for how much time food stays in the mouth:
A. 3-5 min
B. 15-20 seconds
C. 10-15 min
D. 5-10 min
E. over 15 minutes
2. An adult tongue normally is :

A. wet, clean and pink
B. dark, mild rash and raids on her
C. pale pink coloration, scurfy
D. papillae on the tongue mild
E. dry, crimson
3. The upper border of normal liver on midclavicular line is:

A. intercostal space in the V
B. at the VI rib
C. in the intercostal space VII
D. VIII in mezhrebere
E. in the IX intercostal space
4. The length of the esophagus is normal:

A. 16-17 cm
B. 40-60 cm
C. 25-30 cm
D. 10-20 cm
E. 60-70 cm
5. Percussion size of the liver by Kurlov in normal:
A. 9-8-7 cm
B. 3-4-5cm
C. 11-12-13cm
D. 12-13-14cm
E. 6-7-8 cm
6. Intraventricular pH-metry estimates:

A. the most accurate acid-producing function of the stomach
B. It determines the amount of gastric juice
C. enzyme secretion function of the stomach
D. pepsin-forming function
E. determines the amount of intestinal juice
7. The surface-estimated, methodical deep sliding palpation:

A. Obrazcov- Strazhesko
B. Botkin
C. Corvisart
D. Aunburgerru
E. Ortner
8. Dysphagia is:
A. violation of passage of food through the esophagus
B. chest pain
C. nausea
D. bitter taste in the mouth
E. excessive salivation
9. Painful swallowing is called:

A. dysphagia
B. odynophagia
C. dyspepsia
D. ataxia
E. melena
10. When duodenal sounding portion "A" - is the content of:

A. 12 duodenal ulcer
B. common bile duct
C. the neck of the gall bladder
D. stomach
E. gallbladder
11. When duodenal sounding portion of the "C" - is the content of:
B. stomach
C. common bile duct
D. intrahepatic bile ducts
E. gallbladder
12.Charactericstic of palpation of the pancreas:

A. It has the form of horizontally disposed, soft cylinder with a diameter of about 2-3 cm,
and the movable morbid
B. pancreas has the form of a vertically disposed, cylinder soft, d = 4 cm
C. pancreas has the form of transversely located, soft cylinder, d = 1,5-3 cm, fixed and
painless
D. pancreas looks directly located, soft cylinder, d = 5 cm, mobile and painless
E. has the form of obliquely positioned, dense cylinder, d = 7 cm, movable, painless
13. The normal pH of basal secretion:

A. pH 1.6-2.6
B. pH 1.0 - 2.0
C. pH 1.2 - 3.0
D. pH 1.6 - 2.0
E. pH 1.6 - 5.0
14. A doctor examining patient with bent fingers to produce jerky movements without
moving away from the abdominal wall. This technique is called:
A. Surface palpation
B. deep palpation
C. Determination of "splashing noise"
D. Definition of "symptom Mendel"
E. auskultation
15. Which lines define the size of the liver by Kurlov?

A. midclavicular line, the middle and the right costal arch
B. midclavicular line, the middle and the left costal arch
C. anterior axillary, median and right costal arch
D. midsternal line, medial, anterior axillary
E. posterior axillary, front axillary and median
16. In diseases of the liver and biliary tract pain irradiates to:
A. left shoulder
B. right scapula
C. hearts
D. waist
E. the left hand
17. Normal spleen length on X rib is:

A. 3-6 cm
B. 5-6 cm
C. 6-8 cm
D. 6-10 cm
E. 6-12 cm
18. Normal spleen diameter is equal to:

A. 4-6 cm
B. 4-8 cm
C. 4-10 cm
D. 6-8 cm
E. 8-10 cm
19. The most typical complain characteristic for the pathology of the esophagus is:
A. dysphagia
B. belching
C. epigastric pain
D. nausea
E. vomiting
20. GERD patients have complaints:

A. diarrhea
B. heartburn
C. nausea
D. burp air
E. abdominal distention
21. Diseases of the esophagus are characterized by:
A. dysphagia, hypersalivation
B. constipation
C. flatulence
D. pain around the navel
E. tenesmus
22. Name the symptom of painful swallowing or pain when passing food through the
esophagus?
A. heartburn
B. odynophagia
C. dysphagia
D. flatulence
E. malabsorption
23. Dyspeptic complaints include:

A. nausea, discomfort in the epigastric region
B. pain in the iliac region
C. dizziness
D. tarry stools
E. generalized weakness
24. Select the most informative method of investigation of patients with diseases of the
esophagus:
A. inspection
B. palpation
C. percussion
D. auscultation
E. esophagoscopy
25. The estimated surface palpation usually begin with:

A. epigastric
B. the left iliac region
C. left hypochondrium
D. the right iliac region
E. right hypochondrium
26. Parietal cells secrete:
A. hydrochloric acid
B. lactic acid
C. gastric mukoprotein
D. mucin
E. pepsin
27. What can be heard normally on auscultation of the stomach of an adult ?

A. noise peritoneum friction
B. splashing sound
C. a sharp increase in the peristalsis of bowel sounds
D. slight rumbling, transfusion fluid
E. the absence of sounds and noises
28. Pain that are characteristic of gastric ulcer:

A. early pain
B. later pain
C. night pain
D. hunger pains
E. stabbing pain
29. Helicobacter pylori infection is a major cause of development:

A. chronic pancreatitis
B. gastric ulcer and 12 duodenal ulcer
C. chronic hepatitis
D. inflammation of the gall bladder syndrome
E. syndrome, inflammation of the pancreas
30. Gastric bleeding is manifested by :
A. hemoptysis
B. hematuria
C. bloody vomit
D. the noise of splashing epigastric empty stomach
E. leukocyturia
31. Which method is the most informative to determine the cause and location of bleeding
from the upper gastrointestinal tract:
A. radiography
B. portomanometriya
C. laparoscopy
D. gastroduodenoscopy
E. tseliakografiya
32. The most informative and most common method in the syndrome of peptic ulcer:
A. irrigoscopy
B. cholangiography
C. esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. duodenal intubation
E. total blood test
33. The most common ulcers in the stomach are located:

A. in subcardiac part
B. in the cardiac part
C. on a small curvature in the antrum
D. on the greater curvature
E. gastric body
34. In healthy individuals the volume of gastric juice secretion in basal (in ml) is:
A. up to 50
B. 50-100
C. 100-140
D. 140-180
E. 100-200
35. Patient S. 37y.o., passed esophagogastroduodenoscopy. On endoscopy: esophagus is

passable, mucous membrane is not changed,cardiac pulp has conventional shapes and
sizes. Stomach normal in shape and size. Hyperemic mucosa in the antrum has deep
ulcerative defect measuring 1.5 -2,0sm folds normal shape and size. Bulb of duodenum has
normal form and size, the mucous is not changed. To determine the cause of stomach
ulcers, which additional tests necessary?
A. X-ray inspection
B. elektrogastroenterografy
C. Study of gastric secretory function
D. study of Helicobacter pylori
E. total protein and its fractions
36. For accurate diagnosis of the syndrome of inflammation of the gastric mucosa is used:
A. gastric analysis
B. fluoroscopy
C. gastroscopy, pH-metry
D. Endoscopy with biopsy
E. irrigoscopy
37. The largest size of gastric ulcers:

A. to 0.3 cm
B. to 0.5 cm
C. 0.3-0.4 cm
D. 2-3 cm and above
E. 0.2sm less
38. Choose localization of ulcers that are characteristic for hunger pains after 1.5 hours
after a meal:
A. pyloric ulcer of the stomach, duodenum ulcer 12
B. ulcers subcardial department
C. ulcers, middle and lower third of the stomach.
D. body of the stomach ulcer
E. ulcers of the greater curvature of the stomach
39. Patient M., aged 35, complained of aching, hungry pain at night in the epigastric
region. Pains go away after a meal. From the history of the disease: for many years
observed with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. Eats irregularly, often fast foods. On
examination: belly is symmetrical, involved in the act of breathing. On palpation:
Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom is negative, Mendel's positive symptom. What kind of
syndrome is to think the doctor?
A. syndrome, inflammation of the gallbladder
B. bleeding from stomach ulcers
C. syndrome of peptic ulcers
D. malabsorption syndrome
E. syndrome maldigestion
40. Hyperchlorhydria hypersecretion and gastric ulcers have characteristic localization

in :
A. esophagus
B. small curvature of the stomach
C. body
D. duodenum
E. cardiac part of the stomach
41. Black, tarry stool found in bleeding from:

A. stomach and duodenum
B. blind, ascending colon
C. the transverse colon
D. descending and sigmoid colon
E. rectum
42. A direct indication of the presence of ulcers on X-ray examination is:
A. scar body deformation

B. folds convergence
C. "Niche" symptom
D. evacuation change
E. dyskinesia gatekeeper
43. On physical examination, patients with peptic ulcer syndrome marked tenderness to
percussion in epigastric. This is a symptom of :
A. Mendel
B. Murphy
C. Ortner
D. Kerr
E. Courvoisier
44. Vomiting 2-3 hours after meals is typical for:
A. ulcers cardiac part of the stomach

B. ulcer of the stomach body
C. ulcer of the stomach antrum
D. pyloric stenosis
E. duodenal ulcer
45. Pain during peptic ulcer decrease or disappear:
A. after vomiting
B. when applying cold
C. after fatty meal
D. when you change the patient's position
E. the application of heat
46. Pigment function of liver is in the serum levels of:

A. cholesterol
B. total protein and protein fractions
C. fibrinogen
D. bilirubin and its fractions
E. glucose
47. The normal serum bilirubin is:

A. 1-3,02 mol / l
B. 8,55-20,5 .mu.mol / l
C. 30,70-40,70 mol / l
D. 40,80-50,80 mol / l
E. 22-25,0 mmol / l
48. Disability, weakness, fatigue, malaise, headaches in patients with liver disease is
indicated by the syndrome:
A. dyspeptic
B. asthenovegetative
C. haemorrhagic
D. hepatolienalis
E. portal hypertension
49. The total protein content in the blood in normal:

A. 65-85 g / l
B. 60-80 g / l
C. 70-90 grams / liter
D. 80-100 g / l
E. 40-55 g / l
50. Localization of pain in liver disease :

A. the left back side
B. umbilical region
C. the right iliac region
D. right upper quadrant
E. left upper quadrant
51. Decreased appetite, heaviness in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting, bloating, stool
disorders in patients with liver disease are the signs of :
A. dyspeptic syndrome
B. hemorrhagic syndrome
C. asthenovegetative syndrome
D. hepatolienal syndrome
52. The rich fat mushy feces is observed when:

A. gastric hypersecretion
B. syndrome of peptic ulcer
C. portal hypertension
D. exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
E. syndrome of gallbladder inflammation
53. Normally albumin in blood:

A. 40-55 g / l
B. 36-50 g / l
C. 70-85 g / l
D. more than 80 g / l
E. less than 20 g / l
54. Normally, Thymol test is:
A. 0-5 units.
B. 5-9 units
C. 10-14 units
D. 15-19 units
E. more than 20
55. Ascites ,enlargement of the saphenous veins of abdominal wall, enlarged spleen,
esophageal varices in patients with liver disease syndrome denotes:
A. asthenovegetative
B. dyspeptic
C. haemorrhagic
D. portal hypertension
E. hepato-splenic
56. Normally, the blood pressure in the portal vein:

A. 50-115mm water column
B. 70-150mm water column
E. 290-360mm water column
57. "Spider nevi" represent:

A. dilation of small blood vessels in the skin
B. intradermal deposits of cholesterol in the form of plaques
C. dermatorrhagia
D. slightly elevated above the skin pulsating angioma
E. bruising
58. Patient M., 50 years old, complaints on admission: an increase in the abdomen, general
weakness, poor appetite, weight loss. From anamnesis: 2 years ago after a visit to the
dentist was ill, she suffered a viral hepatitis. Skin and mucous membrane are pale, palmar
erythema, chest and shoulders "spider nevi". On examination, the abdomen is in the
supine position with the flattened sides of the protrusion in, percussion dull sound is
determined in these departments, palpation - a positive symptom of "fluctuations". The
liver protruded from under the costal margin 1.5-2 cm, thick consistency. Lower edge of
the spleen is palpable. Select the basic syndrome.
A. hemorrhagic syndrome
B. suprarenal jaundice syndrome
C. obstructive jaundice syndrome
D. portal hypertension syndrome
E. maldigestion syndrome
59. Signs of liver failure syndrome:

A. albumin reduction
B. increase in the total protein content
C. albumin increase
D. increased activity of the enzymes ALT, AST
E. decrease in the activity of enzymes ALT, AST
60. Blood test in syndrome of hepatocellular insufficiency shows:

A. decreased albumin
B. increased hemoglobin levels
C. increased total protein level
D. increases the number of red blood cells
E. increased prothrombin index
61. In hepatic jaundice hyperbilirubinemia is due to:

A. conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
B. conjugated bilirubin
C. bile acids
D. free bilirubin
E. glucose oxidase
62. Skin itching in Liver disease is characteristic for?
A. stock duodeno-gastric reflux

B. an increase of bile acids in the blood against the backdrop of severe cholestasis
C. violation synthetic (protein-) liver function
D. heart failure with the expressed accompanying myocardial dystrophy
E. reducing detoxifying liver function with respect to protein breakdown products
63. Cytolysis syndrome that develops during liver damage is characterized by:
A. increased ALT, AST, LDH
B. increase in prothrombin level
C. increase in total protein and albumin
D. no laboratory changes
E. reducing thymol
64. In the suprarenal jaundice in the blood is detected:

A. an increase of unconjugated bilirubin
B. lowering of unconjugated bilirubin
C. increase in ketone bodies
D. lowering ketone bodies
E. an increase of conjugated bilirubin
65. In suprarenal jaundice what is found in the urine:

A. elevated levels urobilin
B. reduced content urobilinoides
C. elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin
D. lowering the content of conjugated bilirubin
E. urine unchanged
66. In the suprarenal jaundice what is detected in the stool:

A. elevated levels stercobilin
B. reduced content stercobilin
C. aholich feces
D. tarry stool (melena)
E. lack stercobilin
67. In the horizontal position abdomen is soft, side sections swell (frog belly) suggests:
A. obesity
B. the presence of large intra-abdominal tumors
C. flatulence
D. fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity
E. enlarged liver
68. "Palmar eritema", represent:
A. intradermal deposits of cholesterol in the form of plaques

B. bleeding into the skin
C. petechiasis
D. symmetrical reddening of thenar and hypothenar
E. bruising
69. Skin color with obstructive jaundice:

A. pale lemon yellow tinge
B. orange-yellow
C. dark greenish
D. Leather is not changed
E. bronzing
70. The projection (localization) of the gallbladder is equal to:

A. the point of intersection of the outer edge of the right rectus abdominis with the costal
arch
B. under the lower edge of the liver, outwards from the edge of the right lateral rectus
C. in the left upper quadrant
D. at the intersection of the outer edge of the left rectus abdominis with the costal arch
E. in the left iliac region
71. The bleeding from the nose, gums, uterine bleeding, cutaneous bleeding,
bleeding of esophageal varices in patients with liver diseases designate syndrome:
B. dyspeptic
C. haemorrhagic
E. hepatolienal
72. The wall thickness of the gallbladder by ultrasound in the standard is:
A. not more than 2 mm
B. 5-6 mm
C. 3-4 mm
D. 7-8 mm
E. 8-10 mm
73. The gallbladder contracts under the influence of :

A. gastrin
B. pancreatic juice
C. cholecystokinin
D. secretin
E. of hydrochloric acid
74. Main function of bile is:

A. emulsification of fats
B. carbohydrate hydrolyzing
C. split proteins
D. split of fat
E. increases of the secretion gastrin
75. In hypomotor dyskinesia of gallbladder observed:

A. increase in the tone of the gall bladder
B. decreased tone of the gallbladder with bile stasis
C. reduction of the initial dimensions of the gallbladder
D. accelerated emptying of the gallbladder
E. increasing the motor activity of the gall bladder and biliary tract
76. "False jaundice" occurs when:

A. hemolytic jaundice
B. receiving a large amount of carotene from food
C. iron supplementation
D. liver failure
E. peptic ulcer
77. Which of the methods are used for the diagnosis of the biliary tract.
A. oral cholecystography
B. ultrasound procedure
C. nuclear magnetic resonance
D. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
E. intravenous cholangiography
78. What can trigger the attack of biliary colic :

A. overheating or undercooling
B. abundant intake of fatty foods
C. smoking
D. bad dream
E. poor appetite
79. Cholecystography - is X-ray methodic of :

A. portal vein
B. gallbladder
C. splenic vein
D. celiac artery
E. bulbs of duodenum
80. Characteristic for hyperkinetic biliary dyskinesia:

A. acute colic pain in the right upper quadrant
B. body weight loss
C. increased body temperature
D. hepatomegaly
E. splenomegaly
81. The method of physical examination to determine the upper and lower boundaries of
the liver:
A. inspection
B. deep palpation
C. percussion
D. auscultation
E. estimated surface palpation
82. The following is true for hypokinetic biliary dyskinesia:

A. acute colic pain in the right upper quadrant radiating to the right shoulder blade, shoulder
B. hepatomegaly
C. amount of bile in the portions B rises to 100-150 ml at duodenal intubation
D. Body temperature decrease
E. sharp pain in the left upper quadrant
83. In hypermotor gallbladder dyskinesia we observe:

A. decreased tone of the gall bladder
B. spasm of the sphincter of Oddi and Lyutkense
C. increasing the initial size of the gallbladder
D. slowing down the emptying of the gallbladder
E. reduction in motor activity of the gallbladder and bile ducts
84. Pain like a band in the upper abdomen is observed in pathology:

A. stomach
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. cecum
E. sigmoid colon
85. Point De Garden’s - is:

A. the projection of the sphincter of Oddi
B. Pancreatic body projection
C. the initial part of the pancreas
D. the projection of the pancreatic head
E. projection cardiac of the stomach
86. Intradermal deposition of cholesterol in the century as yellow plaques called?

A. petechial rash
B. xanthelasmatosis
C. telangiectases
D. hematoma
E. palmar erythema
87. Gold standard evaluation failure of exocrine pancreatic function is:

A. determination of the activity of pancreatic elastase in feces
B. microscopic examination of feces
C. secretin-probe test pankreazimin
D. determination of blood amylase and trypsin
E. determination of urine amylase and trypsin
88. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is characterized by:

A. increased alkaline phosphatase
B. presence of unconjugated bilirubin in the urine
C. hypoglycemia
D. steatorrhea, kreatorrhea, amylorrhea
E. raising the general level of protein in the blood
89. The defeat of the pancreatic head pain is defined:

A. point De Garden
B. at Mayo-Robson
C. at Kacha
D. point Mallet-Guy
E. zone Shaffer's
90. Zone Gubergriz’s:

A. It reflects the initial portion of the body of the pancreas
B. It reflects the tail of the pancreas
C. It corresponds to the projection of the sphincter of Oddi
D. corresponds to the body of the pancreas
E. It reflects the terminal portion of the body of the pancreas
91. A sharp pain during effleurage in the projection of the gallbladder at the height of
inspiration - is a symptom of :
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
C. Obraztsov - Murphy
D. Ortner
E. Musso - George's
92. The pain of effleurage edge of the right costal arch brush - it's a symptom:
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
D. Ortner
E. Musso George's
93. Pain with pressure in between the legs of sternocleidomastoid muscle on the right - it's a
symptom:
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
D. Ortner
E. Musso - George's
94. In duodenal intubation detection of portion "B" of a large amount of leucocytes and
increase of gallbladder epithelial cells indicates:
A. an inflammation of the gall bladder
B. peptic ulcers
C. inflammation of the duodenum
D. inflammation of the pancreas
E. dyskinesia of the gallbladder
95. Stool frequency constipation:
A. 1 time per day

B. 1 time in 2 days
C. stool delay more than 3 days
D. 2 times a day
E. 3 times per day
96. Pain in the right iliac region arise in pathology:
A. cecum
B. sigmoid colon
C. transverse colon
D. rectum
E. stomach
97. In the normal intestine percussion determines

A. tympanic sound
B. dull sound
C. dull sound
D. box sound
E. resonance sound
98. Superficial palpation reveals:
A. the consistency of the body
B. intestinal localization
C. voltage abdominal wall
D. body diameter
E. body surface
99. Flatulence - is:
A. frequent stools
B. false urge to defecate
C. abdominal distention
D. tarry stools
E. pain around the navel.
100. A sigmoidoscopy examines the colon mucosa in the distance (cm):

A. 45
B. 50
C. 35
D. 40
E. 50
101. A colonoscopy allows to explore:
A. Only the cecum

B. only the sigmoid colon
C. only the rectum and part of the sigmoid colon
D. Only rectum
E. the entire large intestine
102. X-ray examination of the large intestine - is:
A. colonoscopy
B. sigmoidoscopy
C. irrigoscopy
D. laparoscopy
E. duodenography
103. Signs of maldigestion syndrome according to the analysis of feces:

A. steatorrhea, kreatoreya
B. aholic feces
C. desquamated epithelium
D. melena
E. positive reaction Gregersen
104. Gregersen's reaction makes it possible to determine in the stool:
A. leukocytes
B. occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract
C. eggs worm
D. dysbiosis
E. neutral fat
105. If a large number of muscle fibers is determined in the stool, it's:
A. stearrhea
B. kreatorrhea
C. lientereya
D. melena
E. amylorrhea
106. Patient S., 46 years old, complaints on admission: an enlargement of the abdomen,
general weakness, heaviness in the right upper quadrant, jaundice of the skin. From the
history of the disease. During the year, there is a gradual increase of the above symptoms.
As a child, he moved Botkin's disease, alcohol abuse. What research tools are needed to
clarify the syndrome?
A. cholecystography
B. duodenal intubation
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. laparoscopic abdominal organs
E. microscopic analysis of feces
107. Malabsorption is :
A. syndrome caused by malabsorption of nutrients in the small intestine
B. syndrome caused by biliary dyskinesia
C. syndrome caused by impaired blood flow in the portal vein
D. syndrome caused by violation of bilirubin formation and excretion of bile ducts
E. syndrome caused by amplification in bile Incoming intestines
108. Primary malabsorption occurs when:
A. vitamin B12 deficiency
B. hereditary deficiency of lactase
C. hypoholii
D. enteritis
E. gastritis
109. In malabsorption syndrome swelling is associated with:

A. hypoproteinemia
B. portal hypertension
C. circulatory failure
D. anemia
E. thyroid dysfunction
110. The sample-Triboulet Vishnevsky is performed to:

A. identifying squirrel exudation
B. determination of occult blood in the stool
C. determining the bacterial overgrowth
D. identifying lactase deficiency
E. detection of Helicobacter pylori infection
111. Feces of an adult normally release:
A. unconjugated bilirubin
C. urobilin
D. stercobilin
E. urobilinogen
112. The complete absence of hydrochloric acid and pepsin in gastric juice is called:
A. hyperacidity
B. Achille
C. hypochlorhydria
D. achlorhydria
E. hypersecretion
113. On gross examination feces in normal:

A. polifekaliya
B. unformed liquid
C. elegant, brown
D. shine stool
E. mushy
114. Malabsorption syndrome of Vitamin A deficiency leads to:

A. night blindness
B. subcutaneous hemorrhage
C. neurological disorders
D. dermatitis
E. esophagitis
115. In a normal sigmoid colon is palpated in:
A. 90-95%
B. 80-85%
C. 60-70
D. 50-60%
E. not detectable
116. If in the feces are determined by a large number of neutral fat, it's this:
A. stearrhea
B. kreatoreya
C. lientereya
D. amylorrhea
E. melena
117. In diseases of the small intestinal pain is observed:

A. around the navel
B. the right-hand side of the area
C. in the left iliac region
D. epigastric
E. in the right upper quadrant
118. What information does the positive symptom waves (fluctuations) in the percussion
bimanual palpation of the abdomen give?
A. symptom is detected normally;

B. there is free fluid in the abdominal cavity;
C. It has pyloric stenosis;
D. a large amount of gases in the colon (flatulence in patients with colitis);
E. has accumulated liquid contents and gases in the colon (e.g., a patient with acute enteritis).
119. During Diarrhea stool is :
A. 1 time per day

B. 1 time on the second day
C. more than 3 times a day
D. 1 time per day Zoe
E. 1 time per week
120. Schmidt sample was carried out to:
A. identify protein exudation
C. determining the complete cessation of the flow of bile into the intestine
D. identifying novoobrozovaniya
E. identifying ulceration
6
CARDIOLOGY
1. Choose the most correct interpretation of palpation data - a spilled high (dome-shaped)
apical impulse in the VI intercostal space 2 cm outwards from the mid-clavicular line:
A. hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
B. hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
C. hypertrophy of the left atrium
D. right atrial hypertrophy
E. right ventricular hypertrophy
2. Choose the most correct interpretation of palpation data - a pronounced cardiac impulse
and epigastric pulsation:
A. hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
E. Left ventricular hypertrophy
3. Palpation of the heart at the apex reveals a jitter that does not coincide with the pulsation
a. carotis. What heart disease is it typical for?
A. aortic valve insufficiency
B. mitral valve insufficiency
C. aortic stenosis
D. mitral stenosis
E. tricuspid valve insufficiency
4. What clinical situation is characterized by the following changes in the auscultative

picture of the heart: at the apex I tone is weakened, systolic murmur is heard, which is
conducted in the axillary region. What is it?
C. aortic stenosis
D. mitral stenosis
5. Mitral valve is better heard where?

A. in the fifth intercostal space on the left 1.5 cm inwards from the midclavicular line
B. in the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum
C. in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
D. to the right of the sternum in the fourth intercostal space
E. at Botkin-Erb Point
6. The apical impulse is formed by:

A. aortic arch
B. abdominal aorta
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
E. left atrium.
7. Apical impulse with aortic valve insufficiency is going to be:

A. small, weak, limited
B. small, reinforced, limited
C. high, reinforced, spilled
D. small
E. limited
8. For what clinical situation are the following options for changing the boundaries of the
relative dullness of the heart: the right border is 1 cm to the right of the right edge of the
sternum, the left one along the anterior axillary line, the top edge is the third edge?
A. mitral stenosis
B. mitral insufficiency
C. tricuspid valve insufficiency
D. aortic valve insufficiency
E. stenosis of the pulmonary valve
9. What clinical situation is characterized by the following options for changing the
boundaries of the relative dullness of the heart: the right border is 3 cm to the right of the
sternum edge, the left one is 1 cm medially from the left mid-clavicle line, the upper one is
the upper edge of the second rib?
A. mitral stenosis
D. aortic stenosis
E. aortic valve insufficiency
10. What clinical situation is characterized by the following options for changing th e
boundaries of the relative dullness of the heart: the right border is 1 cm to the right of the
sternum edge, the left one is 2 cm outward from the left mid-clavicle line, the top one is II
rib?
A. mitral stenosis
D. aortic malformations
11. Indicate the most characteristic signs of arterial pulsus pulsus dificiens:
A. a sharp weakening or absence of pulsation in a single radial artery
B. a sharp decrease in the magnitude of the pulse in both radial arteries
C. The number of pulse waves in the radial artery is greater than the number of heartbeats.
D. The number of pulse waves in the radial artery is less than the number of
heartbeats.
E. sharp weakening or absence of pulsation in both radial arteries
12. The area of the mitral orifice is normally:

A. 1-2 cm2
B. 3-4 cm2
C. 4-5 cm2
D. 4-6 cm2
E. 2-3 cm2
13. Critical mitral stenosis is:
A. 1 cm2
B. 1.3 cm2
C. 1.5 cm2
D. 1.9 cm2
E. 2 cm2
14. Left ventricular hypertrophy is established when:

A. RV5 + SV1 ≥ 38 mm, R aVL> 11mm
B. RV1> 7mm
C. h. RV5 <RV4
D. R V5-6 <15 mm
E. Availability S.S V5-6
15. Rhythm "quail" in mitral stenosis is:

A. clapping tone I, enhanced tone II and the tone of the opening of the mitral
valve
B. I tone is weakened, II tone is not changed, pathological III tone in diastole
C. I tone is not changed, II tone is weakened, systolic murmur
D. I tone is enhanced, II tone is not changed, mesodiastolic noise
E. I tone is not changed, II tone is not changed, systolic murmur
16. Specify the most informative method for diagnosing mitral valve insufficiency:
A. Auscultation of the heart
B. phonocardiography
C. X-ray of the heart
D. echoppler cardiography
E. coronaroangiophagia
17. The main auscultatory sign of mitral valve insufficiency:

A. diastolic noise in the second intercostal space on the right
B. systolic murmur throughout systole at the top
C. diastolic noise at the Botkin point
D. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space
E. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space on the left
18. A direct sign of mitral valve insufficiency in EchoCG Doppler study:

A. turbulent diastolic flow in the projection of the mitral valve
B. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium during
systole
C. Regurgitation jet from the aorta to the left ventricle
D. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium during
diastoles
E. Stream of regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
19. A direct sign of aortic valve insufficiency in Doppler examination:

A. Regurgitation jet from the right atrium to the right ventricle
B. Regurgitation jet from the left ventricle to the left atrium
C. Regurgitation jet from the right ventricle to the right atrium
D. Regurgitation jet from the aorta to the left ventricle
E. Stream of regurgitation from the pulmonary trunk to the right ventricle
20. Which symptom of the following is pathognomonic for left ventricular heart failure?
A. swelling of the neck veins
B. ascites
C. enlarged liver
D. orthopnea
E. swelling in the legs
21. A pronounced pulsation of the carotid arteries is observed in patients with:

A. aortic stenosis
B. aortic valve insufficiency
C. mitral valve insufficiency
D. tricuspid valve insufficiency
E. Insufficiency valve of the pulmonary artery
22. Which of the heart defects most significantly increases the left atrium?
A. pulmonary artery stenosis
B. Aortic valve insufficiency
C. mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Tricuspid valve insufficiency
23. When accent of II tone on the aorta occurs:

A. hypertension syndrome
B. syndrome of acute coronary insufficiency
C. myocardial inflammation syndrome
D. Pericardial inflammation syndrome
E. chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome
24. Forced position orthopnea facilitates the patient's condition with:

C. chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome
D. left ventricular heart failure syndrome
E. Syndrome of arterial hypotension
25. Typical localization of pain in chronic coronary syndrome

failure:
A. behind the sternum
B. in the left half of the chest, in the apex of the heart
C. in the right side of the chest
D. in the epigastric region
E. in the right hypochondrium
26. Sinus tachycardia is a sinus rhythm with a heart rate.

abbreviations:
A. More than 85 per minute
B. more than 60 per minute
C. more than 75 per minute
D. more than 90 per minute
E. more than 120 per minute
27. What is meant by "mitral face"?
A. Erythematous rash on cheeks and nasal back
B. pallor of face
C. Cyanotic cheek blush
D. hyperemia of the left cheek
E. cyanosis of nasolabial triangle
28. A typical manifestation of heart failure is:

A. dizziness
B. shortness of breath
C. chest pain
D. high blood pressure
E. Headaches
29. When are the atria and ventricles contracted by their own rhythm?
A. with atrioventricular blockade of III degree
B. atrial fibrillation
C. with atrial paroxysmal tachycardia
D. with ventricular premature beats
E. atrial flutter
30. What is characteristic radiographically for aortic valve insufficiency:

A. The aorta is dilated, pulsating deeply, ejects the IV arch
B. protrudes the left atrial appendage
C. protrudes pulmonary trunk
D. Availability of Curly lines
E. aorta dilated in ascending division
31. The appearance on the ECG of a pathological Q wave in acute coronary insufficiency
syndrome is a reflection of:
A. subendocardial myocardial ischemia
B. myocardial necrosis
C. myocardial damage
D. Subepicardial myocardial ischemia
E. scarring myocardium
32. The ECG criterion for chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome is:
A. appearance of abnormal Q wave
B. reduction of the amplitude of the R wave
C. ST segment displacement below the isoelectric line by 1 mm or more
D. ST segment elevation above the isoelectric line more than 1 mm
E. Negative T wave in all chest leads
33. What is the pulse characteristic of aortic valve insufficiency?

A. pulsus celer et altus
B. pulsus rarus et parvus
C. pulsus differens
D. pulsus filiformis
E. pulsus parvus
34. What is the cause of noise in aortic stenosis:

A. Blood regurgitation from the aorta to the left ventricle
B. The expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta.
C. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium
D. Expulsion of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle
E. Blood regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
35. The occurrence of noise in mitral stenosis is caused by:

A. Expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta
B. Regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium
C. Regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium
E. Regurgitation of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle
36. The cause of the noise in the aortic valve insufficiency:

A. Blood regurgitation from the aorta to the left ventricle
B. Blood regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
C. blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium
D. Expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta
E. Expulsion of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle
37. At what defect is the diastolic murmur at the apex heard?

A. mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
38. What changes in echocardiography of the following are a sign of left ventricular hea rt
failure:
A. EF <80%, EDDLV> 5.0 cm
B. EF <50%, EDDLV> 5.5 cm, diffuse hypokinesis of the LV walls
C. EF = 60%, LVPWT-1,2cm
D. EF = 60%, local hypokinesis IVST
E. Echonegative space for LVPWT 10mm
39. For what pathological condition is the “triangular” shape of the heart configuration
characteristic?
A. mitral stenosis
B. tricuspid valve insufficiency
C. aortic valve insufficiency
D. pericardial effusion
E. acute coronary insufficiency
40. Positive venous pulse is characteristic:

A. for mitral stenosis
B. for aortic stenosis
C. for aortic valve regurgitation
D. For tricuspid valve insufficiency
E. for heart failure
41. Pulmonary valve is better listened at:

42. The symptom of "cat's purr" is determined by the method:

A. percussion
B. Auscultation
C. palpation
D. phonocardiography
E. electrocardiography
43. The symptom of "cat's purr" in the apex of the heart is determined by:
A. acute coronary insufficiency
C. stenosis of the left AV opening
D. aortic valve regurgitation
44. The following ECG indicators: the correct rhythm with a heart rate of <60 per min. And
unchanged QRS complexes are characteristic of:
A. sinus arrhythmia
B. blockade of bundle branch foot
C. sinus bradycardia
D. extrasystolic arrhythmia
E. atrial fibrillation
45. Palpation on the basis of the heart reveals a tremor, which coincides with the pulsation
on a. carotis. This is typical for:
A. mitral stenosis
C. aortic stenosis
46. The value of blood pressure measured in a patient at rest and equal to 140/85 mm Hg,
should be considered in accordance with modern guidelines, as
A. 1st degree arterial hypertension
B. 2nd degree of arterial hypertension
C. high normal blood pressure
D. normal blood pressure
E. optimal blood pressure
47. When auscultation of the heart in patients with severe heart failure can be identified:
A. rhythm "quail"
B. protodiastolic gallop rhythm
C. systolic gallop rhythm
D. Additional pericardium tone
E. gain I tone at the top
48. The pulsation of the carotid arteries ("carotid dancing") is a sign:

A. aortic valve regurgitation
C. stenosis of the mirtal valve
D. mitral valve insufficiency
E. Aortic stenosis
49. Complete AV blockade is characterized by:

A. increase the PQ interval
B. independent atrial and ventricular contractions
C. at different RR intervals
D. severe deformity of the ventricular complex
E. falling out of the next h. P and QRS complex
50. II tone with aortic stenosis:

A. weakened on the aorta
B. strengthened on the aorta
C. strengthened at the top
D. weakened at the top
E. not changed on the aorta
51. When aortic stenosis is heard:

A. diastolic murmur at the apex
B. diastolic noise in the second intercostal space on the right
C. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space on the right
D. systolic murmur at the apex
E. systolic murmur on tricuspid valve
52. Paradoxical pulse is determined by

A. heart failure syndrome
B. syndrome of arterial hypertension;
C. coronary insufficiency syndrome;
D. myocardial inflammation syndrome
E. Pericardial inflammation syndrome
53. ECG signs of atrioventricular block I degree:

A. prolongation of the interval PQ> 0.12 sec
B. prolongation of the interval PQ> 0.20 s
C. no P wave
D. deformation of the QRS complex
E. negative T wave
54. Name the components of the first tone.

A. muscular, valvular, vascular
B. muscular, valvular, vascular, atrial
C. muscle, valve
D. Valve, vascular
E. muscular vascular
55. When aortic valve insufficiency is heard

A. systolic murmur at the base of the xiphoid process
B. Protodiastolic noise at Botkin-Erb point
C. systolic murmur at the Botkin - Erb point
D. diastolic murmur at the base of the xiphoid process
E. diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart
56. Amplification of the apical impulse indicates
A. right ventricular hypertrophy
B. hypertrophy of the right atrium
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
57. Accent of tone II on the pulmonary artery is noted when

A. Arterial hypertension
B. pulmonary hypertension
C. left ventricular hypertrophy
D. dilatation of the left ventricle
E. pulmonary valve insufficiency
58. Dysphagia in mitral stenosis is due to:

A. spasm of the esophagus;
B. compression of the esophagus by the enlarged right atrium;
C. compression of the esophagus because of enlarged left atrium;
D. compression of the esophagus by the enlarged pulmonary artery;
E. compression of the esophagus by the dilated left ventricle.
59. Select the symptom complex characteristic of left ventricular heart failure syndrome:
A. swelling of the legs, cough, shortness of breath
B. cough, hemoptysis, choking, orthopnea
C. hemoptysis, swelling of the legs, enlarged liver
D. swelling and pulsation of the neck veins
E. cough, swelling of the legs
60. When mitral valve insufficiency auscultatory is determined:

A. Strengthening of the I tone at the apex of the heart
B. weakening of the I tone at the apex of the heart
C. "click open" mitral valve
D. diastolic murmur at the apex
E. systolic aortic murmur
61. Systolic murmur with stenosis of the aortic mouth is performed

A. To the point of Botkin-Erb
B. on the xiphoid process
C. to the armpit
D. on the neck vessels
E. to the top of the heart
62. Which of the following factors predisposes to the development of coronary insufficiency
syndrome:
A. fasting blood sugar 4.5 mmol / l
B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
C. blood cholesterol 5.0 mmol / l
D. smoking
E. Increased high density lipoprotein
63. Subjective characterization of pain in chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome:

A. compressive, pressing
B. stabbing
C. aching
D. dagger
E. cutting
64. Symptom Musset is observed at

A. Aortic stenosis
B. stenosis of the mirtal valve
C. aortic valve regurgitation
E. mitral valve insufficiency
65. "Heart Hump" occurs when

A. severe left ventricular hypertrophy
B. severe left atrial hypertrophy
C. severe right ventricular hypertrophy
D. severe right atrial hypertrophy
E. severe dilatation of the left atrium
66. A sign of acute left ventricular failure is:

A. choking with choking breath;
B. swelling and pulsation of the veins of the neck;
C. enhanced epigastric ripple;
D. liver enlargement and tenderness
E. swelling of the lower limbs
67. Forced position of the patient sitting, bending forward, is observed when:
A. coronary insufficiency
B. effusion pericarditis;
D. myocarditis
E. Arterial hypertension
68. "Deficit" pulse occurs when

B. heart failure
E. atrioventricular block
69. The upper limit of relative cardiac dullness increases due to

B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. hypertrophy of the right atrium
D. Left atrial hypertrophy
E. dilatation of the left ventricle
70. Which symptom of the following is characteristic of left ventricular heart failure:
A. Lower limb edema
B. enlarged liver
C. inspiratory dyspnea
D. ascites
E. positive venous pulse
71. What symptom of the following is characteristic of right ventricular heart failure:
A. hepatomegaly
B. inspiratory dyspnea
C. symptom Musset
D. dry cough
E. moist rales in the lungs during auscultation
72. Absolute ECG sign of acute coronary insufficiency syndrome:

A. pathological Q wave
B. negative T wave
C. ST interval offset
D. Absence of P-wave
E. prolongation of the PQ interval
73. Diastolic noise with aortic valve insufficiency is better heard:

A. in the second intercostal space on the right
B. at Botkin-Erb Point
C. on the xiphoid process
D. at the apex of the heart
E. on the vessels of the neck
74. The most informative method for diagnosing coronary insufficiency is:
A. ECG
B. veloergometry
C. Echocardiography
D. Coronary angiography
E. Daily ECG monitoring
75. The main method for the diagnosis of cardiac arrhythmia syndrome is:
A. ECHO
B. ECG
C. chest X-ray
E. coronary angiography
76. The most informative method for confirming necrotic changes in the myocardium is
A. determination of erythrocyte sedimentation rate and leukocytes
B. determination of the level of alkaline phosphatase
C. Determination of transaminase level
D. determination of troponin level
E. determination of creatinine level
77. Identification on the ECG of the interval PQ, equal to 0.28 seconds. indicates the
presence of the patient
A. sinoatrial blockade
B. blockade of atrioventricular conduction
C. extrasystolic arrhythmia
D. atrial fibrillation
E. paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
78. The most reliable sign of stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice is
A. increase the left border of the heart
B. facies mitralis
C. mesodiastolic murmur and the presence of a "opening click" mitral
valve at the top
D. smoothness of the waist of the heart during X-ray
E. weakening of the apical impulse
79. For mitral valve insufficiency it is typical:

A. clapping the first tone at the top
B. systolic murmur at the apex
C. increase the boundaries of the heart to the right
D. weakening of the II tone on the aorta
E. diastolic murmur at the apex
80. Blood pressure in aortic valve insufficiency:

A. only systolic increases
B. only diastolic increases
C. systolic and diastolic increases
D. Systolic decreases and diastolic increases
E. does not change
81. Indicate aortic valve insufficiency:

A. 120/90 mm Hg
B. 190/140 mm Hg
C. 160/100 mm Hg
D. 160/40 mm Hg
E. 90/60 mm Hg
82. What can be observed in endocardial inflammation syndrome?

A. leukopenia, lymphocytosis
B. anemia, leukocytosis, accelerated ESR
C. eosinophilia, accelerated ESR
D. anemia, lymphocytosis, accelerated ESR
E. anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
83. Specify the level of blood pressure, corresponding to the I degree of arterial
hypertension:
A. Blood pressure - 150/95 mm Hg
B. Blood pressure - 138/88 mm Hg
C. Blood pressure - 174/108 mm Hg
D. Blood pressure - 202/114 mm Hg
E. Blood pressure - 200/90 mm Hg
84. For the development of coronary insufficiency:

A. increased levels of low density lipoprotein
B. Age over 45
C. hypotension
D. male
E. genetic predisposition
85. Pulsation of the pupils is characteristic of:
A. mitral stenosis;
B. tricuspid insufficiency;
C. Aortic stenosis;
D. tricuspid stenosis;
E. aortic insufficiency
86. Which method is most effective in verifying left ventricular myocardia l hypertrophy:
A. ECG
B. veloergometry
C. Echocardiography
E. transesophageal pacing
87. Which of the following is an unmodified risk factor for the development of coronary
insufficiency:
B. diabetes
C. Arterial hypertension
D. smoking
88. When stenosis of the mouth of the aorta is heard

A. systolic murmur in the apex of the heart, radiating to the axillary region
B. diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart, radiating to the base of the xiphoid process
C. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum,
radiating to the carotid arteries
D. diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum radiating to
the carotid arteries
E. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart radiating to the base of the xiphoid process
89. The weakening of the I tone is observed at:

A. mitral insufficiency
B. tricuspid insufficiency
C. aortic insufficiency
D. mitral stenosis
E. in a healthy person
90. Specify the correct definition of the term "heart push":

A. ripple to the right of the xiphoid process
B. Local ripple in the third intercostal space at the left edge of the sternum
C. diffuse ripple throughout the precardiac area
D. Pulsation in the fourth, fifth, sixth intercostal space at the left border of the relative
dullness of the heart
E. ripple to the left of the xiphoid process
91. To detect pericardial effusion, the most informative method is

A. ECG
B. Coronary angiography
C. Echocardiography
D. X-ray examination of the chest organs
E. phonocardiography
92. Pulse pressure is:
A. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure
B. stroke volume of the left ventricle
C. amount of blood released by the ventricles to systole
D. The amount of blood released by the atria to the ventricles
E. minute heart volume
93. Small, slow, rare pulse is characteristic for:

A. mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
E. thyrotoxicosis
94. Apical impulse for aortic insufficiency:

A. weakened, localized;
B. reinforced, localized;
C. tall, reinforced, spilled;
D. weakened, spilled
E. Reinforced, localized
95. Specify the cause of acute coronary insufficiency:

A. Coronary artery thrombosis
B. Inflammation of the coronary arteries
C. inflammation of the coronary veins
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Left ventricular myocardial hypertrophy
96. A 42-year-old patient has a significant shift in the boundaries of the relative dullness of the
heart to the left, increased apical impulse, a pronounced symptom of “systolic tremor” in the 2nd
intercostal space to the right of the sternum and ibid weakening of the II tone. Which of the
following auscultatory phenomena must necessarily occur in this patient?
A. systolic murmur at the apex
B. diastolic murmur at the apex.
C. systolic murmur above the aorta
D. systolic murmur at xiphoid process
E. diastolic murmur over the aorta
97. The most informative method for confirming the presence of heart disease is:
A. ECG
B. Echocardiography
C. roentgenoscopy of the chest
E. Bicycle ergometry test
98. Large pulse pressure, double Traube tone and duozier noise on the vessels, fast and high
pulse, Musset’s symptoms are characteristic
A. for aortic valve regurgitation
C. for tricuspid valve insufficiency
D. for mitral stenosis
E. for mitral valve insufficiency
99. Indicate the physical sign of pericardial inflammation syndrome:

A. appearance of 3 tones
B. pansystolic noise at the top
C. appearance 4 tones
D. Pericardial friction noise
E. attenuation 1 tone
100. The orthopneic position is:

A. forced sitting position to relieve shortness of breath
B. forced sitting position to relieve pain
C. forced lying position to relieve pain
D. forced standing position to relieve hiccups
E. forced standing position to relieve shortness of breath
101. In case of pathology of which organ of the following, secondary arterial hypertension may
develop:
A. liver
B. adrenal glands
C. stomach
D. vessels of the lower extremities,
E. lungs
102. What is the peculiarity of pain in acute coronary insufficiency:

A. is associated with physical activity
B. Duration over 30 minutes
C. Docked with NTG
D. passes in peace
E. associated with breathing
103. The increase in pulse pressure is observed at:

A. Aortic stenosis
B. aortic insufficiency
C. mitral insufficiency
D. tricuspid insufficiency
E. mitral stenosis
104. Which echocardiography sign is the criterion for the diagnosis of endocardial inflammation
syndrome:
A. vegetation on the valves
B. mitral regurgitation
C. dilatation of the left ventricle
D. cusp perforation
E. calcification of valve cusps
105. Echocardiographic sign of acute coronary insufficiency:

A. diffuse hyperkinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
B. diffuse hypokinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
C. Local hypokinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
D. Local hyperkinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
E. Left ventricular dilatation
106. Target organs for hypertension:
A. Heart, kidneys, brain, fundus vessels and aorta
B. Liver, lungs
C. heart, liver
D. fundus vessels, lungs
E. kidney, heart
107. The area of the mouth of the aorta in the norm is:
A. 1.5-2.5 cm2
B. 4-4.5 cm2
C. 4.5-5.5 cm2
D. 2.5-3.5 cm2
E. 1-2 cm2
108. The tone of the opening of the mitral valve is heard:

A. at the apex of the heart
B. in the second intercostal space on the right at the sternum
C. in the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum
D. at the base of the xiphoid process
109. For stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice characteristic

A. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, aggravated by exhalation
B. Accent and split II tone over the aorta
C. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, aggravated by inspiration
D. Additional high-frequency tone in diastole, separated from tone II by 0.07-0.12 seconds
E. weakening of the I tone at the top
110. The most informative method for the diagnosis of myocardial inflammation syndrome:
A. ECG
B. ECHO
C. Bicycle ergometry
E. radiography
111. What is the symptom characteristic of the appearance of patients with stenosis of the
aortic mouth:
A. diffuse cyanosis of the skin
C. symptom Musset
D. "dancing carotid"
E. capillary pulse
112. Of the listed risk factors for coronary insufficiency, the most significant “triad” is:
A. obesity, hypodynamia, male
B. hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, smoking
C. Arterial hypertension, hypodynamia, obesity
D. Impaired carbohydrate tolerance, obesity, smoking
E. menopause, obesity, hypodynamia
113. A common symptom in the objective status of patients with aortic valve insufficiency
and aortic stenosis is:
A. pallor of the skin
B. symptom Musset
C. pulsation of the carotid, subclavian, temporal, brachial arteries
D. capillary pulse
E. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure
114. For patients with myocardial inflammation syndrome, the following complaints are
most characteristic:
A. pain in the heart, palpitations, shortness of breath
B. pain in the heart, palpitations, fainting
C. pain in the heart, shortness of breath, ascites
D. pain in the heart, fever, dry cough
E. fainting, fever
115. Specify the anti-atherogenic class of lipoproteins:

B. HDL-cholesterol
C. LDL cholesterol
D. triglycerides
E. chylomicrons
116. Click open mitral valve

A. occurs 0.06-0.12 seconds after the closure of the aortic valves
B. characteristic of mitral insufficiency
C. characteristic of aortic stenosis
D. best heard at Botkin-Erb
E. characteristic of aortic insufficiency
117. Paradoxical pulse is:

A. alternation of pulse waves of large and small filling;
B. decrease or disappearance of inhalation pulse waves;
C. discrepancy between the number of pulse waves and the number of heartbeats;
D. unequal pulse wave intervals
E. amplification of the pulse wave on the exhale
118. Name the ECG-sign, which is a reflection of myocardial ischemia:

A. decrease in the amplitude of the R wave
B. Deep, broad Q wave
C. ST segment depression
E. deformation of the P wave
119. Quincke precapillary pulse occurs when:

A. stenosis of the mouth of the aorta;
B. aortic valve insufficiency;
C. mitral stenosis;
D. mitral insufficiency;
E. pulmonary insufficiency.
120. One of the following laboratory indicators confirms the syndrome of acute coronary
insufficiency in a patient with an anginal attack:
A. decreased hemoglobin
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Increased ESR
D. Increased activity of serum troponins
E. lymphocytosis
121. Conduction disturbances include:

A. Extrasystolic arrhythmia
C. paroxysmal tachycardia
D. AV block
E. sinus tachycardia
122. Hypertension is characterized by the following level of increase in blood pressure:

A. ≥130 / 90 mm Hg
B.> 140/100 mm Hg
C. ≥140 / 90 mmHg
D. ≥130 / 80 mm Hg
E. ≥120 / 80 mm Hg
123. The appearance of a large-wave undifferentiated line on the ECG in the absence of a P wave
and a QRS complex indicates:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. ventricular fibrillation
C. heart asystoles
D. ventricular tachycardia
E. extrasystolic arrhythmia
124. When asystole on the ECG is recorded:

A. small wave undifferentiable line
B. large-wave undifferentiable line
C. straight line
D. Absence of P wave and change of QRS form
E. the presence of pauses lasting up to 3 seconds
125. The right border of the absolute dullness of the heart is normally located:
A. on the right edge of the sternum;
B. on the left edge of the sternum;
C. 3 cm medially from the right mid-clavicular line;
D. along the percutaneous right line.
E. on the midclavicular line
126. For the second tone of the heart, the following statement is true:
A. between II and I heart tones a short pause;
B. louder at the base of the heart;
C. coincides with the apical impulse;
D. coincides with the pulse of the carotid arteries;
E. slightly lower and longer than I tone.
127.Acrocyanosis is determined by:

A. on the back
B. on mucous membranes
C. on auricles, nose tip, fingers and toes
D. in the forearm area
E. on the lower limbs
128. The most informative laboratory test confirming the diagnosis of endocardial inflammation
syndrome is:
A. sharp acceleration of ESR
B. anemia
C. neutrophilic leukocytosis
D. leukopenia
E. Positive blood culture at blood culture
129. Accent II tone in the 2nd intercostal space on the right is noted when:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. aortic insufficiency
D. pulmonary arterial hypertension
E. tachycardia
130. What is the level of blood pressure of the following corresponds to the 3rd degree of arterial
hypertension
A. 140/90 mm Hg
B. 180/110 mm Hg
C. 160/100 mm Hg
D. 150/99 mm Hg
E. 170/100 mm Hg
131. Normally, the duration of the ventricular QRS complex:

A. more than 0.12 "
B. More than 0.11 "
C. less than 0.10 "
D. less than 0.14 "
E. less than 0.02 "
132. Wave P on ECG reflects:

A. Depolarization of the interventricular septum
B. depolarization of the left ventricle
C. repolarization of the right ventricle
D. Atrial depolarization
E. repolarization of the left ventricle
133. In mitral stenosis, the borders of the heart are displaced:

A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C. right and left
D. Right and up
E. not shifted
134. In mitral insufficiency, the borders of the heart are displaced:

A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C. right and left
D. not shifted
E. Right and up
135. In case of insufficiency of the aortic valve, the border of the heart is displaced:
A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C. right and left
D. not shifted
E. Right and up
136. With compensated stenosis of the aortic aperture, the borders of the heart are displaced:
A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C. right and left
D. not shifted
E. Right and up
137. What level of blood pressure of the following do you consider normal?
A. 160/70 mm Hg.
B. 180/80 mm Hg
C. 120/90 mm Hg
D. 140/80 mm Hg
E. 130/80 mm Hg
138. The mitral configuration of the heart is:

A. unchanged borders of the heart
B. enlargement of the right ventricle
C. enlargement of the left ventricle
D. enlargement of both ventricles
E. enlargement of the left atrium and cone of the pulmonary artery
139. On the ECG, the absence of P-waves, waves f and different distances RR are characteristic
of:
A. Atrial flutter
B. ventricular flutter
D. supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
F. extrasystolic arrhythmia
140. On an ECG, ventricular extrasystolic arrhythmia is characterized by the appearance of:

A. ST segment depression
B. widened and deformed QRS after unchanged P wave
C. premature extraordinary altered ventricular QRS complex
D. Premature extraordinary appearance of unchanged ventricular QRS complex
E. periodic loss of the QRS complex
141. Affection of the heart in the syndrome of primary arterial hypertension is manifested:
A. hypertrophy of the left atrium
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. dilatation of the left atrium
E. hypertrophy of the right atrium
142. Select the criterion for left ventricular hypertrophy:

A. R / S V1> 1
B. R / S V5 <1
C. Rv5 + Sv1 ≥38mm
D. Sv1 + Rv5 ≥10.5mm
E. Rv1> 7mm
143. What changes on the ECG do you expect to get in a patient with chronic coronary
insufficiency syndrome outside the attack:
A. the appearance of negative T waves
B. ST elevation above isoline
C. Shift down the ST segment
D. normal ECG
144. The most characteristic complaints in chronic coronary insufficiency are:

A. pain in the heart of stabbing nature
B. pain in the left half of the chest for up to several hours, associated with the act of breathing
C. pain in the left half of the chest, resulting from a change in body position
D. burning pains behind the sternum, radiating to the neck and left arm, occurring during
physical exertion, arrested at rest or after taking nitroglycerin in 1-2 minutes
E. Stitches in the precordial region, at night, up to 3-4 hours
145. In mitral stenosis I tone:

A. weakened at the top
B. strengthened at the base of the xiphoid process
C. “flapping” at the top
D. weakened in the second intercostal space on the right
E. strengthened in the second intercostal space on the left

A. at the apex of the heart;
B. in the second intercostal space on the right at the sternum;
C. in the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum;
147. The patient at the 4th auscultation point revealed a systolic murmur, which increases with
inspiration. This is typical for:
A. mitral valve insufficiency;
B. stenosis of the right atrioventricular orifice;
C. tricuspid valve insufficiency;
D. mitral stenosis;
E. pulmonary valve insufficiency.
148. ECG changes with stenosis of the aortic mouth:

A. signs of left ventricular hypertrophy
B. signs of left atrial hypertrophy
C. signs of right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Signs of right atrial hypertrophy
E. blockade of the right bundle branch block
149. Sinus bradycardia is often observed:

A. when eating
B. well-trained athletes at rest
C. hypotension
D. emotional stress
150. For pericardial friction noise is typical:

A. listened in places auscultation valves;
B. held in the axillary region;
C. increases with pressure on the chest with a stethoscope;
D. is heard in the zone of relative dullness of the heart;
E. disappears when inhaling.
151. ECG is a sign of atrial extrasystolic arrhythmia:

A. the presence of a P wave in front of an extraordinary unchanged QRS complex followed
by a compensatory pause
B. irregular rhythm with QRS complex deformation
C. loss of every other QRS complex
D. the absence of a P wave in front of an extraordinary QRS complex, an extension of the QRS
complex
E. F waves
152. Three-leaved valve is better heard

153. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia on ECG is manifested:

A. increase in heart rate to 160 min
B. the presence of wide deformed QRS complexes with a frequency of 140-220 per minute
C. frequent irregular appearance of ventricular QRS complexes without s.P
D. normal unchanged QRS complexes with a frequency of> 160 per minute
E. the emergence of extraordinary QRS complexes.
154. Pathological Q wave on the ECG is detected when:

A. for chronic coronary insufficiency
B. with left ventricular hypertrophy;
C. with right ventricular hypertrophy;
D. Acute coronary insufficiency
E. inflammation of the pericardium
155. Determine the characteristic color of the skin with endocarditis:

A. pallor
B. yellowness
C. Limited cyanotic blush
D. Color "coffee with milk"
E. unilateral hyperemia of the cheeks
156. What level of blood pressure of the following corresponds to arterial hypertension of II
degree:
A. Blood pressure - 150/94 mm Hg
B. AD - 138/80 mm Hg
C. AD - 174/108 mm Hg
D. Blood pressure - 160/114 mm Hg
E. Blood pressure - 200/100 mm Hg
157. The composition of atherosclerotic plaque includes:

A. tire and plaque core
B. spikes, tire
C. nucleus and processes
D. podocytes
E. Podocytes and nucleus
158.Laboratory indicators characteristic of acute coronary insufficiency:

A. an increase in troponin I or T
B. anemia
C. proteinuria
D. lymphopenia
E. leukocyturia
159. The most common causes of myocardial inflammation syndrome are:

A. Streptococcus
B. viruses
C. Staphylococcus
D. fungi
E. parasites
7
Eralieva M.O., Assistant Course Hematology, Department of Hospital Therapy,
Occupational Pathology with a course of Hematology, Ph.D., coordinator of the
hemopoietic system for foreign students
Exam questions of test control in the module “Hematopoietic system” for 3-year
students Foreign Language
The normal content of iron in serum is:

A. 2-10 µmol / l
B. 6-15 µmol / l
C. 10-28 μmol / l
D. 12-30 µmol / l
E. 15-40 µmol / l
Normal blood levels of Hb in adults are:
A. 90-140 g / l
B. 100-150 g / l
C. 110-160 g / l
D. 120-170 g / l
E. 130-180 g / l
Anemic syndrome manifested:
A. perversion of taste
B. dry skin
C. causeless general weakness
D. hair loss
E. deformation of nails
Hyposiderosis is characterized by:
A. perversion of smell
B. dizziness
D. palpitations
E. shortness of breath
5
Sideropenic syndrome develops with:
A. hemolysis of erythrocytes
B. folic acid deficiency
C. vitamin B12 deficiency
D. chronic blood loss
E. aplasia of the bone marrow
Body containing the main reserves of iron in the body:
A. liver
B. Spleen
C. kidney
D. brain
E. lungs
What research is needed for hypochromic anemia:
A. blood bilirubin
B. creatinine
C. rheumatological tests
D. serum ferritin
E. blood sugar
Iron deficiency is characterized by:
A. megaloblastic type of blood formation
B. hypochromia of erythrocytes
C. normochromia of erythrocytes
D. pancytopenia
E. hyperbilirubinemia
9
The normal content of ferritin in the serum is:
A. 10 - 12 µg / l
B. 80 - 350 µg / l
C. 10 - 30 μg / l
D. 15 - 300 µg / l
E. 5 - 175 µg / l
10
Erythrocytic poikilocytosis is:
A. change in the average diameter of erythrocytes
B. change in the form of red blood cells
C. red blood cells with basophilic point
D. Jolly red blood cells
E. Erythrocytes with kebot rings
11
Erythrocytic anisocytosis is:
A. red blood cells with pathological inclusions
B. target red blood cells
C. red blood cell hyperchromia
D. oval red blood cells
E. Presence in the blood of erythrocytes of various sizes
12
Organ, containing vitamin B12 in the body:
A. brain
B. adrenal glands
C. liver
D. kidneys
E. spleen
13
The absorption of vitamin B12- and folic acid occurs mainly:
A. in the stomach
B. in the duodenum
C. in the upper small intestine
D. in the colon
E. in the lower small intestine
14
The syndrome of the funicular myelosis is associated with the formation of:
A. thymidine
B. methylmalonic acid
C. folic acid
D. ascorbic acid
E. nicotinic acid
15
Macrocytosis and hyperchromia of erythrocytes caused by:
A. hyposiderosis
C. hemosiderosis
D. red blood cell hemolysis
E. erythrocytosis
16
Vitamin B12 deficiency is manifested:
A. macrocytes
B. microcytes
C. normocytes
D. microspherocytes
E. sickle cell erythrocytes
17
Hemolytic syndrome manifests is:
A. pale skin
B. dry skin
C. yellowness of the skin
D. leukemia on the skin
E. trophic ulcers on the skin
18
Erythrocyte hemolysis results in:
A. direct hyperbilirubinemia
B. indirect hyperbilirubinemia
C. hyperbilirubinemia of both fractions
D. Hypobilubinemia
E. abilirubinemia
19
Hemolysis of erythrocytes due to the formation of anti-erythrocyte antibodies is

confirmed by:
A. direct breakdown of Coombs
B. indirect Coombs breakdown
C. direct sucrose breakdown
D. hemosiderin urine
E. hemoglobinuria
20
Dysmetabolic degeneration of the lateral and partially posterior spinal cord of the
spinal cord with vitamin B12 deficiency leads to the development of:
A. anemic syndrome
B. neuro-anemic syndrome
C. Sideropenic syndrome
D. hemolytic syndrome
E. neuroleukemia
21
Reticulocytosis develops with:
A. anemic syndrome
B. sideropenic syndrome
C. hemolytic syndrome
D. iron overload syndrome
E. hyposiderosis
22
Areticulocythemia develops when:
A. the presence of antibodies against bone marrow erythrocaryocytes
B. the presence of antibodies against peripheral blood erythrocytes
C. fermentopathy of erythrocytes
D. hemoglobinopathies
E. erythrocyte membranopathyes
23
The cause of red blood cell microcytosis:
A. increased red blood cell sequestration in the spleen
B. excess of “old” red blood cells
C. increasing the number of young red blood cells
D. Reduction of Hb content in the erythrocyte
E. intravascular hemolysis of erythrocytes
24
When examining the patient revealed pancytopenia. Your actions in the survey
plan:
A. determination of ferritin
B. direct Coombs test
C. liver tests
D. Creatinine and other kidney tests
E. bone marrow examination
25
Syndrome of the funicular myelosis appears:
A. violation of tactile and pain sensitivity
B. general weakness
C. hyperplasia of lymphatic tissue
D. perversion of smell
E. dysphagia
26
The normal content of platelets in the blood is:
A. 100-200х109 / l
B. 150-300x109 / l
C. 170-350х109 / l
D. 150-400x109 / l
E. 150-450х109 / l
27
Platelet ancestors are:
A. reticulocyte
B. megakaryocytes
C. myelokaryocytes
D. Oxyphilic normocytes
E. polychromatophilic normocytes
28
Megakaryocytes are precursors to:
A. reticulocyte
B. neutrophils
C. lymphocyte
D. platelet
E. erythrocyte
29
The life span of platelets is:
A. 12-24 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 8-11 days
E. 15-20 days
30
When thrombocytopenia develops:
A. petechial-bruise type of bleeding
B. hematoma type of bleeding
C. vasculitic-purple type of bleeding
D. petechial hematoma type of bleeding
E. angiomatous type of bleeding
31
Deficiency of coagulation factors VIII and IX leads to the development of:
A. petechial- bruise type of bleeding
B. vasculitic-purple type of bleeding
C. hematoma type of bleeding

D. angiomatous type of bleeding
E. petechial-hematoma type of bleeding
32
Vasculitis-purple type of bleeding due to:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. thrombocytopathy
C. pathology of capillary endotheliocytes
D. congenital inferiority of capillary walls
E. deficiency of coagulation factors VIII and IX
33
Petechial hematoma type of bleeding develops when:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. thrombocytopathy
C. deficiency of coagulation factors VIII and IX
D. Willebrand factor deficiency
E. congenital inferiority of the capillary walls
34
Congenital inferiority of the capillary walls with the expansion of the lumen of blood
vessels leads to the development of:
A. vasculitic-purple type of bleeding
B. angiomatous type of bleeding
D. petechial-Sinyachkov type of bleeding
35
Critical thrombocytopenia:
A. 50x109 / l
B. 30x109 / l
C. 20x109 / l
D. 15x109 / L
E. 10x109 / l
36
Platelets are formed from one megakaryocyte:
A. 1000-2000
B. 2000-4000
C. 3000-6000
D. 4000-8000
E. 5000-10000
37
Hemorrhagic syndrome in aplasia of the blood due to:
A. anomalous structure of vessel walls
B. Increased destruction of platelets in the blood
C. deficiency of blood coagulation factors
D. increased platelet consumption
E. insufficient formation of megakaryocytes
38
Which of the laboratory signs is pathognomic for the deficiency of coagulation

factors?
A. prolonged bleeding time
V. decrease in the number of platelets
C. lengthening of blood clotting time
D. Platelet dysfunction
E. reducing the number of megakaryocytes

39
In what type of bleeding are intermuscular, subcutaneous, retroperitoneal

hematomas observed?
A. vasculitic purple
B. angiomatous
C. hematomic
D. Microcirculatory
E. petechial-bruise
40
Extending of the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is observed with:
A. petechial-bruising type of bleeding
D. Angiomatous type of bleeding
E. microcirculatory type of bleeding
41
Lengthening the duration of bleeding time by Duke occurs when:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. Intravascular thrombosis
C. congenital coagulopathy
D. Acquired coagulopathy
42
Platelet dysfunction:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. thrombocytopathy
C. angiopathy
D. coagulopathy
E. Vasopathy
43
The first stage of coagulation hemostasis ends with the formation of:
A. active prothrombinase
B. thrombin
C. plasmin
D. fibrin
E. prothrombin
44
The second stage of coagulation hemostasis ends with the formation of:
B. prothrombin
S. thrombin
D. fibrin
E. plasmin
45
Physiological anticoagulant is:
A. plasminogen
B. plasmin
C. trombomodulin
D. Kallikrein
E. von Willebrand factor
46
Hyperplastic syndrome:
A. hypoplasia of lymphoid tissue
B. hyperplasia of lymphoid tissue

C. hypoplasia of myeloid tissue
D. hyperplasia of myeloid tissue
E. aplasia of myeloid tissue
47
Plasma cells are formed from:
A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. monocytes
D. neutrophils
E. eosinophils
48
Botkin-Humprecht cells:
A. abnormal monocytes
B. hemolyzed erythrocytes
C. polysegmented neutrophils
D. destroyed lymphocytes
E. Activated platelets
49
The spleen is located at the level of:
A. VIII-X ribs
B. IX-XI ribs
C. X-XII ribs
D. XI-XII ribs
E. VIII-XII ribs
50
Spleen is covered with peritoneum:
A. on the one hand

B. from two sides
C. from three sides
D. all around
E. not covered on one side
51
Bone marrow is located in:
A. in the diaphysis of the bones
B. in bone metaphysis
C. cells of spongy bone
D. in compact bone matter
E. in the periosteum
52
The central organs of the hematopoietic system include:
A. lymph nodes
B. Spleen
C. thymus gland
D. liver
E. lymphocytes
53
Which organ has white and red pulp?
A. thymus gland
B. lymph node
C. bone marrow
D. spleen
E. Liver
54
What tissue makes up the soft marrow stroma?

A. Stratified squamous nonthreshold epithelium
B. reticular
C. mucous
D. lymphoid
E. ferrous
55
Hypersplenism:
A. splenomegaly + cytopenia
B. hepatosplenomegaly
C. splenomegaly + lymphadenopathy
D. Splenomegaly + Erythrocytosis
E. splenomegaly + viral infection
56
Patient I., 34 years old, complaints of general weakness, fatigue, dizziness, headaches,
shortness of breath and palpitations with little exertion
From the anamnesis: heavy, prolonged menstrual bleeding.
What syndrome can you think of?
A. sideropenic syndrome
B. hemolytic syndrome
C. anemic syndrome
D. hemorrhagic syndrome
E. hyperplastic syndrome
57
Patient S., 28 years old, went to a doctor's office with complaints of taste perversion, hair
loss, brittle nails, difficulty in swallowing food, dry skin.
CBC: HB 128 g / l, erythr. 4,7 h1012 / l, MCV 62 fl, MCH 18 pg.
A. anemic syndrome
C. funicular myelosis
D. Sideropenic syndrome
58
Patient J., 42 years old, appealed to the outpatient clinic. Complaints when going to the
doctor: yellowness of the skin and visible mucous membranes, change in color of urine as
a strongly brewed tea, feeling of heaviness in hypochondria, occasionally itchy skin.
Total bilirubin 78.4 µmol / l, mainly due to the indirect fraction.
What syndrome does the patient have?
A. anemic syndrome
C. funicular syndrome
E. hemolytic syndrome
59
Patient D., 19 years old, was found to have: HB 58 g / l, eryth.3.7x10 12 / l, MCV 58 fl,
MCH 15 pg, thromb.325.0x109 / l, leuk.4.3h109 / l.
What changes are there in the total blood count?
A. normocytic, normochromic anemia
B. macrocytic, hyperchromic anemia
C. microcytic, hypochromic anemia
D. megalocytic, hyperchromic anemia
E. normocytic, hypochromic anemia
60
Patient S., 70 years old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, shortness of breath and
palpitations at the slightest physical exertion, unsteadiness of gait, feeling of crawls all
over the body, change of color of urine.
CBC: HB 62 g / l, erytr.1.7x1012 / l, MCV 118 fl, MCH 36pg, thromb. 155.0x109 / l,

leuk.3.9x109 / l.
D. normocytic, hyperchromic anemia
61
Patient A., 26 years old, was admitted to the hospital with complaints of marked general
weakness, fatigue, headaches, dizziness, blurred vision, shortness of breath and
palpitations at the slightest physical exertion, yellowness of the skin, feeling of heaviness
and pain in the left hypochondrium, change in urine color .
CBC: erythrocytes 1.6x1012 / l, Hb 48 g / l, MCV 92 fl, MCH 31 pg, platelets 187.4x10 9 /

l, leukocytes 8.6x109 / l: fell. 6, segm.72, mon. 6, lymph 16, ESR 32 mm / hour.
What is determined by the general blood test?
62
Patient I., 16 years old, during the study found: peripheral blood platelet count 20.0x10 9 /
l; the number of bone marrow megakaryocytes in 1 μl of 185 cells.
What type of bleeding can a patient develop?
A. petechial-bruise
B. vasculitic purple
C. hematoma
D. angiomatous
E. petechial hematoma
63
Patient I., 17 years old, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of nasal bleeding, pain
in the right knee joint, aggravated by the slightest movement.
History: ill from early childhood.
CBC: erythrocytes 4,6x1012 / l, Hb -148 g / l, MCV 64 fl, MCH 30pg, platelets 410x109 /
l, leukocytes 4,6x109 / l: fell. 6, segm.72, mon. 6, lymph 16, ESR 12 mm / hour.
What type of hemorrhagic syndrome does the patient have?
A. petechial-bruise
C. hematoma
D. angiomatous
64
Patient U., 20 years old, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of multiple lesions on
the skin of the lower extremities, back, pain in the ankle and knee joints, aggravated by
physical exertion, abdominal pain, nausea, single vomiting, liquid stool of a dark color,
increase in body temperature to 37.8 - 38.00 C, general weakness,
Anamnesis: ill acutely, the onset of the disease is associated with transferred flu.
CBC: HB 130 g / l, erythrocytes 4.2x1012 / l, platelets 416.6x109 /l, leukocytes 13.8x109 /

l: neut - 67, basoph. 2, eosin. 3 mon 4, lymph. 24, ESR 24 mm / hour.
To determine the option of hemorrhagic syndrome?
A. petechial-bruise
C. hematoma
D. angiomatous
65
Patient I., 26 years old, came to the clinic. According to the patient, it became clear that
during the last 6 months she began to notice the appearance of petechial rashes on the
extremities, bruises after minor injuries, an increase in the duration of menstrual bleeding
to 10-12 days.
What research is shown?
A. blood coagulation factors VIII, IX
B. APTT
C. platelet count, megakaryocytes
D. Prothrombin time, INR
E. coagulation factors I, VII
66
Patient Z., 26 years old, complaints of an increase in cervical, submandibular, axillary,

inguinal lymph nodes, a feeling of heaviness and pain in the right and left hypochondria.
CBC: HB 126 g / l, erytr. 3,9x1012 / l, thromb. 176.0 x109 / l, leuk -26.2 x109 / l: neut -
38, eosin. 2, lymph.- 60, ESR 24 mm / hour.
What is the hematopoietic lesion syndrome in a patient?
A. hemorrhagic
B. hemolytic
C. necrotic ulcer
D. Funicular myeosis
E. hyperplastic
67
Patient K., 35 years old, complaints of a feeling of heaviness and pain in the left
hypochondrium, aggravated by physical activity, after eating, and general weakness.
Objectively: The general condition is severe. Peripheral lymph nodes are not palpable.
The tongue is coated with white bloom, dry. The abdomen is enlarged, asymmetric due to
the enlarged spleen. The lower edge of the spleen at the entrance to the pelvis, extends
beyond the median line by 3-4 cm, dense, flat surface, sensitive to palpation. The liver is
not palpable.
A. hyperplastic
B. hepatomegaly
C. splenomegaly
D. hepatolienal
E. hepatorenal
68
A patient with lymph proliferative disease has generalized lymphadenopathy.
What blood cells can be involved in this case?
A. neutrophils
B. monocytes
C. lymphocytes
D. eosinophils
E. basophils
69
Patient Z., 68 years old. During 6 years it is observed by a hematologist. According to the
testimony receives treatment in an outpatient hospital setting. Upon admission, the
condition is severe: a diffuse increase in all groups of peripheral lymph nodes in large
sizes, dense consistency; splenohepatomegaly; manifestations of exudative pleurisy on
the right.
What research to do first?
A. complete blood count + platelets
B. radiography of the chest
C. liver tests
D. renal tests
E. Ultrasonography of internal organs
70
Patient K., 67 years old, was diagnosed with peripheral blood: HB-138 g / l, erythrocytes-
4,1x1012 / l, MCV 84 fl, MCH 30 pg, platelets-216,8x109 / l, leukocytes-6,4x109 / l: neut
24, lymph. 70, mon. 6, ESR 15 mm / hour.
A. erythrocytosis
B. thrombocytosis
C. leukocytosis
D. Lymphocytosis
E. monocytosis
Q. A 71-year-old male patient with type 2 diabetes complained of frequent episodes of excess
sweating, feeling of hunger, and tremor in the previous week manifesting as. His diabetes control
was excellent (HbA1c 6.5%) with glimepiride 4 mg daily and metformin 2 g daily. His renal function
was normal and he did not have microalbuminuria. No changes in dietary habits and exercise
program were reported.
A. Hypoglycaemia
Q. Patient B. went to the clinic with complaints of severe weakness, rapid fatigue, disorders in the
activity of the gastrointestinal tract. Lost in the last 4 months weight 18 kg. An objective
examination revealed: a sharp depletion of the body, the turgor of the skin is reduced, the
phenomenon of dehydration of the body, the skin on the palms, in the places of folds and the
greatest friction on clothes, are pigmented much more strongly than those surrounded
A. Hypercortisolism
Q. Patient N. 25 years old suffered a severe form of acute respiratory infections. Already during
the recovery period, there was a feeling of pressure in the left neck region. There were pains when
swallowing, body temperature 38. The left lobe of the thyroid gland is enlarged, dense, sharply
painful.
A. Subacute parathyroidism
Q. Patient M is a white woman, 32 years of age, presenting to her primary care physician with
complaints of polyuria for the past four weeks. Further assessment reveals an upcoming
appointment with her optometrist for new onset blurred vision. The patient is 5 feet 5 inches tall
and weighs 142 pounds; her calculated BMI is 23.6 kg/m2. She confirms a family history of
diabetes on her father's side and admits to a generally sedentary occupation and lifestyle. A
random finger stick reveals a blood glucose level of 257 mg/dL.
HbA1c: 9% (estimated average glucose: 208 mg/dL)
Fasting blood glucose: 151 mg/dL
A. Syndrome of hyperglycaemia
Q. Patient S., 28 years old, came to the clinic with complaints of general weakness, malaise,
headaches, hair loss, dry skin, an increase in the size of the thyroid gland. From the anamnesis:
during the year, the above-described complaints are worried, gradually progressing. Objectively:
The skin is dry, pale, body mass index - 32. Pulse 59 in min., BP - 125/70 mm Hg. Art., muffled
heart tones. Thyroid increased to I degree according to WHO, compacted, painless. Regional
lymph nodes are not enlarged
A. Hyperthyroidism
Q. Patient J., 32 years old. Complains of constant headache, pain in lumbar spine, increased blood
pressure, general weakness, irritability, overweight. The first symptoms of the disease appeared 2
years ago. Within 3 years observed by a therapist for hypertension. Antihypertensive therapy is
not effective. Objectively. Height - 178 cm, body weight - 101 kg., Disproportionate deposition of
subcutaneous adipose tissue (mainly in the face area, neck, torso. On the inner surface of the
shoulders, in the lateral areas abdomen, in the area of the thighs purple-red stripes. The skin is
dry. Pulse-82 in 1 min. BP - 180/95 mm Hg Additional research. On ultrasound - an increase in the
size of both adrenal glands. The level of cortisol, ACTH in the blood is increased. On The
radiograph of the Turkish saddle did not reveal any pathology. OGTT (glucose blood): 6.0 - 11.1
mmol / l.
A. Hypercortisolism
Q. History: A 35 year old nurse complained of nervousness, weakness, and palpitations with
exertion for the past 6 months. Recently, she noticed excessive sweating and wanted to sleep with
fewer blankets than her husband. She had maintained a normal weight of 120 pounds but was
eating twice as much as she did 1 year ago. Menstrual periods have been regular but there was
less bleeding. Physical examination: Pulse was 92/minute and BP was 130/60. She appeared
anxious, with a smooth, warm, and moist skin, a fine tremor, a bounding cardiac apical impulse, a
pulmonic flow murmur, and she couldn't rise from a deep knee bend without aid. Her thyroid
contained 3 nodules, 2 on the right and one on the left with a total gland size of 60 grams (3 times
normal size), all nodules being of firm consistency and there was no lymphadenopathy. Her eyes
were not prominent (proptotic) and she had no focal skin thickening.
Laboratory studies: Serum T4=15.6 ug/dl and serum T3=250 ng/dl (N=80-160).
A. Hyperthyroidism
Q. Patient R., 25 years old, average height. The face is moon-shaped, the skin on it is crimson.
Excessive fat deposition on the abdomen and thighs. The bones are thin. Red stripes are marked
stretching on the skin of the abdomen and shoulders. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg. Art. Blood
sugar 7.0mmol / l. X-ray: the Turkish saddle is dilated.
Hypercortisolism
Q. An 82-year-old male patient was taken to the emergency room in the afternoon for loss of
consciousness in the previous hour. The patient had hypertension, chronic ischemic heart disease,
and mild diabetes treated with 30 mg gliclazide MR daily. On examination the patient had coma
(Glasgow scale 5) and right hemiplegia. An immediate blood glucose determination in the
emergency room using a portable glucose meter was 30 mg/dl (1.7 mmol/L).
A. Hypoglycaemia
A. Hyperglycaemia
Q. A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with complaints of fatigue, weight
gain, and constipation. She states that her weight has gradually increased over the last year
despite no change in her activity level or eating habits. She works roughly 8 hours a day as a
nutrition assistant, but she falls asleep as soon as she gets home in the afternoon. She lacks
motivation to do anything during the weekend, and notes that she does not feel like herself. Upon
questioning, the patient reports the following changes: thinning of her scalp hair, brittle nails, dry
skin, and cold intolerance. Physical examination confirms dry skin, brittle nails, coarse and dry
hair, and abdominal distension. The only medication she takes is a multivitamin daily. She has a
positive family history for autoimmune disorders and stroke.
A. Hypothyroidism
Patient N., 27 years old, after childbirth, complicated by massive bleeding, began to develop
exhaustion, the skin became dry, wrinkled, wax-colored. Body temperature - 360 С, BP - 100/60
mm Hg. Art., blood glucose - 3.3 mmol / l, the content of 17-ketosteroids in urine are lowered.
A. Hypocortisolism
Q. Patient A. 40-year-old applied to a polyclinic with complaints of an increase in body

temperature up to 39˚C, pain in the thyroid gland, aggravated by swallowing, coughing, chills,
tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent tonsillitis. Objectively: On palpation, the thyroid
gland is sharply painful and dense. Laboratory: Complete blood count: leucocytosis with a shift to
the left, increased ESR. Choose the most informative thyroid examination method in this situation:
A. determination of T3, T4 in blood
B. thyroid scan with 131 I
C. ultrasound with biopsy
D. lateral radiography of the neck.
E. auscultation of the thyroid gland
A. True answer is: “C”
Ultrasound and biopsy. Because in case of acute thyroiditis, functionally it will stay stable and there
is no need to estimate levels of T3, T4.We need to do ultrasound in order to determine
inflammation, abscess and etc, and do biopsy in order to cultivate bacteria’s and determine
sensitivity of bacterias to certain group of antibiotics
Q. Patient D., 42 years old. Complains of headache, increased blood pressure, general weakness,
irritability, persistent cough. First symptoms diseases appeared 4 years ago. I did not go to the
doctor. Smokes since 18 years (pack of cigarettes per day). Objectively. Height is 188 cm, body
weight is 97 kg., Disproportionate deposition of subcutaneous adipose tissue (mainly in the face
area, neck, torso. Crimson red stripes on the thighs. The skin is dry. Pulse-82 in 1 min. BP 155/90
mm Hg Additional research. On ultrasound, the adrenal glands are not are visualized. The level of
cortisol, ACTH in the blood is increased. MRI pituitary gland - no pathology was revealed. OGTT
(blood glucose): 4.9 - 7.5 mmol / l. FLG of the chest - a mass in the upper lobe of the left lung.
A. Hypercorticism , Because red stripes
Patient S., 47 years old. I went to the doctor with complaints of weight loss, thirst, nausea,
weakness in the lower extremities, bone pain. Objectively: low nutrition, skin of normal color and
moisture, atrophy of the muscles of the legs, deformation of the chest. Vesicular breathing in the
lungs. Rhythmic heart sounds, pulse 74 beats per minute. The abdomen is soft, painful in the
epigastric region. Constipation. There is a "duck gait". During examination: in the general blood
test: hemoglobin -100 g / l, erythrocytes - 4.0x10 '/ l, leukocytes - 4.9 x 109 / l, ESR - 18 mm / h,
blood sugar - 4.8 mmol / l , blood calcium - 3.5 mmol / l (norm 2.1-3.0 mmol / l). X-ray of the spine
shows signs of osteoporosis. Ultrasound of the parathyroid glands - hyperplasia of these glands.
A. Hyperparathyroidism
Q. Patient A is a white man, 19 years of age, with a history of type 1 diabetes. He is currently in the
end of his first year of college and studying for his final examinations. He has been unable to
exercise due to the amount of time devoted to studying. His eating has been erratic, and he has
forgotten to cover his meals with insulin aspart. He presents to the emergency department with a
six-hour history of abdominal pain, nausea, and confusion as reported by his roommate. The
roommate also recalls a fruity odor to Patient A's breath and knows he has not been consuming
alcohol. When asked questions regarding his blood glucose levels, Patient A is confused and
unable to recall any past history of testing. Blood glucose: 531 mg/dL
A. Hypoglycaemia
Q. Patient M is a white woman, 32 years of age, presenting to her primary care physician with
complaints of polyuria for the past four weeks. Further assessment reveals an upcoming
appointment with her optometrist for new onset blurred vision. The patient is 5 feet 5 inches tall
and weighs 142 pounds; her calculated BMI is 23.6 kg/m2. She confirms a family history of
diabetes on her father's side and admits to a generally sedentary occupation and lifestyle. A
random finger stick reveals a blood glucose level of 257 mg/dL.
HbA1c: 9% (estimated average glucose: 208 mg/dL)
A. Hyperglycemia with type 2
Q. Patient V is a Hispanic man, 61 years of age, presenting to the primary care physician with
complaints of polydipsia, polyphagia, and fatigue for the past month. Upon further assessment, he
states that he has recently had his eyeglass prescription adjusted due to blurred vision. He is 5 feet
10 inches tall and weighs 245 pounds; his calculated BMI is 35.2 kg/m2. The patient reveals a
family history of diabetes on both sides. He works a physical job in a warehouse lifting 50-pound
boxes. A random finger stick reveals a blood glucose level of 220 mg/dL. As previously discussed,
this is sufficient information to diagnose diabetes.
HbA1c: 8.7% (estimated average glucose
A. Hyperglycemia
Q. Patient A. came to the clinic with complaints of progressive obesity, characterized by the
deposition of fat in the face (moon-shaped face), upper body and abdomen, hirsutism (excessive
growth of hair on the body and face in women according to the male pattern), menstrual
irregularities, pain in the lumbar region, polyphagia, polydipsia. Recently, pustular skin diseases
have often been observed, an objective examination revealed: blood glucose - 7.0 mmol / l, blood
pressure - 140/80 mm Hg. Art., changes from side of the blood - moderate leukocytosis (an
increase in the number of leukocytes in the blood), absolute lymphopenia (a decrease in the
number of lymphocytes in the blood). Radiographically revealed enlargement of the left adrenal
gland, radiography of the skull did not enlarge the Turkish saddle.
A. Hypercorticism becz moon shape
Q. Patient K is a white woman, 71 years of age, presenting to her primary care physician with
complaints of fatigue, polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia for the past few months. She is 5 feet 4
inches tall and weighs 205 pounds, with a calculated BMI of 35.3 kg/m2. She confirms a family
history of diabetes on her mother's side, a personal history of having given birth to a child
weighing more than 9 pounds, and arthritis of her bilateral knees. A finger stick reveals a blood
glucose level of 198 mg/dL.
HbA1c: 8.0% (estimated average glucose: 183 mg/dL)
Two-hour glucose level (after 75 g oral glucose tolerance test): 160 mg/dL
A. Hyperglycemia
Q. Patient S., 28 years old, came to the clinic with complaints of general weakness, malaise,
headaches, hair loss, dry skin, an increase in the size of the thyroid gland. From the anamnesis:
during the year, the above-described complaints are worried, gradually progressing. Objectively:
The skin is dry, pale, body mass index - 32. Pulse 59 in min., BP - 125/70 mm Hg. Art., muffled
heart tones. Thyroid increased to I degree according to WHO, compacted, painless. Regional
lymph nodes are not enlarged
A. Hyperthyroidism
Q. Patient T., 40 years old, came for a consultation with an endocrinologist. Complains of fatigue,
dry skin, apathy. Objectively: Height - 164 cm, weight - 68 kg. The skin is dry, warm, pale. Pulse -
58 per minute, blood pressure - 120/80 mm Hg. Art. The thyroid gland is not visible to the eye. On
palpation of the thyroid gland reduced in volume, diffusely heterogeneous, dense, painless.
Regional lymph nodes are not enlarged.
A. O grade classification of hyperthyroidism becaz skin should be warm and moist and fatigue
Q. Patient M., 39 years old. Complains of joint pain, increased blood pressure, general weakness,
headache, overweight. First symptoms diseases appeared 5 years ago, gradually progressing. Later
there was dry mouth, thirst, pain in the epigastric region. Objectively. Height - 165 cm, body
weight - 88 kg., Disproportionate deposition of subcutaneous adipose tissue (mainly in the face
area, neck, torso), climacteric hump. On the inner surface of the shoulders, in the lateral areas of
the abdomen, in the thighs, purple-red stripes. Enhanced facial hair growth. The skin is dry. Pulse-
82 in 1 min. AD - 165/95 mmHg. Additional research. OGTT (blood glucose): 6.3 - 9.6 mmol / l. X-
ray shows minor osteoporosis of the chest and lumbar spine. On ultrasound - an increase in size
A. Hypercorticism
Q. A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with complaints of fatigue, weight
gain, and constipation. She states that her weight has gradually increased over the last year
despite no change in her activity level or eating habits. She works roughly 8 hours a day as a
nutrition assistant, but she falls asleep as soon as she gets home in the afternoon. She lacks
motivation to do anything during the weekend, and notes that she does not feel like herself. Upon
questioning, the patient reports the following changes: thinning of her scalp hair, brittle nails, dry
skin, and cold intolerance. Physical examination confirms dry skin, brittle nails, coarse and dry
hair, and abdominal distension. The only medication she takes is a multivitamin daily. She has a
positive family history for autoimmune disorders and stroke.
A. Hypothyroidism
A. Hyperglycemia
Q. Patient K., 34 years old, complains of pain in the region of the heart, palpitations, shortness of
breath, appearing with accelerated walking, physical. stress, neck thickening (appeared in the last
6 months), irritability, tearfulness. Celebrates weight loss up to 10kg. Considers himself a patient
for 7 years. She was treated for heart disease and neurasthenia. Objectively: a patient with low
nutritional status with an expression of "frozen fear" on her face. Pulse 120 beats / min, BP 130 \
70 mm Hg. Exophthalmos. The thyroid gland is enlarged evenly with a smooth surface, soft-elastic
consistency, painless, displaced when swallowing.
A. Hyperthyroidism
Q. Patient R., 25 years old, average height. The face is moon-shaped, the skin on it is crimson.
Excessive fat deposition on the abdomen and thighs. The bones are thin. Red stripes are marked
stretching on the skin of the abdomen and shoulders. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg. Art. Blood
sugar 7.0 mmol / l. X-ray: the Turkish saddle is dilated.
A. Hypercorticism
Q. Patient L is an African American man, 52 years of age, presenting to his primary care physician
with complaints of frequent urination and excessive thirst, particularly in the late afternoon and
early evening. He is a truck driver and works 12 hours each day. Patient L is 6 feet 1 inch tall and
weighs 215 pounds, with a calculated BMI of 28.4 kg/m2. He confirms a family history of diabetes
on both his father's and mother's sides. A random finger stick results in a blood glucose level of
243 mg/dL.
HbA1c: 8.7% (estimated average glucose: 203 mg/dL)
A. Hyperglycemia
Vi Indialldea
Oi&ll 80 11:28
Be6 TecTWPOBaHne
X avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N93
Name the main screening method of imaging the thyroid gland:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1
radiography
2 thermalimaging
ultrasound
magnetic resonance imaging
radioisotope
50
11 23 4 5 6
10
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BHHan KyMap ArapBan Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N914
The reason for the hyperfunction of the sex glands in adults is:
OTBeTbli(oAMH OTBET)
1 Increased binding of testosterone to
plasma proteins
Decrease in the formation of gonadoliberin in the
hypothalamus
3 Central (dysregulatory) disorders
Properglandular disorders
5 Tumors and inflammation in
the hypothalamus
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 50
1 2 3 4567 8 910
111213115161718 19 20
21 2223 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 3334 3536 37 38 3940
414243 4445 4647 48 49
50
OTBeHeHHbi
Bonpoc
nponyueHHl BOnpoc
Texyu Bonpoc
+
11:22 O
0 <. U 2.00
t l 80%
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/te
pOupU. N°TrO
Patient B., 50 years old, complains that recently the ears,

nose, hands began to increase in size. Which gland is
overactive will give similar symptoms:
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBET)
1 Gonads
2 Adrenalglands
3 Epiphysis
4 Pituitary gland
5 Thyroid
1 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
X
Be6 TecTWPOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
<
TynTa PaBMkaHT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°33
Cushing syndrome is characterized by
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 hyperthyroidism
2 hypercortisolism
3 hyperprolactinemia
4 hyperpituitarism
5 hyperparathyroidism
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
Vi Indiajldea
P O l 83 11:30
Be6 TecTWPOBaHMe
avn.kgma.kg
Bonpoc: N°29
What is the characteristic symptom for the syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
no pain on palpation
2 bradycardia, hypotension
3 increase in body temperature
4 headaches, weakness
5 attacks of asphyxia
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
50
1 2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
Ov A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan KyMap Arapsan. Kg
Bonpoc: N99
Hypoparathyroidism is manifested by:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
1 Deposition of Ca phosphate in soft tissues
2 Demineralization of bones
3 Massive edema
4 Sharp tetany, bronchospasm

5 Decreased tubular water reabsorption
7 8
9 10 11 12 13
50
1 2 3 4 5 67
9 10 8
11 121314 15 16 17 181920
21 22 232425 26 27 28 29 30
31323334 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142434445 4647 4849 50
OTBeyeHHbi
Bonpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
TeKyuwi BOnpoc
SAMSUN
44%-12:44 p
CHHTx KynAun Kg
Bonpoc: N 39
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down with thyroid
hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Kocher
2 Shtelvag
3 Grefe
4 Elinek
5 Krause
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
1 23 45 67 8 9 10
11 14 1516 17 18 19 20
13
12
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHblM
Bonpoc
nponyuyeHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuueHna TecTa oCTanocb
0:10:39
3aBepuwTb TeCT
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan KyMap ArapBan. Kg
Bonpoc: N98
With an insufficient amount of iodine in food,
it develops:
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBET)
1 Autoimmune thyroiditis
2 Hypoparathyroidism
3 Diffuse toxic goiter

4 Endemic goiter
5 Hyperthyroidism
50
6
8 9 10 11 12
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
8 9 10
11 1213 14 15 16 17 18 1920
21 22 2324 25 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 4344 454647 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbi
Bonpoc
nponyueHitul Bonpoc
Teryujni 6onpoc
Kymap OM Hapane
/webtest/testing
Bonpoc: Ne27
hypothyroidism
syndrome
in
«myxedema heart»
the
is the basis of
Highlight, what OTBeT)
OTBeTbi(oAMH
regulation
nervous
disorder of the
content
potassium
increase in
muscle fibers
dysfunction of
eosingophilia
50
mucoid edema 31
myocardial 30
29
intersticial
25
26 28
23 24
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
O A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan Kymap ArapBan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N916
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used to stimulate the
contractile activity of the uterus:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Thyroid stimulating hormone
Vasopressin
3 Oxytocin
Follicle-stimulating hormone
OProlactin
12
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20 50
12 3456789 1
11 1213 14 151617 18 1920
2122 2324 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 3940
4142434445 46474849 50
9TBeeHHtal Bonpoc
nponyueHHln Bonpoc
Te ad nonno
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
OT A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan KyMap Arapsan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N917
The patient has clinically all the signs of thyrotoxicosis. What research
needs to be done to clarify the diagnosis:
OTBeTbl(oAMH oTBET)
1 Determine the level of thyroxine
2 Blood test for sugar, ketone bodies

3 LDL, HDL, bloodcholestero
Oprotein composition of plasma, residual

blood nitrogen,
5 General analysis of blood
and urine
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 50
1
2 3 4 567
11 12 13 14 15
89
10
1617 1819 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 3435 36 3738 39 40
414243444546474849 50
OTBeyeHHbl Bornpoc
nponyueHHbl
Bonpoc
rercvnain Bannoc
12:42 e r al 91%
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Bonpoc: N°11
Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids causes:
OTBeTbI(oguH OTBeT)
Increased blood pressure
2 Hypoglycemia
3 Increased bone ossification
4 Positive nitrogen balance
5 Decrease in the excitability of the nervous system
7 8 9 10 11 12
13 14 15 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
10
12 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
13
21 22 23 24 25 26
27 28 29 30
ehich micro 0ofo >

A. Periorbital edema with purplish-purple
erythema
A avn.Kgma.kg/webtest/testung
KyMap HwpaHaaH Kg
Bonpoc: N°36
What complication does hyperthyroidism give:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 atrophic gastritis
2 biliary dyskinesia
3 B12 deficiency anemia
atrial fibrillation
5 addison's diseasee
1
32 33 34 35 36 37
38 39 40 50
ehich micro 0 of 0

New Tab
Ope 5
Kyauaeaxa Paxyn KyMap
Bonpoc: NO9 C. sympatihes

Thehighest content of antibodies D parathyro
to microsomal antigen in blood
is observed when: E.
mfencr l
OTBeTbi(oAMH OoTBeT)
3. Name w
pihutary sy
1O Thyrotoxic adenoma
A Magneti
2 Diffusetoxicgoiter
B.Positron
C. Craniog
3 Subacute thyroiditis
D. Compu
4 Thyroid cancer E Endosco
5OAutoimmunethyroiditis 6. On com
structure E
PRDerea
6 10 11 12 13 50
A endothe
23 4 5 6 7 89 10 B. netast=
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
11 Cncrm
A 43%=1250 pm
Crx Kynqen
Bonpoc: NP44
complaints of
Woman 53 years old turned to a therapist with
thirst,frequent urination, itching of the perineum. Anamnesis,
disturb the above complaints for 1 month. Objectively: The
skin is dry and clean. BMI = 33.2 kg/m2. BP 135/95 mm.Hg.
-
Laboratory blood glucose 9.3 mmol/1, after meals 15.0
mmol/1L. Doctor diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explain why the patient developed hyperglycemia syndromein
this case?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 obesity
2 hypodynamia
3 heredity
4 underweight
5 stress
40 41 42 43 4445 46 47
50
1 2 3 456 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl Bonpoc
nponyuyeHHblM BOnpoOc
Tekyuznin Bonpoc
Vi Indialldea P
O l 1130
X Be6 TecTWpOBaHWne
A avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°26
Explain the reason for the large tongue in a child with hypothyroidism
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 disorder of the salivary glands
2 innervation disorder
3 mucous swelling of the tongue
4 disorder of the musculature of the tongue
5
impaired circulation of the oral cavity
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
50
LTEl 927%
12:38
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Kg R
KyMap HwpaHamaH
Bonpoc: N913
With an insufficient amount of iodine in food, it develops:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Endemic goiter
3 Hyperthyroidism
5 Diffuse toxicgoiter
1 9 10 11 12 13 14
15 16 17 50
ehich micro O of 0

B.Cyanotic eyelid skin staining
D. Hyperpigmentation of the unner eveli
11:21 0<. U kars t 80%
Pan HwTHI Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne14
Hypoparathyroidism is manifested by:
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBer)
1
Decreased tubular water reabsorption
5 Massive edema
1 10 11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuinn Bonpoc
O
tSung
Gmail YouTube Maps How to Study Gene
KyMap ApAwTR
567 8 9 10
15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N91
25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient A, 51 years old, complains of irritability, trembling of fingers, insomnia for more than 2
35 36 37 38 39 40 months after suffering psychotrauma. On examination, the patient
had a normal diet, the pulse was 84 beats per minute. BP 120/70 mm Hg Eye symptoms are
45 46 47 48 49 50 not detected. In the area of the isthmus of the thyroid gland, a mass of 2
cm is determined by palpation, What method of radiological diagnosis should be performed to visualize the palpable mass and determine its structure
HHbli Bonpoc
ieHHbl Bonpoc
BOnpoc
OTBeTbI(oAUH OTBeT)
eHHR TeCTa ocTanoCb 1 doppler study
12:31 2 radioisotope study of thyroid hormone in a test tub
epuTb TecT 3 0 x-ray of the neck
4O radioisotope scanning of the thyroid gland

thyroid gland).
5 ultrasound (two-dimensional sonography of the
2 34 5 6 7 50
10:22
d) ENG
11-01-20212
ype here to search
43% =12:47 pm
CHHrx Kynaun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N944
Woman 53 years old turned to a therapist with complaints of

thirst, frequent urination, itching of the perineum. Anamnesis,
disturb the above complaints for month. Objectively: The
1

Laboratory blood glucose-9.3 mmol/1, after meals 15.0
mmol/1. Doctor diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Explain why the patient developed hyperglycemia syndromein
this case?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBer)
1 obesity
Ohypodynamia
3 heredity
underwelght
5 stress
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
21112 133 144 15

5
8 210
7
16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 3435 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbl
BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbi
BOpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Vi Indialldea O 3) 11:30
Be6 TecTHpoBaHe
A avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBHKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N 31
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is normal (mU/)?
OTBeTbI(opnH OTBeT)
1 from 0.1 to 3.0
from 1.4 to 6.1
3 from 2.1 to 7.5

4 from 1.0 to 5.0
5 from 0.4 to 4.0
27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
56 7
89 10
ndiajldea
Ot l 33 11:29
X Be6 TecTWpOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ko Ru
Bonpoc: N99
The cause of secondary aldosteronism is:
OTBETbl(OqMH OTBeT)
1 Tumor of the fascicular zone of the adrenal cortex
2 Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence of angiotensin
3 Tumor of the reticular adrenal cortex
Tumor of the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex
5
Tumor of the adrenal medulla
5 6 7 89 10 11 12 13 50
2 3 4 56 7 89 10
11:21
0< 0 2e 4 80%
Pan HWTWLI Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne13
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
2 Increased secretion of aldosterone under the

influence of angiotensin
3 Tumor of the fascicular zone of the adrenal

cortex
4 Tumor of the adrenal medulla
5 Tumor of the glomerular zone of the adrenal

cortex
1 9 10 11 12 13
14 15 16 17 50
1 2 3 4 56 7
89 10
11 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 2425 26 27 28 20 220
G 13
11:25 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan KyMap ArapBan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N923
Describe the stool for hypothyroidism in early
childhood:
OTBeTbl(oAMH oTBeT)
1 form as pea puree
2 frequent, frothy with mucus
3 frequent with blood

4 form of rice water
5 persistent constipation
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
27 50
1 2 34 567 89 10
11 121314 1516 17
18 19 20
2122 232425 26 27 28 29 30
3132 333435 36 3738 39
40
41 42 434445 4647 4849 50
OTBeveHHblM
Bonpoc
nponyuyeHHbl
Bonpoc
TeKyuuna
BOnpoc
11:22 0 <. I0 4l 81%
Bonpoc: Ne49
A 55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at the
place of residence with complaints of thirst, dry mouth,
weight gain, pain in the lumbar region, sweating.
Objectively: height - 170 cm, body weight- 120 kg, moon-
shaped face, crimson-red, excessive growth of facial
hair, acne, excessive deposition of fatty tissue in the
shoulder, chest, abdomen, red-violet color, atrophy of the
muscles ofthe arms and legs. BP- 190/100 mm Hg.
Blood glucose 12 mmol/I. Choose, what hormonal
blood test is necessary to conduct any obesity disease?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
vasopressin
2 thyroxine
3 insulin
4 prolactin
5 cortisol
1 43 44 45 46 A1
47
48 49 50
O
1Z.37
KyMap HwpaHaaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N94
Patient J., 34 years old, had a bloody nipple discharge the
in
period of absence of pregnancy and lactation. Previously, the

study of the mammary glands was not performed. Has been
smoking for several years. What radiation methods will you
prescribe to the patient in the first place?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
ultrasound, doppler
3 multi spiralcomputed tomography
4 chest xray
mammography, ductography
1 2 3 4 5 67 8
ehich micro 0ofo

B.Cyanotic eyelid skin staining

CMar condroma due to lesions of the exocrine glands
KyuaBaxa
Paxyn Map
Bonpoc: N°49
Patient 29 years old, consulted a family doctor with complaints of headaches, weight gain, weakness,
palpitations, menstrual irregularities. On examination: rounded face, acne. Weight 98 kg, height 162 cm.
Body mass index- 37.6 kg /m2. Conclusion: obesity ll degree. Choose, which method isused to determine of
obesity?
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 O Brock's index
2 Borngardt index
3 Jackson-Pollock index
4 Breitman index
Quetelet index
5
46 47 48 49 50
43 44 45
Vi Indialldea
Be6 TecTHpOBaHMe
X avn.kgma.kg
Kg Ru
TyTaPaBMKaHT
Bonpoc: N°41
A 38-year-old womanwas admitted to the clinic with complaints of decreased appetite,
constipation, hearing loss, difficulty in nasal breathing, weakness. Anamnesis: Subtotal
strumectomy was performed 3 years ago. Objectively: The skin is dry, the height is 167 cm, the
weight is 68 kg, there is dense swell ing of the legs. diagnosed with hypothyroidism syndrome.
Explain why hearing is reduced and nasal breathing is difficultdue to?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
inflammation
2 infection
3 muscle swelling
4 swelling of the skin
5 mucous edema
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Kyneap Ons
Hapate
na.kg/webtest/testin9
increased biood
mouth, cm,weight
Ne49 headache, diy height-167
Bonpoc: weakness, rubeosis, according by
complaintsof cheek obesity
face, degree of
hospital with Objectively.rounded Determine,what
clinical thighs.
exercise.
department of a during abdomenand
endocrinology lumbar spine the
skin of
admitted to the the heart, in the striae on the
region of cm, pale
woman was in the circumference 100
57-year-old mm Hg. pain hip
A 160/90 cm,
pressure to circumference 120 OTBeTbi(OAMH
OTBer)
92 kg, waist
BMI?
O
50
48
47
46
45
44
43
11:25 O 0<. 009 Y 4 84%
Pan HuTWI Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N°38
Waist circumference in men is normally less than (cm)
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 110
2 94
3 86
4 78
5 102
1 34 35 36 37 38
39 40 41 42 50
1 23 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
ATDAUAILIŽ pannA
M50% 11:54 am
CHHrxKynAn Ke
Ru
Bonpoc: N4
Patient J., 34 years old, had a bloody nipple discharge in the

period of absence of pregnancy and lactation. Previously, the
study of the mammary glands was not performed. Has been
smoking for several years. What radiation methods will you
prescribe to the patient in the first place?
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBET
1 mammography, ductography
2 chest x-ray
3 magnetic resonance imaging
4 ultrasound, doppler
5 multispiralcomputed tomography
1
2 3 7 8 50
1 2 3 45 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM
Bonp0c
nponyuieHHbI
BOnpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TeCTa
oCTanocb:
1:00:49
3aBepuwTb TeCT
11:25 AM Mon 11 Jan
Ov A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan Kymap ArapBan. Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N924
Indicate, in what period of childhood symptoms of hyperthyroidism
syndrome appear:
OTBeTbI(OAWH OTBeT)
1 newborn
2 senior nursery age
3 puberty
4 preschool
5 brest
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
28 50
1 23 4567 9 8 10
1112131415 1617 18 19
20
212223 24252627 28
29 30
31 32 3334 35 36 3738 39 40
41424344 4546474849
50
OTBeveHHb
Bonpoc
nponyuieHHbi
Bonpoc
Tonmman popnnc
Vi IndialldeaP ©
OR ill a33 1130
Be6 TecTMpOBaHMe
A avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBHKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N932
Firstaid for hypoglycemia, what kind of remedy is taken?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 metformin 500mg
2 insulin 4 unit
3 furosemide 40 mg
calcium chloride 100 mg
5 glucose 40%
28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
12 3 4567 8 9 10
avn.kgma.kg
rynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°20
A 3-year-old boy
was admitted to the clinic for childhood diseases. On examination:
the child's
heightis much lower than the age norm, short neck, arms and legs, big belly; the
head is
the nasal bridge is sunken, the face is puffy, pale, mask-like, the mouth is open, the tonguelarge,
is
enlarged, there are many carious teeth, the speech is slurred, the spoken words are
distorted,
the syllables in them are often rearranged; the child does not always answer questions, he is
capricious and irritable. BP 80/50 mm Hg. Art., pulse 45 per minute.
The thyroid gland is painless
onpalpation, not enlarged. The child's mother took iodine preparations during pregnancy.
Diagnosis "Congenital hypothyroidism. Cretinism". The initial
and pathogenetic link of this
disease is:
OTBeTbli(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Low TSH levels
2 Increase in FSH and LH
3 Lack of micronutrients
4 Deficiency of T3 T4
5 Lack of iodine
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
50
Vi IndialldeaP
Beó TecTWPOBaHe
X A avn.kgma.kg
Bonpoc: N°47
20-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic unconscious. According to relatives, she previously
A
complained of intense thirst, frequent urination and general weakness. Objectively: the smell of
acetone from the mouth, the skin is dry. Rapid breathing. Heart sounds are muffled. The
abdomen is tense. The doctor had previously diagnosed acute hyperglycemia. What analysis is
needed first?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
total cholesterol
2 C- peptide
3 triglycerides
Oglycohemoglobin
5 blood glucose
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
7 l51%u 10:15
Be6 TeCTWpOBaHMe
C avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
AHaHA MpMHanmHM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°43
A man V. 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic with multiple pathological, spontaneous
fractures of tubular claws, pronounced curvature of the spine and deformation of the skeleton.
Upon admission, the patient complained of general weakness, extremely rapid fatigue,
muscle
hypotonia, and bone pain. In the anamnesis there are indications presence of kidrney stones,
severe polyuria and an increased content of phosphates in the urine. Laboratory examination
revealed an increase in the calcium content in the blood to 15.1 mmol /L and a decrease in
the
phosphorus content to 0.24 mmol/L. What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 thyroid inflammation syndrome

2 hypercortisol syndrome
3 hyperthyroidism syndrome
4 hyperparathyroidisrm syndrome
5 hyperglycemic syndrome
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50
45 67
tEE1pt2 18 19 2
44 45 46 47 48 49 50
42%-127 p
complaints of
generalpracitione at an poicinic wit
constipation, hoarseress, memory loss, weakness
drowsiness, and swzallowirng of face Fro the anammesis it is
krow tese symgioms have been disturoirg tor the lat
12
months. bjectiveiy. The skin is dry, elbow hyperkeratosis
Swalliowing of face. The thyroid gland is not enlarged by
palpatior, pairless, nodular fomations are nat determined
Hormonal profile and antibody determinationc TSH-25.7 pU
mil T4 free-6.1 prmol /LAB 1o TP0-271 U/mil, AB to
yrogicbulin-310 ug /mil. Utrasound of the thyroid gland: V.
igt iobes -30cm3, Vieft. lobes-21 cm, V total-5.1 cm3.
Echogenictyis increased. Pronounced diffusely
eserogeneous structure, nodular formations are not
determined. What oyndrome does the hormonal profile data
indicane
OTBETE(OBVH OTBET)
hyaid iefamaion srdome

2 ndime of hypetypaidim
desme of yprptiutarism
symdecme f tyoparatsraidiam
tfyid scddle sysdeome
45 49 50
23 4 89 1
11 12 131416 1
waps New Tab en
Kyuraeanca Paag
Kyaap
Bonpoc: Ne12
An excess of thyroid hormones
occurs when:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OoTBET)
2 Acromegaly
3O Miksedeme
4 Endemiccretinisr
5 nsulinoma
14
8 10 11
12 13 15 16 50
211l12 133 144567 9910

15 16 1718 19 20
KyMap Ou Hapam
wn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
disturbingfor 1
complaintsare
Bonpoc: N940 palpitations.The
above
breasts,
purple-red
gain,
weakness,
cm, enlargement of the patient
headaches, weight height -162 symptoms ofthe
complaints of acne,
weight-110 kg, descriptionthe objective
therapist with rounded,
a polyclinic examination: the face is Findout from the
turned to arms and legs.
A
40-year-old man hastraumatic brain injury. On thighs, thinning of the
suffering a abdomen,
year after stretching of the skin on the OTBer)
OTBeTbI(oAMH
streaks of
obstetrician hand
Ofish mouth, diastema
noce macrognathia,
2 0 macroglossia
hirsutism,
3 50
gynecomastia, striae
44
43
42
41
4 myxedema 39 40
exophthalmos, 38
37
30
SAMSUNU
l 51%10:16
Be6 TecTpoBaHe
O C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
AHaHA MpMHannH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne48
Patient, 48 years old, at a doctor's appointment complains of muscle weakness, rapid physical
fatigue, lack of appetite, nausea, muscle pain, addictlon to salty foods, menstrual irregularities.
On examination, weight 48 kg, height 166 cm. The skin has a dark brown color, dark spots on
the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, subcutaneous fat is thinned. BP 70/50 mm Hg. The
pulse on the radial artery is soft, small filling. Choose the most informative blood test for your
diagnosIS
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 adrenocorticotropichormone
2 growth hormone
3 thyroid-stimulating hormone
4 melanotropic hormone
5 follicle-stimulating hormone
43 45 46 48 49 50
1 3 13 14
45 67 8
11 12 18 15 16 17 19 20
21 22 2324 25 26 27 28 29 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 36 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIRBOnpoc
nponyuteHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuynn Bonpoc
Ao saBepueHMa TeCTa gCTA9S

Kpap Oe Hapa
Bonpoc: Ne27
hypothyroidism syndrome:
«myxedema heart» in
basis of the
Highlight, what is the
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
regulation
nervous
disorder of the potassium.content
increase in
muscle fibers
dysfunction of
eosinophilia
Omucoid 30
myocardtal edema
31
30
29
29
Ointersticial 28
2A 26
KyuaBaxa Paxyn KymMap
Bonpoc: Ne38
What is the characteristic symptom for the syndrome of acuteinflammation ofthethyroid gland:
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
1Obradycardia, hypotension
2 O
increase in body temperature
3Oheadaches, weakness
4 Ono pain on palpation
5Oattacksof asphyxia
42
34 35 36 37 39 40 41
1 23 45 6 781R 91910
20
17
11:25 O 0 <. U 2.00
t l 84%
Pan HWTWu Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne39
Inhypercortisolism syndrome, skin changes are
characterized by
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 myxedema
2 darkening
3 striae
4 yellowness
5 vitiligo
1 35 36 37 38 39
40 41 42 43 50
1 23 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
O
11:23 AM Man 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHanKyMap Arapsan. Ru
Bonpoc: N91
Patient A., 51 years old, complains of iitability, trembling of fingers,
insomnia for more than 2 months. after suffering psychotrauma. On
examination, the patient had a normal diet, the pulse was 84 beats per
minute. BP 120/70 mm Hg Eye symptoms are not detected. In the area of
the isthmus ofthe thyroid gland, a mass of 2 cm is determined by
palpation. What method of radiological diagnosis should be performed to
visualize the palpable mass and determine its structure?
OTBeTbI(oqnH OTBeT)
1 x-ray of the neck.
2 doppler study.
3 radioisotope scanning of the thyroid gland.
4 radioisotope study of thyroid hormone in a test tube.
ultrasound (two-dimensional sonography of the thyroid gland)
2 3 4 5 6 50
2 3 4 5 6789 10
11 12 13 14 151617 1819 20
21222324 25 26 2728 29 30
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 3940
41424344 4546474B4950
O
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BHHa KyMap Arapsan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N913
Basophilic adenoma of the adenohypophysis leads to the
development of:
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
1 Simmonds disease
2 Hyperthyroidism 6
3Gigantism
Acromegaly
5 Cushing'sdisease
17
910 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
1 2 3 4
89 5.67 10
11121314 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 2324 25 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
40
4142434445 4647 4849 50
QTBeueHHtl
Bonpoc
nponyuieHHl Bonpoc
Texyuw Bonpoc
Aavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
O
Kg Ru
Kymap HupaHamaH
Bonpoc: N°6
A 63-year-old patient complains of difficulty passing solid food.
On
Objectively, the patient is lethargic, his voice is hoarse.
fat. A
examination, bradycardia, pasty skin and subcutaneous
barium swallow was performed, which showed a moderate
to
deviation of the pharynx and the upper third of the esophagus
the the
right, contours of the esophagus are normal. What is the
most informative research method you can use?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
2 endoscopPy
3 overview Radiography
4 computed tomographywith contrasting thyroid gland
5 thyroid ultrasound
ehich micro 0 of 0
A. Periorbital edema with purplish-purple erytheema


C."dry" syndrome due to lesions of the exocrine glands

Vi Indial|ldea P IOt l831 11:30
Be6 TecTMpOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ka Ru
Bonpoc: N°30
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1 102
2 110
3 94
4 78
5 86
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
50
1 23 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20
wTUTeCiMpOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
rynTa PaBMKaHT KgRu
Bonpoc: N914
Conn's syndrome (primary aldosteronism)
is manifested by
1 Oliguria
2 Hypotension
3 Accumulation of H ions
4 Na loss and K delay
5 Na retention and loss of K
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
50
123 4 56 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
O l 831 11:31
Vi IndialldeaP O
Be6 TecTMpOBaHne
X A avn.kgma.kg
Ru
TynTa PaBMKaHT
Bonpoc: N945
present any
44-year-old woman was admitted to the clinic for examination and doesn't
A
with increased
complaints. Anamnesis: dad suffers from diabetes. Objectively: a patient
Breathing is vesicular.
nutrition, normal color leather. Height 170 cm2, body weight- 85 kg.
blood) 5.8 mmol / after
l
Heartsounds are saved. Laboratory: fasting blood glucose (capillary
-
meals after 2 hours 6.8 mmol/1, interpret this result
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 hypoglycemia
2 acute hyperglycemia
3 diabetes mellitus
4 impaired fasting glucose
55 impaired glucose tolerance
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Vi IndialldeaP 01 l ) 11:300
ABe6 TeCTWpoBaHme
X avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°40
A man V. 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic with multiple pathological, spontaneous
fracturesof tubular claws, pronounced curvature of the spine and deformation of the skeleton.
Upon admission, the patient complained of general weakness, extremely rapid fatigue, muscle
hypotonia, and bone pain. In the anamnesis there are indications presence of kidney stones,
revealedan increase in the calcium content in the blood to 15.1 mmol/L and a decrease in the
phosphorus content to 0.24 mmol / L. What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
3 hyperparathyroidism syndrome
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
SAMSNG
l 43%=12:50 pm
CWHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°43
complaints of
Patient K., 48 years old, went to the clinic with
severe weakness, weight loss, bone pain, especially in the feet,
long-term healing fractures, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting
not associated with food intake, diarrhea. From the
anamnesis: suffers from adenoma of the right parathyroid
gland. Laboratory data: TBC-anemia, Calcium-3.4 mmol /1,
phosphates-0.7 mmol/1 What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAWH OTBeT)
5 hyperglycemia syndrome
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50
1 23 4
5 6
7 8 910
11 12 13 1415 16 17 1819 20
2122 23 24 25 26 2728 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbI Bonpoc
nponyueHHbin BOnpoc
TeKyuMn Bonpoc
Ao saBepiieHwa TecTa oCTanocb

l 93%
Bonpoc: N946
The man40 year old was admitted to the clinic, complaints
of
palpitations, interruptions in the work of the heart,
sweating,
trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has been ill for
several years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced.
Heart
sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure
170/60 mm Hg.ECG: tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation.The
doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain, what
caused the atrial fibrillation in this case, because of the increase?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT
1 parathyroid hormone
2 calcitonin
3 increased TSH
4 antibodies TPO
5 T3 and T4
42 43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
ehich micro 0 of 0


c "dr" sundromn duo t
l 43%-12:49 pm
TeCTMpOBaHW X
Be6 O
CAavn.kgma.kg/webtes
CMHTxKynAnn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne21
headache, increased
complains of nausea,
A 25-year-old man gastrointestinal
polyuria. Gastroscopy revealed no
thirst and
pathology. The condition
worsened thirst and polyuria
-
a
amount of liquid drunk increased to 8 liters,
increased, the a
headache accompanied by vomiting, there was
constant
Urine analysis: a decrease the
in
lateral visual fields.
loss of
of urine to 1002, blood
specific gravity in the morning portion
mosm/kg.
osmolality-315 mosm/kg, urine osmolality-270
Which of the following
Fasting blood sugar-3.2 mmol/1.
methods is priority:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Determination of blood sugar during the day
2 Excretory urography
3 Fluid restriction test
4 MRI of the brain
5 ultrasound of the kidneys
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
12 3 4 56789
a1.12.13
10
341s16
17.1819.20
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHanKymap ArapBan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N918
A 39-year-old patient complains of
irritability, palpitations and pain in the
region of the heart, increased appetite. On examination,
attention is drawn
to bulging9, muscle tremors, blood pressure
150/70.
Indicatewhichglandfunctionisimpaired?
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 Pancreas
2 Epiphysis
3 Thyroid
4 Pituitary gland.
Parathyroid
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
22 50
12 3 4567
11121314 151617119 89 10
20
21 222324 25 2627 28
29 30
31 32 33 34 35 363738 39 40
41424344 45 464748 49
50
rAeve
Vi Indialldea
TecTHpoBaHne
X ABe6
avn.kgma.kg
Tynta PaBMKaHT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°37
Indicate in which syndrome arterial hypotension is most often observed?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1
hypocorticism
2 hypoparathyroidism
3 acromegaly
4 hyperthyroidism
5 hyperglycemia
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
50
23 4 5 67 8 9 10
O
11:25 0<. 009 4l 84%
O A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/te
Bonpoc: N942
Patient G., 42 years old, after a traumatic injury to the
neck, notes the periodic appearance of paresthesias
(pathological unpleasant sensations, for example,
"running creeps") with the subsequent development of
seizures. Before the development of seizures, he has
nausea, vomiting. Convulsions are tonic in nature,
beginning in the upper limbs and face. Consciousness
during this period is preserved. Examination of the
patient revealed that the content of calcium in the blood
is 0.6 mmol /I, phosphorus -8.0 mmol/1. What is your
preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 hypoparathyroidism syndrome
2 hypocorticism syndrome
3 hypopituitarism syndrome
4 hypothyroidism syndrome
5 hypoglycemic syndrome
1 38 39 40 41 42
43 44 45 46 50
O
<
11:25 0 009 4l 84%
Bonpoc: Ne43
A man V. 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic with
multiple pathological, spontaneous fractures of tubular
claws, pronounced curvature of the spine and
deformation of the skeleton. Upon admission, the
patient complained of general weakness, extremely
rapid fatigue, muscle hypotonia, and bone pain. In the
anamnesis there are indications presence of kidney
stones, severe polyuria and an increased content of
phosphates in the urine. Laboratory examination
revealed an increase in the calcium content in the blood
to 15.1 mmol/ L and a decrease in the phosphorus
content to 0.24 mmol/L. What is your preliminary
syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 39 40 41 42 43
AA A5 A6 50
O
DEU CUTMpOBaHIE
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°21
A 56-year-old woman was admitted to surgery for stomach ulcers in an unconscious state.
Objectively: a patient of average height. The face is moon-shaped, crimson-red, vellus hair on the
chin and above the upper lip. There is a selective deposition of fat in the chest and upper
abdomen. The limbs are thin. On the skin of the abdomen, shoulders, mammary glands, there
are wide stretch stripes of red-purple color, a lot of acne. The borders of the heart are expanded.
Pulse 92 per minute, blood pressure 200/100 mm Hg, blood levels of hyperglycemia,
hypernatremia, hypokalemia; in plasma, a decrease in corticotropin and an increase in
17
ketosteroids in the urine. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely
OTBETbi(OqMH OTBeT)
1
Hypertensive crisis
2 Diabetes insipidus
3 Peptic ulcer
4 Cushing's syndrome
5 Diabetes mellitus
1
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25
50
Vi Indialldea O1 l 31 11:29
X Be6 TecTMpOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBkaHT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne16
A patient was brought to the admission department of the hospital, who lost consciousness in
thestreet. The examination revealed the smell of acetone from the mouth. What is the
preliminary diagnosis that can be made:
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Internal bleeding
2 Uremic coma
3 Pulmonary embolism
4 Diabetic coma
5 Hepatic coma
1 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 19 20
50
2 3 4 5 67 89 10
l 43%12:49 pm
Cerx Kynan
Bonpoc: N42
with
Patient A., 40-year-old was admitted to the hospital
complaints of chills, weakness, difficulty in swallowing, pain in
when
the neck with irradiation to the ears, head, aggravated
turning, body temperature 38 C, sweating. On palpation, the
thyroid gland is enlarged, painful, not soldered to the
surrounding tissues, compacted, there are no fluctuating
areas. Submandibular, cervical lymph nodes are not enlarged.
In the analysis of blood: ESR up to 21 mm/h, relative
lymphocytosis. In the study of the accumulation of iodine by
the thyroid gland on the scanned areas of enlightenment, the
accumulation is reduced. What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 syndrome of hypofunction of the parathyroid glands
2 adrenal hypofunction syndrome
3 syndrome of hypothyroidism
4 thyroid nodule syndrorme
38 39 10 41 42 43 44 45
50
1 23 456 7
11 1213 141516 17 18891920
10
2122 23 24 25 26 2723 29 30
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Be6 TecTWpOBaHMe
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°49
Patient, 29 years old, consulted a family doctor with complaints of headaches, weight gain,
98B
weakness, palpitations, menstrual irregularities. On examination: rounded face, acne. Weight
kg,height- 162 cm. Body mass index 37.6 kg/ m2. Conclusion: obesity degree. Choose,
lI
-
which method is used to determine of obesity?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBET)
1 Borngardt index
2 Brock's index
3 Quetelet index
5 Breitman index
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 234 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°23
Name the hormone that regulates the function of
the thyroid gland:
OTBeTbi(OqMH OTBeT)
1 adrenocorticotropic hormone
3 thyroglobulin
4 thyrocalcitonin
5 thyrotropin releasing hormone
19 20 21 22 2324 25 26 27
50
12 3 456 789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Mymap Om Hapa
gma.kg/webtest/testing
Bonpoc: N°50 memory loss,drowsiness.

rapid fatigue,
the neck, apparentreasonand developed
pressure in the front of no
complains of a feeling of complaints arose years ago for gland is
with a local
therapist
that these
6gland are palpated, more on the right: theanti-TPO-364
appointment anamnesis thyroid pmol/ml,
years old, at an It is known
from the
and both lobes
of the
detected: 8-miU/L
T4fr.-8.6 clarifythe
Patient M., 44 autoimmune thyroiditis. touch. The isthmus laboratory tests, TSH was intervention should beused to
was to the
Anamnesis: Mother is clean, dry, cold
mm Hg. In What diagnostic
examination: the skin rhythmic. BP 90/70 hemoglobin 96g /L
gradualy. On per minute, leukocytes 5.8 x 109/,
moderately painful. Pulse 53 1012/1,
dense, erythrocytes 3.5
count:
mi. Total blood
IU/
diagnosis? OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBer)
1311
thyroidscan with
thyroid gland
auscultation of the
thyroid gland
ultrasound of the
thyroid gland 50
MRI of the 48
49
neck 47
tadiography of the 44 45 46
lateral
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N 22
A 60-year-old
man was admitted to the endocrinology department with
suspected basophilic
adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland. Complains of general weakness, frequent bronchitis,
headache, pain in the back and limbs. Objectively: the clinical picture corresponds
to Cushing's
syndrome. In the analyzes, there is an increase in the basal level of corticotoropin in
blood
plasma and glucocorticoids in plasma and urine. With fluoroscopy, pronounced
osteoporosis
thebones of the skull, vertebral bodies, hyperplasia of both adrenal glands. Which of the of
following answers is most likely
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Estrogen deficiency
2 Imbalance between bone formation and destruction
3 High glucocorticoid levels
4 Vitamin D deficiency
5 Aging of the body
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
50
11:25 AM Mon 11 Jan
O A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan KyMap Arapsan. Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N920
A 25-year-old man complains of nausea, headache, increased
thirst and
polyuria. Gastroscopy revealed no gastrointestinal pathology.
The condition
worsened thirst and polyuria increased, the amount of liquid
drunk
increased to 8 liters, a constant headache accompanied by
vomiting, there
was a loss of lateral visual fields. Urine analysis: a
decrease in the specific
gravity in the morning portion of urine to 1002, blood
osmolality 315
mosm/ kg, urine osmolality 270 mosm/ kg. Fasting blood sugar 3.2
mmol/1. Which of the following methods is priority:
OTBeTbl(oAMH oTBET)
2 MRI of the brain

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
24 50
1 2 3 4 567
89 10
11 121314 151617 181920
A Be6 TeCTMpOBaHMe
A avn.kgma.kg
Bonpoc: N935
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down with thyroid
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Kocher
2 Grefe
3 Elinek
4 Krause
5 Shtelvag
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
50
11:23 AM Mon 11 Jan
O Aavn.kgma.kg
BMHanKyMap Arapsan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N94
A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had grown by 10 cm over
the
summer. When examining a 19-year-old boy: height
180 cm, weight 68
kg. Which research method is more applicable
for diagnosing a disease:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 target X-ray of the skull

3 computed tomography
4 ultrasound
5 craniography
1 2 3
456 7 50
1 2 3 456 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 222324 25 26 2728 29 30
31 3233 34 35 36 37 3839
40
4142 4344454647 4849 50
OTBeHeHHbi Bonpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
TEKyuw Bonpoc
Bonpoc: N°29
Laboratory sign of hypercortisolism syndrome
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 hyperproteinemia
2 hypernatremia
3 hypocalcemia
4 O hypoglycemia
5 hyperkalemia
25 26 27 28 29 30 3132 33
U il 83 11:29
X Be6 TecCTWpOBaHWe
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°11
The initial product for the synthesis of thyroid hormones
is:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Tyrosin
2 Wallin
3 Phenylalanine
4 Leucine
5 Oxyproline
1
8 9
10 1112 13 14 15
50
23 4 5 67
89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Beó TecTMPOBaHe
XA avn.kgma.kg <
rynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°17
Onthe basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used to stimulate the contractile activity of
the uterus:
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Oxytocin
2 Prolactin
4 Vasopressin
5 Follicle-stimulating hormone
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
50
1 23 456789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
HapanH
Kymap OM
ma.kg/webtest/testing
from diabetes
Bonpoc: N944 training,
beensuffering
the boy haspreserved.BP 120/90 mm Hg
goodbefore soundsare consciousness.
trainer, he felt vesicular.Heart regained
According to the Breathing is and the patient
unconscious state. skin is moist. glucose solution,
to the clinic in an consciousness. Objectively The
hypoglycemia,
prescribed a
was admitted suddenly lost diagnosed him with
A
17-year-old boy training, he physician
childhood; during attending
since /1. The
glucose 2.7 mmol case?
Laboratory hypoglycemia in this
cause of OTBETb1(oanH oTBeT)
Explain the
Odrinkalcohol
overdose
metformin
2
untimelymeal
50
activity 47
physical 46
overdose 42
43 44 45
insulin 40
41
1731
Vi Indialldea
0 l 83 11:28
Be6 TecTMpOBaHe
avn.kgma.kg
Bonpoc: N95
Woman M., 35 years old, who has been
smoking for 18 years, found in her left the mammary
gland has a nodular formation, up to 2 cm in diameter. She turned
to the mammologist, who
confirmed the presence of a mass. Predict which radiological
examinations the patient should be
referred to for diagnostic information?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 X-ray of the chest
2 mammography
3
4 scintigraphy
1 2 3 67 8 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10
x Eriddocint linalpd
Bonpoc: N93
Indicate what volume of contrast agent is injected with intravenous contrasting of the adrenal gland:
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 90-120 ml
2 O 120-150 ml
3 30-60 ml
4 O60-90 ml
5O150-180ml
1
234 5 6 7 50
prt sc delete
&
8 9 backspace
avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Kymap OM HapaH
Bonpoc: N96
examination, bradycardia, pasty skin and
lethargic, his voice is hoarse. On
solid food. Objectively, the patient is upper third of the esophagus to the
right, the
patient complains of difficulty passing deviation of the pharynx and the
A 63-year old which showed a moderate
swallow was performed, you can use?
0 subcutaneous fat. A barium informative research method
the most
normal. What is
0 contours of the esophagus are
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
tomography
1 mnulti spiralcomputed
AoCb
thyroid gland
tomographywith contrasting
2 computed
endoscopy
3
thyroid ultrasound
Ooverview Radiography 9 10
S0
5 8
3 4
IO 3
X A Be6 TecTMpOBaHe 1129
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBHKaHT
Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
Violation
of theprocesses of secretion in
the endocrine gland can occur
due to
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Changes in the number of specific
receptors
2
Disorders of hormone metabolism
3 Violations of the feedback

mechanism
4 Weak transport connection

with blood proteins
5 Genetic defect in hormone synthesis
1 6 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
50
1 2 3 4567 89 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Kywap Ow Hapans
t/testing9
Bonpoc: N99
can lead to:
endocrine disorders
peripheral form of
To
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBer)
hormone-protein binding
Weak
hypothalamus
Alteration of the
alteration
Pituitary
endocrine gland
Alteration of the proteins 50
hormones with 12
13
Strong bond of 10
11
11:21
< 0 2e 4 80%
Pan HwTWLI Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne16
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used
to stimulate the contractile activity of the uterus:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Oxytocin
4 Prolactin
5 Vasopressin
12 13 14 15 16
17 18 19 20 50
1 3
4 5 67 8 9 10
2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbl BOnpoc
O
12:42
l 914
Kymap HupaHaaH
Bonpoc: N°12
is:
The most common cause of Addison's disease
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Adrenal atrophy
2 Pituitary tumor
4 Hyperplasia of the pineal gland
5 Ovary hypertrophy
1 8 9 10 11 12
14 15 16 50
1 2 3 45 6 78 9 10
ehich micro O of 0
) Porionbitol
HapanH
Kymap OM
hypothyroidism?
Bonpoc: Ne26 babieswith
membranesin
mucous
and
facial skin
pallor of the
explains the OTBeT)
Highlight, what OTBeTbl(oquH
deficiencCy
vitamin «C
deficiency
iron
2 hypovitaminosis B12
activity 50
physical
decreased vessels
blood
deep
arrangement of
22
24
25 27
Vi Indialldea
O l 1 11:28
Be6 TecTMpoBaHMe
X avn.kgma.kg
Bonpoc: N94
patient with complaints of abdominal pain was delivered to the admission department of the
hospital. An ultrasoundof the pancreas:head 18 mm, body 16 mm, tail 17 mm. It is visualized
satisfactorily. The contours are clear, smooth. The structure is moderately
heterogeneous, the
echogenicity is moderately increased. There is a volumetric formation in the head of the
pancreas in the form of an anechoic formation up to 12 mm. Conclusionis
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 nodular formation
2 malignant neoplasmn
3 sclerosis
4 calcification
5 fluid cyst
12 2 3 4 5 6 7 50
A Be6 TecTHpoBaHme <
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT KRu

Bonpoc: N°38
Normal level of body mass index (kg/ m2) is
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBeT
1 30.0 -34.9
2 35.0 -39.9
3 25.0-29.9
4 40.0 45.9
5 18.5-24.9
34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
50
SatseuG
l 43%12:45 pm
Be6TeCTMpOBaHn x
C A avn.kgma.kg/webtes o
CHHrx KynaAMn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N941
woman consulted a family doctor at her place of

A 55-year-old
residence with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain,
headache, pain in the lumbar region, sweating. Objectively:
height-170 cm, weight- 120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-
red,excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition
of fatty tissue in the shoulder, chest, abdomen, striae of red-
violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP -
190/100 mm Hg. Explain, what caused the development of

obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 hypercortisolism
4 hyperglycemia
5 hyperthyroidism
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
50
2 3 456 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 2223 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
pm
S1245
Bonpoc: N41
A 55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at her place of
residence with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain
headache, pain in the lumbar region, sweating. Objectively
height-170 cm,weight-120 kg moon-shaped face, crimson
red, excessive growth of facial hairt,acne, excessive deposition
of fatty tissuein the shoulder,chest,abdomen, striae ofred
violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP-
obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1 yperc olism
yperpn
3 byperparathyroidism
byperglycema
5 hyperthyroidism
37 38 39 41 42 3 5
50
23 45
11 12 13 141516678 9 10
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 27 29
26 28 30
32 33 34 35 3 37 38 39 40
42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeveHblN BONpoc
ponyueHHb
Bonpoc
TynTa PaBMkaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N924
Indicate the main symptom in hyperglycemia syndrome:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
bad appetite
2 cold sweat
3 polydipsia
4 hyperactivity
5 tremor of the hands, body
1
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
-OTBE
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma. kg
BMHan KyMap ArapBan Kg
Bonpoc: N97
The highest content of antibodies to microsomal antigen in blood
is
observed when:
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
2 Thyroid cancer
5 Thyrotoxic adenoma
89 10 11
50
A234 5 678 10
11 12 13 14 151617 18 9
19 20
21 22 232425 26 27 28 29 30
31 323334 35 36 3738 3940
41424344 454647 484950
OTBeHeHHbl 5onpoc
iponyuueHHl BOnpoc
Vi Indialldea
O1 11.30
Be6 TecTWpOBaHe
avn.kgma.kg
<
rynTa PaBMKaHT Ru
Bonpoc: N°25
Indicate the hormone that regulates the secretion of thyroid-stimulating
hormone by the
pituitary gland:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
3 thyroglobulin
4 thyrocalcitonin
5 thyroxine
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
28 29
50
KywaBaxa Paxyn KymMap
Bonpo: N98
Changes in oxytocin secretion play a role in pathogenesis:
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBET)
1 Disorders of carbohydrate metabolism in diabetes mellitus

sleep
3 Disorders of circadian rhythms "wakefulness-
4 Disorders of labor
5 Myxedem
11 12 50
10
1
6
10
1212 313 144 5 67R

9
17 18
15 16 19 20
11
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BHHan KyMap ArapBan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N915
Patient N., 45 years old, complains of weakness, rapid fatigue, lack of
appetite, weight loss, pain in the abdomen. Objective
examination: the
skinand visible mucous membranes of bronze color, blood pressure is
reduced. Dysfunction of which endocrine gland can cause
the following
symptomsS:
OTBeTb(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Ovary
2 Pancreas
3 Epiphysis
4 Adrenal glands
5 Pituitary gland
11 12 13 14 15 116 17 18
19 50
12 3 4 56789 10
11121314151617 181920
212223 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 3940
4142434445 4647 4849 50
KyMapOM Hapamy
ma.kg/webtest/testin9
Bonpoc: N92 operation?

structure was damaged during the
Determine which
patient developed convulsions.
of the thyroid gland, the
After removal
OTBeTb(ognH OTBeT)
sympathetictrunk
nerve
inferior laryngeal
2
parathyroidgland
3
vagus nerve
4 the
laryngeal artery 50
Oinferior 4 5 6
7
11:23 AM Man 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BHHan KyMap ArapBan. R
Bonpoc: N92
On a CT scan, the pancreas is of the usual location, its contours are clear,
the structure is homogeneous, without focal changes.Determine the
condition of the pancreas:
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 pancreatitis
2 normal
3 tumor
4 cancer
5 Cystadenomna
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50
23 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 3334 3536 37 38 39 40
4142 43 4445 4647 4849 50
OTBeueHHbl Bonpoc
rnponyuieHHbiM BOnpoc
TEYuwi Bonpoc
11:25 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHa Kymap Arapsan Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N922
A 30-year-old man complains of recurrent seizures of
the muscles of the
limbs and face, numbness of the fingers and toes,
pain in the chest and in
the epigastric region, difficulty in breathing. The
disease developed after
removal of part of the thyroid gland for nodular
goiter. The patient is pale.
The hair is sparse, gray. Brittle nails. Neurological
examination a sharp
increase in the excitability of the nervous and
muscular systems. The
content of Ca in the blood is significantly
reduced, the content of
phosphorus is increased. Indicate which
endocrine glands function is
impaired:
OTBeTbi(oAnH oTBeT)
1 Neurohypophysis
2 Adrenal glands
3 Adenohypophysis
Thyroid
Parathyroid
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
26 50
1 2 3 4 567 8 910
11:21
<. 0 2e 4 80%
Pan HWTWLI Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne15
After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed
convulsions. What was damaged during the operation:
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Vagus nerve
2 Sympathetic trunk
3 Parathyroid gland
4 Inferior laryngeal artery
5 Inferior laryngeal nerve
1 11 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 19 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
G 15
ebtest/testing Kymap Ot Hapan
Bonpoc: N934
hypercortisolism is
cause of secondary
The most common
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
corticosteroma
1O
corticotropinoma
2
hypophysectomy
3
pheochromocytoma
4
meningoencephalitis 38
50
37
5
30 31 32 33
34 35 36
(0
in
11:25 0 0 09 KB/S
Y 4l 84%
Bonpoc: Ne45
A 40-year-old woman, at an appointment with an
endocrinologist in a polyclinic, complains of muscle
weakness, rapid physical fatigue, weight los by 12 kg in
the last 2 months, lack of appetite, nausea, muscle pain,
addiction to salty foods, menstrual irregularities. On
examination, weight -48 kg, height- 166 cm. The skin
has a dark brown color, dark spots on the mucous
membrane of the oral cavity, subcutaneous fat is
thinned. BP -70/50 mm Hg. The pulse on the radial
artery is soft, small filling. What explains the decrease in
blood pressure in this patient?
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 hypothyroidism
2 hypoglycemia
3 hypocorticism
4 hypopituitarism
1 41 42 43 44 45
46 47 48 49 50
G 45
O
Bonpoc: Ne26
Highlight, what explains the pallor of the facial skin and mucous membranes babies with hypothyroidism?
in
OTBeTbI(oAnH OTBeT)
1C iron deficiency
2 hypovitaminosis B12
3 vitamin «C» deficiency

4 deep arrangement of blood vessels
5 decreased physical activity

50
22 23 24 25 27 2829 30
Be6 TecTWpOBaHMe
avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBHKaHT Kg R
Bonpoc: N912
Hormone metabolism is disturbed in diseases
OTBeTbl(oqMH OTBET)
1 Liver
2 Hearts
3 Lungs
4 Spleen
5 Nervoussystem
1 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
3 45 67 8 9 10
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 00
12:39 tall 92%
KyMap HupaHamaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne14
Violation of the processes of secretion in the endocrine gland
can occur due to:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Genetic defect in hormone synthesis
2 Weak transport connection with blood proteins
3 Violations of the feedback mechanism
4 Changes in the number of specific receptors
5 Disorders of hormone metabolism
10 11 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 50
ehich micro 0 of 0

B. Cyanotic eyelid
skin staining
C.Dark circles under the eyes
E. Eye constriction with erythema
of eyelids
B. "dry syndrome due tn lesionr nf
LJE 33111:30
ll
ViIndialldeaP
x Be6 TecTMpOBaHne
avn.kgma.kg
<
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ko Ru
Bonpoc: N936
Obesity is a risk factor for the development of the syndrome
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 gigantism
2 hyperglycemia
3 hypercortisolism
hyperthyroidism
32 33 34 35
3637 38 39 40
50
12 3 456 7 89 10
ViIndialldea IO ll 83 11
Be6 TecTWPOBaHne
X A avn.kgma.kg
TynTa PaBMKaHT Ka
Bonpoc: N°27
Identify the main cause of constipation and flatulence in children with hypothyroidism:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
low water consumption
2 poor appetite
3 decrease metabolism of substances
5 motor function of the intestine
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
al 43%1245pm
Ceerx Kyna
Bonpoc: N40
A29-year-old man, was admitted to the clinic with complaints
ofpalpitations, sweating, tremors inthe body, weakness
diarhea, darkening of the skin in places of skin friction.
Anamnesis: has been ill for several years. Examination: the
apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud,
arhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm
Hg.TSH is reduced, T3, T4 is increased. The doctor
diagnosed
hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain what
is the connection
with the appearance of skin darkening due to0?
OTBeTbi(0AMH OTBeT)
1 yms iciency
parathyro insufficien
3 renail failur
adrenal insufficiency
liver failuree
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
12 3 4
11 12 13 1415161789
10
m 1819 20
22 23 24 25 26 27
2 29 30
32 33 34 3s 6 37 39
41 42 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50
OTBeves
BOnpoc
penyuEHHi BonpoC
A 43%12:49 pm
CHrxKynAun 2Ru
Bonpoc: e41
55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at her place of
A

height-170 cm, weight-120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-
red, excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition
violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP -
obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1 hypercortisolism
4 hyperglycemia
5 hyperthyroidism
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 AA A5
50
12 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 151617 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
43 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM
BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbA Bonpoc
11:24 AM Mon 11 Jan
A avn.kgma.kg
BMHan Kymap Arapsan. Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N911
Changes in oxytocin secretion play a role in pathogenesis:
OTBeTb(oAMH OTBET)
1 Myxedema
2 Disorders of labor
3 Disorders of circadian rhythms "wakefulness sleep"
4 Disorders of carbohydrate metabolism
in diabetes mellitus
7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
50
1 3 45 6 7
2
89 10
1112 131415 16 1718 1920
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 333435 36 37 38 3940
41 42 4344454647 4849 50
OTBeHeHHbl
BOnpoc
nponyuieHHbl
BOnpoc
Tekyuinn BOnpoc
+
12:26 ®o00 ll 93%
Kymap HupaHaaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N948
Patient, 29 years old, consulted a family doctor with complaints
of headaches, weight gain, weakness, palpitations, menstrual
irregularities. On examination: rounded face, acne. Weight 98 kg,
height 162 cm. Body mass index 37.6 kg / m2. Conclusion:
obesity IIl degree. Choose, which method is used to determine of
obesity?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Breitman index
2 Borngardtindex
4 Quetelet index
5 Brock's index
5- A9
ehich micro 0 of 0

E. Bye constriction with erythema of eyelids
4.Sjogren syndrome is:
A. "dry syndrome due to dehydration
B.'dry" syndrome due to lesions of the endocrine glands
C.dry" syndrome due to lesions of the exocrine glands
12:17 PM Mon 11 Jan
O A avn.kgma.kg
GG Go
A patient girl, 14years of life, turned with mothers to the family doctor
with complaints on heartbeat, feeling of pressure on the neck, sweating, gle cholester
weight loss. Anamnesis: the above complaints appeared 2 weeks after
the death of the father. Objectively: height 160 sm (N 160), weight
- aA
- 44 kg (N- 51 kg). Nervous, irritable. The skin and palms are very About 11.
moist, tremor of the hands. The thyroid gland is I-II degree. Heart
tones increased, tachycardia. Heart rate 132 in 1 min. Arterial Lower
chole
pressure- 130/72 mm.Hg. Increased appetite, but losing weight. Often LDL
loose stools. What diagnostic study should be done to diagnose the www.
syndrome? Pota
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT) Peo

Wha
1 cholesterol, potassium
Is it
2 common analysis of blood
Wha
3 TSH, T4 Wha
4 glucose blood www.in

Hype
5 common protein, protein fractions
The m
chiann
by AN
25 26 27 28 29 30 31
24
pubm
50 Athe
32
Theb
ester
by
1 2 3 4 5 6 78 9 10 aca
11121314 15 16 17 18 1920 In
weel
21222324 2526 272e 2930 9ro
by
CeOTO9y
Transcript-based notes on video lectures in Ma
Dr. Mayur Arun Kulkarni, MD, DNB3
12:39 ®8 all 92%
Bonpoc: N°21
A 25-year-old man complains of nausea, headache, increased
thirst and polyuria. Gastroscopy revealed no gastrointestinal
pathology. The condition worsened -thirst and polyuria
increased, the amount of liquid drunk increased to 8 liters, a
constant headache accompanied by vomiting, there was a loss of
lateral visual fields. Urine analysis: a decrease in the specific
gravity in the morning portion of urine to 1002, blood osmolality
315 mosm / kg, urine osmolality-270 mosm / kg. Fasting blood
sugar- 3.2 mmol/1. Which of the following methods is priority:
OTBETbl(OAWH OTBeT
1 MRI of the brain
Determination of blood sugar during the day
ehich micro O of 0
B.Cyanoticeyelid skin staining
4.Siogren svndrome is
11:25 0 <. I0 RS t 4l 84%
Bonpoc: N940
Patient A., 64-year-old, female consulted a local general
practitioner complaining of dry skin, overweight (BMI
28 kg/ m2), decreased body temperature, decreased
appetite, constipation, decreased memory, drowsiness.
From the anamnesis: no surgery on the thyroid gland or
irradiation of the neck. Father had a thyroid disorder. On
examination: the skin is dry, cold to the touch. Swelling
of the face. Vesicular breathing, no wheezing. Heart rate
58 per minute. BP -110/70 mm Hg. Body temperature
36.3 C. Stool irregular, constipation tendency.
According to laboratory examination data: total blood
test: hemoglobin 104 g/1, cholesterol-9.4 mmol /,
-
triglycerides -5.5 mmol/ I, TSH-15.3 mU/ 1. Whatisthe

likely cause of hypothyroidism syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 syndrome of hyperthyroidism
2 syndrome of hypofunction of the parathyroid

glands
3 thyroid nodule syndrome
4 syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid

gland
5 syndrome of chronic inflammation of the

thyroid gland
O
kgma.kg/webtest/testing
yseap Ow Hapasn
Bonpoc: N941
by 12 kg in the
of muscle weakness,
rapid physical fatigue, weightloss
in a polyclinic, complains 166 cm. The skin has a
endocrinologist 48 kg, height-
woman, at an appointment with
an irregularities. On examination, weight- on the radial artery is soft, small
A 40-year-old salty foods, menstrual
appetite, nausea, muscle pain, addiction to fat is thinned. BP - 70/50 mm Hg. The pulse
subcutaneous
last 2 months, lack of membrane of the oral cavity,
spots on the mucous
dark brown color, dark pressure in this patient?
filling. Whatexplains the decrease in blood
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
Ohypothyroidism
hypopituitarism
2
hypocorticism
3
hypoglycemia
40
hypoparathyroidism 44 45
43
5 39 40 1 42
37 38
Vi Indialldea 01 l3 11:28
X A Be6 TecTHpOBaHMe
avn.kgma.kg
rynTa PaBMKaHT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°7
An increase in the concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood during
hypothyroidism indicates the localization of the pathological process in:
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1
Thyroid gland
2 Timuse
3 Parathyroid glands
44 Pituitary gland
5 Hypothalamus
1 3
45 6 9 10 11 50
23
4 5 67 8 910 10
12 14 15 16 17 19 20
Rl 49N12:00pm
Curx KyAAH
Bonpoc: Ne49
appointment with a local
Patient M., 44 years old, at an
therapist complains of a feeling of
pressure in the front of the
AnamnesisS
neck, rapid fatigue, memory loss, drowsiness.
Mother was autoimmune thyroiditis. It is known from the
anamnesis that these complaints arose 6 years ago for no
apparent reason and developed gradually. On examination the
skin is clean, dry, cold to the touch. The isthmus and both
lobes of the thyroid gland are palpated, more on the right the
gland is dense, moderately painful. Pulse- 53 per minute,
rhythmic. BP-90/70 mm Hg. In laboratory tests, TSH was
detected: 8-miU/L, T4 fr.- 8.6 pmol/ ml, anti-TPO-364 IU/
ml. Total blood count: erythrocytes 3.5 x 1012 /1, leukoeytes
5.8x109/1, hemoglobin-96g/1. What diagnostic
intervention should be used to clarify the diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBeT)
1 lateral radiography of the neck
2 auscultation of the thyroid

gland
3 thyroid scan with 131 1
4 MRI of the thyroid

gland
5 ultrasound of the thyroid
gland
43 44 45 46 47 48 49
345
am
49%11:59
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
C A
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CWHrx Kyngun
o
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 40
admitted to the clinic with complaints
A 29-year-old man, was
palpitations, sweating, tremors in the body, weakness,
of skin friction.
diarrhea, darkening of the skin in places of
Anamnesis: has been ill for several years.
Examination: the
apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud,
arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm
Hg. TSH is reduced, T3, T4 is increased. The doctor diagnosed
hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain what is the connection
with the appearance of skin darkening due to?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 thymusinsufficiency
2 parathyroid insufficiency
3 renalfailure
4 8adrenalinsufficiency
5 liver fallure
36 37 38
50
39 40
4142 43 44
49%11:
TeCTWpOBaHX
Be6
A avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C
CHHrx Kynqun
Bonpoc: N°36
Laboratory sign of hypercortisolism syndrome
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 hyperkalemia
2 hypernatremia
hypocalcemia
4 hypoglycern.a
5 hyperproteinemia
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
50
23 45678 9 10
1 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 19 20
2122 2324 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 353 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 40
48 49 50
OTBeveHHbli
BonpocC
niponyuueHHbl
BOnpoc
TeKyuw
49%11:59 am
TeCTWpOBaHWX
Be6
C
avn.kgma.kg/webtes o
Kg Ru
CHHrx Kynaun
Bonpoc: N°45
60 years old, applied for a consultation

to a local
Patient K.,
complaints of
general practitioner at an policlinic with
constipation, hoarseness, memory loss, weakness,
it is
drowsiness, and swallowing of face. From the anamnesis
known: symptoms have been disturbing for the last 12
these
months. Objectively: The skin is hyperkeratosis.
dry, elbow
Swallowing of face. The thyroid gland is not enlarged by
palpation, painless, nodular formations are not determined.
Hormonal profile and antibody determination: TSH- 26.7 uIU/
ml. T4 free 6.1 pmol/1, AB to TPO-271U/ml, AB to
thyroglobulin -310 ug/ ml. Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: V-
right lobes 3.0 cm3, V -left. lobes -2.1 cm3, V total. 5.1 cm3.
Echogenicity is increased. Pronounced diffusely
heterogeneous structure, nodular formations are not
determined. What syndrome does the hormonal profile
data
indicate?
hypothyroidism
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
1 thyroidinflammation
syndrome
syndrome of hypopituitarism
4 syndrome of hypoparathyroidism
49%
A
Be6TeCTMpoBaHWX
C avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CHurx Kyngan
Bonpoc: N°33
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is normal (mU/ 1)?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 from 0.1 to 3.0
2 from 0.4 to 4.0
3 from 2.1 to 7.5

4 from 1.0to 5.0
5 from 1.4 to 6.1
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
23 45678
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 9
10
19 20
21 22 2324 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
OTBeveHHbi
BOnpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
Texyuim BOnpoc
49%12:00 pm
CHHrx KynAun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N948
at the place of
Patient V., 50 years old, consulted a doctor
weight, pain in
residence with complaints of increased body
200/1000
the lumbar region, increased blood pressure up to
mm Hg. Objectively: height 165 cm, body weight- 121 kg.
Obesity with redistribution of subcutaneous fat according to
the 'cushingoid" type, redness of the cheeks, striae of red-
violet color in the hips and abdomen, multiple acne on the face
and back, hypotrophy of the limbs. Fasting blood glucose 15 -
mmol/1, urine sugar 6%. What hormonal research method will

help in making a diagnosis?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 testosterone
2 vasopressin
3 cortisol
4 thyroxine
5 Insulin
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2345
1 12 13 14 15
6
7 5 9 10
16 17 18
212223 24 25 26 27 19 20
31 92 28 29 30
3334 35 38 37 38
A1 42 39 40
45 4& A546
474 49 50
OTBeeHHbi BOnpoc
iponyujeHHbl
BOnpoc
am
49%11:59
TecTWpOBaHMX
Be6
C Ru
Kg
CHHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N°34
Obesity 1st degree, the body mass index (kg/m2) is
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 18.5-24.9
2 35.0-39.9
3 40.0-45.9
4 30.0-34.9
5 25.0-29.9
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
50
123 4
12 13 14 56789
10
11 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 23 24 25 2627 28 29 30
22
1 32 334 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 4243 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeNOHHbI
Bonpoc
IponyujewHbl
Bonpoc
TeKyun BOnpoc
49% =11:58 a
TeCTMpOBaHWX
Be6
C A avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CHHrx Kynqun Kg R
Bonpoc: N°24
Describe the stool for hypothyroidism in early childhood:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
form as pea puree
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
50
212 3 4567 89 10
11 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 225 26 27
28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36
37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45
46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM
BOnpoc
1DOnVLLleuu
49% 11:58 am
TeCTWpOBaHM X
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA Kg Ru
CHHrxKynAMn
Bonpoc: N°30
Indicate,what change in the cardiovascular system is most typical for the obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 displacement of the right border
2 apical impulse is weakened, low
3 increase blood pressure

4 pulse soft, low tension
5 arrhythmia of heart sounds
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
50
2 3 45
11 12 13 14 15
678 9 10
16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
39
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 40
49 50
OTBEveHHbi
Bonpoc
TIponmyujewHbin
Bonpoc
Texyuna Bonpoc
D D
D
l 49%11:58 am
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C
Kg Ru
CWHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N931
symptom is characterized by increasing the irritability of

What
and metacarpal
the nerves, and a flexion of the wrist joints
phalangeal joints with extension of the interphalangeal
a
and adduction of the thumb (carpal spasm) after placing
blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm and inflating to 20
mm Hg above systolic blood pressure for 3-5 minutes?
OTBETbI(oguH OTBeT)
1 Trousseau
2 Weiss
3 Schlesinger
4 'fish mouth
5 Khvostek
1 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
23 45 57 59 10
11 1213 14 15
16 17 18 19 20
21222324 25 26 27 28 29
30
32 3334 3E
49% 11:57 am
TeCTHpOBaHWX
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA CHHrx Kyngn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°15
appetite andgreat thirst.Diuresisis 10liters per day
A patient with complaints of decreased
Blood sugar 4mmol /1. What disease can you think of in this case?
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
2 Diabetes mellitus
3 Gestational diabetes
Renaldiabetes
5 Non-sugaranti-diabetes
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
50
23 45 678
11 12 1314 15 16 17 18
9 10
19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 29 30
38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45
46 47 48 49
50
OTBeHeHHblM
BOnpoc
npomyuueHHbi
BOnpoc
Texyutin
Bonpoc
C
49%11:59
Be6TeCTWpoBaHx
CHHrx Kyngwn Kg
Bonpoc: N°44
Woman 53 years old turned to a therapist with complaints

o-
thirst, frequent urination, itching of the perineum. Anamnesis

disturb the above complaints for 1 month. Objectively: The
Laboratory blood glucose -9.3 mmol/1, after meals 15.0
mmol/1. Doctor diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Explain why the patient developed hyperglycemia syndromei
this case?
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBET)
1 obesity
2 hypodynamia
3 heredity
4 underweight
stress
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50 48
A 49% 11:
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
C
CHHrx KynAMn
Bonpoc: N°14
Basophilic adenoma of the adenohypophysis leads to the development of:
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBET)
1
Simmonds disease
2 Acromegaly
3 Cushing'sdisease
4 Hyperthyroidism
5 Gigantism
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
50
211124131 15 16 17 18 19
89 10
21 22 23 24 25 20
26
31 32 33 34 35 27 28 29 30
36 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 40
45 46 47
D
D
TeCTHpoBaHM X
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C
CHHrx Kynaun
Bonpoc: N°37
(BMI)
Formula for calculating body mass index
OTBETbI(oAWH OTBET)
1 weight, kg/ height, m2
2 weight,kg / height, m
3 weight, kg2/ height, m
4 height, m /weight, kg2
5 height, m2/weight, kg
33 34 35
3637 38 39 40
50
2 3 45
11 12 13 14 15
6 78 9 10
16 17 18 19 20
122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
132 33 34 35 36 3 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46
47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbin
BOnpoc
n
O
on
Q
49%11:59 am
TeCTHpOBaHMX
Beó
CWHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne41
A 55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at her place of

height- 170 cm, weight -120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-
red, excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition
violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BPP
obesity syndrome?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 hypercortisolism
4 hyperglycemia
5 hyperthyroidism
1
37 38 39 40 41
S0 42 43 44 45
49% 11:59 am
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA CHHrxKynAMn
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne42
hospital with
Patient A., 40-year-old was admitted to the
in
complaints of chills, weakness, difficulty in swallowing, pain
the neck with irradiation to the ears, head, aggravated when
turning, body temperature 38 C, sweating. On palpation, the
thyroid gland is enlarged, painful, not soldered to the
Surrounding tissues, compacted, there are no fluctuating
areas. Submandibular, cervical lymph nodes are not enlarged.
Inthe analysis of blood: ESR up to 21 mm/h, relative
lymphocytosis. In the study of the accumulation of iodine by
the thyroid gland on the scanned areas of enlightenment, the
accumulation is reduced. What is your preliminary
syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
syndrome of hypofunction of the
parathyroid glands
adrenal hypofunction syndrome
3 Syndrome of hypothyroidism
4 thyroid nodule
syndrome
5 thyroid inflammation
syndrome
38 39 40
50
41
42 43 44 45 46
49% 11:57 am
TeCTMpoBaH X
Be6
C avn.kgma.kg/webtes O
Kg Ru
CHrxKyngwn
Bonpoc: N°9
Damage to the neurohypophysis is accompanied by impaired secretion:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Vasopressin
3 Adrenocorticotropic hormone
4 Prolactin
5 Growth hormone
5 6 78 10 11 12 13 50
1 2 34 5 6 7
B
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
0TBeieHHbl Bonpoc
nponiyujeHHM
BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
AO 3a8epuieHwA
TeCTa oCTaneai
49% -11:59 am
l
CHHrx KynaMn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N947
Patient M., 40 years old, a salesman, applied to the doctor of

weakness, rapid
policlinic with complaints of general
fatigability, sensations of pressure in the
front ofthe neck, loss
memory, facial swelling, constipation. From the anamnesis:
suffering from rheumatoid arthritis for many years.
Objectively: Body temperature 36.1 C. The skin is pale, dry,
peeling is expressed on the legs. Swelling of face, dense
edema on the legs, lower third of the lower leg. Pulse 55 per
minute, BP-126/80 mm Hg. Tongue clean, teeth marks on
tongue. The thyroid gland is unevenly enlarged on
examination, on palpation it is dense, mobile when swallowing,
painful, nodular formations are not determined. Uitrasound of
thethyroid gland: V total. -6.3 cm3 (8.3-18.0). Increased
echogenicity. The structure is clearly diffusely
heterogeneous.
What laboratory test proves the presence of an
autoimmune
syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oqWH OTBeT)
1 T3 fr-3.0 pmol/I
2 AB-TPO-250U/ml
3 AB TG 9U/ml
4
TA fr-28 pmol/1
5 TSH-0.3 mu/1
43 44 45 46
47 48 49 50
am
49%11:57
TeCTHpOBaHMX
Be6 avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA CHHrx KynAMn
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°17
A17-year-old girl considers herself for 6

ill months.
area and
Complaints about the growth of facial hair in the chin
on the upper lip, coarsening of the voice, absence of
menstruation. An objective examination revealed: male-type
hair growth, the mammary glands are not developed, the
external genital organs are underdeveloped. Which of the
following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Hyperaldosteronism
2 Shereshevsky-Turner
syndrome
3 Ovarian hyperfunction
4 Hypogonadism
5 Ovarian hypofunction
13 14 15
50
16
17 18 19 20 21
49%49%11:557
Be6TeCTWpOBaHMX
CWHrx Kynaun
Bonpoc: Ne11
Conn's syndrome (primary aldosteronism) is manifested by
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 0liguria
4
Naretention and loss of K
5 Hypotension
7 89 10 11 12 13 14 15
50
12
11 12
34 567 8 9 10
13 14 15 16 17
18
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 19 20
31 32 33 34 35 36 29 30
37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45
46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM
BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbi
BoIpoc
eRv
49%11:58
Be6TecTWpOBaHX
C
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CHHrx Kynawn Kg
Bonpoc: N°27
What disorders lead to the development of hyperglycemia syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
1 intestinal digestion
2 absorption of dietary fats
3 protein-synthesizing function of the liver
4 deficiency of insulin secretion
5 assimilation of fats
1 a 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
123 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 2526 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 A4 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbi Bonpoc
iponyugeHHbIM
BOnpoc
N
en
Q
N
C
pm
49%12:00
CHHrx Kynaun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°50
admitted to the endocrinology
Patient S., 39 years old, was complaints of weakness,
hospital with
department of a clinical
occipital region when the weather changes,
a headache in the
pressure up to 190/100 mm Hg. pain in
anincrease in blood
physical exertion,
the heart, in the lumbar spine during
menstrual irregularities. Objectively: "moon face,
cheek
-
rubeosis, height 165 cm, weight 112 kg, waist
circumference 120 cm, thigh circumference 100 cm,
numerous small subcutaneous hemorrhages on the skin of
the arms, neck, abdomen, legs, abdominal skin streaks of
purple-red stretch. What is the most informative examination
method for making a diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(oAWH OTBeT)
1 Ultrasound examination
2 Electrocardiogram
3 Computedtomography
4 Echocardiography
5 Radiography
43 44 A5 46 47 48 49 50
2345617
1 21314 15 16 12 69 10
1h 19 20
212223 2A 25
26272 20 30
3132 3334 35 36-37
36 39 40
49% 11:50 am
ll
TeCTWpOBaHM
Beó avn.kgma.kg/webtes
O CA CHurx Kynpm
Bonpoc: N°28
family doctor
A her mother turned to the
girl, 9 years old with
memory and
with complaints of constipation, decreased
appeared
academic performance, overweight, drowsiness that
over the past six months. Anamnesis: grew and developed
satisfactorily. The family uses little seafood. Objectively:
Hight-127,0 cm (N-135cm), weight-46cm (N-42 cm). Thyroid
gland 1st degree, soft. Heart tones are clear and rhythmic.
Survey: General blood analysis: erythrocytes #,7x1012/1, Hb
107g/1,leukocytes 4,8x10 9/1. Hormones: T4 -norm, TSH
norm. ECG- no pathology. Ultrasonography: the total
volume of
the thyroid gland 16 cm3. Summarize all the data and decide
what pathology the patient has?
OTBeTbi(opMH OTBeT)
vegetative-vascular dystonia
2 hypothyrolidism
3 iodine deficiency state
neurasthenia
deficiencyanemia
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
A49%11:58 am
TeCTMpOBaHneX
Be6
CA avn.kgma.kg/webtes 0
CHHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°23
Determine, at what age you need to identify the first signs of
hypothyroidism
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1
4-6years
2 6-9month
3 1-3month
4 1-3 years
5 years
7-9
1 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
26 27
50
1 23 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16.17 18 19 20
21 22 2 24 25 26 27 28 29
30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
38 39 400
41 42 43 44 45 46
47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbsl
Bonpoc
nponyujeHHbi
Bonpoc
texyiunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHwa
TeCTa oCTanocb
0:57:00
amm
49%11:57
Be6TeCTWpOBaHM
X
CHHrx KynAMn
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
Transhypophyseal regulation is the basis for
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Parathyroidglands
2 Gonads
3 Pancreas
4 Adrenalcortex
5 Thyroid gland
67 78 9 10 11 12 13 14
50
23 4 67
11 12 13 14 15 16
8 9 10
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35
36 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 45 40
46 47 48 49 550
oTBEHeHHbl
BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbI
BOnpoc
TekyuM B
N
888
(D
5
49%m11:58
9
TeCTMpOBaHMX
Be6
C
CHHrx Kynaun Kg
Bonpoc: N°26
hyperthyroidism:
children -leading symptom of
Explain,what causes weight loss in
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 polyuria
disorder of carbohydrate metabolism
3 functional liver failure
4 intestinal absorption is impaired
5 frequent loose stools
22 23
2425 26 27 28
28 29 30
50
12 3 4 56
11 12 13 14
7
8 9 10
15 16 17 18 19 20
21 23 25 26 27
22 2A 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbI
BOnpoc
nporyugewHbi0 Bonpoc
Teryunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuienua
TeCTa OCTanocb
49%=11:59 am
CHHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°47
years old, a salesman, applied

to the doctor of
Patient M., 40
weakness, rapid
policlinic with complaints of general
fatigability, sensations of pressure the
in front of the neck, loss
memory, facial swelling, constipation. From the anamnesis:
years.
suffering from rheumatoid arthritis for many
dry,
Objectively: Body temperature 36.1 C. The skin is pale,
peeling is expressed on the legs. Swelling of face, dense
edema on the legs, lower third of the lower leg. Pulse 55 per
minute, BP-126/80 mm Hg. Tongue clean, teeth marks on
tongue. The thyroid gland is unevenly enlarged on
examination, on palpation it is dense, mobile when swallowing,
painful, nodular formations are not determined. Ultrasound of
thethyroid gland: V total. 6.3 cm3 (8.3-18.0). Increased
echogenicity. The structure is clearly diffusely heterogeneous.
What laboratory test proves the presence of an
autoimmune
syndrome?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 13 fr- 3.0 pmol/
2 AB-TPO-250 U/ml
3 AB-TG-9U/ml
4
T4 fr-28 pmol/1
5 TSH-0.3 mU/1
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
49%11:58 am
Be6TeCTWpOBaHMX
CHHrx KynAHn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: NP29
Which microorganism is the main pathogen in acute thyroiditis?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 mushrooms
2 rickettsia
3 staphylococcus
4 protozoa
5 viruses
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
50
1112 3 4567 8 9 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbA
Bonpoc
nporiyujeHHbl
Bonpoc
Tekyuni BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHwa
TeCTa oCTanocb
0:56
Q
N
49%=11:58 am
l
TeCTWpOBaHe X
Be6 avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CC Kg Ru
CWHrx Kynann
Bonpoc: N°32
(venous plasma):
following corresponds to impaired glucose tolerance
Which of the
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 fasting glucose 10.0 mmol/1, 2 hours after OGTT 16.8 mmol/1
2 fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/1,2 hours after OGTT 10.9 mmol/1
3 fasting glucose-9.6 mmol/1,2 hours after 0GTT-14.4 mmol/1
fasting glucose 5.4 mmol/I,2 hours after OGTT 9.2 mmol/1
5 fasting glucose 8.9 mmol/1,2 hours after OGTT 12.7 mmol //
50
28 29 30 31
32 33 34 35 36
2 12 313 456789 10
11 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 232A 25 26 27 28 29 30
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 A4 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHLIN
BOnpog
nponyuaesHtln
6onpoc
Texyuiw Bonpoc
am
49% 11:57
TeCTWpOBaHMEX
Be6
C
avn.kgma.kg/webtes O
Kg Ru
CHHrx KynAMn
Bonpoc: Ne16
flow of urine
Patient A., 39 years old, complains of copious
(daily urine output is 22 liters per day). Blood sugar is
within
thenormal range. With a violation of the production of which
hormone polyuria is associated:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1 insulina
2 Parathyroid hormone
3 ADH Vasopressin
4 Glucagon
5 Aldosterone
12 13 14
50
15
16 17 18 19 20
12
34567 8
1 121314 151 17 18 9 10
21 22 23 24 25 26 19 20
27 28 29 30
31 32 33
34 35 36 37 38
39 An
am
A 49%11:57
TeCTWpOBaHWE X
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C
CHHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc:N°18
drugs used to stimulate the contractile activity of
the
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are
uterus
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
3 Vasopressin
4 Oxytocin
5 Prolactin
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
23 45 6789 10
11 12 13 1415 16 17/18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 300
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
-OTBeueHHblW
BonpoC
nponyueHHbl Bonpoc
Texyuina BOnpoc
am
49%11:58
TecTMpOBaHM X
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C A
Kg Ru
CHHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: NP21
complains of nausea, headache,

increased
A 25-year-old man
polyuria. Gastroscopy revealed no gastrointestinal
thirst and
polyuria
pathology. The condition worsened thirst and
-
8 liters, a
increased, the amount of liquid drunk increased to
constant headache accompanied by vomiting, there was
a
loss of lateral visual fields. Urine analysis: a decrease in the

specific gravity in the morning portion of urine to 1002, blood
osmolality-315 mosm/kg, urine osmolality 270 mosm/ kg.
Fasting blood sugar - 3.2 mmol/I. Which ofthe following
methods is priority:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)

3 Fluid restrictiontest
4 MRI of the brain
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
l 49%11:5
Be6TeCTWpOBaHX
C
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CWHrx Kyngun Kg
Bonpoc: N°35
(capillary plasma):
Which of the following corresponds to impaired fasting glucose
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 fasting glucose 5.9 mmol /,2 hours after OGTT 6.8 mmol/I
2 fasting glucose 9.5 mmol/ 1, 2 hours after OGTT 12.8 mmol/I
fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/1, 2 hours after OGTT-9.5 mmol/1
fasting glucose 8.6 mmol/1,2 hours after OGTT 11.4 mmol/I
5 fasting glucose 7.9 mmol / 1,2 hours afterOGTT-10.7 mmol/I
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 3 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeMeHHbl
Bonpoc
nponyugeHHbI
BOnpoc
Texyumn uonpoc
49%1
TeCTWpOBaHM X
Be6
CHHx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N°38
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1
addison's disease
2 atrial fibrillation
5 atrophicgastritis
34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
50
1212 3 45 678 9 10
11 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20
21 22 23 2425 26 27 28 29
30
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
49 50
OTBeHeHHbl
BOnpoc
nponyuzeHHbi BOnpoc
TeKyunn BonpocC
am
49%11:58
TeCTWpOBaHWe X
Beó
O CA avn.kgma.kg/webtes o
CHHTx Kynan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 20
Female, 52 years old, onset of the disease 1.5 years ago after
a course of radiation therapy. Complains of memory
impairment, general weakness, drowsiness, baldness, lack of
appetite, weight gain. An objective examination revealed: the
skin is dry, flaky, the face is puffy, hypomimic, there are areas
of baldness on the head, the voice is low, rough, speech is
slowed down, the body temperature is 35.7, the pulse is 52
beats. per minute, blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg. Art., the
levelof glucose in the blood 3.5 mmol/1, the basal
-
metabolism is reduced by 30%. Diagnosed with

Myxedema.
What is the most likely cause of this disease:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 lodine deficiency
2 Decreased TSH levels
3 Formation of reverse
T3
Formation of
mucin
5 Increase in T3 T4
l 49% 11:59 am
TeCTWpOBaHWX
Be6 O
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA CwHrx KynAn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°43
with complaints of
Patient K., 48 years old, went to the clinic
severe weakness, weight loss, bone pain, especially in the feet,
not associated with food intake, diarrhea. From the
gland. Laboratory data: TBC-anemia, Calcium-3.4 mmol /1,
phosphates-0.7 mmol /1. What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
50
47
2 3 45670 9.10
1 12 13 14 15
16 12 18 19 20
49%11:59
Be6TeCTWpOBaHMX
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA Kg
CHHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N 39
with thyroid
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down
hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Kocher
2 Shtelvag
3 Grefe
4 Elinek
5 Krause
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 #
50
211 3 4567 8 9 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25
26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
TEe4eHML
49%1
Be6TecTMpOBaHnx
CHHrx Kynaun
Bonpoc: Ne13
Dysfunction of the kidneys in thyrotoxicosis may manifest itself
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 Proteniuria
2 Impaired renal blood flow
3 Impaired reabsorption of Ca and phosphorus
4 Concentration dysfunction
5 Increasing the filtration capacity of the kidneys
9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
50
212 3 4
5 6 78 9 10
11
14 15 16
2122 23 24 25 26
17 18 19 20
27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35
36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46
47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM
BOnpoc
nporyujenHbi
Bonpoc
Tekyunn Boripoc
am
49%11:59
CHHTx Kynawn Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N946
17-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic

in an unconscious
A
training, the
state. According to the trainer, he felt good before
childhood; during
boy has been suffering from diabetes since
training, he suddenly lost consciousness. Objectively: The skin
is moist. Breathing is vesicular. Heart sounds are preserved.
BP120/90 mm Hg. Laboratory glucose-2.7 mmol /1. The
attending physician diagnosed him with hypoglycemia,
prescribed a glucose solution, and the patient regained
consciousness. Explain the cause of hypoglycemia in this
case?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 metformin overdose
2 physical activity
3 drink alcohol
untimely meal
insulin overdose
1 42 A3 44 45 46 17 48 49 50
234
112 13 18 15 16 17 1t 19 20
2122 232a 25 26 27
28 29 30
21 42334 5 30 37 38 39
40
E 34aina 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeAR
9
l 49%
1
TeCTHpoBaHn x
Be6
CHHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N°25
Indicate the main symptom in hypoglycemia syndrome
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 hungery
2 polydipsia
3 loss of weight
4 nocturia
5 polyuria
21 22
50
23
2425 26 27 28 29
1212 3 456 7 89 10
11 13 14 15 16 17
18 19 20
1 22 232425 26 2728
31 32 33 34 35 29 30
36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45
46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbl
nponyue BOnpoc
HHE
am
49%11:57
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C A
Kg Ru
CHHrx Kyngun
Bonpoc: N°12
plays a role:
Inthe pathogenesis of acute thyroiditis
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Injury of the thyroid gland
22 lodinedeficiency
3 Penetration of infection into the thyroid gland
4 Genetic predisposition
5 Violation of the mechanisms of immunological

protection
9
50
8 10 11
1213 14 15 16
2 3 45 67 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 200
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 30
41 42 43 A4 45 A6 40
47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi
Bonpoc
nponyueHHbi
Bonpoc
Tekyuu
BOnDOC
am
49%11:58
TeCTWpOBaHMX
Be6
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
CA CHHrx KynAMn
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°19
45 years
N., old, complains of weakness, rapid fatigue,
Patient
Objective
lackof appetite, weight loss, pain in the abdomen.
examination: the skin and visible mucous membranes of
bronze color, blood pressure is reduced. Dysfunction of which
endocrine gland can cause the following symptoms:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Adrenal glands
2 Ovary
3 Epiphysis
4 Pituitary gland
5 Pancreas
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
50
B9.10
20
am
TA4911:59
BeóTeCTHpoBaHX 0
A
avn.kgma.kg/webtes
C
O
Bonpoc: Ne43
with complaints of
Patient K, 48 years old, went to the clinic
severe weakness, weight loss, bone pain, especially in the feet
notassociated with food intake, diarthea. From the
gland. Laboratory data: TBC-anemia, Calcium-3.4 mmol/L
phosphates-0.7 mmol/1. What is your preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
39 A0
40 41
41
4243 44 5 46 47
50
22456709 10
1137 131A 15 1617 18
19 20
amn
49%11:58
TeCTWpOBaHX
Be6
CA
avn.kgma.kg/webtes O
O CHHrx Kyngun Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°22
A ambulance team
45-year-old man, taken to the clinic by an
with adiagnosis of "Hypertensive crisis". BP- 180/120 mm
Hg.Art.,myocardial hypertrophy, tachycardia, weakening of
memory and intelligence, blood glucose 6.5 mmol /I. A
history of sudden crises with a rise in blood pressure up to
200/140 mm Hg. Art., the appearance of tachycardia,
Sweating, sharp agitation. Nuclear magnetic resonance
imaging of the lumbar region revealed an increase in the size
of the left adrenal gland, the presence of a rounded formation
inthe medulla of the gland. Which of the following diagnoses
is most likely:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Pheochromocytoma
2 Adrenalcrisis
3 Arterial hypertension
4 Addison's disease
Diabetes mellitus
18 19 20 21
10:56 EIE .ll 53%
Bonpoc: N931
Pigmentation of the eyelids (upper) with thyroid hyperfunction
syndrome is a symptom:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Raceman
2 Kocher
3 Elinek
Moebius
Krause
27 28 29 30 31 3
33 3435 50
1 23 4 567 8
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyyeHHblM BOrIpoc
TekyunA BOnpoc
Ao saBepuieHna TeCTa oCTanocb
0:20:03
G 31
K
O
Scanned with CamScanner
P
10:54 G l 53%
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1
MIEER
AxacaH Myxammaa Hagum Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N932
Indicate, what change the cardiovascular system is
in
characteristic of the syndrome of hypercortisolism?
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
pulse soft, low tension

-
2 weakening of heart sounds
28 29 30 31 32 33
34 35 36 50L
1 23 4 5 6 7 8
11 12 13 14 16 17 18 192
15
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
31 32 33 34 35 36 3738 39 40
41 42 43 44 4647 48 49 50
45 .
OTBeyEHHbi Boripoc
nponyyeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
O3aBEPIeHMA TeATa0CTanoCb

O
N
LOLO

10:48 i I E l 53%
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HaquM
Bonpoc: N934
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is normal (mU/1)?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBET)
from 2.1 to 7.5
2 from 1.4 to 6.1
from 1.0to 5.0
4 from 0.4to 4.0

5 from 0.1to 3.0
30 31 32 33
34 35
36 37 38 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 500
OTBeyeHHLIM
BONpoc
nponyuyeHHbIM
BOnpoc
TeKyunM BonpoC
o 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb

AxacaH MyxaMmaa HaguM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne35
Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to
ultrasound) in men is (ml):
OTBETbI(oAWH OTBeT)
from 45 to 48
2 from 38 to 40
3 more than55
4 from 30 to 35
5 Up to 25
K
31 36
37 38 39 50
1 2 3 4 5
11 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24
25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 3536 8738 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM
Boipoc
nponyeHHbI BOnpoc
G 35

10:43 X ll 54%
AxacaH MyxaMmaA Hagum Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne36
A white sclera line between the iris and upper
eyelid when looking up with thyroid hyperfunction
syndrome is a symptom:
OTBETbI(oquH OTBeT
1
Raceman
2 Shtelvag
3 Elinek
4 Grefe
5 Kocher
32 33 34 35 36 37
38 39 40 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 18 49 50 A
OTBeyeHHblM BONpoc
nponyujeHHblM BOipoc
TeKyuun Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwA TeCTa oCTanocb

10:39 n il 54%
avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1
Bonpoc: N937
Free thyroxine is normal (pmol /1)?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 from 10.0to 26.0
2 from 6.0 to 15.0
from 7.0 to 20.0
4 from 9.0 to 22.0
5 from 12.0 to 29.0
38
33 34 35 36 37
A1 50
39 40
2 3
17 18 19 20
11 12 131415 16
27 28 29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
31 32
43 44 45
4647 48 49 50
41 42
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc .
nponyuEHHbI Bonpoc
Texyuyun Bonpoc
ocTanocb
3aBepuieHna TecTa
Ao
0:36:34
u
AnllUA
10:37 Ei Ei E il 54%
Bonpoc: N938
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper
eyelid when looking down with thyroid
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Kocher
2 Grefe
Shtelvag
4 Elinek
5 Krause
1
34 35 36 37 38 39
40 41 42 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuweHuA TeCTa oCTanocb
0:38:35

10:34 PG * TE ll 55
AxacaH Myxammag HaaMM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne39
Characteristics of the pulse on the radial artery in hypocorticism
syndrome
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
tense
2 arrhythmic
3 high
4 soft
5 resistant
35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89
10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TEKyyn BONpOc
o saBepueHna TeCTa oCTanocb:
G 39

N
(D
(D
(D
8 D

N
O
(D
(D

N
10

10:22 G ll 56%
Bonpoc: N943
Patient A. 34-year-old, applied to a polyclinic with
complaints of an increase in body temperature up
to 39 C, pain in theright side of the thyroid gland,
aggravated by swallowing, coughing, chills,
tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent
tonsillitis. Objectively: On palpation, the thyroid
gland is sharply painful, dense, regional lymph
nodes are enlarged Laboratory: Total blood test:
leukocytosiswith a shift to the left, increased ESR.
What is your most likely syndrome?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBET
Syndrome of acute inflammation of thethyroid gland
2 syndrome of hypofunction ofthe parathyroid glands
3 syndrome of chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland
1 39 40 41 43 44
45 46 47 50

10:20 r l 56%
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HapuM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N944
A 43-year-old man, a truck driver, was admitted to
the clinic with complaints of an increase in blood
pressure up to 190/100 mm Hg, accompanied by
headaches, dizziness, tinnitus. Parents have
obesity, diabetes mellitus, arterial hypertension.
On examination: abdominal obesity, body weight-
110 kg, height 160 cm, Broca's index 60 kg.
-
Waist circumference 130 cm, hip circumference

110 cm. Palpation: the liver is painless, even, not
enlarged. Auscultation: accent I tone above the
aorta, BP 180/95 mm Hg. Laboratory: fasting
venous blood glucose -4.5 mmol/1,2 hours after
eating-7.1 mmol/1. What is the most typical
syndrome of a patient that has developed as a
result of obesity?
OTBETbI(oguH OTBeT)
1 gynecomastia
2 hypercortisolism
3 hepatomegaly
4 hyperglycemia
5 hypertenslon
1 40 41 42 43 44 45
O
10:17 ll 56%
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1 0
Bonpoc: N945
The man was admitted to the clinic, complaints of
palpitations, interruptions in the work of the heart,
sweating, trembling in the body, weakness.
Anamnesis: has been ill for several years.
Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced.
1
Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in
minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. ECG:
tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation. Your
suspected syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
2 hyperglobinemia
3 hyperglycemia
4 hyperthyroidism
5 hypercorticism
**
41 42 43 44 46
47 48 49 50 .
G 45
1015
AXacaH MyxaMMan HaMM
Bonpoc: N946
.A 29-year-old female patient turned to a
polyclinic therapist with complalnts of headaches,
weight gain, weakness, palpitations, menstrual
irregularities. The above complaints are disturbing
for 6 months after the head injury. On
examination: moon face, excessive facial hair
growth, acne. Weight-98 kg, height 162 cm. Find
-
out from the description the objective symptom of

this patient
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 diastemna
2 fish mouth
exophthalmos
4 macrognathia
5 hirsutism
42 45 46 47
48 49 50
1
2 3 4 5 6
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 3940
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

L il 56%
10:12 V
AxacaH MyxamMag Hapum Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N947
A 16-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic in an
unconscious state according to the mother,
previously complained of severe thirst, frequent
urination and general weakness. Objectively: the
smell of acetone from the mouth, the skin is dry.
Rapid breathing. Heart sounds are muffled. The
abdomen is tense. What is the most informative
laboratory examination method (blood) for
making a diagnosis?
OTBETbI(opMH OTBeT)
1 proteim
2 calcium
3 cholestetol
4 cretinine
5 glucose
43 44 45 46 47 48
49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 1718.19.20
G 47
O
.l 56%
LTE1
AxacaH MyxaMmaA HaauM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°48
Patient G., 42 years old, after a traumatic injury too
the neck, notes the periodic appearance of
paresthesias (pathological unpleasant sensations,
for example, "running creeps") with the
subsequent development of seizures. Before the
development of seizures, he has nausea, vomiting.
Convulsions are tonic in nature, beginning in the
upper limbs and face. Consciousness during this
period is preserved. Examination of the patient
revealed that the content of calcium in the blood
is 0.6 mmol/ I, phosphorus 8.0 mmol/ 1. Which
hormone is deficient in this situation?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 thyroxine hormone
2 vasopressin hormone
3 cortisol hormone
4 somatotropin hormone
1 43 44 45 46 47 48
49 50
O
AAC
NO49
Bonpoc:
doctor at the
consulted a increased
old,
V., 50
years complaints of increased
Patient residence with region,Objectively:
place of
lumbar
the
weight, pain in 200/100 mm Hg. Obesityy
body pressure up to
weight 121 kg. according
blood
165 cm, bodysubcutaneous fat
height cheeks,
redistribution of the
with 'cushingoid" type, redness of abdomen,
the the hips and
to ofred-violet color in hypotrophy of
striae and back,
face
multiple acne
on the
glucose 15 mmol7,
blood
the limbs. Fasting
hormonal research method
6%. What
urine sugarmaking a diagnosis?
will help in
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
1 insulin
2 thyroxine
3 vasopressin
4 testosterone
5 cortisol
45
45 46 47 48
43 44
49 50

10:07 F 9 l 56%m
Bonpoc: N°50
Patient M., 44 years old, at an appointment with a
local therapist complains of a feeling of pressure
in the front of the neck, rapid fatigue, memory
loss, drowsiness. Anamnesis: Mother was
autoimmune thyroiditis. It is known from the
anamnesis that these complaints arose 6 years
ago for no apparent reason and developed
gradually. On examination: the skin is clean, dry,
cold to the touch. The isthmus and both lobes of
the thyroid gland are palpated, more on the right
the gland is dense, moderately painful. Pulse - 53
per minute, rhythmic. BP-90/70 mm Hg. In
laboratory tests, TSH was detected: 8 -mlU/ L, T4
fr.-8.6 pmol/ ml, anti-TPO - 364 IU/ml. Total
blood count: erythrocytes-3.5x 1012/1,
leukocytes 5.8 x 109/1, hemoglobin -96g/I.
What diagnostic intervention should be used to
clarify the diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
thyroid scan with 131
2 MRI ofthe thyroid gland

3 lateral radiography ofthe neck
4 ultrasound of the thyroid gland

5 auscultation of the thyroid gland
O
N
N
N N N

N

N
3 D

SNN

N
so:0
&

10:05 g Yll 57%
Bonpoc: N°25
Name the hormone that regulates the function of the thyroid-
gland:
1-
OTBeTbI(oAWH OTBET)
thyroid-stimulating hormone
-
thyrocalcitonin
thyrotropin.releasinghormone
4 thyroglobulin
21 22 23 24 25 26
27 28 29 50
12 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyuEHHbiÀ Bonpoc
TexyuynA BOnpocC

10:05 V9 X ll 57%
Bonpoc: N°24
Indicate the hormone that regulates the secretion ofthyroid-
stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland:
OTBeTbi(oauH OTBeT)
1 thyroglobulin
3 thyrocalcitonin
thyroxine
20 2122 2223 24 25
28 50
26 27
2 3 4 5 7 86 9 10
1 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 1617 18
29 30
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28
39 40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BONpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TEKyuuñ Bonpoc
oCTanocb:
Ao 3aBepueHMA TeCTa
1:10:40
10:05 9 il 57%m
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HaqMM
Bonpoc: N°23
Determine, which of the following- is the main thyroid hormone:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
thyrotropin releasing hormone
2 thyrocalcitonin
3 thriodthytonine
4 thyroxine
5 thyroid- stimulating hormone
1 19 20 21 22 23 24
25 26 27 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBevEHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TEKyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb:

N
D
LO
D
O
D IO

Bonpoc: N°21
A25-year-old man complains of nausea,
headache, increased thirst and polyuria.
Gastroscopy revealed no gastrointestinal
pathology. The condition worsened thirst and -
polyuria increased, the amount of liquid drunk

increased to 8 liters, a constant headache
accompanied by vomiting, there was a loss of
lateral visual fields. Urine analysis: a decrease in
the specific gravity in the morning portion of urine
to 1002, blood osmolality 315 mosm /kg, urine
osmolality - 270 mosm/ kg. Fasting blood sugar
3.2 mmol /1. Which of the following methods is
priority:
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBET
1 MRI of the brain

17 18 19 20 21 22
23 24 25 50
G 21
O
10:04 9 l 57%
Bonpoc: NP20
A 25-year-old woman complains of insomnia,
rapid fatigue, irritability, unreasonable anxiety,
absent-mindedness, tearfulness, excessive
sweating, poor heat tolerance, menstrual
irregularities. The patient is fussy, verbose,
pronounced bulging. The skin is warm, moist, thin.
The face is pink. The subcutaneous fat layer is
poorly developed. There is a diffuse enlargement
of the thyroid gland, tremor of the fingers. BP
130/60 mm Hg, pulse 108 per minute. Basic
metabolism increased by 40%. What disease is
the clinical picture typical for:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBET)
2 Endemicgoiter
3 Nodular toxic goiter
4 Thyrotoxicosis
1 16 17 18 19 20 21
22 23 24 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
10:03 V 9 A
.l 57%
AxacaH MyxaMMa4 HaauM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N918
A 39-year-old patient complains of irritability,
palpitations and pain in the region of the heart,
increased appetite. On examination, attention is
drawn to bulging, muscle tremors, blood pressure
150/70. Indicatewhichglandfunctionisimpaired?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
Thyroid
2 Pituitary gland.
3 Parathyroid
4 Epiphysis.
5 PancreasS
14 15 16 17
18 19
20 21 22 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 3 34 35 36 37 38 29 40
G 18

10:03 9
7%
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1
AxacaH MyxamMaA HaguM
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N917
After removal of the thyroid gland,
the patient developed
convulsions. What was damaged during
the operation:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Parathyroid gland
4 sympathetic trunk
5 Vagus nerve
1 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 50
1
2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBEYEHHblM Bonpoc
nponyeHHblM Bonpoc
TONmu naanAn
G Convulsions
K
O
N
D
G
N
9 D
D
N
IO

N
D
O1

G NI
O
N
O
O
C

10:02 9 l 57%
AxacaH MyxaMmaa HaguM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N913
An increase inthe concentration of thyroid-
stimulating hormone in the blood during
hypothyroidism indicates the localization of the
pathological process in:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Hypothalamus
2 Timuse
3 Thyroid gland
4 Ptuitary gland
1 10 11 12 13 14
15 16 17 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbl Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKvIn BONDOC

10:02 9 .ll 57%m
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1
AxacaH MyxaMmag HaquM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°12
The highest content of antibodies to microsomal antigen in blood
is observed when:
OTBeTbI(onuH OTBeeT)
1
Diffusetoxicgoiter
Thyroid cancer
1 8 9 10 11
12 13
14 15 16 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeuEHHbIM BONpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyun Bonpoc
4o 3aBepweHuA TECTa ocTanocb
I
O
10:02 9 ill 57%
O A
AxacaH Myxammaa HanuM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne11
Primary aldosteronism (Connes syndrome) is:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence
of angiotensin
2 Tumor of the fascicular zone of the adrenal cotex
4 Tumor of the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex
89 10 11 12
13 14 15 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
G 11
O
10:02 V 9
l 57%
AxacaH Myxammaa HaguM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
The pathogenesis of tertiary hypothyroidism is due to:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Secretion of biological inactive TSH
2 Increased synthesis of FSH
3 Autoimmune process in the thyroid gland
4 Decrease in the synthesis of thyroliberin
5 Increased TSH secretion
6 7 8 9 10 11
12 13 14 50
1 2 3 45 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
49 50
OTBeYEHHblM Bonpoc
nponyuyeHHbIM BOnpoc
Texyuw Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHua TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:46

10:02 9 X ll 57%
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1 0
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HaauM
Kg
Bonpoc: N99
OTBeTbI(oqWH OTBeT)
4 Tumor of the glomerular

zone of the adrenal cortex
5 Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence

of angiotensin
6 8 10
11 12 13 50
4 567 818 919 20

10
2312 13 14 15 16 17
11
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyyeHHbiM Bonpoc
G 91
K
O
10:02 9 l 57%
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1 0
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HaguM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°8
Conn's syndrome (primary aldosteronism) is manifested by
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBeT)
1
Hypotension
3 Oliguria
1 O 9 10
11 12 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyyeHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyun BOnpoc
o 3aBepuweHnA TECTa ocTanocb
1:14:02

10:01
i9 ll 57%
O A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/1
Kg Ru
AxacaH MyxaMMaa HaaMM
Bonpoc: Ne7
The appearance at the age of 3 to 7 years of secondary sexual
characteristics is observed:
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBET)
1
Pituitary dwarfism
.2 Adrenogenital syndrome
3 Acromegaly
4 Adiposogenital dystrophy
5 Klinefelter Syndrome
9
**
3 45 6
7 8
10 11 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbIM BOnipoc
TEKynn BOnpoc
4o 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb
O
10:01 Vg
l 57%
AxacaH MyxaMmaa Haqum Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N96
Patient S., 56 years old, diagnosed with
autoimmune thyroiditis on the basis of
examination, palpation and laboratory tests.
Choose which thyroid test method is more
applicable here:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1. ultrasound
2 positron emission tomography
3 K-ray examination
4 scintigraphy
5 endoscoPY
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9
10 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 3940
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
O
10:01 g rll 57%
Bonpoc: N95
A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had
grown by 10 cm over the summer. When
examining a 19-year-old boy: height 180 cm,
weight 68 kg. Which research method is more
applicable for diagnosing a disease:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
2 Craniography
3 ultrasound
1 23 4 6 7 8 9
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpog

10:01 eV 9 * l57%
AxacaH MyxaMMaa HaauM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N94
OnComputed Tomography.on the anterior wall of
the trachea to the jugular notch of the sternum, a
tumor-like formation extending into the anterior
mediastinum is determined. Explain which organ
is affected.
OTBETbI(oqWH OTBeT)
1
Pparathyroid lymph nodes.
2 perotracheal lymph nodes
3 thyroid gland.
4 thymus gland.
5 parathyroid glands.
11 2 3
4 5 6 7 8
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
11
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM BOnpoc

10:01 V9 ll 57%
OA
Bonpoc: N°3
which is
Name a thyroid disease, the main method of detecting
scintigraphy:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 thyroid cance
2 toxic adenoma of the thyroid gland
3 diffuse toxic goiter
4 thyrotoxic goiter
5 parathyroid tumors
1 2 4 5 6 7 50
7 8 9 10
2 3 4 5 6
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyeHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyÀ BOnpOc
Ao 3aBepweHuA TECTa oCTanocb

10:01 9 * l 57%
AxacaH MyxaMMan HaguM g Ru
Bonpoc: N°2
Specify the method of radiological diagnostics used for
screening breast diseases in women older 40:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 mammography
2 ultrasound
radioisotope
4 scintigraphy
thermography
5 6 50
111 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBEvEHHbli Bonpoc
nporyuueHHblM BOnpoc
G 2
O
10:01 9 x l 57%
OA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/
AxacaH MyxaMMaA HaguM KgRu
Bonpoc: Ne1
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 radiography
2 ultrasound
3 thermalimaging
4 radioisotope
1 2 3 4 5 6 50
7 8 9 10
1 2 3 4 5 6
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
11
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnp0C
nponyuEHHbIn Bonpoc
TeKyuinM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHnA TECTa oCTanocb
1:14:59
O
samjo pass irformatiox|S Pe6 TecTe ponanne GMade 30 years old, He *G Patient 8. 50 years oe t4 test i done-
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Bonpoc: Ne46
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient A. 34-year-old, applied to a polyclinic with complaints of an increase in body temperature up to 39C, pain in the right side of the thyroid gland, aggravated
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
by swallowing, coughing, chills, tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent tonsilitis. Objectively. On palpation, the thyroid gland is sharply painful, dense, regional
41 42 43 44 4547 48 49 50
lymph nodes are enlarged. Laboratory: Total blood test: leukocytosis with a shift to the left, increased ESR. What is your most likely syndrome?
01eeHHIR BOnpOr
porrywe-HM BOIpoc
Tekyubni Donpoc
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
Ao 3acepueuuR TeCTa oCTaNDCL:
1O thyroid nodule syndrome
0:00:44 2 0 syndrome of hypothyroidism

3apepuwTb TeCT 3 0syndrome of chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland
4 syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland
1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
endocrine Main pd lectures.pdf samjo pass inform..pdf Enddocrine final pdf Show al
3 endocrie Mainpdt x amjo pass intformatior x Enddocrine fralpd x ee TeT poein G Wale 30 years c . H Paient M Y1s :A tw
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1 2 34567 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N930

1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 symptom
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a
31 40
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
1 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
-OTRe4OH4HIA NOnpoc OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
riporyuetHi BOrIpoc
Toxyuun Donpoc 1OElinek
Ao 3acepuenan recTa oCTanoa: 2 OKrause
0:01:42 3 Grefe
3asepuwnbTeCT 4 0Kocher
5OShtelvag
1 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 50
ndocrine Main pdf x samjo pass informatic x Enddocrine finalpdf x Beb TecMponaw G Male 30 years cld. He xG Patient B, S0 yæars ols x G
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12 3 4 5 6 7 6 910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Bonpoc: N99
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 20 29 30
Dysfunction of the kidneys in thyrotoxicosis may manifest itself:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 A5 46 47 43 49 50
OTPe4eHHhÅ FOnpoc OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBer)

ipornyueHbM BOrIpoc
TCKyurii Dompoc 1 Increasing the filtration capacity of the kidneys
Ao 3acepuweHMn TeCTa ocTanoCL 2 Impaired renal blood flow
0:02:52 3OProteniuria
3asepuxT TeCT 4 O Concentration dysfunction
5OImpaired reabsorption of Ca and phosphorus
56 7 8 10 11 12 13 50
endocrine Main.pdf X 5samjo pas informatior X| Fnddecrine finalpdf x es TecTWEOBEHA=
GMale 30 years cld. He X G Patiert E, 50 years old x G haw 14 test is done- X+
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111 122 133 144S 678 9 10 Bonpoc: N943

15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
The man was admitted to the clinic, complaints of palpitations, interruptions in the work of the heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
been ill for several years. Examination:. the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. ECG
41 42
44 45 46 47 43 49 50
tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation. Your suspected syndrome?
oTReeHiHHI BONpoc
nporyueHbii BOripoc
Teyuni Donpoc
OTBerbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Ao 3anepweHMA TeLTa oCTahocu 1
hyperparathyroidism
0:00:55 20 hyperthyroidism
3abepuwT TeCT 3 hypercorticism
4Ohyperglobinemia
SO hyperglycemia
39 40 41 42 44 45 46 47 50
endocrinc Main pdf lectures pdf samjo pass informpdf Enddocrine fnalpd Show
CHHr
1 2
4 S 6 7 8 9 10
Bonpoc: N3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 20 29 30
31
Indicate which method of examining the thyroid gland is the first priority
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50
OTRPPHHHi BOnpOC
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
nporyueHHEi BOrTpoOc
Texyuini nonpoc 1O magnetic resonance imaging
Ao 3arepeHMR TOCTa oCTanocu: 20 endoscopy
0:03:17 3 0 computed tomography
3aBepuTb TeCT 4 O fluoroscopy
5 ultrasound
1 2 3 45 6 7 50
endocrine Main pdf x smio pass informatice x Enddocrine Firalpd X Ba5 TecTpcaaHna xGMale 30 years cid. He * G Patient E. S0 years olc x G how 14 test is donm
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CMMr HamApa Nparan
1 2 3 4 56 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N 22
21
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A man of 30 years old, height is 120 cm. Body proportions are typical for a child 3-4 years old. The skin is pale. The head is small in size, the facial features are small
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with a childlike ratio of individual parts (relatively small sizes of the upper jaw and chin). Excessive fat deposition on the chest and abdomen. The voice is high. Facial
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and trunk vegetation is absent. Psychophysical develapment is nomal. There is some infantilism in behavior, memory loss. Basal metabolism is within normal limits.
EOnpoc
OTEeueHHhIÅ
There are abnormalities in the reproductive sphere. What pathology of the endocrine system can be assumed:
rnporryueHHbi borlpoc
TexyuMi Donpoc
Ao 3arepuwenua TeCTa oCTanocu

OTBeTbI(oAH OTBeT)
1OHypofunction of the adenohypophysis
0:02:06
20 Hyperfunction of the ovary
3aBepuwTL TeCT
3OHypofunction of the thyroid gland
4 Hyperfunction of the adrenal gland
5 Hyperfunction of the neurohypophysis
** 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 50
endocrine Main pdf lectures pdt samja pass inform.-pdf Enddorine final pdf Show ai
Main.pd X samjo pass informatio * S Enddocrine tnalpai x Es TrcT E.AnlE
endocine
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CuH Haapa nparan
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B 9 10 Bonpoc: Ne19
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1820
in the back and legs. With a dysfunction of which gland it may be
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Over the past 6 months, the patient has had several bone fractures, muscle weakness, pain
31 32 33 34 35 35 37 3a 39 40 associated:
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OTaeHeHHhih Eonpoc
poryuEHHL BONpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Texyuwi Donpoc
1O Pituitary gland
Ao saucpuwewwn TeCTa ocTanotb:
Thyroid
0:02:16
3 OAdrenalglands
3asepuT TeCT
4 O Parathyroid
5OPancreas
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 50
CMMI
34 56 7 618 9 10
1 122 13 Bonpoc: Ne14
11
115
16 17 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Transhypophyseal regulation is the basis for
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTRAL4eHHI RIONpoc
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
nponyeHHbii uoripoC
TekyuMi Donpoc 1 Adrenalcortex
Ao 3acepuenn TeCTa ocTanocu: 2OThyroid gland
0:02:32 3 OGonads
3asepwT TeCT OPancreas

5OParathyroidglands
10 11 12 13
14 15 16 17 18 50
CMH
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N939
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Obesity 2nd degree, the body mass index (kg/ m2) is
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43
49 50
oTReyaHHhld ROnpoc
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBer)
porryueHbM BOOc
TCKyuni DOmpoc
1O 35.0 39.9
Ao saccpuwewn TeCTa ocTanoc: 2 25.0 29.9
0:01:09 3O 40.0 45.9
3aBepuWTb TeCT O30.0 34.9
5O18.5 24.9
1 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 50
endocrine Main petf x samja pass informatior x| Fnddocrine final pd X Heti TectpcEHE x GMale 30 years old. He x G Patient E. 50 yæars olc x G owt4 tet is done x +
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CwMr anApa nparan Kg Ru
1 2 3 45 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: Ne16
11 12 13 14 1517 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient B, 50 years old, complains that recently the ears, nose, hands began to increase in size. Which gland is overactive will give similar symptoms:
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41 42 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50
oTBeeHHhl BOnpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)

nporryueHbii Bonpoc
Texyuun Bonpoc
10 Adrenalglands
AD sacepucHMA TeCTa oCTano 2 Pituitary gland
0:02:25 3 Gonads
3aeepuwTb TeCT 4O Thyroid
5 Epiphysis
1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 ** 50
1234 5 G
78
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
910
Bonpoc: N927
21 22 23 24 25 2628 29 30
Distinguish, which function in babies with hypothyroidism is refilected by muscle hypotonia:
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
-OTReeHH Onpoc OTBeTb(oAMH OTBeT)

nporryuewHE BOnpoc
Tenni Donpoc 1 O on the formation of speech
Ao 3aBepwHMR TecTa ocTanocL: 2 metabolism of substances
0:01:51 3 O on the development of static functions
3aBepuwTL TeCT 4 0 of peripheral circulation

5 at work bowel
1 *** 23 24 25 26 27
28 29 30 31 50
CHH
1 2 3 45 67 8 9 10
Bonpoe: N933
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Normal level of body mass index (kg/ m2) is
31 32
34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 4S 46 47 43 49 50
OTReMOHHÀ BOTpOC
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBer)
porryueHE BONIpoC
TCHL Dompoc 1 18.5-24.9
Ao 3aucpuueHa TECTa octanocL: 2O25.0-29.9

0:01:31 3 30.0- 34.9
3aaepwwTb TeCT 4 0 35.0 399
5 O 40.0 45.9
1 29 30 31 32
33 34 35 36 37 50
endocrine Mainpd x samja pas informatic x Frddocrine fralpdf X Be TecTypoBZHta X Male 30 years aid. HE X G Patient E. 50 yæars olcxG how t4 tst i dona x +
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CMMrx HaApa nparan u
2 3 4s 67 8 9 10
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: Ne45
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient G, 42 years old, after a traumatic injury to the neck, notes the periodic appearance of paresthesias (pathological unpleasant sensations, for example, "running
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
creeps) with the subsequent development of seizures. Before the development of seizures, he has nausea, vomiting. Convulsions are tornic in nature, beginning in
41 42 43 44
46 47 43 49 50
the upper limbs and face. Consciousness during this period is preserved. Examination of the patient revealed that the content of calcium in the blood is 06 mmol/
OTReueHHHIX EOnpoc
phosphorus 8.0 mmol/1. What is your preliminary syndrome?
ponyueHHblR BOrIpOC
TexyumM DOnpoc
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Ao 3aepuweHwR TeCTa ocTanoc:
1 O hypopituitarism syndrome
0:00:48
2 0 hypog'ycemic syndrome
3aBepuTbTeCT
3 Ohypoparathyroidism syndrome
hypothyroidism syndrome
50
1 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
endocrine Main.pdf lectures.pdf amo pavs infom..pdf Enddocririe fralpdf Show a

1
23 4 5 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N12
1113 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 25 27 28 29 30
Violation of the processes of secretion in the endocrine gland can occur due ta:
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oreeueHHh Bonpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)

nporyuebi vonpoc
Texyni eOnpoc 1 Violations of the feedback mechanism
A 3acepuwenun TOCTa oCTanocL 20 Weak transport connection with blood proteins
0:02:40 3 O Genetic defect in hormone synthesis
3asepuTb TeCT 4OChanges in the number of specific receptors
5ODisorders of hormone metabolism
89 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 50
23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Bonpoc: N923
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Name the main laboratory criterion of hyperglycetmia syndrome:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 19 40
41 42 43 4A A5 A6 47 48 49 50
0TRe4eww ponpoc
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
nporyujetHbii Bonpoc
Texyui Donpoc 1 hypernatriemia
Ao 32cepuueHn TOCTA ocTanocL: 2 hypoproteinemia
0:02:03 3 hypokaliemia
3abepuT TeCT 4 high fasting glycemia
5Ohypercholesterolemia
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 50
Endocrine Mainpd jo pass informatior x Fnddocrine finalpd x Ba6 TecTpoEIH x GMale 30 years cid. He xG Patienit E, 50 years olc x G how t4 rext is done - x X

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CMMrx anApa NpaTan Ru
12 3 4 5 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: Ne49
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A 55.year-old woman consulted a family doctor at the place of residence with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain, pain in the lumbar region, sweating.
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 3a 39 40
Objectively: height 170 cm, body weight 120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-red, excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition of fatty tissue in the
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shoulder, chest, abdomen, red violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP 190/100 mm Hg. Blood glucose 12 mmol/1. Choose, what hormonal
-oraeyeH RONpoc
nporyuetH BOnpoc
-TexyuMü Donpoc
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
Ao 3atcpuweiwn TeCTa oCTanocu
1
O thyroxine
0:00:28
2 cortisol
3aBepwTh TeCT
3 O insulin
4 Ovasopressin
5 O prolactin
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 S0
endocrine Main pd lectures.pdt sajo pass inform.pdf EnddoEr irie firalpdf Show a
endocrine Main.pdf x samja pass informatior x| Enddocrine firnalpd X Pe6 TeTpomaHna GMale 30 years cid, He: xG Patient 8. 50 yars olc. x G hew 14 test is dona- x+
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CMArx 4aApa nparan Ro
12
11
3 4 5678 9 10 Bonpoc: Ne28
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27229 30
A girl, 9 years old with her mother turned to
the family doctor with complaints of constipation, decreased memory and academic performance, overweight,
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drowsiness that appeared over the past six months. Anamnesis: grew and developed satisfactorily. The family uses little seafood. Objectively: Hight-127,0 cm (N
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135cm), weight-46cm (N-42 cm). Thyroid gland 1st degree, soft. Heart tones are clear and rhythmic. Survey: General blood analysis: erythrocytes #,7x1012/1n, Hb
01eHeHHh EOnpoc 107g/l leukocytes 4,8x10 91. Hormones: T4 -norm, TSH norm. ECG no pathology. Ultrasonography: the total volume of the thyroid gland 16 cm3. Summarize all
ypoinyueHHb BOrIpoc
the data and decide what pathology the patient has?
TCKyuLMN Donpoc
Ao acepuweHUA TOCTa octanoch

OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
0:01:48 1 hypothyroidism
3aBepuiTb TeCT
3 Ovegetative-vascular dystonia
4 O neurasthenia
5 O deficiency anemia
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 50
endoca ine Mainpdf lectures.pdf samjo pass inform.pdf aEnddocine final.pd Show a
1 2 3 4 5 67
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1
8919 10 Bonpoc: N938
20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Which microorganism is the main pathogen in acute thyroiditis?
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3739 40
41 42 43 4A 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTR4eHhii pOnpoc OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBer)

nporyueHHb BOrIpoc
TORyLLMM uonpoc 1
staphylococcus
Ao 33ccpuweuMT TECTa oCTanoC 2 O viruses
0:01:13 30mushrooms
3anepuwT TeCT 40 rickettsia
5Oprotozoa
** 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 * 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N917
11 12 13 14 15 1618 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 23 29 30
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used to stimulate the contractile activity of the uterus:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
-oTaeueHHhli Bonpoc OTBETbI(OAWH OTBer)
nporyuwetikbi BoIpoc
Texyum nonpoc 1OVasopressin
Ao 3acepuCHuA TOCTA oCTa/1oCL: 2 Follicle-stimulating hormone
0:02:22 3O Thyroid stimulating hormone
3aaepum TeCT 4 Oxytocin
5 OProlactin
1 13 14 15 1617 18 19 20 21 50
23 45 678 9 10 Bonpoc: Ne18
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1E 19
20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
The patient has clinically all the signs of thyrotoxicosis. What research needs to be done to clarify the diagnosis:
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
OTReeHHHÀ ROnpoc OTBeTbi(AMH OTBe7)

porryuwenti eopoc
Texyui Donpoc
1OLDL, HDL, bloodcholesterol
Ao 3anepueHMR TOCTa oCTanocu 2 Determine the level of thyroxine
0:02:19 3Blood test for sugar, ketone bodies
BasepuwT TeCT 40 General analysis of blood and urine
prote in composition of plasma, residual blood nitrogen,

5O
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 50
CMHT
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: Ne10
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
To peripheral form of endocrine disorders can lead to:
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41 42 43 44 A5 A6 47 43 49 50
OTRPueHHt sonpoc
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
nporryusetei BOrIoC
TeKyL DOnpoc Pituitary alteration
10
AD 33epueHMR TeCTa ocTanocL

20Weakhormane-protein binding
0:02:49 3 OStrong bond of hormones with proteins
3a8epuWT TeCT Alteration of the endocrine gland
5OAlteration ofthe hypothalamus
6 7 9 10 11 12 13 14 50
1 234 567 8
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N931
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 Which of the following corresponds to impaired glucose tolerance (venous plasma)
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 45 47 43 49 50
oTReeHhai ROnpo OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)

nporyuetHbii vonpoc
TOKyni Donpoc 1Ofasting glucose 54 mmol/ ,2 hours after OGTT 9.2 mmol/
A 3cpweHMR TOCTa octanocu: 2 fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/,2 hours after OGTT 10.9 mmol/
0:01:37 3 fasting glucose 9.6mmol /, 2 hours after OGTT 14.4 mmol/
3aBepuvT TeCT 40fasting glucose- 10.0 mmol/,2 hours after OGTT 16.8 mmol/1
SO fasting glucose 89 mmol/ 1,2 hours after OGTT 12.7 mmol/
1 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 50
endocrine Mainpdf * amjo pass informatio x6 Frddocrine firal pdf X Bei TecTepcazHn X GMale 30 years cld. He X G Patient B., 50 years olc. X G howt4 tæst is done-G X +
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CHr HanApa nparan Ru
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 138 19 20 Bonpoc: N941
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A 43-year old man. a truck diver, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of an increase in blood pressure up to 190/100 mm Hg,
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 accompanied by headaches
diztinesstinitu Parents have obesity, diabetes melitus, arterial hypentension. On examination: abdominal obesity, body weight-110 kg, height- 160 cm, Broca's
42 43
44 45 45 47 48 49 50 cm.
index-6o kg, Woist circumference - 130 cm, hip circumierence - 110 not enlarged. Auscultation: acent tone above the
Palpation: the liver is painles, even,
-01a4@uH BOnpoc
aorta, BP 180/95 mm Hg. Laboratory: fasting venous blood glucose 4.5 mmol/ , 2 hours a fter eating 7.1
l
nporryeHHbii BOnpoc mmol/ 1. What is the most typical syndrome of a
TeKyuni DonpoC
patient that has developed as a result of obesity?
Ao 3anepuieHun tecTa oCTanoCL

OTBETbI(oAuH OTBeT)
0:01:01
10hepatomegaly
3anepuT TeCT
2 Ohyperglycemia
3 hypercortisolism
4 0 hypertension
5O gynecomastia
37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 50
erndocrine Main.pdf
lectures.pdf samjo pas inform.pdf Enddocrine finat pd
Show all
Endocrine Main pedf * 6 samja pas informaticor * Enddocrine finalpdf x Be6 TecTypoRAHVnE X G Male 30 years old. He
*G Patiert E, 50 years olr x G haw t4 test is done -
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CMH 4aApa nparan Kg
1 23 4 SG7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: Ne6
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A 63-year-old patient camplains of difficulty passing solid food. Objectively, the patient is lethargic, his voice is hoarse. On examination, bradycardia, pasty skin and
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
subcutaneous fat. A barium swallow was performed, which showed a moderate deviation of the pharynx and the upper third of the esophagus to the right, the
contours of the esophagus are normal. What is the most informative research method you can use?
OTneucHHÅ ROnpoc
riporyuieHHbiM BOnpOC
TexyuiMi Donpoc
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
Ao 3apcpweHMA TECTa oCTA1OC 1 thyroid ultrasound
0:03:04 2 0 computed tomographywith contrasting thyroid gland
3asepuNTh TeCT 3 O endoscopy
4 O multi spiralcomputed tomography
5Ooverview Radiography
12 3
456 7 89 10 50
MMain pul
endoerine lectures,p!f samjo pass inforn.- pdf Enddeerine fnalpdf Show all
CMM
13 45 67 B9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 Bonpoc: Ne2
1a 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Specify the method of radiological diagnostics used for screening breast diseases in women older 40:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 4 45 46 47 43 49 50
orneyeHHbIM BOnpac OTBeTbI(oAnH OTBer)
nponryueHblM BOnpo
TexyLIMÄ Donpoc
mamrmography
Ao 33nepuieHuA TeCTa oCTa1oC 20 radioisotope
0:03:22 3 ultrasound
3aBepuwTb TECT 4 thermography
5 scintigraphy
1 45 6 7 50
x samjo pass informatio x x Be6 Tectpcanae Parient B., 50 years olc x G how t4 test is done x|+
edocrine Main pd Fnddoerine final pd G Male 30 yers cid.
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2 34 56 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Bonpoc: Ne1
20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. Determine which structure was damaged during the operation?
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTReHeHHLIÅ ROnpoc OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBer)

nporyuenteii Eopoc
reryuutä Donpoc 1
the vagus nerve
Ao 3acepuuevuR TeCTa ocTa1oa: inferior laryngeal nerve
0:03:26 3 sympathetic trunk
3aBepuwTb TecCT 4 Oinferior laryngeal artery

5parathyroid gland
2 3 4 5 6 50
CHH
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N 35
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24
25 26 27 28 29 30
Laboratory criteria for obesity syndrome
31 32 33
A1
3436 37 39 39 40
42 43 44 45 45 47 43 49 50
OTReveHhIÀ RIOnpoc OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBer)

nporyuuetHei Bonpo
TOKyni Dompoc 1 low LDL cholesterol
Ao sacepuweHn TeCTa ocTanocu 2 high HDL cholesteral
0:01:24 3 Olow triglycerides

3aBepuTb TeCT 4O low total cholesterol
50 high glucose
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 50
samja pass informatio X
€ Enddecrine final pa* X Eei TerTAFOA*
endocrine Main pd X S

co Chandigarh Univers.. Campaign URL Buil Applications | 3Pilla. location- Noida
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CuHrx HaApa nparan Ka
1 2
35 67 8
9 10 Bonpoc: Ne4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
is painful to touch, the pain intensifies during
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A26-year-old woman came to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right marnmary gland, the mammary gland
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
menstruation. The doctor ordered a mammogram, Indicate in your answers when to get a mammogram:
41 42 43 44 A5 46 47 43 49 50
OTReeHHhM Ronpoc
11ponyueHtbit uonpoc OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
TCKyn vonpoc
10 only after menopause
Ao 3acepueHMB TeCTa oCTanOCL:
2regardless of the phase of the cycle
0:03:12 O from the 6th to the 12th day of the menstrual cycle
3aBepuwT TeCT
4 O from the 1st to the 5th day of the menstrual cycle
5Oin the second half of the menstrual cycle
1
2 7 8 50
CMn 4aApa NpaTan Kg
1 2
3 45 6 7 8 9 10
Bonpoc: N913
11
1214 15 15 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 30 3940
An excess of thyroid hormones occurs when
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTRPeHHR nOnpoc OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
porryuennbi BOpO
-TexryuM nonpoc 1 Diffuse toxic goiter
Ao sacepweHun TeCTa oCTanoc

20 Acromegaly
0:02:35 3 OMiksedeme
3anepuwTb TeCT 40Insulinoma

5OEndemiccretinism
1 ** 910 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 50
Endocrine Mainpdf X samjo pass informatior *| SFnddocrine firalpd x Be5 TeTpORaHne X GMale 30 years ald. He x|G Patiert E. 50 years ole G baw 14 test is done-X +
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CHurx 4anApa npaTan
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1a 19 20 Bonpoc: Ne47
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A 52-year-old woman consulted a therapist with complaints of thirst, frequent urination, itching of the perineum. In the anamnesis, the above complaints are worried
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
for month. Objectively. The skin is dy and clean. BMI 32.2 kg/ m2. BP 130/90 mm Hg. Laboratory blood glucose 10.3 mmol/, after meals 15.0 mmol/
1
41 42 43 44 45 4643 49 50
What analysis can you use to find out blood glucose in 3 manths?
OTReeH-hIR RONpoc
porryuHHii BOrnpoc
Texywi Donpoc
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
A ancpuiewia TeCTa ocTaica 1 total cholesterol
0:00:41 2 blood glucose

3aBepuTb TeCT 3 Otriglycerides
4 O glycohemaglobin
5OC- peptide
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
endouine Mairnpdl lecturespdf sarrjo pass inforn..pdf Enddocine finalpdf Show a

endocrine Main.pdf X samja pass informatio x Enddocrine finalpd x Bes TecTupaRAHA X GMale 30 years cld, He x GPatient E., 50 years old x G how 14 test is done-G X +
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9 10 Bonpoc: Ne49
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A 55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at the place of residence with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain, pain in the lumbar region, sweating.
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
Objectively. height 170 cm, body weight 120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-red, excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition of fatty tissue in the
81 42 43 44 45 46 47 483
150 shoulder, chest, abdomen, red-violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP 190/100 mm Hg. Blood glucose 12 mmol /1. Choose, what hormonal
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1 0 thyroxine
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3apepuTb TeCT
3 Oinsulin
4 Ovasopressin
5 prolactin
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
endocrine Main pdf lectures pdf asamjo pass infompdf Enddocaine final pdf Show all
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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Female, 52 years old, onset of the disease 1.5 years ago after a course of radiation therapy. Complains of memory impairment, general weakness, drowsiness,
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
baldness, lack of appetite, weight gain. An objective examination revealed: the skin is dry, flaky, the face is puffy, hypomimic, there are areas of baldness on the head,
4142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 ,
the voice is low, rough, speech is slowed down, the body temperature is 35.7 the pulse is 52 beats. per minute, blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg. Art, the level of
-OTReveHHIÀ BOnpoc glucose in the blood 3.5 mmol/1, the basal metabolism is reduced by 30%. Diagnosed with Myxedema. What is the most likely cause of this disease
nporryueHbli Bonpoc
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3asepuwTb TeCT
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OFormation of mucin
5 Increase in T3 T4
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 50
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N8
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids causes:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbi EOnpoc OTBeTbI(oauH OTBer)

nporyueHbi BOrnpo
TOyuni eonpoc 1 Increased blood pressure
Ao 3apcpuewA TecTa ocTanocb 2 0 Decrease in the excitability of the nervous system
0:02:56 3 O Increased bone ossification
3aBepuwT TeCT 4 OHypoglycemia

5 OPositive nitrogen balance
45 6 7 89 10 11 12 50
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14 Bonpoc: N915
11 12 13
21 22 23 24
16
2526
17 18 19 20
27 28 29 30
A patient with complaints of decreased appetite and great thirst. Diuresis is 10 liters per day. Blood sugar 4mmol/1 What disease can you think of in this case?
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
-OTRe4PHHÅ Eonpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)

iporyueHHbIN BOTIpoc
Texyunii vornpoc 1O Diabetes insipidus
AO 1BDepweHIA TOCTa OCTaTDCL 2 Non-sugaranti-diabetes
0:02:29 3 ORenal diabetes

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5O Gestational diabetes
1 *
11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18 19 50
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
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12
21
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Adrenogenital syndrome develops with increased secretion:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 4445 46 4748 49 50
oTEPueHHhlÅ ROnpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
nportyueHE1 BOIPOc
Teryuni nonpoc 1OMineralocorticoids
Ao 33ccpuwcHWA TeCTa ocTanoc 2O Sex hormones testes
0:02:44 3 O Catecholamines
3aBepuwTb TeCT Corticosteroids

5OSex hormones in the reticular adrenal cortex
7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 50
CwH
1 2 3 4 5 67 B9 10 Bonpoc: N929
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 2830 Waist circumference in men is normally less than (cm)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
11 42 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50
oTReHPH-ti ROnpo OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)

poryuebli bOnpoc
Teryunii nonpoc
1 102
Ao 3acepueHHn TeCTa ocTanoc 2O78

0:01:45 3O 94
3aBepwwT TeCT 40110
5 086
1 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 50
1 2 3 4 5 68 9 10
Bonpoc: N97
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
In the onset of Basedow's disease, the main role belongs to:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 A5 46 47 48 49 50
oreeeHHl EOnpoc OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)

nporyuewHb BOnpoc
Texyuni Donpoc 1 Increased production of somatotropic hormones
Ao 3aepweHuA TeCTa ocTanoCL: 2Insufficient aldosteron production

0:03:00 3 Insufficient action of parathyroid hormone
3aeepuT TeCT Excessive action of thyroid hormones

S Increased production of cortisol
**
45 67 89 10 11 50
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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Bonpoc: Ne42
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A 29-year-old man, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, sweating. tremors in the body, weakness, diarrhea, darkening of the skin in places of
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
skin friction. Anamnesis: has been ill for several years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood
43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
pressure 170/60 mm Hg. TSH is reduced, T3, T4 is increased. The doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain what is the connection with the appearance
OTBeieHHiÀ BOnpOC of skin darkening due to?
poryueHHIM BOIIPoC
rexyuui nonpoc
OTBeTbI(oAWH OTBeT)
Ao 3anepueHAR TeCTZa oCTanoc
1 adrenal insufficiency
0:00:58
2 O liver failure
3aeepwwTb TeCT
3 O renal failure
4O thymus insufficiency
5 parathyroid insuficiency
38 39 40 41
42 43 44 45 46 50
endocririe Mgin,pdf lectures.pdt s.arjo pass infampdf Enddocrine Fnal pilf Show
1 2 34 5 6 7 6 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Bonpoc: N937
21 22 23 24 25 25 27 28 29 30
Indicate, what change in the cardiovascular system is characteristie of the syndrome of hypercortisolism?
31 32 33 34 35
3638 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50
OTReHHÅ EOnpoc OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)

nporryueE sonpoc
Texyunä Donpoc 1 weakening of heart sounds
Ao 3apepweHun TCCTa ocTanocu 2 increase blood pressure
0:01:16 3 pulse soft, low tension
3aaepuT TeCT 4 apical impulse is weakened, low
5 0 displacement of the right border
1 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 ** 50
111 122 133 1445 16678 9 10
17 18 19
Bonpoc: Ne25
15 20
21 22 23 24E 26 27 28 29 30
Determine, which of the following is the main thyroid hormone:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 A5 46 47 49 49 50
OTRAIHHii BOnpo OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBer)

nporryueblñ BorIpoc
TOKYLI Donpor 1Othriodthyronine
A 3ccpucHWA TecTa oCTaocu 2 thyrotropin releasing hormone
0:01:57 3Othyroid- stimulating hormone
3anepuwn TecT thyroxine

5 Othyrocalcitonin
** 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 50
1 2 3 45 6 7
6 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Bonpoc: N926
21 22 23 24
2527 28 29 30 Identify the main cause of constipation and flatulence in children with hypothyroidism:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 33 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 45 47 43 49 50
-oTBeueHHLIÅ EIOMpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)

ripornyueHHbM BOrIpoc
Texyun vonpoc 10 decrease metabolism of substances
Ao 3apepweHnn TecTa oCTanoCL 2 poor appetite
0:01:54 3 motor function of the intestine
3aBepuwTL TeCT 4Odecreased physical activity

5 Iow water consumption
1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 50
1 2
3 4567 8
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
9 10
Bonpoc:N 32
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
What is the most informative method for examining the thyroid gland in acute thyroiditis:
3133 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTReeHHhli ROnpoc
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
11porryueHbi BOnpOc
TOKyint Donpoc 10lateral radiography of the neck
Ao 2ApepueHMA TeCTa oCTanocu 2 radioisotope scanning
0:01:34 3 inspection and palpation
3anepuT TeCT 4Oultrasound with biopsy

28 29 30 31
32 33 34 35 36 ** 50
CHH
12 3 45 67 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N936
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
What are the causes of primary hypothyroidism?7
31 32 33 34
3537 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
OTRAeHHIM AOTpOc
OTBeTbI(oAnH OTBer)
ponyuenHbi Bonpoc
TCKyunn aonpoc
1Opituitary adenoma
Ao 3aepuweHMA TOCT oCTaNOCL: 2 autoimmune thyroiditis
0:01:20 3 Opituitary irradiation
3aBepuTb TeCT 4 0skulltrauma

5Oneuroinfection
* 32 33 34 35
36 37 38 39 40 50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10 Bonpoc: N924
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 232 25 26 27 28 29 30 Indicate the blood glucose level in healthy children (mmol/l):
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTEeHHHi EOnpoe OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBer)

nporryuee Bonpoc
Texyuni sonpoc 1
144 2,22
Ao 33pepuweHun TOCTa ocTanocb

2O 7,78-8,88
0:02:00 3O 3.33-5,55
3anepuT TeCT 4O 666 7,77

5 O889 9,99
1 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 50
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Bonpoc: N244
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A woman, 50 years old, consulted a local therapist with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain, headache, pain in the lumbar region, sweating. From the
31 32 31 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
anamnesis: the patient's mother suffered from type 2 diabetes. Objectively: hcight 165 cm, body weight 100 kg. rubeosis of the cheeks, excessive deposition of
41 42 43 45 46 47 48 49 50
fatty tissue in the area of the shoulders, chest, abdomen, pale striae on the skin of the abdomen, thighs, deformation of the nails legs. Waist circumference 102 cm,
OTREPHHIÀRONpoc hip circumference 95 cm. BP 160/90 mm Hg. Interpret, how much the patient's waist circumference should be? Less than..
nporryuieHmbit borpoc
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4 O75
5 O90
1
40 1 42
4344 45 46 47 48 50
endocrine Main.pdf lectures.pdt Samjo pass inform.pdf Enddacaine finalpd how ai

endocrine Main pdf samjo pass informatior finalpd Male 30 years cld. He G PaTient E. 50 years olc
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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient K, 48 years old, went to the clinic with complaints of severe weakness, weight loss, bone pain, especially in the feet, long-term heafing fractures, loss of
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
appetite, nausea, vomiting not a3sociated with food intake, diarrhea. From the anamnesis: suffers from adenoma of the right parathyroid gland. Laboratory data:
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
TBC-anemia, Calcium-3.4 mmol/, phosphates-0.7 mmol/1. What is your preliminary syndrome?
-aTRe 4eHHR RONpOC
iponyuenHb BONPO
TeKy Donpoc OrBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Ao accpueHAn TeCTa oCTanoc: 1 0 hyperparathyroidism syndrome
0:01:05 2 O thyroid inflammation syndrome
3aBepuwTb TeCT 3Ohyperglycemia syndrome

4 hypercortisol symdrome
5 O hyperthyroidism syndrome
1
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 ** 50
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678 9 10 Bonpoc: N950
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient V, 50 years old, consulted a doctor at the place of residence with complaints of increased body weight, pain in the lumbar region, increased blood pressure
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
up to 200/100 mm Hg. Objectively. height 165 cm, body weight 121 kg. Obesity with redistribution of subeutaneous fat according to the "cushingoid" type,
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 40 49
redness of the cheeks, striae of red-violet color in the hips and abdomen, multiple acne on the face and back, hypotrophy of the limbs. Fasting blood glucose 15
OTaeeHHkÅ BOnpOC
mmol/1, urine sugar 6%. What hormonal research method will help in making a diagnosis?
nporyuetHbli BOnppoc
rexyui Dompoc
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Ao 3aepwewun TeCTa OcTancCL
10 testosterone
0:00:25
20vasopressin
3aepuwTb TeCT
3 O insulin
4 O thyroxine
5 cortisol
1 * 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
endocrine Main pdf lectures.pdf samjo pass inform..pdf Enddocine fnalpdf Show all
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789 10
Bonpoc: N 21
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1a 19 20
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Male 30 years old. He was admitted to the clinic with complaints of headache, drosiness, change in appearance over the past 2 years, during which he considers
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
himself ill. Examination: an increase in the brow ridges, chin, nose, auricles, tooth divergence. The hands and feet are disproportionately enlarged. AD 160/95 mm
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
Hg, heart rate 90 beats per minute, an increase in the size of the liver, the borders of the heart are expanded, blood glucose 10 mmol/1, total protein 90 g
0TReeHHtÅ ROnpOC
/
urine glucose+. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
nporryuetHb BOnpoc
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OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
Ao 3arepuweHMR TeCTa ocTanoc:
0:02:10 1OPituitary gigantism

2 0 Adiposogenitaldystrophy
3aaepuT& TeCT
3 O Pituitary dwarfsm
Acromegaly
5 OPituitary hypogonadism
1 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 50
endocrine Main pdf lecturespdf samjo pass inform.pdf Enddeaine finalpdf Show a
endocrine Main pdf * samja pazs informatic: x Enddocrine finalpdf x Be6 Tectepcaawe xGMate 30 years cld, He X G Patient B, 50 years olc x G how t4 test it done-
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12 3
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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
9 10 Bonpoc: N95
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient K, 32 years old, complains of unreasonable aniety, increased mental excitability, weight loss, sweating, frequent stools. She fell ill for 6 months. back after
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
suffering the flu. Revealed eye symptoms (Grafe, Kraus). Pulse 100 in 1 minute. The thyroid gland is enlarged to 3 tbsp. What is the method of radiaticn diagnostics
4142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
that alliows in this case to assess the function of the thyroid gland:
-OTRejeHHHIA Eonpoc
nponyuueHEl BOrIpOC
TeKyun ponpoc OTBeTbI(oAMH oTBer)
Ao 3accpucN TeCTa OCTanoCb
10 doppler study.
0:03:08 2 O nuclear magnetic resonance.
3aBepuMTb TeCT
3 radioimmunoassay.
4 computed tomography of the thyroid gland.
5 O ultrasonic scanning
123 45 6 7 9 50
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1 2 3 45 67 B
9 10 Bonpoc: N934
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1a 19 20
21 22 23
24 25 26 27 20 29 30
31 32 33 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 43 49 50
-oraee44hiR BOnpoc OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)

nporryuetb BOpoc
D-Texy Donpoc 1 hypercortisolism
Ao 3accpueHn TeCTa ocTanocL: 2 hyperprolactinemia
0:01:27 3 hyperthyroidism
3anepuuT 4 hyperparathyroidism
TecT
5 hyperpituitarism
30 31 32 33 35 36 37 38 50
endocrine Mairnpdf lectures pdf samjo pass inform.pdf Enddactine finalpdf Show all
endocrine Mainpdf x samjo pass informatio x Fnddacrine final.pdf X Befi TerTupaRAHna X GMale 30 years eld. He X G Patient E. 50 yaars cdr x G hew t4 tet is done- x +
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1 2 3 4 567 89 10
Bonpoc: N948
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Patient A, 34ycar old applied to polylinic with complaints of an increase in body temperature up to 39'C, pain in the right side of the thyroid gland, aggravated by
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 34 39 40
swallowing, coughing, chills, tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent tonsilitis. Objoctively: On palpation, the thyroid gland is sharply painful, dense, regional
41 42 43 4445 46 47 49 50
lymph nodes are enlarged. Laboratory: Total blood count: leukocytosis with a shift to the left, increased ESR. Choose the most informative method for examining the
E-oTaeuewH ROnpoc thyroid gland in this situation:
1porryueHHbiii BOnpoc
rexyuwÄ Dornpioc
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
Ao sacepuenun TeCTa ocTanocu
Oauscultation of the thyroid gland

0:00:38
20 ultrasound with biopsy
3anepuuwm TeCT
3 O thyroid scan with 131
4 0 determination of T3, T4 in blood
5lateral radiography of the neck.
1 43 44 45 46 47
43 49 50
endocrine Mairn.pdl lectutespdf Sajo pass inform. pdf Endotine fnal pdf Show a X
l 98% 10:12
avn.kgma.kg
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Moxa DaM3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°1
Specify the method of radiological diagnostics used for screening breast diseases in women
older 40
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 mammograpny
2 thermography
3 radioisotope
4 scintigraphy
5 ultrasound
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHblM BOnpoC
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
Texyunin Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TeCTa ocTanocb:
1:15:06
3aBepuiWTb TeCT

dl 98% 10:12
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After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. Determine which structure
was damaged during the operation?
OTBeTbi(oauH OTBeT)
1 the vagus nerve
2 parathyroid gland
inferior laryngeal artery
inferior laryngeal nerve
sympathetic trunk
7 50
2 3 4 5
6
1 23 4 56 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHblMBonpoc
nponyujeHHbiM Bonpoc
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1:14:58
3apepunTb TeCT

IN H 98% 10:13
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Indicate what volume of contrast agent is injected with intravenous contrasting of the adrenal
gland:
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1 0-1120 ml
2 30-60 ml
3 120-150 ml
4 150-180 m
5 60-90 ml
1 2 34 5 6 50
7 8 9 10
1 2 34 56
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpo
nponyujeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyujmn BOnpoc
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1:14:51
3aBepuiTb TeCT

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Bonpoc: Ne4
A 26-year-old woman came to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right
mammary gland, the
intensifies during menstruation. The doctor ordered
mammary gland is painful to touch, the pain
a mammogram. Indicate in your answers when to get a mammogram
OTBETbi(oAWH OTBeT)
1 from the 1st to the 5th day of the menstrual cycle
2 in the second half of the menstrual cycle
3 regardless of the phase of the cycle
4 from the 6th to the 12th day of the menstrual cycle
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
234 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 400
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHBIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyuynn BOnpoc
o 3aBepuweHnA TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:46
3aBepunTb TeCT

l 98%10:13
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick. Be6.. X
MoxA DawaaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°5
OnComputed Tomography.on the anterior wall of the trachea to the jugular notch of the sternum,
a tumor-like formation extending into the anterior mediastinum is determined. Explain which
organ is affected.
OTBeTbI(ogUH OTBeT)
1
thymus gland.
parathyroid lymph nodes.
perotracheal lymph nodes
4 parathyroid glands.
5 thyroid gland.
2 3 4 50
7 8 9 10
23 456
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TexyuMn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:42
3agepuwTb TeCT

NI l 98% 10:13
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be..
MoxA dawaaH a Ru
Bonpoc: N°6
old did not undergo an annual
Patient B., 39 years old, 4 years old could not get pregnant, years
4
of iregular painful periods, The doctor prescribed a medical

medical examination. History
is it better to start the
examination of the pelvic organs. With which diagnostic method
examination?
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
3 endoscopy
4 radiography
5 ultrasound
2 3
45 67 89
1 23 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BONpOC
nponyujeHHBIM BONpoOC
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:36

N l 98% 10:13
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick.. Be6... X
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne7
An excess of thyroid hormones occurs when
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Endemic cretinism
2 Insulinoma
3 Acromegaly

5 Miksedeme
3 4 5 6 8 10
2 3 6 7 8 9 10
1 45
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoC
nponyujeHHbIM BOnpOc
TeKyuMn Bonpoc
A0 3aBepweHnA TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:30
3aBepuinTb TeCT

N l 98% 10:13
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick.. Be6. X
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°8
A decrease in the production of hormones of the sex glands is manifested:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Hirsutism
2 Cryptorchidism
3 Hermaphroditism
4 Virilism
Eunuchoidism
4 5 6
89 10 11 |2 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BonpoC
nponyujeHHblM Bonpoc
TeEKyuwi Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepueHWA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:14:25
3aBepuinTb TeCT

IN
l 98%1 10:13
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick. Be6..
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne9
Conn's syndrome (primary aldosteronism) is manifested by:
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1
Accumulation of H ions
3 Hypotension
4 Dliguria
7 9 10 11 12 13 50
1 2 3 4 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 300
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbi Bonpoc
TeKyujnn BonpoC
0 3aBepweHnA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:21
3aBepwMTb TeCT

IN 98% 10:13
avn.kgma.kg
Quick... Be6..
MoxA dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
In severe cases of hypothyroidism in adults occurs
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Eunuchoidism
2 Hypergonadism
Dwarfismn
Myxedema
5 Cretinism
T0 11 12 13 14
50
2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbIM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyumi BonpoC
Ao saBepueHMA TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:14:16
3aBepuunTb TeCT

N l 98% 1 10:13
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick. Be6.
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne11
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence of angiotensin
9 0 12 13 14
50
45 6 7 8 9 10
2 3
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoOC
Tekyujin BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:14:11
3agepulwTb TeCT

l 98% 10:13
O avn.kgma.kg
O Quick.
Be6...
MoxA Oan3aH
Bonpoc: N°12
Hypoparathyroldism is manifested by:
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBEeT)
3 Massive
edema
4 Decreased tubular water reabsorption
9 10 11 12 13 14 5 16
50
123 4 5 6 78 9 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHs TecTa ocTanocb
1:14:07
3aBepuiTb TeCT

INI l 98% 10:13
1 avn.kgma.kg
Qulck Be6 +
MoxA Dana3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°13
The initial product for the synthesls of thyrold hormones is:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
Phenylalanine
Oxyproline
3 Tyroain
4 Leucine
5 Wallin
9 10 11 2 13 14 15 17
1
2 3 4 56 7 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeuewHbih Bonpoc
aonpoc
nponyuyeHHbin
TeKyWn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:02
GaBepuWTb TeCT

N 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6.
Moxa dawsaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N914
Diabetes insipidus develops when damaged:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Adrenal glands
2 Pancreas
3 Thyroid gland
4 Posterior pituitary gland

5 Anterior pituitary gland
0 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7
89 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuMM BOnpoC
Ao saBepweHna TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:53
3aBepunTb TeCT

INI 98% 10:14
P9 vn
avn.kgma.kg C E
OQuick.. Be6.. X
MoxA ban3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°15
Patient B, 50 years old, complains that recently the ears, nose, hands began to increase in size
Which gland is overactive will give similar aymptoms;
OTBeTbI(onMH OTBeT)
Gonads
2 Pituitary gland
Thyroid
4 Adrenalglands
5 Epiphysis
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
50
345 678 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbin Bonpoc
TeKyuMM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:13:49
3ARenillTh TACT

N 98%10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be
..
MoxA Daw3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: NP16
Patient N., 27 years old, after childbirth, complicated by massive bleeding, began to develop
exhaustion, the skin became dry, wrinkled, wax color. Body temperature 360 C, blood pressure-
100/60 mm Hg. Art, the content of glucose in the blood is 3.3 mmol /1, the content of 17-
ketosteroids in the urine is lowered. What pathology of the endocrine system can be assumed:
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Pituitary hyperfunction
2 Hypothyroiditis
3 Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex
4 Hypofunction of the ovary
5 Pituitaryhypofunction
2 13 4 5 16 7 18 19 20
50
4 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyujnn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TECTa oCTanocb
1-13:43

l 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6..
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°17
Patient N., 45 years old, complains of weakness, rapid fatigue; lack of appetite, weight loss, pain
in the abdomen. Objective examination: the skin and visible mucous membranes of bronze color,
blood pressure is reduced. Dysfunction of which endocrine gland can cause the following
symptoms:
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1
Pituitary gland
2 Adrenal glands
3 Epiphysis
4 Pancreas
5 Ovary
13 14 5 16 17 18 19 20 21
50
2
456 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbiM BOnpoc
TexyuMn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:39

N l 98% 10:14
K avn.kgma.kg O
Quick. Be6..
MoxA Dan3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°18
After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. What was damaged during
the operation:
OTBETbi(oguH OTBeT)
3 Sympathetic trunk
Vagus nerve
5 Parathyroid gland
4 6 17 18 9 20 21 22
50
1
23 4 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbIM Bonpoc
TekyuMn BOnpoc
0 3aBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocCb
1:13:35
RarenilUTh TeCT

IN 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be6.
MoxA DaM3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°19
What change in the biochemical composition of the blood is observed with an overdose of
insulin:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
Decreased protein content
2 Decreased phosphorus levels

3 Increased calcium content
OLowering sugar levels
5 Increased sugar levels
16 17 18 19 20 21 2 23
50
10
3 67 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40p
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyyeHHbIM Bonpoc
TeKyuMM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:30
3aRenilITh TeCT

N l 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6...
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 20
Patient L., 45 years old, has been ill
for 6 months, the onset of the disease is associated with the
transferred sore throat. Complaints of general weakness, irritability, sweating, increased appetite,
drop in body weight, palpitations. On physical examination, the body temperature is
37.8
hyperhidrosis (ncreased sweating), tremor of the fingers, increased gitter of the eyes, diffuse
enlargement of the thyroid gland, small exophthalmos (bulging eyes), pulse 100 beats. per
minute, blood pressure- 140 mm Hg. Art., the level of glucose in the blood-5.5 mmol/1,
the
basal metabolic rate is increased by 40%. Diagnosed with Basedow's disease.
Indicate the
function of which endocrine gland is impaired:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Parathyroid
2 Pituitary gland
Thyroid
4 Adrenalglands
5 Epiphysis
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
50
2 34 5 67 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoC
Tekyuin BOTpoc

N dl 98% | 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be
.. X
Moxa dansaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°21
Male 45 years old. The face is moon-shaped, the skin on it with a purple tint, acne. Excessive fat
deposition on the abdomen and thighs. The bones are thin. Thinning of the skin, red streaks of
stretch on the skin of the abdomen and shoulders are noted. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg. Art.
Blood sugar 9.0 mmol /1. Xray: the Turkish saddle is dilated. Which of the following preliminary
diagnoses is most likely:
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Myxedema
2 Pheochromocytoma
OCushing's Disease
Addison's disease
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 2425
50
1
2 3 4 56 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoC
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyumn BOnpoc
Ao saBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb

IN l 98%10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be6.. X
MoxA Daw3aH R
Bonpoc: N 22
A 30-year-old man complains of recurrent seizures of the muscles of the limbs and face,
numbness of the fingers and toes, pain in the chest and in the epigastric region, difficulty in
breathing. The disease developed after removal of part of the thyroid gland for nodular goiter
The patient is pale. The hair is sparse, gray. Britte nails. Neurological examinationa sharp
increase in the excitability of the nervous and muscular systems. The content of Ca in the blood
is significantly reduced, the content of phosphorus is increased. Indicate which endocrine glands
function is impaired:
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Adenohypophysis
2 Adrenal glands
3 Parathyroid
Neurohypophysis
Thyroid
18 19 20 21 22 24 26
50
23 4 567 8 109
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbin BOnpoc
rekyunn Bonpoc

I 98% 10:14
K avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6. X
MoxA oansaH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°23
Indicate the blood glucose level in healthy children (mmol/):
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 8,89 -9,99
2 1,44-2,22
3 7,78-8,88
4 6,66-7,77
5 3,33-5,55
20 21 22 23 24 26 27
*
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 12 13 14 15 1b 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoC
Texyunn BonpocC
40 3aBepuieHnA TecTa octanocb
1:13:11
3asepiMTb TeCT

MIY7 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick Be6.
MoxA daw3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°24
Name the main laboratory criterion of hyperglycetmia syndrome
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 hypernatriemia
2 hypokaliemia
3 hypoproteinemia
4 high fasting glycemia
5 hypercholesterolemia
20 21 22 23
24 25 26 27 28
1
2 3 4 5 6 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbIM BOnpoOc
TeKyuyMn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:03
3aBepuiWTb TeCT

98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6.
MoxA daM3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc:N°25
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)

5
form as pea puree
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
50
1
2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbiM BOnpoC
TeKyuMM BOnpoc
40 3aBepuieHWA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:12:58
3aBepuiTb TeCT

IN 98% 10:14
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Beo..
MoxA daM3aN Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°26
Explain the cause of prolonged jaundice in babies with hypothyroidism
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 imperfect function of the gallbladder
2 increased kidney function
3 insufficient secretion of bile by the liver
4 deficiency of vitamin A in the body
5 mucous swelling of the skin
22 3 25 26 27 28 29
50
1
2 3 456 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 200
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuwn Bonpoc
1:12:54
3aBepuMTbTeCT

TE l 98% | 10:15
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be.. X
Moxa Dan3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°27
Explain, as a result of which there is overweight in chldren with hypothyroidism syndrome:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
1
acceleration of oxidative processes
2 disaccharide metabolism disorders
3 myxedema edema
4 violation of fat metabolism
liverdysfunction
23 24 25 26 27 20 29 30 31
1 2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOMpoc
TekyuM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:49
3aBepuiVTb TeCT

N Tl 98% 10:15
avn.kgma.kg
9 Quick. Be6.. x
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°28
A patient gir, 12 years of life, turned with mother to the family'doctor with complaints on hunger,
rapid fatique, dizziness, pain in abdomen, hand tremors. Anamnesis: suffers from diabetes
melfutus 1 type/ since of 9, receives insulin therapy. 4 days ago, she began to attend training
Sessions for 2 hours daily. This complaints appeared 2 days ago, very tired She tries to follow the
diet.prepares herself. She studies well. Objectively: physical development corresponds to age
Theskin is palor, dry cold hands. Heart rate-82 in 1 minute. Arterial pressure 110/70 mm Hg
No thirst, does not urinate often. Blood glucose level is 4,2 mmol/l. In urine no glucose. Decide,
which syndrome the patient has?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT
1 intoxication
2 hypoglycemia
3 premenstrual
hyperthyroidism
5 "attention deficit"
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
32
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
I1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbin Bonpoc
TeKyuunn BOnpoc

NI 98% 8 10:15
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick. Be6... X
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°29
What symptom is characterized by increasing the iritability of the nerves, and a flexlon of the
wrist and metacarpat phalangeal joints with extension of the interphalangeal joints and
adduction of the thumb (carpal spasm) after placing a blood pressure cuff on the patients arm
and inflating to 20 mm Hg above systolic blood pressure for 3-5 minutes?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Weiss
2 Schlesinger
Trousseau
Khvostek
5 "fish mouth
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
50
12 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TEKyuMn BOnpo
Ao 3aBepuweHMs TecTa oCTanocb
1:12:37

IN dl 98% 1015
avn.kgma.kg O
Quick. Be .
MoxA Da3aH
Bonpoc: N°30
Obesity is a risk factor for the development of the syndrome
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
2 hyperthyroidism
gigantism
4 hypercortisolism
5
hyperglycemia
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyuleHHbIM BOnpoc
Texyun BOnpoc
J0 3aBepuweHnA TeCta oCTanocb
1:12:32
3aBepuwTEb TeCT

IN l 98% 10:15
avn.kgma.kg
Quick... Be6.. X
MoxA dan3aH RU
Kg
Bonpoc: N°31
ndicate, what change in the cardiovascular system is most typical for the obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 pulse soit, low tension
arrhythmia of heart sounds
increase blood pressure
28 29 30 31 32 34 35
50
2 3 4 56 8 910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
iponyujeHHbln Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:27
3aBepuWTb TeCT

INIR 989% 10:15
avn.kgma.kg
9 Quick.. Be6.. X
Moxn oan3aH Ru
Bonpoc: N°33
Freethyroxine is normal (pmol/1)?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 from 12.0 to 29.0
2 from 9.0 to 22.0
3 from 7.0 to 20.0
4 from 10.0 to 26.0
from 6.0 to 15.0
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
1
2 3 45 6 8
TT 12 13 14 15 1b 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyujnn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuieHMA TecTa ocTanocb
1:12:18
3aBepuwTb TeCT

I l 98% 1015
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be . X
Moxa dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°34
Obesity 1st degree, the body mass index (kg/ m2) is
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 40.0-45.9
2 35.0-39.9
3
18.5-24.9
4 30.0-34.99
5 25.0-29.9
30 32
33 34 35 36 37 38
50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa ocTanocb
1:12:13
3aBepunTb TeCT

N l 98%10:15
avn.kgma.kg O E
Quick. Be6.. X +
Kg Ru
Moxg dawsaH
Bonpoc: N°35
Obesity 2nd degree, the body mass index (kg/ m2)is
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
25.0-29.9
2 30.0-34.9
3 18.5-24.9
4 35.0-39.9
5 40.0-45.9
31 32 33 34 35 50 37 38 39
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:09
3aBepuwTb TeCT

98% 10:15
N l
o avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be6. X
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne36
Waist circumference in women is normally
less than (cm)
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 75
2 BU
3 B5
4 665
5 70
37 38 39 40
32 33 34 35 36
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbIM BONpocC
TeKyynn Bonpoc
Mo 3aBepweHWa TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:04
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

98%10:15
I
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be6.
Moxp Daw3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc:N 37
(according to ultrasound) in women is (ml
Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBeT)
from 35 to 38
2 more than 50
3 from 25 to 30
4 Up to 18
5 from 40 to 45
38 41
33 3435 3637 39 40
50
2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoC
TeKyn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepueHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:00
3aBepunTb TeCT

N
ll 98% 10:15
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick.. Be6.. +
MoxA Dan3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°38
In hypercortisolism syndrome, skin changes are characterized by
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 yellowness
2 vitiligo
3 striae
4 darkening
5 myxedema
34 35 36 37 38 9 40 41 42
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbl BOnpoc
TexyuMn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepueHMA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:11:54
3aBepunTb TeCT

INI 98% 10:165
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6. X
MoxA daw3aH Kg
Bonpoc: N 39
First aid for hypoglycemia, what kind of remedy is taken?
OTBETbI(OgMH OTBeT)
1
calcium chloride 100 mng
2 glucose 40%
3 insulin 4 unit
4 metformin 500 mg
5 furosemide 40 mg
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26
27 28 29
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbI BOonpoc
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
TeKyuMn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TecCTa oCTanoCb
1:11:50
3aBepuwTb TeCT

IN l 98%1016
avn.kgma.kg
Quick. Be6.. x
Moxa daM3aH
Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N940
A 57-year-old woman was admitted to the endocrinology department of a clinical hospital with
complaints of weakness, headache, dry mouth, increased blood pressure up to 160/90 mm Hg,
pain in the region of the heart. in the lumbar spine during exercise. Objectively rounded face,
cheek rubeosis, height- 167 cm, weight 92 kg. BMI 34.0 kg /m2, waist circumference- 120
cm, hip circumference 100 cm, pale striae on the skin of the abdomen and thighs. Determine
what is the degree of obesity by body mass index?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
0
2
36 3738 39
4041 42 43 44
50
123 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnp0C
TeKyuiM* Bonpoc
ao anoADULAuAa TAGTO ACTAnAAL

98%1 1016
avn.kgma.kg E
Quick... Be6.
Moxp danaa4 Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 41
A 40-year-old man has turned to a polyclinic therapist with complaints of headaches, vWeight gain,
weakness, palpitations. The above complaints are disturbing for 1 year after suffering a
traumatic brain injury. On examination: the face is rounded, acne, welght 110 kg, height- 162
cm, enlargement of the breasts, purple-red streaks of stretching of the skin on the abdomen,
thighs, thinning of the arms and legs. Find out from the description the objective syrnptomis of
the patient.
OTBETbi(opuH OTBeT)
exophthalmos, myxedema
fish mouth, obstetrician hand
3 macrognathia, diastema
4 gynecomastia, striae
5 hirsutism, macroglossia
37 38 39 41 42 3 44 45
12 3 4 5 6 78 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIMBOnpoc
nporlyyeHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyum- Boipoc

l 98% | 10:16
avn.kgma.kg E
Quic Be6.... X
MoxA Da3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne42
The man was admitted to the clinic, complaints of palpitations, interruptions in the work of the
heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness, Anamnesis: has been ill for several years.
Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in
minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. ECG: tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation. Your
suspected syndrome?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBET)
1
hyperglobinemia
2 hyperthyroidism
4 hypercorticism
5 hyperglycemia
38 39 40 41 42 44 45
34 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM BOnpoC
nponyuyeHHbin BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb

l 98%1 10:16
avn.kgma.kg
Quick.. Be6..
MoxA DaM3aH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°43
The man40 year old was admitted to the clinic, complaints of palpitations, interruptions in the
Work of the heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has been ill for several
years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98
in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg.ECG: tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation. The
doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain, what caused the atrial fibrillation in this
case, because of the increase?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeeT)
1
calcitonin
3 increased TSH
4 antibodies TPO
13 and T4
40 41 42 43 44 45
50
23 4 6 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiMBOnpoc
nponyujeHHbin Bonpoc
TeKyuyM: BOnpocC
o aapanuiLAn TATA AOTAnO

Bonpoc: N°38
Which drug should be prescribed for acute hyperglycemia?
OTBETbI(oqnH OTBer)
1 gliclazide
2 short-acting insulin
3 long acting insulin
4 O glibenclamide
5 metformin
34 35 36 3738 39 40 41 42
50
BepMaCapseu Ko
Bonpoc: N936
Obesity is often observed in the syndrome
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 hypothyroidism
2 hypoglycemia
3 hypopituitarism
5 hypocorticism
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
50
asLLAGAaAV
2 3
1
4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 15 16 17 18 19 20
14
21 22 2324 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 3435 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIÅ Bonpoc
nponyyeHHbIM Bonpoc
TeKyuin Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHwa TeCTa ocTanocb
0:23:40
3apepuwTb TeCT
Bonpoc: N933
The most common cause of primary hypocorticism is
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1
0 meningitis
2 tuberculosis
3 corticotropinoma
4 hypophysectomy
5 Ocorticosteroma
1 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
Bonpoc: N°27
Explain the reason for the large tongue in a child with hypothyroidism:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 disorder of the musculature of the tongue
2 mucous swelling of the tongue
3 disorder ofthe salivary glands
4 innervation disorder
5
impaired circulation of the oral cavity
1
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM Bonpoc
nponyeHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyuyn BONpOcC
Ao 3aBepuieHuA TECTa oCTanocb:
0:32:52
3aBepuWTb TeCT
Bonpoc: N°13
Dysfunction of the kidneys in thyrotoxicosis may manifest itself:
T
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Impaired reabsorption of Ca and phosphorus -
Concentration dysfunction
3 Impaired renal blood flow
Increasing the filtration capacity of the kidneys
5 Proteniuria
9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
50
1 2 3 45 6 78 9 10
11 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33
34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
Bonpoc: N 11
With eosinophilicadenoma of the pituitary gland during the growth period of the body develops:
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBET)
1 Gigantism
2 Pituitarydwarfism
3 Cushing'sDisease
4 Dysplasia
5 Acromegaly
7B9 10 12 13 14 15 .
50
1 2 34 5 6 7 89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 1819 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOonpoc
TEKyun Bonpoc
BepMa CapBeu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne10
An increase in the concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood during
OTBeTbi(OAMH oTBET)
1 Hypothalamus
2 Thyroid gland
3 Timuse
5 Pituitary gland
6
7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: N°1
Which of the following radiation methods is the most informative in the diagnosis of kidney
cysts:
OTBeTbl(oAMH 0TBET)
1 ultrasound
2 dynamic tomoscintigraphy
3 overview X-ray of the urinary tract
4 excretory urography
5
cystograpny
1 2 3 4 5 6 50
BepMa Capse Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N940
Patient N., 35 years old, in hospital, a day after strumlectomy (complete or partial removal of the
thyroid gland) showed signs of hypertonicity of the symmetrical muscle group: spasm of the
facial muscles (in the form of a "sardonic smile"), lips in the form of a "fish mouth', trismus of the
chewing muscles. When the light is turned on, cramps in the muscles of the upper extremities
additionally occur a symptom of an obstetrician's hand. In which syndrome are the above
symptoms determined?
OTBETbi(OquH OTBeT)
1 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
Endocrine system questions
Q1.An increase in the concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood during

1.Parathyroid glands
2.Pituitary gland
3.Thyroid gland
4.Timuse
5.Hypothalamus
Q2. With an insufficient amount of iodine in food, it develops:
1.Hyperthyroidism
2.Hypoparathyroidism
3.Endemic goiter
4.Autoimmune thyroiditis
5.Diffuse toxic goiter
Q3.A decrease in the production of hormones of the sex glands is manifested:
1 Hirsutism
2.Virilism
3.Eunuchoidism
4.Cryptorchidism
5.Hermaphroditism
Q4.Changes in oxytocin secretion play a role in pathogenesis:
1.Disorders of circadian rhythms "wakefulness - sleep"
2.Myxedema
3.Disorders of labor
5.Disorders of carbohydrate metabolism in
diabetes mellitus
Q5.In the onset of Basedow's disease, the main role belongs to:
1.Increased production of cortisol
2.Insufficient action of parathyroid hormone
3.Insufficient aldosteron production
4.Increased production of somatotropic hormones
5.Excessive action of thyroid hormones
Q6.The pathogenesis of tertiary hypothyroidism is due to:
1 Increased TSH secretion
2.Increased synthesis of FSH
3.Secretion of biological inactive TSH
4.Autoimmune process in the thyroid gland
5 Decrease in the synthesis of thyroliberin
Q7.Patient B., 50 years old, complains that recently the ears, nose, hands began to increase in
size. Which gland is overactive will give similar symptoms:
1.Gonads
2 Thyroid
3 Adrenalglands
4.Epiphysis
5.Pituitary gland
Q8.Patient A., 39 years old, complains of copious flow of urine (daily urine output is 22 liters per
day). Blood sugar is within the normal range. With a violation of the production of which
hormone polyuria is associated:
1.Glucagon
2.ADH - Vasopressin
3.Aldosterone
4.Insulina
5.Parathyroid hormone
Q9.A patient came to the appointment - thin, with pronounced exophthalmos (bulging eyes),
pronounced anxiety in behavior. Heart rate (HR) - 92 beats / min. Dysfunction of which
1.Timus
2.Pituitary gland
3 Adrenalglands
4.Parathyroid
5.Thyroid
Q10.A patient was brought to the admission department of the hospital, who lost consciousness
in the street. The examination revealed the smell of acetone from the mouth. What is the
preliminary diagnosis that can be made:
1.Uremic coma
2.Diabetic coma
3.Pulmonary embolism
4.Internal bleeding
5.Hepatic coma
Q11.The patient has clinically all the signs of thyrotoxicosis. What research needs to be done to
clarify the diagnosis:
1.General analysis of blood and urine
2.Blood test for sugar, ketone bodies
3.LDL, HDL, bloodcholesterol
4.protein composition of plasma, residual blood nitrogen,
5.Determine the level of thyroxine
Q12.Female, 52 years old, onset of the disease 1.5 years ago after a course of radiation
therapy. Complains of memory impairment, general weakness, drowsiness, baldness, lack of
appetite, weight gain. An objective examination revealed: the skin is dry, flaky, the face is puffy,
hypomimic, there are areas of baldness on the head, the voice is low, rough, speech is slowed
down, the body temperature is 35.7 °, the pulse is 52 beats. per minute, blood pressure - 110/65
mm Hg. Art., the level of glucose in the blood 3.5 mmol / I, the basal metabolism is reduced by
30%. Diagnosed with Myxedema. What is the most likely cause of this disease:
1.Formation of mucin
2 Formation of reverse T3
3.Decreased TSH levels
4.Increase in T3 T4
5.lodine deficiency
Q13.Male 30 years old. He was admitted to the clinic with complaints of headache, drowsiness,
change in appearance over the past 2 years, during which he considers himself ill. Examination:
an increase in the brow ridges, chin, nose, auricles, tooth divergence. The hands and fe are
disproportionately enlarged. AD 160/95 mm Hg, heart rate - 90 beats per minute, an increase in
the size of the liver, the borders of the heart are expanded, blood glucose - 10 mmol / I, total
protein - 90 g/l, urine glucose +. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
1.Pituitary hypogonadism
2.Pituitary dwarfism
3.Acromegaly
4.Adiposogenitaldystrophy
5.Pituitary gigantism
Q14.Woman 44 years old. She suffers from diffuse toxic goiter and has been taking tyrosol 5
mg for 6 months. The condition improved, and the treatment was stopped on her own. Then her
health began to gradually deteriorate, she lost 10 kg. 2 weeks ago, she suffered a severe form
of flu, after which her condition worsened. The body temperature rose to 38.6 ° C, tachycardia
developed Objectively: pronounced emaciation, the patient is agitated, a sharp tremor of the
fingers, tremors of the whole body, pulse - 146 bpm, atrial fibrillation. BP 100/30 mm Hg. Art. In
the lower parts of the lungs, there are single humid unsonic rales, the liver is enlarged. What
disease is the clinical picture typical for:
1.Tyroidite Hashimoto
2.Thyrotoxic crisis
3.Acutethyroiditis
5.Myxedema
Q15.Indicate a pronounced disorder of the nervous system in children with hypothyroidism:
1.emotional instability
2.hysteria
3.mental retardation
4.convulsive readiness
5.neurasthenia
Q16.Name the main laboratory criterion of hyperglycetmia syndrome:
1.hypoproteinemia
2.hypokaliemia
3.hypernatriemia
4.high fasting glycemia

5.hypercholesterolemia
Q17.Highlight, what explains the pallor of the facial skin and mucous membranes in babies with
hypothyroidism?
1.vitamin «C» deficiency
2.decreased physical activity
3 deep arrangement of blood vessels
4 iron deficiency
5.hypovitaminosis B12
Q18.Explain, what causes weight loss in children - leading symptom of hyperthyroidism:
1.intestinal absorption is impaired
2.polyuria
3.frequent loose stools
4.functional liver failure
5.disorder of carbohydrate metabolism
Q19.A patient girl, 12 years of life, turned with mother to the family doctor with complaints on
hunger, rapid fatique, dizziness, pain in abdomen, hand tremors. Anamnesis: suffers from
diabetes mellutus 1 type/ since of 9, receives insulin therapy. 4 days ago, she began to attend
training sessions for 2 hours daily. This complaints appeared 2 days ago, very tired She tries to
follow the diet,prepares herself. She studies well. Objectively: physical development
corresponds to age. The skin is pallor, dry, cold hands. Heart rate - 82 in 1 minute. Arterial
pressure - 110/70 mm Hg. No thirst, does not urinate often. Blood glucose level is 4,2 mmol/l. In
urine no glucose. Decide, which syndrome the patient has?
1.premenstrual
2.intoxication
3."attention deficit"
4.hyperthyroidism
5.hypoglycemia
Q20.Obesity 2nd degree, the body mass index (kg / m2) is
1.30.0 - 34.9
2 35.0 - 39.9
3.25.0 - 29.9
4.18.5 - 24.9
5.40.0 - 45.9
Q21.Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in men is (ml):
1.from 45 to 48
2.more than55
3.from 30 to 35
4.from 38 to 40
5.Up to 25
Q22.Formula for calculating body mass index (BMI)
1.weight, kg / height, m2
2.weight, kg2 / height, m
3.height, m2 / weight, kg
4.weight, kg / height, m
5 height, m/ weight, kg2
Q23.What are the causes of primary hypothyroidism?
1.pituitary adenoma
2.skull trauma
3.neuroinfection
4.pituitary irradiation
5.autoimmune thyroiditis
Q24.The cause of obesity syndrome is
1.hypercortisolism
2.hyperparathyroidism
3.hyperglycemia
4.hyperthyroidism
5.gigantism
Q25.Which drug should be prescribed for acute hyperglycemia?
1.gliclazide
2 glibenclamide
3.metformin
4.short-acting insulin
5.long acting insulin
Q26.Describe the characteristic changes on palpation of the thyroid gland in acute inflammation
of the thyroid gland:
1.smooth elastic consistency
2.regional lymph nodes are not enlarged
3.thyroid gland of uneven density
4.absence of a focus of fluctuation
5.sharply painful, dense

Q27.First aid for hypoglycemia, what kind of remedy is taken?
1.metformin 500 mg
2.glucose 40%
3.calcium chloride 100 mg
4.furosemide 40 mg
5.insulin 4 unit
Q28.Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in women is (ml):
1.from 35 to 38
2.Up to 18
3.from 40 to 45
4.from 25 to 30
5.more than 50
Q29.Addison's disease is characterized by
1.hypoprolactinemia
2.hypopituitarism
3.hypoparathyroidism
4.hypothyroidism
5.hypocorticisolism
Q30.38-year-old woman was admitted to the clinic with A complaints of decreased appetite,
constipation, hearing loss, difficulty in nasal breathing, weakness. Anamnesis: Subtotal
strumectomy was performed 3 years ago. Objectively: The skin is dry, the height is 167 cm, the
weight is 68 kg, there is dense swelling of the legs. diagnosed with hypothyroidism syndrome.
Explain why hearing is reduced and nasal breathing is difficult due to?
1.mucous edema
2.swelling of the skin
3.inflammation
4.muscle swelling
5.infection
Q31.A 55-year-old man, a plumber at a tuberculosis hospital, called an ambulance, complaining

of severe weakness, decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Objectively:
the patient is adynamic, weight - 49 kg, height - 170 cm, darkening of the skin of the face, neck,
arms, breast nipples. The pulse on the radial artery is soft, low voltage. BP - 80/40 mm Hg.
Indicate the most likely predisposing factor for this syndrome.
1.hypotension
2.gender
3.tuberculosis
4.cachexia
5.age
Q32.The man 40 year old was admitted to the clinic, complaints of palpitations, interruptions in
the work of the heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has been ill for
several years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic.
Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. ECG: tachysystolic form of atrial
fibrillation. The doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain, what caused the atrial
fibrillation in this case, because of the increase?
1.calcitonin
2.parathyroid hormone
3.T3 and T4
4.increased TSH
5.antibodies TPO
Q33.Patient, 51 years old. At the endocrinologist's appointment for the first time. Complaints of
increased fatigue, overweight. From the anamnesis: the patient's mother was obese. Smokes
since 20 years. Objectively: height 173 cm, body weight 102 kg. The type of distribution of
adipose tissue is abdominal obesity. The skin is normal in color, dry to the touch. Blood
pressure - 110/70 mm Hg, heart rate - 76 per minute. Laboratory results: fasting glycemia 10.5
mmol / I. Explain, what caused the development of hyperglycemia in this patient?
1.smoking
2.hypodynamia
3.obesity
4.hypertension
5.heredity
Q34.The man was admitted to the clinic, complaints of palpitations, interruptions in the work of
the heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has been ill for several years.
Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1
minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. ECG: tachysystolic form of atrial fibrillation. Your
suspected syndrome?
1.hyperglycemia
2.hyperglobinemia
3.hypercorticism
5.hyperthyroidism
Q35.A woman, 50 years old, consulted a local therapist with complaints of thirst, dry mouth,
weight gain, headache, pain in the lumbar region, sweating. From the
anamnesis: the patient's mother suffered from type 2 diabetes. Objectively: height - 165 cm,
body weight - 100 kg, rubeosis of the cheeks, excessive deposition of fatty tissue in the area of
the shoulders, chest, abdomen, pale striae on the skin of the abdomen, thighs, deformation of
the nails legs. Waist circumference - 102 cm, hip circumference - 95 cm. BP - 160/90 mm Hg.
Interpret, how much the patient's waist circumference should be? Less than....
1.85
2.90
3.80
4.95
5.75
Q36.A man V. 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic with multiple pathological, spontaneous
fractures of tubular claws, pronounced curvature of the spine and deformation of the skeleton.
Upon admission, the patient complained of general weakness, extremely rapid fatigue, muscle
hypotonia, and bone pain. In the anamnesis there are indications presence of kidney stones,
revealed an increase in the calcium content in the blood to 15.1 mmol/L and a decrease in the
phosphorus content to 0.24 mmol / L. What is your preliminary syndrome?
1.hypercortisol syndrome
2.hyperparathyroidism syndrome
3.hyperglycemic syndrome
4.thyroid inflammation syndrome
5.hyperthyroidism syndrome
Q37.Patient A., 34year old applied to polyclinic with complaints of an increase in body
temperature up to 39°C, pain in the right side of the thyroid gland, aggravated by swallowing,
coughing, chills, tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis: frequent tonsillitis. Objectively: On
palpation, the thyroid gland is sharply painful, dense, regional lymph nodes are enlarged.
Laboratory: Total blood count: leukocytosis with a shift to the left, increased ESR. Choose the
most informative method for examining the thyroid gland in this situation:
1.lateral radiography of the neck.
2.determination of T3, T4 in blood
3.thyroid scan with 131 I
4.auscultation of the thyroid gland
5.ultrasound with biopsy
Q38.Patient M., 40 years old, a salesman, applied to the doctor of policlinic with complaints of
general weakness, rapid fatigability, sensations of pressure in the front of the neck, loss
memory, facial swelling, constipation. From the anamnesis: suffering from rheumatoid arthritis
for many years. Objectively: Body temperature - 36.1 °C. The skin is pale, dry, peeling is
expressed on the legs. Swelling of face, dense edema on the legs, lower third of the lower leg.
Pulse 55 per minute, BP - 126/80 mm Hg. Tongue clean, teeth marks on tongue. The thyroid
gland is unevenly enlarged on examination, on palpation it is dense, mobile when swallowing,
painful, nodular formations are not determined. Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: V total. - 6.3
cm3 (8.3-18.0). Increased echogenicity. The structure is clearly diffusely heterogeneous. What
laboratory test proves the
presence of an autoimmune syndrome?
1.T3 fr.-3.0 pmol/l
2.TSH-0.3 mU/l
3.T4 fr.-28 pmol/l
4.AB-TPO - 250 U/ ml
5.AB-TG - 9 U/ml
Q39.A 16-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic in an unconscious state according to the
mother, previously complained of severe thirst, frequent urination and general weakness.
Objectively: the smell of acetone from the mouth, the skin is dry. Rapid breathing. Heart sounds
are muffled. The abdomen is tense. What is the most informative laboratory examination
method (blood) for making a diagnosis ?
1.proteim
2.glucose
3.cretinine
4.calcium
5.cholestetol
Q40.A 19-year-old girl was admitted to the clinic unconscious. According to her mother, the girl
has been suffering from diabetes for 4 years, at home after an injection of insulin she suddenly
lost consciousness. The ambulance doctor revealed hypoglycemia of 2,3 mmol / I. First aid was
given by intravenous glucose drip, but the patient did not regain consciousness. Indicate which
drug should be administered in this situation?
1.inulin
2.albumin
3.glucose
4.glucagon
5.insulin
Q41.Indicate which method of examining the thyroid gland is the first priority:
1.endoscopy
2.magnetic resonance imaging
3.computed tomography
4.ultrasound
5.fluoroscopy
Q42.A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had grown by 10 cm over the summer. When
examining a 19-year-old boy: height 180 cm, weight 68 kg. Which research method is more
1.craniography
2.target X-ray of the skull
4.ultrasound
Q43.To peripheral form of endocrine disorders can lead to:
1.Pituitary alteration
2.Alteration of the hypothalamus
3.Strong bond of hormones with proteins
4.Alteration of the endocrine gland
5.Weak hormone-protein binding

Q44.In the onset of Basedow's disease, the main role belongs to:
1.Increased production of cortisol
2.Insufficient action of parathyroid hormone
3.Insufficient aldosteron production
4.Increased production of somatotropic
hormones
5.Excessive action of thyroid hormones
endocrine gland can cause the
following symptoms:
1.Timus
2.Pituitary gland
3.Adrenalglands
4.Parathyroid
5 Thyroid
Q46.Female, 52 years old, onset of the disease 1.5 years ago after a course of radiation
therapy. Complains of memory impairment, general weakness, drowsiness, baldness, lack of
appetite, weight gain. An objective examination revealed: the skin is dry, flaky, the face is puffy,
hypomimic, there are areas of baldness on the head, the voice is low, rough, speech is slowed
down, the body temperature is 35.7 °, the pulse is 52 beats. per minute, blood pressure - 110/65
mm Hg. Art., the level of glucose in the blood - 3.5 mmol / I, the basal metabolism is reduced by
30%. Diagnosed with Myxedema. What is the most likely cause of this disease:
1.Formation of mucin
2.Formation of reverse T3
3.Decreased TSH levels
4.Increase in T3 T4
5.lodine deficiency
Q47.Male 30 years old. He was admitted to the clinic with complaints of headache, drowsiness,
change in appearance over the past 2 years, during which he considers himself ill. Examination:
an increase in the brow ridges, chin, nose, auricles, tooth divergence. The hands and feet are
disproportionately enlarged. AD - 160/95 mm Hg, heart rate 90 beats per minute, an increase in
the size of the liver, the borders of the heart are expanded, blood glucose - 10 mmol / I, total
protein - 90 g/l, urine glucose +. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
1.Pituitary hypogonadism
2.Pituitary dwarfism
3.Acromegaly
4.Adiposogenitaldystrophy
5.Pituitary gigantism
Q48.A patient girl, 12 years of life, turned with mother to the family doctor with complaints on
hunger, rapid fatique, dizziness, pain in abdomen, hand tremors. Anamnesis: suffers from
diabetes mellutus 1 type/ since of 9, receives insulin therapy. 4 days ago, she began to attend
training sessions for 2 hours daily. This complaints appeared 2 days ago, very tired She tries to
follow the diet,prepares herself. She studies well. Objectively: physical development
corresponds to age. The skin is pallor, dry, cold hands. Heart rate 82 in 1 minute. Arterial
pressure - 110/70 mm Hg. No thirst, does not urinate often. Blood glucose level is 4,2 mmol/l. In
urine no glucose. Decide, which syndrome the patient has?
1.premenstrual
2.intoxication
3."attention deficit"
4.hyperthyroidism
5.hypoglycemia
Q49.The immediate stimulant of the glomerular adrenal cortex is :
1.Angiotensin
2.Nicotin
3.Acetylcholine
4.Vasopressin
5.Adrenaline
Q50.What change in the biochemical composition of the blood is observed with an overdose of
insulin:
1.Decreased protein content
2.Decreased phosphorus levels
3.Increased sugar levels
4.Increased calcium content
5.Lowering sugar levels
1.Thyroid
2.Adrenalglands
3.Timus
4.Pituitary gland
5.Parathyroid
Q52.Patient B., 39 years old, who has been unable to get pregnant for 8 years, was advised to
consult an endocrinologist. Examination revealed exophthalmos, hand tremor, tachycardia in
the patient. The disease of which endocrine gland is accompanied by the following symptoms:
1.Thyroid
2.Pancreas
3.Epiphysis
4.Adrenal glands
5.Polovykh
Q53.After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. What was damaged
during the operation:
1.Inferior laryngeal artery
2.Inferior laryngeal nerve
3.Sympathetic trunk
4.Parathyroid gland
5.Vagus nerve
Q54.A 45-year-old man, taken to the clinic by an ambulance team with a diagnosis of
"Hypertensive crisis". BP. 180/120 mm Hg. Art., myocardial hypertrophy, tachycardia,
weakening of memory and intelligence, blood glucose - 6.5 mmol/l. A history of sudden crises
with a rise in blood pressure up to 200/140 mm Hg. Art., the appearance of tachycardia,
sweating, sharp agitation. Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar region revealed
an increase in the size of the left adrenal gland, the presence a ded formation in the medulla of
the gland. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely:
1.Diabetes mellitus
2.Addison's disease
3.Adrenalcrisis
4.Arterial hypertension
5.Pheochromocytoma
Q55.A 60-year-old man was admitted to the endocrinology department with suspected
basophilic adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland. Complains of general weakness, frequent
bronchitis, headache, pain in the back and limbs. Objectively: the clinical picture corresponds to
Cushing's syndrome. In the analyzes, there is an increase in the basal level of corticotoropin in
blood plasma and glucocorticoids in plasma and urine. With fluoroscopy, pronounced
osteoporosis of the bones of the skull, vertebral bodies, hyperplasia of both adrenal glands.
Which of the following answers is most likely:
1.Imbalance between bone formation and destruction

2.Aging of the body
3.Estrogen deficiency
4.High glucocorticoid levels
5.Vitamin D deficiency
Q56.Indicate the main symptom in hyperglycemia syndrome:
1.hyperactivity
2.cold sweat
3.polydipsia
4.bad appetite
5.tremor of the hands, body
Q57.Determine, at what age you need to identify the first signs of hypothyroidism:
1.7-9 years
2.4-6 years
3.6-9 month
4.1-3 month
5.1-3 years
Q58.Baby, 2 months of life, with mother went to the family doctor with complaints of
constipation, yellowness of the skin, drowsiness, difficulty breathing. Anamneses: was born
full-term on time, delivery was normal, mass of body - 4300,0. Sucks sluggish. The umbilical
remains fell of late. Objectively: lenth-55cm, mass - 6 400,0. The face is edematous, the tongue
is large. Low voice. Baby is sluggish, does not hold his head. The skin is icteric, very dry. The
bridge of nose is sunken. Heart tones are weakened, bradycardia. Heart rate - 106 in 1 minute.
In the blood test: erythrocytes - 3,7x10121/1, Hb -106 g/l. Hormones: T4 - decreased, TSH
-increased. ESG: sinus bradycardia. Choose, using all the data, which syndrome this child has?
1.hypothyroidism
2.Daun
3.uric
4.hypoexcitability
5.anemic
Q59.Explain, why accelerated growth and ossification occurs in children with hyperthyroidism
syndrome?
1.high growth hormone levels
2.hypercalcemia
3.high levels of thyroglobulin
4.development of bone epiphyses
5.high level soft hyrocalcitonin
Q60.In hypercortisolism syndrome, skin changes are characterized by
1.vitiligo
2.yellowness
3.striae
4.darkening
5.myxedema
Q61.What is a symptom of polyphagia, is it an increase?
1.appetite
2.heart rate
3.thirst
4.weight
5.urination
Q62.Indicate the reason for the occurrence of hypoglycemia?
1.prednisone overdose
2.iodine overdose
3.insulin overdose
4.dexamethasone overdose
5.glucagon overdose
Q63.The cause of obesity syndrome is
1.hyperthyroidism
2.hypercortisolism
3.gigantism
5.hyperglycemia
Q64.A 48-yearold woman was admitted to the clinic for examination and doesn't present any
complaints. Anamnesis: mom suffers from diabetes. Objectively: a patient with increased
nutrition, normal color leather. Height - 172 cm2, body weight - 88 kg. Breathing is vesicular.
Heart sounds are saved. Laboratory: fasting blood glucose (venous plasma) - 6.9 mmol/l after
meals after 2 hours 10.1 mmol /I, interpret this result.
1.diabetes mellitus
2.hypoglycemia
3.impaired glucose tolerance
4.acute hyperglycemia
5.impaired fasting glucose
Q65.A 35-year-old man, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, interruptions
in the work of the heart, sweating, trembling in the body, weakness. Anamnesis: has been ill for
several years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart sounds are loud, arrhythmic.
Pulse 110 in 1 minute. Blood pressure 180/60 mm Hg. Laboratory: TSH - decreased, T4, T3
increased. The doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. What method is necessary given
the severe tachycardia?
1.MRI
2.scintigraphy
3.ECG
4.X-ray
5.ultrasound
Q66.A 29-year-old man, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, sweating,
tremors in the body, weakness, diarrhea, darkening of the skin in places of skin friction.
Anamnesis: has been ill for several years. Examination: the apical impulse is enhanced. Heart
sounds are loud, arrhythmic. Pulse 98 in 1 minute. blood pressure 170/60 mm Hg. TSH is
reduced, T3, T4 is increased. The doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. Explain what is
the connection with the appearance of skin darkening due to?
1.renal failure
2.adrenal insufficiency
3.thymus insufficiency
Hi
4.liver failure
5.parathyroid insufficiency
Q67.A 52-year-old woman consulted a therapist with complaints of thirst, frequent urination,
itching of the perineum. In the anamnesis, the above complaints are worried for 1 month.
Objectively: The skin is dry and clean. BMI = 32.2 kg/m2. BP - 130/90 mm Hg. Laboratory blood
glucose - 10.3 mmol/l, after meals 15.0 mmol / I. What analysis can you use to find out blood
glucose in 3 months?
1.glycohemoglobin
2.C- peptide
3.blood glucose
4.total cholesterol
5.triglycerides
Q68.Damage to the neurohypophysis is accompanied by impaired secretion:
1.Adrenocorticotropic hormone
2.Vasopressin
3.Thyroid stimulating hormone
4.Growth hormone
5.Prolactin
Q69. A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had grown by 10 cm over the summer. When
examining a 19-year-old boy: height 180 cm, weight 68 kg. Which research method is more
1.ultrasound
3.craniography
5.target X-ray of the skull
Q70.Patient K., 32 years old, complains of unreasonable anxiety, increased mental excitability,
weight loss, sweating, frequent stools. She fell ill for 6 months. back after suffering the flu.
Revealed eye symptoms (Grafe, Kraus). Pulse 100 in 1 minute. The thyroid gland is enlarged to
3 tbsp. What is the method of radiation diagnostics that allows in this case to assess the
function of the thyroid gland:
1.nuclear magnetic resonance.
2.ultrasonic scanning.
3.radioimmunoassay.
4.computed tomography of the thyroid gland.
5.doppler study
Q71.Determine which CT-scan slice increment (distance between slices) should be used for
small adrenal masses (<1.5 cm):
1.5mm
2.24 mm
3.1.5 mm
4.36 mm
5.16 mm
Q72.Patient, 48 years old, at a doctor's appointment complains of muscle weakness, rapid

physical fatigue, lack of appetite, nausea, muscle pain, addiction to salty foods, menstrual
irregularities. On examination, weight - 48 kg, height - 166 cm. The skin has a dark brown color,
dark spots on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, subcutaneous fat is thinned. BP - 70/50
mm Hg. The pulse on the radial artery is soft, small filling. Choose the most informative blood
test for your diagnosis:
1.follicle-stimulating hormone
2.growth hormone
3.adrenocorticotropic hormone
4.thyroid-stimulating hormone
5.melanotropic hormone
Q73.A 50-year-old man was admitted to the clinic with complaints of dry mouth, thirst, frequent
urination, weakness. Anamnesis, the above complaints bother for a month. Objectively: The
skin is dry and clean. Breathing is vesicular. Heart sounds are saved. Blood pressure 150/90
mm Hg. Laboratory: blood glucose 12.0 mmol. The doctor diagnosed hyperglycemia. Explain
the explanation for the elevated blood glucose level in this case?
1.impaired secretion of somatostatin
2.violation of enzyme secretion
3.impaired glucose secretion
4 violation of glucagon secretion

5.impaired insulin secretion
Q74.A 33-year-old woman consulted a therapist, according to the patient, six months after the
strumectomy, weakness and apathy appeared. drowsiness, constipation and menstrual
irregularities. Objectively: the skin is dry, the hair is dry, brittle, baldness in the outer areas.
Pulse 58 beats per minute. blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg. Heart sounds are weakened. Doctor
diagnosed hypothyroidism syndrome. Determine the cause of hypothyroidism?
1.tertiary
2.idiopathic
3.peripheral
4.secondary
5.primary
Q75.Describe the total blood count for acute inflammation of the thyroid gland:
1.reticulocytosis
2.thrombocytosis
3.leukocytosis
4.lymphocytosis
5.erythrocytosis
Q76.A 55-year-old man, a plumber at a tuberculosis hospital, called an ambulance, complaining

of severe weakness, decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Objectively:
the patient is adynamic, weight - 49 kg, height - 170 cm, darkening of the skin of the face, neck,
arms, breast nipples. The pulse on the radial artery is soft, low voltage. BP - 80/40 mm Hg.
Indicate the most likely predisposing factor for this syndrome.
1.hypotension
2.tuberculosis
3.age
4.gender
5. cachexia
Q77.The most common cause of secondary hypercortisolism is :
1.hypophysectomy
2.corticosteroma
3.pheochromocytoma
4.meningoencephalitis
5.corticotropinoma
Q78.Normal level of body mass index (kg / m2) is:
1.35.0 - 39.9
2. 18.5 - 24.9
3.40.0 - 45.9
4.30.0 - 34.9
5.25.0 - 29.9
Q79.What complication does hyperthyroidism give:
1.biliary dyskinesia
2.atrophic gastritis
3.B12 deficiency anemia
4.addison's disease
5.atrial fibrillation
Q80.Remember, the main laboratory sign indicating

hypothyroidism is:
1.increased cholesterol
2.high thyroid-stimulating hormone
3.erythrocytosis
4.limphocytosis
5.increased triiodothyronine
Q81.A 60-year-old man was admitted to the endocrinology department with suspected
basophilic adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland. Complains of general weakness, frequent
bronchitis, headache, pain in the back and limbs. Objectively: the clinical picture corresponds to
Cushing's syndrome. In the analyzes, there is an increase in the basal level of corticotoropin in
blood plasma and glucocorticoids in plasma and urine. With fluoroscopy, pronounced
osteoporosis of the bones of the skull, vertebral bodies, hyperplasia of both adrenal glands.
Which of the following answers is most likely:
1.Imbalance between bone formation and destruction
2.Aging of the body
3.Estrogen deficiency
4.High glucocorticoid levels
5.Vitamin D deficiency
5-семестр
Модуль "Эндокринная система" [крд.-2]
Вопрос: №1
Indicate which radiopharmaceutical is used for thyroid radionuclide study:
Ответы(один ответ)
1 99mTc - pyrophosphate
2 99shTs-technetril
3 99mTc - diphosphonate
4 99mTs -pertechnetat
5 99mTc - colloid
Вопрос: №2
After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. Determine which structure w
1 parathyroid gland
2 inferior laryngeal nerve
3 inferior laryngeal artery
4 the vagus nerve
5 sympathetic trunk
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
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Вопрос: №3
Which research method is more informative for ovarian screening:
1 endoscopy
2 ultrasound
4 fluoroscopy
«1234567...50»
Мехди Тарик
Вопрос: №4
A 26-year-old woman came to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right mammary gland, the m
menstruation. The doctor ordered a mammogram. Indicate in your answers when to get a mammog
1 from the 6th to the 12th day of the menstrual cycle
2 regardless of the phase of the cycle
3 from the 1st to the 5th day of the menstrual cycle
5 in the second half of the menstrual cycle
A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had grown by 10 cm over the summer. When examining a
method is more applicable for diagnosing a disease:
1 ultrasound

5 craniography
Patient S., 56 years old, diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis on the basis of examination, palpati
applicable here:
1 positron emission tomography
2 x-ray examination
3 endoscopy
4 ultrasound
5 scintigraphy
Вопрос: №7
Violation of spermatogenesis in men, due to a decrease in the secretion of lutropin and follitropin b
1 Thyroid adenoma
2 Hypoprolactinemia as a result of prolonged use of chlorpromazine
3 Hyperprolactinemia with pituitary adenoma
4 Congenital adrenal hypoplasia
5 Chronic adrenal insufficiency
Вопрос: №8
The most common cause of Addison's disease is:
1 Adrenal atrophy
2 Hyperplasia of the pineal gland
3 Ovary hypertrophy
5 Pituitary tumor
Вопрос: №9
Transhypophyseal regulation is the basis for:
1 Adrenalcortex
2 Parathyroidglands
3 Gonads
4 Thyroid gland
5 Pancreas
Вопрос: №10
In severe cases of hypothyroidism in adults occurs:
1 Cretinism
2 Myxedema
3 Dwarfism
4 Hypergonadism
5 Eunuchoidism
Вопрос: №11
With an insufficient amount of iodine in food, it develops:
1 Hyperthyroidism
4 Endemic goiter
Вопрос: №12
What disorders can occur with partial hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland:
1 Basedow's disease
2 Gigantism
3 Hyperglycemia
4 Emaciation
5 Hypogonadism
Вопрос: №13
The appearance at the age of 3 to 7 years of secondary sexual characteristics is observed:
1 Adrenogenital syndrome
2 Acromegaly
3 Adiposogenital dystrophy
4 Klinefelter Syndrome
5 Pituitary dwarfism
Вопрос: №14
Peripheral (extraglandular) mechanisms of hormone activity disturbance are:
1 Congenital malformations of the glands
2 Blockade of hormonal receptors
3 Adenoma of neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus
4 Deficiency of substrates for the formation of hormones
5 Hereditary defect in hormone biosynthesis enzymes

Вопрос: №15
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used to stimulate the contractile activity of the u
1 Oxytocin
2 Prolactin
5 Vasopressin
Вопрос: №16
The patient has clinically all the signs of thyrotoxicosis. What research needs to be done to clarify th
1 Determine the level of thyroxine
2 LDL, HDL, bloodcholesterol
3 Blood test for sugar, ketone bodies
4 protein composition of plasma, residual blood nitrogen,
5 General analysis of blood and urine
Вопрос: №17
Patient A., 39 years old, complains of copious flow of urine (daily urine output is 22 liters per day). B
production of which hormone polyuria is associated:
1 Parathyroid hormone
2 Insulina
3 Glucagon
4 ADH - Vasopressin
5 Aldosterone
Вопрос: №18
Over the past 6 months, the patient has had several bone fractures, muscle weakness, pain in the ba
associated:
1 Thyroid
2 Parathyroid
3 Pancreas
4 Pituitary gland
5 Adrenalglands
Вопрос: №19
A mother consulted a doctor, whose son had grown by 18 cm over the summer. When examining a
the activity of which endocrine gland is it associated:
1 Epiphysis
2 Pituitary gland
3 Thyroid
4 Adrenal glands
5 Sex
Вопрос: №20
Patient L., 45 years old, has been ill for 6 months, the onset of the disease is associated with the tran
sweating, increased appetite, drop in body weight, palpitations. On physical examination, the body
the fingers, increased glitter of the eyes, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland, small exophthalm
140 mm Hg. Art., the level of glucose in the blood - 5.5 mmol / l, the basal metabolic rate is increas
of which endocrine gland is impaired:
1 Thyroid
2 Epiphysis
3 Adrenalglands
4 Pituitary gland
5 Parathyroid
Вопрос: №21
A 45-year-old man, taken to the clinic by an ambulance team with a diagnosis of "Hypertensive cris
weakening of memory and intelligence, blood glucose - 6.5 mmol / l. A history of sudden crises with
appearance of tachycardia, sweating, sharp agitation. Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the lu
gland, the presence of a rounded formation in the medulla of the gland. Which of the following dia
2 Diabetes mellitus
3 Adrenalcrisis
4 Addison's disease
5 Pheochromocytoma
Вопрос: №22
Male 30 years old. He was admitted to the clinic with complaints of headache, drowsiness, change i
himself ill. Examination: an increase in the brow ridges, chin, nose, auricles, tooth divergence. The ha
heart rate - 90 beats per minute, an increase in the size of the liver, the borders of the heart are exp
glucose +. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
1 Adiposogenitaldystrophy
2 Acromegaly
3 Pituitary hypogonadism
5 Pituitary gigantism
Вопрос: №22
Male 30 years old. He was admitted to the clinic with complaints of headache, drowsiness, change i
himself ill. Examination: an increase in the brow ridges, chin, nose, auricles, tooth divergence. The ha
heart rate - 90 beats per minute, an increase in the size of the liver, the borders of the heart are exp
glucose +. Which of the following preliminary diagnoses is most likely:
1 Adiposogenitaldystrophy
2 Acromegaly
3 Pituitary hypogonadism
5 Pituitary gigantism
Вопрос: №23
4 form as pea puree
Вопрос: №24
Determine, at what age you need to identify the first signs of hypothyroidism:
1 6-9 month
2 7-9 years
3 1-3 years
4 4-6 years
5 1-3 month
Вопрос: №25
Indicate the hormone that regulates the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone by the pituitary g
3 thyroxine
4 thyrocalcitonin
5 thyroglobulin
Вопрос: №26
Identify the main cause of constipation and flatulence in children with hypothyroidism:
2 poor appetite
3 low water consumption
Вопрос: №27
Explain, why accelerated growth and ossification occurs in children with hyperthyroidism syndrome
1 highlevelsofthyrocalcitonin
2 high growth hormone levels
3 hypercalcemia
4 high levels of thyroglobulin
5 development of bone epiphyses
Вопрос: №28
A patient, 11 years old, turned with her mother to the family doctor with complaints of thirst, increa
Thesecomplaints appeared after a dog bite, she was scared after 3 days. Objectively: physical develo
breathing, the smell of «ratten apples». The mucous membranes of the mouth and lips are dry, alth
degree. The heart sounds are clear, rhythmic. The liver is at the edge of the costal arch. Frequent an
test to conduct immediately?
1 general blood analysis
2 electroencephalography
3 common analysis of urine
4 fasting blood glucose
5 common protein, protein fractions
Вопрос: №29
Causes of primary hyperparathyroidism:
1 lack of calcium in food
2 dysfunction of the hypothalamus
3 removal of the thyroid gland
4 pituitary adenoma
5 hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
Вопрос: №30
Formula for calculating body mass index (BMI)
1 height, m2 / weight, kg
2 weight, kg / height, m
3 height, m / weight, kg2
4 weight, kg2 / height, m
5 weight, kg / height, m2
Вопрос: №31
Which of the following corresponds to impaired glucose tolerance (venous plasma):
1 fasting glucose - 9.6 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 14.4 mmol / l
Вопрос: №32
Laboratory criteria for obesity syndrome
1 low total cholesterol
2 high glucose
3 low LDL cholesterol
4 low triglycerides
5 high HDL cholesterol
Вопрос: №33
1 atrial fibrillation
3 addison's disease
5 atrophic gastritis
Вопрос: №34
Describe the total blood count for acute inflammation of the thyroid gland:
1 lymphocytosis
2 erythrocytosis
3 reticulocytosis
4 thrombocytosis
5 leukocytosis
Вопрос: №35
Waist circumference in women is normally less than (cm)
1 80
2 70
3 85
4 75
5 65
Вопрос: №36
The cause of obesity syndrome is
1 hyperglycemia
2 hypercortisolism
3 hyperthyroidism
4 gigantism
Вопрос: №37
2 glibenclamide
4 gliclazide
5 metformin
Вопрос: №38
What is the most informative method for examining the thyroid gland in acute thyroiditis:
3 radioisotope scanning
4 inspection and palpation
Вопрос: №39
A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking down with thyroid hyperfunc
1 Krause
2 Shtelvag
3 Grefe
4 Elinek
5 Kocher
Вопрос: №40
. A 29-year-old female patient turned to a polyclinic therapist with complaints of headaches, weight
complaints are disturbing for 6 months after the head injury. On examination: moon face, excessive
from the description the objective symptom of this patient.
1 diastema
2 exophthalmos
3 macrognathia
4 hirsutism
5 fish mouth
Вопрос: №41
Patient G., 42 years old, after a traumatic injury to the neck, notes the periodic appearance of parest
creeps") with the subsequent development of seizures. Before the development of seizures, he has
upper limbs and face. Consciousness during this period is preserved. Examination of the patient rev
phosphorus - 8.0 mmol / l. What is your preliminary syndrome?
Вопрос: №42
Patient, 65 years old. Complaints - overweight, increased appetite, intermittent thirst, episodes of in
headaches, tinnitus. A history of cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, heredity is aggravated by type 2
Objectively: height 170 cm, weight 134 kg. The skin is normal in color, dry. Distribution of subcutane
the face, multiple pale striae on the abdomen and buttocks, ulnar hyperkeratosis. Predict, what is th
1 4,2
2 6,2
3 2.2
4 5,2
5 3,2
Вопрос: №43
Patient A., 40-year-old was admitted to the hospital with complaints of chills, weakness, difficulty in
aggravated when turning, body temperature 38˚C, sweating. On palpation, the thyroid gland is enla
there are no fluctuating areas. Submandibular, cervical lymph nodes are not enlarged. In the analysi
study of the accumulation of iodine by the thyroid gland on the scanned areas of enlightenment, th
3 adrenal hypofunction syndrome
Вопрос: №44
A woman, 50 years old, consulted a local therapist with complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain
anamnesis: the patient's mother suffered from type 2 diabetes. Objectively: height - 165 cm, body w
tissue in the area of the shoulders, chest, abdomen, pale striae on the skin of the abdomen, thighs,
circumference - 95 cm. BP - 160/90 mm Hg. Interpret, how much the patient's waist circumference s
1 95
2 85
3 80
4 75
5 90
Вопрос: №45
Patient A., 64-year-old, female consulted a local general practitioner complaining of dry skin, overw
appetite, constipation, decreased memory, drowsiness. From the anamnesis: no surgery on the thyr
On examination: the skin is dry, cold to the touch. Swelling of the face. Vesicular breathing, no whee
temperature - 36.3 ° C. Stool irregular, constipation tendency. According to laboratory examination
mmol / l, triglycerides - 5.5 mmol / l, TSH - 15.3 mU / l. What is the likely cause of hypothyroidism s
1 syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland
Вопрос: №46
Woman 53 years old turned to a therapist with complaints of thirst, frequent urination, itching of th
Objectively: The skin is dry and clean. BMI = 33.2 kg/m2. BP 135/95 mm.Hg. Laboratory blood gluco
type 2 diabetes mellitus. Explain why the patient developed hyperglycemia syndromein this case?
1 stress
2 underweight
3 heredity
4 obesity
5 hypodynamia
опрос: №47
A 55-year-old woman consulted a family doctor at the place of residence with complaints of thirst,
Objectively: height - 170 cm, body weight - 120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-red, excessive grow
shoulder, chest, abdomen, red-violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the arms and legs. BP - 190/1
1 cortisol
2 thyroxine
3 vasopressin
4 insulin
5 prolactin
Вопрос: №48
A 29-year-old man, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, sweating, tremors in
years ago she received a brain injury. Examination: The skin is moist, the apical impulse is enhanced
pressure 160/60 mm Hg. ECG: Atrial fibrillation. TSH -0.01 mU / l, free T4-35 pmol / l. The doctor dia
1 radiography
2 electrocardiography
3 ultrasound
4 endoscopy
5 echocardiography
Вопрос: №49
Patient, 48 years old, at a doctor's appointment complains of muscle weakness, rapid physical fatigu
menstrual irregularities. On examination, weight - 48 kg, height - 166 cm. The skin has a dark brown
subcutaneous fat is thinned. BP - 70/50 mm Hg. The pulse on the radial artery is soft, small filling. C
1 follicle-stimulating hormone
4 growth hormone
5 melanotropic hormone
Вопрос: №50
Patient M., 40 years old, a salesman, applied to the doctor of policlinic with complaints of general w
neck, loss memory, facial swelling, constipation. From the anamnesis: suffering from rheumatoid art
skin is pale, dry, peeling is expressed on the legs. Swelling of face, dense edema on the legs, lower t
Tongue clean, teeth marks on tongue. The thyroid gland is unevenly enlarged on examination, on p
formations are not determined. Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: V total. - 6.3 cm3 (8.3-18.0). Increa
What laboratory test proves the presence of an autoimmune syndrome?
1 T3 fr.- 3.0 pmol / l
2 AB-TPO - 250 U / ml
3 TSH-0.3 mU / l
4 Т4 fr.-28 pmol / l
5 AB-TG - 9 U / ml
- отвеченный вопрос
- пропущенный вопрос
- текущий вопрос
AnaM 2KaseA
Bonpoc: Ne1
Examination of the pituitary gland according to the standard technique, with a slice thickness of 3.0 mm in T1, T2 (Ax, Sag). The pituitary gland is not enlarged,
dimensions: sagittal 13.7 mm, transverse 16.3 mm, vertical 9.6 mm, pituitary pedicle 2.8 mm. The contours of the pituitary gland are smooth, the structure is
homogeneous. The pituitary funnel is not deflected. In the structure of the neurohypophysis (left), on postcontrast T1 scans, a hypovascular zone with dimensions of
3.1-2.7-4.1 mm is determined, Retrobulbar spaces without pathology.Areas of chiasm and cavernous sinuses are not changed. The pathology of the brain substance
in the scan area is not determined.In the cavity of the main, maxillary sinus, there is parietal fluid.What conclusion did you make based on the description:
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
10 MRI Signs of Infrasellar Pituitary Adenoma
2 0 MR signs of a pituitary cyst
3 0 MR signs of pituitary macroadenoma
MR signs of endosellar pituitary adenoma
5 MR signs of pituitary microadenoma
2 4 50
11:29
ENG
Bonpoc: N 2
Indicate what volume of contrast agent is injected with intravenous contrasting of the adrenal gland
OTBeTbI(oguH OTBeT)
1O120-150 ml
2O60-90 ml
3 O 30-60 ml
O90-120 ml
5 150-180 m
23 45 6 50
Anass a
Bonpoc: N93
women older 40
Specify the method of radiological diagnostics used for screening breast diseases in
OTBeTbi(ognH OTBeT)
mammography
2 ultrasound
3 thermography
4 O radioisotope
5O scintigraphy
1 2 4 5 6 50
avn.kgma.kg
AnaM KaseA
Bonpoc: N4
pregnancy and lactation. Previously, the study of the mammary glands was not
Patient J, 34 years old, had a bloody nipple discharge in the period of absence of
will you prescribe to the patient in the first place?
performed. Has been smoking for several years. What radiation methods
OTBeTbi(oqnH OTBeT)
1O mammography, ductography
3O ultrasound, doppler
5 Ochest x-ray
5 6 7 8
1129
g aD ENG 11-01-2021
Bonpoc: N95
Woman M, 35 years old, who has been smoking for 18 years, found in her left the mammary gland has a nodular formation, up to 2 cm in diameter. She turned to
the mammologist, who confirmed the presence of a mass. Predict which radiological examinations the patient should be referred to for diagnostic information?
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBer)
10multi spiralcomputed tomography

3 mammography
4 0 scintigraphy
X-ray of the chest
2 34
5 b6 7 8 9 50
1129
NG 11-01-d
avn.kgma.kg
Anass an
Bonpoc: N96
A 63-year-old patient complains of difficulty passing solid food. Objectively, the patient is lethargic, his voice is hoarse. On examination, bradycardia, pasty skin and
subcutaneous fat. A barium swallow was performed, which showed a moderate deviation of the pharynx and the upper third of the esophagus to the rnght, the
contours of the esophagus are normal. What is the most informative research method you can use?
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
10endoscopy
2 0multi spiralcomputed tomography
3 computed tomographywith contrasting thyroid gland
40 thyroid ultrasound
5 Overview Radiography
2 9 0
n ENG 1-01202
Anam Kaner
Bonpoc: Ne7
Changes in oxytocin secretion play a role in pathogenesiS:
OTBeTbI(oguH OTBeT)
1
Disorders of labor
2 0 Disorders of carbohydrate metabolism in diabetes mellitus
3ODiffusetoxic goiter
4 O Myxedema
"wakefulness sleep
5ODisorders of circadian rhythms
-
11 50
4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ENG1-01-2
Anam MaseA
Bonpoc: N98
With eosinophilic adenoma of the pituitary gland during the growth period of the body develops:
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 O Gigantism
20 Dysplasia
3O Cushing'sDisease
40Acromegaly
5 Pituitarydwarfism
10 11 12 50
4 5 6 7 8 9
Anaa anea
Bonpoc: N99
is:
The initial product for the synthesis of thyroid hormones
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Tyrosin
2 OLeucine
3 O Oxyproline
4 0 Phenylalanine
5 0Wallin
1213 50
6 7 8 1 11
Anana
Bonpoc: Ne11
What disorders can occur with partial hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
1
OEmaciation
2 0 Hyperglycemia
3 OGigantism
4 OBasedow's disease
Hypogonadism
11 13 14 15 S0
9 10
1
Bonpoc: Ne10
The most common cause of Addison's disease iS
OTBETbI(oAuH OTBeT)
10 Pituitary tumor
OAutoimmune thyroiditi
3 O Adrenal atrophy
4 0 Hyperplasia of the pineal gland
5 Ovary hypertrophy
50
78 910 12 13 14
WhatsApp Desktop
Ruchi India
Paas kr gen
Bonpoc: N912
In severe cases of hypothyroidism in adults Occurs:
OTBeTbl(oqnH OTBeT)
1O Hypergonadism
2 O Cretinism
3 Myxedema
4 Eunuchoidism
5 Dwarfism
50
8 9 10 11
12 13 14 15 16
Bonpoc: N913
Primary aldosteronism (Connes syndrome) is
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
O Tumor of the fascicular zone of the adrenal cortex
2 0Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence of angiotensin
4O Tumor of the reticular adrenal cortex
5O Tumor of the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex
9 10 11 12 13 14 1516 17 50
Bonpoc: Ne14
Anincrease in the concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood during hypothyroidism indicates the localization of the pathalogical process in
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
2 0 Pituitary gland
3 Timuse
4 0 HypothalamuUs
5 OThyroid gland
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 0
O
AnaM
Bonpoc: N915
uterus:
On the basis of which pituitary hormone are drugs used to stimulate the contractile activity the
of
OTBETbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 O Thyroid stimulating hormone
3 0Prolactin
O Oxytocin
5 Vasopressin
17 50
11 12 13 14
15 16 18 19 **
AnaM 2XaseA
Bonpoc: Ne16
A patient with complaints of decreased appetite and great thirst. Diuresis is 10 liters per day. Blood sugar 4mmol /1. What disease can you think of in this case?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
2 Non-sugaranti-diabetes
30 Diabetes mellitus
4 ORenal diabetes
50Gestational diabetes
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 50
wn.kgma.kg
Anam Mae
Bonpoc: Ne17
skin became dry, wrinkled, wax color. Body temperature
Patient N., 27 years old, after childbirth, complicated by massive bleeding, began to develop exhaustion, the
is 3.3 mmol /1, the content of 17-ketosteroids in the urine is lowered. What
360C, blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg. Art, the content of glucose in the blood
pathology of the endocrine system can be assumed:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1OHyperfunction of the adrenal cortex

Pituitaryhypofunction
Hypothyroiditis
3
5 OHypofunction of the ovary

14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 50
AnaM asen
Bonpoc: Ne18
Over the past 6 months, the patient has had several bone fractures, muscle weaknes, pain in the back and legs. With a dysfunction of which gland it may be
associated:
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBeT)
1 O Thyroid
2 0 Pituitary gland
30 Adrenalglands
4 Pancreas
O Parathyroid
22
14 15 16
17 1e 19 20 21 50
AnaM Kase
Bonpoc: Ne19
Which of the following situations can lead to the development dementia?
of
OTBeTbi(oAVH OTBeT)
Hypofunction of the thyroid gland in adulthood
2 Hypofunction of the pineal gland at an early age

early childhood
Hypofunction of the thyroid gland
in
3 0
gland in early childhood
4 0Hyperfunction of the thyroid
eariy childhood
Hyperproduction of growth hormone
in
5
21 22 23 50
17 18 19 20
15 16
11:31
G 1-01-202
Anaw Kanen
Bonpoc: Ne19
Which of the following situations can lead to the development of dementia?
OTBeTbl(oquH OTBeT)
1
Hypofunction of the thyroid gland in adulthood
2 O Hypofunction of the pineal gland at an early age
3 OHypofunction of the thyroid gland in early childhood
in early childhood
4 Hyperfunction of the thyroid gland
early childhood
5 O Hyperproduction of growth hormone in
15 16 17 18 19 20 2122 23 50
aENG
kgma.kg
AnaM 2KabeA
Bonpoc: N°20
A 45-year-old man, taken to the clinic by an ambulance team with a diagnosis of "Hypertensive crisis". BP 180/120 mm Hg. Art, myocardial hypertrophy,
-
tachycardia, weakening ot memory and intelligence, blood glucose - 6.5 mmol /1. A history of sudden crises with a rise in blood pressure up to 200/140 mm Hg. Art,
the appearance of tachycardia, sweating, sharp agitation. Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar region revealed an increase in the size of the left
adrenalgland, the presence of a rounded formation in the medulla of the gland. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely:
OTBeTbI(OAuH OTBeT)
20 Adrenalcrisis
3 Pheochromocytoma
4 0Diabetes mellitus
50 Addison's disease
19 20
16 17 18
22 **
0
52
Bonpoc: N 21
A 30-year-old man complains of severe weakness, rapid physical fatigue, darkening of the skin, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarhea. When examned, the sen
palms) and areas
turgoris reduced, has a golden brown color. Particularly pronounced pigmentation on exposed parts of the body (face, palmar folds, back of the
weak filling. In the blood, anemia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia,
subject to friction from clothing. BP 90/60 mm Hg, muffled tones, pulse 82 per minute of
cortisol is reduced, a high titer of antibodies to the adrenal tissue. Which
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia. The content of corticotropin increased, and
is
of the following diagnoses is most likely:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1OHemochromatosis
20 Itsenko-Cushing's disease
3 0 Essential arterial hypotension
-4 O Addison's disease
Primarybiliarycholangitis
50
17 18 9 20 2122 2 24 25 50
WhatsApp DesktopP
Omnarayan Bhai Airtel

Fail nu
kgma.kg
Ana Kane
Bonpoc: N922
cm was
with normal weight from parents with normal height. At 6 months, he
weighed 13.5 kg, at 9 years old, his height was 186 and his weight
Patient M. was born normal, there is no coarsening of facial features, he has great
physical
80 kg. At the age of 18, his height was equal to 243 cm. The proportions of the body are
strength. What pathology ot the endocrine system can be assumed:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 0 Hypofunction of the thyroid gland
2 0 Hyperfunctionofthe adrenal gland

ovary
3 0Hypofunction of
O Hyperfunction of the adenohypophysis
50Hyperfunction of the neurohypophysIS
25 26 0
18 19 20 21
22 23 24 .
e ENG
Bonpoc: N923
Determine, which of the following is the main thyroid hormone:
OTBeTbi(oAnH OTBeT)
1O thriodthyronine
2 thyroid- stimulating hormone
3 thyroxine
4 thyrocalcitonin
5 0 thyrotropin releasing hormone
19 20 21 22
23 24 25 26 27 0
gma kg
Aaw aneg
Bonpoc: N924
OTBeTbI(oqnH OTBeT)
1 0 frequent, frothy with mucus
2 0 form of rice water
3 0 form as pea puree
persistent constipation
5 0frequent with blood
20 21 22 23
24 2526 27 28 50
O
AnaM
Bonpoc: Ne25
Indicate the main symptom in hyperglycemia syndrome:
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
polydipsia
2 0 cold sweat
3 O bad appetite
4 0tremor of the hands, body
5 O hyperactivity
21 22 23 24 25 2627 28 29 50
Bonpoc: N°26
Explain the cause of prolonged jaundice in babies with hypothyroidism
OTBeTbi(oanH OTBeT)
1 Omucous swelling of the skin
2Oincreased kidney function

3O deficiency of vitamin A in the body
40 imperfect function of the gallbladder
insufficient secretion of bile by the liver
30 50
1 22 24 25 26 27 28 29
a.kg
AnaM Xasea
Bonpoc: N°27
Explain the reason for the large tongue in a child with hypothyroidism:
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 mucous Swelling of the tongue
2O innervation disorder
disorder of the musculature of the tongue
4 impaired circulation of the oral cavity
5O disorder of the salivary glands
23 24 25 26 27 29 30 31 50
kgma.kg
AnaM Kasea
Bonpoc: Ne28
A girl, 9 years old with her mother turned to the family doctor with complaints of constipation, decreased memory and academic pertormance, overwelgnt
cm
drowsiness that appeared over the past six months. Anamnesis: grew and developed satisfactorily. The family uses little seafood. Objectively: Hight-127,0 (N
135cm), weight-46cm (N-42 cm). Thyroid gland 1st degree, soft. Heart tones are clear and rhythmic. Survey: General blaod analysis: erythrosytes #,Txi012/1, Hb
-
107g/lleukocytes 4,8x10 9/1. Hormones: 14 norm, TSH-norm. ECG no pathology. Ultrasonography. the total volume of the thyroid gland 16 cm3. Summarize all
the data and decide what pathology the patient has?
OTBeTbI(oAVH OTBeT)
1O getative-vascular dystonia
20 deficiency anemia
3 neurasthenia
hypothyroidism
24 25 26 27
28 293031 32
50
1133
Ehd 11-01-2021
O
Bonpoc: N 29
Which of the following coresponds to impaired fasting glucose (capllary plasma)
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
10fasting glucose 9.5 mmol /1, 2 hours after
- OGTT 12.8 mmol/I
fasting glucose- 7.9 mmol /1, 2 hours after OGTT 10.7 mmol /I
3 0 fasting glucose 8.6 mmol /1, 2 hours after OGTT- 11.4 mmol / I
4 O fasting glucose- 5.9 mmol / 1, 2 hours after OGTT 6.8 mmol /I
50 fasting glucose- 6.8 mmol /, 2 hours after OGTT -9.5 mmol /I
28 29 39 31 32 33 50
25 26 27
Bonpoc:N930
OTBeTbI(oguH OTBeT)
1
O110
2 94
3 O86
4 0102
5 O 78
33 34
26 27 28 9
3031 32
Bonpoc: N931
Describe face change in hypercortisolism syndrome
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 O sardonic
2 Omasklike
30 suffering
4 excited
moon
34 35
27 28 29 30
Bonpoc: N932
Pigmentation of the eyelids (upper) with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
OMoebius
2 O Raceman
3 OElinek
4 O Krause
5 OKocher
28 29 30 31
32334 35 36 0
Bonpoc: N933
OTBeTbi(oqUH OTBeT)
1 Ohypopituitarism
2 O hypocorticism
hypothyroidism
4 0 hypoparathyroidism
5 Ohypoglycemia
29 30 31 32
3334 35 36 37 50
Bonpoc: N934
Indicate, what change in the cardiovascular system is most typical for the obesity syndrome?
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
2Opulse soft, low tension
3 arrhythmia of heart sounds
38 50
30 31 32 3334 36 37
Bonpoc: N935
Causes of primary hyperparathyroidism:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
1 Olack of calcium in food
2 pituitary adenoma
3 Odysfunction of the hypothalamus
4 emoval of the thyroid gland
nyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
37 38 39 50
31 32 33
3435
Bonpoc: N936
is normal (mmol 7 ):
The fasting glucose level in the plasma of venous blood
OTBeTbI(oauH OTBeT)
1O4.0-6.1
2O9.3- 10.0
3O 3.3-5.5
4 8.1-8.9
O 6.4-7.0
39 40 50
37 38
32 33 34 35
36
Bonpoc: Ne37
OTBeTbI(oanH OTBeT)
1 O hyperthyroidism
2 hyperglycemia
3 Oacromegaly
4 Ohypoparathyroidism
5 OhypocortiCism
39 40 41 50
34 35 36 37
1 33
Bonpoc: N 38
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
tuberculosis
2 Ocorticotropinoma
3O meningitis
4 corticosteroma
hypophysectomy
5O
50
34 35 36 37 38
40 41 42
Bonpoc: N939
acute thyroiditis:
the most informative method for examining the thyroid gland
is
in
What
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBer)
1 O radioisotope scanning
nspection and palpation

43 50
41 42
35 36 37 38 39
4
Bonpoc: N940
A 55-year-old man, a plumber at a tuberculosis hospital, called an ambulance, complaining of severe weakness, decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting, and
abdominal pain, Objectively: the patient is adynamic, weight 49 kg, height 170 cm, darkening of the skin of the face, neck, arms, breast nipples. The pulse on the
radialartery is soft, low voltage. BP 80/40 mm Hg. Indicate the most likely predisposing factor for this syndrome
OTBeTbi(ognH OTBeT)
cachexia
20tuberculosis
3 0 hypotension
4 0 age
5 gender
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 50
1134
O 01-2021
Bonpoc: N941
A 57-year-old woman was admitted to the endocrinology department of a clinical hospital with complaints of weakness, headache, dry mouth, increased blood
pressure up to 160/90 mm Hg. pain in the region of the heart, in the lumbar spine during exercise. Objectively: rounded face, cheek rubeosis, height- 167 cm,
weight - 92 kg. BMI 34.0 kg / m2, waist circumference 120 cm, hip circumference 100 cm, pale striae on the skin of the abdomen and thighs. Determine what is
-
the degree of obesity by body mass index?
OTBETbi(oanH OTBeT)
1 0 V
20 0
3 OI
4 O
5OI
1 37 38 39 40
41 4343 44 45 50
Bonpoc: NO42
A 17-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic in an unconscious state. According to the trainer, he felt good before training, the boy has been sufering from diabetes
sincechildhood; during training, he suddenly lost consciousness. Objectively: The skin is moist. Breathing is vesicular, Heart sounds are preserved. BP 120/90 mm Hg
Laboratory glucose- 2.7 mmol71. The attending physician diagnosed him with hypoglycemia, prescribed a glucose solution, and the patient regained consciousness.
Explain the cause of hypoglycemia in this case?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
10 drink alcohol
2 metformin overdose
insulin overdose
4 physical activity
50 untimely meal
1 38 39 40 41
2 44 45 46 50
11:34
A ENG 11-01-202
Bonpoc: N943
palpitations.
weakness, The above complaints are disturbing for 1
A 40-year-old man has turned to a polyclinic therapist with complaints of headaches, weight gain, - 162 cm, enlargement of the breasts, purple-red
examination: face is rounded, acne, weight- 110 kg, height
year after sutfering a traumatic brain injury. On the
legs. Find out from the description the objective symptoms of the patient.
streaks of stretching of the skin on the abdomen, thighs, thinning of the arms and
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 O fish mouth, obstetrician hand
2 hirsutism, macroglossia
3 Omacrognathia, diastema
40 exophthalmos, myxedema
5 gynecomastia, striae
45 46 47 50
39 40 41 42 45 44
134
ENG
e
n.kgma.kg
AnaM KaseA
Bonpoc: Ne44
Anamnesis: fell ill 6 months agO after receiving a
man, consulted a therapist, complaints: weight loss, irritability, neck thickening, fever, palpitations.
A 2/-year-old kg, moist skin, tremors of the hands and whole body. Heart sounds
are increased.
brain injury. Objectively: a patient with low nutrition, height -168 cm, weight 53 analysis is necessary in this case first of all
minute. The doctor diagnosed hyperthyroidism syndrome. What
Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. Heart rate 100 beats per
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
TSH, T4 free
0 vasopressin
2
4 0prolactin
5 Ocortisol
48 50
40 41 42 43
44 45 46 47
1134
ENG
e án 11-01-2021
Bonpoc: Ne45
Patient, 51 years old. At the endocrinologist's appointment for the first time. Complaints of increased fatigue, overweight. From the anarmresiu the patert s mgher
was obese. Smokes since 20 years. Objectively height 173 cm, body weight 102 kg The type of distribution of adipose tissue is abdomindi otety, The
mmo
in s rormal
incolor, dry to the touch. Blood pressure-110/70 mm Hg, heart rate - 76 per minute. Laboratory resuits: fasting g'ycemia 10.5 fL Expan, utat caxied te
development of hyperglycemia in this patient?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
smoking
heredity
3O hypertension
40 hypodynamia
5 obesity
41 42 43 44 45 647 48 49 50
139
NG
e
n.kgma.kg
ARaM Casea
Bonpoc: N946
a
A 50-year-old man was admitted to the clinic with complaints of dry mouth, thirst, frequent urination, weakness. Anamnesis, the above complaints bother tor
pressure 150/90 mm Hg. Laboratory. blood glucose-12.0 mmol.
month. Objectively: The skin is dry and clean. Breathing is vesicular. Heart sounds are saved. Blood
The doctor diagnosed hyperglycemia. Explain the explanation for the elevated blood glucose level
in this case?
OTBeTbI(oAUH OTBeT)
1 0violation of enzyme secretion
2 0Impaired secretion of somatostatin
O impaired insulin secretion
4 0 impaired glucose secretion
5 O violation of glucagon secretion
47 48 49 50
+2 43 44 45
46
ENG
&
AanaEA
Bonpoc: N947
Patient S, 39 years old, was admitted to the endocrinology department of a clinical hospital with complaints of weakness, a headache in the occipital region when
the weather changes, an increase in blood pressure up to 190/100 mm Hg. pain in the heart, in the lumbar spine during physical exertion, menstrual iregulantes,
Objectively: "moon" face, cheek rubeosis, height- 165 cm, weight- 112 kg, waist circumference 120 cm, thigh circumference 100 cm, numerous small
subcutaneous hemorhages on the skin of the arms, neck, abdomen, legs, abdominal skin streaks of purple-red stretch. What is the most informatve examinaton
method for making a diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 0Ultrasound examination
20Radiography
30Electrocardiogram
Computed tomography
5 Echocardiography
44 45 46 47 48 49 50
5
Bonpoc: N 48
A man V. 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic with multiple pathological, spontaneous fractures of tubular claws, pronounced curvature of the spine and
deformation of the skeleton. Upon admission, the patient complained of general weakness, extremely rapid fatigue, muscle hypotonia, and bone pain. In the
anamnesis there are indications of the presence of kidney stones in the patient, severe polyuria and an increased content of phosphates in the urine. What
laboratory changes will this syndrome have?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1O hypercalcemia
20 hypernatremia
3 hyperfluoremia
40 hyperphosphatemia
50 hyperkalemia
43 14 45 46 47 48 49 50
O T35
Bonpoc:N949
A 35-year-old female patient complains of muscle weaknes, rapid physical fatigue, lack of appetite, nausea, muscle pain, addiction to salty food, menstrual
irregularities (delayed menstruation), She had a history of pulmonary tuberculois 3 years ago, received inpatient treatment in a tuberculosis hospital. Weight 49 1g.
height- 168 cm. The skin has a smoky bronze color, hyperpigmentation in open areas of the body, friction areas of cdothing, niples of the mammary glands, datk
spots on the oral mucosa, subcutaneous fatty tissue is thinned. BP 90/60 mm Hg. What laboratory research method will help establish
a diagnosis?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBer)
1 estrogen
2 vasopressin
3Oinsulin
40 cortisol
5 0 thyroxine
43 44 45 46 7 48 49 p
1135
E 11-01-20T
Bonpoc: NO50
A 19-year-old girl was admitted to the clinic unconscious. According to her mother, the girl has been suffering from diabetes for 4 years, at home after an injection
of insulin she suddenly lost consciousness. The ambulance doctor revealed hypoglycemia of 2,3 mmol /I. First aid was given by intravenous glucose drip, but the
patient did not regain consciousness. Indicate which drug should be administered in this situation?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
10glucose
2 0 albumin
glucagon.
4 0 insulin
5 inulin
43 44 45 46 47 48 49
50
1135
NG
11-01-2042T
O Aavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
LWaxees AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N91
Examination of the pituitary
gland according to the standard
slice thickness of 3.0 mm in technique, with a
T1, T2 (Ax, Sag). The pituitary
dimensions: sagittal 13.7 mm, transverse gland is not enlarged,
16.3 mm, vertical 9.6 mm, pituitary
pedicle 2.8 mm. The contours
of the pituitary gland are smooth,
homogeneous. The pituitary funnel the structure is
is not deflected. In the structure
neurohypophysis (left), on postcontrast of the
T1 scans, a hypovascular
dimensions of 3.1-2.7-4.1 mm is determined. zone with
Retrobulbar spaces without
pathology.Areas of chiasm and cavernous
sinuses are not changed.The
pathology of the brain substance in the
scan area is not determined.In the cavity
of the main, maxillary sinus,
there is parietal fluid.What conclusion did you
based on the description: make
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1
MR signs of a pituitary cyst
2 MR signs of pituitary macroadenoma
3 MR signs of endosellar pituitary

adenoma
4 MRI Signs of Infrasellar Pituitary Adenoma
5 MR signs of pituitary microadenoma
2 3 4 5 6 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BONpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuu Bonpoc
Ao aaBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:15:06
11 10:06 "U" LTE 44)
O AA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
LLWaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne2
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1
radioisotope
2 ultrasound
4 thermalimaging
5 radiography
2 3 4 5 6 7 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuinn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb:
1:15:03
3apepwnTb TeCT

10:06 U" LTE1 4)
LLWaxBes AiaM Kg Ra
Bonpoc: N93
Name which diagnostic method provides reliable information about the pituitary
gland:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBET)
1 x-ray
2 endoscopy
4 sonography
2 3 4 5 7 *** 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BonpOC
nponyueHHblM Bonpo
TeKyuuÄ BonpoOc
1:15:01
3aBepunTb TECT

11 10:06 "U" LTET (44)
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N94
Patient B, 39 years old, who for 8 years has not been able to get pregnant, was
advised to consult an endocrinologist. Examination revealed exophthalmos,
hand tremor, tachycardia in the patient. Ultrasound showed an increase in the
size of the gland. Explain what disease is depicted on the ultrasound image?
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBET)
1 hypothyroidism
2 chronic autoimmune thyroiditis
3 Otoxic adenoma
4 diffusetoxic goiter
5 diffuse non-toxic goiter
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50
1 2 34 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbl Bonpoc
TeKyuun Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:58
SaBepunTb TeCT

11 10:06 "U" LTE1 (44)
LWaxBes AnaM Kg R&
Bonpoc: N95
Patient K.,32 years old, complains of unreasonable anxiety, increased mental
excitability, weight loss, sweating, frequent stools. She fell ill for 6 months. back
after suffering the flu. Revealed eye symptoms (Grafe, Kraus). Pulse 100 in 1
minute. The thyroid gland is enlarged to 3 tbsp. What is the method of radiation
diagnostics that allows in this case to assess the function of the thyroid gland:
OTBeTbI(OqMH OTBET)
1 radioimmunoassay.
2 computed tomography of the thyroid gland.
3 doppler study.
4 nuclear magnetic resonance.

5 ultrasonic scannng.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ** 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbli Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BONpoc
TeKyuu BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:56
3aBepuwTb TeCT

11 10:06 U LTE1 44)
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N96
The thyroid gland is of a typical type and location, the contours are well-defined,
the total volume is 23 cubic cm. The isthmus is 8 mm thick, the contours are
even, theechostructure is isoechoic, homogeneous. The right lobe is 50 x 24 x
23 mm, with a volume of 13 cm3, the contours are even, clear, the echo
structure of diffusely increased echogenicity, heterogeneous due to anechoic
inclusions and linear hyperechoic signals that impart lobularity to the structure.
The left lobe measures 52 x 18 x 22 mm, with a volume of 10 cm3, the contours
are even, clear, the echo structure of diffusely increased echogenicity,
heterogeneous due to anechoic inclusions and linear hyperechoic signals,
imparting lobularity to the structure. Regional lymph nodes are not visualized.
Choose the correct conclusion option:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
echographic signs of subacute thyroiditis
2 echographic signs of focal thyroiditis
3 echographic signs of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis
4 echographic signs of acute non-purulent thyroiditis
5 echographic signs of diffuse toxic thyroiditis
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BONnpoc
nponyyeHHblM BOnpo0c
TeKyun Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TCTa oCTanocb

10:06 U" LTE1 44
O A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
laxees AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne7
With eosinophilic adenoma of the pituitary gland during the growth period of the
body develops:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBET)
1 Gigantism
2 Cushing'sDisease
3 Dysplasia
4 Pituitarydwarfism
5 Acromegaly
1 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BonpoOc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TexyuuM BONpoc
Ao saBepweHnA TEcTa oCTanocb:
1:14:51
3aBepuTb TECT

10:06 LTE1 44)
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg R&
Bonpoc: N98
The highest content of antibodies to microsomal antigen in blood is observed
when:
OTBeTbl(ogMH OTBET)
4 Thyroid cancer
1
** 4 5 67 8 9 10 11 12
50
1 23 4 5 6 7 9 10
8
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIÅ BOnpoc
TEKyunÄ Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHuA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:49
3aBepwTb TeCT

l 10:06
LlWaxBe3 AnaM Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne9
A decrease in the production of hormones of the sex glands is manifested:
OTBETbI(OqMH OTBET)
1
Eunuchoidism
2 Hirsutism
3 Virilism
4 Hermaphroditism
5 Cryptorchidism
*** 5 6 7 8
9 10 11 12
13 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
|21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM BONnpoc
nponyujeHHblÅ BOnpoc
TekyunÀ BOnpOc
Ao 3asepweHwA TECTa oCTaniocb
1:14:47
3aBepuTb TECT

l1 10:06
Llaxee3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne10
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Tumor of the fascicular zone of the adrenal cortex
2 Increased secretion of aldosterone under the influence of angiotensin
** 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
14 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeuEHHbliM Bonpoc
TexyuM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TEcTa oCTanocb:
1:14:44
3aBepunTb TeCT

ill T0:07
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N911
Disorders of transhypophyseal regulation underlie changes in production:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1Ocatecholamines
2 Glucagon
3OThyroid hormone
Parathyrine
5 Insulin
*** 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
15 50
1 4 5 6 7
2 3 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
|21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyeHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwA TECTa oCTanoCb
1:14:42
SaBepuwTb TeCT

10:07 "U LTE1 4)
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N912
In the pathogenesis of acute thyroiditis plays a role:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
Injury of the thyroid gland
2 Genetic predisposition
3 Violation of the mechanisms of immunological protection
Penetration of infection into the thyroid gland
5 lodine deficiency
1 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
16 50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBEYEHHblM Bonpoc
nponyuueHHblM Bonpoc
Texyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA Tecta oCTaocb
1:14:40
3aBepunTb TeCT

i 10:07
LllaxBe3 AiaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N®13
The immediate stimulant of the glomerular adrenal cortex is:
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBET)
1 Adrenaline
2 Nicotin
3 Angiotensin
4 Vasopressin
5 Acetylcholine
** 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
17 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
213 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 400
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
TekyuMÀ Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb:
1:14:38
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:07
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ruy
Bonpoc: NP14
An excess of thyroid hormones occurs when:
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBET)
1 Endemic cretinism
3 Miksedeme
4 Insulinoma
5 Acromegaly
1 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 ** 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyunM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:36
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:07 U LTE1 44)
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing 0
WaxBes AnaM Kg
R
Bonpoc: N915
A patient was brought to the admission department of the hospital, who lost
consciousness in the street. The examination revealed the smell of acetone
from the mouth. What is the preliminary diagnosis that can be made
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
Hepatic coma
2 Diabetic coma
3 Pulmonary embolism
4 Uremiccomma
5 Internal bleeding
11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18
19 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeuEHHblM Bonpooc
TeKyuwi Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanoCb
1:14:34
3aBepuTb TeCT

10:07 U" LTE1 (44
laxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N®16
After removal of the thyroid gland, the patient developed convulsions. What was
damaged during the operation:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBET)
2 Parathyroid gland
3 Vagus nerve
4 sympathetictrunk
1 ** 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiMBonpoc
TEKyLMM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:14:32
3aBepuwTb TeCT

1 10:07 "U LTE1 4)
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne17
Patient N, 27 years old, after childbrth, complicated by massive bleeding.
began to develop exhaustion, the skin became dry, wrinkled, wax color. Body
temperature -360 C, blood pressure -100/60 mm Hg. Art, the content of
glucose in the blood is 3.3 mmol /1, the content of 17-ketosteroids in the urine is
lowered. What pathology of the endocrine system can be assumed:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
Hypofunction of the ovary
2 Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex
3 Hypothyroiditis
4 Pituitaryhypofunction
1 * 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 10 89
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyuu BOnpoc
1:14:30
3aBepuTb TeCT

10:07 "U LTE1 )
LLWaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ra
Bonpoc: Ne18
A 30-yearold woman complains of dry mouth and severe thirst, which appeared
after a severe nervous shock. Laboratory examination revealed an increase in
blood sugar up to 10 mmol/ 1. Which endocrine gland disease the patient has:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
Sex
2 Epiphysis
3 Adrenal glands
4OThyroid
5 Pancreas
1 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
22 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyuwi Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHMA TECTa oCTanocb:
1:14:28
3aBepunTb TeCT

l 10:07 U' LTE1 44)
LWaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne19
Patient B, 39 years old, who has been unable to get pregnant for 8 years, was
advised to consult an endocrinologist. Examination revealed exophthalmos,
hand tremor, tachycardia in the patient. The disease of which endocrine gland is
accompanied by the following symptoms:
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1
Epiphysis
2 Polovykh
3 Thyroid
4 Adrenal glands
5 Pancreas
** 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
23 50
2 3 4 5 6 7
1
10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TekyuuM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHnA TecTa oCTanocb:
1:14:25
3asepiWTb TeCT

1 10:07 U' LTE1 44)
Llaxee3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 20
A 45-yearold man, taken to the clinic by an ambulance team with a diagnosis of
Hypertensive crisis". BP-180/120 mm Hg. Art, myocardial hypertrophy,
tachycardia, weakening of memory and intelligence, blood glucose 6.5 mmol/ -
I.A history of sudden crises with a rise in blood pressure up to 200/140 mm Hg.
Art, the appearance of tachycardia, sweating, sharp agitation. Nuclear magnetic
resonance imaging of the lumbar region revealed an increase in the size of the
left adrenal gland, the presence of a rounded formation in the medulla of the
gland. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
Diabetes mellitus
2 Adrenalcrisis
3 Pheochromocytoma
40Addison'sdisease
1 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
24 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 100
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbli Bonpoc
TeKyn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:23
BaBepuMTb TeCT
l 10:07 "U LTE1 44)
Llaxee3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne21
A 3-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic for childhood diseases. On
examination: the child's height is much lower than the age norm, short neck,
arms and legs, big belly; the head is large, the nasal bridge is sunken, the face is
puffy, pale, mask-like, the mouth is open, the tongue is enlarged, there are many
carious teeth, the speech is slurred, the spoken words are distorted, the
syllables in them are often rearranged; the child does not always answer
questions, he is capricious and irritable. BP 80/50 mm Hg. Art., pulse 45 per
minute. The thyroid gland is painless on paipation, not enlarged. The child's
mother took iodine preparations during pregnancy. Diagnosis "Congenital
hypothyroidism. Cretinism". The initial and pathogenetic ink of this disease is:
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBET)
1
Increasein FSH and LH
2 Deficiency of T3 T4
3 Low TSH levels

4 Lack ofiodine
5 Lack of micronutrients
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
25 50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
TexyunM BOnpoc
o 3aBepweHnA TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:21
U LTE1 44)
10:07
LWaxees AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 22
Female, 52 years old, onset of the disease 1.5 years ago after a course of
radiation therapy. Complains of memory impairment, general weakness,
drowsiness, baldness, lack of appetite, weight gain. An objective examination
revealed: the skin is dry, flaky, the face is puffy, hypomimic, there are areas of
baldness on the head, the voice is low, rough, speech is slowed down, the body
.
temperature is 35.7 the pulse is 52 beats. per minute, blood pressure 110/65 -
mm Hg. Art, the level of glucose in the blood-3.5 mmol/, the basal
metabolism is reduced by 30%. Diagnosed with Myxedema. What is the most
likely cause of this disease:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBET)
1 Increase in T3 T4
2 Formation of mucin
3 Formation of reverse T3
4 lodine deficiency
5 Decreased TSH levels
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
26 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeEHHblM BONpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHMA TECTa oCTanocb
1:14:18
U LTET 44)
10:07
LWaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°23
Indicate the main symptom in hyperglycemia syndrome
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
bad appetite
2 polydipsia
3 cold sweat
4 tremor of the hands, body
5 hyperactivity
1 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
21 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TexyumM BOnpoc
0 3aBepweHuA TECTa oCTanocb
1:14:15
3aBepuwTb TeCT

10:07 U LTE1 44)
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg R&
Bonpoc: Ne24
Indicate the hormone that regulates the secretion of thyroid-stimulating
hormone by the pituitary gland:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBET)
1 thyroxine
3 thyrocalcitonin
4 thyroglobulin
1
** 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
28 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
OTBEyeHHbin BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHuA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:13
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:07
LWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne25
Name the main laboratory criterion of hyperglycetmia syndrome:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1
hypercholesterolemia
2 hypoproteinemia
3 high fasting glycemia
4 hypernatriemia
5 hypokaliemia
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 * 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyunM Bonpoc
Ao aa8epuweHuA TecTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:11
3aBepuuwTb TeCT

10:07 U LTE1 44)
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 26
Identify the main cause of constipation and flatulence in children with
hypothyroidism:
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBET)
1
decreased physical activity
3 poor appetite
5 low water consumption
1
* 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
30 50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiMBonpoc
TEKyunÄ Bonpoc
1:14:09
3aBepuwTb TeCT

10:07 " LTE1
laxBes AnaM Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N 27
Explain, as a result of which there is overweight in children with hypothyroidism
syndrome:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
acceleration of oxidative processes
2 violation of fat metabolism
3 myxedema edema
4 OIiver dysfunction
5 disaccharide metabolism disorders
1 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiMBonpoc
TEKyunÄ Bonpoc
Ao 3apepweHnA TECTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:07
3aBepuTb TECT

10:07 "U LTE1 44)
LLWaxee3 AiaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 28
Baby, 3 month, with mother turned to the family doctor with complaints on rare
stool 1 time in 2 days, drowsiness, difficulty swallowing. Anamnesis: 2-nd
pregnancy with toxicosis, 2nd delivery, urgent, sucked sluggishly. The umbilical
residue disappeared on the 16th day, jaundice was noted up to 1,5 months.
Objectively: physical development: height 52 sm, weight 6200,0 The face is
edematous, the tongue is large, sticking out. The skin is pale with yellowness,
dry. Heart tones very weak, bradycardia. Heart rate 100 in 1 min. What is the first
diagnostic test to use?
OTBeTbi(onMH OTBeT)
1
transaminases
2 Chest Xray
3 general urine analysis
4 cholesterol, bilirubin
5 T4, TSH
1 ** 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
32 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyn Bonpoc
1:14:05
BaBepulMTb TeCT
WaxBe3 Anam
Kg Ra
Bonpoc: N929
The wide opening of
the eye slits for thyroid
symptom: hyperfunction syndrome
is a
OTBETbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Shtelvag
2 Kocher
3 Grefe
Delrymple
5 Elinek
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
33 50
1 2 3 4 5 67
10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbii Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
o 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanocCb:
1:14:03
3aBepuTb TeCT

10:07 "U" LTE )
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 30
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 hypoglycemia
3 hypothyroidism
hypopituitarism
5 hypocorticism
1 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
34 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIM Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepueHnA Tecta ocTanocb
1:14:01
3aBepuTb TeCT

10:07 "U" LTE1 44)
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 31
What symptom is characterized by increasing the irritability of the nerves, and a
flexion of the wrist and metacarpal phalangeal joints with extension of the
interphalangeal joints and adduction of the thumb (carpal spasm) after placing
a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm and inflating to 20 mm Hg above
systolic blood pressure for 3-5 minutes?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBET)
1 Khvostek
2 Schlesinger
3 Weiss
4O Trousseau
5 fish mouth
27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
35 50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHblM BONpoc
TeKyuuÅ BOnpoc
1:13:58
3aBepunTb TeCT

11 10:07
LWaxaea AnaM Kg R
Bonpoc: N932
OTBETbi(qMH OTBET)
1
hyperthyroidism
2 acromegaly
hypocorticism
5 hyperglycemia
***| 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
36 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHblÅ BOnpoc
TekyunM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHua TECTa oCTanocb:
1:13:55
3aBepuwTb TeCT

10:07 U LTE1 44)
LLWaxBes Anam Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N933
The most common cause of secondary hypercortisolism is
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
corticotropinoma
2 corticosteroma
3 meningoencephalitis
4 pheochromocytoma
5 hypophysectomy
** 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
37 50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyunM BoNnpoc
o 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:52
3aBepuMTb TeCT

10:07
LlWaxBe3 AiaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N934
OTBETbI(OqMH OTBeT)
1
hypophysectomy
2 tuberculosis
3 corticosteroma
4 meningitis
5 corticotropinoma
1 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
38 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:49
3aBepuTb TeCT

LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N935
Characteristics of the pulse on
the radial artery in hypocorticism syndrome
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBET)
1
soft
2 arrhythmic
3 tense
4 high
5 resistant
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
39 * 50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyunM Bonpocc
o 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:13:48
3aBepuuUTb TeCT

l 10:07
LlaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N936
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
metformin
3 gliclazide
4 glibenclamide
1 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
40 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbli Bonpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3abepuweHMA TECTa oCTanocb
1:13:44
3aBepwTb TeCT

l 10:08 U' LTE1 44)
LLWaxBes AiaM Kg Ru,
Bonpoc: N937
In hypercortisolism syndrome, skin changes are characterized by
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBET)
1
myxedema
2 vitiligo
3 striae
4 yellowness
5 darkening
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM BONnpoc
TexyuuM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHua TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:42
3aBepunTb TeCT

11 10:08 "U LTE1 44)
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N938
Normally, the volume of the thyroid gland (according to ultrasound) in women is
(ml):
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBET)
1
from 25 to 30
2 from 35 to 38
3 from 40 to 45
4 Up to 18
5 more than 50
34 36 37 38 39 40 41
1 35
42 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiMBonpoc
TeKyuwi Bonpoc
1:13:39
3aBepuwTb TeCT

11 10:08 U LTE1 44)
LLWaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N939
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 hyperthyroidism
hypercortisolism
5 hyperpituitarism
1 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
43 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TEKyuM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHuA Tecta oCTanocb
1:13:37
SaBepunTb TeCT

1 10:08 "U LTE1 44)
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne40
A 44-year-old woman was admitted to the ckinic for examination and doesn't
present any complaints. Anamnesis: dad suffers from diabetes. Objectively: a
patient with increased nutrition, normal color leather. Height-170 cm2, body
weight-85 kg. Breathing is vesicular. Heart sounds are saved. Laboratory:
fasting blood glucose (capillary blood) - 5.8 mmol/ after meals after 2 hours -
I
6.8 mmol/1, interpret this result.
OTBeTbI(OAuH OTBET)
1
impaired glucose tolerance
2 hypoglycemiaa
3 diabetes mellitus
4 acute hyperglycemia
5 impaired fasting glucose
1 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
44 * 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
Texyuu Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TECTa oCTanocb
1:13:34
3aBepuwTb TeCT

10:08 LTE C44
WaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne41
A 43-year-old man, a truck driver, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of
an increase in blood pressure up to 190/100 mm Hg, accompanied by
headaches, dizziness, tinnitus. Parents have obesity, diabetes mellitus, arterial
hypertension. On examination: abdominal obesity, body weight -110 kg, height
160 cm, Broca's index -60 kg. Waist circumference- 130 cm, hip circumference-
110 cm. Palpation: the liver is painless, even, not enlarged. Auscultation: accent
l tone above the aorta, BP-180/95 mm Hg. Laboratory: fasting venous blood
glucose 4.5 mmol/ 2 hours after eating -7.1 mmol/ What is the most
1, 1.
typical syndrome of a patient that has developed as a result of obesity?
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
gynecomastia
2 hypercortisolism
3 hyperglycemia
4 hepatomegaly
5 hypertension
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
45 50
1 4 5 6 7
2 3 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyeHHblM Bonpoc
TexynM BonpocC
o 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:32
1 10:08 "U LTE1 44)
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne42
Patient K., 48 years old, went to the clinic with complaints of severe weakness,
weight loss, bone pain, especially in the feet, long-term healing fractures, loss of
appetite, nausea, vomiting not associated with food intake, diarrhea. From the
anamnesis: suffers from adenoma of the right parathyroid gland. Laboratory
data: TBC-anemia, Calcium-3.4 mmol / I, phosphates-0.7 mmol/ I. What is your
preliminary syndrome?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBET)
hyperparathyroidism syndrome
1 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
46 * 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM Bonpoc
Texyuun Bonpobc
Ao saBepweHnA TECTa oCTanoCb:
1:13:30
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:08
LLWaxee3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N43
Patient A. 34-year-old, applied to a polyclinic with complaints of an increase in
body temperature up to 39C, pain in the right side of the thyroid gland,
aggravated by swallowing, coughing, chills, tachycardia, weakness. Anamnesis:
frequent tonsillitis. Objectively: On palpation, the thyroid gland is sharply painful,
dense, regional lymph nodes are enlarged. Laboratory: Total blood test:
leukocytosis with a shift to the left, increased ESR. What is your most likely
syndrome?
OTBETbi(oqUH OTBET)
1
syndrome of hypothyroidism
syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
47 50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BONpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuMM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TEcTa oCTanocb
1:13:27
3aBepuTb TeCT

10:08
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N944
A 38-year-old woman was admitted to the ckinic with complaints of decreased
appetite, constipation, hearing loss, difficulty in nasal breathing, weakness.
Anamnesis: Subtotal strumectomy was performed 3 years ago. Objectively: The
skin is dry, the height is 167 cm, the weight is 68 kg, there is dense swelling of
the legs. diagnosed with hypothyroidism syndrome. Explain why hearing is
reduced and nasal breathing is difficultdue to?
OTBeTbl(ogMH OTBET)
1 inflammation
2 muscle swelling
3 mucous edema
4 infection
5 swelling of the skin
1 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
48 * 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHblM BONpoc
Texyuu Bonpoc
1:13:15
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:08
LlaxBes AnaM Kg a
Bonpoc: Ne45
Woman 53 years old turned to a therapist with complaints of thirst, frequent
urination, itching of the perineum. Anamnesis, disturb the above complaints for
1
month. Objectively: The skin is dry and clean. BMI = 33.2 kg/m2. BP 135/95
mm.Hg. Laboratory blood glucose-9.3 mmol/1, after meals 15.0 mmol/ 1.
Doctor diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Explain why the patient
developed hyperglycemia syndromein this case?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBET)
1 hypodynamia
2 stress
obesity
4 heredity
5 underweight
1 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
Texyuywn Bonpobc
1:13:13
3aBepunTb TeCT

10:08 U LTE 43)
LWaxees AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne46
Patient 42 years old, after a traumatic injury to the neck, notes the periodic
G.,
appearance of paresthesias (pathological unpleasant sensations, for example,
"running creeps) with the subsequent development of seizures. Before the
development of seizures, he has nausea, vomiting. Convulsions are tonicin
nature, beginning in the upper limbs and face. Consciousness during this period
is preserved. Examination of the patient revealed that the content of calcium in
,
the blood is 0.6 mmol/ phosphorus-8.0 mmol /L.What is your preliminary
syndrome?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBET)
* 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbliM Bonpoc
TeKyunM Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:11
3aBepuMTb TECT
1 10:08 "U LTE 43)
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru,
Bonpoc: Ne47
A 19-year-old girl was admitted to the ckinic unconscious. According to her
mother, the girl has been suffering from diabetes for 4 years, at home after an
injection of insulin she suddenly lost consciousness. The ambulance doctor
revealed hypoglycemia of 2,3 mmol/ 1. First aid was given by intravenous
glucose drip, but the patient did not regain consciousness. Indicate which drug
should be administered in this situation?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1Oinulin
2 glucose
3 albumin
4 insulin
5 glucagon
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
Texyuui Bonpoc
1:13:08
3aBepunTb TeCT

U LTE1 43)
10:08
O A A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
LlaxBe3 AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne48
A 16-year-old boy was admitted to the clinic in an unconscious state according
to the mother, previously complained of severe thirst, frequent urination and
general weakness. Objectively: the smell of acetone from the mouth, the skin is
dry. Rapid breathing. Heart sounds are muffled. The abdomen is tense. What is
the most informative laboratory examination method (blood) for making a
diagnosis ?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
cholestetol
2 glucose
3 calcium
4 cretinine
5 proteim
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
-OTBeueHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyuueHHblM Bonpoc
TexyujmM Bonpoc
40 3asepueHnA TECTa oCTanoCb:
1:13:07
3aBepuTb TECT

11 10:08
LLWaxBes AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne49
A 55-yearold woman consulted a family doctor at the place of residence with
complaints of thirst, dry mouth, weight gain, pain in the lumbar region, sweating.
Objectively: height- 170 cm, body weight 120 kg, moon-shaped face, crimson-
red, excessive growth of facial hair, acne, excessive deposition of fatty tissue in
the shoulder, chest, abdomen, red-violet color, atrophy of the muscles of the
arms and legs. BP- 190/100 mm Hg. Blood glucose- 12 mmol/ 1. Choose, what
hormonal blood test is necessary to conduct any obesity disease?
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBET)
1
insulin
2 vasopressin
3 prolactin
4 thyroxine
5 cortisol
T 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpooc
nponyeHHbIM Bonpoc
TexyunM BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TEcTa oCTanocb
1:13:04
3aBepuTb TeCT

1 10:08
Llaxees AnaM Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N®50
Patient S., 39 years old, was admitted to the endocrinology department of a

clinical hospital with complaints of weakness, a headache in the occipital region
when the weather changes, an increase in blood pressure up to 190/100 mm
Hg. pain in the heart, in the lumbar spine during physical exertion, menstrual
irregularities. Objectively: "moon' face, cheek rubeosis, height- 165 cm, weight
112 kg, waist circumference 120 cm, thigh circumference 100 cm, numerous
-
small subcutaneous hemorrhages on the skin of the arms, neck, abdomen, legs,
abdominal skin streaks of purple-red stretch. What is the most informative
examination method for making a diagnosis?
OTBeTbl(ogMH OTBET)
Computed tomography
2 Electrocardiogram
3 Radiography
4 Ultrasound examination
5 Echocardiography
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
|41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyuwi Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TeCTa oCTanOCb:
1:13:02
PeaynbTaT
64 banOB
OTBETM npaBnIbHO Ha 32 u3 50
BepHyTbCA B BblXoA
MYHbIM KaónHeT

Exam test questions in the discipline of radiation diagnostics for 3rd
year students of the Faculty of Foreign Citizens by the module
"Cardiovascular System"
1. The lower arch of the right contour of the heart on the radiograph in a straight line projection
presented
A.the left atrium
B. right atrium
C.left ventricle
D.right ventricle
E.aorta
2. Cardiomegaly is defined when the cardiothoracic index is more than
A. 40%
B. 45%
C. 50%
D. 55%
E. 60%
3. What is the hemodynamic sign of mitral stenosis?
A. enlargement of the left atrium
B. increase in the right atrium
D. aortic enlargement
E. absence of pulmonary hypertension
4. Indicate the hemodynamic sign of aortic stenosis
A. enlargement of the left atrium

B. increase in the right atrium
D. enlargement of the right ventricle
E. pulmonary hypertension
5. Indicate the ultrasound sign of aortic stenosis
A. incomplete opening of the aortic valve cusps
B. midsystolic convergence of the aortic valve cusps
C. separation of the aortic valve cusps
D. Oscillation of mitral leaflets
E. oscillation of the aortic valve leaflets
6.Preliminary diagnosis: thromboembolism of the right femoral artery.
Specify the optimal method of radiation diagnostics
A. radiography
B. ventriculography
D. selective angiography
C. X-ray computed tomography
E. perfusion scintigraphy
7. Diagnosis: ischemic heart disease. Surgical treatment of coronary artery disease is

recommended.
Specify the optimal method of radiation diagnostics
A. radiography
B. coronary angiography
D. X-ray computed tomography
C. echocardiography
E. dopplerography
8.Preliminary diagnosis: pericardial effusion. Please indicate optimal
method of radiation diagnostics
A. radiography
B. ventriculography
C. selective angiography
D. echocardiography
E. perfusion scintigraphy
9. A 19-year-old patient complains of fainting, chest pain during exertion, shortness of

breath, weakness. The palpable impulse of the left ventricle is displaced to the left, the radial
pulse is reduced. A chest x-ray was taken (Fig. 1). What is the most likely condition?
Fig.1
A. aortic insufficiency
D. mirtal stenosis
E. aortic stenosis
10. A 31-year-old patient complains of an increase in body temperature of 39oС, severe

fatigue and weakness. History of antecedent mitral regurgitation. Auscultation revealed
abnormal heart murmurs. Echocardiography was performed (Fig. 2). Which condition is most
likely?
Fig. 2
A. endocardial vegetation
B. sagging of the leaflets into the left atrium
D. valve prosthesis
E. valvular calcification
11. A 16-year-old girl fell during a cycling competition and developed pain in the left side of her
chest. History of leg lameness (lameness). To rule out a fractured rib, she was sent to the
trauma department. There is no evidence of rib fracture or lung pathology on a chest x-ray.
However, the radiologist drew attention to the unevenness and notch of the lower edges of the
posterior segments of the IV-VII ribs and the "number 3" sign. What visualization method
should be the most informative?
A. fluoroscopy
B. angiography
C. echocardiography
D. coronary angiography
E. aortography
12. A 53-year-old patient with a history of coronavirus pneumonia was admitted to the hospital.
However, his condition deteriorated sharply, dizziness and shortness of breath appeared, oxygen
saturation decreased. Pulmonary thrombosis suspected. What imaging techniques need to be
clarified?
A. CT angiography
B. computed tomography
C. echocardiography
D. magnetic resonance imaging
E. chest x-ray
Tests Pathophysiology
1. The substances of Depressor action include
A) adrenalin
B) angiotensin-II
C) aldosterone
D) Prostaglandins E and A
2. Substances of Depressor action include:

A) nitrogen oxide
B) angiotensin-II.
C) aldosterone
D) endothelin
3. Pressor Action possesses:

A) adrenaline
B) kallikrein
C) prostaglandin E.
D) nitrogen oxide
4. Pressor Action has

A) kallikrein
B) angiotensin-II
C) prostaglandin E
D) nitrogen oxide
5. Pressor Action has

A) caplicrein
B) endothelin- I
C) prostaglandin E
D) nitrogen oxide
6. What blood pressure values indicate the presence of hypertension

A) 170/110
B) 110/70
C) 120/80
D) 115/60
7. Secondary (symptomatic) arterial hypertension is one of the symptoms of

diseases A) the liver
B) Gastrointestinal tract
C) kidney
D) spleen
8. Secondary arterial hypertension is a symptom: A)

Chronic adrenal insufficiency.
B) Gastric ulcer disease.
C) Primary aldosteronism.
D) hypocorpism
9. Secondary arterial hypertension is a symptom:

A) Itsenko-Cushing diseases.
B) Gastric ulcer disease.
C) Chronic adrenal insufficiency.
D) hypocorticoidism
10. Secondary arterial hypertension is a symptom:

A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency;
B. Gastric ulcer disease;
B. primary aldosteronism;
D. Diseases of Itsenko-Cushing (hypercorticoidism);
E. Intestinal autointoxication
A) A, b ANS-B,D
b) B, C)
in, G
D) G, D
11. Among the symptomatic arterial hypertension, hypertension is most often found
in
A) pheochromocytoma
B) Kidney lesion
C) primary hyperaldosteronism
D) hyperthyroidism
12. Among the symptomatic arterial hypertension most commonly found

A) endocrine
B) renal
C) neurogenic centrogenic
D) neurogenic reflex
13. The critical factor in the pathogenesis of renovascular renal hypertension is the
(A) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
B) increased secretion of glucocorticoids;
C) decrease in the production of depressor utilize substances in the kidneys; D)
increase of adrenaline secretion;
14. The leading role in the pathogenesis of renal hypertension is played by:
A) decrease in the production of depressor utilize substances in the kidneys.
B) increased secretion of glucocorticoids.
(C) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-Aldosteron system. D)
increase of adrenaline secretion.
15. Renal Arterial hypertension is observed

(A) in chronic glomerulonephritis;
B) In the case of congenital absence of one kidney;
C) in case of narrowing of the renal artery;
D) with thrombosis of renal artery;
16. In the pathogenesis of Renal graft (Parenchymatous) hypertension is

important
(A) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-Aldosterone system
B) increased secretion of vasopressin
C) Increased adrenaline secretion
D) Violation of kidney secretion, prostaglandin in the kidneys
17. Arterial hypertension in the aortic coarctation refers

A) to cardio-vascular hypertension
B) neurogenic arterial hypertension
C) to endocrine arterial hypertension
D) to medicinal arterial hypertension
18. The pathogenesis of primary arterial hypertension involves:

A) persistent increased excitability and hypotension of higher sympathetic nerve
centers.
B) Prolonged braking of the emotional centers.
C) Increasing the braking influence of the cerebral cortex on the pressure centers.
D) Increase of sodium-urethric hormone production.
19. The pathogenesis of primary arterial hypertension involves:
A) persistent increased excitability and hypotension of higher sympathetic
Nerve centers;
b) long-term re-excitation of emotional centers;
b) Reduction of the braking influence of the cerebral cortex on the pressor
Centres
d) Hereditary deficiency of membrane ionic pumps of smooth-muscle vascular
cells; E. Insufficiency of the adrenal cortex function
A) A B) A, b
c) A, D
D) A, B, C,D
20. Genetic defect of cell membranes in hypertensive disease results in

A) to increase the calcium content in the cytoplasm of cells;
B) to increase the electrical potential of cell membranes;
C) to increase the speed of the mediators ' reuptake by nerve endings; D) to
suppress ATP-ase activity of Myosin;
21. Orthostatic collapse occurs when

A) massive blood loss
B) Crushing the pancreas
C) rapid reduction of oxygen in the inhaled air
D) abrupt transition from horizontal position to vertical
22. Symptomatic arterial hypotension is observed in the case of

A) anemia
B) pheochromocytome
C) hyper aldosteronism
D) acute diffuse glomerulonephritis
23. Symptomatic arterial hypotension is observed at:

A) cholemia
B) pheochromocytoma
C) hyperaldosteronism
D) acute diffuse glomerulonephritis
24. The cause of sinus tachycardia is

enhancing
A) strengthening sympathetic influences on the heart
B) increased parasympathetic influences on the heart
C) weakening of sympathetic influences on the heart
D) lowering the body temperature
25. Sinus Bradycardia develops at

A) Increase in body temperature
B) strengthening of parasympathetic influences on the heart
C) improving the tone of the sympathetic nervous system
D) hypoxia
26. In the pathogenesis of sinus Bradycardia, it is important to

A) slowing down the spontaneous depolarization of the cardiomyocytes membrane
B) acceleration of spontaneous depolarization of the membrane of cardiomyocytes
C) Occurrence of damage currents in the myocardium
D) Lengthening of the period of cardiac platelet refractive
27. In the pathogenesis of sinus (respiratory) arrhythmia, it is important to

A) Formation of an ectopic impulse
B) The fluctuation of the Vagus tone
C) disturbance of excitation from atrial fibrillation to ventricles
D) mechanism "re-entry"
28. The transverse blockade of the heart is a

A) Violation of the excitation on the right leg of the Gissa beam
B) Disturbance of the excitation on the left leg of the Gissa beam
C) disruption of the pulse from the atrial to the ventricles through the
Atrioventricular knot
(D) Violation of the initiation of pericardium
29. Ventricular fibrillation is a

A) chaotic reduction of certain groups of cardiomyocytes
B) Violation of the excitation on the right foot of the beam of Gissa
C) Violation of the excitation on the left leg of the Gissa beam
(D) Violation of the initiation of pre-cordium
30. Severe violations of hemodynamics develop in the

A) sinus tachycardia
B) sinus arrhythmia
C) extrasystoles
D) Ventricular fibrillation
Practice tests for CVS in children:
1. What is heart disease has blood pressure on the upper extremities above than on
the lower extremities?
A. mitral stenosis
B. aortic coarctation
C. myocarditis
D. with pulmonary artery stenosis
E. tetrad Fallot
2. The QRS complex on the ECG reflects:

A. propagation of arousal in the Atria
B. propagation of arousal in the ventricles
C. repolarization
B. phase of cessation of arousal in the Atria
E. phase of cessation of arousal in the ventricles
3. What is week finished formation of the fetal heart?

A. 1-2 weeks
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 5-6 weeks
D. 7-8 weeks
E. 9-10 weeks
4. When lightly pressing on the tip of the nail and holding in this position, the
white spot in its center (respectively systole and diastole) then turns red, and then
turns pale. Which is pathology of the heart is this?
A. mitral valve stenosis
B. aortic valve insufficiency
C. aortic coarctation
D. tricuspid valve stenosis
E. anemia
5. Expansion of the right border of the heart is observed in:

A. left ventricular hypertrophy
B. right ventricular hypertrophy
C. left atrial hypertrophy
E. stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
6. Increased 1-tone in the aortic artery is noted in stenosis:
A. mitral opening
B. aortic mouth
C. mouth of the pulmonary artery
B. inferior Vena cava
E. tricuspid valve
7. When will appears diastolic murmur is heard?

A. open ductus arteriosus
B. mitral stenosis
C. ventricular septal defect
D. stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
E. atrial septal defect
8. Determine CHD with impoverishment of the large circulatory circle:

A. open aortic ductus
B. stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
D. aortic stenosis
E. tetrad of Fallot
9. What is main cause of rare pulse in children:

A. paralysis of the diaphragm
B. insufficient of blood supply to the heart
C. predominance of the parasympathetic nervous system
D. inflammation of pericardium
E. inflammation of myocardium
10. Specify the main risk factor for the development of heart disease in children:
A. the presence of mother’s infection
B. functional disorders of the cardiovascular system
C. hereditary predisposition to rheumatic diseases
D. poor nutrition, poor housing and seasonal clothing
E. bad habits of parents, their education
11. What is heart disease low diastolic blood pressure on the lower part of body, up
to zero, and cyanotic of legs observed:
A. ventricular septal defect
B. atrial septal defect
C. mitral stenosis
D. open ductus arteriosus
E. stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
Training exam tests
for 3rd year students of the faculty of "General Medicine" on the subject of
Propedeutics of Internal Diseases of the Cardiovascular System
For memorization:
1. What is the most reliable diagnostic method to confirm syndrome of coronary insufficiency is?
A. Resting ECG
B. Treadmill test
C. Echocardiography
D. Bronchodilation test
E. Holter ECG test
2. What symptom is typical for patients with endocardial inflammation syndrome?

A. Lukin-Liebman
B. Machiavelli
C. Oppenheimer
D. Ortner-Grekov
E. Mussey-Georgievsky
3. Which of the following is the center pulse?

A. Popliteal pulse
B. Radial pulse
C. Femoral pulse
D. Pulse Dorsalis pedis
E. Cibialis posterior pulse
4. Which of the following is the peripheral pulse?

A. Femoral pulse
B. Carotid pulse
C. Aortic pulse
D. Popliteal pulse
E. Brachial pulse
5. What is characteristic of edema in patients with heart failure syndrome?

A. Usually appears on the right leg
B. Typically appears on the left leg
C. Reduced size of the abdomen
D. On both lower extremities
E. Decreased thickness of legs
6. What defines Holter monitoring?

A. Blood pressure variability
B. Nocturnal blood pressure
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Rhythm disturbances
E. Blood gases` variability
7. Which of the following numbers is optimal blood pressure level?

A. 119/80 mm Hg
B. 135/90 mm Hg
C. 140/92 mm Hg
D. 160/70 mm Hg
E. 180/100 mm Hg
8. Why chronic coronary insufficiency is dangerous in the long term?

A. It may cause pulmonary hypertension
B. It may cause thromboembolism of cerebral vessels
C. It may cause fatal arrhythmias
D. It may cause myocardial infarction
E. It may cause venous insufficiency
9. Target organs of arterial hypertension?
A. Eyes, brain, lungs, spleen
B. Liver, lungs, heart, aorta
C. Kidney, heart, liver, eyes
D. Stomach, kidneys, heart, brain
E. Heart, kidneys, brain, eyes and aorta
10. What is the auscultation point of aortic valve?

A. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. 2nd intercostal space, right border of sternum
C. 2nd intercostal space, left border of sternum
D. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line E. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
11. Normal mitral valve area?

A. 0.5-1 cm2
B. 1-2 cm2
C. 2-4 cm2
D. 4-6 cm2
E. 6-9 cm2
12. Normal aortic valve area?

A. 0.5-1 cm2
B. 1-2 cm2
C. 2-4 cm2
D. 4-6 cm2
E. 6-9 cm2
13. What is dyspnea?

A. fatigue
B. shortness of breath
C. dizziness
D. sensation of heartbeat
E. fainting
14. Where is the auscultation point of pulmonary valve?

D. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
15. Which of the following is ECG criteria of ischemia of inferior wall of left ventricle?
A. ST segment depression in I, aVL leads
B. ST segment depression in II, III, aVF leads
C. ST segment depression in V1-V2 leads
D. ST segment depression in V3-V4 leads
E. ST segment depression in V5-V6 leads
16. The pressure that the heart must work against to eject blood during systole is called? A.
A.Afterload
B. Preload
C. Pulse
D. Ejection fraction
E. Cardiac output
17. This condition can be recognized as physiological, particularly in athletes, sinus node
dysfunction; it can be a consequence of using of drugs (beta blockers, calcium channel blockers);
at ECG: rate < 60 bpm, normal P wave before every QRS complex. Select correct answer:
A. Right bundle branch block
B. Left bundle branch block
C. AV block, Mobitz type I
D. AV block, Mobitz type II
E. Sinus bradycardia
18. Which of the following is the gold standart in diagnostic of Infective myocarditis?
A. Coronary angiography
B. Endomyocardial byopsy
C. Echocardiography
D. MRI
E. ECG
For understanding
19. Choose the most accurate definition: what is the advantage of the diagnostic method -
ambulatory blood pressure monitoring?
A. Variability of blood pressure
B. Blood pressure in outpatients
C. Blood pressure in inpatients
D. Serious rhythm disturbances
E. Conduction disturbances
20. A patient with tricupid valve infective endocarditis was admitted to inpatient hospital. What
is the most likely complication for the patient?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Septic kidney emboli
C. Septic emboli of the spleen
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Embolism of mesenteric artery
21. A patient with mitral valve`s infective endocarditis has been admitted to inpatient hospital.
What is the most likely complication for the patient?
A. Distal pulmonary arterioles` emboli
B. Septic emboli of the spleen
C. Bilatery emboli of pulmonary artery
D. Right pulmonary embolism
E. Left pulmonary embolism
22. What is the main mechanism by which edema can develop in patients with chronic heart
failure syndrome and decreased cardiac output? Choose the correct answer:
A. Increase in extracellular fluid volume
B. Elevated serum albumin levels
C. Increased serum triglyceride levels
D. Reducing serum cholesterol
E. Increased potassium retention
23. According to NYHA classification of heart failure, which of the following is characterized by
appearance of symptoms at rest?
A. Class I
B. Class II with preserved EF
C. Class II with reduced EF
D. Class III
E. Class IV
24. A 63-year-old man over the past 5 months has been complaining on squeezing pain in the
area behind the sternum that occurs during walking of 500 m, or when climbing the stairs to the
2nd floor. Pain reliefs at rest within 5 minutes. Risk factors: obesity, arterial hypertension. What
is your diagnosis? A. Unstable angina
B. Progressive angina
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Vasospastic angina
E. Stable angina
25. 65 years old male, complaints of headaches, dizziness. Risk factors: heavy smoker, diabetes,
positive family history. Examination: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg. What degree of arterial
hypertension would you put?
A. I degree arterial hypertension
B. II degree arterial hypertension
C. III degree arterial hypertension
D. Isolated systolic hypertension
E. Prehypertension
26. 42 years old male admitted to the hospital. After hypothermia, the body temperature
increased to 38.7 ° C, accompanied by chills and sweat. Body temperature returned to normal for
a short time, then increased again to high numbers. When examining the heart, the picture of
combined mitral defect. Respiratory rate (RR) - 22 per minute. Heart rate (HR) 90 per minute,
blood pressure (BP) 110/70 mm Hg. Which laboratory test is needed here?
A. Urinalysis
B. Blood culture
C. Troponin
D. CRB
E. Serum iron
27. Patient S, 58 years old, with complaints like dyspnea at the rest, orthopnea and paroxysmal
nocturnal dyspnea, palpitations, chest pain admitted to hospital. The symptoms are worsening over
the years. In anamnesis he had an Coronary heart disease. Echocardiography showed ejection
fraction 20%. What is your diagnosis?
A. Acute Heart failure
B. Chronic Heart failure Class I
C. Chronic Heart failure Class II
D. Chronic Heart failure Class III
E. Chronic Heart failure Class IV
28. A 39 year old male admitted to the hospital with complaints of fever for 2 weeks up to 39
degrees, severe weakness. In anamnesis congenital heart disease since childhood – bicuspid aortic
valve. RR – 22 per minute. Auscultation – diastolic murmur in the aorta region. BP – 120/40 mm
Hg. CBC: increased ESR. Echocardiography: mobile vegetation of large sizes on the aortic valve.
Blood culture results: Staphylococcus aureus. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Syndrome of inflammation endocardium
B. Syndrome of inflammation pericardium
C. Syndrome of inflammation myocardium
D. Syndrome of mitral valvular diseases
E. Syndrome of acute coronary insufficiency
29. 35 years old male admitted the physician with complaints for the chest pain, orthopnea, fatigue.
In anamnesis - rheumatic fever. Doctor performed the auscultation and discovered loud S1 and
opening snap after S2. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Mitral regurgitation
30. Patient K. 40 years old is describing his complaints as: “my heart flip-flops, skips beats,
especially if I carry stuff up his stairs or when I’m bending down.”. ECG showed no visible P
waves and an irregular narrow QRS complexes. What do you suspect?
A. atrial flutter
C. ventricular fibrillation
E. supraventricular tachycardia
For applying
31. 58 years old male patient applied to outpatient clinic with complaints for squeezing
retrosternal chest pain occurring at doing physical work; pain releases at the rest position in
a few minutes. Patient is a smoker; the patient's left leg was amputated last year due to car
accident. Which diagnostic method would you recommend to confirm syndrome of coronary
insufficiency?
A. Resting ECG
B. Treadmill test
C. Echocardiography
D. Bicycle stress test
E. Holter ECG test
32. What method of investigation would you recommend using in the diagnosis of patients with
suspected white coat hypertension?
A. Resting ECG
B. Treadmill test
C. 24h Holter monitoring
D. Bicycle stress test
E. 24h BP-monitoring
33. 46-year old female admitted to the hospital with dyspnea and hemoptysis. Patient history:
rheumatic fever. Physical examination: orthopnea, facies mitralis, loud S1, opening snap of
mitral valve have been detected. What diagnostic method would you administer to confirm your
diagnosis?
A. MRI
B. Chest x-ray
C. Angiography
D. Echocardiography
E. ECG
34. 57 years old female complains on retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left shoulder, arises
with an increase of blood pressure. Pain worries her for 2 months. During last week, pain
episodes occurred more often, mainly in the morning and were accompanied by shortness of
breath. She is a heavy smoker. Suffers from hypertension. The father and older brother of the
patient suffered from myocardial infarction. Examination: overweight. Pulse 88 in 1 min,
rhythmic. Echocardiography: global and local myocardial contractility is preserved. BP 145/100
mm Hg. Which examination is necessary for differential diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. Kidney ultrasound
C. Chest X-ray
D. CT scan
E. 24-hour ECG monitor
35. 46-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with pericardial inflammation syndrome. He
associates his illness with hypothermia. Examination: fever, chills, sweating, pain in the heart
associated with the breathing and changes of body position, pericardial friction rub, which
increases during inspiration. What examinations need to be administered? A. Analysis of
urine
B. BNP
C. Blood glucose
D. AST/ALT
E. Cardiac enzymes
36. 49 years old male complains on retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left back, neck, jaw
arises after physical exertion. Pain worries him for 2 months. During last week, pain episodes
occurred more often, mainly in the morning and were accompanied by shortness of breath. He is
a heavy smoker. Examination: Pulse 78 in 1 min. BP 145/100 mm Hg. On ECG at the rest no
changes. Which examination is necessary to determine diagnosis?
A. Chest x ray
B. MRI
C. Echo
D. CT scan
E. Stress ECG
37. Patient without signs heart failure has complaints for angina pectoris, dizziness. At ECG:
signs of left ventricular hypertrophy high R peak in left chest leads (I, aVL and V₄₋₆), deep S
peak in right chest leads (III, aVR, V₁₋₃), widened QRS complex (> 100 ms). Heart rate - 84 per
minute. Which diagnostic method should be prescribed at this case to confirm your preliminary
diagnosis?
A. MRI
B. Spirometry
C. Chest x-ray
D. Daily ECG monitoring
E. Echocardiography
38. A 5-year-old man admitted to the hospital through the ambulance with complaints of
retrosternal chest pain which lasts more than 1 hour. Patient is diaphoretic. Examination: Pale skin.
BP – 120/70 mmHg, HR – 78 bpm. ECG showed ST segment elevation in II, III, avF. Which
laboratory test may help you to confirm diagnosis?
A. ALT, AST
B. Troponin I/T
C. ESR
D. CBC
E. Creatinine CRP
(pedia previous year)
Сardiovascular system 190.
Pulse rate in newborns (per 1 min):
A. 115-120
B. 24-26
C. 140-160
D. 85-90
E. 68-72
191. Pulse rate in at 10-12 months (per 1 min):

A. 140-160
B. 24-26 C. 85-90
D. 68-72
E. 115-120
192. Pulse rate in child at 5 year of age (per 1 min):

A. 115-120
B. 140-160
C. 100
D. 85-90
E. 68-72
193. Pulse rate in child at 8-10 years (1min):

A. 140-160 B. 115-120
C. 130-135
D. 85-90
E. 100
194.Embriogenesis of CVS is started (weak):

A.1
B.3-4
C.2-3
D.10-12
E.6-7 195.Formula for calculating systolic pressure in babies before 12
month of life (mmHg):
A. 90+2n
B. 76+2n
C. 60+n
D. 75+n
E. 75+2n
196. Formula for calculating middle systolic pressure in children after 1 year of
age (mm Hg):
A. 76+n
B. 75+2n
C. 90+2n
D. 60+n
E. 105+2n
197. Formula for calculating middle diastolic pressure in children after 1 year
of age (mm Hg):
A. 76+n
B. 75+2n
C. 90+2n
D. 60+n
E. 105+2n
198. Mass of the heart in newborns brom mass of body (%):

A. 0,8 B. 0,5 C. 0,4 D. 0,9
E. 0,2
199. By palpation of the heart define:
A. borders
B. diameter
C. apical impulse
D. murmurs
E. tones
200.By percussion of the heart define:

A. borders
B. diameter
C. apical impulse
D. tones
E. murmurs
210. In intrauterine period first organ, which gets oxygen:

A. extremities
B. lungs
C. liver
D. spleen
E. kidney
211. Position of the heart in babies before 1-2 years of age:

A. vertical
B. gorizontal
C. obligue
D. right
E. high
212. Myocardial blood supply in children:

A. bad
B. middle
C. abundant
D. good
E. moderate
213. Diameter of pulmonary artery versus aorta in newborns:

A. more
B. same
C. less
D. better
E. much less
214. Thickness of right and left ventricles in newborns same and consist (mm):
A. 9-10
B. 5-7
C. 2-3
D. 11-12
E. 1-2
215.Right border of the heart formed by:

A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
E. aorta
216. Left border of the heart formed by:
A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
E. aorta
217. Upper border of the heart formed by:

A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
E. aorta
218. Left border of the heart is in babies before 2 years of age (intercostal space):
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
E. 1
219. Right border of the heart in babies before 2 years of age (line):
A. right middle clavicular
B. right parasternalis
C. left parasternalis
D. left middle clavicular
E. anterior axillaris
220. Left border of the heart in child at 7 years of age is (on):

A. left middle clavicular line B. right middle clavicular line
C. left parasternalis line
D. right parasternalis line
E. left anterior axillaris line
221. Mitral valve function is heard:

A. in the 2-nd itercostal space to the right of the sternum
B. in the 2-nd itercostal space to the left of the sternum
C. on apex of the heart
D. in the 3-4 itercostal space to the right of the sternum
E. based on the xiphoid process
222.”Heart hump” develops in:
A. ventricular septal defect
B. patent ductus arteriosus
C. aortic stenosis
D. coarctation of aorta
E. atrial septal defect
223. “Cardiac asthma” in sick children is noted in insufficiency of:

A. right atrium
B. right ventricle
C. left atrium
D. left ventricle
E. aorta
224. Left ventricular failure is seen in:

A. critical pulmonary stenosis
B. tricuspid valve disease
C. coarctation of aorta
D. pulmonary hypertension
E. large atrial septal defects
225. Main symptom in Tetralogy of Fallot is:

A. nosebleeds
B. cyanosis of skin
C. permanent moist rough
D. delay of physical development
E. polyuria
226. In coarctation of aorta systolic murmur is head:

A. on apex of the heart
B. in the 2-nd intercortal space to the left of the sternum
C. in the 2-nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum
D. based on the xiphoid process
E. in 4-th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
227. The intensification of both tones is noted at:

A. miocarditis
C. aortic valve disease
D. physical excitement
E. hypothyroidism
228. In coarctation of aorta in elder children main symptom:

A. pallor of the skin
B. “Heart hump”
C. acrocyanosis
D. disproportion of development of upper and lower parts of body
E. narrow chest
229.”Catʹs purr” define by: A.

inspection
B. palpation
C. percussion
D. auscultation
E. ultrasonography
230. For organic murmur characteristic:

A. soft timbre
B. inconstancy
C. harsh timbre
D. short
E. only systolic
231.”Cappillary pulse” is observed in:

A. mitral stenosis
C. collapse
232. Apical impulse in children not palpable in:

A. dry pericarditis
B. exudative pericarditis
C. hyperthyroidism
D. fever
E. mental urge
233. Symptom of positive venous pulse manifested by:

A. pulse deficit
B. loss of pulse
C. tremor of the chest
D. coincidence of pulsation of the veins with the pulse on the common
carotid artery
234. In babies 0-2 years of age apical impuls is:
A. 1,0 cm outside from left middle clavicular line, in 5-th intercostal space
B. 0,5-1,0 cm inside from middle clavicular line, in 3-d intercostal space
C. 3,0 cm outside from parasternalis line
D. 1,5-2,0 cm outside from middle clavicular line, in 4-th intercostal space
E. 3-d rib
235. In babies 2-7 years of age apical impuls is:
A. 1,5-2,0 cm outside from middle clavicular line, in 4-th intercostals space
B. 2-nd rib
C. 1,0 cm outside from middle clavicular line, in 5-th intercostals space
D. 3,0 cm outside from parasternalis line
E. 3-d rib
236. In babies 0-2 years of age upper border is on:

A. 4-th rib
B. 2 –nd rib
C. 2 – nd intercostals space
D. 5-th rib
E. 1 –st rib
237. In babies 2-7 years upper border is on is:
A. 4-th rib
B. 3 –d rib
C. 2 – nd intercostals space
D. 2-nd rib
E. 5 –th rib
238. Pulse rate in babies at 10 month (1 min) is:
A. 90-95
B. 140-160
C. 125
D. 115-120
E. 100
239. Pulse rate in child at 5-6 years (1 min) is:
A. 90-95
B. 140-160
C. 125
D. 115-120
E. 100
240. Right border of the heart in child 7-12 year is:
A. right parasternalis line
B. a little inside from parasternalis line
C. a little ant side from parasternalis line
D. on middle between parasternalis line and right border of sternum
E. right border of sternum
241. Formula systolic arterial pressure in children after 1 year – the upper age:
A. 90+2n
B. 75+2n
C. 105+2n
D. 88+2n
E. 60+n
242. Formula diastolic arterial pressure in children after 1 year – the middle age:
A. 60+n
B. 75+n
C. 45+n
D. 105+n
E. 50+n
243. Formula systolic arterial pressure after 1 year – the middle age:
F. 90+2n
G. 100+2n
H. 60+2n
I. 80+2n
J. 88+n
244.Right border of the heart is formed by:
A. Left ventricle
B. right ventricle
C. right atrium
D. left atrium
E. aorta
245.Left border of the heart is formed by:

A. left ventricle
B. right ventricle
C. right atrium
D. left atrium
E. aorta
246 .Upper border of the heart is formed by:
A. left ventricle
B. right ventricle
C. right atrium
D. left atrium
E. aorta
247. In auscultation of the heart there are points (quantity):
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
248. At 1 – st point of auscultation of the heart there is head working of (valve):
A. mitral
B. tricuspid
C. aortic
D. pulmonary artery
E. vesseled
249. At 2 – nd point of auscultation of the heart there is heard working of (valve):

A. mitral
B. tricuspid
C. aortic
D. pulmonary artery
E. vesseled
250. At 3 – st point of auscultation of the heart is heard working of (valve):

A. mitral
B. tricuspid
C. aortic
D. pulmonary artery
E. vesseled
251. At 4 – st point of auscultation of the heart is heard working of (valve):
A. mitral
B. tricuspid
C. aortic
D. pulmonary artery
E. vesseled
252.Anatomical closing of the foramen ovale is noted at (age):
A. 2-3 month
B. 1-11/2 year
C. 5-6 month
D. 2-3 year
E. 5-6 year
253. Anatomical closing of the ductus arteriosus is noted at (age): A.
2-3 month
B. 1-11/2 year
C. 5-6 month
D. 2-3 year
E. 5-6 year
254 .Pulse rate in child at 2-3 month is (1 min):
A. 140-160
B. 130-135
C. 100
D. 85-90
E. 72-74
255. Pulse rate in child at 11-12 month is (1 min):
A. 140-160
B. 130-135
C. 100
D. 115-120
E. 125-130
256.Pulse rate in child at 3-6 month is (1 min):

A. 140-160
B. 130-135
C. 100
D. 115-120
E. 125-130
257.Position of the apical impuls in healthy babies 0-2 year of age is (intercostals
space):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 7
258.Position of the apical impuls in healthy children after 2 years of age is
(intercostals space):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 7
259.Thickening of left and right ventricles consist (mm):
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 4-5
D. 5-7
TEXAS UNIVERSITY CVS SAMPLE QUES
1. Blockage of which of the following arteries would lead to ischemia of the apex
of the heart?
Anterior interventricular (descending)
Left circumflex
Posterior interventricular (descending)
Right marginal
Right coronary
2. If the ductus arteriosus does not spontaneously close off soon after birth (to
become the ligamentum arteriosum), it may have to be surgically ligated.
When clamping or ligating it, what important structure immediately behind it
must be identified and saved? arch of the azygos vein internal thoracic
artery left phrenic nerve left recurrent laryngeal nerve
left superior intercostal vein

3. A hand slipped behind the heart at its apex can be extended
upwards until stopped by a line of pericardial reflection that forms the:
Cardiac notch
Costomediastinal recess
Hilar reflection
Oblique pericardial sinus
Transverse pericardial sinus

4. A stethoscope placed over the left second intercostal space just lateral to the
sternum would be best positioned to detect sounds associated with which
heart valve?
aortic
pulmonary
mitral
tricuspid
5. Which valves would be open during ventricular systole?
Aortic and pulmonary

Aortic and tricuspid
Mitral and aortic
Tricuspid and mitral
Tricuspid and pulmonary

6. Which chamber's anterior wall forms most of the sternocostal
surface of the heart?
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
7. A 3rd-year medical student was doing her first physical exam. In order to
properly place her stethoscope to listen to heart sounds, she palpated bony
landmarks. She began at the jugular notch, then slid her fingers down to the
sternal angle. At which rib (costal cartilage) level were her fingers?
4
8. A patient involved in an automobile accident presents with a sharp object
puncture of the middle of the sternum at about the level of the 4th or 5th
costal cartilage. If the object also penetrated pericardium and heart wall,
which heart chamber would most likely be damaged?
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
9. Which statement is true of the right atrioventricular valve?
it is also called the mitral valve
it is open during ventricular diastole
it transmits oxygenated blood
it is opened by the pull of chordae tendineae
it consists of 2 leaflets
10. A 23-year-old male injured in an industrial explosion was found to have
multiple small metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. Since the pericardium
was torn inferiorly, the surgeon began to explore for fragments in the
pericardial sac. Slipping her hand under the heart apex, she slid her fingers
upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-
desac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. Her
fingertips were then in the:
Coronary sinus
Coronary sulcus
Costomediastinal recess
Oblique sinus
Transverse sinus
11. An elderly lady suffers a coronary occlusion and subsequently it is noted that
there is a complete heart block (that is, the right and left bundles of the
conduction system have been damaged). The artery most likely involved is
the:
acute marginal branch
anterior interventricular (Left anterior

descending)
circumflex branch
obtuse marginal
posterior interventricular (posterior descending)

12. During fetal life and sometimes persisting into the adult there is an opening
between the right and left atria; this opening is called the:
atrioventricular canal
coronary sinus
foramen ovale
sinus venosus
truncus arteriosis
13. The heart sound associated with the mitral valve is best heard:
In the jugular notch
In the second left intercostal space
In the second right intercostal space
In the fifth left intercostal space
To the right of the xiphoid process
14. Which heart valve has leaflets described as "anterior, left and right"?
Aortic
Pulmonary
Left atrioventricular
Right atrioventricular
15. In preparation for thoracic surgery, a median sternal splitting procedure was
carried out. But an improper depth setting on the saw blade resulted in a
slight nick on the underlying sternocostal surface of the heart. Which heart
chamber would most likely have been opened had the blade completely
penetrated this wall?
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
16. The sound associated with tricuspid stenosis (narrowing) in a 40-year-old
male would be best heard at which location on the anterior chest wall?
Below the left nipple
In the right 2nd intercostal space near the sternum
Over the apex of the heart
Over the sternal angle
Xiphoid area, just off the sternum

17. Blockage of blood flow in the proximal part of the anterior interventricular
artery could deprive a large area of heart tissue of blood supply, unless a
substantial retrograde flow into this artery develops via an important
anastomosis with which other artery?
Circumflex
Left marginal
Posterior interventricular
Right coronary
Right marginal
18. Traumatic, acceleration/deceleration injuries to the aorta usually
occur where its mobile and fixed portions meet. This would be at the:
at the ligamentum arteriosum
junction of aortic arch with the descending portion

junction of the ascending aorta with the heart
origin of the brachiocephalic artery on the arch
point where the descending aorta passes through the diaphragm

19. Which structure does NOT lie in the coronary sulcus?
circumflex artery
coronary sinus
right coronary
artery right
marginal artery
left coronary artery

20. Which structure contains postganglionic sympathetic fibers?
greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

recurrent laryngeal nerve
sympathetic trunk
ulnar nerve
vagus nerve
21. Which posterior mediastinal structure is most closely applied to the posterior
surface of the pericardial sac?
Aorta
Azygos vein
Esophagus
Thoracic duct
Trachea
22. In obstruction of the superior or inferior vena cava, venous blood is returned
to the heart by an alternate route via the azygos vein, which becomes dilated
in the process. Which of the following structures might it compress as a
result?
trachea root of
the left lung
phrenic nerve
thoracic duct
descending aorta
23. Elevated systolic blood pressure in the right ventricle suggests stenosis of
which valve?
Aortic
Mitral
Pulmonary
Tricuspid
24. During examination of a 62-year-old man, the senior resident tells you to put
your stethoscope on the left 5th intercostal space, slightly below the nipple,
and listen for a clearly audible murmur. You hear it distinctly and know it must
be associated with severe stenosis of which heart valve?
Aortic
Mitral
Pulmonary
Tricuspid
25. A 26-year-old male is brought into the emergency room after having been
kicked in the chest by a horse. After examination, it is concluded that the most
likely immediate danger is cardiac tamponade (bleeding into the pericardial
sac). You prepare to draw off some of the blood from the sac to relieve the
pressure on the heart. The safest site at which to insert the needle of the
syringe in order to miss the pleura would be:
Just below the nipple on the

left
Just to the left of the xiphisternal junction
Near the sternal angle
Through the jugular notch
4th left intercostal space in the midaxillary line

26. A 22-year-old male involved in an automobile accident presents with
symptoms suggestive of myocardial contusion due to blunt trauma,
specifically compression of the sternocostal surface of the heart by the
sternum when his chest hit the steering wheel. Which heart chamber was
most likely damaged?
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
27. While attempting to suture the distal end of a coronary bypass onto the
anterior interventricular artery, the surgeon accidentally passed the needle
through the adjacent vein. Which vein was damaged?
Anterior cardiac vein
Coronary sinus
Great cardiac vein

Middle cardiac vein
Small cardiac vein

28. While listening to a patient's heart sounds with a stethoscope, you identify a
high-pitched sound in the second right intercostal space, just lateral to the
edge of the sternum. Your correct conclusion is that you have detected
stenosis of which heart valve?
Aortic
Mitral
Pulmonary
Tricuspid
Pathophysiology CVS task
An example of a normal ECG (normal sinus rhythm; HR - 68 bpm):
Task 1.
A) sinus bradycardia;
B) sinus tachycardia;
C) sinus arrhythmia;
D) atrioventricular block I degree.
Reason - Sinus bradycardia is a slow, regular heartbeat It happens when your heart's
pacemaker, the sinus node, generates heartbeats less than 60 times in a minute. Sinus
bradycardia occurs on an ECG when there is a normal upright P wave in lead Il (sinus
P wave) preceding every QRS complex.
Task 2.
D) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Reason- The ECG criteria to diagnose sinus arrhythmia is a variation of the P-P
interval, from one beat to the next, of at least 0.12 seconds, or 120 milliseconds. Sinus
arrhythmia if not in a young person and not occurring with respiration may be a sign
of-sick sinus syndrome
Task 3.
A) sinus tachycardia;
B) atrial extrasystole;
C) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia;
D) atrial flutter.
Reason- SVTS can be classified based on site of origin (atria or AV node)

Classification based on QRS width is unhelpful as this is also influenced by the
presence of pre-existing bundle branch block Regular tachycardia -140-280 bpm.
Task 4.
A) atrial flutter;
B) ventricular flutter;
C) atrial fibrillation;
D) ventricular fibrillation.
Reason - Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia caused by a re-entry circuit within the
right atrium, trial rate of around 300 bpm (range 200-400). AV blocks can occur usually due to
medications or underlying heart disease.
Task 5.
A) sinus arrhythmia;
B) atrioventricular block I degree; C) complete atrioventricular
block;
D) atrial extrasystole.
Reason- These are premature P waves which look different from a normal P wave. They may be
hidden in the ST segment or T wave of the preceding sinus beat. They may be followed either by a
normal QRS complex, or the PR interval may be prolonged, or the impulse may not be conducted at
all.They can also occur when there is increased pressure on the atria such as in cardiac failure or
mitral valve disease and may occur prior to the development of atrial fibrillation.
Task 6.
D) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.
Reason- Sinus tachycardia is recognized on an ECG with a normal upright P wave in

lead Il preceding every QRS complex, indicating that the pacemaker is coming from
the sinus node and not elsewhere in the atria, with an atrial rate of greater than 100
beats per minute.
Task 7.
A) atrial premature beats;

B) ventricular extrasystole of the bigeminy type; C) ventricular
extrasystole of the trigeminic type;
D) atrioventricular block I degree.
Reason- These are wide, abnormally shaped QRS complexes. Extrasystoles occurring
at every third beat are called trigeminy respectively.
Task 8.
A) atrial flutter;
Reason - Chaotic irregular deflections of varying amplitude. No identifiable P waves,

QRS complexes, or T waves
Task 9.
A) atrioventricular block I degree;

B) atrioventricular block II degree (type I Mobitz);
C) atrioventricular block II degree (type II Mobitz);
D) atrioventricular block III degree (complete AV block).
Reason - A First degree AV node BlOCK occurs when conduction through the AV node is slowed, thus delaying
the time it takes for the action potential to travel from the SA node, through the AV node, and to the ventricles.
A first degree AV block is indicated on the ECG by a prolonged PR interval. Recall that the P wave indicates atrial depolarization
(initiated by firing of the SA node). The atrial depolarization eventually spreads to the AV node where there is a slight delay before the
electrical impulse is conducted to the ventricles. If the AV nodal conduction (dromotropy) is decreased, it will take longer for the
impulse to reach the ventricles, so there will be a greater distance between the P wave and the QRS complex (remember the QRS
complex indicates ventricular depolarization). Thus the PR interval will be prolonged.
Task 10.

Reason - Second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block or second-degree heart block is a

disorder characterized by disturbance delay or interruption of atrial impulse
conduction to the ventricles through the atrioventricular node AVN and bundle of His
Electrocardiographically, some P waves are not followed by a QRS complex.
A) atrial flutter;
Reason- Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia caused by a re-entry

circuit within the right atrium, trial rate of around 300 bpm (range 200-400). AV
blocks can occur usually due to medications or underlying heart disease.
Task 12.
Reason- Some P waves are not followed by a QRS complex. It is Second-degree

atrioventricular (AV) block, or second-degree heart block, a disorder characterized by
disturbance, delay, or interruption of atrial impulse conduction to the ventricles
through the atrioventricular node (AVN) and bundle of His.
Task 13.

Reason- Extra beat is seen after QRS Complex with fixed P-R Interval, indicates failure of
conduction at the level of Purkinje fibres.
It works on "all or nothing" phenomenon where Purkinje Fibres fail to conduct a supraventricular
impulse
Task 14.
A) atrial flutter;
C) ventricular fibrillation;
D) paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia.
Reason - Continuous Sine Wave, No identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, or T

waves, Rate usually > 200 beats / min
CARDIOLOGY (previous year internal medicine)
1. Choose the most correct interpretation of palpation data – a spilled high (dome-shaped)
apical impulse in the VI intercostal space 2 cm outwards from the mid-clavicular line:
A. Hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
E. right ventricular hypertrophy
2. Choose the most correct interpretation of palpation data -a pronounced cardiac impulse
and epigastric pulsation:
A. Hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
E. Left ventricular hypertrophy
3. Palpation of the heart at the apex reveals a jitter that does not coincide with the
pulsation a. carotis. What heart disease is it typical for?
C. aortic stenosis
D. mitral stenosis
4. What clinical situation is characterized by the following changes in the auscultative

picture of the heart: at the apex I tone is weakened, systolic murmur is heard, which is
conducted in the axillary region. What is it?
C. aortic stenosis
D. mitral stenosis
5. Mitral valve is better heard where?


D. to the right of the sternum in the fourth intercostal space E. at Botkin-Erb
Point
6. The apical impulse is formed by:

A. aortic arch
B. abdominal aorta
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
E. left atrium.
7. Apical impulse with aortic valve insufficiency is going to be
A. small, weak, limited

B. Small, reinforced, limited
C. high, reinforced, spilled
D. small
E. limited
8. For what clinical situation are the following options for changing the boundaries of the
relative dullness of the heart: the right border is 1 cm to the right of the right edge of the
sternum, the left one along the anerior axillary line, the top edge is the third edge?
A. mitral stenosis
9. What clinical situation is characterized by the following options for changing the boundaries
of the relative dullness of the heart: the right border 1s 3 cm to the right of the sternum edge,
the eft one is 1 cm medially from the left mid-clavicle line, the upper one 1s the upper edge of
the second rib?
A. mitral stenosis
B. mitral insuficiency
D. aortic stenosis
10. What clinical situation is characterized by the following options for changing the boundaries
of the relative dullness of the heart: the right border is 1 cm to the right of the sternum edge,
the left one is 2 cm outward irom the left mid-clavicle line, the top one is II rib?
A. mitral stenosis
D. aortic malformations
11. Imdicate the most characteristic signs of arterial pulsus pulsus dificiens:
A. a sharp weakening or absence of pulsation in a single radial artery
B. a sharp decrease in the magnitude of the pulse in both radial arteries

C. The number of pulse waves in the radial artery is greater than the number of heartbeats.
D. The number of pulse waves in the radial artery is less than the number of heartbeats. E.
sharp wealkening or absence of pulsation in both radial arteries
12. The area of the mitral orifice is normally:
A. 1-2 cmn2
B. 3-4 cm2 C. 4-5 cm2 D. 4-6 cm2
E. 2-3 cm2
13. Critical mitral stenosis is:
A 1 cm2
B. 1.3 cm2
C. 1.5 cm2
D. 1.9 cm2
E.2 cm2
14. Left ventricular hypertrophy is established when:
A. RV5+ SV1≥ 38 mm, R aVL> 11mm

B. RV1> 7mm
C. HRVS <RV4
D. R V5-6 <15 mm
E. Availability S.S V5-6
15. Rhythm “quail” in mitral stenosis is:

A clapping tone I, enhanced tone II and the tone of the opening of the mitral Valve
B. I tone is weakened, il tone is not changed, pathological Il tone in diastole

C. I tone is not changed, II tone is weakened, systolic murmur
D. I tone is enhanced, II tone is not changed, mesodiastolic noise
E. I tone is not changed, II tone is not changed, systolic murmur
16. Specify the most informative method for diagnosing mitral valve insufficiency:
A. Auscultation of the heart
B. phonocardiography
C. Xray of the heart

D. echoppler cardiography
E. coronaroangiophagia
17. The main auscultatory sign of mitral valve insuficiency:
A. diastolic noise in the second intercostal space on the right

B. systolic murmur throughout systole at the top diastolic noise at the top
C.diastolic noise at the Botkin point
D. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space
E. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space on the left
18. A direct sign of mitral valve insufficiency in EchoCG Doppler study:

A. turbulent diastolic flow in the projection of the mitral valve
B. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole
C. Regurgitation jet from the aorta to the left ventricle

D. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium during Diastoles F. Stream of
regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
19. A direct sign of aortic valve insufficiency in Doppler examination:

A. Regurgitation jet from the right atrium to the right ventricle
B. Regurgtaion jet rom the let ventricle to the left atrium
C. Regurgitation jet from the right ventricle to the right atrium
D. Regurgitation jet from the aorta to the left ventricle

E. Stream of regurgitation from the pulmonary trunk to the right ventricle
20. Which symptom of the following is pathognomonic for left ventricular heart failure?
A. Swelling of the neck veins

B. ascites
C. Enlarged liver
D. orthopnea
E. E Swelling in the legs
21. A pronounced pulsation of the carotid arteries is observed in patients with:
A. Aortic stenosis
C. C. mitra valve insufficiency
D. D. tricuspid valve insuffīciency
E. E. Insufficiency valve of the pulmonary artery
22. Which of the heart defects most significantly increases the left atrium?
A. Pulmonary artery stenosis

C. mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Tricuspid valve insufficiency
23. When accent of II tone on the aorta occurs:
A. Hypertension syndrome
C. myocardial inflammation syndrome
D. Pericardial inflammation syndrome
E. chronic coronary insuficiency syndrome
24. Forced position orthopnea facilitates the patient’s condition with:
C.chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome

D. left ventricular heart failure syndrome
E. Syndrorne of arterial hypotension
25. Typical localization of pain in chronic coronary syndrome Failure:
A. behind the sternum
B.In the left half of the chest, in the apex of the heart
C. in the right side of the chest
D. in the epigastric region
E. in the right hypochondrium
26. Sinus tachycardia is a sinus rhythm with a heart rate.

Abbreviations:
A. More than 85 per minute

B. more than 60 per minute
C. more than 75 per minute
E. more than 120 per minute
27. What is meant by “mitral face”?
A. Erythematous rash on cheeks and nasal back

B. pallor of face
C. Cyanotic cheek blush
D. hyperemia of the left cheek

E. cyanosis of nasolabial triangle
28.dyspnea;
A. Dizziness
B. Shortness of breath
C. Chest pain
D. high blood pressure
E. Headaches
29. When are the atria and ventricles contracted by their own rhythm?
A .with atrioventricular blockade of III degree
C.With atrial paroxysmal tachycardia
D. with ventricular premature beats
E. atrial futter
30. What is characteristic radiographically for aortic valve insafficiency:

A. The aorta is dilated, pulsating deeply, ejects the IV arch
B.protrudes the left atrial appendage
C. protrudes pulmonary trunk

D. Availability of Curly lines
E aorta dilated in ascending division
31. The appearance on the ECG of a pathological Q wave in acute coronary insufficiency
syndrome is a reflection of:
A. subendocardial myocardi al ischemia
B. myocardial necrosis
C. myocardial damage
D. Subepicardial myocardial ischemia
E. scarring myocardium
32. The ECG criterion for chronic coronary insufficiency syndr omeis:
A. appearance of abnormal Q wave
B. reduction of the amplitude of the R wave
C. ST segment displacement below the isoelectric line by 1 mm or more

D. ST segment elevation above the isoelectric line more than 1 mm
E. Negative Twave in all chest leads
33. What is the pulse characteristic of aortic valve insufficiency?
A. pulsus celer et altus
B. pulsus rarus et parvus

C.pulsus differens
D. pulsus filiformis
E. pulsus parvus
34. What is the cause of noise in aortic stenosis:
A. Blood regurgitation from the aorta to the left ventricle B.

The expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta.
C. C. Blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium
D. D. Expulsion of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle
E. E. Blood regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
35. The occurrence of noise in mitral stenosis is caused by:
A. Expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta

B. Regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium
C. Regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium

E. Regurgitation of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle
36. The cause of the noise in the aortic valve insufficiency:

A .Blood regurgitation from the aorta to the left ventricle
B. Blood regurgitation from the right ventricle to the right atrium
C. blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium
D. Expulsion of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta

E. Expulsion of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle
37. At what defect is the diastolic murmur at the apex heard?
A. mitral stenosis
B.Mitral valve insufficiency

D. Aortic stenosis
E.Aortic valve insufficiency
38. What changes in echocardiography of the following are a sign of left ventricular heart
failure:
A. EF <80%, EDDLV> 5.0 cm

B. EF <50%, EDDLV> 5.5 cm, diffuse hypokinesis of the LV walls
C. EF 60%, LVPWT-1,2cm
D. EF = 60%, local hypokinesis IVST
E. Echonegative space for LVPWT 10mmn
39. For what pathological condition is the “triangular” shape of the heart configuration
characteristic?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid valve insufficiency
D. pericardial effusion
E. acute coronary insufficiency
40. Positive venous pulse is characteristic:

A. for mitral stenosis
B.For aortic stenosis
C.For aortic valve regurgitation

D. For tricuspid valve insufficiency
E. for heart failure
41. Pulmonary valve is better listened at:

A. in the fifth intercostal space on the left 1.5 cm inwards from the Midclavicular line
B.In the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum

E.At Botkin-Erb Point
42. The symptom of “cat’s purr” is determined by the method:
A. percussion
B.Auscultation
C.palpation
E. electrocardiography
43. The symptom of “cat’s purr” in the apex of the heart is determined by:
C. stenosis of the left AV opening


44. The following ECG indicators: the correct rhythm with a heart rate of <60 per min. And
unchanged QRS complexes are characteristic of: A. sinus arrhythmia .
B. blockade of bundle branch foot
C.sinus bradycardia
D. extrasystolic arrhythmia
E. atrial fibrillation
45. Palpation on the basis of the heart reveals a tremor, which coincides with the pulsation on
a. carotis. This is typical for: A. mitral stenosis
C. aortic stenosis

E. tricuspid valve insufīciency
46. The value of blood pressure measured in a patient at rest and equal to 140/85 mm Hg,
should be considered in accordance with modern guidelines,as
A .1st degree arterial hypertension
B. 2nd degree of arterial hypertension
C. high normal blood pressure

D. normal blood pressure
E. optimal blood pressure
47. When auscultation of the heart in patients with severe heart failure can be identified:
A. rhythm "quail"
B. protodiastolic gallop rhythm
D. Additional pericardium tone
E. gain I tone at the top

48. The pulsation of the carotid arteries (“carotid dancing”) is a sign:
A aortic valve regurgitation

C. stenosis of the mirtal valve
D.Mitral valve insufficiency
E. Aortic stenosis
49. Complete AV blockade is characterized by:

A. increase the PQ interval
B. independent atrial and ventricular contractions
C. at different RR intervals
D.Severe deformity of the ventricular complex
E. falling out of the next h. P and QRS complex
50. II tone with aortic stenosis:
A .weakened on the aorta
B.Strengthened on the aorta

C.strenghened at the top
D. weakened at the top
E. not changed on the aorta
51. When aortic stenosis is heard:

B. diastolic noise in the second intercostal space on the right
C. systolic marmur in the second intercostal space on the right

E. systolic murmur on tricuspid valve
52. Paradoxical pulse is determined by
A. heart failure syndrome
B. syndrome of arterial hypertension;
C. coronary insufficiency syndrome;

D. myocardial inflaxnnmation syndrome
E. Pericardial inflammation syndrome
53. ECG signs of atrioventricular block I degree:
A. prolongation of the interval PQ> 0.12 sec
B. prolongation of the interval PQ> 0.20s

C.No P wave
D.Deformation of the QRS complex
E. negaxive T wave
54. Name the components of the first tone.

A. muscular, valvular, vascular
B. muscular, valvular, vascular, atrial
C. muscle, valve
D. Valve, vascular
E. muscular vascular
55. When aortic valve insufficiency is heard
B. Protodiastolic noise at Botkin-Erb point

C. systolic murmur at the Botkin -Erb point
E. diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart

56. Amplificatica of the apical impulse indicates

57. Accent of tone II on the pulmonary artery is noted when

B.pulmonary hypertension
D. dilatation of the left ventricle

E.Pulmonary valve insufficiency
58. Dysphagia in mitral stenosis is due to;

A.spasm of the esophagus
B.compression of the esophagus by the enlarged right atrium;
C. compression of the esophagus because of enlarged left atrium; D.

compression of the esophagus by the enlarged pulmonary artery;
E. compression of the esophagus by the dilated left ventricle.
59. Select the symptom complex characteristic of left ventricular heart failure syndrome:
A. Swelling of the legs, cough, shortness of breath
B.cough, hemoptysis, choking, orthopnea
C. hemoptysis, swelling of the legs, enlarged liver
D. swelling and pulsation of the neck veins

E. cough, swelling of the legs
60. When mitral valve insufficiency auscultatory is determined:
A. Strengthening of the I tone at the apex of the heart
B. weakening of the I tone at the apex of the heart

C. “click open” mitral valve
E.Systolic aortic murmur
61. Systolic murmur with stenosis of the aortic mouth is perfor med
A. To the point of Botkin-Erb

B. on the xiphoid process
C. to the armpit
D. On the neck vessels
E. To the top of the heart
62. Which of the following factors predisposes to the development of coronary insufficiency
syndrome:
A. Lasting blood sugar 4.5 mmol/1

B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
C. Blood cholesterol 5.0 mmol /1
D. Smoking
E. Increased high density lipoprotein
63. Subjective characterization of pain in chronic coronary insufficiency syndrome:

A .compressive, pressing
B. stabbing
C. aching
D.Dagger
E. cutting
64. Symptom Musset is observed at

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Stenosis of the mirtal valve
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
E. E. mitral valve insufficiency
65. “Heart Hump” occurs when
A. severe left ventricular hypertrophy

B. severe left atrial hypertrophy
D. severe right atrial hypertrophy
E. severe dilatation of the left atrium
66. A sign of acute left ventricular failure is:

A. choking with choking breath;
B. swelling and pulsation of the veins of the neck;
C. enhanced epigastric ripple;

D. liver enlargement and tenderness
E. swelling of the lower limbs
67. Forced position of the patient sitting bending forward, is observed when:
B. effusion pericarditis;
D. myocarditis
68. “Deficit” pulse occurs when
B. heart failure
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Aortic valve regurgitation
E. atrioventricular block
69. The upper limit of relative cardiac dullness increases due to
A. Tight ventricular hypertrophy

B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. hypertrophy of the right atrium
D. Left atrial hypertrophy
E.dilatation of the left ventrirle
70. Which symptom of the following is characteristic of left ventricular heart failure:
A. Lower limb edema

B. Enlarged liver
D. Ascites
E. Positive venous pulse
71. What symptom of the following is characteristic of right ventricular heart Failure:
A. Hepatomegaly
C. symptom Musset
D. dry cough
E. moist rales in the lungs during auscultation
A. pathological Q wave
B. negative T wave
C. ST interval offset
D. Absence of P-wave
E. Prolongation of the PQ interval
73. Diastolic noise with aortic valve insufficiency is better heard:
A. in the second intercostal space on the right
B. at Botkin-Erb Point
C.On the xiphoid process

D. at the apex of the heart
E. on the vessels of the neck
74. The most informative method for diagnosing coronary insufficiency is:
A. ECG
B. Veloergometry
C. Echocardiography
D. Coronary angiograpny
E. Daily ECG monitoring
75. The man metnod for tne diagnosis of cardiac arrhythmia syndrome is ;
A. ECHO
B. ECG
C. chest X-ray
E. coronary angiography
76. The most informative method for confirming necrotic changes in the myocardium is
A. determination of erythrocyte sedimentation rate and leukocytes
B. determination of the level of alkaline phosphatase

C. Determination of transaminase level
D. determination of troponin level
E. determination of creatinine level

77. Identification on the ECG of the interval PQ, equal to 0.28 seconds. indicates the presence of
the patient
A. Sinoatrial blockade
B. blockade of atrioventricular conduction
C. extrasystolic arrhythmia
E. paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
78. The most reliable sign of stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice is
A. increase the left border of the heart

B. facies mitralis
C. mesodiastolic murmur and the presence of a "opening click" mitral valve at the top
D. simoothness of the waist of the heart during X-ray

E. weakening of the apical impulse
79. For mitral valve insufficiency it is typical:
A. clapping the first tone at the top
C. increase the boundaries of the heart to the right

D. weakening of the II tone on the aorta
80. Blood pressure in aortic valve insufficiency:
A. only systolic increases

B. only diastolic increases
C. systolic and diastolic increases
D. Systolic decreases and diastolic increases

E. does not change
81. Indicate aortic valve insufficiency:
A. 120/90 mm Hg
B. 190/140 mm Hg
C. 160/100 mm Hg
D. 160/40 mm Hg
E. 90/60 mm Hg
82. What can be observed in endocardial inflammation syndrome?
A. leukopenia, lymphocytosis
B.Anemia, leukocytosis, accelerated ESR

C. eosinophilia, accelerated ESR
D. anemia, lymphocytosis, accelerated ESR
E. anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
83. Specify the level of blood pressure, corresponding to the I degree of arterial hypertension:
A. Blood pressure – 150/95 mm Hg
B. Blood pressure -138/88 mm Hg

C. Blood pressure – 174/108 mm Hg
D. Blood pressure – 202/114 min Hg
E. Blood pressure – 200/90 mm Hg
84. For the development of coronary insufficiency:

B. Age over 45
C. hypotension
D. male
E.genetic predisposition
85. Pulsation of the pupils is characteristic o
A. mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid insufficiency:
C. Aortic stenosis;
D. tricuspid stenosis;
E. aortic insufficiency
86. Which method is most effective in verifying left ventricular myocardial hypertrophy:
A. ECG
B. Veloergometry
C. Echocardiography
E. transesophageal pacing
87. Which of the following is an unmodified risk factor for the development of coronary
insufficiency:

B. diabetes
D. smoking
88. When stenosis of the mouth of the aorta is heard
A. Systolic murmur in the apex of the heart, radiating to the axillary region
B. diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart, radiating to the base of the xiphoid process
C. Systolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, Radiating
to the carotid arteries
D. diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum raciating to
the carotid arteries
E. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart radiating to the base of the xiphoid Process
89. The weakening of the I tone is observed at:
B. tricuspid insuficiency
D. mitral stenosis
E. in a healthy person
90. Specify the correct definition of the term “heart push”:
A. ripple to the right of the xiphoid process

B. Local ripple in the third intercostal space at the left edge of the sternum
C. diffuse ripple throughout the precardiac area
D. Pulsation in the fourth, fifth, sixth intercostal space at the left border of the relative dullness
of the heart
E. ripple to the left of the xiphoid process
91. To detect pericardial effusion, the most informative method is
A. ECG
C. Echocardiography
D. X-ray examination of the chest organs
E. phonocardiography
A. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure

C. Amount of blood released by the ventricles to systole
D. The amount of blood released by the atria to the ventricles
E. minute heart volume
93. Small, slow, rare pulse is characteristic for:
A. mitral stenosis
B. Mitral insufficiency
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Thyrotoxicosis
94. Apical impulse for aortic insufficiency:
A. weakened, localized;
B.reinforced, localized;
C. tall, reinforced, spilled;

D. weakened, spilled
E. Reinforced, localized
95. Specify the cause of acute coronary insuficiency:
A Coronary artery thrombosis
B. Inflammation of the coronary arteries

D. Arterial hypertension
E. Left ventricular myocardial hypertrophy
96. A 42-year-old patient has a significant shift in the boundaries of the relative dullness of the
heart to the left, increased apical impulse, a pronounced symptom of “systolic tremor” in the
2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum and ibid weakening of the II tone. Which of the
following auscultatory phenomena must necessarily occur in this patient?

B. diastolic murmur at the apex.
C. systolic murmur above the aorta
D. systolic murmur at xiphoid process
E. diastolic murmur over the aorta
97. The most informative method for confirming the presence of heart disease is:
A. ECG
B.Echocardiography
C. roentgenoscopy of the chest
E. Bicycle ergometry test
98. Large pulse pressure, double Traube tone and duozier noise on the vessels, fast and high
pulse, Musset’s symptoms are characteristic
A. For aortic valve regurgitation

C. For tricuspid valve insufficiency
D. for mitral stenosis
E. For mitral valve insufficiency
99. Indicate the physical sign of pericardial inñammation syndrome:
A. Appearance of 3 tones
B. pansystolic noise at the top
C. appearance 4 tones
D. Pericardial friction noise
E. attenuation 1 tone
100. The orthopneic position is:
A. forced sitting position to relieve shortness of breath
B. forced sitting positon to relieve pain

C. forced lying position to relieve pain
D. forced standing position to relieve hiccups
E. forced standing position to relieve shortness of breath
101. In case of pathology of which organ of the following, secondary arterial hypertension may
develop:
A. liver
B. Adrenal glands
C. stomach
D. Vessels of the lower extremities,
E. Lungs
102. What is the peculiarity of pain in acute coronary insuficiency:
A. is associated with physical activity

B. Duration over 30 minutes
C. Docked with NTG
D. Passes in peace
E. associated with breathing
103. The increase in pulse pressure is observed at:
A. Aortic stenosis
B.Aortic insufficiency
D. tricuspid insufficiency
E. mitral stenosis
104 Which echocardiography sign is the criterion for the diagnosis of endocardial inflammation
syndrome:
A .vegetation on the valves
C. dilatation of the left ventricle

D.Cusp perforation
E. calcification of valve cusps
105. Echocardiographic sign of acute coronary insufficiency
A. Diffuse hyperkinesis of the walls of the left ventricle

B. diffuse hypokinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
C. Local hypokinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
D. Local hyperkinesis of the walls of the left ventricle
E. E. Left ventricular dilatation
106. Target organs for hypertension:

A Heart, kidneys, brain, fundus vessels and aorta
B. Liver, lungs
C. heart, liver
D. fundus vessels, lungs
E .kidney, heart
107. The area of the mouth of the aorta in the norm is:
A. 1.5-2.5 cm2
B. 4-4.5 cm2
C. 4.5-5.5 cm2
D. 2.5-3.5 cm2
E. 1-2 cm2
A .at the apex of the heart
B. in the second intercostal space on the right at the sternum

C. in the second intercostal space to the left of the sternumn
109. For stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice characteristic

A. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, aggravated by exhalation
B. Accent and split II tone over the aorta
C. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, aggravated by inspiration

D. Additional high-frequency tone in diastole, separated from tone II by 0.07-0.12 Seconds
E.Weakening of the I tone at the top
110. The most informative method for the diagnosis of myocardial inflammation syndrome:
A. ECG
B. ECHO
C. Bicycle ergometry
D. D. Coronary angiography
E. E radiography
111. What is the symptom characteristic of the appearance of patients with Stenosis of the
aortic mouth:
A. Diffuse cyanosis of the skin

C. symptom Musset
D. “dancing carotid”
E. capillary pulse
112. Of the listed risk factors for coronary insufficiency, the most significant “triad” is:
A. Obesity, hypodynamia, male

B. hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, smoking
C. Arterial hypertension, hypodynamia, obesity
D. Impaired carbohydrate tolerance, obesity, smoking
E. menopause, obesity, hypodynamia
113. A common symptom in the objective status of patients with aortic valve insufficiency and
aortic stenosis is:
A .pallor of the skin
B. symptom Musset
D. capillary pulse
E. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure
114. For patients with myocardial inflammation syndrome, the following complaints are most
characteristic:
A. pain in the heart, palpitations, shortness of breath

B. pain in the heart, palpitations, Iainüng
D. pain in the heart, fever, dry cough
E. fainting, fever
115. Specify the anti-atherogenic class of lipoproteins:
B. HDL-cholesterol
C. LDL cholesterol
D. Triglycerides
E. chylomicrons
116. Click open mitral valve
A.occurs 0.06-0.12 seconds after the closure of the aortic valves

B.Characteristic of mitral insufficiency
C.characteristic of aortic stenosis
D.Best heard at Botkin-Erb

E.Characteristic of aortic insufficiency
117. Paradoxical pulse is:
A. alternation of pulse waves of large and small filling:
B. decrease or disappearance of inhalation pulse waves;
C. discrepancy between the number of pulse waves and the number of heartbeats;
D. unequal pulse wave intervals
E. amplification of the pulse wave on the exhale

118. Name the ECG-sign, which is a reflection of myocardial ischemia:

B. Deep, broad Q wave
C. ST segment depression
E. Deformation of the P wave
119. Quincke precapillary pulse occurs when:
A. stenosis of the mouth of the aorta;
B.Aortic valve insufficiency;

C. mitral stenosis;
D. mitral insufficiency;
E. pulmonary insufficiency.
120. One of the following laboratory indicators confirms the syndrome of acute coronary
insufficiency in a patient with an anginal attack:
A. decreased hemoglobin
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Increased ESR
D.Increased activity of serum troponins

E. lymphocytosis
121. Conduction disturbances include:
A. Extrasystolic arrhythmia
C. Paroxysmal tachycardia
D. AV block
E. Sinus tachycardia
122. Hypertension is characterized by the following level of increase in blood Pressure:

A. ≥130/90 mm Hg
B.> 140/100 mm Hg
C. ≥140/90 mmHg
D. ≥130/80 mm Hg
E ≥120/80 mm Hg
123. The appearance of a large-wave undifferentiated line on the ECG in the absence of a P
wave and a QRS complex indicates:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Heart asystoles
124. When asystole on the ECG is recorded:

A. SImall wave undifferentiable line
B. large-wave undifferentiable line
C. straight line
D. Absence of P wave and change of QRS form
E. the presence of pauses lasting up to 3 seconds
125. The right border of the absolute dullness of the heart is normally located:
A. on the right edge of the sternum;
B. on the left edge of the sternum;
C. 3 cm medially from the right mid clavicular line;

D. along the percutaneous right line.
E on the midclavicular line
126. For the second tone of the heart, the following statement is true:
A. between II and I heart tones a short pause;
B. louder at the base of the heart;
C.Coincides with the apical impulse;

D. coincides with the pulse of the carotid arteries;
E. slightly lower and longer than I tone.

127.Acrocyanosis is determined by:
A. on the back
B. on mucous membranes
C. on auricles, nose tip, fingers and toes
D. in the forearm area
E.On the lower limbs
128.The most informative laboratory test confirming the diagnosis of endocardial intlammation
syndrome is:
A. sharp acceleration of ESR

B. anemia
C.Neutrophilic leukocytosis
D. leukopenia
E. Positive blood culture at blood cudture
129. Accent II tone in the 2nd intercostal space on the right is noted when:
A. Aortic stenosis
B.Aortic insufficiency
D. pulmonary arterial hypertension

E. tachycardia
130. What is the level of blood pressure of the following corresponds to the 3 rd degree of
arterial hypertension A. 140/90 mm Hg
B. 180/110 mm Hg
C. 160/100 mm Hg
D. 150/99 mm Hg
E.170/100 mm Hg
131. Normaky, the duration of the ventricular QRS complex:
A. more than 0.12”

B. More than 0.11”
C. Less than 0.10”
D. Less than 0.14”
E. Less than 0.02
132. Wave P on ECG reflects:
A. Depolarization of the interventricular septum

B. B. depolarization of the left ventricle
C. C. repolarization of the right ventricle
D. D. Atrial depolarization
E. E. repolarization of the left ventricle
133. In mitral stenosis, the borders of the heart are displaced:

A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C.Right and left

D. Right and up
E. not shifted
134. In mitral insufficiency, the borders of the heart are displaced:
A. Left and up
B. Left and down
C. Right and left
D. not shifted
E. Right and up
135. In case of insufficiency of the aortic valve, the border of the heart is displaced:
A. Left and up
B. Left and down

C.Right and left
D. not shifted
E.Right and up
136. With compensated stenosis of the aortic aperture, the borders of the heart are displaced:
A. Left and up
B. Left and down

C.Right and left
D. not shifted
E.Right and up
137. What level of blood pressure of the following do you consider normal?
A. 160/70 mm Hg
B. 180/80 mm Hg
C.120/90 mm Hg
D. 140/80 mm Hg
E. 130/80 mm Hg
138. The mitral configuration of the heart is:

A. unchanged borders of the heart
B. enlargement of the right ventricle

D. endargement of both ventricles
E. enlargement of the left atrium and cone of the pulmonary artery
139. On the ECG, the absence of P-waves, waves f and diferent distances RR are Characteristic
of:
A. Atrial futter
B. Ventricular flutter
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
140. On an ECG, ventricular extrasystolic arrhythmia is characterized by the appearance of:
A. ST segment depression
B. widened and deformed QRS after unchanged P wave

C. premature extraordinary altered ventricular QRS complex
D.Premature extraordinary appearance of unchanged ventricular QRS complex E.
periodic loss of the QRS complex
141. Affection of the heart in the syndrome of primary arterial hypertension is manifested:
A. hypertrophy of the left atrium

C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D.Dilatation of the left atrium
E.Hypertrophy of the right atrium
142. Select the criterion for left ventricular hypertrophy:
A. R/S V1>1
B. R/S VS5 <1
C. Rv5+Sv1 ≥38mm
D. Sv1+ Rv5 ≥10.5mm
E. Rv1> 7mm
143. What changes on the ECG do you expect to get in a patient with chronic coronary
insuffciency syndrome outside the attack:
A. the appearance ofnegative T waves

B. ST elevation above isoline
C. Shift down the ST segment
D. normal ECG
144. The most characteristic complaints in chronic coronary insufficiency are:
A. pain in the heart of stabbing nature

B. pain in the left half of the chest for up to several hours, associated with the act of breathing
C. pain in the left half of the chest, resulting from a change in body position
D. burning pains behind the sternum, radiating to the neck and left arm, occurring during
physical exertion, arrested at rest or after taking nitroglycerin in 1-2 minutes E. Stitches in
the precordial region, at night, up to 3-4 hours
145. In mitral stenosis I tone:
A. Weakened at the top

B. strengthened at the base of the xiphoid process
C. “flapping’ at the top
D. weakened in the second intercostal space on the right
E. strengthened in the second intercostal space on the left
A .at the apex of the heart
B. in the second intercostal space on the right at the sterrnum;
C. in the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum;

147. The patient at the 4th auscultation point revealed a systolic murmur, which increases with
inspiration. This is typical for:
A. mitral valve insufficiency;
B. stenosis of the right atrioventricular orifice;

D. mitral stenosis;
E pulmonary valve insufficiency.
148. ECG changes with stenosis of the aortic mouth:
A. signs of left ventricular hypertrophy

B. .Signs of left atrial hypertrophy
C. signs of right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Signs ofright atrial hypertrophy
E. blockade of the right bundle branch block
149. Sinus bradycardia is often observed:
A. when eating
B. well-trained athletes at rest
C. Hypotension
D. emotional stress
150. For pericardial friction noise is typical:
A. listened in places auscultation valves;

B. held in the axillary region;
C. increases with pressure on the chest with a stethoscope;
D. is heard in the zone of relative dullness of the heart;
E. disappears when inhaling.
151. ECG is a sign of atrial extrasystolic arrhythmia:

A. the presence of a P wave in front of an extraordinary unchanged QRS complex followed by a
compensatory pause
B. irregular rhythm with QRS complex deformation
C. loss of every other QRS complex

D. the absence of a P wave in front of an extraordinary QRS complex, an extension of the QRS
complex
E. Fwaves
152. Three-leaved valve is better heard
A. In the fifth intercostal space on the left 1.5 cm inwards from the midclavicular line
B. In the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum
E. At Botkin-Erb Point
153. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia on ECG is manifested:
A. increase in heart rate to 160 min

B. The presence of wide deformed QRS complexes with a frequency of 140-220 per
minute
C. Frequent irregular appearance of ventricular QRS complexes without s.P
D. Normal unchanged QRS complexes with a frequency of >160 per minute
E. the emergence of extraordinary QRS complexes
154. Pathological Q wave on the ECG is detected when:
A. for chronic coronary insufficiency

B. with let ventricular hypertrophy;
C. with right ventricular hypertrophy;

D. Acute coronary insufficiency
E. inflammation of the pericardium
155. Determine the characteristic color of the skin with endocarditis:
A. Pallor
B. yellowness
C. Limited cyanotic blush
D. Color “coffee with milk”
E. Unilateral hyperemia of the cheeks
156. What level of blood pressure of the following corresponds to arterial hypertension of II
degree: Blood pressure A. 150/94 mm Hg
B. AD-138/80 mm Hg
C. AD -174/108 mm Hg
D. Blood pressure – 160/114 mm Hg
E Blood pressure -200/100 mm Hg8

157. The composition of atherosclerotic plaque includes:
A. tire and plaque core
B. spikes, tire
C. nucleus and processes
D. podocytes
E.Podocytes and nucleus
158.Laboratory indicators characteristic of acute coronary insufficiency:
A. an increase in troponin I or T
B. Anemia
C. Proteinuria
D. lymphopenia
E. leukocyturia
159. The most common causes of myocardial inflammation syndrome are:
A. Streptococcus
B. viruses
C.Staphylococcus
D. fung
E. parasites
CVS module. Examination control tests (MCQ) for
pathophysiology for 3 course students.
1. Substances with depressor action
A. adrenaline
B. angiotensin II
C. leukotriens C4, D4
D. prostaglandins E, A
2. Substances with depressor action
A. nitric oxide
B. angiotensin II
C. aldosterone
D. endothelins
3. Substances with presser action
A. adrenaline
B, kallikrein
C. prostaglandin E
D. nitric oxide
A. kallikrein
B. angiotensin II
C. prostaglandin E
D. nitric oxide
A. kallikrein
B. endothelin I
C. prostaglandin E
D. nitric oxide
6. What blood pressure values indicate the presence of
hypertension?
A. 170/110
B. 110/70
C. 120/80
D. 115/60
7. The secondary arterial hypertension is usually the
symptom of:
A. Liver disease
B.GIT disease
C. Renal disease
D. Lung disease
8. The secondary arterial hypertension is the symptom
of:
A. chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. gastric ulcer
C. primary aldosteronism
D. hypocorticism
9. Pathogenesis of renovascular arterial hypertension:
A. activation of rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
B. increase of secretion of glucocorticoids
C. decrease of secretion of depressor substances in
kidneys
D. increase of secretion of adrenaline

10. Pathogenesis of renoparenchymal arterial
hypertension:
A. activation of rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
B. increase of secretion of ADH
C. increase of secretion of adrenaline
D. inappropriate secretion of kinins, prostaglandins in
kidney
11.Arterial hypertension due to the coarctation of the
aorta relates to:
A. cardiovascular arterial hypertension
B. neurogenic arterial hypertension
C. endocrine arterial hypertension
D. drug arterial hypertension
12. Effects of Vasopressin in hypertension
development is:
A. increased natriursis
B. antagonize the pressure effects of angiotensin II
C. activate RAAS
D. increase blood volume
13. Renoprival hypertension is result of:
A. pathological dominant in cortical vasomotor area
B. excess of ADH
C. activation of RAAS
D. loss of renal depressor function

14. Increased systemic arteriolar resistance (TPR) is
major trigger mechanism of:
A. renoprival hypertension
B. primary (essential) hypertension
C. endocrine hypertension
D. renal hypertension
15. Hypertension due to Renal trigger mechanism is:
B. excess of ADH
D. excess of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
16. Vessel autoregulation imbalance in essential
hypertension is characterized by:
A. increased production of endothelin
B. increased production of Nitric oxide
C. increased arteriolar lumen
D. decreased basal arteriolar tone
17. Secondary hyperaldesteronism in essential
hypertension is result of:
A. increased sympathetic output
B. activation of depressor renal function
D. hyperplasia of adrenal cortex (Conn’s disease)

18. Hypertension may be developed due to:
B. deficiency of ADH
C. excess of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D. excess of renal kinine family synthesis
19. Major mechanism of primary (essential)
hypertension is:
A. increased systemic arteriolar resistance
B. coarctation of aorta
D. impairment of pressure buffer mechanism
20. Primary hyperaldesteronism, which cause
hypertension is result of:
A. increased sympathetic output
B. activation of RAAS
C. hyperplasia of adrenal cortex (Conn’s disease)
D. release of ADH
21. Hypertension due to excess of catecholamines is
result of:
A. Decreased cardiac output (CO)
B. Increased CO
C. Decreased TPR
D. Activation ANP synthesis

22. Mechanism of secondary hypertension resulting
from kidney diseases is:
A. coarctation of aorta
B. left ventricular hypertrophy
C. impairment of pressure buffer mechanism
D. activation of RAAS
23. Orthostatic collapse may be due to:
A. massive bleeding
B. pancreas crushing
C. intestinal infections
D. rapid transition from horizontal to vertical position
24. Symptomatic arterial hypotension may be due to:
A. anemia
B. pheohromocytoma
C. hyperaldosteronism
D. Cushing’s disease
25. Symptomatic arterial hypotension may be due to:
A. cholemia
B. pheohromocytoma
C. hyperaldosteronism
D. Cushing’s disease
26. Etiology of sinus tachycardia is:
A. increased sympathetic effects on the heart
B. decreased sympathetic effects on the heart
C. hypothermia
D. hyperoxaemia
27. Etiology of sinus bradycardia:
A. hypertermia
B. increased parasympathetic effects on the heart
C. increased sympathetic effects on the heart
D. hypoxia
28. Pathogenesis of respiratory arrhythmia:
A. formation of ectopic impulses
B. disturbance of tone of n. vagus
C. violation of excitation from the atria to the
ventricles
D. re-entry mechanism
29. What is transverse heart block?
A. violation of excitation by right bundle branch block
B. violation of excitation by left bundle branch block
C. violation of impulse conduction from the atria to the
ventricles through the atrioventricular node
D. formation of ectopic focus in the ventricles

30. Hemodynamic disorders appear due to:
A. sinus tachycardia
B. sinus arrhythmia
C. extrasystole
31. Severe hemodynamic disorders appear due to:
A. sinus tachycardia
B. sinus arrhythmia
C. extrasystole
D. ventricular fibrillation
32. Choose characteristic feature of venricular
fibrillation:
A. instead P wave many low voltage waves in ECG
B. appearance of ectopic focus
C. re-entry mechanism
D. attack of fast heart rate
33. Atrial Flutter is characterized by:
A. sudden onset and disappearance of increased heart
rate
B. pacemaker for heart is S-A node
C. pulse deficit
D. delayed impulse transmission

34. Complete A-V block is characterized by:
A. PR interval is more 0.2 sec
B. QRS intermittently dropped
C. P waves rate faster than QRS
D. QRS complex rate faster than P wave
35. Characteristic of sinus tachycardia is:
A. increased heart rate above 180 beats per minute
B. sympathetic nerves stimulation
C. vagal-acetylcholine effects
D. sudden onset and disappearance
36. Characteristics of paroxysmal tachycardia are:
A. increased heart rate but not above 180 beats per
minute
B. lasting for days
C. sudden onset and disappearance
D. pacemaker for heart is S-A node
37. Fall of ventricular pumping function is result of:
A. A-V complete block
B. ventricular fibrillation
C. atrial flutter
D. ventricular extrasystole
38. Ventricular extrasystole is result of premature
impulses from:
A. S-A node
B. A-V node
C. ectopic focus in atrium
D. ectopic focus in ventricle
39. Choose ECG characteristic features of ventricular
extrasystole:
A. P wave after QRS
B. P wave before QRS
C. P wave absence
D. PR interval is longer
40. Complete A-V block is characterized by:
A. atrial and ventricular pacemaker is the same
B. atrial and ventricular pacemaker is different
C. atrial pacemaker is ectopic focus
D. ventricular pacemaker is sinus node
41. Etiology of relative coronary insufficiency
A. infectious myocarditis
B. atherosclerosis of coronary arteries
C. thromboembolism of coronary arteries
D. hyperproduction of adrenaline
42. Injury of coronary arteries leads to:
A. primary arterial hypertension
B. myocardial infarction
C. heart hypertrophy
D. heart defects
43. Etiology of absolutely coronary insufficiency
A. oxygen deficiency in arterial blood
B. atherosclerosis of coronary arteries
C. stimulation of n. vagus
D. hyperproduction of glucocorticoids
44. Etiology of coronary myocardial necrosis
A. hormonal disturbances
B. effect of biogenic amines
C. effect of catecholamine
D. thrombosis of coronary arteries
45. Compensatory mechanism in myocardial ischemia
A. arrythmia
B. the occurrence of aneurysm
C. hyperproduction of glucocorticoids
D. intensification of collateral circulation
46. Consequences of acute myocardial ischemia
A. heart defects
B. pericarditis
C. cell necrosis
D. coarctation of aorta
47. Atherosclerosis is characterized by:
A. disease of vessel wall intima
B. disease of vessel wall media
C. disease of vessel wall endothelium
D. disease of vessel wall adventitia
48. Choose reversible injury in Myocardial infarction:
A. pycnosis,
B. karyorrhexis
C. cellular swelling
D. karryolysis
49. Manifestations of angina pectoris include:
A. sudden onset of severe “crushing” substernal chest
pain
B. pain felt within the chest area
C. Neutrophilic leukocytosis
D. ECG changes: wide, deep Q waves
50. Atherosclerosis is characterized by:
A. low level of triglycerides
B. high level of low-density lipoproteins
C. high level of high-density lipoproteins
D. low level of low-density lipoproteins

51. Choose irreversible injury in Myocardial
infarction:
A. cellular swelling
B. swelling of mitochondria
C. accumulation of Na+, Ca++
D. karryolysis
52. Manifestations of angina pectoris include:
A. Fever
B. ECG changes: P waves absence
C. episodic chest pain often exertional or emotional
D. Serum cardiac markers :CK-MB, LD, AST, cTnT,
cTnI
53. Characteristic sign of atherosclerotic-damaged
coronary arteries is:
A. increased arterial wall stiffness
B. reduced arterial wall stiffness
C. increased arterial lumen
D. increased arteria elasticity
54. Angina attack pathogenesis is characterized by:
A. local acidosis
B. cardiomyocytes death
C. liberation of lysosomal enzymes
D. local ischemia more than 20 min

55. Manifestations of Myocardial infarction include all
following signs EXCEPT:
A. sudden onset of severe “crushing” substernal chest
pain
B. Fever, Neutrophilic leukocytosis
C. ECG changes: wide, deep Q waves
D. episodic chest pain often exertional or emotional
56. Characteristic sign of atherosclerotic-damaged
coronary arteries is:
A. increased arterial lumen
B. increased synthesis of relaxing factors
(NO,prostacyclin)
C. decreased synthesis of relaxing factors
(NO,prostacyclin)
D. decreased synthesis of contracting factors (TXA2,
endothelin)
57. Angina attack pathogenesis is characterized by:
A. karryolysis
B. liberation of lysosomal enzymes
C. release of mediators: histamine, bradykinin,
prostaglandin
D. pycnosis
58. Etiology of right heart ventricular failure:
D. pulmonary stenosis
59. Etiology of right heart ventricular failure:
D. hypertension of the pulmonary circulation
60. Sign of right heart ventricular failure:
A. attack of a dyspnea
B. cyanosis, ascites
C. hemoptysis
D. pulmonary edema
61. Sign of right heart ventricular failure:
A. attack of a dyspnea
B. pulmonary edema
C. pallor
D. swelling of the lower extremities, ascites
62. Etiology of left heart ventricular failure:
A. lung diseases
C. right ventricular infarction
D. mitral insufficiency
63. Etiology of left heart ventricular failure:
A. pulmonary hypertension
B. stenosis of the pulmonary artery
D. primary arterial hypertension
64. Sign of left heart ventricular failure:
A. acrocyanosis
B. swelling of the lower extremities
C. throbbing neck veins
D. cardiac asthma
65. Sign of left heart ventricular failure:
A. ascites
C. pulmonary edema
D. jugular venous distention
66. Etiology of overload form of heart failure:
A. hypervolemia
B. myocardial ischemia
C. myocarditis
D. extrasystoly
A. myocarditis
B. anemia
C. systemic arterial hypertension
D. systemic arterial hypotension

B. pulmonary hypertension
C. myocardial dystrophy
D. avitaminosis
69. Preload of the heart may be due to:
A. hypervolemia
B. arterial hypertension
C. arterial hypotension
D. mitral stenosis
70. Afterload of the heart may be due to:
A. heart valves insufficiency
B. erythremia
D. exercise
71. Overload of the heart with resistance may be due
to:
A. coarctation of aorta
B. heart valves insufficiency
C. dehydration
D. hypervolemia
A. hypovolemia
B. myocardial ischemia
C. myocarditis
D. mitral insufficiency
73. Long-term adaptation of cardiac function may be
due to:
A. tachycardia
B. myocardial hypertrophy
C. bradycardia
D. formation of connective tissue
74.What kind of changes takes place in compensation
stage of heart failure?
A. tonogenic dilatation
B. tachycardia
C. myocardial hypertrophy
D. myogenic dilatation
75. What is the primary change in hemodynamic
parameters in the development of heart failure?
A. decreased BP (blood preasure)
B. increased BP
C. decreased SV (stroke volume)
D. decreased CO (cardiac output)
76. Sign of emergency (extra) phase of cardiac
hyperfunction by Meerson:
A. hyperfunction of non-hypertrophy myocardium
B. hyperfunction of hypertrophy myocardium
C. myogenic dilatation
D. formation of connective tissue

77. Etiology of myocardial form of heart failure
A. heart defects
B. arterial hypertension
D. myocardial infarction
78. Etiology of myocardial form of heart failure
A. hypertension of pulmonary circulation
B. hypertension of systemic circulation
C. aortic stenosis
D. myocarditis
79. Side effect of myocardial hypertrophy resulting
from valve defects is:
A. nucleus/cytoplasma ratio in cardiomyocytes is 1/5
B. nucleus/cytoplasma ratio in cardiomyocytes is 1/15
C. increased capillary/myocyte ratio
D. increased myocardial compliance during diastole
80. Diastolic heart failure means:
A. ability of heart chambers to fill with blood is
limited
B. heart chambers fill with too much blood
C. myogenic dilation
D. usually in eccentric hypertrophy

81. Choose characteristic sign of chronic congestive
right heart failure:
A. severe dyspnea
B. legs region edema
C. lungs interstitial edema
D. central cyanosis
82. Manifestation of congestive right heart failure is:
A. severe dyspnea
B. orthopnea
C. central cyanosis
D. hepatomegaly
83. Manifestation of congestive left heart failure is:
A. severe dyspnea
B. edema
C. acrocyanosis
D. hepatomegaly
84. Characteristic sign of heart valve insufficiency is:
A. incomplete valve closure
B. incomplete valve opening
C. cause concentric heart hypertrophy development
D. cause afterload of the heart chamber

85. Characteristic sign of heart valve stenosis is:
A. incomplete valve closure
B. cause eccentric heart hypertrophy development
C. cause afterload of the heart chamber
D. cause preload of the heart chamber

Examination questions of pathological physiology to
Blood system module for 3rd course students.
1. Choose characteristic sign of anemic syndrome:
A) Hypertension
B) Skin and mucosa pallor
C) Skin and mucosa redness
D) Hyperoxemia
2. The main characteristic sign of anemic syndrome is:
A) Increased number of RBCs
B) Increased amount of Hb
C) Hypoxemia
D) Hyperoxemia
3. The main factor determining clinical manifestation
of anemic syndrome is:
A) Decreased oxygen level in the blood
B) Decreased plasma protein level
C) Decrease heart blood supply
D) Decreased erythropoiesis
4. Pathological type of RBCs, which is related to
Anisocytosis include:
A) Sickle cells
B) Orthochromatic erythroblast
C) Macrocytes
D) Reticulocytes
Poikilocytosis include:
A) Spherocytes,
B) Target like cell
C) Megalocyte
D) Hypochromic cell
Anisochromia include:
A) Sickle cells,
B) Target like cell
C) Megalocyte
D) Spherocytes
7. Indicate etiologic factor of dyserythropoietic
anemia:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Genetic defect of Hb synthesis
C) Increased RBCs hemolysis
D) Suppression of BM by radiation
8. Development of dyserythropoietic anemia may be
due to:
A) Membranopathy
B) Hemoglobinopathy
C) Deficiency of iron
D) Rhesus (Rh) conflict

9. Usual consequence of acute posthemorrhagic
anemia is appearance of:
A) Poikilocytosis
B) Reticulocytosis
C) Anisocytosis
D) Megalocytosis
10. Choose pathological type of RBCs:
A) Orthochromatic erythroblast
B) Reticulocytes
C) Sickle cells
D) Proerythroblast
11. Reticulocytes are characterized by presence in
cytoplasm:
A) Pathological toxic granules
B) Heinz bodies
C) Large pallor center
D) Residual ribosomes and mitochondria
12. Increased erythropoietin synthesis is result of
hypoxic stimulation of:
A) Chemoreceptors of aortic arch
B) Chemoreceptors of carotid bodies
C) Kidney JGA cells
D) Liver cells
13. Regenerative anemia is characterized by:
A) Ineffective erythropoiesis
B) Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) production
C) Stimulation of special receptors of erythroblast by
EPO
D) Stimulation of special receptors of CFU-E stem cells by EPO
14. Hyporegenerative anemia is characterized by:
A) Decreased number of reticulocytes
B) Increased number of reticulocytes
C) Effective erythropoiesis
D) Stimulation of special receptors of CFU-E stem
cells by EPO
15. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis is:
A) Normal physiological process
B) Disorders of RBCs precursors iron uptake
C) Disorders of RBCs precursors division
D) Disorders of RBCs precursors maturation
16. Compensatory reaction to hypoxemia in anemic
syndrome is:
A) Dizziness
B) Thachycardia
C) Decreased blood pressure tendency
D) Skin and mucosa pallor

17. Choose etiologic factor to development of intrinsic
hemolytic anemia:
A) G6PD deficiency (favism)
B) "Warm" and "cold" autoantibodies against RBCs
C) Rhesus (Rh) conflict
D) Lead poisoning (plumbism)
18. Choose etiologic factor to development of extrinsic
hemolytic anemia:
A) Point mutation in Hb synthesis
B) G6PD deficiency (favism)
C) Lead poisoning (plumbism)
D) Α-globin synthesis defect
19. Indicate hemolytic anemia type, related to
membranopathy:
A) Hereditary spherocytosis (Minkowski–Chauffard
syndrome)
B) Thalassemia
C) Sickle-cell disease
D) G6PD deficiency anemia
hemoglobinopathy:
A) G6PD deficiency anemia
B) Thalassemia
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis (Minkowski–Chauffard
syndrome)
enzymopathy:
A) Sickle-cell disease
B) Plumbism
C) Favism
D) Thalassemia
22. What from these dates about iron balance is false?
A) Best absorbed forms of iron come from animal
products
B) Daily iron absorption in adulthood is 1-2 mg
C) For iron absorption IF is needed
D) Ferritin is body stores of iron
23. Iron deficiency causes:
A) Impairment of DNA synthesis
B) Impairment of Hb synthesis
C) Impairment of BM stem cells division
D) Impairment of myelin synthesis
24. Choose etiology of iron deficiency anemia, related
to loss of iron:
A) Uterine chronic hemorrhage
B) Pregnancy
C) Lack of dietary iron
D) Iron malabsorption
25. Choose etiology of iron deficiency anemia, related
to increased demand for iron:
A) Duodenitis
B) Hemorrhoids
C) Mother with breast-fed of infant
D) Nutritional iron deficiency
26. Indicate major mechanism of iron deficiency
anemia development:
A) Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
B) Disorder of cells maturation in erythropoiesis
C) Disorder of cells division in erythropoiesis
D) Increased hemoglobinization process in
erythropoiesis
27. Choose correct mechanism of iron deficiency
anemia development:
A) Increased synthesis of cytochromes
B) Increased synthesis of myoglobin
C) Ineffective erythropoiesis constitutes about 15%
D) Ineffective erythropoiesis constitutes about 30%
28. Indicate characteristic signs of peripheral blood
picture in iron deficiency anemia:
A) Macrocytic erythrocytes
B) Macrocytic ovalocytes
C) Cabot's rings
D) Large pale centers’ erythrocytes

29. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by
appearance in peripheral blood of:
A) Hypochromic erythrocytes
B) Hyperchromic erythrocytes
C) Unstable Hb precipitates as Heinz bodies in the
center of cell
D) Normochromic erythrocytes
30. Characteristic features of iron deficiency anemia
are following EXCEPT:
A) Koilonychias
B) Defects in myelination
C) Lack of myoglobin
D) Increased epithelial desquamation
31. Choose etiologic factor for Pernicious (Addison-
Biermer) anemia development:
A) Gastrectomy
B) Diphyllobotriosis
C) Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
D) Chronic hepatitis
32. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes impairment of:
A) Cytochromes synthesis
B) Hb synthesis
C) DNA synthesis
D) Myoglobin synthesis
33. Choose etiologic factor of B12 deficiency anemia,
which don't relate immune mechanism:
A) Atrophy of parietal cells
B) Destruction of parietal cells by autoantibodies
C) Anti-IF antibodies
D) Anti-IF receptors antibodies
34. Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to:
A) Normoblastic erythropoiesis
B) Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
C) Stimulated erythropoiesis
D) Decreased hemohlobinization of erythropoiesis
related cells
35. Lack of adenosylcobalamin as metabolic form of
vitamin B12 may cause to:
A) Impairment of activation of folic acid
B) Impairment of DNA synthesis
C) Impairment of myelin synthesis
D) Atrophy of tongue's papillae
36. Lack of methylcobalamin as metabolic form of
vitamin B12 may cause to:
A) Accumulation of methylmalonic acid
B) Activation of folic acid
C) Decrease of tetrahydrofolate (THF) formation
D) Activation of DNA synthesis

37. Folic acid deficiency anemia in compare with B12
deficiency anemia cannot cause:
A) Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
B) Neurological symptoms
C) Gastrointestinal symptoms
D) Skin atrophy
38. Indicate characteristic signs of peripheral blood
picture in B12 deficiency anemia:
A) Large pale centers’ erythrocytes
B) Miacrocytic erythrocytes
C) Spherocytes
D) Erythrocytes with nuclear remnants
39. Choose etiologic factor of thrombocytopathy:
A) B12 deficiency
B) Radiation
C) Decreased synthesis of vWF
D) Splenomegaly
40. Choose etiologic factors of Henoch-Schonlein
perpura:
A) Cross-reactive IgA after streptococcal infection
B) Synthesis of vWF with pathological structure
C) Decreased platelet production
D) Vitamin C deficiency
41. What from these dates about Verlhov's disease is
false?
A) Primarily thrombocytopenia
B) Presence autoantibodies (Ig G)
C) Increased platelet destruction
D) Decreased platelet production – thrombocytopoiesis
42. Von Willebrand's disease (VWD) belongs to:
A) Primary thrombocytopenia
B) Primary thrombocytopathy
C) Vasopathy
D) Secondary coagulopathy
43. Determine etiologic factor for hemophilia B
development:
A) Deficiency of IXF, which is X-linked recessive trait
B) Deficiency of XIF, which is autosomal dominant
trait
C) Deficiency of VIIIF, which is X-linked recessive
trait
D) Defects in platelet glycoprotein receptors (GPIb)

44. Indicate etiologic factor for hemophilia A
development:
A) Deficiency of XIF, which is autosomal dominant
trait
B) Deficiency of IXF, which is X-linked recessive trait
C) Deficiency of VIIIF, which is X-linked recessive
trait
D) Defects in platelet glycoprotein receptors (GPIb)
45. Choose specific features, which characterized
hemophilia C:
A) Deficiency of IXF, which is X-linked recessive trait
B) Bleeding into joints (hemarthroses) and closed
Spaces
C) Appearance of symptoms in childhood in boys
D) Appearance of symptoms in adults (male and

female)
46. More characteristic sign of pathology related to

coagulation disorders is:
A) Petechia
B) Hemarthroses
C) Capillary hemoangiomas
D) Mucosal bleeding
47. Indicate more characteristic sign of hemorrhagic
syndrome related to vascular defects- vasopathy:
A) Petechia
B) Hemarthroses
C) Late rebleeding
D) Hematoma
48. Determine etiologic factor to secondary

coagulopathy:
A) Deficiency of vWF
B) Deficiency of Vitamin C
C) Deficiency of Vitamin K
D) Deficiency of VIIIF, which is X-linked recessive
trait
49. Choose platelet count which lead to purpura

appearance, but without bleeding development:
A) 200 000/mcL
B) 100 000/mcL
C) 60 000 /mcL
D) 20 000/mcL
50. Hemorrhagic syndrome related to vascular defects-

vasopathy is:
A) Osler-Weber-Rentu diseases
B) Verlhov's disease
C) Von Willebrand's disease
D) Hemophilia C
(DISSCUSSION) QUESTIONS
57. This ahythmia occurs when a reentrant” circuit is present, causing a repeated loop of electrical activity to
depolarize the atriums at a rate of about 250 to 350 beats per minute. This produces a characteristic
“sawtooth” patterm of the P waves. Which condition do you think about?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardin
C. Atrial premature beats
D. Atrial futter
E. Atrial fibrillation
58. A 62-year-old patient was refered to outpatient hospital due to atrial fibrillation. Patient has undergone
ECG. Which ECG changings do you expects in this case?
A. no visible P waves and irregular narow QRS complexes

B. no visible P waves and irregular wide QRS complexes
C. visible P waves and irregular narow QRS complexes
D. visible P waves and irregular wide QRS complexes
E. irregular in timing and morphology ultra-rapid baseline waves
59. This arhythmia is presented as a fast. Abnomal heart rate. It starts in heart’s ventricles, and is defined as
3 or more heartbeats in a row, at a rate of more than 100 beats per minute. How is it called?
A. Sinus brndycardia
B. Atrial fhutter
E. Pulmonary embol
67. What is the nomal range of left ventricle ejection fraction?

A. 55%
B. 45-549%
C. 45-5496
D. 25-34%
E. 15-249%
68. The volume of blood the heart pumps through the circulatory system per minute is called?
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Ejection fraction
D. Stroke volume
E. Cardiac output
69. What is the auscultation point of aortic valve?

D.4th intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
70. The most common symptom of left heart failure

A. Hepatomegaly
B. Qrthopnea, dyspnea
C. Ascites
81. A 56-year-old man complains of squeezing pain in the chest that occurs when walking after 200-00
meters. Pain reliefs at rest within 5 minutes, The symptoms are noted for several months. He went to his
family doctor. ECG was obtained at rest no changes detected. What dingnostic method will be the most
infomative for clarifying the diagnosis?
A. Lipid spectrum
B. Daily ECG monitoring
C. Echocardiograplly
D. Bicycle or treadmill test
E. Troponins
82. A 63-year-old womam complains on the chest pain developed at rest and lasted for 1.5 hours
accompanied by cold sweat, weakness. Nitroglycerin didn’t help to relief the pain. Patient history:
retrostemial chest pain wories her for about a year, which usually happens during moderate physical
exertion amd lasts for about 5 minutes. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Unstable angina
B. Stable angina FC Iv
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. New-onset angina pectoris
E. Vasospastic angina
83. A 52-year-old man admitted to the intensive care unit because of squeezing chest pain radiating to the
left am, interscapular space. The pain has started 1.5 hours ago. Examination: BP-120/70 mm HR., HR 88
beats per min. ECG: ST elevation in V1-V4 and ST depression in
B.Myocardial infarction
93. 36 years old male admitted to the hospital. After hypothermia, the body temperatıre increased to 38.7
C. accompanied by chills and sweat. Body temperature returmed to nomal for a short time, then increased
again to high numbers. When examining the heart, the picture of combined mitral defect. Respiratory rate
(RR) 22 per minute. Heart mte (HR) 90 per minute blood pressure (BP) 110/70 mm Hg. The liver protrudes 3
cm from the edge of the costal arch. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Syndrome of endocardium inflammation
B. Syndrome of pericardium inflammation
C. Syndrome of myocardium inflammation
94. 38 years old female admitted to the hospital. After hyypothermia, the body temperature increased to
38.7 C, accompanied by chills and sweat. Body temperature retumed to nomal for a short time. Then
increased again to high numbers. When examining the heat, the picture of mitral regurgitation detected.
Respiatory rate (RR)- 22 per minute. Heart rate (HR) 90 per minute, blood pressure (BP) 110/70 mm Hg.
Which laboratory test is needed to confirm the Syndrome?
A.Blood culture
101. 35 years old male admitted to the hostital with complaints of dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations. On cardiac
examinatiou there is a lateral displacement of the apical impulse, quiet $1, holosystolic murmur. What is
your preliminary dingnosis?
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Tricuspid stenosis
102. 34-year-old male admitted to playsician with complaints for the chest pain, noctumal dyspuea. fatigue.
Ou the auscultation: loud S1 and the opening suap after S2. Which of the following diagnostic tools is the
most infomative to confim the diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. Chest X-ray
C. Spirometry
D. Pulseoximetry
E. Echocardiography
103. Patient with symptoms of exertional dyspnea, fatigue, palpitatious has undergone ECG and P mitrale,
LV hypertrophy, atrial fibrillation has been revenled. On echocardiography: LV and LA hypertrophy. What is
your diagnosis?
B. Mitral stenosis
121. A 56-year old man admitted to the hospital with complaints of squeezing pain behind the sternum for
more than 1 hour. Patient is pale and anxious. Examination. BP-125/85 mmHg, HR - 82 bpm. ECG showed ST
segment elevation in V1-V4,Which laboratory test may help you to confirm diagnosis?
A.CRP
B. ESR
C.ALT, AST
D. Troponins
E. Creatinine
122. 62 years old male complains of retrosternal chest pain, radiating to the left am, jaw. Pain develops after
200-300 meters of walking or at rest and lasts 3-5 minutes. BP -130/70 mm Hg. HR-82 beats per min. Which
diagnostic method is necessary to confim diagnosis?
A. 24-hour ECG motnitor
B. 24-hour blood pressure monitor
C. Stress ECG test

D. Coronary angiogrnphy
E Chest X-ay
123. A 62-year-old woman admitted to the hospital through the ambulance with complaints of retrosternal
chest pain which lasts more than 1 hour. Patient is diaphoretic. Examination: Pale skin. BP125/85 mmHg.
HR82 bpm. ECG showed ST segment elevation in II, III, avF Which laboratory test may help you to confirm
diagnosis?
A. ALT, AST
B. Troponin I/T
C. ESR
D. CBC
E. Creatinine CRP
130. 50-year-old male complains of shortness of breath, swelling of the cervical veins, enlarged liver, ascites,
edema of the lower extremities. He was previously treated for tuberculosis. Heart Rate -96 per minute Heart
sounds are muffled. BP 100/80 mm Hg. ECG a decrease in Voltage. What is your preliminary diagnosis
A. Syndrome of pericardium inflammation

B. Syndrome of myocardium inflammation
C. Syndrome of endocardium inflammation
131. A 25-year-old male was admitted to the hospital because of pericardium inflammation syndrome. She
said that she fell ill 2 weeks ago, after a cold (shortness of breath, weakness, chest tightness appeared).
What examinations need to be administered?
A. Coronary angiography
B. Ultrasound of the liver
C. ECG and echocardiography
D. Chest x-ray
E. Pleural cavities ultrasound
132. 46-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with pericardial inflammation syndrome. He associates
his illness with hypothermia. Examination: fever, chills, sweating. Pain in the heart associated with the
breathing and changes of body position, pericardial friction rub, which increases during inspiration. What
examinations need to be administered?
A. Cardiac enzymes
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Analysis of urine
D. Total protein in the blood
E. Albumin in the blood
138. Patient with history rheumatic fever complaints for dyspnea, orthopnea, hemoptysis. ECG has detected
atrial fibrillation, left atrial enlargement. On Echo mitral valve area 0.8. cm2 What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Mild mitral stenosis
B. Moderate mitral stenosis
C. Severe mitral stenosis
D. Mild mitral insufficiency

E. Moderate mitral insufficiency
146. 17. In a patient with complaints of dyspnea for differential diagnosis between chronic heart failure and
other altemative causes of dyspnea, an analysis should be conducted for:
A. Detemination of natriuretic peptide
B. Detemination of catecholamines
C. Detemination of blood serum glucose
D. Detemination of serum electrolytes
E. Determination of the lipid spectrum
147. Ambulatory patient K. with anamnesis of rheumatic fever has symptoms like dyspnea, orthopnea,
hemoptysis. On examination mitral facies, loud first heart sound, opening snap of mitral valve have been
detected. What diagnostic method would you do to confim your preliminary diagnosis;
A. Chest x-ray
B. Angiography
C. ECG
D. Echocardiography
E. MRI
148. In a patient with complaints of dyspnea, edema, decreased tolerance to physical activity. On
examination jugular vein distention, murmurs. On Echo we determine akynesia of inferior wall of left
ventricle. What was the disease that caused heart failure:
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Aortic insufficiency
E. Aortic stenosis
150. 38 years old female was transferred to the cardiology department of the infectious diseases hospital,
where she stayed for 12 days due to enterovirus infection. Due to the appearance of changes in the ECG, she
was transferred to the cardiology department. CBC: leukocytes 10.4x10 9/L, ESR 22 mm/h. Biochemical
blood test: total protein 70 g1, albumin 59% globulins: al – 3.9%, a2-10.3%, p- 10.5%%, Y- 16.3%, creatine -
88 umol1, total bilirubin- 14.34umoll, fibrinogen-4 g1; CRP – increased. ALT and cardiac enzymes are not
increased. ECG: sinus rhythm. Heart rate 100 beats per min. Sinus tachycardia. Slightly negative T in all
precordial leads. What is your preliminary diagnosis
A. Syndrome of inflammation pericardium
B. Syndrome of inflammation myocardium
C. Syndrome of inflammation endocardium

77. The alternątion of strong and weak pulses caused by alterations in the stroke volume called?
A. Pulsus differens
B. Pulsus paradoxus
C. Pulsus deficiens
D. Pulsus parvus
E. Pulsus alternans
78. According to NYHA classification of heart failure, which of the following is associated wit no limitation of
physical activity?
A. Heart failure Class IV
B. Heart failure Class II
C. Heat failure Class II with preserved ejection fraction
D. Heart failure Class II with reduced ejection fraction

E. Heart failure Class I
79. The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen is called?

A.Ascits
85.65 years old male, complaints of headaches, dizziness. Risk factors: heavy smoker, diabetes positive
fanmily history. Examination: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg. What degree of arterial hypertension would
you put?

E. Prehypertension
86. 52 years old female complains on headaches, tinnitus. Anamnesis: she has been sufferin from diabetes
about for five years. Risk factors: heavy smoker, abdominal obesity, dyslipidemi Examination: blood pressure
150/90 mm. Hg. What is the risk of cardiovascular disease development in this patient?
A. no risk
B. mild
C. moderate
D. severe
E. high severe
87. 50 years old male complains on headaches, tinnitus. Risk factors: smokes about 10 years, overweight.
Examination: blood pressure 170/100 mm Hg. What degree of arterial hypertension will you diagnose? (ESC
classification)

E. Prehypertension
88. According to NYHA classification of heart failure, which of the following is characterized
by appearance.of symptoms at rest?
E.ClassIV
89. 60 years old male complains on headaches, dizziness, nausea. Risk factors: smoking, age, increased
weight. Examination: Blood pressure 180/110 mm Hg. What degree of arterial hypertension do you put?
(ESC classification)
A.I
B.II
C. III
E. Prehypertension
90. A patient 66 years old was admitted to the hospital with complaints of headaches, dizziness. Memory
loss. History: Coronary heart disease. Stable angina was diagnosed 5 years ago. Risk factors: diabetes
mellitus, age, heredity. Examination: BMI 32 kg/ m2. Heart rate 76 per minute. Blood pressure 150/100 mm
Hg. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. I degree arterial hypertension, high risk
B. I degree arterial hypertension, very high risk
C. II degree arterial hypertension, high risk
D. II degree arterial hypertension, very high risk
E. III degree arterial hypertension, high risk
91. 58 years old female, complaints of headaches, tinnitus. Risk factors: smoker for 14 years, overweight,
heredity. Examination: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg. What degree of arterial hypertension do you put?
(ESC classification)
A.I
IMPORTANT POINTS
Typical pain in angina - squeezing
typical localization of angina - Retrosternal
the typical duration of pain in coronary insufficiency – 3-5 minutes
if pain is more than 30 minutes it is - Myocardial infarction
Myocardial infarction on Echocardiography – akynesia/hypokinesia of walls
pathological (deep or wide) Q wave at ECG - Myocardial Necrosis
ECG sign that represents myocardial ischemia - ST-segment depression
Ig ECG at rest is normal to confirm diagnosis we should do - Treadmill test / Stress test
most informative instrumental diagnostics method for coronary insufficiency – angiography
the most informative laboratory diagnostics method for determining necrotic changes (in
myocardial infarction) – troponins (cardiac enzymes/biomarkers)
Holter monitoring defines - Rhythm disturbances
ST segment depression on ECG:
in I, aVL leads – high lateral
in II, III, aVF – inferior wall
optimal blood pressure <120/80 mm hg

normal blood pressure 120-129/80-84 mm hg
high normal blood pressure (prehypertension) 130-139/85-89 mm hg
hypertension grade 1 140-159/90-99 mm hg
hypertension grade 2 160-179/100-109 mm hg
hypertension grade 3 >180/110 mm hg
isolated hypertension >180/<90 mm hg
In hypertension if in anamnesis there is other disease like Angina or Diabeties – it is High severe
risk or Very high risk (of cardiovascular complications)
etiology of arterial hypertension – multifactoral or unknown
duration of treatment of hypertension - lifelong
target organs of arterial hypertension - Heart, kidneys, brain, eyes and aorta
ejection fraction normally - >55%
volume of blood the heart pumps through in 1 minute is called - Cardiac output
diagnosics of hypertension - 24-hour blood presure monitoring
Auscultation points :
Mitral valve – 5th intercostal space
Aortic valve – 2nd intercosal space right border of sternum
pulmonary valve – 2nd intercosal space left border of sternum
tricuspid valve – 4th intercostal space near the xiphoid process
(additional for aortic valve) Erb’s auscultation point - 3rd intercostal space, left sternal border
Normal area of mitral valve (bicuspid valve) – 4-6 cm2

Normal area of aortic valve – 2.5-3.5 cm2
De Musset's sign (rhythmic nodding of the head) - Aortic regurgitation
holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex – mitral regurgitation
normal left ventricular end-diastolic pressure? - 6-12 mm Hg
for diagnostics of valve diseases most informative is - Echocardiography
Single ventricular impulses caused by reentry mechanism within the ventricle or abnormal
automaticity of ventricular cells. They may present in both healthy patients and patients with a
heart disorder; it may be asymptomatic or cause palpitations. Diagnosed by
electrocardiography. What is it? - Ventricular extrasystoles
A patient with atrial fibrillation has high probability of development of - heart failure
prolonged PR interval on ECG. - Atrioventricular block I degree

at ECG: progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. Select correct
answer: - AV block, Mobitz type I/Wenckebach
On the ECG: irregular dropped beats. - AV block, Mobitz type II/Wenckebach
This condition can be recognized as a Complete block: at ECG - AV dissociation: no
relationship between P waves and QRS complexes. - Atrioventricular block, third-degree block
NYHA classification of heart failure:

Class 1 – no limitation in physical activity
Class 2 – slightly limitation
Class 3 – significant limitation
Class 4 – symptoms appear at the rest
For endocardium inflammation : Fever >38C

For diagnostic – blood culture
myocardium inflammation syndrome mostly - in young men , etiology frequently - bacteria

In which population the fulminant course of myocardium inflammation syndrome is more
common - in newborns and children;
For diagnostic of myocardium inflammation - byopsy

For pericardium inflammation - QRS complex is reduced, negative T wave in I, II, III, V2-V6
leads, friction rub, edema, ascities
Pericardial friction rub in pericardial inflammation syndrome - Is better heard in a sitting
position
for differential diagnosis between chronic heart failure and other alternative causes of
dyspnea - Determination of natriuretic peptide
Propaedeutics Internal Medicine 3rd year exam tests 2019-20
1.Respiratory system – 66
2.Cardiovascular system – 150
3.Digestive system – 120
4.Endocrine System - 81
5.Urinary System - 59
6.Hematopoietic system – 71
7.Skeletal muscle system – 100
TOTAL - 647
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. Indicate the most characteristic changes in the chest during inflammatory

compaction of the lobe of the lung:
A. decrease in half of the chest, its retraction and lag in breathing
B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and smoothing of the intercostal
spaces
C. only half of the chest is involved in breathing
E. an increase in the anteroposterior and transverse dimensions of the chest,
retraction of the intercostal spaces in the lower lateral parts on both sides
2. What percussion sound appears in the inflammatory compaction of lung tissue?

A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
D. dullness with a tympanic note
E. boxed
3. For what purpose coughing is used as an additional technique for auscultation of

the lungs?
A. to distinguish pleural friction rub from crepitus and wheezing
B. to detect latent bronchial obstruction
C. in order to distinguish between dry wheezing and wet wheezing
D. to distinguish wheezing from crackles
E. for better listening to pathological bronchial breathing
4. What is the most common respiratory sound heard in lobar inflammatory

compaction?
A. impaired vesicular breathing
B. amphoric breathing
D. hard breathing
E. mixed bronchovascular breathing
5. What is the cause of crepitation?

A. the presence in the alveoli (parietal) of a small amount of exudate or
transudate
B. inflammation of the pleura
C. alveoli completely filled with exudate or transudate
E. viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or spasm
6. Crackesoccure in:
A. alveoli
B. small bronchial tubes
C. middle bronchi.
D. large bronchi.
E. bronchioles.
7. What kind of sputum in patients with focal pulmonary compaction syndrome?

A. Vitreous
B. Mucopurulent
C. Three-layer
D. "rusty"
E. Serous, foamy pink.
8. What is observed during an X-ray examination of the lungs with lung tissue
compaction syndrome?
A. Lobar dimming of lung tissue.
B. Increased transparency of the pulmonary fields
C. Lobular enlightenment of the tissue.
D. The presence of a round focus of enlightenment with fluid level.
E. Dimming along the interlobar sulcus.
9. What is the difference between crackles and moist bubbly rales?

A. occur on expiration;
B. occur on inspiration;
C. occur during inhalation and exhalation;
D. no difference
E. disappear after inspiration
10. Select the symptoms of the inflammatory compaction syndrome of the lung
tissue:
A. chest pain radiating to the left arm
B. cough with sputum discharge "full mouth", mainly in the morning
C. fever, chills, cough with "rust-colored" sputum
D. asthma attacks with distant wheezing
E. Leg swelling, enlarged liver
11. Indicate the most typical changes in the chest in obstructive atelectasis:
A. half of the chest decreased, is retracted and lag in breathing
B. lag in breathing, half of the chest increased and smoothing of the intercostal
spaces
C. Only lag in breathing of the half of the chest
12. What is the main respiratory noise most often heard in the presence of a cavity
connected to the bronchus?
B. bronchial breathing
C. Amphoric breathing
D. hard breathing
13. Increased vocal fremitus, tympanic sound, bronchial, sometimes amphoric

breathing, an abundance of moist sonorous rales in a limited area, profuse purulent
sputum is observed in the syndrome:
A. increased airiness of the lungs
B. lung tissue compaction
C. fluid in the pleural cavity
D. air in the pleural cavity
E. presence of the lung cavity
14. A macroscopic examination of sputum in a syndrome of the cavity of the lung
tissue:
A. Profuse, excreted with full mouth, with an unpleasant odor with an
admixture of blood, purulent, has two layers.
B. It is allocated in a large number no in the evening, has mucopurulent character.
C. Lean, viscous.
D. "Rusty", odorless mucopurulent.
E. Mucopurulent in a small amount without impurity of blood.
15. What is the cause of the wet coarse wheezing?

A. viscous bronchial secretion in large bronchi
B. viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or their spasm
C. liquid bronchial secretion in large bronchi or cavities communicating with
the bronchus
D. liquid bronchial secretion in the small bronchi with preserved airiness of the
surrounding lung tissue
E. liquid bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and inflammatory compaction of
the surrounding lung tissue
16. Which of the sputum elements reliably indicates the destruction of lung tissue?
A. Charcot-Leiden crystals;
B. white blood cells;
C. Kurshman spirals;
D. elastic fibers;
E. red blood cells.
17. Characterize wet wheezing:

A. is heard on inhalation and exhalation, crackling or “bursting of bubbles”,
disappears when simulating respiratory movements
B. is heard on inspiration, the sound "f", above all pulmonary fields,
C. is heard on the inhale and exhale over the larynx, the sound is "ha ha,
D. is heard on the inhale and exhale above the pulmonary fields, the sound "f",
E. is heard only on inspiration, crackling or creaking of snow, disappears on
inspiration
18. The most informative method for the presence of a cavity in the lung:
A. blood test
B. Sputum analysis
C. spirometry
D. radiography
E. bronchophony
19. What is typical for the syndrome of bronchiectasis?

A. caverns
B. tumors
C. pus in dilated bronchi
D. fluid in the pleural cavity
E. Thin-walled closed cavities in the lung
20. What kind of shortness of breath is most typical for spasms of the small
bronchi?
A. stridor respiration
B. expiratory dyspnea
C. Kussmaul breath or Chayne-Stokes breathing
D. Chayne-Stokes breathing or Biot’s respiration
E. inspiratory dyspnea
21. What is causing the appearance of dry buzzing (bass) rales?

A. the presence in the alveoli (parietal) of a small amount of exudate or transudate
B. inflammation of the pleura (constrictive pleurisy)
C. Alveoli completely filled with exudate or transudate
E. Viscous bronchial secretion in the small bronchi and / or spasm
22. For what purpose is used forced expiration as an additional method for
auscultation of the lungs?
A. In order to distinguish pleural friction noise from crackles and wheezing
B. to detect latent bronchial obstruction
C. in order to distinguish between dry wheezing and wet wheezing
D. to distinguish wheezing from crepitus or pleural friction noise
E. for better listening to pathological bronchial breathing
23. For the syndrome of bronchial obstruction, the most characteristic auscultation
signs are:
A. bronchial respiration and crackles
B. prolonged expiration breathing, the appearance or intensification of
wheezing during forced expiration
C. Vesicular respiration and wet rales
D. impaired vesicular breathing
E. Bronchovascular breathing with prolonged inhalation
24. The functional sign of bronchial obstruction is:

A. Tidal volume change
B. Tiffno Index decrease
C. Decreased FVC
D. increased residual volume
E. increased PEFR
25. In what phase of breathing are wheezing heard?

A. on inhalation;
B. at the height of inhalation;
C. on exhalation;
D. on inhalation and exhalation.
E. end of exhalation
26. What is gasping?

A. subjective feeling of lack of air, accompanied by a change in the frequency,
depth and rhythm of breathing
C. an arbitrary or involuntary reflex act of protecting and self-cleaning the
respiratory tract from foreign bodies, mucus, pus and sputum
C. secretion of blood in sputum
D. Suddenly onset of lack of air
E. A painful barking cough
27. Which type of cough features in bronchial obstruction syndrome?

A. with mucus or purulent sputum discharge in the morning
B. simultaneous discharge of purulent sputum in large quantities
C. A painful cough with sputum
D. Cough with rusty sputum
E. Cough with foamy pink sputum
28. What syndrome is characterized by mucous vitreous sputum with the detection
of eosinophils, Kurshman spirals and Charcot-Leiden crystals in them?
B. lung compaction syndrome
C. cavity syndrome in lung tissue
D. pleural cavity syndrome
Syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue:
29. What percussion sound appears in emphysema?

A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
D. dullness with a tympanic hue
E. boxed
30. Indicate the most typical changes in the chest in emphysema:

A. Decrease in half of the chest, its retraction and lag in breathing
B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and smoothing of the intercostal
spaces
C. Only half breath in the chest
E. an increased dimension of the chest, shortening of the intercostal spaces in
the lower lateral sections on both sides in inspiration.
31. The leading complaint of patients with the syndrome of increased airiness of
the lung tissue is:
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Chest pain
D. Hemoptysis
E. Fever
32. When vocal fremitus is weakened?

A. In a normal condition
B. during increased airiness of the lung tissue
C. during compression atelectasis
D. above the cavity
E. during lung infiltration
33. What changes in lung structure are associated with the development of
pulmonary emphysema?
A. Overstretching of elastic fibers in the interstitium of the lung
B. Change in mucociliary index
C. Blood overflow of the cavernous venous plexus of the lower nasal passage
D. Spasm of the muscle plate of the mucous membrane of the small bronchi
E. Impaired Surfactant Synthesis
34. What is dyspnea?

A. subjective feeling of lack of air, accompanied by a change in the frequency,
depth and rhythm of breathing
C. an arbitrary or involuntary reflex act of protecting and self-cleaning the
respiratory tract from foreign bodies, mucus, pus and sputum
C. secretion of blood in sputum
D. Suddenly onset of lack of air
E. sudden loss of consciousness
35. During comparative lung percussion, the doctor determined the box sound
above both lungs, the lower border of the lungs is lowered by 3 cm, the active
mobility of the pulmonary edges is limited. What syndrome are we talking about?
B. lung compaction syndrome
C. cavity syndrome in lung tissue
D. pleural cavity syndrome
E. Syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue
36. X-ray signs of the syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue:
A. homogeneous infiltration
B. increased transparency of lung tissue
C. Inhomogeneous infiltration
D. cloudy infiltrates
E. ring-shaped shadows with horizontal liquid level
37. What causes predisposition to the development of increased airiness of the lung
tissue?
A. α-1-antitrypsin deficiency
B. excess α-1-antitrypsin
C. excess collagenesis
D. deficiency of creatine phosphokinase
E. excess phospholipase
38. What causes the appearance of pleural friction rub?

A. the presence in the alveoli (parietal) of a small amount of exudate or transudate
B. inflammation of the pleura
C. Alveoli completely filled with exudate or transudate
D. Viscous sputum in large bronchi
E. Viscous sputum in the small bronchi and / or spasm
39. Indicate the most typical changes in the chest in pneumothorax:

B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and smoothing of the
intercostal spaces
C. Only half breath is involved in the act of breathing
40. What is the most common respiratory sound most often heard in
pneumothorax?
D. hard breathing
41. Indicate the most characteristic changes in the chest with unilateral
hydrothorax:
B. lag in breathing, an increase in half of the chest and smoothing of the
intercostal spaces
C. Only half breath is involved in the act of breathing
42. Patient N., was referred to outpatient hospital with preliminary diagnosis:
“Syndrome of air in the pleural cavity;Pneumothorax”.What do you think, which
percussion sound did the doctor listen during percussion of patient`s thorax?
A. blunt or blunt
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
E. boxed
43. Patient M., was admitted to local hospital. Doctor inspected him, performed
auscultation, and put preliminary diagnosis: “Syndrome of fluid in the pleural
cavity;Hydrothorax”.What do you think, whichmain respiratory soundlistened by
physician during auscultation of patient`s thorax, did help to doctor to suspect
correct diagnosis?
D. hard breathing
44.Patient E., was referred to outpatient hospital with preliminary diagnosis:

“syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity, hydrothorax”.What do you think, which
percussion sound did the doctor listen during percussion of patient`s thorax?
A. blunt or dull
B. clear pulmonary
C. tympanic
E. boxed
45. What is the difference between pleural friction rub and fine bubbling rales?
A. by nothing;
B. heard only on inspiration;
C. heard only on exhalation;
D. does not change when coughing;
E. changes when coughing.
46. Evaluate the result of the study of pleural contents: relative density - 1027,
turbid liquid, greenish-yellow color, protein - 60 g / l, Rivalt test +++, sediment
microscopy - neutrophils cover all fields of view:
A. transudate;
B. purulent exudate;
C. hemorrhagic exudate;
D. serous exudate
E. chylous exudate
47. Patient O., was referred to outpatient hospital with preliminary diagnosis:
“syndrome of fluid in the pleural cavity”. Please select appropriate signs at
patient`s chest X-ray film:
A. homogeneous dimming of the lower part of the lung with the
Damoiseau line.
B. increased transparency of the pulmonary fields.
C. bright pulmonary field without pulmonary pattern.
D. spotted dimming of the pulmonary field.
E. dimming the approach of the interlobar sulcus in the form of a spindle.
48. In a syndrome of fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity above the fluid
accumulation area, the following is noted:
A. tympanic sound.
B. boxed sound.
C. pulmonary sound.
D. tympanic sound with a metallic touch
E. dull sound
49. X-ray signs of the syndrome of air in the pleural cavity:

A. homogeneous dimming of the lower part of the lung.
B. increased transparency of the pulmonary fields.
C. bright pulmonary field without pulmonary pattern.
D. spotted dimming of the pulmonary pattern.
E. dimming along the interlobar pleura in the form of a spindle.
50. In which direction does the mediastinum move with the syndrome of fluid in
the pleural cavity:
A. to the healthy side
B. to the sick side
C. does not move anywhere
D. moves down
E. moves up
51. In which direction does the mediastinum move with the syndrome of air in the
pleural cavity:
A. to the healthy side
B. to the sick side
C. does not move anywhere
D. moves down
E. moves up
52. A characteristic change in blood composition in respiratory failure is:

A. decrease in red blood cells and hemoglobin
B. increase in residual nitrogen
C. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
D. hyperlipidemia
E. hypoproteinemia
53. Obstructive type of respiratory failure syndrome is observed in:

A. Bronchospasm
B. Hydrothorax
C. Pneumosclerosis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Kyphoscoliosis
54. Patient N., was admitted to department of Pulmonology with diagnose:

“Respiratory Failure”. Please select blood test`s laboratory signs (mentioned
below), which could serve as a compensatory mechanism of respiratory failure:
A. lymphocytosis
B. thrombocytosis
C. erythrocytosis
D. eosinophilia
E. leukopenia
55. Patient K., has underwent clinical and instrumental investigation. The III-
degree of respiratory failure has been confirmed. Please select the level of SpO2 in
this clinical case:
A.> 90%
B. 90-94%
C. 75-89%
D. <75%
E. <60%
56. In case of II-degree respiratory failure the partial tension of oxygen (PaO2) in
arterial blood is:
A. 60-79mmHg Art.
B.> 80 mmHg Art.
C. 40-59 mm Hg Art.
D. <40 mmHg Art.
E. 20-39 mm RT. Art.
57. Patient O., was referred to department of Pulmonology with diagnose:

“Hypoxemic form of Respiratory Failure”. What do you think, which leading
pathogenic link took part in development of the hypoxemic form of respiratory
failure?
A. Diseases that directly affect the pulmonary parenchyma
B. Mechanical defects of the muscular and rib cage of the chest
C. Abdominal obesity
D. Violation of the regulatory functions of the respiratory center
E. Obstruction of the bronchi
58. Violation of external respiration is evidenced by a symptom detected during a

general examination, which is…
A. Chest changes
B. Pallor of the skin
C. Cyanosis
D. Facial hyperemia
E. Erythematous rash
59. Patient N., 46 y.o., worker at the factory, need full examination to rule out
respiratory failure. Upon conversation doctor gathered complaints and
suspectedthe first degree of chronic respiratory failure. What did the patient
complain?
A. Lack of shortness of breath during exercise
B. Shortness of breath with significant physical exertion
C. Shortness of breath with slight physical exertion and the inclusion of
compensatory mechanisms at rest
D. Dyspnea and cyanosis at rest
E. Shortness of breath and cyanosis in a dream
60. Indicate the point of the best auscultation of the pulmonary valve:
A. second intercostal space to the left
B. second intercostal space to the right
C. fifth intercostal space to the right
D. at the base of the xiphoid of the sternum
E. fifth intercostal space to the left
61. How will II heart tone change with increased pressure in the pulmonary
artery and severe hypertrophy of the right ventricle?
62. weakening of II tone in the pulmonary artery
B. accent of II tone on the pulmonary artery
C. accent and splitting of the II tone on the pulmonary artery
D. only splitting of II tone on the pulmonary artery
E. strong I tone over the pulmonary artery
63. A complication of the cardiovascular system that develops as a result of

chronic respiratory failure is:
A. arterial hypertension
B. hypertrophy of the right ventricle
C. arterial hypotension
E. Dilation of the left atrium
64. A characteristic radiological sign of a pulmonary heart is:

A. expansion of the heart to the right because of the RV
B. expansion of the heart to the left due to LV
C. Mediastenal displacement to the right
D. displacement of the mediastinum to the left
E. thickening of the pulmonary pattern
65. Patient L. admitted to internal medicine department of hospital N. Doctor

suspects pulmonary hypertension. Which instrumental method would you
prescribe at this clinical case to help doctor in confirming pulmonary
hypertension?
A. Radiography
B. Fluorography
C. ECG
D. Echocardiography
E. Spirography
66. Patient M. applied to outpatient hospital for checkup his respiratory system.
Patient underwent full investigation, and functional tests revealed normal level
of pulmonary artery pressure. What do you think, which values of patient`s
pulmonary artery pressure had been obtained?
A. 25-30mmHg
B. 50-60 mmHg
E. 70-80 mmHg
EXAMINATION TESTS "THERAPY" CVS
1. Select correct interpretation of palpation – enlarged high apex beat at VI

intercostal space 2 cm lateral from midclavicular line:
a. hypertrophy and dilatation of left ventricle (LV)
b. hypertrophy and dilatation of right ventricle (RV)
c. hypertrophy of left atrium (LA)
d. hypertrophy of right atrium (RA)
e. hypertrophy of left and right atrium (LA and RA)
2. Choose correct interpretation of palpation – significant cardiac impulse and

epigastric pulsation:
a. hypertrophy and dilatation of left ventricle
b. hypertrophy and dilatation of right ventricle
c. hypertrophy of left atrium
d. hypertrophy of right atrium
e. hypertrophy of left and right atrium
3. Palpation of heart at the apex beat revealed thrill which is not equal with carotid
pulsation. Which valvular disease can you suspect?
a. aortic regurgitation
b. mitral regurgitation
c. aortic stenosis
d. mitral stenosis
e. tricuspid regurgitation
4. What is the normal area of the aortic valve?
a. 1-2 cm2
b. 2-4 cm2
c. 4-6 cm2
d. 6-8 cm2
e. 8-10 cm2
5. What is the normal area of the mitral valve?

a. 1-2 cm2
b. 2-4 cm2
c. 4-6 cm2
d. 6-8 cm2
e. 8-10 cm2
6. Which heart disease is known for an increased systolic blood pressure and
decreased diastolic blood pressure?
a.Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic valve regurgitation
c. Mitral valve regurgitation
d. Mitral valve prolapse
e. Aortic stenosis
7. What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Invective endocarditis
d. Acute rheumatic fever
e. Chest trauma
8. For which valvular disease following changings of relative dullness of heart is

typical: right border – 1 cm medial from right sternal border, left – by the anterior
axillary line, upper - III ICS?
a. mitral stenosis
c. tricuspid regurgitation
d. aortic valve disorders
e. pulmonary stenosis
typical: right border – 3 cm to the right of sternum, left - 1 cm medial from left
midclavicular line, upper border - II ICS?
a. mitral stenosis
e. tricuspid reguurgitation
typical: right border – 1 cm lateral from sternum border, left - 2 cm lateral from left
midclavicular line, upper - II ICS?
a. mitral stenosis
e. tricuspid regurgitation
11. What are the most typical signs of arterial pulse “pulsusdifferens”?
a. significantly decreased or absence of pulsation at one artery radialis
b. significant decreased degree of pulse wave at both radial arteries
c. number of pulse waves at the artery radialis more than heart rate
d. pulse waves number at the artery radialis less than heart rate
e. moderately decreased degree of pulse wave at both radial arteries
12. What is the normal mitral valve area?

a. 1-2 сm2
b. 3-4 сm2
c. 4-5 сm2
d. 4-6 сm2
e. 7-8 cm2
13. What is the mitral valve area during critical mitral stenosis?
a. 1 сm2
b. 1,3 сm2
c. 1,5 сm2
d. 1,9 сm2
t. 2,0 cm2
14. Sinus bradicardia is – sinus rhythm with heart rate:
a. less than 60 per min
b. less than 75 per min
c. less than 85 per min
d. less than 90 per min
e. less than 100 per min
15. Auscultation results in mitral stenosis?

a. Loud S1; opening snap after S2; diastolic murmur
b. Holosystolic murmur; quiet S1; S3
c. Late systolic murmur; soft S2; S4
d. Early diastolic murmur; S3
e. Diastolic murmur with a decrescendo
16. What symptom is typical for left ventricular heart failure?

a. Hepatomegaly
b. Orthopnea, dyspnea
c. Ascites
d. Swelling of the feet
e. Anorexia
17. What is the main auscultative sign of mitral regurgitation?

a. diastolic murmur at the II intercostal space to the right
b. systolic murmur at the V ICS
c. diastolic murmur at the III ICS to the left
d. systolic murmur at the II ICS to the right
e. systolic murmur at the II ICS to the left
18. What is not typical for mitral regurgitation?

a. diastolic murmur at the 2nd ICS
b. systolic murmur at the 5th ICS
c. quiet S1
d. increased and enlarged apex beat, left ventricular hypertrophy signs
e. S3 gallop in advanced stages of disease
19. What is the direct sign of aortic regurgitation at the Doppler-

echocardiography?
a. regurgitation jet from right atria to right ventricle
b. regurgitation jet from left ventricle to left atria
c. regurgitation jet from right ventricle to right atria
d. regurgitation jet from aorta to left ventricle
e. regurgitation jet from pulmonary artery to right ventricle
20. What is the most common cause of myocarditis?

a. Viral infection
b. Fungi of the genus Candida
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pneumococcus
e. E. coli
21. At what age myocarditis typically develops?

a. in the children's
b. in the elderly
c. in adolescent
d. in young
e. does not depend on age
22. What happens with S1 during significant mitral regurgitation?

a. decreased
b. increased
c. unchanged
d. splits up
e. doubled
23. Which syndrome is characterized by loud S2?

a. syndrome of hypertension
b. syndrome of acute coronary insufficiency
c. syndrome of myocardial inflammation
d. syndrome of pericardial inflammation
e. syndrome of chronic coronary insufficiency
24. Position change in orthopnea alleviates symptoms of patients with…?

a. syndrome of hypertension
b. syndrome of acute coronary insufficiency
c. syndrome of chronic coronary insufficiency
d. syndrome of left heart failure
e.syndrome of pericardial inflammation
25. What is the typical localization of chest pain in patients with syndrome of
chronic coronary insufficiency?
a. retrosternal
b. left part of chest, at the apex area
c. right part of chest
d. epigastria
e. upper part of abdomen
26. Sinus tachycardia is - sinus rhythm with heart rate?

a. more than 55 per min
b. more than 60 per min
c. more than 75 per min
d. more than 85 per min
e. more than 90 per min
27. What does the “mitral flush” mean?

a. appearance of erythematous skin rash on the cheeks and nose
b. pale face
c. cyanosis of cheeks
d. left cheeks hyperemia
e. puffy face
28. Which symptom is typical for heart failure?

a. dizziness
b. dyspnea
c. chest pain
d. increased blood pressure
e. memory loss
29. Which rhytm disorder is characterized by independent contraction of atriums

and ventricles?
a. AV block III degree
b. atrial fibrillation
c. atrial form of paroxysmal tachycardia
d. ventricular extra systole
e. atrial flutter
30. AV block I degree on ECG is characterized by:

a. increased PQ interval> 0.20 sec
b. increased QT interval
c. increased QRS complex
d. the premature appearance of the QRS complex
e. presence of Delta wave
31. Appearance of pathological Q wave at ECG in the syndrome of acute coronary

insufficiency – is a reflection of?
a. subendocardial myocardial ischemia
b. myocardial necrosis
c. myocardial injury
d. subepicardial myocardial ischemia
e. transient myocardial ischemia
32. What is not typical for mitral regurgitation?

a. diastolic murmur
b. systolic murmur at the apex area
c. decreased S1
d. increased and enlarged apex beat, left ventricular hypertrophy signs
e. accent of S2 at second ICS to the left
33. Which ECG-sign is not typical for left ventricle hypertrophy?

a. left axis deviation - R1>R2>R3
b. prolonged PQ segment
c. increased amplitude of R wave in V5, V6, deepening of S wave in V1, V2
d. displacement of ST segment at V5, V6, I and аVL leads below isoline
e. right axis deviation
34. What is the cause of cardiac murmur in aortic stenosis?

a. blood regurgitation from aorta to left ventricle
b. expulsion of blood from left ventricle to aorta
c. blood regurgitation from left atrium to left ventricle
d. expulsion of blood from left atrium to left ventricle
e. blood regurgitation from left ventricle to left atrium
35. What is the reason of cardiac murmur in mitral stenosis?

a. turbulent blood flowfrom left ventricle to aorta
b. turbulent blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle
c. blood regurgitation from aorta to left ventricle
d. turbulent blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle
e. blood regurgitation from left ventricle to left atrium
36. What is the cause of cardiac murmur in aortic regurgitation?

a. blood regurgitation from aorta to left ventricle
b. pushing blood from left ventricle to aorta
c. blood regurgitation from left ventricle to left atrium
d. pushing blood from left atrium to left ventricle
e. blood regurgitation from right ventricle to right atrium
37. Which level of blood pressure is typical for aortic valve regurgitation?
a. 120/90 mmHg
b. 130/80 mmHg
c. 160/100 mmHg
d. 190/120 mmHg
e. 160/40 mmHg
38. What is the typical duration of pain during chronic coronary insufficiency?
a) 3-5 minutes
b) 15-25 minutes
c) 25-30 minutes
d) 30-60 minutes
d) more than 60 minutes
39. Which syndrome is known for paradoxical pulse (Pulsusparadoxus)?

a. syndrome of inflammation of the myocardium
b. syndrome of inflammation of the pericardium
c. syndrome of inflammation of the endocardium
d. syndrome of cardiac arrhythmias
e. syndrome of chronic coronary insufficiency
40. Which symptom not typical in heart failure?

a. edema
b. dyspnea
c. chest pain
d. orthopnea
e. ascites
41. On examination of the heart can be identified:

A. pulsation of the apex beat
B. sizes of heart
C. sizes of the vascular bundle
D. symptom murmur
E. diastolic murmur
42. Symptom of systolic or diastolic murmur can be defined by:

A. percussion
B. auscultation above 2nd intercostal space
C. palpation of chest
D. auscultation above 3rd intercostal space
E. auscultation above apex beat
43. Symptom of diastolic thrill is determined by:

C. mitral stenosis
D. aortic regurgitation
E. aortic stenosis
44. Patient N., 34 years old, admitted to inpatient hospital. Doctor performed
objective examination and revealed auscultate murmur above the apex ofheart.
Lesion of which valve should be suspected at this clinical case?
A. aortic stenosis
B. pulmonary
C. mitral
D. tricuspid
E. aortic regurgitation
45. On palpation on the basis of the heart revealed systolic or diastolic thrill with a
surge on carotids. This is typical for:
A. mitral stenosis
C. aortic stenosis
D. aortic insufficiency
E. tricuspid insufficiency
46 "Triangular" shape configurations of the heart character for:

A. mitral stenosis
D. exudative pericarditis
E. aortic stenosis
47. Auscultation of the heart in patients with severe heart failure can be identified:
A. rhythm of "quail"
B. protodiastolic gallop
D. extra-pericardial tone
E. atrial gallop
48 Carotid-shudder is a sign:
C. mitral stenosis
D. mitral regurgitation
E. aortic stenosis
49. Full A-V block characterized by:

A. increase of the PQ interval
B. unrelated rhythm of atrials and ventricles
C. different RR intervals
D. expressed deformation of the ventricular complex
E. pathological Q wave
50. II tone in aortic stenosis:

A. weakened at the aorta
B. loud at the aorta
C. loud at the apex
D. weakened at the apex
E. does not change
51. When present aortic stenosis we can auscultate:

B. diastolic murmur at the aorta
C. systolic murmur at the aorta
52. Positive venous pulse occurs when:

A. aortic stenosis
D. aortic insufficiency
E. mitral stenosis
53. ECG signs of AV block I degree:

A. the PQ interval < 0,12 sec
B. the PQ interval > 0,20 sec
C. no P wave
D. “f” waves
E. wide QRS complex
54. How many components I tone consist of:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
55. In aortic valve insufficiency we can auscultate:

B. protodiastolic murmur at Botkin - Erba
C. systolic murmur at Botkin – Erba
E. systolic murmur at the apex
56. Enhancing of the apex beat testifies to

A. the right ventricular hypertrophy
D. the left ventricular hypertrophy
E. hypertrophy of both atriums
57. Accent of the II sound on the pulmonary artery occurs when

A. the increase in pressure in the systemic circulation
B. hypertension of pulmonary circulation
C. the left ventricular hypertrophy
D. the dilatation of the left ventricle
E. aortic stenosis
58. ECG signs of atrial fibrillation

A. P wave high, ventricular complexes recorded at different time intervals
B. the disappearance of the P wave, ventricular complexes recorded at
different time intervals, multiple waves f
C. multiple small waves f, P wave high
D. the disappearance of the P wave, ventricular complexes recorded at regular
intervals, multiple waves f
E. wide QRS, tall R waves
59. Signs of left ventricular heart failure:

A. edema of shins, cough, dyspnea
B. cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea, orthopnea
C. edema of shins, hepatomegaly
D. swelling and pulsation neck veins
E. ascities, hepatomegaly
60. In case of insufficiency of the mitral valve auscultation is defined:
A. loud I sound at the apex of the heart
B. weakening I tone at the apex of the heart
C. "opening snap" of the mitral valve
61. The systolic murmur in aortic stenosis is held

A. in point Botkin-Erb
B. on the xiphoid
C. to armpits
D. on the vessels of the neck
E. to the abdominal aorta
62. Character the pain associated with the syndrome of chronic coronary
insufficiency:
A. sharp
B. shooting
C. burning
D. pressing
E. burning
63. Subjective characteristics of pain in the syndrome of chronic coronary

insufficiency:
A. constricting and pressing
B. stabbing
C. gnawing
D. knife-like pain
E. burning
64. De Musset's sign is observed at

A. aortic stenosis
B. mitral stenosis
E. mitral insufficiency
65. "Cardiac hump" occurs when

A. severe hypertrophy of left ventricular
B. severe hypertrophy of the left atrium
D. severe hypertrophy of the right atrium
E. severe biventricular hypertrophy
66. Diastolic thrill determined when
B. mitral stenosis
D. aortic stenosis
E. tricuspid stenosis
67. Systolicthrill determined when

B. mitral stenosis
D. aortic stenosis
68. Pulse deficiency occurs at

A. arterial hypertension
B. heart Failure
C. atrial Fibrillation
D. the aortic insufficiency
E. mitral stenosis
69. The upper border of relative cardiac dullness increased due

B. left ventricular hypertrophy
C. biventricular hypertrophy
D. hypertrophy of the right atrium
E. hypertrophy of the left atrium
70. For the left ventricular heart failure is characterized by:

A. edema of the feet
B. hepatomegaly
D. ascites
E. hepatomegaly
71. For the right heart failure is characterized

A. hepatomegaly
C. De Musset's sign
D. chest pain
E. low BP

A. deep pathologic Q wave
B. negative T waves
C. displacement of the ST interval
D. absence of P wave
E. wide QRS
73. Diastolic murmur at the aortic valve is held

A. interscapulum
B. at the apex
C. on the xiphoid
D. on the vessels of the neck
E. at the right 2nd intercostal space
74. The most informative method for diagnosis of coronary insufficiency is:
A. ECG
B. veloergometry
C. echocardiography
E. Ct-scan
75. The main method of diagnosis of the syndrome of heart rhythm disorders:
A. echocardiography
B. ECG
C.X-ray of the chest
E. CT-scan
76. The most informative method determining necrotic changes in the myocardium
is:
A. evaluation of leukocytes and ESR
B. evaluation of the level of alkaline phosphatase
C. evaluation of the level of transaminases
D. evaluation of troponins
E. evaluation of WBC
77. On the ECG PQ elongation equal 0,28sec. It indicates the presence of

A. sinoatrial block
B. atrioventricular block
C. extrasystols
E. bundle bruch block
78. The most reliable sign of mitral stenosis is

A. The increase in the left border of the heart
B. faciesmitralis
C. mesodiastolic murmur and the presence of "opening snap" of mitral
valve at the apex
D. flatness waist of the heart on X-ray examination
E. loud I tone at the apex
79. For the mitral valve insufficiency is not typical

A. loud first tone at the apex
C. increase of left borders of the heart
D. weakening I tone at the apex
E. loud I tone at the left 2nd intercostal space
80. Blood pressure in aortic insufficiency:

A. increased only systolic
B. increased only diastolic
C. increased systolic and decreased diastolic blood
D. decreased systolic and increased diastolic
E. doesn’t change
81. For the aortic valve insufficiency is not typical

A. pulsation of pupils
B. decrease of pulse pressure
C. fast and high pulse
D. high systolic blood pressure
E. low diastolic blood pressure
82. For the syndrome of heart failure is not typical

A. increase of the sizes of the heart
B. increase of blood pressure
C. decrease of cardiac output
D. acrocyanosis
E. hepatomegaly
83. ECG signs of left ventricular hypertrophy does not apply:

A. negative T waves in leads V5-V6
B. tall R waves in right precordial leads
C. tall R waves in the left precordial leads
D. deep S wave in right precordial leads
E. R in V5-6 + S in V1-2 > 38mm
84. Select the symptom, not the appropriate for right heart failure:
A. increase in liver
B. decrease in venous pressure
C. edema of the lower extremities
D. ascites
E. hepatomegaly
85. Uncharacteristic sign for left ventricular heart failure is:
A. cardiac asthma
B.hepatomegaly
C. moist rales in the lungs
D. cough
E. dyspnea
86. The causes of heart failure may include the following drugs:
A. ACE-inhibitors
B. NSAIDs
C. Statins
D. β-blockers
E. PPI
87. Which of the following is not a risk factor for coronary heart disease:
A. increase in high density lipoprotein
B. diabetes
D. smoking
E. hyperlipidemia
88. Аortic stenosis is heard:
A. systolic murmur at the cardiac apex
B. diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart
C. systolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
D. diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
89. The weakening of the first tone is not observed in:

A. mitral regurgitation
B. insufficiency of tricuspid valve
D. mitral stenosis
90. Specify the correct definition of the term "cardiac impulse":

A. pulsation right of the xiphoid
B. pulsation left of the xiphoid
C. local ripple in the third intercostal space at the left sternal border
D. diffuse ripple throughout precardiac region
E. surge in the fourth, fifth, sixth intercostal space at the left border of the relative
dullness of the heart
91. In order to identify pericardial effusion is the most informative method:

A. ECG
B. coronary angiography
C. echocardiography
D. X-ray examination of the chest
E. CT-scan

A. the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure
C. the amount of blood ejected by the ventricles in systole
D. the amount of blood ejected by the Atria to the ventricles
E. the difference between pulse and heart beat rate
93. Risk factors for hypertension does not include:

A. family history
B. hypocholesterolemia
C. abuse of table salt
D. alcohol abuse
E. smoking
94. What are the symptom characteristic of aortic stenosis:

A. De Musset’s sign
B. regular carotid pulsation
C. systolic murmur at the aortic with irradiation to the neck vessels
D. accent II tone on the pulmonary artery
95. Specify the cause of the syndrome acute coronary insufficiency:

A. coronary artery thrombosis
B. inflammation of the coronary arteries
D. arterial hypertension
E. trauma
96. Patient 42 years a significant shift of borders of relative dullness of the heart to
the left, increasing the apical impulse, pronounced symptom of "systolic jitter" in
the 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum and the same - weakening II
tone. Which of the following auscultatory phenomena must necessarily be the case
in this patient?
B. diastolic murmur at the apex
C. systolic murmur over the aorta
D. diastolic murmur over the aorta
E. systolic murmur at the xiphoid
97. The most informative method to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of heart
disease is:
A. ECG
B. echocardiography
C. chest x-ray
E. MRI
98. For a syndrome of insufficiency of the aortic valve is not typical:

A. ripple pupils
B. the decrease in pulse pressure
C. fast and high pulse
D. high systolic blood pressure
E. low diastolic pressure
99. For the syndrome of heart failure is not typical:

A. increase in heart size
B. gallop
C. chest psin
D. weakening of the apical impulse
E. systolic murmur
100. For the syndrome of inflammation of the endocardium is not typical:

A. positive blood culture
C. high fever
C. the appearance of pathological Q wave on the ECG
D. increase in ESR
E. vegetations on valves
101. To the targets organs in hypertension does not include:

A. kidney
B. heart
C. liver
D. the vessels of the ocular fundus
E. lungs
102. Patients with hypertension in the study of the ocular fundus is not
characteristic detection:
A. narrowing of the arteries of the retina
B. arterial tortuosity
C. vascular tortuosity
D. expansion retinal arteries
E. dilated veins
103. ECG sign of chronic coronary insufficiency is:

A. prolongation of the interval Q-T
B. prolongation of the interval P-Q
C. Q-wave amplitude of more than a third of R and longer than 0.03 seconds
D. change in the ST segment and T wave
E. pathological Q
104. ECG sign of acute coronary insufficiency is:

A. pathological Q
B. premature appearance of the P wave
C. Q-wave amplitude of more than a third of R and longer than 0.03 seconds
D. decrease in the amplitude R
E. change in the final part of the ventricular complex (ST segment) and T
wave
105. Echocardiographic sign of acute coronary insufficiency:

A. diffuse hyperkinesis
B. diffuse hypokinesis
C. local hypokinesis
D. local hyperkinesis
E. diffuse hyperkinesis
106. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by:

A. QRS>0.20 ms
B. availability of premature QRS complexes
C. presence of f - waves.
D. wide P waves
E. inverted T wave
107. For ventricular arrhythmias is not typical:

A. premature QRS complex
B. extrasystolic QRS complex expanded and deformed
C. have a full compensatory pause
D. Presence of P wave before extrasystolic complex
108. For supraventricular arrhythmia is not typical:

A. premature QRS complex
B. extrasystoly similar to the main QRS
C. the presence of a full compensatory pause
D. the presence of strain, and P wave before ekstrasystolichniy complex
109. Mitral stenosis characteristic symptom:
A. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, and the increasing expiratory
B. accent and split II tone of the aorta
C. systolic murmur at the apex of the heart, worse on inspiration
D. additional high-frequency tone in diastole, distant from II tone on
0.07-0.12 seconds
E. Soft S2 at aorta
110. The clinical manifestations of the syndrome of tricuspid valve diseases does
not apply:
A. ascites
B. pulmonary edema
C.gepatomegaliya
D. edema
E. dyspnea
111. What are the symptoms in the objective status of patients with aortic stenosis:
A. diffuse cyanosis of the skin
B. pale skin
C. De Musset’s sign
D. "dance carotid"
E. orthopnea
112. Pulse pressure in patients with aortic stenosis:

A. does not change
B. increases
C. decreases
D. increases sharply
E. decreases sharply
113.Typical symptom in the objective status of patients with aortic valve

insufficiency and aortic stenosis is:
A. pale skin
B. De Musset’s sign
D. capillary pulse
E. orthopnea
114. For patients with a syndrome of inflammation of the myocardium are most
common following complaints:
A. heart pain, palpitations, shortness of breath
B. pain in the heart, palpitations, syncope
D. heart pain, fever, dry cough
E. dry cough, shortness of breath
115. For stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice is typical:

A. hypertrophy of the left ventricle
C. systolic murmur at the apex
D. systolic tremor on the apex of the heart
E. Dilation of the left ventricle
116. Click mitral valve opening:

A. occurs through 0.06-0.12 seconds after closing the aortic valve
B. harakteren for mitral regurgitation
C. harakteren for aortic stenosis
D. harakteren for mitral and aortic stenosis
E. best auscultated at Botkin
117. What are heart disease, which is characterized by the following options for
changing the boundaries of the relative dullness of the heart: the right - to 3cm.
outwards from the right edge of the sternum, the left - 1 cm. medially from the left
midclavicular line, top - the top edge of the 2nd rib:
A. mitral stenosis
C. tricuspid regurgitation
D. aortic stenosis
E. aortic regurgitation
118. Name ECG sign, which is a reflection of myocardial ischemia:

B. deep broad Q wave
C. ST-segment depression
E.PQ interval prolongation
119. Signs of acute coronary insufficiency on the ECG is:

A. ST-segment depression
B. high equilateral T wave
C. presence of pathological Q in combination in conjunction with the rise
ST-segment
E. Prolongation of PQ interval
120. confirmed acute coronary insufficiency in a patient with angina attacks and
ST-segment elevation is one of the following laboratory parameters:
A. decrease in hemoglobin
B. hyperlipidemia
C. increased ESR
D. increase in the activity of serum troponin
E. increase creatinine
121. Violations of excitability does apply:

A. sino auricular block
C. intraatrial block
D. A-V blockade
E. Left bundle branch block
122. Arterial hypertension is characterized by the following levels of blood

pressure:
A. ˃ 130/90 mmHg
B. ˃140/100 mm Hg
C. ≥ 140/90 mm Hg
D. ≥ 160 /100 mm.rt.st.
E. ˃140/80 mm Hg
123. Pericardial murmur can be listened during:

A. chronic coronary insufficiency
B. heart failure
C. inflammation of myocardium
D. inflammation of pericardium
E. endocardial inflammation
124. For the syndrome of chronic coronary insufficiency typical pain:

A. which occurred after using antihypertensive drugs
B. pointing pain
C. with irradiation to the left hand
D. after using nitroglycerine
E. stitching pain
125. The order of heart auscultation:

A. apex beat, right 2nd intercostal space next to the sternum, left 2nd intercostal
space next to the sternum, ensisternum, Botkin-Erba point
B. apex beat, ensisternum, left 2nd intercostal space next to the sternum, right 2nd
intercostal space next to the sternum, Botkin-Erba point
C. ensisternum, apex beat, Botkin-Erba point, right 2nd intercostal space next to the
sternum, left 2nd intercostal space next to the sternum.
D. right 2nd intercostal space next to the sternum, left 2nd intercostal space next to
the sternum, apex beat, ensisternum, Botkin-Erba point.
E. apex beat, left 2nd intercostal space next to the sternum, right 2nd intercostal
space next to the sternum, ensisternum, Botkin-Erba point.
126. Functional murmur is preferably located:

A. at the apex beat
B. at the Botkin point
C. at aorta
D. on the base of ensisternum
E. above the truncus pulmonale
127. Displacement of the apex beat to left and low direction, outside from the
midclavicular line (at VI-VII intercostal spaces) occurres during:
A. aortic regurgitation.
B. mitral stenosis.
C. tricuspid stenosis.
D. tricuspid regurgitation.
E. aortic stenosis.
128. Which changings of heart percussion are more typical for mitral configuration
of heart?
A. «triangle» shape of heart;
B. displacement of right heart border to the right side;
C. displacement of left heart border to the left side with highlighted heart`s
“waist”;
D. displacement of upper heart border to the up side and diminishing of
heart`s “waist”;
E. displacement of left heart border to the left side and right heart border - to the
right side.
129. Diastolic murmur at the mitral stenosis

A. irradiates to left axillar region
B. is listened fine at the right-side position
C. is listened fine at the left side position at expiration phase
D. is listened fine at vertical position
E. is listened fine at vertical and at the right-side position
130. «Gibbuscardiacus» occurs at

A. early childhood
B. young period
C. mature age
D. old age
E. mature age and old age
131. Paroxysmal tachycardia – is:
A. heart rhythm abnormality as sudden starting and also sudden finishing
acute palpitation with heart rate 140-250 per minute at the presence of
right regular rhythm
B. irregular sinus rhythm, which characterized with periods of increased and
decreased heart rate
C. condition with frequent (up to 400-700 per minute) irregular, chaotic excitation
of separate myofibrils of atria
D. unexpected contraction of heart, which occurs under the influence of ectopic
excitation focuses from different places of conductive system.
E.an abnormal heart rhythm (arrhythmia) characterized by rapid and irregular
beating of the atrial chambers of the heart.
132. The main clinical manifestations of the syndrome cardiac arrhythmias:

A. palpitations, and disruption of the heart
B. edema the lower extremities
C. nose bleed
D. diarrhea
E. numbness of the legs
134. Conduction disorders does not apply:

A. sinuauricular block
B. sinus arrhythmia
C. intraatrial block
D. A-V blockade
E. Left bundle branch block
135. Atrial fibrillation - is:

A. heart rhythm disturbances in the form of a sudden beginning and as suddenly
ending with a heart attack heart rate = 140-250 per minute at
maintaining proper regular rhythm
B. irregular sinus rhythm, characterized by periods of more frequent and
Deceleration
C. the condition in which there is frequent (up to 400-700 per minute),
disorderly, chaotic excitation of individual muscle fibers of the atrial
D. premature contraction of the heart that occurs under the influence of ectopic
foci of excitation from different parts of the conduction system
E. an arrhythmia, more specifically a tachycardia affecting the ventricles with a
rate over 250-350 beats/min, and one of the most indiscernible.
136. Sinus arrhythmia - is:
A. heart rhythm disturbances with a sudden beginning and as suddenly
B. irregular sinus rhythm, characterized by periods of more frequent and
deceleration
C. The condition when observed frequently (up to 400-700 per minute), disorderly,
chaotic excitation of individual muscle fibers of the atria
D. premature contraction of the heart that occurs under the influence of ectopic
foci of excitation from different parts of the conduction system
E. an arrhythmia, more specifically a tachycardia affecting the ventricles with a
rate over 250-350 beats/min, and one of the most indiscernible.
137. The cause of arrhythmias and conduction disturbances is:

A. inflammation of the myocardium
B. kidney cysts
C. nephrotic syndrome
D. stroke
E. viral hepatitis
138. Нeart block - is:

A. slowing or complete cessation of the electrical pulse
any department of the conduction system
B. irregular heartbeat with suddenly starts and suddenly
C. irregular sinus rhythm, characterized by periods of more frequent and
deceleration
D. decrease of heart rate to 59-40 per minute while maintaining regular sinus
rhythm
E. the condition in which there is frequent, disorderly, chaotic excitation of
individual muscle fibers of the atrial
139. Laboratory diagnosis of the syndrome of inflammation of the myocardium

includes:
A. leukocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. increased creatinine
C. hyperfibirinogenemia
D. hypoglycemia
E. hypercholesterolemia
140. What is a manifestation of pain in inflammation of the pericardium:

A. localization - behind the sternum or on the right of it
B. ST-segment depression
C. enhanced in the supine position, with a deep breath, coughing and
swallowing
D. stopped by nitroglycerine
141. Main auscultatory signs of pericardial friction noise:

A. place auscultation area is absolute stupidity of the heart, it is better
is heard during exhalation, with the patient inclined forward or
lying on left side
B. place the tip of the heart auscultation is better auscultation during
inhalation, with the patient supine
C. place auscultation is the base of the heart, the noise is carried out on the carotid
artery
D. place auscultation is the point Botkin-Erb better auscultation in
with the patient standing with a forward lean
E. listened fine at the right-side position
142. paradoxical pulse is typical for:

A. syndrome of inflammation of the myocardium
B. syndrome of inflammation of the pericardium
C. syndrome of inflammation of the endocardium
D. syndrome cardiac arrhythmias (atrial fibrillation)
E. AV blockade
143. Paradoxical pulse - is:

A. distinct inspiratory decrease in the amplitude of the pulse wave, the best
perceived on carotid and femoral artery
B. asymmetrical pulse on different hands
C. is the difference between heart rate and pulse rate measured simultaneously
D. is the medical term for shortness of breath, sometimes described as “air
hunger.”
E. defined as the pulse of your heart, or a single short moment, or something that
acts as a unifying force
144. The most common ECG signs of inflammation of the pericardium syndrome
are:
A. ST-segment elevation in many leads, pathological Q wave is absent;
B. ST-segment elevation in many leads, pathological Q wave is present;
C. ST-segment depression
D. negative T waves
E. prolongation of PQ segment
145. Echocardiography-sign syndrome of inflammation of the pericardium (the

presence of exudate) is:
A. increase in end-diastolic left ventricular size
B. increase in the thickness of the interventricular septum and posterior wall of the
left ventricle
C. appearance between the sheets of pericardial echonegative space
D. right ventricular dilation
E. increased systolic pulmonary arterial pressure
146. The clinical picture of the syndrome of inflammation of the endocardium

includes:
A. fever with chills and copious sticky sweat
C. hepatomegaly
D. persistent bradicardia
E. paradoxical pulse
147. In laboratory and instrumental examination of patients with the syndrome of

pericardium lesions can be identified:
A. positive blood culture
B. normal cardiac enzymes
C. vegetation on the valves
D. appearance between the sheets of pericardial echonegative space
E. fever with chills and copious sticky sweat
148. Plan examination of the patient with the syndrome of hypertension includes:
A. bacteriological culture from the throat
B. determination of blood sugar and serum cholesterol
C. determination of the level of cardiospecific enzymes
D. determination of rheumatoid factor
E. consultation by a urologist
149. Instrumental diagnostics of a syndrome of hypertension includes:

A. Ultrasound of the thyroid gland
C. Chest x-ray
D. Urography
E. ECG
150.Еxtrasystole arrhythmia - is:

A. heart rhythm disturbances in the form of a sudden beginning and as suddenly
ending with a heart attack, heart rate = 140-250 per minute at
B. wrong sinus rhythm, characterized by periods of more frequent and
deceleration
C. a condition in which there is frequent (up to 400-700 per minute), disorderly,
chaotic excitation of individual muscle fibers of the atria
D. premature contraction of the heart that occurs under the influence of
ectopic excitation centers from different parts of the conduction system
E. irregular sinus rhythm, characterized by periods of more frequent and
Deceleration.
“Digestive system”
1. Under physiological conditions, food is in the oral cavity:
A. 3-5 min
B. 5-10 sec
C. 10-15 sec
D. 15-20 sec
E. more than 20 sec
2. An adult tongue normally is :
A. wet, clean and pink
B. dark, mild rash and raids on her
C. pale pink coloration, scurfy
D. papillae on the tongue mild
E. dry, crimson
3. Where located upper border of the liver on midclavicular line in
normally?
A. in the V intercostal space
B. at the VI rib
C. in the VII intercostal space
D. in the VIII intercostalspace
E. in the IX intercostal space
4. Normal length of the esophagus:

A. 16-17 cm
B. 40-60 cm
C. 25-30 cm
D. 10-20 cm
E. 60-70 cm
5. Percussion size of the liver by Kurlov in normal:

A. 9-8-7 cm
B. 3-4-5cm
C. 11-12-13cm
D. 12-13-14cm
E. 6-7-8 cm
6. Intraventricular pH-metry estimates:

A. the most accurate acid-producing function of the stomach
B. It determines the amount of gastric juice
C. enzyme secretion function of the stomach
D. pepsin-forming function
E. determines the amount of intestinal juice
7. Deep sliding palpation of the cecum is carried out:

A. in the right iliac region
B. in the left iliac region
C. In the umbilical region
D. in the right flank
E. in the left flank
8. Dysphagia is:
A. violation of passage of food through the esophagus
B. chest pain
C. nausea
D. bitter taste in the mouth
E. excessive salivation
9. Painful swallowing is called:

A. dysphagia
B. odynophagia
C. dyspepsia
D. ataxia
E. melena
10.When duodenal sounding portion "A" - is the content of:

B. common bile duct
C. the neck of the gall bladder
D. stomach
E. gallbladder
11.When duodenal sounding portion of the "C" - is the content of:

B. stomach
C. common bile duct
D. intrahepatic bile ducts
E. gallbladder
12.The nature of pain in the syndrome of exocrine pancreatic
insufficiency:
A. cramping pain
B. Pain of uncertain nature
C. severe, persistent pain
D. sharp, stitching pains
E. localized pain
13.What polling method is used to determine “splash noise”?
A. inspection
B. palpation
C. percussion
D. auscultation
E. laboratory
14.A doctor examining patient with bent fingers to produce jerky

movements without moving away from the abdominal wall. This
technique is called:
A. Surface palpation
B. deep palpation
C. Determination of "splashing noise"
D. Definition of "symptom Mendel"
E. auskultation
15.In which lines define the size of the liver by Kurlov?

A. midclavicular line, the middle and the right costal arch
B. midclavicular line, the middle and the left costal arch
C. anterior axillary, median and right costal arch
D. midsternal line, medial, anterior axillary
E. posterior axillary, front axillary and median
16.In diseases of the liver and biliary tract pain irradiates to:
A. left shoulder
B. right scapula
C. hearts
D. waist
E. the left hand
17.Normal spleen length on X rib is:

A. 3-6 cm
B. 5-6 cm
C. 6-8 cm
D. 6-10 cm
E. 6-12 cm
18.Normal spleen diameter is equal to:

A. 4-6 cm
B. 4-8 cm
C. 4-10 cm
D. 6-8 cm
E. 8-10 cm
19.The most typical complain characteristic for the pathology of the

esophagus is:
A. dysphagia
B. belching
C. epigastric pain
D. nausea
E. vomiting
20.GERD patients have complaints:

A. diarrhea
B. heartburn
C. nausea
D. burp air
E. abdominal distention
21.Diseases of the esophagus are characterized by:

A. dysphagia, hypersalivation
B. constipation
C. flatulence
D. pain around the navel
E. tenesmus
22.A 58-year-old man turned to a local doctor with complaints of
difficulty swallowing solid food. Anamnesis: fell ill 6 months ago, 3
months later there were pains in the interscapular region, weakness,
only semi-liquid food began to pass, lost 6 kg. Objectively: the skin is
pale, with palpation moderate pain in the epigastric region. An X-ray
examination of the esophagus revealed a narrowing of its lumen in
the middle third due to a filling defect over 6 cm. What research
should be done to clarify the syndrome?
A. ultrasound of the chest cavity
B. еsophagoscopy with biopsy
C. computed tomography
D. laparoscopy
E. bronchoscopy
23.Dyspeptic complaints include:
A. nausea, discomfort in the epigastric region
B. pain in the iliac region
C. dizziness
D. tarry stools
E. generalized weakness
24.What research method is indicated to detect esophageal

diverticulum?
A. Radiography
B. mediastinoscopy
C. Electro-Kimography
D. esophagoscopy
E. Esophagomanometr
25.The estimated surface palpation usually begin with:

A. epigastric
B. the left iliac region
C. left hypochondrium
D. the right iliac region
E. right hypochondrium
26.Parietal cells secrete:

A. hydrochloric acid
B. lactic acid
C. gastric mukoprotein
D. mucin
E. pepsin
27.What can be heard normally on auscultation of the stomach an adult

?
A. noise peritoneum friction
B. splashing sound
C. a sharp increase in the peristalsis of bowel sounds
D. slight rumbling, transfusion fluid
E. the absence of sounds and noises
28.Pain that are characteristic of gastric ulcer:

A. early pain
B. later pain
C. night pain
D. hunger pains
E. stabbing pain
29.Pathognomonic signs of gastric bleeding:

A. pallor, weakness
B. headache, dizziness
C. Coffee grounds vomiting, tarry stools
D. tachycardia, decreased blood pressure
E. stool with mucus, bradycardia
30.Gastric bleeding is manifested by :

A. hemoptysis
B. hematuria
C. bloody vomit
D. the noise of splashing epigastric empty stomach
E. leukocyturia
31.Which method is the most informative to determine the cause and

location of bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal tract:
A. radiography
B. portomanometriya
C. laparoscopy
D. gastroduodenoscopy
E. tseliakografiya
32.The patient, 23 years old, came to the hospital with complaints of

heaviness and a feeling of fullness in the epigastric region after
eating, acid reflux, nausea. From the anamnesis: the patient smokes a
lot, abuses coffee, sometimes he takes diclofenac for headaches. Sick
for about 4 years. Not examined and not treated. What syndrome can
be assumed?
A. stomach inflammation syndrome
B. esophageal inflammation syndrome
C. pancreatic inflammation syndrome
D. gallbladder inflammation syndrome
E. liver inflammation syndrome
33.The most common ulcers in the stomach are located:

A. in subcardiac part
B. in the cardiac part
C. on a small curvature in the antrum
D. on the greater curvature
E. gastric body
34.In healthy individuals the volume of gastric juice secretion in basal
(in ml) is:
A. up to 50
B. 50-100
C. 100-140
D. 140-180
E. 100-200
35.A 37-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of

pain in the epigastric region after 20-30 minutes. After eating,
heartburn, nausea and vomiting, which bother for a week. From the
anamnesis: suffers from chronic gastritis for 5 years, from which she
was not treated. On endoscopy: the esophagus is blown away, the
mucous membrane is not changed, the cardia is of normal shape and
size. The stomach is of normal shape and size. The mucous
membrane is hyperemic, in the antrum there is a deep ulcerative
defect of 1.5-2.0 cm in size, folds of usual shape and size. The
duodenal bulb of the usual shape and size, the mucous membrane is
not changed. What additional tests are needed to identify the causes
of peptic ulcer?
A. X-ray examination
B. electrogastroenterography
C. study of gastric secretion
D. helicobacter pylori tests
E. total protein and its fractions
36.A woman, 56 years old, went to the clinic complaining of bitterness in

her mouth, nausea, sometimes vomiting, aching pain in the right
hypochondrium, poor tolerance of fatty foods, alcohol. The above
complaints are disturbing for a year, have not been previously
examined and have not been treated. Objectively: subictericity of the
sclera, in the right hypochondrium and right scapular region - the
area of skin hyperesthesia, a positive symptom of Grekov-Ortner.
Your suspected syndrome:
A. stomach inflammation syndrome
B. esophageal inflammation syndrome
C. pancreatic inflammation syndrome
D. gallbladder inflammation syndrome
E. liver inflammation syndrome
37. The largest size of gastric ulcers:

A. to 0.3 cm
B. to 0.5 cm
C. 0.3-0.4 cm
D. 2-3 cm and above
E. 0.2sm less
38.Choose localization of ulcers that are characteristic for hunger

pains in 1.5 hours after meal:
A. pyloric ulcer of the stomach, duodenum ulcer
B. ulcers subcardial part of the stomach
C. ulcers, middle and lower third of the stomach.
D. stomach ulcer of the body
E. ulcers of the greater curvature of the stomach
39.Patient M., aged 35, complained of aching, hungry pain at night in

the epigastric region. Pains go away after a meal. From the history of
the disease: for many years observed with a diagnosis of chronic
gastritis. Eats irregularly, often fast foods. On examination: belly is
symmetrical, involved in the act of breathing. On palpation:
Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom is negative, Mendel's positive
symptom. What kind of syndrome is to think the doctor?
A. syndrome, inflammation of the gallbladder
B. bleeding from stomach ulcers
C. syndrome of peptic ulcers
D. malabsorption syndrome
E. syndrome maldigestion
40.Hypersecretion and hyperchlorhydria is characteristic for the

localization of ulcers in:
A. esophagus
B. small curvature of the stomach
C. body of the stomach
D. duodenum
E. cardiac part of the stomach
41.Black, tarry stool found in bleeding from:

A. stomach and duodenum
B. blind, ascending colon
C. the transverse colon
D. descending and sigmoid colon
E. rectum
42.A direct indication of the presence of ulcers on X-ray examination

is:
A. scar body deformation
B. folds convergence
C. "Niche" symptom
D. evacuation change
E. dyskinesia gatekeeper
43.On physical examination, patients with peptic ulcer syndrome

marked tenderness to percussion in epigastric. This is a symptom of
:
A. Mendel
B. Murphy
C. Ortner
D. Kerr
E. Courvoisier
44.Vomiting 2-3 hours after meals is typical for:

A. ulcers cardiac part of the stomach
B. ulcer of the stomach body
C. ulcer of the stomach antrum
D. pyloric stenosis
E. duodenal ulcer
45. Pain during peptic ulcer decrease or disappear:

A. after vomiting
B. when applying cold
C. after fatty meal
D. when you change the patient's position
E. the application of heat
46. Skin itching in diseases of the hepatobiliary system is caused by:

A. increase in blood bilirubin
B. increase in blood cholesterol
C. increase in blood bile acids
D. increase in blood levels of urea
E. increase in blood glucose
47.The normal serum bilirubin is:

A. 1-3,02 mol / l
B. 8,55-20,5 .mu.mol / l
C. 22-25,0 mmol / l
D. 30,70-40,70 mol / l
E. 40,80-50,80 mol / l
48. Disability, weakness, fatigue, malaise, headaches in patients with
liver disease is indicated by the syndrome:
A. dyspeptic
B. asthenovegetative
C. haemorrhagic
D. hepatolienalis
49. The total protein content in the blood in normal:

A. 65-85 g / l
B. 60-80 g / l
C. 70-90 g / l
D. 80-100 g / l
E. 40-55 g / l
50. Localization of pain in liver disease :

A. the left back side
B. umbilical region
C. the right iliac region
D. right upper quadrant
E. left upper quadrant
51. Decreased appetite, heaviness in the epigastric region, nausea,

vomiting, bloating, stool disorders in patients with liver disease are
the signs of :
A. hemorrhagic syndrome
B. asthenovegetative syndrome
C. hepatolienal syndrome
E. dyspeptic syndrome
52.The rich fat mushy feces is observed when:

A. gastric hypersecretion
B. syndromeof peptic ulcer
C. portal hypertension
D. exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
E. syndrome of gallbladder inflammation
53.The normal content of total protein in the blood:

A. less than 20 g / l
B. 25-45 g / l
C. 45-65 g / l
D. 65-85 g / l
E. more than 85 g / l
54.Normally, Thymol test is:
A. 0-5 units.
B. 5-9 units
C. 10-14 units
D. 15-19 units
E. more than 20
55.Ascites ,enlargement of the saphenous veins of abdominal wall,

enlarged spleen, esophageal varices in patients with liver disease
syndrome denotes:
B. dyspeptic
C. haemorrhagic
E. hepato-splenic
56.Normally, the blood pressure in the portal vein:

A. 50-115mm water column
B. 70-150mm water column
E. 290-360mm water column
57."Spider veins" represent:

B. dermatorrhagia
C. slightly elevated above the skin pulsating angioma
D. bruising
E. dilation of small blood vessels in the skin
58. A 50-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with complaints: of

an increase in the abdomen, general weakness, poor appetite, weight
loss in the last 2 weeks. From the anamnesis of the disease: 2 years
ago, after visiting a dentist, he fell ill, suffered viral hepatitis.
Objectively: swelling of the lower extremities, skin and visible
jaundice mucosa. On examination, the abdominal cavity in the
supine position is spread out with a protrusion in the lateralsections,
the sound of dull is determined by percussion in these sections, upon
palpation - a positive symptom of “oscillation”. The liver protrudes
1.5-2 cm from the edge of the costal arch, with a dense texture. The
lower pole of the spleen is palpable. Laboratory: total bilirubin-34
μmol / l, total protein-55 g / l. Highlight the underlying syndrome.
A. hepatic cell failure syndrome
B. suprahepatic jaundice syndrome
C. hepatic jaundice syndrome
D. portal hypertension syndrome
E. gallbladder inflammation syndrome
59. Signs of liver failure syndrome:

A. increase in the total protein content
B. albumin increase
C. increased cholestorol
D. decrease in the activity of enzymes ALT, AST
E. decrease of albumin
60. A possible cause of the appearance of «spider veins» in liver failure

syndrome is:
A. dysproteinemia
B. hyperestrogenemia
C. thrombocytopenia
D. Hypocholesterolemia
E. hypofibrinogenemia
61. In hepatic jaundice hyperbilirubinemia is due to:

A. conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
C. bile acids
D. free bilirubin
E. glucose oxidase
62.Skin itching in Liver disease is characteristic for?

A. stock duodeno-gastric reflux
B. an increase of bile acids in the blood against the backdrop of severe
cholestasis
C. violation synthetic (protein-) liver function
D. heart failure with the expressed accompanying myocardial dystrophy
E. reducing detoxifying liver function with respect to protein breakdown products
63.Cytolysis syndrome that develops during liver damage is

characterized by:
A. increased ALT, AST, LDH
B. increase in prothrombin level
C. increase in total protein and albumin
D. no laboratory changes
E. reducing thymol
64.In suprahepatic jaundice in the blood is detected:
A. lowering of unconjugated bilirubin
B. increase in ketone bodies
C. lowering ketone bodies
D. an increase of conjugated bilirubin
E. an increase of unconjugated bilirubin
65. In suprahepatic jaundice what is found in the urine:

A. elevated levels urobilin
B. reduced content urobilinoides
C. elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin
D. lowering the content of conjugated bilirubin
E. urine unchanged
66. In the suprarenal jaundice what is detected in the stool:

A. elevated levels stercobilin
B. reduced content stercobilin
C. aholich feces
D. tarry stool (melena)
E. lack stercobilin
67.In the horizontal position soft abdomen, side sections swell (frog
belly) suggests:
A. obesity
B. the presence of large intra-abdominal tumors
C. flatulence
D. fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity
E. enlarged liver
68."Palmar eritema", represent:

B. bleeding into the skin
C. petechiasis
D. symmetrical reddening of thenar and hypothenar
E. bruising
69.Skin color in obstructive jaundice:

A. pale lemon yellow tinge
B. orange-yellow
C. dark greenish
D. leather is not changed
E. bronzing
70.The projection (localization) of the gallbladder is equal to:

A. the point of intersection of the outer edge of the right rectus abdominis
with the costal arch
B. under the lower edge of the liver, outwards from the edge of the right lateral
rectus
C. in the left upper quadrant
D. at the intersection of the outer edge of the left rectus abdomen with the costal
arch
E. in the left iliac region
71. The bleeding from the nose, gums, uterine bleeding, cutaneous
bleeding,
bleeding of esophageal varices in patients with liver diseases
designate syndrome:
B. dyspeptic
C. haemorrhagic
E. hepatolienal
72.The wall thickness of the gallbladder by ultrasound in normally:

A. not more than 2mm
B. 3-4 mm
C. 5-6 mm
D. 7-8 mm
E. 8-10 mm
73. The gallbladder contracts under the influence of :

A. gastrin
B. pancreatic juice
C. cholecystokinin
D. secretin
E. of hydrochloric acid
74.Main function of bile is:

A. emulsification of fats
B. carbohydrate hydrolyzing
C. split proteins
D. split of fat
E. increases of the secretion gastrin
75. In hypomotor dyskinesia of gallbladder observed:

A. increase in the tone of the gall bladder
B. decreased tone of the gallbladder with bile stasis
C. reduction of the initial dimensions of the gallbladder
D. accelerated emptying of the gallbladder
E. increasing the motor activity of the gall bladder and biliary tract
76.With exogenous jaundice, in contrast to true jaundice:

A. only sclera are painted
B. scleral staining is not characteristic
C. only palms and feet are painted
D. characterized by coloration of the skin, mucous membranes and sclera
E. only oral mucous membranes are stained
77. Soreness in striking along the costal arches indicates a positive

symptom ....
A. Ortner
B. Kera
C. Vasilenko
D. Boas
E. Mussey-Georgievsky
78. What can trigger the attack of biliary colic :

A. overheating or undercooling
B. abundant intake of fatty foods
C. smoking
D. bad dream
E. poor appetite
79.Cholecystography - is X-ray methodic of :

A. portal vein
B. gallbladder
C. splenic vein
D. celiac artery
E. bulbs of duodenum
80.Skin itching in diseases of the hepatobiliary system is caused by:

A. increase in blood bilirubin
B. increase in blood cholesterol
C. an increase in blood bile acids
D. increase in blood levels of urea
E. increase in blood glucose
81.The method of physical examination to determine the upper and

lower boundaries of the liver:
A. inspection
B. deep palpation
C. percussion
D. auscultation
E. estimated surface palpation
82.In diseases of the hepatobiliary system, pain is most often gives

A. to the left shoulder
B. down the abdomen, in the thigh
C. up, left, back
D. up, right, back
E. in the left shoulder blade
83. In hypermotor gallbladder dyskinesia be observe:

A. decreased tone of the gall bladder
B. spasm of the sphincter of Oddi and Lyutkense
C. increasing the initial size of the gallbladder
D. slowing down the emptying of the gallbladder
E. reduction in motor activity of the gallbladder and bile ducts
84.Pain like a band in the upper abdomen is observed in pathology:

A. stomach
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. cecum
E. sigmoid colon
85.Point De Garden’s- is:

A. the projection of the sphincter of Oddi
B. Pancreatic body projection
C. the initial part of the pancreas
D. the projection of the pancreatic head
E. projection cardiac of the stomach
86.Intradermal deposition of cholesterol in the century as yellow

plaques called?
A. petechial rash
B. xanthelasmatosis
C. telangiectases
D. hematoma
E. palmar erythema
87.Gold standard evaluation failure of exocrine pancreatic function is:
A. determination of the activity of pancreatic elastase in feces
B. microscopic examination of feces
C. secretin-probe test pankreazimin
D. determination of blood amylase and trypsin
E. determination of urine amylase and trypsin
88.Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is characterized by:

A. increased alkaline phosphatase
B. presence of unconjugated bilirubin in the urine
C. hypoglycemia
D. steatorrhea, kreatorrhea, amylorrhea
E. raising the general level of protein in the blood
89.The defeat of the pancreatic head pain is defined:

A. point De Garden
B. at Mayo-Robson
C. at Kacha
D. point Mallet-Guy
E. zone Shaffer's
90.Zone Gubergriz’s:
A. It reflects the initial portion of the body of the pancreas
B. It reflects the tail of the pancreas
C. It corresponds to the projection of the sphincter of Oddi
D. corresponds to the body of the pancreas
E. It reflects the terminal portion of the body of the pancreas
91.A sharp pain during effleurage in the projection of the gallbladder at

the height of inspiration - is a symptom of :
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
D. Ortner
E. Musso - George's
92.Tenderness when the hand taps the right costal arch -it's a positive
symptom of:
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
D. Ortner
E. Musso George's
93.Pain on the right hypohondrium when pressure in between the legs

of sternocleidomastoid muscle - it's a positive symptom:
A. Zakharyin
B. Vasilenko
D. Ortner
E. Musso - George's
94.In duodenal intubation detectionof in portion "B" large amount of

leucocytes and increase of gallbladder epithelial cells indicates:
A. an inflammation of the gall bladder
B. peptic ulcers
C. inflammation of the duodenum
D. inflammation of the pancreas
E. dyskinesia of the gallbladder
95.Stool frequency constipation:

A. 1 time per day
B. 1 time in 2 days
C. stool delay more than 3 days
D. 2 times a day
E. 3 times per day
96.Pain in the right iliac region arise in pathology:

A. cecum
B. sigmoid colon
C. transverse colon
D. rectum
E. stomach
97.In the normal intestine percussion determines

A. tympanic sound
B. dull sound
C. dullness sound
D. box sound
E. resonance sound
98.Superficial palpation reveals:

A. the consistency of the body
B. intestinal localization
C. voltage abdominal wall
D. body diameter
E. body surface
99.Flatulence - is:
A. frequent stools
B. false urge to defecate
C. abdominal distention
D. tarry stools
E. pain around the navel.
100. A sigmoidoscopy examines the colon mucosa in the distance (cm):

A. 45
B. 50
C. 35
D. 40
E. 50
101. A colonoscopy allows to explore:

A. Only the cecum
B. only the sigmoid colon
C. only the rectum and part of the sigmoid colon
D. Only rectum
E. the entire large intestine
102. X-ray examination of the large intestine - is:

A. colonoscopy
B. sigmoidoscopy
C. irrigoscopy
D. laparoscopy
E. duodenography
103. Signs of maldigestion syndrome according to the analysis of feces:

A. steatorrhea, kreatoreya
B. aholic feces
C. desquamated epithelium
D. melena
E. positive reaction Gregersen
104. About the defeat of the small intestine says:
A. Feces up to 15 times a day
B. blood stains in feces
C. abundant, soft, foamy feces
D. solid, black, sheep stool
E. discolored feces
105. If a large number of muscle fibers is determined in the stool, it's:

A. stearrhea
B. kreatorrhea
C. lientereya
D. melena
E. amylorrhea
106. Patient S., 46 years old, complaints on admission: an enlargement

of the abdomen, general weakness, heaviness in the right upper
quadrant, jaundice of the skin. From the history of the disease.
During the year, there is a gradual increase of the above symptoms.
As a child, he moved Botkin's disease, alcohol abuse. What research
tools are needed to clarify the syndrome?
A. cholecystography
B. duodenal intubation
C. ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. laparoscopic abdominal organs
E. microscopic analysis of feces
107. What is the name of the syndrome due to malabsorption of
nutrients in the small intestine:
A. fermentative dyspepsia syndrome
B. cholestatic syndrome
C. distal colitic syndrome
D. maldigestion syndrome
E. malabsorption syndrome
108. Primary malabsorption occurs when:

A. vitamin B12 deficiency
B. hereditary deficiency of lactase
C. hypoholii
D. enteritis
E. gastritis
109. In malabsorption syndrome swelling is associated with:

A. hypoproteinemia
B. portal hypertension
C. circulatory failure
D. anemia
E. thyroid dysfunction
110. Moderate polyfecalia, shaped or gruel, feces, grayish-white in

color, with a musty fetid odor, with an acid reaction, with an
abundance of fatty acids and soaps, a small amount of neutral fat,
occurs when:
A. fermentative dyspepsia syndrome
B. gastric dyspepsia
C. intestinal dyspepsia
D. Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
E. hepatogenic dyspepsia
111. Feces of an adult normally release:
A. unconjugated bilirubin
C. urobilin
D. stercobilin
E. urobilinogen
112. The complete absence of hydrochloric acid and pepsin in gastric

juice is called:
A. hyperacidity
B. Achille
C. hypochlorhydria
D. achlorhydria
E. hypersecretion
113. On macroskopy examination feces in normal:

A. polifekaliya
B. unformed liquid
C. elegant, brown
D. shine stool
E. mushy
114. Malabsorption syndrome of Vitamin A deficiency leads to:
A. night blindness
B. subcutaneous hemorrhage
C. neurological disorders
D. dermatitis
E. esophagitis
115. Patient, 64 years old, about a cough with profuse mucous sputum,
shortness of breath, fever up to 37.7 ° C. I received tetracycline inside
for 5 days, then replaced with kanamycin injections on the 10th day
of the disease, diarrhea occurred (7 times a day), blood in the stool,
pain throughout the abdomen, bloating, fever up to 39 ° C. Which
imagine method is need patient:
A. Fecal occult blood test
B. determination of urine amylase activity
C. Fecal analysis for ascariasis
D. colonoscopy
E. Irrigoscopy
116. If in the feces are determined by a large number of neutral fat,

it's this:
A. stearrhea
B. kreatoreya
C. lientereya
D. amylorrhea
E. melena
117. In diseases of the small intestinal pain is observed:

A. around the navel
B. the right-hand side of the area
C. in the left iliac region
D. epigastric
E. in the right upper quadrant
118. What information does the positive symptom waves (fluctuations)

in the percussion bimanual palpation of the abdomen give?
A. symptom is detected normally;
B. there is free fluid in the abdominal cavity;
C. It has pyloric stenosis;
D. a large amount of gases in the colon (flatulence in patients with colitis);
E. has accumulated liquid contents and gases in the colon (e.g., a patient with
acute enteritis).
119. During Diarrhea stool is :
A. 1 time per day
B. 1 time on the second day
C. more than 3 times a day
D. 1 time per day Zoe
E. 1 time per week
120. Schmidt sample was carried out to:

A. identify protein exudation
C. determining the complete cessation of the flow of bile into the intestine
D. identifying novoobrozovaniya
E. identifying ulceration
"Endocrine System"
1) What is the level of blood glucose corresponds to the hypoglycemia

syndrome in venous plasma:
A. 2.8 mmol / L
B. 4.0 mmol / L
C. 4.7 mmol / L
D. 5.6 mmol / L
E. 7.0 mmol \ L
2) Which of the following corresponds to impaired glucose tolerance (venous

plasma):
A. Fasting glucose - 7.4 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 12.2 mmol / l

B. Fasting glucose - 6.8 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 10.9 mmol / l
C. Fasting glucose- 6.2 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 7.7 mmol / l
D. Fasting glucose- 5.6 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 7.4 mmol / l
E. Fasting glucose- 4.0 mmol / l, 2 hours after OGTT - 6.8 mmol / l
3) List the triad of symptoms in hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. Polydipsia, polyphagy, polyuria

B. Hypertension, hyperpigmentation, obesity
C. Hypotension, anorexia, anuria
D. Exophthalmos, hypertension, hyperthermia
E. Alopecia, bradycardia, hypercholesterolemia
4) Complaints of patients with hypoglycemia syndrome may be:

A. Epigastric pain
B. Slow wound healing
C. Burning in the lower extremities
D. Pustular skin lesion
E. Tremor in the body and limbs
5) List the main risk factors for the development of hyperglycemia syndrome:
A. Heredity, obesity, lack of physical activity
B. Long-term stress, puberty, smoking
C. Age, Gender, Ethnicity
D. viral infections, radiation, injuries
E. Regular nutrition, pregnancy, alcoholism
6) Which of the following is the cause of hypoglycemic syndrome:

B. Overweight
D. Thyroid inflammation syndrome
E. Hyperthyroidism syndrome

7) Which of the following is the cause of hyperglycemic syndrome:
E. Anorexia Syndrome

A. Fasting 3.3-5.5 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals> 7.8 mmol / l
B. Fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals 6.1-7.0 mmol / l
C. Fasting 5.6-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals<6.7 mmol / l
D. Fasting 4-6.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after a meal <7.8 mmol / l
E. Fasting 4.6-5.1 mmol / l, 2 hours after meals <8.5 mmol / l
9) The appearance of edema in hypercorticism syndrome is associated with:

A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
E. Hyponatremia
10) An oral glucose tolerance test is performed:

A. On the background of acute illness
B. When glycogemoglobin is more than 6.5%.
C. In case of doubtful glycemia for clarification
the diagnosis
D. When blood glucose is greater than 11.0 mmol / L.
11) When viewed in the oral cavity with hyperglycemia syndrome can be
identified:
A. Loosening and early tееth loss

B. Geographic language
C. Tongue is covered with yellow bloom
D. Black spots on tongue and gums
E. Varnished language

A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Moebius
D. Krause
E. Elinek
13) The appearance of myxedema on the limbs of a patient with

hypothyroidism syndrome is due to a violation of:
A. Basic exchange
B. Carbohydrate Exchange
C. Lipid metabolism
D. Protein metabolism
E. Water-salt metabolism
14) A man, 36 years old, went to the clinic to the local doctor with complaints
of pain and swelling in the chest area from 2 sides. On examination: increased
nutrition, uneven distribution of the subcutaneous fat layer with a
predominant deposition in the upper body and on the face, on the front
surface of the abdomen and on the inner thighs of the strip of red-purple
color, palpation in the chest reveals dense painful formations with a diameter
of up to 5, blood pressure - 160/100 mm Hg
Highlight the main syndrome:
A. Thyroid hyperfunctions
B. Hypofunction of the thyroid gland
C. Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex
D. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex
E. Hyperfunctions of the parathyroid glands

determined:
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Humidity
C. Rubeosis of the cheeks
D. Cyanotic
E. Facial hair growth in women
A. Sleepiness
B. Bradycardia
C. Puffiness of the face and narrowing of the palpebral fissures
D. Hyperexcitability
E. Obesity

A. Skin is wet, motor agitation
B. Breathing is noisy and rare
C. Skin is dry
D. Reduced turgor
E. Thirst
18) Gynecomastia in patients with hypercorticism syndrome occurs due to

metabolic changes:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Sex hormones
D. Mineralocorticoids
E. Pituitary hormones
A. Diarrhea
B. Sweating
C. Constipation
D. Cyanosis
E. Heartbeat
A. Decrease in T3 and T4 in the blood

B. Increase in T3 and T4 in the blood
C. Elevation of TSH and T4 in the blood
D. Decrease in the level of TSH in the blood
E. Increased T3 and T4, decreased TSH
A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin

B. Weight gain
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Tachycardia
E. Polyphagia
D. Less than 60 cm
E. Morethan 102 cm

A. Height / weight2
B. Weight / Height2
C. Height2/ weight
D. Weight2 / Height
E. Weight / Height

A. m2 / kg
B. m / kg2
C. kg / m2
D. kg2 / m
E. kg / m

D. Less than 60 cm
E. More than 88 cm
26) The patient came to the endocrinologist. When calculating the body mass
index was 29.8 kg / m2. Determine the degree of impaired fat metabolism.
A. Underweight
B. Overweight
C. Obesity I degree

A. Hypocorticism
C. About hypercorticism
E. On increased secretion of ACTH

E. AV blockade
29) Goiter is:

D. thyroid enlargement more than 18 ml in women and more than 25 ml in
men
men.


C. Thyroid visible on the eye, palpable
32) At the reception, patient Z., 36 years old. Height - 180 cm, weight - 95 kg.
Give an opinion on the violation of fat metabolism:
A. Deficiency of body weight

B. Overweight
C. Obesity I degree
33) A young man of 18 years old after a cold has thirst, polyuria, weakness.
Blood sugar level is 16mmol / l. What is the patient's syndrome?
A. soft, agile
D. soft, motionless
E. tight, painful
B. 0,1,2,3 degrees
C. 0,1,2 degrees
D. 1,2,3 degrees
36) What changes in the content of thyroid-stimulating hormone,

triiodothyronine and thyroxin are characteristic of hypothyroidism
syndrome?
A. A decrease in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and an increase in

C. Elevated levels of TSH and a decrease in serum T3 and T4
E. Elevated serum TSH, T3 and T4
37) Indicate the characteristic electrolyte disturbances in hypocorticism
syndrome:
A. Hypochloremia, hypermagnesemia
B. Hypomagnesaemia, hyperchloremia
C. Hypochloremia, hypomagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia
E. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

E. mild, painful
weight loss, loss of appetite, hypotension - these complaints are characteristic
of the syndrome:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitarism
41) What syndrome is characterized by "matronism", "bull neck", "marble

skin pattern":
A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. hypercortisolism
E. hypothyroidism
42) Pigmentation of the eyelids (upper) with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome

is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Moebius
C. Krause
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
43) A white sclera line between the iris and the upper eyelid when looking
down with thyroid hyperfunction syndrome is a symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Krause
E. Elinek
A. Kocher
B. Shtelvag
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Raceman
symptom:
A. Kocher
B. Delrymple
C. Grefe
D. Elinek
E. Shtelvag
46) Enhanced pulsation of the carotid arteries, ascending apical impulse, pulse
110 beats. per minute, arrhythmic or rapid pulse are characteristic of:
C. Thyroid hyperfunction syndrome
D. Thyroid hypofunction syndrome
E. Hypopituitarism syndrome
A. Voltage, low speed

B. Tense, fast
C. Rare
D. Soft, slow
E. Large, rare
A. 35 g
B. 50 g
C. 75 g
D. 50 mg
E. 100 mg
49) Indicate laboratory signs of primary hypocorticism syndrome:
A. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone, decreased cortisol

B. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone, increased cortisol
C. Decrease in adrenocorticotropic hormone, increased cortisol
D. Lowering adrenocorticotropic hormone, lowering cortisol
E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is normal, lowering cortisol
50) The patient has hyperglycemia syndrome, after exercise there was a
tremor, palpitations, severe hunger, weakness, anxiety. Your tactics:
A. In/v the jet introduction of 40% glucose

B. I/v administration of glucagon + insulin
C. S/c administration of short-acting insulin
D. S/c administration of insulin ultrashort action
E. Urgent feeding of the patient, give sweet tea
A. Polyuria
B. Hypertension
C. Anuria
D. Shortness of breath
E. Oliguria
predominates in the trunk, on the skin of the inner surface of the shoulders
and thighs of purple streak, on the face and back multiple acne vulgaris. BP
steadily increased at the level of 150/90 - 165/110 mm Hg. Art. Daily excretion
of cortisol in the urine is higher than normal. Fasting glycemia 6.0 mmol / l,
sugar in urine - neg., The reaction of urine to acetone is negative. Highlight
the main syndrome.
C. Syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
53) Craving for salty foods is most characteristic of the syndrome:
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypercorticism
D. Hypocorticism
E. Hypothyroidism
increased significantly 5 years ago after childbirth. Menstruation from the age
of 13, regular. Loves flour products, sweets. Father and mother are obese 1-2
tbsp. The younger brother has obesity 1 tbsp. Objectively. Height - 168 cm,
body weight - 96 kg. BMI - 34kg / 2, waist circumference - 95 cm. Hip
circumference - 106 cm. Deposition of subcutaneous fat in the thighs.
Determine the types and degrees of obesity.
A. Android obesity type I

D. Android type II obesity
E. Ginoid type of obesity I degree
gland, bug-eyed, weight loss, tachycardia, increased blood pressure:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitarism
56) For what syndrome are dry, wrinkled, cold, thickened skin, anemia,
narrowing of the palpebral fissures, thickening of the lips, tongue,
constipation, bradycardia, hypothermia?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
57) Hypoaldosteronism syndrome is a manifestation of the following
syndrome:
A. Hypercorticism
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypocorticism
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Hypoparathyroidism
hyperhidrosis:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
E. Hyperglycemia

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
E. Obesity
chilliness, weakness, memory loss, hoarseness, constipation. Objectively:
height - 170 cm, body weight - 89 years. The skin is dry, pale, flaky. The voice
is low. Pulse - 50 per min., Blood pressure - 110/80 mm Hg. What syndrome
are we talking about?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Obesity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hyperglycemia
General weakness, blood sugar level - 20 mmol / l, in urine - 5%, acetone in
urine is positive. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperthyroidism
distribution is even, especially on the limbs, abdomen, thighs. Borders of the
heart are increased to the left, the deaf tones, systolic murmur at the apex.
Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
E. Obesity syndrome
63) A patient came to see an endocrinologist. When calculating the BMI was
30.8 kg / m2. Determine the degree of violation of fat metabolism?
A. Overweight
B. Obesity grade II
C. Obesity grade I
E. Normal body weight
64) Abdominal obesity in women is considered to be a waist circumference
greater than:
A. 76 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 84 cm
D. 88 cm
E. 92 cm
women is:
A. Up to 16 ml
B. Up to 18 ml
C. More than 20 ml
D. Up to 25 ml
E. Up to 30 ml
men is:
A. Up to 16 ml
B. Up to 18 ml
C. To 20 ml
D. Up to 25 ml
E. More than 30 ml
A. Infections
C. Tuberculosis
D. Syphilis
E. Nephroangiosclerosis
68) What is the characteristic sign of hypercorticismsyndrome:
A. Exophthalmos
B. Matronism
C. Hypogonadism
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Alopecia
69) Patient C., 46 years old, complains of severe weakness, lack of appetite,
weight loss in 6 months per 10 kg, nausea, occasionally loose stools, and at
times decrease in blood pressure. From the anamnesis: ill for six months, the
above symptoms gradually appeared and progressed. Highlight the main
syndrome.
C. Pituitary gland syndrome
D. Syndrome of chronic insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
70) Patient D., 32 years old. Complaints of significant muscle weakness,
dizziness, pain in the heart, emaciation, loss of appetite. History: ill for about
6 months. The disease does not bind to anything. At the age of 26 he suffered
pulmonary tuberculosis. Objectively: height - 176 cm, weight - 60 kg, the skin
on the open parts of the body is pigmented. What syndrome has a patient
developed?
71) Patient D., 50 years old, housewife. She complains about weight gain,
flashing of “flies” before her eyes, headaches, weakness. From the anamnesis:
the above complaints began with a change in appearance: the face was
rounded, the belly increased in volume. Objectively: the patient looks much
older than her years. Height-156 cm, weight - 90 kg, on the thighs - wide
purple strii. Determine the pre-syndrome:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
E. Hypercoticism
72) For what syndrome are typical "moonlike" face, increased hair growth
over the upper lip, in the chin area and on the lateral surfaces of the face. The
skin is dry, with a marble pattern. Hyperpigmentation of the neck. In axillary
areas, on the thighs and lateral surfaces of the abdomen, broad purple-red
bands:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
difficult to collect because of the pronounced loss of memory and inhibition of
the patient. Survey results: T4 free - 0.1 pmol / l; TTG - 69 mMe / l;
Antibodies to TPO - 1000 IU / ml. Highlight the main syndrome.
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Obesity I degree.
D. Hypocorticoidism
E. Hypercortisolism
74) Chilliness, swelling, change in voice, impaired speech, dry skin,
constipation - these complaints are characteristic of the syndrome:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypocorticoidism
C. Hypercortisolism
D. Hypopituitarism
E. Hypothyroidism
gland, a puffy, emaciation, tachycardia, an increase in blood pressure?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypocorticoidism
D. Hypercortisolism
E. Hypopituitism
complaints of weakness in the limbs, persistent pain in the calf muscles and
back. Osteoporosis, cysts and pathological fractures were found on
radiographs of the bones. Specify the syndrome.
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Hypothyroidism
A. Obesity syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis syndrome
C. Anorexia syndrome
E. Hyperparathyroidism syndrome
78) Thin arms and legs, excessive deposition of fat on the face and torso,
“moon-shaped” hyperemic face occur with the syndrome:
A. Hypocorticoidism
B. Hypercortisolism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hyperthyroidism
A. Determination of the level of Ca2 + in the blood

B. Determination of the level of TSH, sv. T4
D. Determination of blood cholesterol
E. Definition of T3
80) Patient Z., turned to the local doctor with complaints of a change in skin
color and severe muscle weakness. From the anamnesis it is known that 6
years ago the patient suffered a tuberculous lesion of the lungs. Objectively:
low nutrition, depigmentation of open areas of the body.
What research is needed?
A. Free thyroxine, thyroid stimulating hormone

B. Cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone
C. Fasting plasma glucose, glycohemoglobin
D. Parathyroid hormone, ionized calcium
E. Progesterone, luteinizing hormone
81) Ultrasound of the thyroid gland: right lobe: length - 6.8 cm, width - 3.0
cm, thickness - 1.8 cm; left lobe: length - 6.0 cm, width - 2.0 cm, thickness - 1.9
cm. Determine the volume of the thyroid gland.
A. 14.0 ml
B. 18.0 ml
C. 18.4 ml
D. 28.4 ml
E. 40.0 ml
Urinary System
1. What are the causes of edema in nephrotic syndrome?
A. Kidney ischemia;
B. Oliguria;
C. Decreased blood pressure;
D. Reduction of oncotic pressure;
E. Increased hydrostatic pressure.
2. In the study of blood in patients with nephrotic syndrome revealed:

A. Hyperproteinaemia;
B. Hypoalbuminemia;
C. Hyperalbuminemia;
D. Hypolipidemia;
E. Hyperglycemia.
3. Signs of nephrotic syndrome include:

A. Arterial hypertension;
B. Massive swelling;
C. hematuria;
D. Proteinuria> 1.5 g / day;
E. Leukocyturia.
4. The main causes of massive proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome are:

A. Impaired reabsorption;
B. Loss of negative charge by the membrane and podocytes;
C. The proliferation of mesangium;
D. rupture of the membrane;
E. Proliferation of the membrane.
5. What is not included in the classic triad of symptoms in acute nephritis

syndrome?
A. Edema;
B. Anuria;
C. Arterial hypertension;
D. Hematuria;
E. Piuria.
6. Symptoms of urinary syndrome in acute nephritis syndrome:

A. Leukocyturia;
B. Proteinuria;
C. Bens Jones protein;
D. Bacteriuria;
E. Chiluria.
7. What proteinuria is characteristic of acute-nephritic syndrome?

A. Glomerular;
B. Tubular;
C. Orthostatic;
D. Proteinuria voltage;
E.proteinuria overflow.
8. What test can detect a decrease in glomerular filtration?

A. Sample Nechyporenko;
B. Sample Zimnitsky;
C. Sample Reberga-Tareeva;
D. Addis – Kakowski test;
E. Pasternatsky's test.
9. What signs are typical of Acute-Nephritic Syndrome?
A. Polyuria;
B. Oliguria;
C. Fever;
D. Hematuria;
E. Bacteriuria.
10. Nephrotic syndrome characteristic:

A. Increase in serum VLDL and LDL;
B. Development of hypocoagulation disorders;
C. Hypercalcemia;
D. Convulsive syndrome;
E. Arterial hypertension.
11. Characteristic hematological disorders in chronic renal failure:

A. Anemia;
B. Erythrocytosis;
C. Leukocytosis;
D. Thrombocytosis;
E.Pantsiopeniya.
12. Normal level of urea in blood serum:

A. 150-250 mmol / l;
B. 2.5-3.5 mmol / l;
C. 3.5-8.6 mmol / l;
D. 25-50 mmol / l;
E.40-50 mol / l.
13.Normal glomerular filtration rate:

A. 5-15 ml / min;
B. 50-80 ml / min;
C. 80-120 ml / min;
D. 100-200 ml / min;
E.15-30 ml / min.
14. Hyperkalemia in chronic renal failure occurs when GFR drops below:
A. 80 ml / min;
B. 25 ml / min;
C. 15 ml / min;
D. 60 ml / min;
E.10 ml / min.
15. Anephrotic syndrome characterize:

A. Arterial hypertension, edema, proteinuria, hematuria;
B. Arterial hypertension, hypercholesterolemia;
C. edema, hypo-and dysproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia;
D. massive proteinuria, hypo-and dysproteinemia;
E.Proteinuria, bacteriuria, fever.
16. Daily proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome is:

A. less than 50 mg;
B. 1 g;
C. less than 3.0 g;
D. more than 3.5 g;
E. more than 10 g.
17. The diagnostic criteria for nephrotic syndrome are all. except:
A. proteinuria more than 3.5 grams per day;
B. arterial hypertension;
C. hypoproteinemia, edema;
D. hyperlipidemia;
E. hypercoagulation.
18. The clinical manifestations of faciesnefritica are:
A. pallor and swelling of the face;
B. acrocyanosis;
C. hemorrhagic rash on the face;
D. swelling of the neck veins;
E. Xanthelasma on the face.
19. Which signs carry information about the functional abilities of the kidney?
A. urine protein content
B. isostenuria;
C. glomerular filtration;
D. increased plasma creatinine;
E.High blood pressure.
20. Changes in biochemical parameters in chronic renal failure:

A. hyperalbuminemia;
B. dyslipidemia;
C. hypercreatininemia;
D. urobilinuria;
E. hyperglycemia.
21. What determines the dark and yellowish color of the skin in chronic renal
failure?
A. from increasing direct bilirubin;
B. from increasing indirect bilirubin;
C. from the violation of the allocation of urochromes;
D. for violation of bilirubin secretion;
E.from violation of the synthesis of bilirubin.
22. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by all symptoms except:

A. hypoalbuminemia;
B. proteinuria;
C. swelling;
D. hypertension;
E. hyperlipidemia.
23. The structural and functional unit of the renal tissue is:
A. calyx;
B. juxtaglomerular apparatus;
C. pyramid;
D. nephron;
E. Loop of Henle.
24. Non-selective proteinurization testifies:

A. about the violation of reabsorption;
B. on the breach of the filtration properties of the glomerulus;
C. about the inflammatory process in interstitial tissue;
D. on dystrophic processes in the tubules;
E. violation of protein metabolism in the body.
25. The following method is used to determine glomerular filtration.:

A. determination of diurnal diuresis;
B. urine study according to Zimnitsky;
C. definition of clearance for endogenous kreatinin;
D. Nechiporenko test;
E. determination of daily proteuria.
26. Nitrogenation of the kidneys can be judged.:
A. according to the plasma protein level;
B. by urine protein level;
C. on the level of urea and plasma creatinine;
D. on the relative density of urine;
E. on the level of blood lipids.
27. The simplest method of studying kidney concentration function:

A.Nechyporenko test;
B. Ambuje test;
C. Zimnitsky test;
D. Reberg-Tareev test;
E. three-glass test.
28. The main mechanisms of development of renal hypertension:

A. loss of plasma albumin;
B. activation of the renin system and enhancement of aldosterone production;
C. impairment of kidney filtration function;
D. impaired renal endocrine function;
E. Impaired renal secretory function;
29. Specify a symptom that is not typical for acute pyelonephritis:

A. Acute onset;
B. Oliguria;
C. Reduced kidney size;
D. Hyperkalemia;
E. pH shift.
30. Which of the proposed criteria is essential for the diagnosis

nephrotic syndrome?
A. Edema;
B. Serum albumin exceeds 30 g / l;
C. Daily proteinuria more than 3.5 g;
D. Hypocholesterolemia;
E. Hyperglycemia.
31. Acute nephritic syndrome:

A. Hematuria, edema, hypertension;
B. Hypercholesterolemia;
C. The development of renal failure;
D. Leukocyturia, bacteriuria;
E. Development of anuria.
32. Urinary syndrome - a clinical laboratory concept that includes:

A. Proteinuria;
B. Bacteriuria;
C. Ciliduria;
D. Leukocyturia;
E. All correct.
33. Criteria for determining chronic renal failure:

A. GFR <100 ml / min / 1.73 m2 for> 3 months;
B. GFR <60 ml / min / 1.73 m2 for> 3 months;
C. GFR <30 ml / min / 1.73 m2 for> 3 months;
D. Kidney damage for> 3 months;
E. Kidney damage for <3 months.
34. Specify an early sign of chronic renal failure:

A. Metabolic acidosis;
B. Hypercalcemia;
C. Nocturia;
D. Reducing the size of the kidneys;
E. Increased kidney size.
35. In the pathogenesis of acute renal damage emit:

A. Ischemic;
B. Tubulo-interstitial;
C. Prerenal, renal, postrenal;
D. Toxic;
E. All right.
36. With non-selective proteinuria, one should think about:

A. About nephrotic syndrome;
B. Focal or diffuse violation of the integrity of the basement membrane;
C. Acute nephrotic syndrome;
D. Impaired tubular reabsorption;
E. On the lesion of interstitial tissue.
37. In the differential diagnosis of ARF and CKD matters:

A. Level of diuresis;
B. X-ray examination of the kidneys;
C. Anamnesis, creatinine level;
D. kidney ultrasound;
E. Patient's age.
38. What signs are typical of Acute-Nephritic Syndrome?

A. Polyuria;
B. Oliguria;
C. Fever;
D.Hematuria;
E. Hypotension.
39. For terminal stage of chronic kidney disease characteristic:

A. Glomerular filtration less than 15 ml / min;
B. Oliguria;
C. Hypokalemia;
D. Hypercalcemia;
E. Increasing the size of the kidneys on ultrasound.
40. Normal levels of potassium in serum:

A. 3.5-5.5 mmol / l;
B. 2.5-7.5 mmol / l;
C. 5.5-8.0 mmol / l;
D. 1.5-3.5 mmol / l;
E. 4.5 - 5.5 mmol / l.
41. Normal serum sodium levels:

A. 5.5-7.5 mmol / l;
B. 135-140 mmol / l;
C. 100-200 mmol / l;
D. 12.5-17.0 mmol / l;
E. 155-160 mmol / l.
42. Normal serum creatinine level:

A. 200-450 μmol / l;
B. 5-15 µmol / L;
C. 44-105 μmol / l;
D. 130-140 μmol / L;
E. 218-618 µmol / l.
43. Normal level of urea in blood serum:
A. 150-250 mmol / l;
B. 2.5-3.5 mmol / l;
C. 3.5-8.6 mmol / l;
D. 25-50 mmol / l;
E. 10-15 mmol / l.
44. Normal glomerular filtration rate:

A. 5-15 ml / min;
B. 50-80 ml / min;
C. 80-120 ml / min;
D. 100-200 ml / min;
E. 60-80 ml / min.
45. The serum creatinine level is 200 µmol / lcorresponds to:

A. Terminal stage of chronic pyronephritis;
B. Reduction of glomerular filtration by 50%;
C. Glomerular filtration 15 ml / min;
D. Glomerular filtration 5 ml / min;
E. Reduction of glomerular filtration by 75%.
46. Not typical for nephrotic syndrome:

A. severe proteinuria;
B. hypoproteinemia;
C. hyperlipidemia;
D. hematuria;
E. hypercoagulation.
47. The following method is used to determine the glomerular filtration rate.:
A. determination of diurnal diuresis;
B. urine study according to Zimnitsky;
C. definition of clearance for endogenous kreatinin;
D. urine test according to Nechyporenko;
E. Use of test strips for microalbuminuria.
48. Nitrogenation of the kidneys can be judged:
A. at the plasma protein level;
B. by urine protein level;
C. at the level of urea and plasma kreatinin;
D. on blood plasma cholesterol levels;
E. according to the level of daily diuresis.
49. Thenormal leukocyte counts in the urine analysis according to Nechyporenko:

A. up to 6000 in 1 ml;
B. up to 2000 in 1 ml;
C. up to 4000 in 1 ml;
D. up to 1000 in 1 ml;
E. up to 5000 in 1 ml.
50. Thenormal erythrocytes counts in urine analysis according to Nechipopenko:

A. 1000 in 1 ml;
B. 2000 in 1 ml;
C. 4000 in 1 ml;
D. 6000 in 1 ml;
E. 10,000 in 1 ml;
51. Most accurately the nature of the morphological changes in the kidneys allows
you to determine:
A. intravenous hepatitis;
B. retrospiography;
C. ultrasound study;
D. renal biopsy;
E. Doppler sonography of the kidneys.
52. What level of proteinuria is moderate?

A. 0.05 - 1.0 g / day;
B. 1.0 –3.5 g / day;
C. 3.5-5 g / day;
D. over 5 g / day;
E. over 10 g / day.
53. What level of proteinuria is pronounced?

A.0.05 - 1.0 g / day;
B.1.0–3.5 g / day;
C. 3.5-5 g / day;
D. more than 5 g / day;
E. Over 10 g / day.
54. What level of proteinuria is nephrotic?

A.0.05 - 1 g / day;
B.1.0 –2.5 g / day;
C.2.5-3.0g / day;
D. 3.5-5 g / day;
E. less than 1 g / day.
55. If there is a number of red blood cells in the general analysis of urine, the fact
of hematuria is established?
A. 0 –1 in sight;
V. 1-2 in sight;
S. 2 - 0 in sight;
D. 3 and more in sight;
E. 3 and less in sight.
56. In the presence of what quantity of leukocytes in the general analysis of urine
is the fact of leukocyturia established?
A. 1–2 in sight
B. 2-3 in sight
Pp. 3-5 in sight
D. 5 –6 in sight
E. 0-1 in sight
57. If there is a number of red blood cells in the general analysis of urine is
established gross hematuria fact?
A. 1–2 in sight;
B. 2-3 in sight;
S. 5 and more in sight;
D. urine "color meat slop";
E. 0-1 in sight.
58. Which of the following pathogens is most often the cause of the development
of acute nephritic syndrome?
A. E. coli;
B. Viruses;
C. B-hemolytic streptococcus group A;
D. Chlamydia and other intermediate forms of bacteria;
E. The simplest.
59. What disease is accompanied by an increase in the kidneys, despite the

deterioration of renal functions?
A. amyloidosis, polycystic;
B. nephrosclerosis;
C. glomerulonephritis;
D. chronic pyelonephritis;
E. Diabetic nephropathy.
Hematopoietic system
1.The normal content of iron in serum is:
A. 2-10 µmol / l
B. 6-15 µmol / l
C. 10-28 μmol / l
D. 12-30 µmol / l
E. 15-40 µmol / l
2.Normal blood levels of Hemoglobin in adults are:
A. 90-140 g / l
B. 100-150 g / l
C. 110-160 g / l
D. 120-170 g / l
E. 130-180 g / l
3.Anemic syndrome manifested:
A. perversion of taste
B. dry skin
D. hair loss
E. deformation of nails
4.Hyposiderosis is characterized by:

A. perversion of smell
B. dizziness
D. palpitations
E. shortness of breath
5. In what cases is the development of hyposiderosis possible?
A. hemolysis of red blood cells
C. Vitamin B12 Deficiency
D. chronic foci of blood loss
E. Bone marrow aplasia
6.Body containing the main reserves of iron in the body:
A. liver
B. Spleen
C. kidney
D. brain
E. lungs
7. What research is needed to diagnose hypochromic anemia?
A. serum bilirubin
B. serum creatinine
C. definition of revisions
D. serum ferritin
E. determination of blood sugar
8. Iron deficiency is characterized by:
A. megaloblastic type of blood formation
B. hypochromia of erythrocytes
C. normochromia of erythrocytes
D. pancytopenia
E. hyperbilirubinemia
9. The normal content of ferritin in the serum is:
A. 10 - 12 µg / l
B. 80 - 350 µg / l
C. 10 - 30 μg / l
D. 15 - 300 µg / l
E. 5 - 175 µg / l
10.Erythrocyticpoikilocytosis is:
A. change in the average diameter of erythrocytes
B. change in the form of red blood cells
C. red blood cells with basophilic point
D. Jolly red blood cells
E. Erythrocytes with kebot rings
11. Erythrocyticanisocytosis is:
A. red blood cells with pathological inclusions
B. target red blood cells

C. red blood cell hyperchromia
D. oval red blood cells
E. Presence in the blood of erythrocytes of various sizes
12.Organ, containing vitamin B12 in the body:
A. brain
B. adrenal glands
C. liver
D. kidneys
E. spleen
13.The absorption of vitamin B12- and folic acid occurs mainly:
A. in the stomach
B. in the duodenum
C. in the upper small intestine
D. in the colon
E. in the lower small intestine
14.What is the reason for the development of funicular myelosis syndrome?
A. thymidine deficiency
B. Formation of methylmalonic acid
C. folic acid deficiency
D. Ascorbic acid deficiency
E. Uridine deficiency
15.Macrocytosis and hyperchromia of erythrocytes caused by:

A. hyposiderosis
C. hemosiderosis
D. red blood cell hemolysis
E. erythrocytosis
16.Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to the formation of which red blood cells?
A. normocytes
B. microcytes
C. macrocyte
D. microspherocytes
E. sickle cell red blood cells
17.Hemolytic syndrome manifests is:
A. pale skin
B. dry skin
C. yellowness of the skin
D. leukemia on the skin
E. trophic ulcers on the skin
18.Erythrocyte hemolysis results in:
A. direct hyperbilirubinemia
B. indirect hyperbilirubinemia
C. hyperbilirubinemia of both fractions
D. Hypobilubinemia
E. abilirubinemia
19.Hemolysis of erythrocytes due to the formation of anti-erythrocyte
antibodies is confirmed by:
A. direct breakdown of Coombs
B. indirect Coombs breakdown
C. direct sucrose breakdown
D. hemosiderin urine
E. hemoglobinuria
20.Dysmetabolic degeneration of the lateral and partially posterior part of the

spinal cord with vitamin B12 deficiency leads to the development of:
A. anemic syndrome
B. neuro-anemic syndrome
C. Sideropenic syndrome
D. hemolytic syndrome
E. neuroleukemia
21.What is the cause of reticulocytosis?
A. tissue hypoxia
B. Hyposiderosis
C. erythrocyte hemolysis
D. hemosiderosis
E. erythrocytosis
22.Areticulocythemia develops when:
A. the presence of antibodies against bone marrow erythrocaryocytes

B. the presence of antibodies against peripheral blood erythrocytes
C. fermentopathy of erythrocytes
D. hemoglobinopathies
E. erythrocyte membranopathyes
23.The cause of red blood cell microcytosis:
A. increased red blood cell sequestration in the spleen
B. excess of “old” red blood cells
C. increasing the number of young red blood cells
D. Reduction of hemoglobin content in the erythrocyte
24.When examining the patient revealed pancytopenia,Your actions in the

survey plan:
A. determination of ferritin
B. direct Coombs test
C. liver tests
D. Creatinine and other kidney tests
E. bone marrow examination
25.Syndrome of the funicular myelosis appears:
A. violation of tactile and pain sensitivity
B. general weakness
C. hyperplasia of lymphatic tissue
D. perversion of smell
E. dysphagia
26.The normal content of platelets in the blood is:
A. 100-200х109 / l
B. 150-300x109 / l
C. 170-350х109 / l
D. 150-400x109 / l
E. 150-450х109 / l
27.Platelet ancestors are:
A. reticulocyte
B. megakaryocytes
C. myelokaryocytes
D. oxyphilicnormocytes
E. polychromatophilicnormocytes
28.Megakaryocytes are precursors to:
A. reticulocyte
B. neutrophils
C. lymphocyte
D. platelet
E. erythrocyte
29.The life span of platelets is:
A. 12-24 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 8-11 days
E. 15-20 days
30.When thrombocytopenia develops:
A. petechial-bruise type of bleeding
B. hematoma type of bleeding
C. vasculitic-purple type of bleeding
E. angiomatous type of bleeding
31.Choose a type of bleeding with a deficiency of coagulation factors VIII and

IX?
B. vasculitis-purple type of bleeding
E. petechial hematoma type of bleeding
32.Vasculitis-purple type of bleeding due to:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. thrombocytopathy
C. pathology of capillary endotheliocytes
D. congenital inferiority of capillary walls
E. deficiency of coagulation factors VIII and IX

33.Specify the type of bleeding with a deficiency of von Willebrand factor?
B. vasculitis-purple type of bleeding
E. Angiomatous type of bleeding
34. Congenital inferiority of the capillary walls with the expansion of the
lumen of blood vessels leads to the development of:
A. vasculitic-purple type of bleeding
B. angiomatous type of bleeding
D. petechial-Sinyachkov type of bleeding
35. Choose a critical thrombocytopenia level?
A. 50x109 / l
V. 40x109 / l
S. 30x109 / l
D. 20x109 / l
E. 10x109 / l
36. Platelets are formed from one megakaryocyte:
A. 1000-2000
B. 2000-4000
C. 3000-6000
D. 4000-8000
E. 5000-10000
37.Hemorrhagic syndrome in aplasia of the blood due to:
A. anomalous structure of vessel walls
B. Increased destruction of platelets in the blood
C. deficiency of blood coagulation factors
D. increased platelet consumption
E. insufficient formation of megakaryocytes
38. Which of the laboratory signs is pathognomic for the deficiency of

coagulation factors?
A. prolonged bleeding time
V. decrease in the number of platelets
C. lengthening of blood clotting time
D. Platelet dysfunction
E. reducing the number of megakaryocytes
39.In what type of bleeding are intermuscular, subcutaneous, retroperitoneal

hematomas observed?
A. vasculitic purple
B. angiomatous
C. hematomic
D. Microcirculatory
E. petechial-bruise
40.Extending of the activated partialthromboplastin time (APTT) is observed
with:
E. microcirculatory type of bleeding
41. Lengthening the duration of bleeding time by Duke occurs when:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. Intravascular thrombosis
C. congenital coagulopathy
D. Acquired coagulopathy
42.Platelet dysfunction:
A. thrombocytopenia
B. thrombocytopathy
C. angiopathy
D. coagulopathy
E. Vasopathy
43.The first stage of coagulation hemostasis ends with the formation of:
B. thrombin
C. plasmin
D. fibrin
E. prothrombin
44.The second stage of coagulation hemostasis ends with the formation of:
B. prothrombin
S. thrombin
D. fibrin
E. plasmin
45.Physiological anticoagulant is:
A. plasminogen
B. plasmin
C. trombomodulin
D. Kallikrein
E. von Willebrand factor
46.Hyperplastic syndrome:
B. hyperplasia of lymphoid tissue
C. hypoplasia of myeloid tissue
47. What is the mechanism of development of hyperplastic syndrome?

B. hypoplasia of myeloid tissue
C. hyperplasia of lymphoid tissue
48. What are the precursor cells of plasma cells?
A. Monocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. neutrophils
E. eosinophils
49. The spleen is located at the level of:
A. VIII-X ribs
B. IX-XI ribs
C. X-XII ribs
D. XI-XII ribs
E. VIII-XII ribs
50.Spleen is covered with peritoneum:
A. on the one hand
B. from two sides
C. from three sides
D. all around
E. not covered on one side

51.Bone marrow is located in:
A. in the diaphysis of the bones
B. in bone metaphysis
C. cells of spongy bone
D. in compact bone matter
E. in the periosteum
52. What applies to the central organs of the hematopoietic system?
A. lymph nodes
B. spleen
C. thymus gland
D. liver
E. lymphocytes
53.What are the cells Botkin, basket cells?
A. abnormal monocytes
B. hemolized red blood cells
C. polysegmented neutrophils
D. destroyed lymphocytes
E. activated platelets
54. Select an organ containing red and white pulp?
A. lymph node
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. bone marrow
E. liver
55.Hypersplenism:
A. splenomegaly + cytopenia
B. hepatosplenomegaly
C. splenomegaly + lymphadenopathy
D. Splenomegaly + Erythrocytosis
E. splenomegaly + viral infection
56. Patient I., 34 years old, complaints of general weakness, fatigue, dizziness,
headaches, shortness of breath and palpitations with little exertion, from the
anamnesis: heavy, prolonged menstrual bleeding.
What syndrome can you think of?
A. sideropenic syndrome
C. anemic syndrome
57. Patient S., 28 years old, went to a doctor's office with complaints of taste
perversion, hair loss, brittle nails, difficulty in swallowing food, dry skin.
CBC: HB 128 g / l, erythr. 4,7 h1012 / l, MCV 62 fl, MCH 18 pg.
A. anemic syndrome
C. funicular myelosis
D. Sideropenic syndrome
58. Patient J., 42 years old, appealed to the outpatient clinic. Complaints when
going to the doctor: yellowness of the skin and visible mucous membranes, change
in color of urine as a strongly brewed tea, feeling of heaviness in hypochondria,
occasionally itchy skin.
Total bilirubin 78.4 µmol / l, mainly due to the indirect fraction.
What syndrome does the patient have?
A. anemic syndrome
C. funicular syndrome
E. hemolytic syndrome
59. Patient D., 19 years old, was found to have: HB 58 g / l, eryth.3.7x10 12 / l,

MCV 58 fl, MCH 15 pg, thromb.325.0x109 / l, leuk.4.3h109 / l.
D. megalocytic, hyperchromic anemia
60. Patient S., 70 years old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, shortness of
breath and palpitations at the slightest physical exertion, unsteadiness of gait,
feeling of crawls all over the body, change of color of urine.
CBC: HB 62 g / l, erytr.1.7x1012 / l, MCV 118 fl, MCH 36pg, thromb. 155.0x10 9 /
l, leuk.3.9x109 / l.
61. Patient A., 26 years old, was admitted to the hospital with complaints of
marked general weakness, fatigue, headaches, dizziness, blurred vision, shortness
of breath and palpitations at the slightest physical exertion, yellowness of the skin,
feeling of heaviness and pain in the left hypochondrium, change in urine color .
CBC: erythrocytes 1.6x1012 / l, Hb 48 g / l, MCV 92 fl, MCH 31 pg, platelets

187.4x109 / l, leukocytes 8.6x109 / l: fell. 6, segm.72, mon. 6, lymph 16, ESR 32
mm / hour.
What is determined by the general blood test?
62. Patient I., 16 years old, during the study found: peripheral blood platelet count
20.0x109 / l; the number of bone marrow megakaryocytes in 1 μl of 185 cells.
What type of bleeding can a patient develop?
A. petechial-bruise
C. hematoma
D. angiomatous
63. Patient I., 17 years old, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of nasal
bleeding, pain in the right knee joint, aggravated by the slightest movement.
History: ill from early childhood.
CBC: erythrocytes 4,6x1012 / l, Hb -148 g / l, MCV 64 fl, MCH 30pg, platelets
410x109/l, leukocytes 4,6x109 / l: fell. 6, segm.72, mon. 6, lymph 16, ESR 12 mm /
hour.
What type of hemorrhagic syndrome does the patient have?
A. petechial-bruise
C. hematoma
D. angiomatous
64. Patient K., 16 years old, was admitted to the hospital with complaints of pain
and a sharp restriction of movement in the right knee joint. Joint pain intensifies
with the slightest movement. Anamnesis: sick from early childhood.
TBC: red blood cells 4.6 × 1012 / l, HB 148 g / l, MCV 64 fl, MCH 30pg, platelets
410 × 109 / l, white blood cells 4.6 × 109 / l: pal. 6, seg.72, mon. 6, lymph.16, ESR
12 mm / hour. What research needs to be done to clarify the type of bleeding?
A. definition of von Willebrand factor
B. determination of coagulation factors VIII, IX
C. platelet aggregogram
D. determination of the titer of antiplatelet antibodies
E. Determination of anti-erythrocyte antibody titer

65. Patient I., 26 years old, came to the clinic. According to the patient, it became
clear that during the last 6 months she began to notice the appearance of petechial
rashes on the extremities, bruises after minor injuries, an increase in the duration of
menstrual bleeding to 10-12 days.
What research is shown?
A. blood coagulation factors VIII, IX
B. APTT
C. platelet count, megakaryocytes
D. Prothrombin time, INR
E. coagulation factors I, VII
66. Patient Z., 26 years old, complaints of an increase in cervical, submandibular,

axillary, inguinal lymph nodes, a feeling of heaviness and pain in the right and left
hypochondria.
CBC: HB 126 g / l, erytr. 3,9x1012 / l, thromb. 176.0 x109 / l,leuk-26.2 x109 / l: neut
- 38, eosin. 2, lymph.- 60, ESR 24 mm / hour.
What is the hematopoietic lesion syndrome in a patient?
A. hemorrhagic
B. hemolytic
C. necrotic ulcer
D. Funicular myeosis
E. hyperplastic
67. Patient K., 35 years old, complaints of a feeling of heaviness and pain in the
left hypochondrium, aggravated by physical activity, after eating, and general
weakness.
Objectively: The general condition is severe. Peripheral lymph nodes are not
palpable. The tongue is coated with white bloom, dry. The abdomen is enlarged,
asymmetric due to the enlarged spleen. The lower edge of the spleen at the
entrance to the pelvis, extends beyond the median line by 3-4 cm, dense, flat
surface, sensitive to palpation. The liver is not palpable.
A. hyperplastic
B. hepatomegaly
C. splenomegaly
D. hepatolienal
E. hepatorenal
68. A patient with lymph proliferative disease has generalized lymphadenopathy.
What blood cells can be involved in this case?
A. neutrophils
B. monocytes
C. lymphocytes
D. eosinophils
E. basophils
69. The patient has generalized lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. In a general

blood test, there is leukocytosis. What blood cells can be enlarged?
A. stab and segmented neutrophils
B. reticulocytes, red blood cells
C. eosinophils, basophils
D. Monocytes, lymphocytes
E. Platelets and platelet aggregates

70. Patient K., 67 years old, was diagnosed with peripheral blood: HB-138 g / l,
erythrocytes-4,1x1012 / l, MCV 84 fl, MCH 30 pg, platelets-216,8x10 9 / l,
leukocytes-6,4x109 / l: neut 24, lymph. 70, mon. 6, ESR 15 mm / hour.
A. erythrocytosis
B.thrombocytosis
C. leukocytosis
D. Lymphocytosis
E. monocytosis
71. Patient B., 43 years old, in a general blood test had the following data: HB-148
g / l, red blood cells-4.3 × 1012 / l, MCV 84 fl, MCH 30 pg, platelets-495.0 × 109 /
l, white blood cells-6,4x109 / l: stick 3, segment 54%, lymph 36%, eosin 2,
mon.5%, ESR 12 mm / hour. What changes are available in the general blood test?
A. erythrocytosis
B. thrombocytosis
C. leukocytosis
D. lymphocytosis
E. monocytosis
Skeletal muscle system
1. Diffuse alopecia is:
A. Increased hair breakage
B. Dryness and section of hair
C. Uniform hair loss
D. Local alopecia
E. Excessive hair growth
2. A 56 years old patient.Complainsofpainintheknee, and

anklejoints,worsening when walking. Objectively: right kneejoint swollen,
crepitationisheardwhenmovingthejoints.
Whichindexorscalecanbeusedtoassesstheseverityofpaininthejoints?
A. BASDAI
B. SLICC
C. DAS-28
D. VAS
E. SELENA
3. Theformulaforcalculatingtheactivityindexof DAS28 syndrome in

inflammatoryjointdiseaseis:
A. DAS28 = TJC28 + SJC28 + 0,7 ln (ESR) + 0,014GH
B. DAS28 = √ TJC 28 + √ SJC 28 + 0.7 ln (ESR) + 0.014 GH
C. DAS28 = TJC 28 + SJC 28 + ln (ESR) + GH
D. DAS28 = 0.56√ TJC 28 + 0.28√ SJC 28 + 0.7 ln (ESR) + 0.014 GH
E. DAS28 = 0.56√ TJC 28 + 0.28√ SJC 28 + 0.7√ (ESR + GH)

C. "dry" syndrome due to lesions of the exocrine glands
D. “dry” syndrome associated with dry skin eczema
E. “dry” syndrome due to photosensitivity
5. Raynaud's syndrome is:
A. Episodes of limb arteriole constriction, manifested by whitening and

cyanosis of the fingers
B. Numbness of fingers
C. Redness of the fingertips after changing the temperature
D. The appearance of ulcers in the periungual bed
E. The appearance of areas of skin atrophy at the tips of the fingers of the hands
and feet
6. DIC syndrome stands for:
A. Degenerative intraarticular syndrome
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome
C. Diffuse vegetative-vascular syndrome
D. Diffuse intravascular sclerosis
E. Demyelinating intracranial sclerosing syndrome

7. Patient 75 yearsold, admittedtothedepartmentofrheumatology.
Complainsofpaininthekneejoints, whichintensifyintheevening. Fromthepatient
history: themotherhasdiseasesofthemusculoskeletalsystem. Had
repeatedinjuriesofthekneejoint. Objectively: a patientis ofincreasednutrition,
BMI 35 kg / m2. Locally: ? intheinterphalangealjointsofthehands,
Heberdennodules, varusdeformityofthekneejointsaredetermined. Thereis a
crunchinthekneejoints. CBCC, Urine analysis: nochange. What is the name of
syndrome present in this patient?
A. diffuseconnectivetissuedisease
B. Syndromeofinflammatorymusclechanges
C. degenerativejointdiseasesyndrome
D. Syndromeofsoftperiarticulartissuelesion
E. Syndromeofinflammatoryjointchanges
8. Antiphospholipid syndrome occurs in:
A. Degenerative lesions of the joints
B. Inflammatory lesions of the joints
C. Diffuse lesions of connective tissue syndrome
D. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions around the articular tissues
E. Osteopenic syndrome
9. Viscerites are:
A. Pathognomonic symptomacomplexes, characteristic of lesions within the

same system
B. Concurrent lesions of internal organs
C. Complications of drug therapy for visceral organs
D. Affection of the peritoneum in the syndrome of diffuse lesion of the

connective tissue
E. Syndromes caused by damage to internal organs
10. Viscerite includes:
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Onychodystrophy
C. Cardit
D. Alopecia
E. Arteritis
11. Of the extra-articular manifestations in the syndrome of diffuse lesions of
the connective tissue, the most important is:
A. Lesions of the lymphatic vessels
B. Kidney damage
C. Lesion of the spleen
D. Liver damage
E. Damage of exocrine glands
12. Livedo reticularis is:
A. Varicose saphenous veins
B. Damage to blood vessels with spasm of the capillary bed
C. Resistant bluish color, uneven skin color in the form of tree spots
D. The appearance of bruises of various sizes on the skin of the limbs
E. Palpable nodules along the arteries of medium caliber
13. Osteolysis is:
A. Formation of bone defects in spongy bones
B. Decrease in bone mass per unit volume
D. Thinning of the bones
E. Cystic bone remodeling
14. Aseptic bone necrosis is:
A. Cellular (holes) pattern of bone tissue
B. Complete necrosis of spongy bone tissue and bone marrow
D. Decrease in bone mass per unit volume
E. Formation of bone defects in tubular bones

15. Female, 35 yearsold. Marksseveremyastheniagravisandfever. Objectively:
periorbitaledemawithpurplish-purpleerythemaaroundtheeyes,
tighteningofthemusclesoftheshouldersandhipswith a
painfulreactiontopalpation. Intheblood, anincrease in CRP, ESR.
Whatanalysisshouldbesenttothepatienttoclarifythediagnosis?
A. Creatinephosphokinase;
B. Rheumatoidfactor;
D. Antibodiesto DNA strands;
E. Bloodcreatinine;
16. 16-years old girl complaints of periodic whitening and cyanosis of the
fingers. Weight loss up to 6 kg for 2 months. Hardening of the skin on the
hands and face. Diffuse alopecia. Antibodies to topoisomerase -1 in blood
serum analysis. Specify the main syndrome:
A. Anemic syndrome
B. Syndrome of diffuse connective tissue damage
C. Astheno-vegetative syndrome
D. Sjogren's syndrome
17. The clinical features of autoimmune diseases are:
A. Predominant involvement of males;
B. Full recovery with continuous treatment;
C. Propensity for progression and recurrence;
D. There are no changes in blood tests;
E. Lack of complete remission;
18. The primary role in the development of diffuse diseases of the connective
tissue is:
A. Congenital anomalies of the internal organs;

B. Children's age;
C. A combination of environmental problems with nutritional patterns;
D. A combination of genetic predisposition and immune disorders;
E. Bad habits (smoking);
19. Female 35-years old. The complaints of marked myasthenia (muscle

weakness) and fever. Objectively: periorbital edema with a purple-lilac
erythema around the eyes, thickening of the muscles of the shoulders and hips
with a painful reaction to palpation. In the blood, an increase in CRP, ESR.
What analysis needed to send the patient to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Creatine phosphokinase;
B. Rheumatoid factor;
D. Antibodies to DNA strands
E. Creatinine blood;
20. The patient has complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee joint.
The ultrasound in the joint cavity shows about 50 ml of fluid. It corresponds
to:
A. A pronounced degree of joint defiguration;
B. Weak degree of joint defiguration;
C. No defiguration;
D. Moderate joint defiguration;
E. Permissible fluid volume;
21. In a patient with pain and limitation of range of motion in the hip joint, an
X-ray examination can determine:
A. Thickness of the synovial membrane;
B. Atrophy of muscles;
C. Viscosity of synovial fluid;
D. The presence of destructive changes in the joint;
E. Volume of synovial fluid;
22. Boutonniere deformation is:
A. Deformation with flexion of the proximal and over-flexion of the distal

interphalangeal joints
B. Deformation, accompanied by subluxation of the distal phalanges of the hands
C. Deviation of the wrist to the radial side
D. Thickening of the distal interphalangeal joints resembling a flower bud
E. Deviation of the hand to the elbow side
23. Ulnar deviation is:
A. Lateral over-extension of the hand
B. Deformation, accompanied by the deviation of the wrist in the radial direction
C. Deformity of the joints of the hands, resembling a snail
D. Deformation, accompanied by a deviation of the hand in the elbow side
E. Deformation, accompanied by subluxations of the distal phalanges of the hands
24. Deformation in the form of mutilating arthritis is characterized by:
A. Abnormal development of the hands and feet due to various genetic mutations
B. Multidirectional curvature and shortening of the phalanges
C. Disruption of the axis of the joints of the hands and feet
D. The fusion of the phalanges between the fingers
E. Deviation of the hand to the radial side
25. Bone erosion detected by X-ray examination is:
A. Marginal bone tissue defects in the form of uzura
B. Bone cysts
C. Subluxations of joints
D. Sharp narrowing of the joint space
E. "punched-out" lesion
26. Monoarticular lesions are:
A. Damage to the joints on one side
B. Damage to one joint
C. A single, non-recurrent joint disorder
D. Monotonic, chronic lesions of the joints
E. Damage of one tendon
27. Visual analog scale (VAS) is:
A. Visual inspection of the joints
B. Evaluation of the function of similar joints compared with the symmetrical side
C. Assessment of the condition of the joint using visualizing methods of

instrumental diagnostics
D. Method of objectification of pain syndrome, assessed by the patient
E. Evaluation of muscle function using visualization methods of instrumental

diagnostics
28. Morning stiffness is:
A. morning stiffness in the whole body
B. Feeling of stiffness in the joints in the morning after waking up
C. Joint pain in the morning
D. Tight swelling of the joints in the morning
E. General weakness in the morning due to intoxication
29. Patient, 28 yearsold, inthedepartmentofcardiorehematology.

Complainsofjointpain. Redness, swelling, localwarmth of the skin,
andpaininthejointareaareobjectivelydetected. Herefusestosteponhissoreleg.
Fromthepatient history: gotsick a weekago, notesafteraninjury. Pre-
exposedsyndromeofdamagetothesoftperiarticulartissues
(bursitisofthekneejointontheleft).
Whatresearchmethodconfirmsyoursyndrome:
A. Radiographyoftheknee
B. Ultrasoundoftheknee
C. Densitometry
D. Scintigraphy
E. Cholangiography
30. A 46-year-old
womancametotheclinicwithcomplaintsofachingpainintheshoulderjoint,
aggravatedbypalpationintheaffectedarea. Additional complaints
areimpairedmobility, edemaandhyperemia. Symptoms
appearsafterprolongedphysicalexertion. Heworksas a tenniscoach.
USDwithoutfeatures. Ultrasoundoftheshoulderjoint: supraspinatusmuscle.
Thestructureisheterogeneous, theechogenicityofthetendonisordinary.
Subacromio-subdeltoidbagisnotenlarged. Whatsyndromearewetalkingabout?
A. ligamentitis
B. bursitis
C. tendobursitis
D. tendonitis
E. fibrositis
31. In inflammatory lesions of the joint, the ultrasonography can identify the
following characteristic features:
A. Cluster of synovial exudate, proliferation of the synovial membrane
B. The presence of microorganisms that cause joint disease
C. Bone UZURATIONS
D. "punched-out" symptom
E. Regional osteosclerosis
32. Rheumatoid factor is:

A. Risk factor for developing rheumatoid arthritis
B. Factor contributing to the development of deformities in rheumatoid arthritis
C. Serologic marker for rheumatoid arthritis
D. Mandatory criteria for rheumatoid arthritis
E. Factor showing reactive arthritis
33. Myasthenia is:
A. Pain in the muscles of the limbs
B. Muscle hypotrophy
C. Muscle weakness
D. Muscle hyperkinesis
E. Muscle atrophy
34. What is the term for increased sensitivity to ultraviolet irradiation of open
skin surfaces?
A. Photosensitization
B. Dermafotosis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Ringworm
E. Photophobia
35. Patient R., 36 years old, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of pain
in the metacarpophalangeal, wrist, knee joints, swelling of these joints,
restriction of movements in them. In the morning, notes stiffness in the
affected joints until 12 o'clock in the afternoon. Specify the main syndrome:
A. Syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
B. Osteopenic syndrome
C. Syndrome of inflammatory changes of the joints
D. Muscle inflammatory syndrome
E. Syndrome of inflammation of the soft periarticular tissues

36. The most typical sign of deformity of the hand in the syndrome of
degenerative joint damage is:
A. Heberden's nodules
B. Ulnar deviation
C. "swan neck" deformity
D. "buttonhole" deformity
E. "m-shaped deformation"
37. Which joints are often affected in degenerative-dystrophic lesions of the

osteo-articular system:
A. elbow joint
B. knee joints
C. first metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Thoracic spine joints
E. shoulder joints
38. Bouchard nodes appear:
A. in the syndrome of damage to the soft periarticular tissues
B. in the syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints
C. in the syndrome of degenerative joint damage
D. in diffuse connective tissue syndrome
E. in the syndrome of inflammatory muscle changes
39. The characteristic symptom of degenerative joint disease is:
A. Fever
B. morning stiffness for more than 1 hour
C. myalgia
D. hemorrhagic rash
E. “starting” character of pain

40. Deformation of the joint is due to:
A. Lack of joint pathology
B. Exudative- proliferative phenomena in the joint and periarticular tissues
C. bone ingrowths (fusion)
D. destruction of muscles
E. tight formation, rising above the skin
41. What is the name of the palpation sensation of a crunch or crack in the
joint during movement?
A. Crepitus
B. Soreness
C. Blockade
D. Stiffness
E. Contracture
42. What is the name of a symptom characterized by periodic acute pain in

the joint during movements, falling into the joint space of fragments of
cracking cartilage?
A. “blockade” of the joint
B. “starting pains”
C. "mechanical pain"
D. “night pain”
E. “morning stiffness”
43. How is the starting nature of the pain characterized?
A. Athlete's joint pain during start
B. joint pain at the beginning of movement
C. Morning joint pain after waking up
D. Pain worse at rest and lessened by movement

E. arthralgia more harassing in the first half of the night
44. Crepitation is:
A. limiting the range of motion in a joint in a certain direction
B. The presence of “joint muscle” inside the joint
C. palpation of cracking sound in the joint when moving
D. abnormal movement in the joint
E. fluid accumulation inside the joint
45. The symptom of "blockade" of the joint is:
A. Periodic acute pain in the joint with movements, fragments of cracking

cartilage getting into the joint space
B. inability to move in the joint due to fusion of the articular surfaces
C. increased pain in the joint after intra-articular blockade of the joint
D. morning joint pain upon waking
E. Periodic "stumbling" of the joint while walking
46. The starting nature of the pain is:
A. joint pain in an athlete during the start
B. pain in the joint at the beginning of the movement
C. morning pain in the joint after waking up
D. pain, aggravated at rest and relieved by movement
E. Arthralgia more disturbing in the evening and in the first half of the night.
47. One of the features of pain in a degenerative lesion of the hip joint is:
A. increased pain in the morning
B. irradiation of the pain to the groin area
C. Pain of "lumbago" type
D. burning character of the pain
E. pain worsening at rest

48. What is the name of the syndrome, characterized by a decrease in the
mineral density of bone tissue and a disruption of its microarchitecture with
subsequent transition to osteoporosis?
A. Osteopenia
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteosclerosis
D. Osteonecrosis
E. Osteochondrosis
49. Patient A., 67-years old. Complaints of pain in the knee, hip joints, when
moving and when going down the stairs. From the anamnesis: pain in the
joints for 5-6 years. The nodes of Heberden and Bouchard are noted on the
hands. CRP - neg. RF - neg. X-ray of the knee joints: narrowing of the
interarticular crevices, subchondral osteosclerosis, osteophytes. What
syndrome are we talking about?
A. diffuse lesion syndrome of connective tissue
B. muscle inflammatory syndrome
C. syndrome of degenerative joint damage
D. syndrome of lesions of the soft periarticular tissues
E. syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints
50. Lupus cheilitis is:

A. Bubble eruptions on the mucosa of lips
B. Painless ulcers on the gum mucosa
C. Dense dry grayish scales, with inflammation of the red border of the lips
D. "Bits" at the corners of the mouth
E. Aphthous stomatitis on the background of DBST
51. "Dermatomyositis glasses" are:
52. DIC may be a complication of:
A. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of connective tissue
C. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions around the articular tissues
E. Sjogren's syndrome
53. Patient D., 54 years old, complaints of pain in the knee joints, which are
worse in the evening. Locally: In the area of the interphalangeal joints of the
hands, the Heberden nodules are defined, the knee joints are de-configured
and varus deformity. There is a crunch in the knee joints. UAC, OAM: no
change. What is your intended syndrome?
A. muscle inflammatory syndrome
B. syndrome of degenerative joint damage
C. syndrome of lesions of the soft periarticular tissues
D. syndrome of inflammatory changes in the joints
E. diffuse connective tissue syndrome

54. Osteopenic syndrome is:
A. Vascular pathology characterized by transient ischemia of the fingers, tip of the

nose and / or ears, caused by external factors (for example, cold).
B. It is the presence of an inflammatory process (edema, increased local

temperature, redness, soreness and impairment of function) in the joints, which is
determined by an objective examination.
C. Intermittent muscle weakness in patients with obliterating arteriosclerosis

without marked trophic disturbances.
D. The decrease in bone mineral density and the disruption of its

microarchitecture with the subsequent transition to osteoporosis
E. Aseptic necrosis of metacarpal bones with secondary osteosclerosis and

arthrosis.
55. Which bone cells are responsible for resorption during bone remodeling?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocyte
C. Osteoclasts
D. Osteoid
E. Chondrocytes
56. The most informative instrumental method of diagnosis of osteopenic

syndrome is:
B. Conventional radiography
D. Ultrasound of the joints
E. Arthroscopy
57. Densitometry determines:
A. Bone mineral density
B. The ratio of trace elements in bone tissue

C. The presence of synovial fluid
D. Swelling of periarticular soft tissue
E. Cartilage structure
58. The most frequent localization of osteopenic fractures:
A. Neck of the femur, vertebral body, fracture of the radius
B. Ribs, clavicle, shoulder blade,
C. Upper and lower jaw
D. Tibia and ankles
E. Bones of fingers and facial skull
59. Bone Formation Marker
A. Pyridinoline (PD, NTX) and deoxypyridinoline (U-DPD - free)
B. Bone alkaline phosphatase (bone ALP)
C. Hydroxproline (OP)
D. Galactosyloxylysin (GOP)
E. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (t ARF)
60. Age-related changes in bone tissue are related:
A. with increasing bone sensitivity to parathyroid hormone
B. with increasing calcium excretion
C. with calcitonin deficiency
D. with inhibition of the synthesis of vitamin D3
E. with increasing testosterone levels
61. The defiguration is due to:
A. lack of mobility in the joint
B. Exudative- proliferative phenomena in the synovial membrane

C. Loss of joint native form
D. Destruction of articular surfaces
E. Restricted joint mobility
62. Nodules are:
A. A sign of active rheumatic fever, a pale pink, narrow thread that creates a lace
pattern on the skin, quickly appears and disappears
B. Skin infiltrates of red-purple color, clearly elevating above the skin surface, are
located mainly on the front surface of the tibia
C. on the nose and cheeks, such as erythema
D. Multiple aphthous and ulcerative lesions of the mucous membranes
E. dense formation, rising above the skin level, located in the deep layers of
the dermis and subcutaneous tissue
63. A LE cell is:
A. Eosinophils modified
B. Small Platelet Count
C. Discoid erythrocytes
D. Mature neutrophils phagocytizing altered nuclear inclusions
E. Ragocyte
64. When the joint function is changed, it changes:
A. Joint circumference
B. Gait
C. Patient Weight
D. Analysis of synovial fluid
E. Patient growth
65. The method of research that reveals flat feet is:
A. Plantography
B. Futoscopy
C. Stopometry
D. Sledoscopy
E. Tonometry
66. Modifiable risk factors for osteopenia syndrome:
A. Female gender, age over 65
B. Caucasian race, family history
C. Anterior fractures, hypogonadism
D. Insufficient intake of calcium from food and vitamin D deficiency
E. Early menopause in women
67. Measuring the circumference of a joint helps to identify:
A. Swelling of the joint
B. Joint deformity
C. Impaired joint function
D. Hypermobility of the joint
E. Crunch and Crepitations
68. Compensatory fractures of the spine are manifested by:
A. There are no manifestations
B. Swelling of the soft tissue of the back
C. Redness of the skin in the paravertebral zone
D. Acute pain in the lower back arising after exercise
E. Constant pain, aggravated at night
69. A synovial biopsy can be used to identify:
A. Tumors, granulomatous diseases
B. Defibration and necrosis of cartilage
C. Quantities of synovial fluid

D. A large number of ragocytes
E. Viscosity reduction
70. In the analysis of synovial fluid take into account:
A. Cytosis, protein content, the presence and nature of salt crystals
B. pronounced nuclear cell pathology
C. a large number of ragocytes
D. white blood cell count
E. number of uniform elements
71. Tendonitis is:
A. Isolated tendon lesion
B. Inflammation of the joint capsule
C. sprain
D. inflammatory lesion of periarticular tissue
E. lesion located in the tendon-muscular ligament area
72. Patient S., 18 years old, complaints of weakness and muscle pain, fever,
shortness of breath, weight loss of 6 kg. From the patient history: felt sick
after a viral infection, with subsequent pain in the joints and muscles.
Objective: The condition is severe. He can’t raise his head, stand up, eat on
his own. Periorbital edema, purple spots on the thigh skin. Which of the
following is most appropriate for verifying the diagnosis?
A. Definition of creatine phosphokinase
E. Determination of antibodies to topoisomerase (SCL-70)
73. Myotendinitis is:
A. lesion located in the region of the tendon-muscular ligament

C. lesion of the joint capsule
D. Isolated lesion of the tendon of the corresponding muscle
E. Inflammatory lesion of periarticular lymph nodes
74. Fibrositis is:
A. Isolated lesion of the tendon of the corresponding muscle
B. lesion of the joint capsule
C. Inflammation of the fascia and aponeuroses
D. inflammatory lesion of extra-articular ligaments, most often the ligamentous

E. Sprain
75. Patient 64 years old, admitted to the department of rheumatology.

Complaints about the restriction of mobility in the distal interphalangeal
joints of both hands, which arose about 12 years ago and is gradually
progressing. On examination, nodular thickenings in the region of the distal
interphalangeal joints of both hands are noteworthy, the fingers are
deformed, their mobility is limited. From the internal organs pathology is not
detected. Blood and urine tests are normal. What is the syndrome of this
patient?
A. Degenerative-dystrophic joint changes
B. Inflammatory joint changes
C. Lesions of soft periarticular tissue
D. Diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
E. Osteopenia
76. A patient of 65 years old, admitted to the rheumatology department,

complains of severe pain when walking in the right knee and hip joints,
aggravated by the end of the day, decreased range of motion in the right hip
joint. From the patient history: considers himself ill for 8 years. Objectively:
painful restriction of movement in the right knee joint, crepitus. Labs: within
normal limits. RF - negative, CRP - negative. Pre-exposed syndrome of
degenerative - dystrophic changes in the joints. What symptom confirms?
A. Blockades
B. Thomayer
C. Forestier
D. Schober
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
77. A 36-year-old woman came to the rheumatology department. Complains

of rashes in the area of the cheekbones and cheeks, especially aggravated by
exposure to the sun, constantly cold limbs with whitening of the fingers of the
hands. Weight loss up to 6 kg in one month, hair loss. In blood tests,
antibodies to double-stranded DNA, antibodies to Sm antigen are positive.
What is the syndrome of this patient?
A. degenerative joint disease
B. inflammatory muscles and joints
C. asthenovegetative
D. diffuse damage to the connective tissue
E. Soft lesions near articular tissues.
78. A 36-year-old man admitetd to the rheumatology department with

complaints of pain in the left knee joint, the pain intensifies during pressing
on the area near the joint and during physical exertion, redness, swelling,
muscle weakness and fever above the affected joint, stiffness in the morning .
From the patient history: within 10 days the above complaints appeared after
he fell during football. According to the patient, he has been playing football
for 10 years and denies such complaints before. What is the preliminary
syndrome for this patient?
B. inflammatory muscles and joints
C. asthenovegetative
E. Soft lesions near articular tissues.
79. The formation of the "snapping" finger due to:
A. Severe osteoarthritis of the hand joints
B. mismatch between the diameter of the fibrous ring and the thickness of the
flexor tendon of the finger
C. nodular tendovaginitis of the flexor of the finger
D. arthritis of the interphalangeal joint of the hand
E. arthritis of the shoulder joint
80. Patient S., 18 years old, complaints of weakness and pain in muscles, fever,
shortness of breath, weight loss of 6 kg. From the anamnesis: after a viral
infection pains in the joints and muscles appeared. Objectively: The condition
is serious. He can not raise his head, stand up, eat on their own. Periorbital
edema, purple spots on the skin of the thighs. Which examination of the above
is most appropriate for verification of the diagnosis?
A. Determination of creatine phosphokinase
E. Detection of antibodies to topoisomerase (SCL-70)
81. Patient J. 38 years. She has admitted withthe complaints of face and arm
skin tightening, weight loss of 12 kg, pain in the joints, difficulty swallowing
dry food, shortness of breath. From the anamnesis: Sick for 5 years, there
were thick edema on the hands and face, arthralgia, and swallowing
disorders. Objective: Low body nutrition. Teleangiectasia on the neck, chest.
Masked face.Restricted mouth. Dummy fingers. The skin in the fold is not
taken by grabbing. What examination is most appropriate for verification of
the diagnosis?
B. Antinuclear antibodies
C. Antibodies to double-stranded DNA
D. Antibodies to topoisomerase (SCL-70)
E. Antibodies to cyclic-citrulinated peptide
82. Patient V., 23 years old. Complaints: pain in the joints, cough, shortness of
breath, rashes on the skin, appearing after exposure to the sun, general
weakness, alopecia, irregular menstruation. From the anamnesis: is ill for the
past six months, started after abortion. Worried about joint pain and
subfebrile. Objectively: General condition of moderate severity. In the area of
the cheekbones and the back of the nose erythema. On the lips - scaly crusts.
What is your presumed syndrome?
A. Syndrome of diffuse lesions of the connective tissue
C. Syndrome of soft tissue lesions of the periarticular tissues
E. Syndrome of inflammatory changes of the joints
83. Joint pain is:
A. Ossalgia
B. Myalgia
C. Arthralgia
D. Tendalgia
E. Odontalgia
84. Dorsalgia is
A. Pain in the joints of the lower limbs
B. Pain in the sacrum
C. Back pain
D. Pain in tailbone
E. Pain in the pelvic region

85. Ossalgia is:
A. Bone pain
B. Muscle pain
C. Pain in the joints
D. Pain in the hands
E. Pain in the whole body
A. Subtype of antinuclear antibodies.
B. Antibodies to the Fc fragment of IgG.
C. Antibodies to the components of the synovial membrane of the joints.
D. Immune complex containing IgM class antibodies and IgG Fc fragment.
E. A set of cytokines that play a key role in the pathogenesis of RA.
87. Patient 65 years old, admitted to the on-call clinic. Complains of pain in
the knee joints, which intensify in the evening. From the anamnesis: the
mother has diseases of the musculoskeletal system. Repeatedly received
injuries of the knee joint. Objectively: a patient with increased nutrition, BMI
35 kg / m2. Locally: in the interphalangeal joints of the hands, Heberden
nodules, varus deformity of the knee joints are determined. There is a crunch
in the knee joints. CBCC, Urine analysis: no change. Highlight modifying risk
factors for this patient:
A. Female
B. old age
C. heredity
D. history of injuries
E. overweight
88. Valgus deformity is:

89. A 69-year-old patient was admitted to the rheumatology department with

complaints of pain in bones and joints. From the anamnesis, a fracture of the
radial bone in 2012. A preliminary osteopenia syndrome was exposed.
According to densitometry results, what is the expected T-criterion?
A. "-1" and above
B. "-1" - "-2.5"
C. "-2.5" and below
D. “+1” and above
E. "+2.5" and below
90. The manifestation of degenerative changes in which Bouchard's nodules

are found?
A. proximal interphalangeal joints of the hand;
B. Distal interphalangeal joints of the hand;
C. knee joints;
D. first metatarsophalangeal joint;
E. elbow joint.
91. What method is used to evaluate the functions of the wrist?
A. palpation method
B. physical examination
C. Duplex compression method
D. active squeezing fingers
E. uplift
92. A patient is 56 years old. A history of radial bone the distal third fracture
occurred twice a year, when falling from a height of its growth. What
instrumental diagnostic method will be the most informative for confirming
osteopenic syndrome:
B. Routine radiography
D. Osteoscintigraphy
E. X-ray angiography
93. The patient is 76 years old. Within 15 months, receives treatment with a
diagnosis of osteoporosis; On re-examination - no complaints. What bone
formation marker can be tested in this patient?
A. Pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
B. Bone alkaline phosphatase
C. Lymphotoxin alpha
D. Tumor necrosis factor
E. Tartrate Acid Phosphatase
94. A 36-year-old patient has hyperemia, hyperthermia, and sharp pain in the
first metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot on the left. Uric acid 455 mmol / L,
ESR 20 mm / h. What syndrome are we talking about?
B. inflammatory joint damage
C. inflammatory muscle damage
E. Damage to the soft periarticular tissues
95. A 35 years old woman came to the rheumatology department. Complains

of severe myasthenia gravis and fever. Objectively: periorbital edema with
purplish-purple erythema around the eyes, tightening of the muscles of the
shoulders and hips with a painful reaction to palpation. In the blood, an
increase in CRP, ESR. What analysis is needed to clarify the diagnosis in this
case?
A. Creatine phosphokinase
B. Creatinine
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Antistreptolysin O
E. Calcitonin
96. In a 40-year-old patient with inflammatory joint damage syndrome,

radiographs of the hands determine: periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of
the joint spaces, multiple erosions. What X-ray stage according to Stein-
Broker corresponds to this description?
A. 1
B. 2a
C. 2b
D. 3
E. 4
97. What blood test determines seropositivity in the syndrome of

inflammatory joint damage?
B. Tumor Necrosis Factor
C. C-reactive protein
D. Antistreptolysin O
E. Antinuclear factor
98. A 65 years old patient, amitted to the department of rheumatology.
Complaints of pain in the knee joints, which intensify in the evening. From the
patient history, frequent injuries noted. Mom has osteoarthritis of the knee
joints. Smokes for about ten years. Objectively: BMI 35kg / m2. There is a
crunch in the knee joints. CBCC, Urine analysis: no change. What non-
modifiable risk factors are present in this patient?
A. injuries, smoking, gender
B. old age, gender, heredity
C. smoking, obesity, injury
D. injury, obesity, old age
E. old age, obesity, smoking
99. A 37-year-old patient admitted to the rheumatology department.

Complains of joint pain, fever, weight loss, increased hair loss. Objectively:
Erythema in the region of the upper cheekbones, nose bridge, upper third of
the chest, on the neck. Ulcers on the oral mucosa. In the lungs, breathing is
weakened in the lower sections. Heart tones are muffled, rhythmic. Heart rate
is 81 beats per minute. BP is 100/70 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft, sensitive in
the right hypochondrium. What is the syndrome of this patient?
A. degenerative joint damage
B. damage to the soft periarticular tissues
C. degenerative - dystrophic joint changes
D. diffuse inflammation of the connective tissue
E. inflammatory changes in joints and muscles
100. A 42-year-old patient was admitted to the Department of

Cardiorheumatology, with complaints of joint pain, fever, pain when
swallowing, severe general weakness, shortness of breath at the slightest
exertion, dry cough, sore fingers in the cold. Objectively: face skin is
tightened, "purse-string mouth". In the lungs, breathing is weakened,
crepitus is heard in the basal sections. Heart tones are muffled, arrhythmic.
The doctor put a preliminary syndrome of diffuse inflammation of the
connective tissue. Whattestscanconfirmthissyndrome?
A. c - reactiveprotein
B. Haddelsonreaction
C. Anticentromericantibodies
D. livertests
E. Kazzonireaction
Bonpoc:
Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of lesions of the spinal

cord in the lumbar enlargement ( LI-S2):
1 shortness of breath, hiccups
2 central leg paralysis
3 peripheral hand paralysis
4 peripheral paralysis of the legs
5 true urinary incontinence
Bonpoc: NQ2
A proper evaluation of deep join-position sense can be performed with:
1Using camerton
2Pinprick test
3Using Weber compass
4Making passive movements on phalanges
5Gentle touch with brush or hair
To assess cognitive function, what should be check:
1 Reflexes
2 General urine analysis
3 General blood analysis
4 Attention
5 Liquor
Bonpoc: NQ4
Damage to the posterior horn of the spinal cord leads to:

1 Disorders of sweating at the level of damage
2 Disorders of deep sensitivity
3 Disorders of movement at the level of damage
4 Fascicular twitching of muscle at the level of
damage
5 Loss of superficial sensitivity at the level of
damage
Bonpoc: NQ5
When the corpus callosum is damaged we observe disturbances of:
1 Reciprocal coordination of movements
2 Analytical thinking
3 Hearing and tactile sensitivity
4 Central vision
5 Long-term memory
Bonpoc: NQ6
Periosteal reflexes include:
1 plantar reflex
2 carporadial reflex
3 middle abdominal reflex
4 cremasteric reflex
5 upper abdominal reflex
Bonpoc: NQ7
What structure of the cortex must be damaged to lose stereognosis?
1 Occipital lobe
2 Temporal lobe
3 Parietal lobe
4 Cerebellum
5 Frontal lobe
Bonpoc: NQ9
Morphological asymmetry is:
1 Various content of biologically active
substances
2 Different hemisphere weights
3 Each hemisphere processes information of a
certain type
4 Different blood supply to the hemispheres
5 Different structure of the hemispheres
Bonpoc: NQIO
Gordon's symptom is:
1 reflex flexion of the II - V toes as a result of a short blow to the tips

of the toes with a hammer
2 flexion and rotation of the foot inward, with streak irritation of the
inner edge of the sole
3 reflex extension of the thumb, as a result of compression of the

gastrocnemius muscle
4 abduction of the little finger with dashed stimulation of the outer edge
of the foot
5 reflex flexion of the Il - V toes when tapping on the antero-outer

surface of the rear of the foot
Bonpoc: NQI 1
Functional interhemispheric asymmetry is :
1 Unstable neurophysiological phenomenon
2 This phenomenon has not yet been studied.
3 A stable, persistent neurophysiological
phenomenon.
4 Individual feature
5 Sign of impaired brain function
Bonpoc: WI 2
In case of damage to the caudate nucleus and putamen, the patient develops:
1 alternating syndrome
2 akinet ico- rigid syndrome
3 inner capsule syndrome
4 ataxic syndrome
5 hypotonic hyperkinetic syndrome
Bonpoc: NQI 4
In a 13-year-old patient, a neurological examination revealed right-sided

central hemiparesis with a decrease in muscle strength to 2 points. How
will muscle tone change in this case?
1 Clasp Knife Phenomenon
2 Promotion by plastic type
3 Cog wheel rigidity
4 Decreased tone in the proximal region
5 Decreased distal tone
\
onpoc: NQ22
Mom brought a 13-year-old child to a neurologist with complaints of

choking, pouring liquid food from the nose when swallowing, hoarseness.
Neurological examination revealed dysphagia, dysarthria, dysphonia, and
drooping of the soft palate. What reflex should be investigated to exclude
damage to the corticonuclear pathways in this case?
1 Oppenheim
2 Babinsky
3 Pupillary
4 Distant-Oral
5 Postural
Bonpoc: NQ23
Mother took a 13 year old child to neurologist with

complaints of choking, pouring out liguid food from the
nose while swallowing, hoarseness of the voice. Where
from the following strusctures it is possible to localize
the lesion?
1 nuclei 3,4,6 pair CN

2 basal nuclei
3 cerebellar hemispheres
4 cerebellar worm
5 nuclei pair CN
Bonpoc: NQ24
A mother brought her 13-year-old daughter to the clinic to a

neuropathologist with complaints of a twisted face to the left, inability
to close her right eye, pouring out liquid food from the right corner of
her mouth. When examining the neurological status, Bell's symptoms were
found, the racket on the right. What symptom in this case will speak in
favor of the defeat at the level of the nucleus of the 7th pair of CN in
the pons?
1 Ataxia
2 Xerophthalmia
3 Hyperacusia
4 Lachrymation
5 Hypogeusia
Bonpoc: NQ25
A mother brought her 11-year-old daughter to the clinic to neuropathologist

with complaints of a twisted face to the left, inability to close her right
eye, pouring out liquid food from the right corner of her mouth.
Neurological examination revealed Bell's symptoms, the racket on the right.
The loss of which reflex in this case will in case of 7th pair lesion?
1 Achilles
2 Corneal
3 Rossolimo
4 Knee
5 Zhukovsky
Bonpoc: NQ29
What is the characteristic of the subperiosteal hematoma of the fronto-

parietal-occipital region?
1 freely spreads to the tissue of the face

2 it is difficult to give a clear characteristic
3 has a diffuse character within the fronto-
parieto-occipital region
4 has the shape of a bump
5 spreads within one bone
Bonpoc: NQ30
Thrombosis of which sinus of the dura mater develops in some forms of the
carbuncle of the upper lip, wings of the nose or the superciliary arch:
1 wedge-parietal
2 upper sagittal
3 lower sagittal
4 rectus
5 cavernous
Bonpoc: NQ26
Into what cellular space does the subgaleurotic cellular space of the
temporal region continue downward?
1 periopharyngeal
2 chewing-jaw
3 jaw-pterygoid
4 inter-pterygoid
5 retrtooccipital
Bonpoc: NQ27
Sinus of the dura mater, communicating with the angular vein:
1 transverse
2 inferior petrosal
3 cavernous
4 superior sagittal
5 superior petrosal
Bonpoc: NQ28
The point Of digital pressure of the facial artery is located
1 behind the corner of the lower law
2 at the anterior edge of the masseter muscle on
the lower Jaw
3 1 cm below the ear tragus
4 Q at the base of the temporal arch
5 0.5-1 cm below the middle of the lower edge of
the orbit
Bonpoc: NQ31
What is the first stage in the formation of speech in a child.
1 involuntary humming
2 preparatory
3 imitative
4 Motor speech
5 "sensory speech"
Bonpoc: NQ30
Thrombosis of which sinus of the dura mater develops in some forms of the
carbuncle of the upper lip, wings of the nose or the superciliary arch:
1 wedge-parietal
2 upper sagittal
3 lower sagittal
4 rectus
5 cavernous
Bonpoc: NQ32
The child holds his head from the age of
1) 6 month
2) 4 month
3) 5 month
4) 1 month
5) 2 month
Q. The child is 3 months old. Complaints of anxiety, poor sleep, shudders

during sleep. On examination: physiological reflexes are active, muscle
tone is increased, the gaze is fixed. the size of the head is normal.
Determine which of the symptoms indicates increased tone:
1 Arms out to the sides
2 Clenching the fingers into a fist
3 Fingers and toes are straight
4 Head tilted forward
5 Legs straightened
Bonpoc: NQ33
Baby is 8 month old, On examination: a temperature rise of 39.5 is noted,
vomiting, restlessness, stiff neck muscles, large fontanelle throbbing To
clarify the diagnosis. which reflex should be determined?
1 reflex bauer
2 reflex Galant
3 reflex Babinsky
4 reflex Moro
5 reflex Brudzinsky
Bonpoc: NQ36
Brain imaging technique which is the first choice for premature babies.
1 Skull X-ray
2 Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

3 Neurosonography
4 Computed tomography (CT)
5 Positron emission tomography (PET)
Bonpoc: NQ35
On examination, the child sits on his own, turns from stomach to back and
from back to stomach. distinguishes strangers from loved ones, takes a toy
from different positions, crawls, pronounces syllables. Determine the age
of the child,
1) 7 month
2) 10 month
3) 6 month
4) 5 month
5) 12 month
Bonpoc: NQ37
______is performed by introducing a nonionic, water-soluble contrast medium

into the subarachnoid space by spinal puncture.
1 Radiography
4 Myelography
Bonpoc: NQ39
An axial view of vertebral body on the CT-scan image demonstrates disk
bulging Which involve entire disc circumference. Which imaging modality is
the best for confirmation this diagnosis and evaluation of soft tissue
involvement?
1 Myelography
2 Radiography
5 Computed tomography(CT)
Bonpoc: NQ38
Neurosonography of a 3-month-old boy revealed dilated lateral brain
ventricles up to .15 mm. The contents are homogeneous. Which imaging
technique should be done next to make a diagnosis?
4 Radiography
5 Myelography
Bonpoc: NQ40
A 72-yeardd man was admitted to the hospital with cornplaints of memory
impairment. The preliminary diagnosis was identified as Alzheimer's
disease. TO confirm the diagnosis, it IS necessary to check blood flow and
oxygen content. Which brain imaging technique is more appropriate•
2 Computed tomography (CT).
3 Functional MRI (fMRl)
4 Electroencephalography (EEG)
Bonpoc: NQ41
Psychogenic conditions for the development of neurosis.
1 Unfavorable marital status.
2 Psycho-traumatic situations
3 Inconvenient workplace or transport.
4 Features of sex education, etc.
5 Unsatisfactory living conditions.

Bonpoc: NQ42
The central source of pain is
1 Decay products of tissues
2 Inflammatory mediators
3 Generator focus in the brain
4 Regenerating sensory nerves
5 Irritation of tissue receptors
Bonpoc: NQ43
Pain in intemal organs, abdomen. or chest called:
1 Phantom pain
2 Visceral pain
3 Neuropathic pain
4 Deaferentation pain
5 Referred pain
Bonpoc: NQ44
it is a developing trophiC disorder that is caused by loss or alteration of

neural stimuli:
1 Hysterical neurosis
2 Primary pain
3 Neuropathlc pan
4 Secondary pain
5 Neurodystrophic process
Bonpoc: NQ45
How does the sensitivity of denervated structures Change?
1 Biologically active substances
2 Declines
3 Decreases to morphological agents
4 Does not change
5 First decreases then disappears

Bonpoc: NQ46
A patient turned to a doctor complaining that she was constantly haunted by

the thought that she had not turned Off the gas at home and was checking 4-
5 times a day What kind of neurosis can be assumed?
1 The patient has no neurosis
2 Neurasthenia
3 Obsesstve cornpuisive disorder
4 Hysterical neurosis
5 Social phobias
Bonpoc: NQ47
A 36-year-old man complains Of pain in the right side Of the chest, sharply
increasing with movements, coughing, breathing. Moves slowly holds the sore
spot with his hand. An hour ago, slipping, fell, hit his chest about the
edge Of the sidewalk. What kind of pain does this patient have:
1 Phantom pain
2 Epicritical
3 Thalamic pain
4 Visceral pain
5 Causalgia
Bonpoc: NQ48
A 50-yearold man complains of compressive chest pains on the left.
Anamnesis: works as a broker. smokes for 20 years. What type of pain can
this pain be attributed to
1 epicritical
2 Visceral pain
3 Phantom pain
4 Thalamic pain
Bonpoc: NQ49
A 36-year-old patient. a builder. was admitted by an ambulance to the

neuroloqical department. tell from the second floor during work There was a
surgical operation due to a fracture of 2-3 lumbar vertebrae The next day
after regamng consciousness. he cannot move both legs What the patient s
pathology?
1 Paraplegia
2 Tetraplegia
3 Epilepsy
4 Chorea
5 Hemiplegia
Q.The syndrome of decreased mental activity with a preserved level of

wakefulness Includes:
1 Oneroid syndrome
2 Dementia
3 Amentive syndrome
4 Coma
5 Twilight clouding of consciousness
Bonpoc: NQ2
Irritation of the motor projection area of the cortex causes
1 central tetraplegia
2 monoplegia of the upper limbs
3 diplegia on the side of the focus
4 monoparesis on the side of the lesion
5 Jacksonian seizures
Bonpoc: NQ3
1 Disorders of sweating at the level of damage
2 Disorders of movement at the level of damage
3 Fascicular twitching of muscle at the level of
damage
4 Loss of superficial sensitivity at the level of
damage
5 Disorders of deep sensitivity
Bonpoc: NQ4
Gordon's symptom is:
1 abduction of the little finger with dashed
stimulation of the outer edge of the foot
2 reflex extension of the thumb, as a result of
compression of the gastrocnemius muscle
3 flexion and rotation of the foot inward, with
streak irritation of the inner edge of the sole
4 reflex flexion of the Il -V toes as a result of a
short blow to the tips of the toes with a hammer
5 reflex flexion of the Il -V toes when tapping on
the antero-outer surface of the rear of the foot
Bonpoc: NQ5
A proper evaluation of deep join-position sense can be performed with:
1 Using camerton
2 Making passive movements on phalanges
3 Using Weber compass
4 Gentle touch with brush or hair
5 Pinprick test
Bonpoc: NQ6
When the lateral horns of the spinal cord are affected we observe:
1 Damage to superficial sensitivity
2 Loss of motor function

3 Sweating disorder at the lesion level
4 Fascicular twitching at the level of the lesion
5 The defeat of deep sensitivity at the level of the
defeat
Bonpoc: NQ7
Extramedullary compression lesion syndrome:
1 More often in the thoracic region or in the
cauda equina
2 More often in the area of thickening
3 Descending flow type
4 No block of cerebrospinal fluid
5 Progresses rapidly
Bonpoc: NQ8
The stereognosis is:
1 Recognition of known objects placed on hands

2 An ability to find an irritated point with finger
3 An ability to define numbers, letters written on
skin of hand
4 An ability to define passive joint movements
5 An ability to define two touches at the same
time
Q.Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of lesions of the

spinal cord in the lumbar enlargement (L1-S2)
1 peripheral hand paralysis
2 true urinary incontinence
3 central leg paralysis
4 shortness of breath, hiccups

5 peripheral paralysis of the legs
Bonpoc: NQIO
When the trigeminal (V) nerve is damaged we observe:
1 prosoparesis
2 hyperacusia
3 hearing loss
4 lacrimation and prosoparesis
5 violation of the sensitivity of the facial skin
Bonpoc: NQI 1
Signs of peripheral paralysis include
1 the presence of pathological reflexes
2 synkinesis
3 "Looseness" of the joints
4 increased muscle tone
5 increased normal reflexes
Bonpoc: NQ12
The syndrome with a loss of consciousness:
1 Muscular dystonia
2 Hypothalamic syndrome
3 Coma
4 Meningeal syndrome
5 Hypertensive-hydrocephalic syndrome
Bonpoc: NQ13
In a 6-year-old patient, an examination of the neurological status revealed
lower paraparesis with a decrease in muscle strength to 3 points, as well
as dysfunction of the pelvic organs by the type of urinary retention. What
reflex will indicate the central character of paraparesis in the legs?
1. Marinescu Rodovici
2. Ankle
3. Sucking
4. Gordon
5. Knee
Bonpoc: NQ14
The leading sign that distinguishes sensitive from cerebellar ataxia is:
1. violation of deep sensitivity
2. instability in the Romberg test
3. intentional tremor
4. increased dizziness when turning the head
5. test for adi a dohokinesis
Bonpoc: NQ15
A 13- year-old patient consulted a neuropathologist at the polyclinic with

complaints of weakness in his right arm . Examination of the neurostatus
revealed central paresis of the right hand . What reflex should be
examined to confirm that the patient has just central paresis ?
1. Palmar-chin
2. Sucking
3. Bekhterev
5. Proboscis
Q.During the survey the patient revealed: unsteadiness when walking,

especially in the dark and with closed eyes, instability in the Romberg
position, decreased muscle tone in both legs, a feeling of crawling in
them. The patient confuses the name of the fingers and the direction
passive movements in them. Name the existing symptom and indicate the
location of the lesion.
1. Cortical ataxia, frontal lobes
2. Sensitive ataxia, posterior cords of the spinalcord
3. Vestibular ataxia, vestibulocochlear nerve
4. Sensitive ataxia, lateral cords of the spinal cord
5. Cerebellar ataxia, cerebellar vermis
Bonpoc: NQ17
A 15-year-old patient with complaints of a feeling of numbness and also

difficult to localize spilled pains of a burning character in the left half
of the body. What type of sensivity should be examined in a patient to
determine the safety of complex types of sensivity?
1. Temperature
2. Pain feeling
3. Two dimensional
4. Articular muscle
5. Vibration
Bonpoc: NQI 8
In a 6-year-old patient, an examination of the neurological status revealed

lower paraparesis with a decrease On muscle strength to 3 points, as well
as dysfunction of the pelvic organs by the type of urinary retention. What
reflex will indicate the central character of paraparesis in the legs?
1. Knee
2. Marinescu-Rodovici
3. Ankle
4. Babinsky
5. Sucking
Bonpoc: NQ20
A 13- year-old patient consulted a neuropathologist at the polyclinic with

complaints of weakness in the right extremities, a feeling of numbness in
the left extremities. Examination of the neurostatus revealed central
right- sided hemiparesis, a decrease in deep sensitivity in the right
extremities, and a decrease in superficial sensitivity in the left half of
the body. Where is the lesion located ?
1. Complete transverse lesion of the upper cervical segments
2. Complete transverse lesion of the thoracic segments
Half lesion of the upper cervical segments
3. Half lesion of the thoracic segments
4. Complete transverse lesion at the level of the cervical thickening
Bonpoc: NQI 9
With degenerative lesions of the pallidary department, the patient may

experience the following symptoms:
1. muscle rigidity
2. athetosis of the hands
3. hemiballism in the legs
4. Brudzinsky symptom
5. facial hemispasm
Bonpoc: NQ22
A mother brought her 1 6-year-old daughter to the clinic to a

her mouth. Neurological examination revealed Bell's symptoms, the racket on
the right. The loss of which reflex in this case will in case of 7th pair
lesion?
1. Achilles
2. Rossolimo
3. Knee
4. Superciliary
5. Zhukovsky
Bonpoc: NQ23
Mother brought a 13 year old child to neurologist with complaints of

choking, pouring out "guid food from the nose while swallowing, hoarseness
of the voice. Where from the following structures it is possible to
localize the lesion?
1. cerebellar worm
2. cervical thickening
3. cerebellar hemispheres
4. medulla
5. basal nuclei
Bonpoc: NQ24
Mother took a 13 year old child to neurologist with complains of choking,

pouring out liguid food from the nose while swallowing, hoarness of the
voice. What syndrome has patient?
1. hyperkinetic
2. Bulbar syndrome
3. pyramid syndrome
4. Parkinson syndrome
5. Ataxia syndrome
Bonpoc: NQ25
Mom brought her 14-year-old daughter to the clinic to a neurologist with
complaints of a twisted face to the left, inability to close her right eye,
pouring out liquid food from the right corner of her mouth. When examining
the neurological status, Bell's symptoms were found, the racket on the
right. What symptom in this case will exclude a lesion at the level of the
motor nucleus of the 7th pair of CN ?
1. Lachrymation
2. Apraxia
3. Hyperacusis
4. Ataxia
5. Xerophthalmia
Bonpoc: NQ26
In what area of the head should craniotomy be performed to ligate the

middle meningeal artery?
1. in the frontal region
2. in the occipital region
3. in the parietal region
4. in the temporal region
5. in the Shipo triangle
Bonpoc: NQ28
The point of digital pressure of the facial artery is Located:
1. 1 cm below the ear tragus
2. at the base of the temporal arch
3. behind the corner of the lower jaw
4. 0.5-1 cm below the middle of the lower edge of the orbit
5. at the anterior edge of the masseter muscle on the lower jaw
Bonpoc: NQ29
What is the characteristic of subgaleal hematoma of the fronto-parieto-

occipital region?
1. moves freely within the fronto-parieto-occipital region
2. it is difficult to give a clear characteristic
3. corresponds to the shape of the underlying bone
4. has the shape of an oval oriented in the longitudinal direction
5. has a pulsating character
Bonpoc•. NQ30
When performing craniotomy, the base of the soft tissue flap should be
turned downward:
1. due to the superficial location of the main arteries and veins
2. due to the fixation of the walls vessels to the connective tissue

bridges
3. due to the ascending course of the neurovascular bundles
4. due to the presence of a rich network of arterial anastomoses
5. in connection with many layers of soft tissues
Bonpoc: NQ31
What is the first stage in the formation of speech in a child:
1. preparatory
2. imitative
3. "sensory speech"
4. involuntary humming
5. Motor speech
Bonpoc: NQ32
The cerebral cortex of a child is similar Iin structure to the cortex of an

adult by:
1) 8 years old
2) 2 years old
3) 10 years old
4) 4 year S Old
5) 6 years old
Bonpoc: NQ33
The child is 3 years old. Diagnosed with meningeal syndrome. Specify what
indicator in the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid will confirm this
diagnosis
1) protein-5g I
2) Chlorides-700mg%
3) Glucose
4) cytosis- neutrophils of 30 cells
5) cytosis - eosinophils of 30 cells
Bonpoc•. NQ34
The child crawls, lies down, recognizes familiar faces, performs "okay",
"give me a pen", "like a dog barks" and so on. Determine the age of the
child:
1) 6 month.
2) 2 month.
3) 8 month.
4) 4 month.
5) 10 month.
Bonpoc: NQ35
Child 5 months old. On examination, convulsions are noted, muscle tone is

increased, reflexes are increased. Diagnosed with Convulsive syndrome. What
instrumental research method should be used to determine the pathological
focus:
1) Doppler
2) Electroencephalography
3) echoencephalography
4) craniography
5) rheoencephalography
Bonpoc: NQ36
Which imaging technique best identifies post-traumatic hematoma of the

brain?
1) Computed tomography (CT)
2) Radiography
3) Positron emission tomography (PET)

4) Myelography
5) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Bonpoc: NQ37
What is the first line imaging modality for evaluation of congenital

anomaly of brain
1) Neurosonography
5) Radiography
Bonpoc: NQ38
An axial view of vertebral body on the CT-scan image demonstrates disk

bulging which involve entire disc circumference. Which imaging modality is
the best for confirmation this diagnosis and evaluation of soft tissue
involvement?
3) Radiography
4) Myelography
Bonpoc: NQ39
A 26-year-old guy came to the clinic with complaints of low back pain,
which appeared after playing sports in the gym. Clinical examination
revealed suspicious of disk herniation. Which imaging technique is the best
to clarify this diagnosis?
2) Radiography
3) Myelography
Bonpoc: NQ40
A 47-year-old man with complaints of persistent headaches, CT scans

revealed a cerebral artery aneurysm. Condition of patient was identified as
requiring immediate surgical intervention. What imaging
study is necessary to be done before the surgery?
1) Neurosonography
3) Magnetic Resonance angiography
4) Diffusion-Weighted Imaging
5) Transcranial Doppler ultrasound
Bonpoc•. NQ41
Biological conditions for the development of neurosis:
1) Hereditary predisposition
2) Unsatisfactory living conditions
3) Features of sex education, etc
4) Unfavorable marital status
5) Inconvenient workplace or transport
Bonpoc: NQ42
At what cerebral edema is the blood-brain barrier disturbed?
1) Hydrostatic
2) Vasogenic
3) Osmotic
4) Cytotoxic
5) Interstitial
Bonpoc: NQ43
Non-neurological causes of cerebral edema:
1) Brain tumors, trauma
2) Brain hemorrhage
3) Malignant hypertension
4) Brain injuries
5) Ischemic stroke
Bonpoc: NQ44
Impaired mobility of half of the body is indicated as:
1) Tetraplegia
2) Monoplegia
3) Triplegia
4) Athetosis
5) Hemiplegia
Bonpoc: NQ45
Q/The psychological methods of pain relief include:
1) Massage
2) Infiltration anesthesia during surgery
3) Acupuncture
4) Excision of scars and neuromas
5) Hypnosis
Bonpoc: NQ46
A 25-year-old patient turned to a doctor complaining that she was

constantly haunted by the thought that she had not turned off the gas at
home and was checking 4-5 times a day. What kind of neurosis can be
assumed:
1. Hysterical neurosis
2. Obsessive compulsive disorder
3. Social phobias
4. The patient has no neurosis
5. Neurasthenia
Bonpoc: NQ47
A patient was diagnosed with a metastatic tumor of the left frontal lobe of
the cortex, and is being prepared for tumor removal. On examination, the
patient's right arm and right leg do not move. What is the movement
disorder in the patient:
1. Paraplegia
2. Hemiplegia
3. Epilepsy
4. Chorea
5. Tetraplegia
Bonpoc: NQ48
In practice, a medical student mistakenly infused 400 ml of hypotonic

solution intravenously into a patient with hypoglycemia. Towards the end,
the patient lost consciousness, was transferred to the intensive care unit
and was diagnosed with cerebral edema. What brain edema can be assumed:
1. Hydrostatic
2. Interstitial
3. Vasogenic
4. Cytotoxic
5. Osmotic
Bonpoc: NQ49
A 28-year-old patient came to the polyclinic with complaints that after

talking with her friend, undergoing surgery, is haunted by the thought of
breast cancer. The oncologist did not find any pathology. Realizing that
there is no reason for concern, she cannot bring herself not to think about
it. Recently she has lost weight, gets tired quickly, complains of
insomnia, anxiety, irritability, poor appetite. What type of neurosis does
this patient have:
1. Neurasthenia
5. Social phobias
Bonpoc: NQ50
A 47-year-old man, complaints of severe headaches, dizziness, nausea,

vomiting. The diagnosis was intracranial hypertension, impaired outflow of
cerebrospinal fluid. 3 hours later he was transferred to intensive care
with a diagnosis of cerebral edema. What type of cerebral edema did this
patient develop:
1. Vasogenic
2. Osmotic
3. Interstitial
4. Hydrostatic
5. Cytotoxic
Q.When the corpus callosum is damaged we observe disturbances of:
1.
Analytical thinking
2. Reciprocal coordination of movements
3. Hearing and tactile sensitivity
4. Central vision
5. Long-term memory
Q.The syndrome of the lesion of the ante' jot horn of the spinal cord is
characterized by the:
1. Peripheral paralysis in the muscles of this segment
2. Dissociated sensitivity disorder

3. Violation of temperature pain sensitivity, by conductive type
4. Loss of deep sensitivity
5. Sweating disorder
Q. Gait in cerebellar damage?
1. shuffling
2. spastic
3. steppage
4. atactic
5. hemiparetic
Q,Brain asymmetry is caused by ?
1. Different structure of cerebral hemisphere
2. Temporary dominance of one or another hemisphere
3. Various blood supply to the hemisphere
4. Different functions of left and right hemisphere
5. Different weight of each hemisphere
Q,Combination of impaired swallowing, dysphonia, dysarthria, absense of a

pharyngeal reflex indicates a lesion of:
1. midbrain
2. pons
3. Brainstem
4. frontal lobe
5. medulla oblongata
Q.Brown-Séquard syndrome is lesion of:
1. Spinal cord involvement above the cervical thickening
2. spinal cord in the area of the anterior horn
3. spinal cord at the level of the cervical thickening
4. Spinal cord injury at the lumbar level

5. Half lesion of the spinal cord segment
Q,Extramedullary compression lesion syndrome:
1. Progresses rapidly
2. Descending flow type
3. More often in the thoracic region or in the cauda equina
4. More often in the area of thickening
5. No block of cerebrospinal fluid
Q.Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of lesions of the

spinal cord in the cervical enlargement (C5- D 2):
1. peripheral paralysis of the arms, central paralysis of the legs
2. dysfunction of the pelvic organs of the peripheral type
3. central tetraplegia
4. loss of deep sensitivity while the superficial
5. shortness of breath, hiccups
Q.Which cranial nerves typically affected in Fovilleis syndrome:
1. VII , VIII pairs

2. VI Vll , Vlll pairs
3. VI and Vll pairs
4. IX and X pairs
5. III pair
Q.The pathological reflex of the extensor group is the reflex:
1. Palmar - chin
2. Bekhtereva
3. Rossolimo
4. Oppenheim
5. Zhukovsky
Q.Broca’s center is located at:

1. In the left-handed posterior third of the parietal lobe of the brain
on the right
2. In left-handers, in the posterior tÅird of the gyrus of the left

hemisphere
3. In the lower part of the cerebellar hemispheres
4. In right-handers in the posterior third of the occipital lobe of the

brain on the left
5. In right-handers in the posterior third of the gyrug of the lef!

hemisphere
Q. pathogenesis of brain coma related with:
1. Corpus callosum
2. Pituitary
3. Cerebellum
4. Hippocampus
5. Visual crossover
Q. Mom brought her 11 -year-old daughter to a neuropathologist with

complaints of involuntary movements in all extremities, which disappear in
sleep. What syndrome does this patient have?
1. Parkinsonian syndrome
2. Akinetic-rigid syndrome
3. Alternating syndrome
4. Hypertensive-hypokinetic syndrome
5. Hypotonic-hyperkinetic syndrome
Q. The leading sign that distinguishes sensitive from cerebellar ataxia is:
1.
test for adi a dohokinesis
3. instability in the Romberg test
Q.A 15 year old patient with complaints of a feeling of numbness and.also
of the body What type of sensivity should be examined in a patient to
1. Streognosis
2. Temperature
3. Vibration
4. Painful
5. Articular muscular
Q.17-year-old patient comes to the physician complaining on numbness on his

right side of the body. Physical examination found decreasing deep
sensations on this site. What kind of sensation needed to be check for
evaluation of his superficial sensation?
1. Stereognosis
2. Vibration
3. Pain
4. Pressure
5. Proprioception
Q.During the survey the patient revealed: unsteadiness when walking,
especially in the dark and with closed eyes, instability in the
Romberg position, decreased muscle tone in both legs, a feeling of
crawling in them. The patient confuses the name of the fingers and
the direction of passive movements in them. Name the existing
symptom and indicate the location of the lesion.
I. Vestibular ataxia, vestibulocochlear nerve
II. Sensitive ataxia, lateral cords of the spinal cord
III. Cerebellar ataxia, cerebellar vermis
IV. Cortical ataxia, frontal lobes
V. Sensitive ataxia, posterior cords of the spinal cord
Q.When the inner capsule is damaged on the left, the following symptoms are
revealed:
I. Hemiparesis, hyperreflexia, spastic tone tn the limbs, positive
pathological reflexes on the right
II. Peripheral paresis of the upper limbs, spastic paraparesis of the

lower limbs
III. Peripheral monoparesis on the tight, hyporeflexia, hypotrophy, muscle

hypotonia
IV. Lower "flaccid paraplegia”. hypotrophy, fibrillary twitching
V. Monoparesis on the tight With spastic tone, positive pathological

carpal
Q.Loss of sensitivity in the form of "gloves" and "socks" is characteristic

of sensitivity disorders of the type:
1. Polyneuritic
2. Segmental-dissociated
3. Segmental-radicular
4. Guide spinal
5. Cortical
Q. A 15year old patient complaints of a feeling of numbness and also

of the body. What type of sensivity disorder the patient has?
1. Conductive
2. Segmental
3. Cortical
4. Dissociated
5. Thalamic
Q.When examining the neurological status of the patient, speech impairment

was found in the form of difficulty in choosing words, fuzzy pronunciation.
In this case, the patient understands the speech addressed and performs the
commands. No clinical signs of atactic, bulbar and pseudobulbar syndrome
were found. What symptom is likely to be present in this patient?
I. Motor aphasia
II. Sensory aphasia
III. Amnestic aphasia
IV. Ideatorial aptaxia
V. Semantic aphasia
Q . Mother brought a 13 year old child to neurologist with complaints of

choking, pouring out liguid food from the nose while swallowing, hoarseness
of the voice. Where from the following structures it is possible to
I. medulla
II. cerebellar worm
III. cervical thickening
IV. cerebellar hemispheres
V. basal nuclei
Q . A 25-year-old patient turned to a neurologist at the clinic with

complaints of severe, paroxysmal stabbing, shooting pains in the lower jaw
on the right. What reflex should be studied in this patient?
I. palatine
II. corneal
III. conjunctival
IV. Jaw jerk
V. gag
Q . A mother brought her 13-year-old daughter to the clinic to a

her mouth. When examining the neurological status, Bell's symptoms were
found, the racket on the right. What symptom in this case will exclude a
lesion at the level of the motor nucleus of the 7th pair of CN ?
I. Hyperacusis
II. Ataxia
III. Lachrymation
IV. Hypogeusia
V. Apraxia
Q . A 15 year old patient with complaints of a feeling of numbness and also

of the body. What of sensivity should be examined in a patient to determine
the safety of complex types of sensivity?
I. Discriminatory
II. Pain feeling
III. Temperature
IV. Articular muscule
V. Vibration
Q . The angular artery anastomoses with the:
I. dorsal artery of the nose
II. superior labial artery
III. branches of the parotid gland
IV. ophthalmic artery
V. posterior ear artery
Q . Sinus of the dura mater, communicating with the angular vein:
I. cavernous
II. inferior petrosal
III. superior petrosal
IV. superior sagittal
V. transverse
Q . What is the characteristic 01 the subperiosteal hematoma of the fronto-

I. has a diffuse character within the fronto-parieto-occipital region
II. spreads within one bone
III. it is difficult to give a clear characteristic
IV. has the shape of a bump
V. freely spreads to the tissue of the face
Q. What is the characteristic of the hematoma of the subcutaneous tissue of

the fronto-parieto-occipital region?
I. has the shape of a bump
II. it is difficult to give a certain characteristic
III. freely spreads to the subcutaneous tissue of the temporal region and
face
IV. spreads within one bone
V. has a diffuse character within the fronto-parieto-occipital region
Q . The projection line of the excretory duct of the parotid salivary

gland:
I. from the external auditory canal to the middle of the distance from
the wing of the nose to the corner of the mouth
II. from the base of the ear tragus to the corner of the mouth
III. from the corner of the lower jaw to the corner of the mouth
IV. in the middle of the body of the lower jaw
V. from the base of the tragus to the wing of the nose
Q .Streak irritation of the sole along the outer edge of the foot to
determine the reflex:
I. Galanta
II. Moro
III. Bauer
IV. Babkin
V. Babinsky
Q. Determine specify the features of the composition of the cerebrospinal
fluid of the newborn:
I. transparent, many lymphocytes
II. xantochromic, high in protein
III. opalescent, protein absence
IV. Colorless, protein content is minimal
V. muddy, many neutrophils
Q . The cwell, rolls over from his stomach to his back, reacts to his name
babbles appear, stretches and grabs with his hand, holds toys in his hands
and examines them. Determine the age of the child:
I. 11 month.
II. 2 month.
III. 3 month.
IV. 8 month.
V. 6 month.
Q . The child holds his head well, keeps an object in the field of vision
for a long time, quickly responds with a smile when communicating, performs
"reciprocal buzzing", grabs objects that are put in his hand. Determine the
age of the child:
I. 8 month.
II. 6 month.
III. 3 month.
IV. 4 month.
V. 10 month.
Q . On examination, the child sits on his own, turns from stomach to back
and from back to stomach, distinguishes strangers from loved ones, takes a
toy from different positions, crawls, pronounces syllables. Determine the
age of the child.
I. 6 month
II. 12 month
III. 7 month
IV. 5 month
V. 10 month
Q .Which imaging technique best identifies post-traumatic hematoma of the

brain?
I. Computed tomography (CT)
II. Myelography
III. Radiography
IV. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
V. Positron emission tomography (PET)
Q.On axial view of spine CT-scan image there is disk herniation where the
base is wider then it's dome. Identify the type of herniation
a. Extrusion
b. Protrusion
c. Bulging
d. Sequestration
e. Desiccation
Q . A 32-year-old man was admitted to the hospital, to emergency

department. He got a car accident and was unconscious. Clinical
examinations revealed a spinal fracture. What imaging technique is used as
the first line study to identify the nature of the fractures.
1. Radiography
2. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
3. Positron emission tomography (MAIN TRUNKIMAGWHICH IMAGINF THE )
4. Myelography
5. Computed tomography (CT)
Q . A I-month old baby was brought to the hospital of the neonatology

department. The child received 6 Apgar score at birth. The pregnancy
proceeded with a severe viral infection. At the time of hospitalization,
the baby had a fever about 38 C. During clinical examination seizures were
observed. What imaging study is the first line to clarify the diagnosis of
encephalopathy?
1. Neurosonography (NS)
2. Electroencephalography (EEG)
3. Positron emission tomography (PET)
5. Computed tomography (CT).
Q . A 67 yr old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She had
surgery of breastectomy 6 years ago. She regularly conducts postoperative
monitoring. Recently she had complaints of headaches, seizures have been
repeated several times. What imaging study should be done to determine the
metastases in the brain?
2. Neurosonography
4. Computed tomography
5. Transcranial Doppler ultrasound
Q . An increase in the activity of the antinociceptive system is possible

with:
1. Pain receptor blockade
2. The onset of pathologically enhanced excitation in the thalamus
3. Administration of morphine (an analogue of endorphins)
4. Cutting or reducing impulses along C-fibersl
5. Demyelination of A-delta fibers
Q .Impaired mobility of half of the body is indicated as:
1. Athetosis
2. Monoplegia
3. Hemiplegia
4. Tetraplegia
5. Triplegia
Q . The social factors in the development of neuroses include:
1. Information overload
2. Overeating
3. The state of the endocrine organs
4. Past illnesses
5. Types of higher nervous activity
Q .Slow antegrade axonal transport provides:
1. Delivery of trophogens to the neuron
2. Delivery of substances for synaptic activity
3. Delivery of trophogens into tissues
4. Penetration of viruses into the nervous system
5. Penetration of antibodies into the nervous system
Q . This form of cerebral edema occurs 'in obstructive hydrocephalus due to

a rupture of the CSF-brain barrier:
1. Interstitial
2. Vasogenic
3. Cytotoxic
4. Hydrostatic
5. Osmotic
Q .An excellent student of the 5th year applied to the reception,

complaining that she was afraid to read to speak at scientific conferences,
she was afraid to be in a humiliating position. What kind of neurosis does
the student have:
1. Social phobias
3. Neurasthenia

Q . A 50-year-old man complains of compressive chest pains on the left.
Anamnesis: works as a broker, smokes for 20 years. What type of pain can
this pain be attributed to:
1. Phantom pain
2. Epicritical
3. Visceral pain
4. Causalgia
5. Thalamic pain
Q . After a household injury, a 18-year-old patient developed persistent

dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, asthenia. About dysfunction of which
structures of the brain does this indicate:
1. basal ganglia
2. substantia nigra
3. motor cortex
4. cerebellum
5. vestibular nuclei
Q . A 68-year-old patient suffers from type 1 diabetes mellitus. Due to

chronic renal failure, he receives hemodialysis 2 times a week. Once again,
during hemodialysis, she remembered that she had not given an insulin
injection, and received insulin. After 20 minutes, she lost consciousness,
was transferred to intensive care, where she was diagnosed with cerebral
edema. What cerebral edema can develop in this patient:
1.
Cytotoxic
2. Osmotic
3. Hydrostatic
4. Interstitial
5. Vasogenic
Q . The mother of a 24-year-old girl turned to a psychiatrist with a

complaint that her daughter was afraid for 2 years and did not leave the
house at all. From the anamnesis: stuck in an elevator for 3 hours, after
which she does not leave the house at all. What kind of neurosis can be
assumed:
1. Neurasthenia
4. Agoraphobia
5. Social phobias
Q.Which imaging technique is the first choice for evaluation cerebral

aneurysm?
1. Digital Subtraction Angiography (OSA)
2. Computed Tomography Angiography
3. Magnetic Resonance Angiography
4. Fluoroscopy
5. Dopplet ultrasound
Q.The onset of pain during deafferentation is due to the fact that
1. Reduced impulse on C-fibets
2. Activation Of cells of gelatinous substance is in progress
3. Reduced impulse On A-delta fibers
4. Increased on C-fibers
5. Increased impulse on A-delta fibers
Q.cancer. She had surgery of breastectomy 6 years ago. She regularly

conducts postoperative monitoring. Recently she had complaints of
headaches, seizures have been repeated several times. What imaging study
should be done to determine the metastases in the
brain?
4. Neurosonography

Q.Imaging modality which can evaluate anatomical and functional state of
patients with brain tumor
1. Neurosonography
4. Molecular imaging
5. Skull X-ray
Bonpoc: NQ34
The child holds his head well, keeps an object in the field of Vision for a
long time, quickly responds with a smile when communicating, performs
"reciprocal buzzing", grabs objects that are put in his hand. Determine the
age of the child:
1. 10month.
2. 6 month.
3. 8 month.
4. 4 month.
5. 3 month.
Bonpoc: NQ49
Q.A 36-year-old patient, a builder, was admitted by an ambulance to the

neurological department, fell from the second floor during work. There was
a surgical operation due to a fracture of 2-3 lumbar vertebrae. The next
day after regaining consciousness, he cannot move both legs. What is the
patient's pathology?
1. Tetraplegia
2. Chorea
3. Hemiplegia
4. Epilepsy
Q.A 32-year-old man was admitted to the hospital, to emergency department.

He got a car accident and was unconscious. Clinical examinations revealed a
spinal fracture. What imaging technique is used as the first line study to
identify the nature of the fractures.
2. Myelography
4. Radiography
Q.A 65-year-old man, very severe, unbearable, burning pains in the right
side of the body, was operated on 2 months ago for lung cancer, metastases
in the thalamus were identified. Pain is not relieved by narcotic
analgesics, the patient is depressed, wants to commit suicide. What kind of
pain does this patient have:
1. Epicritical
2. Thalamic pain
3. Protopathic
4. Visceral pain
5. Causalgia
Bonpoc: NQ2
Brown-Séquard syndrome is:
1. Motor disturbances and disturbances of deep sensitivity on the side

of the lesion, disorder of superficial sensitivity on the opposite
side.
2. Central lower paralysis on the side of the lesion, without sensory

disturbances, fascicular twitching is possible
3. Peripheral paralysis with fascicular twitching

on the side of the lesion without sensitivity disorders
4. Peripheral paralysis with sensory disorders in the innervation zone

of this nerve
5. Loss of function syndrome: central monoparesis on the opposite side
Q.Imaging modality which can evaluate brain tumor changes at cellular level
1. Skull X-ray
4. Neurosonography
5. Molecular imaging
Q.When the trigeminal (V) nerve is damaged we observe:
1. lacrimation and prosoparesis

2. prosoparesis
3. violation of the sensitivity of the facial skin
4. hearing loss
5. hyperacusia
Bonpoc: NQ47
In practice, a medical student mistakenly infused 400 ml of hypotonic

solution intravenously into a patient with hypoglycemia. Towards the end,
the patient lost consciousness, was transferred to the intensive care
unit and was diagnosed with cerebral edema. What brain edema can be
assumed:
1. Hydrostatic
2. Osmotic
3. Interstitial
4. CytotOXiC
5. Vasogenic
Q.Periosteal reflexes include:
1. upper abdominal reflex
2. plantar reflex
3. cremasteric reflex
4. middle abdominal reflex
5. carporadial reflex
Q.The third neuron conducting pain is localized in:
1. Cerebral cortex
2. Trigeminal ganglion
3. Spinal cord
4. Spinal nodes
5. Thalamus
Q.Loss of sensitivity is called:
1. Atonya
2. Asthenia
3. Anesthesia
4. Apathy
5. Ataxia
Q.Biological conditions for the development of neurosis:

1.
2. Hereditary predisposition
3. Inconvenient workplace or transport
4. Unfavorable marital status
5. Features of sex education, etc
6. Unsatisfactory living conditions
Bonpoc: NQ6
Combination of impaired swallowing, dysphonia, dysarthria, absense of a

pharyngeal reflex indicates a lesion of:
1. Brainstem
2. pons
3. medulla oblongata
4. midbrain
5. frontal lobe
Q.Morphological asymmetry is:
1. Different hemisphere weights
2. Different blood supply to the hemispheres
3. Different structure of the hemispheres
4. Each hemisphere processes information of a certain type
5. Various content of biologically active substances
Bonpoc: NQ5
Increased finger like impressions on X- rays of skull indicate:
1. Arterial hypertension
2. Intracranial hypertension
3. Intracranial hypotension
4. Arterial hypotension
5. Mental changes
Bonpoc: NQ7
What symptom can rule out meningitis?
1. Brudzinsky symptom
2. Nerry symptom
3. Rigidity of occipital muscles
4. Lesage symptom
5. Kernigach symptom
Q.One of the main changes caused by chronic pain:
1. Productivity
2. Deep dream
3. Laughter
4. Mood boost
5. Depression
Q.A 47-year-old man, complaints of severe headaches,
dizziness, nausea, vomiting. The diagnosis was
intracranial hypertension, impaired outflow of
cerebrospinal fluid. 3 hours later he was transferred to
intensive care with a diagnosis of cerebral edema. What
type of cerebral edema did this patient develop:
1. Interstitial
2. Vasogenic
3. Hydrostatic
4. Osmotic
5. Cytotoxic
Q. ... it is a developing trophic disorder that is caused by loss or

alteration of neural stimuli:
2. Secondary pain
3. Neurodystrophic process
4. Neuropathic pain
5. Primary pain
Q.A 15year old patient complaints of a feeling of numbness and also

of the body. What type of sensivity disorder the patient has?
1. Dissociated
2. Conductive
3. Segmental
4. Thalamic
5. Cortical
Q.Lower flaccid paraparesis with sphincter disorders occurred in case of

lesion:
1. of the spinal cord at the level of the cervical thickening
4. of epiconus
5. of the spinal cord at the level of the thoracic region
Q. The child is 3 months old. Complaints of anxiety, poor sleep, shudders

during sleep. On examination: physiological reflexes are active, muscle
tone is increased, the gaze is fixed, the size of the head is normal.
Determine which of the symptoms indicates increased tone:
1. Head tilted forward
2. Clenching the fingers into a fist
3. Arms out to the sides
4. Legs straightened
5. Fingers and toes are straight

Q.The syndrome of decreased mental activity with a preserved level of
wakefulness includes:
1. Amentive syndrome
2. Dementia
3. Twilight clouding of consciousness
4. Coma
5. Oneroid syndrome
Q. Characteristic of lesion of the dorsal horns of the spinal cord:
1. Conductive type of sensitivity disorder
2. Cortical type of sensitivity disorder
3. Polyneuritic type of sensitivity disorder
4. Segmental - the radicular type of sensitivity disorders
5. Segmental-dissociated type of sensory impairment
Q. A 13- year-old patient consulted a neuropathologist at the polyclinic

with complaints of weakness in his right arm. Examination of the
neurostatus revealed central paresis of the right hand. What reflex should
be examined to confirm that the patient has just central paresis?
1. Palmar chin
2. Proboscis
4. Sucking
5. Bekhterev
Q.In a 9-year-old patient, an examination of the neurological status

revealed lower paraparesis with a decrease in muscle strength to 3 points,
as well as dysfunction of the pelvic organs by the type of urinary
retention. What reflex will indicate the central character
of paraparesis in the legs?
1. Sucking
2. Ankle
3. Knee
4. Rossolimo
Q.Mom brought her 11-year-old daughter to a neuropathologist with

complaints of involuntary movements in all extremities, which disappear in
sleep. What syndrome does this patient have?
2. Akinetjc-rigid syndrome
Bonpoc: NQ19
The leading sign that distinguishes sensitive from cerebellar ataxia is:
4. test for adi a dohokinesis
Q.Mom brought her 1 2 year old daughter to the clinic to a neuropathologist

with complaints of involuntary , violent, pretentious, worm-like movements
in both hands that disappear in sleep . What syndrome does this patient
have?
1. Akinetic-rigid syndrome
Q. Mother took a 13 year old child to neurologist with complaints of

choking, pouring out liguid food from the nose while swallowing, hoarseness
of the voice. Where from the following strusctures it is possible to
1. nuclei 3,4,6 pair CN

2. cerebellar worm
3. basal nuclei
4. nuclei pair CN
5. cerebellar hemispheres
Q.A 15 year old patient with complaints of a feeling of numbness and also
of the body. What types of sensivity should be examined in a patient to
1. Articular muscule
2. Vibration
3. Discriminatory
4. Temperature
5. Pain feeling
Q.A 29-year-old patient has turned to a neurologist at the clinic with

complaints of severe, paroxysmal pains of a stabbing, shooting character in
the lower jaw on the right. Which pain points should be examined in this
patient?
1. Trigeminal points
2. Erb points
3. Neri points
4. Vale points
5. Gar points
Q.What is the backbone of the Shipo triangle?
1.
the supraspin of the temporal bone
2. the mastoid notch of the temporal bone
3. the groove of the occipital artery of the temporal bone
4. the mastoid crest of the temporal bone
5. the posterior edge of the external auditory canal

Q. Projection of the main trunk of the middle meningeal artery using the
KrenIein-Bryusova scheme:
1. at the intersection of the back vertical and the upper horizontal
2. at the intersection of the middle vertical and the upper horizontal
3. at the intersection of the back vertical and the upper horizontal
4. at the intersection of the front vertical and the lower horizontal
5. at the intersection of the anterior vertical and upper horizontal
Q.What is the characteristic of the subperiosteal hematoma of the fronto-

1. has a diffuse character within the fronto- parieto-occipital region
2. has the shape of a bump
3. spreads within one bone
4. it is difficult to give a clear characteristic
5. freely spreads to the tissue of the face
Q.Thrombosis of which sinus of the dura mater develops in some forms of the
carbuncle Of the upper lip, wings of the nose or the superciliary arch:
1. cavernous
2. wedge-parietal
3. lower sagittal
4. rectus
5. upper sagittal
Q.The cerebral cortex of a child is similar in structure to the cortex of

an adult by:
1) 6 years old
2) 4 years old
3) 10 years old
4) 2 years old
5) 8 years old
Q.One of the main changes caused by chronic pain:
1) Mood boost
2) Productivity
3) Laughter
4) Depression
5) Deep dReam
Q.Indicate the nasal passage into which the nasolacrimal canal opens
1) Lower
2) Common
3) Middle
4) Posterior
5) upper
Q.Epilepsy is caused by the appearance of a generator pathologically

increased excitement in:
1) Cerebellum
2) Spinal cord
3) Thalamus
4) Cerebral Cortex
5) Brain Stem
Q.The sinus of dura mater. often damaged by injuries of the fornix of the
cerebral section of the head:
1) Upper sagittal
2) Cavernous
3) Lower sagittal
4) Sigmoid
5) Straight
Q. The child is 10 years Old. Based on clinical and laboratory research

methods, the diagnosis was ma cerebrospinal fluid is characteristic of this
syndrome.
1) Glucose- 2.0-3.0 mmol / l
2) protein - 1-2g / l
3) color- colorless
4) cytosis- 15-20cl/ mm3
5) chlorides- 500-550mq%v
Q. the connection of the saphenous veins of the cerebral part of the head
with the sinus of the dura meter is carried out through the:
1) Venous sinus
2) Veins of dura mater
3) Pachyon granules
4) Saphenous veins
5) Diploic vein
Q.Compression by the tumor p-gocess in the parotid salivary gland of which

nerve leads to the
1) glossopharyngeal
2) zygomatic
3) facial
4) trigeminal
5) auricular temporal
Q. What is the characteristic of subgleal hematoma of the fronto-parieto-

occipital region?
1) moves freely within the fronto-parieto-occipital region
2) has the shape of an oval oriented in the longitudinal direction
3) has a pulsating character
4) it is difficult to give a clear characteristic
5) corresponds to the shape of the underlying bone
Q. When a fracture of which bone occurs bleeding and liquorrhea from the
external auditory canal?
1) Temporal
2) Maxillary
3) Occipital
4) Pterygoid
5) Parietal
Q.What kind of reaction to the acute pain?
1) Lowering blood pressure
2) Increased heart rate
3) Decreased breathing
4) Lower blood glucose
5) Decrease in heart rate
Q.Characteristic of segmental dissociated sensory
1) Preservation of pain sensitivity With of temperature sensitivity
2) Loss of pain sensitivity with preservation of temperature sensitivity
3) loss of pain and temperature sensitivity With preservation Of deep

sensitivity
4) of deep sensitivity and preservation of pain sensitivity
5) Loss of deep and superficial sensitivity
Q.15th years old patient complained of numbness and pain on the left side
of the body after analyzing there was left sided .Where is the lesion?
1. Thalamus left
2. Inner capsule left
3. Thalamus right
4. Trunk left
5. inner capsule
Q. Dissociated sensitivity disorder (loss of superficial with preserved

deep) on both sides in the segment area (like a jacket) occurred in case of
lesion of
1. Anterior horn
2. Half segment Lesion
3. Lateral horn lesion
4. lesion of anterior gray commissure
5. Posterior horn
Q. Using which test the light paresis can be detected ?

1. Knocking
2. Kweckenstedt
3. Ashner
4. Romberg
5. Barre
Q. What informative research is used for diagnosing meningitis?
1. Antigraphy
2. CSF research
3. X-ray-diagnostic
4. Electroencephography
5. Electroneurography
Q. Which of the following posture is characterize the damage Of pyramidal

fibers in the inner capsule?
1. supplicant pose
2. Wernicke-Mann pose
3. Romberg pose
4. Point Dog pose
5. Mannequin pose
Q. The localization sensory is:
1. An ability to define numbers, letters written on skin of hand
2. An ability to define two touches at the same time
3. Recognition of known objects placed on hands
4. An ability to find an irritated point with finger
5. An ability to define passive joint movements
Bonpoc: NQ7
in which of the following conditions do pathological reflexes occur?
1. striatum lesion
2. cerebellar lesion
3. peripheral paralysis
4. defeat pallidum
5. central paralysis
Bonpoc:
lower central paraparesis with sphincter disorders occurred in case of

lesion:
1. of the spinal cord at the level of the thoracic region
2. of epiconus
5. of the spinal cord at the level of the cervical thickening
Bonpoc: NQI
Q.A discrimination sensitivity is:
1. An ability to define two touches at the same time
2. Recognition of known objects placed on hands
3. An ability to define numbers, letters written on skin of hand
5. An ability to define passive joint movements
Bonpoc: NQ40
A 46-year-old woman was admitted to the rehabilitation center. She has type
2 diabetes and high blood pressure. She has a history of stroke a month
ago. At the moment the condition has improved. What imaging study should be
used to control treatment and predict further condition.
1. Neurosonography

Bonpoc: NQIO
Q.What type of sensation js related to deep one?
1. Temperature sensitivity
2. Vibratory sensation
3. Localization
4. Stereognosis
5. Pain
Q. which of the following symptoms Are characteristic of spinal cord

lesions in the upper cervical region (C1-C4)?
1. Loss of deep sensitivity while the superficial
2. Central tetraplegia, shortness of breath, hiccups
3. Peripheral paralysis of arms and legs
4. Dysfunction of the pelvic organ of peripheral types
5. Peripheral paralysis, spastic paralysis of the legs
Q. The pathological reflex of the flexor group is the reflex:
1. Oppenheim
2. Rossolimbo
3. Babinsky
4. Gordon
5. Schaeffer
Bonpoc: NQ48
In the training laboratory of pathophysiology, experiments were carried out

on dogs poisoned with isoniazid after death, morphological examination of
the brain tissue showed: the development of intracellular edema of the body
and processes of astrocytes. What type of cerebral edema can be expected?
1. Hydrostatic
2. Cytotoxic
3. Vasogenic
4. Interstitial
5. Osmotic
Bonpoc: NP46
An ambulance delivered the patient after the earthquake from anamnesis

suffers from the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
the doctor of the emergency department diagnosed acute renal failure
cerebral edema. What type of cerebral edema did this patient develop:
1. Osmotic
2. Vasogenic
3. Cytotoxic
4. Hydrostatic
5. Interstitial
Bonpoc: NP45
Violation of higher nervous activity is called:
1. Pain
2. Paresis
3. Paralysis
4. Deafferentation
5. Neurosis
Bonpoc: NQ44
Neurological causes of cerebral edema:
1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
2. Lactic acidotic coma
3. Malignant hypertension
4. Hyponatraemia
5. Brain hemorrhage
Bonpoc: NQ43
Phantom pain is:

1. Burning pain in the area of damaged nerve trunks
2. Pain arising from pathology in internal organs
3. Perception of cold and heat exposure as pain
4. Perception of non-painful exposure as painful
5. Pain in a missing part of the body
Bonpoc: Ng42
A typical variant of neurodystrophic process :
1. Lower blood glucose
2. Pain syndrome
3. Spinal shock
4. Lowering blood pressure
5. Denervation syndrome
Q. What relates to the system of perception and transmission of the pain

signal?
1. Parasympathetic nervous system
2. Autonomic nervous system
3. Sympathetic nervous system
4. Axonal system
5. Nociceptive nervous system
Bonpoc: N937
______ is primary acoustic window uses in neurosonography brain

visualization??
1. Sphenoid fontanelle
2. Anterior fontanelle
3. Posterior fontanelle
4. Posterolateral fontanelle
5. Mastoid fontanelle
Q. which imaging technique shows anatomical structures of brain?
1. Electroencephalography (EEG)

3. Myelography
5. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
Bonpoc: NQ35
The child is 4 months old. Complaints of anxiety, tremors of the chin and
upper limbs, intermittent short sleep, flinching. She reacts to examination
by crying, increased muscle tone and increased reflexes. The head is
rounded, with a large fontanel, cm. There is a bulging and pronounced
pulsation of the large fontanelle. Determine what syndrome the child has:
1. meningeal syndrome
2. hyperexcitability syndrome
3. hypertensive syndrome
4. hydrocephalic syndrome
5. convulsive syndrome
Bonpoc: NQ34
The child is 6 months old. On examination, anxiety is noted. the skin is

pale, a venous pattern is expressed on the scalp, the head is large, the
size of large fontanel is 4,0x40 cm, and the divergence of the skull bones-
What are you suggesting?
1. Hydrocephalic syndrome
2. Hypertensive syndrome
3. Meningeal syndrome
4. Encephalitic syndrome
5. Convulsive syndrome
Q. Determine the psychomotor skill in child at 9-10 months?
1. Just starting to sit
2. Walks independently
3. Runs independently
4. Gets up and stands holding on to the support
5. Just starts to crawl
Bonpoc: N@27
in which venous Sinus of the hard shell of the brain is hematogenous
transmission of infection possible with furuncle of the nasolabial fold
area?
1. sinus sagittalis interior
2. sinus rectos
3. sinus petrosus major
4. sinus sigmoidius
5. sinus Cavernous
Bonpoc: NQ24
In the study of the neurological status of the patient, speech impairment

was found in the form of difficulty in choosing words, fuzzy pronunciation;
In this case, the patient understands the speech addressed and performs the
commands. No clinical signs of atactic, bulbar and pseudobulbar syndrome
were found. Where is the lesion likely located in this patient ?
1. In the temporal lobe
2. In the parietal lobe
3. In the frontal lobe
4. In the occipital lobe
5. In the basal ganglia
Bonpoc: N02()
Half lesion of the spinal cord diameter characterized by central paralysion

the side of the lesion in combination with:
1. violation of all kinds of sensitivity - to protivopo false from the

lesion side of the body
2. polyneuritic disorder of sensitivity in the distal extremities
3. violation of deep sensitivity on the side of the focus and pain and
temperature sensitivity s on the opposite
4. violation of pain and temperature sensitivity on the side of the

focus
5. violation of all types of sensitivity on the side of the lesion and

central tetraparesis
Bonpoc: NQ16
A 12-year-old patient consulted a neuropathologist at the polyclinic with

complaints of weakness in the left extremities, a feeling of numbness in
the right extremities. And also, badly feels the floor with the left leg.
Examination of the neurostatus revealed central left-sided hemiparesis, a
decrease in deep sensitivity in the left extremities, and a decrease in
superficial sensitivity in the right half of the body. Where is the lesion
located
1. Complete transverse lesion of the upper cervical segments
2. Half lesion of the upper cervical segments
3. Half lesion of the thoracic segments
4. Complete transverse lesion at the level of the cervical thickening
5. Complete transverse lesion of the thoracic segments
Q. Mom brought her 11 years old to a neuropathologist at the clinic with

complaints of involuntary movement in all limbs that disappear in sleep.in
the study of girl’s neurostatus, choreic hyperkinesis was found. How will
muscle tone change?
1. Promotion of plastic type
2. Spasmodic promotion
3. Gear type boost
4. Diffuse decrease of muscle tone
5. Clasp knife promotion
Q. Deep reflexes include:
1. Cremasteric reflex
2. Corneal reflex
3. Abdominal reflex
4. Ankle reflex
Q. Jackson syndrome is characterized
1. Lesions II pairs on the side of the lesion and central hemiparesis on

the opposite side
2. Lesions III pairs on the side of the lesion and central hemiparesis
on the opposite side
3. Lesions VII pairs on the side of the lesion and central hemiparesis
4. Lesions VIII pairs on the side of the lesion and central hemiparesis
5. Lesions XII pairs on the side of the lesion and central hemiparesis
Bonpoc: N24
Intramedullary compression lesion syndrome is:
1. More often in the thoracic region and cauda equina
2. More often in area of thickening
3. Progresses slowly
4. Ascending flow type
5. Block of cerebrospinal fluid
Bonpoc:
Lesion of the trigeminal nerve is characterized by:
1. dysarthria
2. impaired sensitivity
3. paresis of facial muscle
4. swallowing disorder
5. positive bell’s symptom
Bonpoc: N27
Signs of central paralysis include the following symptoms:
1. fasciculations hypotrophy, hyporeflexia. clonuses of the feet
2. fibrillation hypotension hyporeflexia hypotrophy
3. clonus of the feet spastic tone in the limbs positive Pussep symptom
4. hyperreflexia sluggish tone in the limbs positive first in babinski
5. Atony areflexia positive symptom Oppenheim fibrillation
Bonpoc: N28
1. Disorders of deep sensitivity

2. Fascicular twitching of muscle at the level of damage
3. Disorders of movement at the level of damage
4. Disorders of sweating at the level of damage
5. Less of superficial sensitivity at the level of damage
Bonpoc: N? 10
Hypertensive- hydrocephalic syndrome includes
1. Restless shallow sleep
2. Increase in head size by 1-2 cm
3. Increased tendon reflexes
4. Muscular dystonia
5. Tremor of the limbs and chin
Bonpoc: NE 12
The defeat of the pyramidal fibers in the inner capsule causes
1. central hemiplegia central paresis of the XII and VII FMN on the
opposite side of the body
2. central tetraplegia and central paresis of the XII and VII on their
3. central hemiplegia on its own and central paresis of the XII and VII
FMN on the opposite side of the body
4. central hemiplegia and central paresis of XII and VII FMN on its side
of the body
5. central hemiplegia on the opposite side of the body and central

paresis of XII and VII on its own
Bonpoc: N223
Mother brought year old child to neuropathologist with complaints Of

headache. Vomiting. Ophthalmoscopically found on both sides of the stagnant
discs of the optic nerves. What method can be used to detect an increase in
finger like impressions in this patient?
1. Electroneuronvgraplv;
2. Electroencemiography
3. Lumber puncture
4. skull x-ray
5. MRI of the brain
Bonpoc: 'N226
Name the sinus of the duramater of the brain, which can be damaged by
trepanation of the mastoid process
1. Sigmoid
2. Straight
3. Sagittal
4. Large stony
5. Cavernous
Bonpoc: N227
What is the limitation of the shipo triangle in front?
1. The groove of the occipital artery of the temporal bone
2. The supraspin of the temporal bone
3. The mastoid notch of temporal bone
4. The mastoid crest of temporal bone
5. The posterior edge of the external auditory canal
Q. the sinus of the duramater is often damaged by injuries of the formix of

the cerebral section of the head?
1. Cavernous
2. Upper sagittal
3. Lower sagittal
4. Sigmoid
5. Straight
Bonpoc: N231
What is the presentation of cytosis in cerebrospinal fluid in healthy

children in the field Of vision:
1. basophils 3-4
2. neutrophits 10-12
3. lymhpjcytes 3-5
4. eosinophils 5-6
5. monocytes 1-2
Bonpoc: N232
Indicate symptom, which characteristic of meningeal syndrome:
1. Absence of consciousness
2. Absence of reflexes
3. Stiff neck
4. Limited mobility
5. Decreased muscle tone
Bonpoc: N234
The child is 2 years old. On examination. there is an increase in body

temperature 39, anxiety, crying$ vomiting. stiffness of the muscles of the
occiput. pronounced pulsation of the large fontanel. a positive reflex of
Brudzinsky. What are you suggesting?
1. Damage of digestive system
2. Damage of muscular system
3. Damage of endocrine system
4. Damage to the skeletal system
5. Damage of nervous system
Q. imaging modality which can evaluate functional and anatomical state of

patient of brain tumor?
2. Neurosonography
3. Skull X-ray
4. Molecular imagining
5. MRI
Bonpoc: NE45
The neurodystrophic process in organs and tissues in the pathology of the

nervous system is caused by a violation of;
1. Trophic function
2. Regulatory function
3. Perception
4. Motor function
5. Sensitive function
Bonpoc: N246
The patient in the afternoon in the presence of relatives after the

conflict fell on the sofa rolled her eyes, She soon developed tonic cramps
in her arms. which lasted 5 minutes and replaced by clonic convulsions of
the whole body. without tongue bite. spontaneous no urination was observed.
At the time the seizure the reaction of the pupils to light was preserved.
The whole seizure lasted 15 minutes. What can be assumed:
1. Neurasthenia
2. Jacksonian Seizure
4. Epilepsy
5. Generalized tonic clonic seizure
Bonpoc: Ne48
A student from KSMA turned to complaining that she washes her hands up to
40 times a day because of fear of contamination. she always thinks that
she has microorganisms on her hands. What can be assumed with this student:
4. Social phobias
5. Neurasthenia
Q. A 13- year-old patient consulted a neuropathologist at the polyclinic

with complaints of weakness in the right limbs. a feeling of numbness in
the left limbs. Examination of the neurostatus revealed central right-
sided hemiparesis. a decrease in deep sensitivity in the right extremities,
and a decrease in superficial sensitivity in the left half of the body.
What syndrome does this patient have?
1. Horner's syndrome
2. Morgan's syndrome
3. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
4. Fauville's syndrome
5. Weber's syndrome
Q. The maximum functional asymmetry or the brain is noted:
1. In childhood
2. During the period or perinatal ontogenesis
3. During puberty
4. In adulthood
5. during the neonatal period
Q. which type of the method the patient is unable to feel weight
1.
using weber compass
2. Gentle touch with brush or hair
3. Making passive movement on phalanges
4. Placing on the extended hand an objects with different weight
5. Pinprick test
Q. indicate Symptom, which characteristic of hydrocephalic syndrome
1. Normal head Size
2. The seams of the head are closed
3. Flattening of the occiput
4. Large fontanelle sinks
5. Dehiscence of the bones of the skull
Q. The middle artery of the dura mater is projected
1. In the fronto-parieto-occipital region
2. in the orbital region
3. in the temporal region

4. the mastoid process
5. in the nasal cavity
Q. Graphesthesia sensitivity is:
2. An ability to define passive joint movement
3. An ability to define numbers, letter written on the skin of hand
4. An ability to define two sensational factors with the same model
5. Recognition of known objects placed on the hands

1. The most effective method for diagnosing gonococcus is:
A. Linked immunosorbent assay
B. Cultural
C. Bacterioscopic
D. Immunofluorescent
E. Polymerase chain reaction
2. A 23-year-old female patient complains of mucopurulent discharge from the

genital tract, itching at the antenatal clinic. By examination: the mucous of the
cervix is sharply hyperemic, edematous. The discharge is profuse,
mucopurulen. uterus in anteversio-flexio, not enlarged, painless; the
appendages are not defined. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Bartholinitis
C. Endometritis
D. Acute salpingo-oophoritis
E. Endocervicitis.
3. For conservative treatment of Abnormal uterine bleeding the 1st line drug is:
A. oxytocin
B. NSAIDs
C. tranexamic acid
D. aminocaproic acid
E. sodium ethamsylate
4. A 16-year-old girl developed spotting from the genital tract, lasting 8 days after
a 2-month delay. The first menstruation appeared 4 months ago for 2 days, after
28 days, moderate, painless. Denies sexuality. The development is correct, well
physically built. When recto-abdominal examination of the pathology is not
detected. Нb-80 g / l. Probable diagnosis:
A. Hormone-producing ovarian tumor
B. Cervical cancer
C. Polyp of the cervix
D. Juvenile uterine bleeding
E. Endometrial polyposis
5. A mother with a 4-year-old girl turned to a pediatric gynecologist, who has

itching and redness in the external genital area, purulent discharge from the
genital tract. These symptoms occur periodically throughout the year. Genital
hygiene is observed. The child is observed by an allergist in connection with
atopic dermatitis (skin rashes on the elbows and on the face).
What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Salpingo-oophoritis
B. Atopic vulvovaginitis
C. Endometritis
D. Endocervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
6. Patient L., 24 years old, complains of profuse vaginal discharge with an

unpleasant smell of "rotten fish". Gynecological examination: the external
genital organs and vaginal mucosa without signs of inflammation. Vaginal
discharge copious, watery, with an unpleasant odor. Internal genital organs
without pathology. During bacterioscopy of smears from the cervical canal and
urethra, "key cells" were found.What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis vulvovaginitis
C. Chlamydial cervicitis
D. Atrophic colpitis
E. Bartholinitis
7. Task 2 Patient R., 25 years old, was admitted to the gynecological department
with complaints of pain in the external genital area, awkwardness when
walking, fever. Pain appeared four days ago, after hypothermia. Last period 3
weeks ago. By examination: in the area of the right labia majora, a tumor-like
formation measuring 4x3 cm is determined, the skin above it is hyperemic, hot
to the touch, fluctuation is noted on palpation. Examination of the cervix in the
speculum and bimanual examination revealed no abnormalities.
What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis:
A. Bartholine abscess
B. acute bilateral salpingitis, pelvioperitonitis
C. Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor
D. Necrosis of subserous myomatous node
E. Perforation of purulent formation of appendages
8. A 23-year-old female patient came to the antenatal clinic with complaints of

cramps during urination, fever up to 37.8 ° C, purulent discharge from the
genital tract. She has several sexual partners.Examination by speculum: the
mucous membrane of the urethra is hyperemic, the cervix is cylindrical,
hyperemia of the area of the external opening of the cervical canal. Discharge
from the cervical canal is purulent. Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic
doctor:
A. Prescribe an outpatient course of antibiotic therapy
B. Take swabs, culture for gonorrhea
C. Hospitalize the patient in a gynecological hospital
D. Get swabs for chlamydia infection
E. Hospitalization in the dermatovenerologic clinic
9. Patient S., 21 years old, at the reception in the antenatal clinic complains of
mucopurulent discharge from the genital tract, itching. Speculum exam: the
cervix is hyperemic, edematous, with pinpoint hemorrhages. The discharge is
profuse, mucopurulent. Vaginal examination revealed no pathology. Was
diagnosed : Endocervicitis.
Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor:
A To urgently hospitalize the patient for surgical intervention
B. Antibiotic therapy, take culture for microorganisms
C. Healthy lifestyle, diet, phytohomeopathic treatment.
D. Refer the patient to a dermatovenerologic dispensary
E. Recommended a re-examination after the next menstruation
10. Duration of the menstrual cycle:

A. 21-35days
B. 28-29days
C. 25-37days
D. 24-32days
E. 35-39days
11. Preovulatory changes in the hormonal background are characterized by an

increase in the level
A. LH and decreased FSH
B. FSH and decreased LH
C. FSH and LH
D. Prolactin
E. FSH, LH and prolactin
12. The mechanism of action of hormones on the cell is due to the presence of:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Receptors
C. Specific Enzymes
D. Isoenzymes
E. Thromboxant
13. According to the WHO classification (198O), menopause is called

A. Period of stable menstrual function
B. Last menstruation
C. The length of time after the last menstruation
D. Time span after reproductive age
E. The onset of the first menstruation
14. According to the WHO classification (198O), postmenopause is called

A. Last menstruation
B. The period from the onset of menstruation to the last menstruation
C. Period of stable menstrual function
D. Period of first menstruation
E. The length of time after the last menstruation
15. Research methods of the anatomical and functional state of the vagina:
A. Inspection with speculum;
B. Combined vaginal rectal examination;
C. Cytological examination of the contents of the uterine cavity;
D. Puncture of the posterior fornix;
E. Determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.
16. Which test of functional diagnostics indicates the presence of a biphasic

menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
B. Karyopicnosis Index
C. Basal thermometry
D. Symptom of "fern"
E. Symptom of crystallization
17. The scope of the examination for pathology of the cervix

A. Colposcopy
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. Bacterioscopy
E. Laparoscopy
18. Algodismenorea is:

A. Rare and scarce menstruation
B. Painful menstruation
C. Reduced blood loss during menstruation
D. Intermenstrual meager spotting
E. Heavy periods
19. Menorrhagia is:

A. Acyclic uterine bleeding
B. Cyclic uterine bleeding
C. Painful and heavy menstruation
D. Pre- and postmenstrual bleeding
E. Change in the rhythm of menstruation
20. Metrorrhagia is
A. Change in the rhythm of menstruation
B. Increased blood loss during menstruation
C. Increase in the duration of menstruation
D. Acyclic uterine bleeding
E. Reducing blood loss during menstruation
21. Phases of the ovarian cycle:

A. Follicular and luteal
B. Follicular and ovulation
C. Ovulatory and anovulatory
D. Anovulatory and luteal
E. Desquamation and ovulation
22. For anovulatory menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is characteristic:

A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
23. For anovulatory menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is characteristic:

A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. Promenomenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
24. In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal temperature is characterized by:

A. Rise In Temperature After Ovulation
B. Lack Of Temperature Rise
C. Rise In Temperature Before Ovulation
D. Rise In Temperature Before Menstruation
E. Rise In Temperature Immediately After Menstruation
25. Anovulatory menstrual cycle is characterized by:

A. Cyclic changes in the body
B. Long-lasting follicle persistence
C. Prevalence of gestagens in phase 2
D. Prevalence of estrogen in phase 1
E. Acyclic change in the body
26. To induce ovulation, use:
A. Progestogens
B. Antiestrogens
C. Natural Estrogens
D. Prostaglandins
E. Antagonists Of Prostaglandins
20. The most effective method of preventing unwanted pregnancy is:

A. Intrauterine device
B. Britm method
C. Spermicides
D. Surgical sterilization
E. Hormonal contraception
21.For planned hormonal contraception use:

A. Pure estrogens
B. Pure gestagens
C. A-gn realizing hormones
D. Prostoglandins
E. Selective inhibitors of progesterone receptors
27. Intrauterine system "Mirena":

A. Contains the progestogen levonorgestrel
B. Introduced for 8 years
C. Has a therapeutic effect in submucous uterine myoma
D. Does not have a contraceptive effect
E. Has a contraceptive effect by suppressing ovulation
28. The most common cause of female infertility is :

A. Psychosexual disorders
B. Tubal-peritoneal factor
C. Endocrine factor
D. Uterine factor
E. Immunological factor
29. During what time does not pregnancy occur in the presence of regular sexual
life, without the use of contraceptives, to consider the marriage infertile:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
E. 5 years
30. Name the composition of injectable contraceptives:

A. Long-acting Progestogens
B. Conjugated estrogens
C. Small doses of a progestogen
D. Antiandrogens
E. Mixed doses of hormones
31. Specify the day of menstrual cycle to start estrogen-progestin preparations for
contraception:
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14
E. 28
32. Specify the most serious complication when taking combined oral
contraceptives:
A. Thromboembolic complications
B. Cardiovascular diseases
C. Impaired carbohydrate metabolism
D. Violation of fat metabolism
E. Violation of vitamin metabolism
33. Infection with what microorganisms that cause colpitis requires treatment of
both partners:
A. Trichomonas
B. Candida
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci
E. E.Coli
34. In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years), the following are more common:
A. Ovarian tumors
B. Dysfunctional bleeding
C. Congenital anomalies of the genital organs
D. Vulvovaginitis
E. Salpingo-oophoritis
35. Classification of pelvioperitonitis by stages, choose the correct answer:

A. Primary, secondary
B. Reactive, terminal, toxic
C. Adhesive, exudative
D. Serous, purulent, fibrinous
E. Adhesive, fibrinous
36. Which of the following inflammatory diseases in the acute stage is

accompanied by symptoms of bryuschina irritation:
A. Endometritis
B. Colpitis
C. Vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
37. The main clinical symptom of bacterial vaginosis is:

A. Itching of the external genitals and perineum
B. Dyspareunia
C. Profuse leucorrhoea with an unpleasant odor
D. Dysuria
E. Bubble rashes in the genital area
38. Polymenorrhea is:

A. Lean menstruation
B. Short menstruation (1-2 days)
C. Short menstrual cycle
D. Heavy menstruation
E. Painful menstruation
39. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during:

A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
E. 2 months
40. During the parametrite, a stage is distinguished:

A. Desquamation
B. Infiltration
C. Proliferation
D. Tissue decomposition
E. Edematous
41. The complication that most often arises in the management of the intrauterine
device is:
A. Isthmic-cervical insufficiency
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Habitual miscarriage
D. Acute infection
E. Pelvic vein thrombosis
42. The symptom most characteristic of vulvovaginitis:

A. Sharp pains
B. Burning, itching
C. High temperature
D. Ulceration
E. Spotting
43. The most important risk factor for endometritis after childbirth is:
A. Frequent sexual activity
B. Cesarean section
C. Childbirth through the birth canal
D. Previous urinary tract infection
E. Corresponding upper respiratory tract infection
44. What are the diagnostic tests that indicate the presence of bacterial vaginosis:
A. Detection of key cells
B. Lowering the ph of vaginal secretions
C. Negative amino test of whites
D. Detection of abnormal cells
E. Increase in basal temperature
45. The anatomical features of the uterus in a newborn girl include:

A. The body of the uterus is small, the cervix is almost not expressed
B. The length of the cervix 3 times more the length of the uterus
C. The uterus has a bicorn shape
D. The body of the uterus is almost 2 times larger than the cervix
E. Uterus curved posteriorly
46. Small doses of estrogen:

A. Stimulate FSH production
B. Suppress FSH production
C. Strengthen LH production
D. Suppress LH production
E. Stimulates TTG production
47. The vaginal part of the cervix in a woman of reproductive age is normally
covered:
A. Cylindrical epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Glandular epithelium
D. Stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium
E. Cubic epithelium
48. The main estrogen hormone in the body of a woman in the postmenopausal
period is:
A. Estradiol
B. Estron
C. Estriol
D. Estradiol dipropionate
E. Estrogen
49. According to the tests of functional diagnostics (TFD), it is impossible to

determine:
A. Biphasic menstruation
B. The level of estrogenic saturation of the body
C. Ovulation
D. The usefulness of the luteal phase of the cycle
E. Hormone-producing ovarian tumor
50. Cytological cervical screening is performed at the age of:

A. 30 to 69 years old
B. 40 to 69 years old
C. 31 to 69 years old
D. 49 to 69 years old
E. 21 to 69 years old
51. Which of the following examination methods most reliably confirm the
diagnosis of inflammation of the appendages?
A. Quantification of white blood cells;
B. Gram stain of cervical mucus smear;
C. Culdocentesis;
D. Laparoscopy;
E. Ultrasound of the pelvic organs
52. Patient V., 22 years old, consulted a antenatal clinic with complaints of
discomfort in the vagina, burning sensation, itching, leucorrhoea. Considers
himself ill for 5 days. Examination reveald: the mucous membrane of the
vagina and cervix is sharply hyperemic, edematous. Whitish deposits are easily
removed with a gauze ball, a cheesy discharge. Vaginal examination was
normal. Was diagnosed : Vulvovaginal candidiasis .Define the tactics of the
antenatal clinic doctor :
A. Antifungal therapy
B. Hormonal therapy
C. Radiation therapy
D .Surgical therapy
E.Physiotherapy
53. A 20-year-old female patient turned to clinic, complaining of abundant,

purulent discharge from the genital tract, itching, burning and pain in the
vagina. She fell ill acutely, 2 days ago, when the above complaints appeared.
Menstrual function is not impaired. By examination: the vaginal mucosa is
sharply hyperemic, covered with a purulent bloom, bleeds easily when touched.
The cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is not changed. What is the most
likely diagnosis:
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Acute colpitis
C. Endometritis
D. Endocervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
54. 5-year-old woman, unmarried, has sex 2-3 times a month, and sometimes less
often. Partners are different. There were no pregnancies. What method of
contraception is appropriate to prescribe:
B. Condom
C. Combined oral contraceptives
D. Injectable contraceptives
E. Surgical sterilization
55. A young nulliparous woman, 20 years old, has an active sex life outside of
marriage, has several sexual partners. What methods of contraception can be
recommended to the patient:
A. Condom
B. Spermicides
C. Intrauterine device
D. Combined oral contraceptives
56. A 25-year-old female patient consulted a gynecologist to receive

recommendations on contraception. FROM ANAMNESIS: menarche from 13
years old, irregular, painful, takes spasmaton to relieve pain. Married.In
obstetric anamnesis was 1birth 3 years ago. She does not plan pregnancy for the
next 2-3 years, she wants reliable contraception. Somatically healthy.
Gynecological examination and ultrasound revealed no pathology. What
method of contraception is recommended for this patient:
A. Surgical sterilization
B. Calendar rhythm method.
C. Intrauterine device with silver
E. Postcoital contraception (Postinor, Dvella)
57. Patient I., 42 years old, consulted a gynecologist to receive recommendations

on contraception, suffers from hypertension for 5 years. Regular sex life in
marriage. History of 2 births, 2 medical abortions. General condition is
satisfactory, blood pressure is 135/90 mm Hg., height 164 cm, weight 90 kg ,
BMI =35. Recommended method of contraception:
A. Condom
B. Calendar rhythm method
58. For anovulatory menstrual cycle with short-term persistence of a mature

follicle is not typical:
A. Symptom of the pupil (+++)
B. Single-phase basal temperature
C. High estrogen levels
D. In the scraping of the endometrium in the second phase of the cycle
E. Prolonged spotting discharge
59. Features of the treatment of DUB in menopausal patients are:

A. Conducting a separate diagnostic curettage
B. Ovarian Suppression Therapy
C. Treatment of concomitant somatic pathology
D. Cyclic hormone therapy
E. Hormone treatment
60. The most common mechanism for the development of dysfunctional uterine
bleeding in the juvenile period is:
A. Increased FSH
B. Follicular persistence
C. Follicular atresia
D. Hyperprolactinemi
E. LH increase
61. The conditions for cyclic hormone therapy in patients with menstrual
irregularities are:
A. Preliminary consultation by a neurologist
B. Preliminary consultation of the therapist
C. The use of a minimum amount of estrogen
D. Use of gestagens, ultrasound examination of the uterus
E. Hormone testing
62. Women with AUB are at risk:

A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency and anomalies of the birth force
C. On the development of genital tumors
D. On the development of breast tumors
E. Pregnancy
63. What is the mechanism of action of the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM):
A. Suppression of ovulation
B. Changes in the structure of the endometrium
C. Violation of implantation
D. Thickening of cervical mucus
E. Change in sperm movement
64. The high efficiency of the method of lactational amenorrhea (LAM), subject to
all the rules, is observed:
A. Within 3 months after childbirth
B. Within 6 months after childbirth
C. Within 9 months after childbirth
D. Within 12 months after childbirth
E. Within 15 months after giving birth
65. What is the mechanism of action of voluntary surgical sterilization:

A. Thickening of cervical mucus
B. Blockage of the fallopian tubes
C. Suppression of ovulation
D. Violation of implantation
E. Thickening of cervical mucus
66. Specify the mechanism of action of spermicides:

A. Reduces the life span of spermatozoa
B. Destroys the membranes of spermatozoa
C. Thickening of cervical mucus
D. Violation of egg implantation
E. Dilution of cervical mucus
67. Before giving a woman an injection of Depo-provera, the health worker must
make sure that she does not have:
A. Vaginal bleeding of unclear etiology
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. History of STIs
D. Thromboembolic disorders
E. High blood pressure
68. Depo-provera is not recommended:

A. Women of any age with more than 3 children
B. Women with migraines
C. Women with breast cancer at this time
D. Unborn women and adolescents
E. Women after abortion
69. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the contraceptive effect
of birth control pills that contain both synthetic estrogen and progestin?
A. Direct inhibition of oocyte maturation
B. Inhibition of ovulation
C. Production of uterine secretions that are toxic to the developing
embryo
D. Impairment of implantation
E. Impairment of sperm transport due to uterotubal obstructio
70. A woman has period every 33 days lasting 8 days with large clots being
passed. She could be classified as having
A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menometrrohagia
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Menorrhagia
E. Polymenorrhea
71. Of the following, which woman is the best candidate for the female
condom?
A.16 year old high school student who has never had sex, but
wishes to start with her new 18-year-old boyfriend
B.29 year old secretary who has been married for 7 years, and is in
a monogamous relationship with her husband
C.40 year old obese smoker whose partner refuses to wear
condoms
D.34 year old woman who has three children and had a post
partum tubal ligation
72. For conservative treatment of Abnormal uterine bleeding the 1st line drug is:
F. Oxytocin
G. Nsaids
H. Tranexamic acid
I. Aminocaproic acid
J. Sodium ethamsylate
73. What is the most common presenting complaint of a woman with vaginitis?
A. Dyspareunia
B. Vaginal discharges
C. Pelvic pain
D. Fever
E. Irregular menses
Test TOP. ANATOMY
1. Sperm production begins in the
a. seminiferous tubules
b. epididymis
c. vas deferens
d. ejaculatory duct
2. The structure between the uterus and the vagina is the
a. uterine tube
b. cervix
c. vulva
d. hymen
3. Out of the following, which hormone does not secret from corpus luteum?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Relaxin
d) Testosterone
4. Mark the INCORRECT statement about prostate gland?
a) Located inferior to the urinary bladder
b) Secretion is thin and milky colored
c) Secretion is acidic in nature
d) Function in increasing the mobility of the sperm
5. Which of the following is an energy source for the sperm?
a) Somatostatin
b) Prostaglandin
c) Proteins
d) Fructose
OBS
1. Which one of the following fetal heart rate (FHR) is considered normal:
A. 120-160 per minute
B. 110-150 per minute
C. 100-180 per minute
E. 80-100 per minute
2. Pregnancy duration:
A. 36 weeks
B. 40 weeks
C. 42 weeks
D. 38 weeks
E. 37 weeks
3. The length of 1st labor stage (cervical dilatation) in primigravida:
A. 3-6 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 18-20 hours
E. 2-4 hours
4. The length of 1st labor stage (cervical dilatation) of multipara?
A. 3 - 4 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 12-14 hours
5. At what dilatation of cervix rupture of membrane occur normally?
A. 3 - 4 cm
B. 5 - 6 cm C. 7- 8 cm
D. 9-10 cm
E. 11-12 cm
6. What is determined by the 1st maneuvers of Leopold?
A. The position of the fetus
B. Height of the uterine fundus
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
7. What is determined by the 2nd maneuvers of Leopold?
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
8. What is determined by the 3rd maneuvers of Leopold?
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Relation of presenting part to pelvic planes

10. Dilatation of cervix is full, amniotic membrane is intact. What phase of 1st
stage?
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase
C. Beginning of 1st stage
D. End of 1nd stage
E. Beginning of 2nd stage
11. What period is, if vaginal examination revealed the cervical dilatation of 5
cm?
A. 1st stage
B. Beginning of 2nd stage
C. End of 2nd stage
D. 3rd stage
E. Preliminary phase
12. Multipara has regular active contractions every 3-4 minutes for 35-40
seconds, which started 6 hours ago? What stage of labor is expected?
A. Latent phase
B. Beginning of labor
C. End of 1st stage
D. 2nd stage
E. 3 rd stage
A. 3-6 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 18-20 hours
E. 2-4 hours
A. 3 - 4 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 12-14 hours
A. 3 - 4 cm
B. 5 - 6 cm
C. 7- 8 cm
D. 9-10 cm
E. 11-12 cm
16. During pregnancy, which of the following is not true about maternal
cardiovascular physiology?
A. Heart rate decreases
B. Total peripheral resistance decreases
C. Arterial blood pressure decreases
D. Cardiac output increases
E. New murmurs are common
17. Why do pregnant women fill more easy breathing at the end of the
physiological pregnancy?
A. Absorption of amniotic fluid
B. Descending of the presenting part into the relaxed lower uterine segment
C. Contraction of the uterus
D. Reduction in fetal weight
E. Flexion of the fetal

18. What is determined by the second Leopold’s maneuver?
A. Height of the uterine fundus
B. Presenting part
C. Back and small parts of the fetus
D. Station of fetal head
E. Attitude
19. The smallest anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet is called:
A. Interspinous diameter
B. True conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric conjugate
E. Anatomic conjugate
20. The primigravida women fill the first quickening of fetus in:
A.12 weeks
B.16 weeks
C.18 weeks
D.20 weeks
E.22 weeks
21. The multipara women fill the first quickening of fetus in:
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 20 weeks
E. 22 weeks
22. The fundal height in 12 weeks of pregnancy is placed on the level of:
A. Umbilicus
B. Pubis symphysis
C. 2 cm above the pelvic inlet
D. Xiphisternum
E. 2 cm above umbilicus
23. Immunological tests depend upon secretion of:
A. Chorionic gonadotropins by trofoblast
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Prolactin
E. Lactogen
24. An 22-year-old maltipara with a last menstrual period of May 7 presents for
her first obstetric visit at 10 weeks. What is this patient’s estimated date of
confinement?
A. November 10
B. February 10
C. February 14
D. November 14
E. November 7
25. Which one of the following statements regarding physiological amount of
blood loss in 3 phases of labor is true?
A.100-550 ml
B. 250-500 ml
C. 550-650 ml
D. 500-700 ml
E.10% of placental weight

26. How change the concentrations of hormones during pregnancy?
A. Increase level of progesterone and estrogen
B. Decrease level of progesterone and estrogen
C. Increase level of androgen
D. Increase level of estrogen
E. Decrease level of estrogen
27. All of the following changes are seen in pregnancy except:
A. Increased stroke volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased intravascular volume
D. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
E. Increased pulse
28. In pregnancy all occurs except:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased blood volume
C. Increased MCV
D. Increased glomerular flow
E. Increased pulse
29. Which of the following is correct for urinary system changes in pregnancy:
A. Renal blood flow decreased
B. GFR increased
C. Decreased creatinine clearance
D. Kidneys shrink by 1cm
E. Polyuria
30. Cardinal movements of labor are:
A. Engagement → descent → flexion → internal rotation → extension →
restitution → external rotation → expulsion

B. Engagement → flexion → descent → internal rotation → extension →
expulsion
C. Engagement → flexion → descent → external rotation → expulsion
D. Engagement → extension → internal rotation → external rotation → expulsion
31. How does the blood content change during pregnancy?
A. Volume erythrocytes decreases
B.Hemoglobin’s and plasma increases
C.Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s and plasma decreases
D.Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s and plasma increases
E. Hemoglobin, plasma decreases
32. How does the blood and volume of the plasma change during pregnancy?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s decreases and plasma increases
D. Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s increases and plasma decreases
E. No changes
33. What is the true sign of pregnancy?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Enlargement of the uterus
D. Auscultation of the fetal heartbeat
E. Pigmentation changes
34. Normal diameters of big pelvis?
A. 22-25-28-15 cm
B. 24-26-30-20 cm
C. 26-28-30-20 cm
D. 27-27-30-17 cm
E. 25-27-29-18 cm
35. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
A. Interspinous Diameter
B. Diagonal conjugate
C. True conjugate
D. Intertuberous diameter
E.Lateral conjugate
36. The shortest diameter of fetal head is:
A. Biparietal diameter
B. Suboccipitofrontal diameter
C. Occipitofrontal diameter
D. Bitemporal diameter
C. Verticomental
37. Shortest diameter of pelvis is:
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. True conjugate
D. Lateral conjugate
E. All are equal
38. Longest diameter of pelvic inlet is:
A. Transverse diameter
C. Obstetric conjugate
D. True conjugate
E. All are equal
39.What is common type of presentation?
A. Cephalic
B. Vertex
C. Face
D. Brow
E. Breech
40. What is the submentobregmatic diameter on the fetal head?
This distance extends from:
A. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the chin
B. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the angel of bregma
C. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the line of hair
D. junction of the neck and lower jaw to the center of bregma,
41. What is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter of the fetal head?
A. 10 cm, circumference 33 cm
B. 9.5 cm, circumference 32 cm
C. 12 cm, circumference 34 cm
D. 13.5 cm, circumference of 38 cm
42. Which is not included in active management of III stage of labor?
A. Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
B.Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of cord
C. General massage of uterus
D. Controlled cord traction
43. Cervical dilatation per hour in primapara is:
A. 1.0 cms
B. 1.5 cms
C. 1.7 cms
D. 2 cms
E. 2.5 cms
44. The graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and duration of
labor is:
A. Partogram
B. Cervicograph
C. Growth curve
D. Dilatation chart
E. Gravidogram
45.What is not characteristic of true labor pain:
A. Absence of ‘bag of waters’
B. Painful uterine contractions
C. Progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix
D. Pain often felt in front of the abdomen or radiating
towards the thighs
E. Irregular
46. A patient comes to your office with LMP 4 weeks ago. She denies any
symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.
She thinks that she may be pregnant.
Which of the following evaluation methods is most sensitive in diagnosing
pregnancy?
A. No evaluation to determine pregnancy is needed because the patient is
asymptomatic and therefore cannot be pregnant
B. Serum pregnancy test
C. Detection of fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment
D. Abdominal ultrasound
E. Bimanual exam to assess uterine size.

47. A healthy 22-year-old primapara presents for her first OB visit at 1 weeks
gestational age. She denies any significant medical history both personally and in
her family. All of the following tests should be ordered as part of the initial
prenatal care visit except
A. CBC
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis B surface antigen
D. Type and screen
E. One-hour glucose
GYNECOLOGY
1. FSH stimulates:
A. Ovarian follicle growth
B. Corticosteroid production
C. Production of TSH in the thyroid gland
D. Progesterone production
E. Androgen production
2. The treatment of patients with ovarian exhaustion syndrome should be
directed:
A. To stimulate ovarian function
B. On getting a menstrual-like reaction
C. To reduce the severity of vegetovascular disorders
D. On stimulation of ovulation
E. On getting cyclical menstruation
3. The effect of large doses of exogenous estrogen on the ovary:
A. Increased ovarian production of estrogen
B. Increased ovarian production of progesterone
C. Atrophy of the ovarian tissue
D. Reduces ovarian progesterone production
E. Reduces ovarian production of estrogen

4. In a negative test with gonadotropins in patients with amenorrhea, it is
shown:
A. Test with estrogens and gestagens in a cyclic mode
B. Laparoscopy and ovarian biopsy
C. Laparoscopy and gonad removal
D. Progesterone test
E. Functional diagnostic tests
5. In the ovary, androgens serve as a substrate for the formation of:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Gestagenov
E. Testosterone
6. The following applies to hypergonadotropic amenorrhea:
A. Ovarian Depletion Syndrome
B. Resistant Ovarian Syndrome
C. Ovarian Dysgenesis Syndrome
D. Testicular feminization syndrome
E. Sheehan Syndrome
7. Women with DUB are at risk:
A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency and anomalies of the birth
force
E. Pregnancy
8. In the diagnosis of amenorrhea associated with acromegaly and gigantism, a
change is significant:
A. the size of the Turkish saddle on the radiograph of the skull
B. visual fields
C. FSH level
D. Excretion of 17-cop
E. Ultrasound diagnosis of the pelvic organs
9. Gestagens are secreted:
A. luteal cells of the corpus luteum
B. cells of the granular layer of the follicle
C. cells of the outer connective tissue of the follicle
D. Ovary cells
E. theca cells
10. Amenorrhea is considered pathological when menstruation is absent
A. before puberty
B. during puberty
C. during lactation
D. in postmenopausal women
E. during pregnancy
11. False amenorrhea can be caused by:
A. atresia of the cervical canal
B. Aplasia of the uterus
C. Dysgenesis of gonads
D. Ovarian exhaustion syndrome
E. Ovarian tumor
12. Ovarian exhaustion syndrome needs to be differentiated
A. with resistant ovary syndrome
B. with gonad dysgenesis syndrome

C. with menopausal syndrome
D. with ovarian tumor
E. with premenstrual syndrome
13. Treatment for DUB does not include:
A. physiotherapy
B. vitamins
C. uterotonics
D. antibiotics
E. hormonal hemostasis
A. colposcopy
B. hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. bacterioscopy
E. laparoscopy
15. In what cases, for diagnostic purposes, puncture of the abdominal cavity
through the posterior arch is indicated?
A. suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy;
B. suspected ovarian cancer;
C. dysfunctional uterine bleeding;
D. uterine fibroids;
E. suspected ovarian apoplexy;
A. inspection with speculum;
B. combined vaginal rectal examination;
C. cytological examination of the contents of the uterine cavity;
D. puncture of the posterior fornix;
E. determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.

17. The main method for the diagnosis of dysplasia and pre-invasive cancer of
the vulva is:
A. Biopsy followed by histological examination
B. Vulvoscopy
C. Radioisotope study
D. Cytological examination of smear prints
E. Colposcopy
18. The most informative method for the diagnosis of genital prolapse is:
A. ultrasound;
B. gynecological examination;
C. sigmoidoscopy;
D. cystoscopy;
E. hysteroscopy.
B. painful menstruation
D. intermenstrual meager spotting
E. heavy periods
20. Menorrhagia is:
B. cyclic uterine bleeding
D. pre- and postmenstrual bleeding

21. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with follicular atresia occurs against
A. High estrogen saturation
B. low estrogen saturation
C. High gestagenic saturation
D. Hyperandrogenemia
E. Prolactin overproduction
22. Ovulatory acyclic bleeding characteristic
A. with short-term rhythmic persistence of the follicle
B. with prolonged persistence of the follicle
C. with follicular atresia
D. with persistence of the corpus luteum
E. in case of corpus luteum insufficiency
23. Anovulatory cyclic bleeding characteristic
A. with prolonged follicular persistence
B. with short-term persistence of follicles
C. with persistence of the corpus luteum
D. in case of corpus luteum insufficiency
E. with follicular atresia
24. A test with clomiphene is performed if:
A. Uterine fibroids
B. Anovulation
C. Adenomyosis
D. Endometritis
E. Hyperprolactinemia
25. The diagnosis of impaired tubal pregnancy is an indication
A. for emergency laparotomy
B. for laparoscopy
C. for ultrasound examination
D. for special studies
E. for puncture of the back arch
26. Currently, age is considered normal for menopause.
A. 45 years
B. 5O years
C. 4O years
D. 55 years
E. 43 years
27. The autonomic-nervous manifestations of menopausal syndrome include
A. Irritability
B. Sweating
C. Sleep Disorders
D. Decrease in memory
E. Decreased libido
28. Metrorrhagia is
B. increased blood loss during menstruation
C. increase in the duration of menstruation

29. The most informative in the differential diagnosis between uterine myoma
and ovarian tumor:
A. two-handed vaginal examination
B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
E. Probing of the uterine cavity.
30. Hysteroscopy allows to diagnose:
a) subserous uterine fibroids;
b) submucous uterine fibroids;
c) tubal-peritoneal infertility;
d) Stein-Levinthal syndrome;
e) tubal pregnancy.
31. The screening method to detect cervical pathology in modern conditions is:
A. visual inspection;
B. smear cytology;
C. vaginal smear on the flora
D. radionuclide method
E. PCR for HPV
32. The presence of ovulation can be judged by the results of all the studies listed
below:
A. Definitions of hCG
B. Ultrasound monitoring of the development of a dominant follicle
C. Histological examination of endometrial scraping
D. Determination of the concentration of sex steroid hormones in the blood on
days 12-14 of the menstrual cycle
E. Follicle persistence
33. Screening - a method for detecting cervical pathology is:
A. Visual inspection
B. Colposcopy
C. Radionuclide method
D. Cytological examination of smears
E. Laparoscopy
A. ovarian tumors;
B. dysfunctional bleeding;
C. congenital anomalies of the genital organs;
D. vulvovaginitis;
E. salpingo-oophoritis.
A. primary, secondary
B. reactive, terminal, toxic
C. adhesive, exudative
D. serous, purulent, fibrinous;
E. adhesive, fibrinous
accompanied by symptoms of bryuschina irritation?
A. Endometritis.
V. Kolpit
C. vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
37. Which of the following inflammatory diseases is an indication for
laparotomy in case of suppuration?
A. Parameter
V. Kolpit
C. vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
A. detection of key cells;
B. lowering the pH of vaginal secretions;
C. negative amino test of whites;
D. detection of abnormal cells
E. increase in basal temperature.
A. desquamation
B. infiltration
C. proliferation
D. tissue decomposition
E. edematous
40. The complication that most often arises in the management of the IUD is:
A. isthmic-cervical insufficiency;
B. ectopic pregnancy;
C. habitual miscarriage;
D. acute infection;
E. pelvic vein thrombosis.

A. sharp pains;
B. burning, itching
C. high temperature;
D. ulceration;
E. spotting.
A. frequent sexual activity;
B. cesarean section;
C. childbirth through the birth canal;
D. previous urinary tract infection;
E. corresponding upper respiratory tract infection
43. The main clinical symptom of tuberculous lesions of the uterine appendages:
A. chronic pelvic pain;
B. amenorrhea;
C. menometrorrhagia;
D. primary infertility;
E. secondary infertility.
44. Which of the following symptoms is the main clinical one for bacterial
vaginosis?
A. itching of the external genitalia and perineum;
B. dyspareunia;
C. profuse leucorrhoea with an unpleasant odor;
D. dysuria;
E. pelvic pain.
45. Specify the lack of an intrauterine device:
A. increases the risk of inflammatory diseases
B. contraindications for lactation
C. short term
D. a large number of side effect
E. effect on lactation
46. Specify the time during which the sperm retains the ability to fertilize during:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 72 hours
47. The most informative way to assess the functional state of the ovaries is:
A. basal temperature measurement
B. symptom of cervical mucus tension
C. suction curettage
D. laparoscopy
F. Hysteroscopy
E. heavy periods
49. Basal temperature is measured:
A. In the morning
B. In the evening;
C. 2 times a day;
D. After 3 hours.
E. After 5 hours
50. Parametritis is:
A. inflammation of the ovary;
B. inflammation of the cecum;
C. inflammation of the fallopian tube;
D. inflammation of the peritoneal tissue;
E. inflammation of the omentum.

Training test questionnaire for Reproductive system
1. Which imaging modality is used as breast diagnostic screening?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. Ultrasound
D. CT-scan
E. MRI
2. Identify the view on the mammogram
A. Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

B. Bilateral craniocaudal (CC)
C. Lateromedial (LM)
D. Lateromedial oblique (LMO)
E. Mediolateral (ML)
3. Simple cyst was detected during ultrasound examination. Which BI-RADS classification it
belongs to?
A. BI-RADS 0
B. BI-RADS 1
C. BI-RADS 2
D. BI-RADS 3
E. BI-RADS 4
4. Which imaging modality is the best for evaluation of breast cyst?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. MRI
D. CT-scan
E. Ultrasonography
5. Which imaging examination can be performed to study fallopian tubes with iodine containing
contrasting agent?
A. Hysterosalpingography
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Intravenous pyelography
D. Ultrasonography
E. Cystoscopy
6. A 48 year- old female came to mammologist, she complained to breast lump. Clinical
examination revealed palpable mass of breast. What is first choice imaging modality in this
case?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. MRI
D. CT-scan
E. Ultrasonography
7. A 50-year-old women admitted to oncology center. She has complains of pain and last week
abnormal bleeding. Hb level 70 . A 2 year ago she had diagnosed with cervical polyp (15
mm) Which imaging study is most suitable for clarifying the diagnosis?
A. Ultrasound
B. CT-scan
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
E. X-ray
8. A 32-year female was consulted to the doctor with complain to heavy and painful periods.
Doctor suggested pelvic endometriosis. Which imaging modality is the first choice in this
case?
A. Ultrasound
B. CT-scan
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
E. X-ray
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Training Tests
1) The hypothalamus produces the following hormones:
A) Gonadotropins
b) Estrogen
b) Gestagens
d) Leasing – factors
2) FSH stimulate:
A) Growth of follicles in the ovaries
b) Products of corticosteroid
(b) TTG products in the thyroid gland
D) All of the above
3) Progestin:
A) Reduce blood cholesterol
b) Determine the content of primary and secondary sexual characteristics
b) All of the above
D) None of the above
4) The group of risk of inflammatory after birth diseases include women:

A) With a burdened obstetric and gynecological history
b) With chronic inflammatory process
c) With Extra Energy inflammatory diseases (tonsillitis, pyelonephritis)
D) All of the above
5) in inflammatory diseases of female genital organs is noted:

(a) Prevalence of microbial associations
b) Increase the number of anaerobic and virus
(b) increased permeability and exhaustion
d) All answers correct
6) The causes of infertility of women in marriage are:

(a) Inflammatory diseases of the genital organs
b) Infantialism and hypoplasia of genital organs
(b) General debilitating diseases and intoxication
7) Features of normal menstrual cycle are:

A) Ovulation
b) Formation of yellow body in the ovary
b) Prevalence of progesterone in the second phase of the cycle
D) All of the above
8) Estrogen:
A) Promote peristalsis of the uterus and tubes
b) Strengthen the processes of ossification
b) All of the above
9) Androgens are formed:

A) In the ovaries (interstitial cells, Strome, inner Take)
b) In the net zone of the adrenal cortex
b) All of the above
10) In its action on the body of estrogen:
A) Block receptors to oxytocin
b) Cease (weaken) proliferative processes in the endometrium
b) Cause secretory transformations in the endometrium
D) All of the above
e) None of the above
11) Increase of rectal temperature in the second phase of menstrual menstrual

cycle
due to:
A) The action of the ovarian progesterone
b) The action of progesterone, which reduces the heat return
(b) Intensification of biochemical processes in the uterus
D) All of the above
12) The full value of the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is evidenced by:
A) Increase in basal temperature in the first phase of the cycle
b) Proliferative processes in the endometrium in the second phase of the cycle
c) All of the above
13) Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during:

A) 4 months
b) 5 months
c) 6 months
d) All of the above
14) In the interaction of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland and ovaries in the
regulation of the menstrual cycle:
A) One link (overlying) stimulates the function of another link
b) The underlying link brakes or regulates the function of the overlying
b) The function of the links is synchronous
D) The shutdown of one link violates the whole system
e) All of the above
15) After ovulation, the egg retains the ability to fertilize during:
A) 6 hours:
b) 12-24 hours;
in) 3-5 days;
d). 10 days
16) During puberty, the following major changes occur in the body:
(a) Suppression of the Gonadotropic function of the pituitary gland;
b) Activation of hormonal function of ovaries;
c) The rhythm of the FSH allocation is not established;
D) Regular "peaks" of the LG excretion are established;
e) None of the above.
17) Body mass deficiency is usually one of the reasons:

a) Delay in the onset of the first menstruation;
b) Long-term formation of menstrual function;
b) The development or aggravation of menstrual dysfunction;
d) All listed;
18) Mechanism of action of hormones on a cage is caused by presence:

a) Prostaglandins;
b) Receptors;
b) Specific enzymes;
d) All listed;
19) Small doses of estrogen:

a) Stimulate FSH products;
b)Ssuppress FSH products;
b) Strengthen the production of LG;
D) Suppress the production of LTG.
20) Desquamation of the functional layer of endometrium occurs due to:

a) Pathway; "Peak" reset luther
b) Reducing the level of estrogen and progesterone in the blood;
b) Reducing the level of prolactin in the blood;
d) Increase the level of estradiol in the blood;
e) "Peak" release of Follitropin.
21) Physiological Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation:
a) Girls under 10-12 years of age;
b) During pregnancy;
b) During lactation;
d) In old age;
e) All of the above are true.
22) The reason of false amenorrhea in girls of Puberty Nogo age can be all
listed,
except:
a) Hymen atresia;
b) Atrezia Vagina;
b) Uterine hyperplasia;
d) Atrezia Cervical canal.
23) False amenorrhea may be caused by:

a) Cervical canal atresia;
b) Aplasia of the body of the uterus;
b) The dysgenesis of the Gonnad;
d) All the diseases listed above.
24) Lack of sexual development is due to:

a) Transferred infectious diseases in early childhood;
b) Undergone inflammatory processes of pelvic organs of viral etiology;
b) Chromosomal anomalies;
d) All listed;
25) Delay of sexual development is absence:

a)Secondary sexual characteristics by 14 years and menstruation by 16 years;
b) Secondary sexual characteristics by 12 years, and menstruation by 16 years;
d) Secondary sexual characteristics to 12 years, and menstruation to 18 years.
Tests for the propedeutics of childhood diseases.
1. Delayed sexual development in girls consider the absenceof the secondary sexual
characteristics at the age?
A. 10-13
B. 11-14
C. 12-16
D. 13-17
E. 14-18
2. What age corresponds to the degree of puberty (years) Ма3P2 Ax2Мео?
A. 16-17
B. 14-15
C. 12-13
D. 10-11
E. 8-9
3. One of the main reasons for delayed sexual development, it is believed
A. Birth injury
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Chromosomal abnormality
D. Infectious diseases
E. Stressful situation
4. The girl has 3 days of life, there is an engorgement of the mammary glands, bloody
discharge from the genital tract, hyperemia of the skin. Determine what condition you are
talking about?
A. sclerema
B. jaundice of newborn
C. sexual crisis
D. hermaphroditism
E. hypothyroidism
5. When examined by a pediatrician, a 2-month old boy, there is a change in the urine
stream, during urination, in the form of leakage into the perineum. Objectively: in the area of
the penis there is a splitting of the lower wall of the urethra. What pathology of the genital
organs is mentioned in the task?
A. epispadias
B. hypospadias
C. cryptorchidism
D. anarchism
E. micropenis
6.A boy of 8 years old is being examined by a pediatrician. Objectively: a change in the
timbre of the voice, an increase in the width of the shoulder girdle, hair growth in the armpits,
pubic region, enlargement of the penis and testicles. What state does the objective status
correspond to?
A. The child is healty
B. hypopituitarism
C. False male hepmaphroditism
D. Premature sexual development
E. Delayed sexual development
7. On a routine examination, the girl 14 years old. Objectively: the mammary glands are
round in shape, the nipples rise above the areola. Pubic hair in a triangle, long, curly, thick. In
the hair is thick, curly over the entire surface. Menses are regular. Estimate the sexual
development of a girl according to Tanner?
A. Мао РоАхоМео
B. Ма2Р1 АхоМео
C. Ма3 Р3 Ах1Ме1
D. Ма3 Р2Ах2 Мео
E. Ма3 Р3 Ах3 Ме3
8.A 2-year-old girl is being examined by a pediatrician Objectively: physical development
corresponds to age, there is an increase in mammary glands. What changes do you see in the
patient?
A. Isolated thelarche
B. Isolated adrenarche
C. Sexual crisis
D. Premature pubarche
E. Premature sexual development
9.At the reception at FMC №3, a mother and her 8-year-old daughter addressed.Objectively:
the mammary glands are significantly enlarged, hair growth in the armpits, pubic region, the
appearance of the first menarche. What state is described in the task?
A. sexual crisis
B. premature sexual development
C. delayed sexual development
D. hypothyroidism
E. The child is healty
Urology Test for students: REDRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
1). Marriage should be considered infertile if pregnancy is not comes?

1. within 6 months
2. within 1 year
3. within 2 years
4. within 3 years
5. More than 3 years
2). The lower limit of normal sperm count in 1 ml should be (according

to WHO criteria):
1. 20 million
2. 40 million
3. 60 million
4. 80 million
5. 100 million
3). Azoospermia - is
1. The absence of the cells of spermatogenesis in the ejaculate and

spermatozoas
2. The presence of single cells of spermatogenesis in the ejaculate
3. The presence of only dead sperm in the ejaculate
4. The lack of allocation of ejaculate
5. the absence of ejaculate
4). Aspermia - is
1. The absence of sperm in the ejaculate
2. The absence of ejaculate
4. The small amount of sperm in the ejaculation
5. The absence of motile sperm in the ejaculate

5). Male sex cells (sperm) are formed in:
1. Ovaries
2. Gonad - testis
3. Epididymis
4. Prostate
5. Seminal vesicles
6). Male sex hormones are produced in:
1. Ovarian Theca cells
2. Prostate
3. Testis Leydig cells
4. Seminal vesicles
5. Sertoli cells
7). Reproductive function is:
1. The regulation of sexual activity
2. The fusion of two cells
3. Regulation of oogenesis and spermatogenesis
4. Reproductive function
5. Sexual arousal and attraction
8). Functions of male sex hormones:
1. The regulation of oogenesis
2. The development of secondary sexual characteristics
3. Ensuring the development of mammary glands
4. Ensure the development of the genital organ

5. Regulation of water-salt metabolism
9). What is oligozoospermia?
3. The absence of mature sperm in the ejaculate
4. The small amount of sperm in the ejaculate
10). How much the normal amount of single ejaculate in an adult?
1. 0.5-1.5 ml
2. depends on body weight men
3. 2.0-5.0 ml
4. 6-7 ml
5. 8-10 ml
11). What is aspermia?
3. The absence of motile sperm in the ejaculate 4. The absence of mature

sperm in the ejaculate 5. The small number of sperm in the ejaculate
12). What is hemospermia?
1. The presence of blood in urine
2. The total hematuria
3. The discharge of blood after urination
4. The presence of blood in the ejaculate

5. The discharge of blood from the urethra at the beginning
of urination
13). What is necrospermia?
3. The absence of mature
sperm in the ejaculate
4. The small amount of
14). What is prostatorrhea?
1. The allocation of prostate fluid during erection
2. The allocation of prostate fluid in the end of the act of
defecation or urination 3. Premature ejaculation
4. The allocation of semen without erection
5. Prostate secretions during intercourse.
15). Oligozoospermia may be the result of: 1. After

severe infections
2. Diabetes
3. Nephroptosis
4. Urolithiasis
5. Genitourinary fistula
16). Where occurs maturation of majority of the
sperm?
1. in the testis
2. in the epididymis
3. in the vas deferens

4. in the seminal vesicles
5. throughout ejaculatory tract
17). Insufficient numb

er of sperm with normal morphology is
1. Asthenozoospermia
2.Oligozoospermia
3. Necrospermia
4. Hemospermia
5. Theratozoospermia
8). Causes of male infertility
1. Pyelonephritis
2. Urolithiasis
3. Acute respiratory viral
infections
4. Varicocele
5. Nephroptosis
20). Testicular inflammation is
1. Prostatitis
2. Epididymitis
3. Orchitis
4. Cystitis
5. Vesiculitis
Reproduc.sys. (maam discussion)
1. Duration of the menstrual cycle:
A. 21-35days
B. 28-29days
C. 25-37days
D. 24-32days
E. 35-39days
2. Phases of the ovarian cycle:
B. Follicular and ovulation
C. Ovulatory and anovulatory
D. Anovulatory and luteal
E. Desquamation and ovulatioon
3. Preovulatory changes in the hormonal

background are characterized by an
increase in the level
C. FSH and LH
D. Prolactin
4. The mechanism of action of hormones on
the cell is due to the presence of.
A. Prostaglandins
B. Receptors
C. Specific Enzymes
D. Isoenzymes
E. Thromboxant
5. According to the WHO classification (1980),
menopause is called
C. The length of time after the last
menstruation
6. According to the WHO classification (1980),

postmenopause is called
B. The period from the onset of menstruation
to the last menstruation
E. The length of time after the last
menstruation
7.Research methods of the anatomical and

functional state of the vagina:
A. Inspection with speculum;
B. Combined vaginal rectal examination
C. Cytological examination of the contents of
the uterine cavity;
D. Puncture of the posterior fornix;
E. Determination of the purity of the vaginal
contents.
8. Which test of functional diagnostics
indicates the presence of a biphasic
menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
9. The scope of the examination for pathology

of the cervix
A. Colposcopy
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. Bacterioscopy
E. LaparOScopy

D. Intemenstrual meager spotting
E. Heavy periods
11. Menorhagia is:

D. Pre- and postmenstrual bleeding
E. Change in the rhythm ofmenstruation
12. Metrorrhagia is
C. Increase in the duration of menstruation
13. For anovulatory menstrual cycle with

follicular atresia is characteristic
A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. Polymenomhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
14. Polymenorrhea is
15. Amenorrhea is the absence of

menstruation during:
A. 4 months
B.5 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
E. 2 months

follicular atresia is characteristic:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenomhea
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. Promenomenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrheea
17. In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal

temperature is characterized by:
B. Lack of Temperature Rise
E. Rise In Temperature Immediately After
Menstruation
18. Anovulatory menstrual cycle is

characterized by:
D. Prevalence of estrogen in phase 1
A. Progestogens
B. Antiestrogens
D. Prostaglandins
E. Antagonists OfProstaglandins
20. The most effective method of preventing

unwanted pregnancy is:
B. Britm method
C. Spermicides
21.For planned hormonal contraception use:

A. Pure estrogens
B. Pure gestagens
D. Prostoglandins
E. Selective inhibitors ofprogesterone
receptors
22. Intrauterine system "Mirena":

C. Has a therapeutic effect in submucous
uterine myoma
D. Does not have a contraceptive effect
E. Has a contraceptive effect by suppressing
ovulation
23. The most common cause of female

infertility is:
C. Endocrine factor
D. Uterine factor
E. Immunological factor
24. During what time does not pregnancy

occur in the presence of regular sexual life,
without the use of contraceptives, to consider
the marriage infertile:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
E. 5 years
25. Name the composition of injectable
contraceptives:
D. Antiandrogens
26. Specify the day of menstrual cycle to start

estrogen-progestin preparations for
contraception:
A. 1
B. 5
C.7
D. 14
E. 28
27. Specify the most serious complication

when taking combined oral
contraceptives:
E. Violation of vitamin metabolism
28. Infection with what microorganisms that
cause colpitis requires treatment of both
partners:
A. Trichomonas
B. Candida
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci
E. E.Coli
29. In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years),
the following are more common:
A. Ovarian tumors
D. Vulvovaginitis
E. Salpingo-oophoritis
30. Classification of pelvioperitonitis by stages,
choose the correct answer
C. Adhesive, exudative
D. Serous, purulent, fibrinous
31. Which of the following inflammatory

diseases in the acute stage is
accompanied by symptoms of bryuschina
irritation:
A. Endometritis
B. Colpitis
C. Vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
32. The main clinical symptom of bacterial

vaginosis is:
A. Itching of the external genitals and
perineum
B.Dyspareunia
C. Profuse leucorrhoea with an unpleasant
odor
D. Dysuria
33. During the parametrite, a stage is

distinguished:
A. Desquamation
B. Infiltration
C. Proliferation
E. Edematous
34. The complication that most often arises in

the management of the intrauterine device is:
D. Acute infection
35. The symptom most characteristic of

vulvovaginitis:
A. Sharp pains
B. Burning, itching
C. High temperature
D. Ulceration
E. Spotting
36. The most important risk factor for
endometritis after childbirth is:
B. Cesarean section
37. What are the diagnostic tests that indicate

the presence of bacterial vaginosis
B. Lowering the ph of vaginal secretions
D. Detection ofabnormal cells
38. The anatomical features of the uterus in a

newborn girl include:
A. The body of the uternus is small, the cervix
is almost not expressed
B. The length of the cervix 3 times more the
length of the uterus
C. The uterus has a bicom shape
D. The body of the uterus is almost 2 times
larger than the cervix
39. Small doses of estrogen:

40. The vaginal part of the cervix in a woman

of reproductive age is normally
covered:
A. Cylindrical epithelium
D. Stratilied squamous non-keratinizing
epithelium
E. Cubic epithelium
41. The main estrogen hormone in the body

ofawoman in the postmenopausal
period is:
A. Estradiol
B. Estron
C. Estriol
E. Estrogen
42. According to the tests of functional

diagnostics (TFD), it is impossible to
determine:
A. Biphasic menstuation
B. The level of estrogenic saturation ofthebody
C. Ovulation
D. The usefulness of the luteal phase ofthe
cycle
43. Cytological cervical screening is performed
at the age of
D. 49 to 69 years old
E. 21 to 69 years old
44. Which of the following examination

methods most reliably confirm the
diagnosis of inflammation of the appendages?
A. Quantification of white blood cells;
B. Gram stain of cervical mucus smear,
C. Culdocentesis;
D.Laparoscopy:
E.Ultrasound of the pelvic organ
short-term persistence of a mature
follicle is not typical:
D. In the scraping of the endometrium in the
second phase of the cycle
46. Features of the treatment of DUB in

menopausal patients are:
A. Conducting a separate diagnostic curettage
C. Treatment of concomitant somatic
pathology
47. The most common mechanism for the

development of dysfunctional uterine
bleeding in the juvenile period is:
A. Increased FSH
B. Follicular persistence
C. Follicular atresia
D. Hyperprolactinemi
E. LH increase
48. The conditions for cyclic hormone therapy

in patients with menstrual
irregularities are:
D. Use of gestagens, ultrasound examination
of the uterus
E. Hormone testing
A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental
insufficiency and anomalies of the birth force
E. Pregnancy
50. What is the mechanism of action of the

lactational amenorrhea method (LAM):
B. Changes in the structure of the
endometrium
D. Thickening ofcervical mucus
E. Change in sperm movement
51. The high eficiency of the method of

lactational amenorrhea (LAM), subject to all
the nules, is observed:
A. Within 3 months after childbirth
C. Within 9 months after childbirth
52. What is the mechanism of action of

voluntary surgical sterilization:
A. Thickening ofcervical mucus
E. Thickening ofcervical mucus
53. Specify the mechanism of action of

spermicides:
B.Destroys the membranes of spermatozoa
D. Violation of egg implantation
54. Before giving a woman an injection of

Depo-provera, the health worker must make
sure that she does not have:
A. Vaginal bleedling of unclear etiology
C. History of STls
55. Depo-provera is not recommended:

A. Women of any age with more than 3
children
B. Women with migraines I
D. Unbom women and adolescents
56. Which of the following mechanisms best

explains the contraceptive effect
of birth control pills that contain both
synthetic estrogen and progestin?
B. Inhibition of ovulation
C. Production ofuterine secretions thal are
toxic to the developing
embryo
E. Impairment of spernm transport due to
uterotubal obstruction
57. A woman has period every 33 days lasting

8 days with large clots being
A. Metrorhagia
B. Menometrrohagia
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Menorrhagia
E.Polymenorrhea
58.Of the following,which woman is the best

candidate for the female condom?
A.16 year old high school student who has
never had sex,but wishes to start with her new
18-year old boyfriend
B.29 year old secretary who has been married
for 7 years,and is in a monogamous
relationship with her husband
C.40 year old obese smoker whose partner
refuses to wear condoms
D.34 year old woman who has three children
and had a post-partum tubal ligation
59. For conservative treatment of Abnomal
uterine bleeding the 1st line drug is:
A. Oxytocin
B. Nsaids
C. Tranexamic acid
D. Aminocaproic acid
E. Sodium ethamsylate
60. What is the most common presenting

complaint of a woman with vaginitis?
A. Dyspareunia
C. Pelvic pain
D. Fever
E. Irregular menses
61. The most effective method for diagnosing
gonococcus is:
A. Linked immunosorbent assay
B. Cultural
C. Bacterioscopic
62. A 23-year-old female patient complains of
mucopurulent discharge from the genital tract,
itching at the antenatal clinic. By examination:
the mucous of the cervix is sharply hyperemic,
edematous. The discharge is profuse,
mucopurulen. uterus in anteversio-flexio, not
enlarged, painless; the appendages are not
defined. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Bartholinitis
C. Endometritis
D. Acute salpingo-0ophoritis
E. Endocervicitis.
63. For conservative treatment of Abnormal
uterine bleeding the Ist line drug is:
F. Oxytocin
G. NSAIDs
H. tranexamic acid
I.aminocaproic acid
J. sodium ethamsylate
64. A 16-year-old girl developed spotting from
the genital tract, lasting 8 days after a 2-month
delay. The first menstruation appeared 4
months ago for 2 days. after 28 days.
moderate. painless. Denies sexuality. The
development is correct, well physically built.
When recto-abdominal examination of the
pathology is not detected. Hb-80 g/l. Probable
diagnosis:
A. Homonc-producing ovarian tumor
B. Cervical cancer
D. Juvenile uterine bleeding
E. Endometrial polyposis
65. A mother with a 4-year-old girl turned to a

pediatric gynecologist, who has itching and
redness in the extermal genital area,purnlent
discharge from the genital tract. These
symptoms occur periodically throughout the
year. Genital hygiene is observed. The child is
observed by an allergist in connection with
atopic dermatitis (skin rashes on the elbows
and on the face).What is the most likely
diagnosis
A. Salpingo-oophoritis
B. Atopic vulvovaginitis
C. Endometritis
D. Endocervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
66. Patient L., 24 years old, complains of

profuse vaginal discharge with an unpleasant
smell of "rotten fish". Gynecological
examination: the external genital organs and
vaginal mucosa without signs of inflammation.
Vaginal discharge copious, watery, with an
unpleasant odor. Internal genital organs
without pathology. During bacterioscopy of
smears from the cervical canal and urethra,
"key cells" were found.What is the most likely
diagnosis:
C. Chlamydial cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
67. Task 2 Patient R., 25 years old, was

admitted to the gynecological department
with complaints of pain in the external genital
area, awkwardness when walking, fever. Pain
appeared four days ago, after hypothermia.
Last period 3 weeks ago. By examination: in
the area of the right labia majora, a tumor-like
formation measuring 4x3 cm is determined,
the skin above it is hyperemic, hot to the
touch, fluctuation is noted on palpation.
Examination of the cervix in the speculum and
bimanual examination revealed no
abnormalities. What is the most probable
preliminary diagnosis:
C. Torsion ofthe legs of the ovarian tumor
D. Necrosis of subserous myomatous node
E. Perforation of purulent formation of
appendages
68. A 23-year-old female patient came to the

antenatal clinic with complaints of cramps
during urination, fever up to 37.8 ° C, purulent
discharge from the genital tract. She has
several sexual partners.Examination by
speculum: the mucous membrane of the
urethra is hyperemic, the cervix is cylindrical,
hyperemia of the area of the external opening
of the cervical canal. Discharge from the
cervical canal is purulent. Define the tactics of
the antenatal clinic doctor:
A. Prescribe an outpatient course of antibiotic
therapy
C. Hospitalize the patient in a gynecological
hospital
E. Hospitalization in the dermatovenerologic
clinic
69. Patient S., 21 years old, at the reception in

the antenatal clinic complains of mucopurulent
discharge from the genital tract, itching.
Speculum exam: the cervix is hyperemic,
edematous, with pinpoint hemorrhages. The
discharge is profuse, mucopurulent. Vaginal
examination revealed no pathology. Was
diagnosed : Endocervicitis.
Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic
doctor:
A To urgently hospitalize the patient for
surgical intervention
B. Antibiotic therapy, take culture for
microorganisns
C. Healthy lifestyle, diet. phytohomeopathic
treatment.
D. Refer the patient to a dematovenerologic
dispensary
E. Recommended a re-examination after the
next mensthuation
70. Patient V., 22 years old, consulted a

antenatal clinic with complaints of discomfort
in the vagina, burning sensation, itching,
leucorrhoea. Considers himself ill for 5 days.
Examination reveald: the mucous membrane
of the vagina and cervix is sharply hyperemic,
edematous. Whitish deposits are easily
removed with a gauze ball, a cheesy discharge.
Vaginal examination was normal. Was
diagnosed : Vulvovaginal candidiasis. Define
the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor:
B. Hormonal therapy
D.Surgical therapy
E.Physiotherapy
71. A 20-year-old female patient turned to

clinic, complaining of abundant,purulent
discharge from the genital tract, itching,
burning and pain in the vagina.She fell ill
acutely, 2 days ago, when the above
complaints appeared. Menstrual function is
not impaired. By examination: the vaginal
mucosa is sharply hyperemic, covered with a
purulent bloom, bleeds easily when touched.
The cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is
not changed. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Acute colpitis
C. Endometritis
D. Endocervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
72. 5-year-old woman, unmaried, has sex 2-3
times a month, and sometimes less often.
Partners are different. There were no
pregnancies. What method of contraception is
appropriate to prescribe:
B. Condom
73. A young nulliparous woman, 20 years old,

has an active sex life outside of
marriage, has several sexual partners. What
methods of contraception can be
recommended to the patient:
A. Condom
B. Spermicides
74. A 25-year-old female patient consulted a

gynecologist to receive recommendations on
contraception. FROM ANAMNESIS: menarche
from 13 years old, iregular, painful, takes
spasmaton to relieve pain. Maried.In obstetric
anamnesis was 1birth 3 years ago. She does
not plan pregnancy for the next 2-3 years, she
wants reliable contraception. somatically
healthy. Gynecological examination and
ultrasound revealed no pathology. What
method of contraception is recommended for
this patient:
B. Calendar rhythm method.
75. Patient I., 42 years old, consulted a

gynecologist to receive recommendations on
contraception, suffers from hypertension for 5
years. Regular sex life in marriage. History of 2
births, 2 medical abortions. General condition
is satisfactory, blood pressure is 135/90 mm
Hg., height 164 cm, weight 90 kg, BMI=35.
Recommended method of contraception:
A. Condom
Additional questions(pediatric)
1. The timing of the first signs of puberty in boys
(years):
A. 7-9
B. 10-11
C. 13-14
D. 15-16
E. 14-15
2. The timing of the first signs of puberty in girls

(years):
A. 5-6
B. 7-8
C. 9-10
D. 13-14
E. 14-15
3. The first signs of puberty for boys:
A. Pubic hair distribution
B. Start of growth of the testicles and penis
C. Axillary hair distribution
D. voice change
E. Armpit hair growth, further voice change, facial hair

appearance, pigmentation
4. The first signs of puberty for girls:
A. The growth of the pelvic bones, the rounding of the

buttocks, a slight
elevation of the mammary glands
B. Dome-shaped lifting of the mammary gland (“bud”

stage), appearance of pubic
hair.
C. The increase in external genital organs, change
D. Development of the glandular tissue of the

mammary glands and areas adjacent
to the areola
E. underarm hair growth, not regular
5. At premature puberty, bone age:
A. corresponds to the passport age;
B. Ahead of passport age;
C. lags behind passport age.
D. 3-4 years behind
E. Corresponds to 5-7 years
6. The onset of puberty in boys begins with:
A. Enlarged penis length
B. pigmentation of the skin of the scrotum;
C. enlarged testicles;
D. the appearance of initial pubic hair and in the

axillary region;
E. voice mutations.
7. The form of violation of sexual differentiation,

related to the false female
hermaphroditism:
A. Klinefelter syndrome;
B. congenital dysfunction of the adrenal cortex;
C. testicular feminization syndrome;
D. mixed testicular dysgenesis.
8. Growth inhibition due to cerebral-pituitary nanism,

most often diagnosed:
A. at birth;
B. in the first year of life;

C. 2-4 years;
D. in puberty
E. 5-7 years old
9. For the primary forms of hypogonadism are

characteristic:
A. high level of gonadotropic hormones and low level

of sex hormones;
B. low level of sex hormones and low level of

gonadotropic hormones;
C. low level of gonadotropins and sharply positive test

of chorionic gonadotropin
D. high levels of sex hormones and high levels of

E. low level of sex hormones and high level of

10. The lack of function of the sexual glands is

evidenced by the absence of
secondary sexual characteristics in boys older:
A. 11 years;
B. 13.5 years;
C. 15 years.
D. 10 years
E. 18 years
11. The following symptoms are characteristic of true

precocious puberty:
A. acceleration of bone age, pubertal values of levels of

luteinizing and follicle
stimulating hormones in the blood;
B. a sharp increase in the levels of luteinizing and

follicle-stimulating hormones in
the blood;
C. hyperplasia of one or two adrenal glands;
D. increased blood levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone;
E. Changing the set of sex chromosomes according to

type 46 XX / XO
PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER
GYNECOLOGY TESTS (500) FOR THE 5th YEAR
STUDENTS OF THE GENERAL MEDICINE.
1) A positive test (small test) with dexamethasone indicates
that:
A. The source of hyperandrogenism is the ovaries
B. The source of hyperandrogenism is the adrenal gland
C. Hyperandrogenism associated with pituitary adenoma
D. Hyperandrogenism due to adrenal corticosteroma
E. Hyperandrogenism associated with an ovarian tumor
2) The therapeutic and diagnostic effect of dexamethasone

in hyperandrogenism is due to:
A. Inhibition of ovarian function
B. Inhibition of adrenal function
C. Inhibition of ACTH
D. Acceleration of androgen inactivation
E. Inhibition of pituitary function
3) To restore generative function during gonad dysgenesis, it

is necessary:
A. Long-term cyclic therapy with sex hormones
B. Stimulation of ovulation
C. Functional diagnostic tests
D. Sphenoid ovarian resection
E. Restoring generative function is futile.
4) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is called:

A. bleeding due to changes in the uterus
B. bleeding in inflammatory diseases of the uterus
C. due to impaired rhythmic secretion of ovarian
hormones
D. Genital bleeding in Werlhof disease
E. Bleeding due to miscarriage
5) The most common mechanism for the development of

dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period is:
A. hypoluteinism
B. follicle persistence
C. atresia of the follicle
D. hyperprolactinemia
E. disorders in the blood coagulation system
6) The most informative way to assess the functional state of

the ovaries is:
D. laparoscopy
E. Hysteroscopy
7) According to the tests of functional diagnostics (TFD), it

is impossible to determine:
A. biphasic menstruation
C. Ovulation
8) For anovulatory menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is
characteristic:
A. amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. oligoamenorrhea
D. promenomenorrhea
E. hypomenorrhea
9) The conditions for cyclic hormone therapy in patients

with menstrual irregularities are:
C. The use of a minimum amount of estrogen,
taking into account the age of a woman, monitoring tests
of functional diagnostics
D. use of gestagens, ultrasound examination of the
uterus
E. hormone testing
10) A 16-year-old girl developed spotting from the genital

tract, lasting 8 days after a 2-month delay. The first
menstruation appeared 4 months ago for 2 days, after 28
days, moderate, painless. Denies sexuality. The
development is correct, well physically built. When recto-
abdominal examination of the pathology is not detected. Нb-
80 g / l. Probable diagnosis:
A. hormone-producing ovarian tumor
B. cervical cancer
D. juvenile uterine bleeding
E. endometrial polyposis
11) Pathogenetic therapy of endometrial hyperplastic
processes in women of reproductive age consists in the use
of:
A. estrogen-progestogen drugs or progestogens
B. dexamethasone
C. androgen
D. Thyroidin
E. estrogen
12) In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal temperature is

characterized by:
A. rise in temperature after ovulation
B. lack of temperature rise
C. rise in temperature before ovulation
D. rise in temperature before menstruation
E. Rise in temperature immediately after menstruation
13) Most often, women aged 40-45 years complain of:

A. Algodismenorea
B. heavy periods
C. irregular menstruation
D. premenstrual tension
E. painful menstruation
14) Anovulatory menstrual cycle is characterized by:

A. cyclic changes in the body
D. prevalence of estrogen in phase 1

A. Gonadotropins
B. Estrogens
C. gestagens
D. Releasing factors
E. prolactin
14) Releasing factors carry out:

A. Transmission of nerve impulses to the nervous system
B. Production of gonadotropins
C. Estrogen Production
D. Production of FSH and LH
E. ACTH production
15) In the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex are formed:

A. Glucocorticoids
B. Aldosterone
C. Norepinephrine
D. Androgens
E. Estrogens
16) FSH stimulates:


18) Polymenorrhea is:

19) For anovulatory menstrual cycle with short-term

persistence of a mature follicle is not typical:
D. In the scraping of the endometrium in the second phase
of the cycle - the late phase of proliferation
20) The treatment of patients with ovarian exhaustion

syndrome should be directed:
21) The mechanism of action of hormones on the cell is due

to the presence of:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Receptors
C. Specific Enzymes
D. Isoenzymes
E. Thromboxant
22) The effect of large doses of exogenous estrogen on the

ovary:

A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
E. 2 months
24) Clinical manifestations, a typical form of gonadal
dyskinesia karyotype (45XO / 46XY) and no menstruation:
A. Sheehan Syndrome
B. Swyer Syndrome
C. Bisexual Gonad Syndrome
D. Symmonds disease
E. Shereshevsky-Turner
25) In patients with amenorrhea with Symmonds disease,

the following clinical manifestation is not observed:
A. Severe metabolic endocrine disorders
B. Premature aging
C. Decreased appetite
D. Sudden exhaustion
E. Massive bleeding
26) Amenorrhea associated with gigantism:

A. With hyperproduction of ACTH until puberty
B. With hyperproduction of GH, until puberty
C. With hyperproduction of ACTH after puberty
D. With hyperproduction of GH after puberty
E. With hyperproduction of ACTH during puberty
27) When treating a patient with any form of gonadal

dysgenesis, recovery, as a rule, is excluded:
A. Menstrual function
B. Sexual function
C. Generative function
D. Proliferative function
E. Ovulation
28) Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome is:

A. A “pure” form of gonadal dysgenesis
B. A typical form of gonadal dysgenesis
C. "Mixed" form of gonadal dysgenesis
D. False male hermaphroditism
E. The pathological process associated with massive
bleeding in childbirth
29) In a negative test with gonadotropins in patients with

amenorrhea, it is shown:
30) In the ovary, androgens serve as a substrate for the

formation of:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
D. Gestagenov
E. Testosterone
31) The main estrogen hormone in the body of a woman in

the postmenopausal period is:
A. Estradiol
B. Estron
C. Estriol
E. estrogen
32) The following applies to hypergonadotropic

amenorrhea:
E. Sheehan Syndrome
33) Features of the treatment of DUB in menopausal

patients are:
A. Conducting a separate diagnostic diagnostic curettage
to verify the diagnosis
34) Women with DUB are at risk:

A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency and
anomalies of the birth force
E. Pregnancy
38) In the diagnosis of amenorrhea associated with
acromegaly and gigantism, a change is significant:
A. the size of the Turkish saddle on the radiograph of the
skull
B. visual fields
C. FSH level
39) Gestagens are secreted:

D. Ovary cells
E. theca cells
40) Amenorrhea is considered pathological when

menstruation is absent
A. before puberty
B. during puberty
C. during lactation
E. during pregnancy
41) False amenorrhea can be caused by:

E. Ovarian tumor
42) Ovarian exhaustion syndrome needs to be differentiated

43). Treatment for DUB does not include:

A. physiotherapy
B. vitamins
C. uterotonics
D. antibiotics
44). Which test of functional diagnostics indicates the

presence of a biphasic menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
45) Algodismenorea is:

E. heavy periods
46). Menorrhagia is:

47) Metrorrhagia is

dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period is
A. increased FSH
B. follicular persistence
C. follicular atresia
E. LH increase
49) The main method for stopping dysfunctional uterine
bleeding in the premenopausal period is:
A. use of synthetic estrogen-progestogen drugs
B. The introduction of hemostatic and uterine-contracting
agents
C. Use of 17-hydroxyprogesterone capronate (17-OPK)
continuously
D. Separate diagnostic curettage of the mucous
membrane of the uterine cavity and cervical canal.
E. use of progestogens
50) The composition of injectable contraceptives includes:

A. prolonged progestogens
B. conjugated estrogens
C. Microdoses of progestogens
D. Antiandrogens
E. estrogens

D. follicular atresia
E. Severe Infectious Diseases
52) False amenorrhea may be the result of:

A. hypothyroidism
B. neurogenic anorexia
C. testicular feminization syndrome
D. hyperthyroidism
E. Atresia hymen
53) What additional research methods are not used to clarify

the diagnosis of amenorrhea:
A. Ultrasound examination of the internal genital organs
B. Functional diagnostic test examination
C. Craniography
D. Separate curettage
E. Determination of hormone levels
54) What form of amenorrhea indicates a negative result of

a functional test with combined estrogen-progestogen
drugs?
A. Hypothalamic
B. Pituitary
C. Ovary
D. Uterine
E. Central
55) When a combination of uterine fibroids and internal

uterine endometriosis in a patient of reproductive age with
hyperpolymenorrhea and secondary anemia is shown:
A. Extirpation of the uterus with appendages
B. Subvaginal uterine amputation without appendages
C. Subvaginal amputation of the uterus with fallopian
tubes, with excision of the mucous membrane of the
cervical canal
D. Subvaginal amputation of the uterus with tubes
E. Uterine amputation with appendages
56) The term "Adenomyosis" applies:
A. In all cases of detection of endometriosis, regardless of
location
B. Only with focal growths of endometrioid tissue in the
muscle layer of the uterus
C. With endometriosis, which is accompanied by the
formation of cysts
D. Only in cases when the germination of the myometrium
is accompanied by the presence of myomatous nodes
E. With endometriosis of the cervix
57) For internal endometriosis of the uterus of the 3rd stage

on the eve of menstruation, a bimanual examination is not
characteristic of:
A. Uterine compaction
B. Uterine enlargement
C. Uterine softening
D. Severe soreness
E. Uterus reduction
58) A 38-year-old patient complained of abdominal pain.

The pain appeared today 3 hours ago, weakly positive with \
m Shchetkina. T-38.2 C, leukocytosis. With a gynecological
examination, the uterus is enlarged to 8 weeks, nodular.
Diagnosis:
A. Inflammation of the appendages
B. Charioamnionitis
C. Endometritis
D. Necrosis of myoma nodes
E. Salpingitis
59) A 38-year-old woman complained of very painful

menstruation during the last 6 years, especially in the first 2
days. A history of 2 births and 2 medical abortions without
complications, the last year ago. The menstrual cycle is not
broken. The last menstruation ended 5 days ago. She was
protected from pregnancy by interrupted sexual intercourse.
On examination, the abdomen without painful, the cervix
and vagina without pathologies, the body of the uterus is
slightly more than normal, dense, the appendages are not
palpable. Probable diagnosis:
A. Uterine fibroids
B. endometriosis
C. Uterine pregnancy
D. Endometrial polyposis
E. Adenomyosis
60) The main symptom of submucous uterine fibroids:

A. Chronic pelvic pain
B. Algodismenorea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Acute pain
E. Chills
61) The most informative method for diagnosing a born

myomatous node:
A. Transvaginal ultrasound
B. Inspection by the speculum
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Bimanual research
62) An informative method for the diagnosis of submucous

myomatous node:
A. Inspection by the speculum
B. Laparoscopy
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Colposcopy
E. Sonography
63) The method of drug treatment of uterine fibroids in

reproductive age:
A. gestagens
B. Estrogens
C. Androgens
D. Progestins
E. Vitamin Therapy
64. What are the leading clinical symptoms of dysplasia and

in situ cervical cancer:
A. pelvic pain;
B. mucopurulent leucorrhoea;
C. contact bleeding;
D. Acyclic uterine bleeding;
E. infertility.
65) The optimal amount of surgical treatment in the

presence of uterine fibroids with the location of the node in
the cervix:
A. Subvaginal uterine amputation
B. Conservative myomectomy using vaginal access
C. Extirpation of the uterus
D. Surgical treatment of uterine fibroids does not result in
such localization
E. Subvaginal uterine amputation with appendages
66) Which of the following symptoms are not related to

uterine fibroids?
A. Palpable palpable tuberous formation in the small pelvis
associated with the cervix
C. Heavy menstruation
D. Dysfunction of the bladder and rectum
E. Rare menstruation
67) What complications are characteristic for the subserous

form of uterine fibroids?
A. Malignant degeneration of the tumor
B. Twisting the legs of the tumor
C. Uterus inversion
D. Posthemorrhagic anemia
E. Bladder dysfunction
68) To prevent the development of cervical endometriosis,

organ cryodestruction is performed on the following days of
the menstrual cycle:
A. 1-2 days before your period
B. Immediately after menstruation
C. On day 12-14
D. On day 16-18
E. On day 16-25
69) Basal temperature is measured:

A. In the morning
B. In the evening;
C. 2 times a day;
D. After 3 hours.
E. After 5 hours
70. The ovary is maintained in the abdominal cavity due to:

A. round ligament;
B. cardinal ligament;
C. funnel-pelvic ligament;
D. Sacro-uterine ligament
E. Broad ligament
71. The microorganisms that are most often the causative

agents of inflammatory diseases of the female genital organs
of a non-specific etiology do not include:
1. staphylococci
2. streptococci
3. gonococci
4. gardnerella
5. anaerobes
72. Blood supply to the ovaries is carried out:
A. uterine artery;
B. ovarian artery;
C. ileo-lumbar artery;
D. Internal genital and ovarian arteries;
E. Uterine and ovarian arteries.
73. Ovarian cysts include:

A. dermoid cyst
B. follicular cyst
C. corpus luteum cysts
D. piovar
E. Theca-luteal cyst
74. With a slight bleeding from the ovary, detected by

laparoscopy, is performed:
A. suturing the ovary;
B. diathermocoagulation of the ovary under the control
of laparoscopy;
C. Ovarian resection
D. laparotomy and removal of the uterine appendages one
hundred
75. What is the most common complication in benign

ovarian tumors?
A. hemorrhage into the tumor cavity;
B. capsule rupture;
C. torsion of the legs of the tumor;
D. suppuration of contents;
E. Compression of adjacent organs.
76. The most informative in the differential diagnosis

between uterine myoma and ovarian tumor:
B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
77. With genital tuberculosis, the primary focus is most

often localized:
A. In the lungs
B. In bone
C. In the urinary system
D. In the lymph nodes
E. On the peritoneum
78.. What parts of the female reproductive system are most

often affected by tuberculosis?
A. fallopian tubes
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
D. external genitalia
E. vagina
79. In what age period is tuberculosis of the internal genital

organs most often detected?
A. in childhood
B. puberty
C. in the reproductive period
D. in the premenopausal period
E. with the same frequency in any of the above periods
80. The main clinical symptom of tuberculosis of the uterus
appendages?
A. chronic pelvic pain
B. amenorrhea
C. Menometerorrhagia
D. infertility
E. DUB
81. During an operation for a paraovarial cyst:

A. cyst husking;
B. removal of appendages on the affected side;
C. removal of the ovary on the affected side;
D. Ovarian resection on the affected side;
E. Removal of the uterus with appendages
82. Blood test CA-125 for endometrioid ovarian cysts:

A. elevated
B. lowered
C. normal
D. negative
E. doesn't matter
83. What is the main clinical symptom of bacterial

vaginosis?
A. Itching of the external genitalia and perineum
B. dyspareunia
C. Profuse unpleasant whitewash
D. dysuria
E. pain in the lower abdomen
84. A characteristic feature of ovarian cysts:
A. increase due to the accumulation of liquid contents;
B. do not have capsules;
C. relate to malignant tumors of the female genital organs;
D. have invasive growth.
E. have fusion with neighboring organs
85. The following diagnostic method is used to recognize

ovarian tumors:
A. cytological
B. endoscopic
C. ultrasound
D. histological
E. bacterioscopic
86. For menopausal manifestations of a typical form of

menopause syndrome is most characteristic:
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Pain in the heart
C. Osteoporosis
D. Laryngitis
E. Anemia
87. Specify precancerous changes in the vaginal part of the

cervix:
A. recurrent cervical canal polyp
B. true cervical erosion
C. Cervical dysplasia
D. cervical ectropion
E. Cervical ectopy
88. The main route of transmission of HPV:

A. lymphogenous
B. airborne
C. sexual
D. hematogenous
E. Contact Household
89. Itching of the vulva as a consequence of neuroendocrine

disorders is characteristic of:
A. candidiasis
B. trichomoniasis
C. krauroza
D. leukoplakia
E. erythroplakia
90. The screening method to detect cervical pathology in
modern conditions is:
B. smear cytology;
E. PCR for HPV
91.. The main etiological factor for dysplasia and cervical
cancer is:
A. herpes simplex virus type 2;
B. human papillomavirus;
C. hyperestrogenia;
D. violation of the pH of the vaginal secretion;
E. immune and metabolic disorders in the body.
92. When conducting extended colposcopy after treatment

with a 3% solution of cervical acetic acid, the following
epithelial reaction is normal:
A. does not change;
B. turns pale;
C. evenly stained dark brown;
D. coated with white coating;
E. becomes embossed, papillae are visible in the form of
“grapes”.
93. The treatment of acute endometritis does not include:

A. detoxification and infusion therapy
B. glucocorticoids
C. antibiotics
D. desensitizing agents
E. Vitamins
94. A qualitative reaction (Schiller test) is due to the

interaction of iodine with cervical epithelium contained in
the multilayer:
A. glycogen;
B. proteins;
C. fats;
D. Ca salts;
E. immunoglobulins.
95. The differential diagnosis of acute salpingo-oophoritis

does not include:
A. acute appendicitis
B. tube abortion
C. colpitis
D. Ovarian apoplexy
E. Torsion of cyst legs
96. The main cause of adrenogenital syndrome (congenital

dysfunction of the adrenal cortex - CDAC) is:
A. Chronic inflammatory diseases of the ovaries;
B. Adrenal gland tumor;
C. Inherited deficiency of C21 - hydroxylase;
D. Decreased secretion of THG;
E. Hyperproduction of ACTH.
97. For bleeding from the genital tract in girls under the age
of 9, it is necessary:
A. Hormonal hemostasis
B. Observation
C. Appointment of hemostatic and uterine-contracting
agents
D. Exclusion of a local “organic” cause of bleeding
E. Hormone therapy
98. Specify the main criteria for PCOS:

A. weight loss;
B. Hyperandrogenism;
C. Normal ovulation;
D. Echographic signs in the uterus;
E. Polymenorrhea.
99. Indicate the universal diagnostic ultrasound criterion for

PCOS:
A. Increasing the thickness of the M-echo;
B. Increase in ovarian volume ≥ 7 cm2;
C. Increase in ovarian volume ≥ 5 cm3;
D. The presence of hyperplastic stroma;
E. At least 5 follicles along the periphery of the ovary d =
10mm.
100. Indicate typical clinical diagnostic signs of PCOS:

A. Polymenorrhea;
B. AMK;
C. Anorexia
D. Dysmenorrhea;
E. Infertility, chronic anovulation.
101. Hirsutism is ...

A. Excessive hair growth
B. Excessive male terminal hair growth
C. Excessive growth of nail plates
D. Overweight
E. Weight loss
102. Hormonal changes in PCOS are characterized by the

presence of:
A. A sharp increase in the secretion of FSH, LH;
B. Increases in TSH levels;
C. Decreased levels of testosterone, estrogen;
D. Increased testosterone levels, 17-OP;
E. Decreased prolactin levels.
103. Treatment of CDAC (congenital dysfunction of the

adrenal cortex) is carried out:
A. Regulon;
B. Femoston 1/5;
C. Dexamethasone;
D. clomiphene;
E. metformin
104. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by:

A. Bilateral reduction of the ovaries;
C. The ratio of LH / FSH is less than 2.5;
D. Habitual miscarriage;
E. AMK.
105. When identifying adrenogenital syndrome (AGS),
treatment must begin:
A. Since diagnosis
B. After the establishment of menstrual function
C. After marriage (depending on the time of the planned
pregnancy)
D. Only after childbirth
E. After menopause
106. Among various forms of ectopic pregnancy, tubal
pregnancy is
A. about 28%
B. about 48%
C. about 68%
D. about 88%
E. about 98%
107. In the pathogenesis of PCOS, there are:

A. Hypoprolactinemia;
B. Pituitary dysfunction;
C. Violation of the menstrual cycle;
D. Ovarian hyperandrogenism and decreased synthesis
of estradiol;
E. AMK.
108. Symptoms are observed in the clinical presentation
of PCOS:
A. Tachycardia;
B. Anorexia;
C. Polymenorrhea;
D. hirsutism;
E. Infertility.
109. For the diagnosis of PCOS, it is necessary to carry out:

A. Ultrasound, hormonal examination, biochemical
analysis of blood
B. MRI of the brain, mammography
C. Culdocentesis;
D. X-ray of OGK;
E. Hysteroscopy.
110. At the first stage of treatment for PCOS, it is
prescribed:
A. Low-calorie diet, metformin, lipase inhibitors;
B. Laparoscopic resection of 2/3 of the ovaries;
C. Clomiphene ovulation stimulator;
D. Monophasic COCs;
E. Progestogens in the second phase of the menstrual cycle.
111. CDAC (congenital dysfunction of the adrenal cortex) is

...
A. Hormone-active pituitary adenoma (corticotropinoma);
B. Genetically determined deficiency of 21-hydroxylase
involved in the synthesis of cortisol;
C. Androgen-producing adrenal gland tumor;
D. Adrenal hypoandrogenia;
E. Acromegaly.
112. The clinical forms of CDAC (congenital dysfunction of

the adrenal cortex) are:
A. Salting;
B. Vascular;
C. Asthenovegetative;
D. Edematous;
E. Total.
113. Hormonal changes in CDAC (congenital dysfunction

of the adrenal cortex)
A. Increased cortisol levels;
B. Increased levels of LH and FSH, the ratio of LH / FSH
more than 2.5;
C. Increased levels of 17-SNP, DHEA-S;
D. Decrease in testosterone and estradiol;
E. Decreased ACTH.
114. For the differential diagnosis of viril syndromes
(PCOS, CDAC) carry out:
A. ultrasound of internal organs;
B. Biochemical studies;
C. CT, MRI of the pituitary, adrenal gland;
D. A test with estrogen;
E. Hysterosalpingography.
115. Progressive tubal pregnancy can be reliably diagnosed

with
A. Bimanual research
B. Ultrasound Research
C. Curettage of the uterus
D. Puncture of the posterior arch
E. Serological Pregnancy Response
116. Adrenogenital syndrome
A. Has a synonym for adrenal hyperandrogenism
B. Manifested by hypermenstrual syndrome
C. May cause infertility
D. It is necessary to differentiate with menopausal syndrome
E. Treated HRT
117. To confirm adrenogenital syndrome (AGS) use

A. Determination of blood testosterone and 17
ketosteroids in urine
B. Probing of the uterus
C. Hysterosalpingography
D. Laparoscopy
E. Pelvic Scan
118. Pathogenetic treatment for adrenogenital syndrome
(AGS) is
A. Therapy aimed at normalizing body weight
B. Improving cerebral hemodynamics
C. Glucocorticoid therapy
D. Use of vegetotropic drugs (Belloid)
E. Use of small doses of thyroidin
119. In the development of polycystic ovary syndrome, the

following are essential:
A. Increased ovarian secretion of estrogen
B. Increased ovarian secretion of progesterone
C. Increased secretion compared to androgen
D. Increased secretion of prolactin
E. Decreased TSH secretion
120. Sterilization is carried out by:

A. Pipe compression;
B. Hysterosalpingography;
C. Tube ligation;
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Pipe removal.
121. For the diagnosis of polycystic ovaries, the following is

used:
A. General clinical laboratory tests
B. Functional tests with progesterone and
dexamethasone
C. Adrenal ultrasound
D. Laparotomy
E. Functional tests with estrogen
122. Which of the tests of functional diagnostics indicates

the presence of a two-phase menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
E. Cervical index
123. A negative dexamethasone test (a slight decrease in the
excretion of 17-ACS and 17-KS) indicates the presence of:
A. Tumors of the adrenal cortex;
B. Adrenogenital Syndrome (AGS);
C. Neuro-exchange-endocrine syndrome;
D. Sclerocystic ovary syndrome.
E. Pituitary tumors
124. The main clinical signs in true premature puberty of the

central genesis
A. neurological symptoms,
B. intracranial hypertension
C. emotional disturbances
D. lack of menstruation until 15-16 years
E. weight gain
125. The full form of premature puberty is characterized by:

A. varying degrees of development of secondary sexual
characteristics and abcense of menstruation
B. bone age corresponds to the calendar
C. Body weight not elevated
D. lack of neurological symptoms
E. emotional disturbances
126. Features of the physique of girls with congenital
adrenogenital syndrome
A. narrow shoulders and wide pelvis
B. long limbs
C. tall
D. overweight
E. neurological symptoms
127. Causes of the viril syndrome in a girl

A. dysfunction of the adrenal cortex
B. masculinizing tumors of the adrenal cortex
C. Congenital androgenital syndrome
D. chromosome abnormalities
128. During puberty, the following major changes occur in

the body:
A. Suppression of the pituitary gonadotropic function;
B. activation of hormonal function of the ovaries;
C. The rhythm of FSH release is not established;
D. regular “peaks” of LH excretion are established;
E. elevated prolactin levels
129. Nipple pigmentation and breast enlargement usually

occur:
A. at 8-9 years old;
B. at 10-11 years old;
C. at 12-13 years old;
D. at the age of 14-15;
E. at the age of 16-18.
130. The anatomical features of the uterus in a newborn girl

include:
A. The body of the uterus is small, the cervix is almost not
expressed;
B. the uterus is small, the length of the cervix is almost 3
times the length of the uterus;
C. The uterus has a bicorn shape;
D. The body of the uterus is almost 2 times larger than the
cervix;
131. The diagnosis of absolute female infertility can be

made:
A. in the absence of one fallopian tube
B. in the absence of the uterus
C. in PCA syndrome
D. during anovulatory cycles
E. with AGS syndrome
132. To exclude cervical factor of infertility use:

A. Shuvarsky-Huner test
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Study of sex chromatin
D. Chromosomal analysis
E. Determination of Antisperm antibodies in the blood
133. The course of hydrotubations is shown:

A. with partial obstruction of the fallopian tubes
B. With obstruction of the tubes in the ampullar sections
C. With severe adhesions in the pelvis.
D. With an abundance of peritubular adhesions
E. In Asherman's Syndrome
134. Good patency of the fallopian tubes can be judged by

the data of chromohydrotubation in case urine
A. blue after one hour
B. Green in one hour
C. Green in two hours
D. After one hour, colorless
E. remains colorless after 24 hours
135. The frequency of male infertility is

A. 10-15%
B. 15-20%
C. 20-30%
D. 40-50%
E. 60-70%
136. Microsurgical operations on the fallopian tubes are

performed
A. with tube occlusion in various departments
B. In bilateral tubo-ovarian formations
C. With severe adhesions in the pelvis
D. With a duration of infertility of more than 10 years
E. In patients older than 35 years
137. Artificial insemination with donor sperm is used
A. with Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster syndrome
B. in women with anovulatory cycle
C. in women with Asherman syndrome
D. for male infertility
E. tubal infertility
138. Secondary infertility is called
A. Two-year infertility
B. Infertility in women with a history of pregnancy
C. Infertility due to endocrine pathology
D. Infertility due to inflammatory genesis
E. Husband Disease
139. What percentage of abnormal sperm is permissible in a

normal spermogram?
A. 1-2%
B. 6-8%
C. 10-15%
D. 20-40%
E. over 50%
140. What percentage of motile sperm is acceptable in a

normal spermogram?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50-60%
D. 80%
E. 90%
141. The total number of sperm in a normal male ejaculate:

A. 20 - 40 million
B. 100 thousand - 1 million
C. 60 - 80 million
D. 10 - 20 million
E. 150 - 200 million
142. Reducing the number of antibodies to sperm in cervical

mucus can be achieved
A. Using oral contraceptives
B. taking antihistamines
C. Having more frequent coituses
D. Using condoms
E. Irrigating the cervix
143. The modern method of treating tubal infertility is:

A. Artificial insemination using sperm from a donor;
B. psychotherapy;
C. insemination;
D. In Vitro Fertilization
E. Stimulation of ovulation
144. When examining a sterile couple, it is primarily shown:

B. Cytology of the vaginal smear
C. Determination of basal temperature
D. Sperm examination
E. ECHO-GHA
145. The term "primary infertility" means that:

A. there was no pregnancy
B. no live births were born
C. All pregnancies are interrupted for medical reasons
D. a woman has no internal genital organs
E. All pregnancies are interrupted spontaneously
146. The synthesis of gonadoliberin is carried out in:

C. The nuclei of the hypothalamus
D. Neurons of the cerebral cortex
E. Middle lobe of the pituitary gland
376. 147. The following does not apply to endoscopic

research methods in gynecology:
A. Hysteroscopy;
B. Colposcopy;
C. Culdocentesis
D. Laparoscopy;
E. Culdoscopy.
148. With tubal-peritoneal infertility, the most effective
treatment is:
A. therapeutic laparoscopy;
B. laparotomy, microsurgical intervention on the pipes
(resection of the pipe section, the imposition of
anastomoses);
C. course of antibacterial and anti-inflammatory therapy;
D. enzyme preparations;
E. physiotherapeutic treatments.
149. The presence of ovulation does not determine:

A. functional diagnostic tests;
B. tests with LH;
C. ultrasound monitoring;
D. determination of progesterone levels in phase 2 of the
menstrual cycle;
E. FSH indicators
150. As a treatment method for infertility on the background

of intrauterine synechia does not include:
A. laparotomy, metroplasty;
B. hysteroresectoscopy;
C. hormonal treatment with estrogen-progestogen drugs;
D. antibacterial and anti-inflammatory treatment;
151. At the first stage, in IVF programs:

A. embryo transfer;
B. transvaginal ovarian puncture;
C. maintaining the luteal phase;
D. stimulation of superovulation;
E. In vitro fertilization.
152. Sperm in the crypts of the cervical canal can retain the
ability to move (deadline) for
A. 6-12 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
153. Sperm after penetration into the uterus and tubes

retain fertility for
A. 6-12 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
154. After ovulation the egg remains fertile for

A. 6 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
155. Positive test (small test) with dexamethasone

indicates that
A. Ovarian source of hyperandrogenism
B. Adrenal gland source of hyperandrogenism
E. Hyperandrogenism due to ovarian cystoma
156. The therapeutic and diagnostic effect of dexamethasone

E. Increased prolactin
157. The cause of infertility in gonadal dysgenesis is the

absence of
A. Ovarian tissue or its sharp underdevelopment
B. Uterus or its severe underdevelopment
C. gonadotropin production
D. Sensitivity of the normally formed ovary receptor
apparatus to gonadotropins
E. vaginal atresia
158. Ovarian hyperstimulation may occur.

A. When using clomiphene (clostilbegit)
B. When using pergonal
C. With prolonged use of combined estrogen-progestogen
drugs
D. When using radon baths
E. When using progestogens.
159. A woman asked you to pick a contraceptive. Single.
She lives sexually 2-3 times a month, and sometimes less
often. The partners are different. There were no pregnancies.
Your recommendations:
A. Intrauterine contraceptive
B. Condom
C. Emergency contraception
D. Oral contraceptives
160. A married woman of 28 years, having one sexual

partner, suffering from chronic thrombophlebitis of the
veins of the lower extremities, the mother of one child,
needs:
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Surgical sterilization
C. Intrauterine contraception
D. Mechanical contraception
E. Barrier contraceptives
161. The composition of injectable contraceptives includes:

A. Long-acting progestogens
B. Conjugated Estrogens
D. Antiandrogens
162. For the purpose of contraception, the use of combined

estrogen-progestogen drugs begins:
A. During ovulation
B. On the eve of menstruation
C. From the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
D. Regardless of the day of the menstrual cycle
E. On the 7th day of the menstrual cycle
163. Combined estrogen-progestogen drugs are

contraindicated in:
A. At the age of 18 to 28 years
B. For the purpose of contraception
C. During breastfeeding and during pregnancy
D. For the purpose of treatment
E. At the age of 28-38 years
164. The Pearl Index is:

A. Percentage of contraceptive failure when using the
method during the year;
B. The ratio of heart rate and systolic blood pressure;
C. The ratio of heart rate and diastolic blood pressure.
D. The percentage of contraceptive failures when using the
method for 6 months.
E. The percentage of contraceptive failures when using the
165. What method of contraception refers to the natural

method of family planning:
A. Calendar;
B. Barrier;
C. Surgical;
D. Chemical;
E. Hormonal.
166. The optimal time for the introduction of the intrauterine

device (IUD):
A. 4-6 day of the menstrual cycle;
B. 14-16 day of the menstrual cycle;
C. During menstrual bleeding.
D. Before menstruation
E. 18-20 day of the menstrual cycle.
167. The composition of injectable contraceptives includes

D. Antiandrogens
E. Antigonadotropins
168. In the differential diagnosis of tubal pregnancy

A. History is usually not significant
B. Detection by histological examination of the
endometrium
The Arias-Stella phenomenon is indisputable evidence
C. A positive serological response to pregnancy is a reliable
sign
D. Leading role belongs to laparoscopy and ultrasound
E. Under any conditions, puncture of the posterior arch is
crucial
169. What are the frequent complications of taking
progestogens?
A. Allergic reactions
B. Intermenstrual spotting
C. Nausea, vomiting
D. Weight gain
E. Oligoamenorrhea
170. Contraindications to taking combined oral

contraceptives
A. Hypertension III stage
B. Women with miscarriage
C. Women with a history of ectopic pregnancy
D. Women with mild anemia
E. Algodismenorea
171. The diagnosis of impaired tubal pregnancy is an

indication
B. For laparoscopy
C. For ultrasound examination
D. For special studies
E. For puncture of the back arch
172. Voluntary sterilization - a mechanism of action.

A. thickening of cervical mucus
B. Blocking the patency of the fallopian tubes
D. Decreased uterine tone
E. Promotes adhesions in the pelvis.
173. Advantages of tubal occlusion

A. Irreversibility of the method
B. Protection against STIs
C. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
D. Increased libido
174. Mechanism of action for vasectomy

A. Blocking the patency of the vas deferens
B. Change in hormone production by the ovaries
C. Spermicidal effect
D. Decreased libido
E. Decreased vascular tone
175. Benefits of Condoms

A. Protection against STIs
B. High Efficiency
C. Influencing sexual feelings
D. Spermicidal effect
E. Contributes to thickening
176. Disadvantages of condoms

B. Lack of systemic side effects
C. Wide availability
D. Contraceptive effectiveness depends on the
willingness of the couple to follow the instructions.
E. High price
177. The mechanism of action of spermicides

B. Destruction of sperm membranes, which reduces their
motility and ability to fertilize the egg
D. Disruption of egg implantation
E. Toning the fallopian tubes
178. The mechanism of action of the method of lactational

amenorrhea (MDA)
B. Change in the structure of the endometrium
C. Implant Impaired
E. Endometrial hyperplasia
179. The high efficiency of the method of lactational

amenorrhea (MDA) with all the rules observed
A. Within 3 months after delivery
B. Within 6 months after delivery
C. Within 9 months after delivery
D. Within 12 months after delivery
E. Within 15 months after delivery
180. Contraception contraceptive against STI

A. COC
B. Navy
C. Barrier
D. Calendar method
E. Emergency contraception
181. The goals of family planning are:

A. Birth of wanted children
B. Reducing the prevalence of sexually transmitted
infections
C. Correction of menstrual irregularities.
D. Overcoming infertility
E. Decrease in maternal and perinatal mortality
182. Blastocyst implantation disorders:

A. Changes in the enzymatic system of the endometrium
B. Activation of peristalsis of the fallopian tubes
C. Lack of ovulation
D. Decrease in the tone of the fallopian tubes
E. Late ovulation
183. Disadvantages of the intrauterine device

A. Increased risk of inflammatory diseases
B. Effect on lactation
C. Short validity
D. A large number of side effects
E. Systemic effects on the body
184. Indications for use of the intrauterine device:

A. The need for long-term contraception and the
presence of one sexual partner
B. menstrual irregularities
C. Genital tract infections
D. Genital abnormalities
E. Adolescence
185. The complication most often arising on 3 5 days

after the introduction of the intrauterine device is:
A. Cervical insufficiency
D. Uterine inflammation
186. What are the most common complications in women

who have been using the intrauterine device for a long time
as a contraceptive?
A. Thrombophlebitis of the pelvic veins
B. Adhesive process in the pelvis
C. Inflammatory diseases of the internal genital organs
D. Cervical insufficiency
E. Amenorrhea
187. Visualization of an intrauterine contraceptive in the
cervical canal indicates:
A. Normal position of the intrauterine device
B. Low position of the intrauterine device
C. Uterine perforation
D. Intrauterine device expulsion
E. Pregnancy

A. round ligament;
E. Broad ligament
A. uterine artery;
B. ovarian artery;

A. dermoid cyst
B. follicular cyst
D. piovar
191. Ovarian tumors that do not have hormonal activity
include:
A. granulosa cell tumor
B. dysgerminomas
C. Theca cell tumor
D. androblastoma
E. arrhenoblastoma
192. With a small bleeding from the ovary, detected by

laparoscopy, it is performed:
of a laparoscope;
D. Laparotomy and removal of the uterus on the affected
side
E. Hemostatic infusion therapy
193. The tumorous formations of the ovaries do not include:

A. dermoid cyst;
B. follicular cyst;
C. corpus luteum cysts;
D. pyovar;
E. Theca-luteal cysts.
194. What complication is most common with benign

ovarian tumors?
B. capsule rupture;

B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
196. The presence of ovulation can be judged by the results

of all the studies listed below:
B. Ultrasound monitoring of the development of a
dominant follicle
D. Determination of the concentration of sex steroid
hormones in the blood on days 12-14 of the menstrual cycle
197. During surgery for a paraovarial cyst:

A. cyst husking;
198. Treatment of benign tumors of the ovary in childhood
and puberty is:
A. in the course of chemotherapy;
B. in the appointment of hormone therapy;
C. in bilateral removal of appendages;
D. in resection of the affected ovary;
E. in the supravaginal amputation of the uterus with
appendages;
199. An examination for an ovarian tumor may include:

A. X-ray of the gastrointestinal tract;
B. sigmoidoscopy;
C. hormonal colpocytology;
D. X-ray of the Turkish saddle;
E. phlebography;
200. The symptom complex characteristic of a granulosa

cell tumor of the ovary in menopausal women includes:
A. galactorrhea in menopause;
B. menopausal masculinization;
C. change in voice in menopause;
D. bleeding in menopause;
E. decreased libido;

A. elevated
B. lowered
C. normal
D. negative
E. doesn't matter
202. Prognosis for life in borderline ovarian tumors

A. Doubtful
B. adverse
C. poorly understood
D. relatively favorable
E. unknown

204. Paraovarial cysts are formed from residues:

A. omphalomesenteric duct;
B. paramesonephral duct;
C. Wolf duct
D. Muller duct;
E. allantois.
205. Each woman with a detected ovarian tumor should:

A. hospitalize urgently;
B. direct to separate diagnostic curettage;
C. put on dispensary records;
D. conduct hormone therapy;
E. carry out anti-inflammatory therapy.
206. Cervical pregnancy

A. Usually interrupted for 4-5 weeks
B. Interruption usually accompanied by internal bleeding
C. Diagnosed only during curettage of the uterine cavity
D. Can be diagnosed by the location of the external
pharynx of the cervical canal
E. In most cases, it is treated with vacuum aspiration of the
ovum.
207. Diagnostic methods most often used in the initial

detection of benign genital tumors in women
A. Cytological examination
B. gynecological examination, ultrasound
C. Ultrasound
D. pneumopelviography
E. Tumor puncture
208. Follicular cysts are most common:

A. in reproductive age;
B. in the neonatal period;
C. postmenopausal women;
D. in the juvenile period;
E. in the perimenopausal period.
209. A sign of the transition of the physiological process of

follicular maturation into a pathological follicular cyst is the
diameter of the fluid formation more:
A. 15 mm;
B. 20 mm;
C. 30 mm;
D. 35 mm;
E. 40 mm.
210. For tumor-like formations of the ovaries, it is

characteristic:
A. proliferation of the epithelium of the cellular elements of
the wall
B. lack of proliferation of the epithelium of the cellular
elements of the wall
C. consist of parenchyma and stroma
D. formed from germ cells
E. susceptible to metaplasia and paraplasia.
211. The most common ovarian tumors are:

A. cystadenomas;
B. endometrioid tumors;
C. Brenner's tumor;
D. granulosa cell tumor;
E. Mature teratoma.
212. Treatment of mucinous cystadenoma in reproductive

age:
A. course of anti-inflammatory therapy;
B. ovarian resection;
C. adnexectomy on the side of the affected ovary;
D. hysterectomy with affected appendages;
E. Combined oral contraceptives for 3–6 months.
213. The contents of the dermoid cyst:
A. hair, fat, cartilage;
B. mucus-like secret;
C. liquid, clear contents;
D. connective tissue;
E. blood.
214. Masculinizing tumor:
A. tecom;
B. androblastoma;
C. serous cystoma;
D. papillary.
E. fibroma
215. Endometriosis of the vaginal part of the cervix
A. refers to internal endometriosis
B. manifested by intense pain before and during
menstruation
C. rarely manifested as a violation of the nature of
menstruation
D. diagnosed by colposcopy
E. Good for conservative therapy
216. The vaginal part of the cervix in a woman of

reproductive age is normally covered:
A. cylindrical epithelium
B. stratified squamous epithelium
C. glandular epithelium
D. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium
E. cubic epithelium
217. In the puberty, the vaginal part of the cervix has, as a
rule, the following features of the epithelial cover
A. covered with cylindrical epithelium
B. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the ectocervix, is
covered by a stratified squamous epithelium
C. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the endocervix, is
covered with stratified squamous epithelium
D. covered with stratified squamous epithelium
E. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the ectocervix,
covered with a cylindrical epithelium
218. Clinical manifestations of endometrial hyperplasia:

abnormal uterine bleeding;
A. asthenovegetative syndrome;
B. amenorrhea;
C. pain in the lower abdomen;
D. intoxication syndrome.
E. NMC
219. Differential diagnosis of endometrial polyp must be

performed with:
A. submucous uterine myoma;
B. subserous uterine myoma;
C. interstitial uterine myoma;
D. adenomyosis;
E. chorionic carcinoma.
220.. Side effects of agonists of gonadotropic releasing
hormones that limit the duration of use in the reproductive
period are:
A. osteoporosis;
B. impaired metabolism of fats and carbohydrates;
C. hyperthyroidism;
D. dyspepsia;
E. diarrhea.
221. The scope of the examination for pathology of the

cervix
A. colposcopy
B. hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. bacterioscopy
E. laparoscopy
222. Kraurosis and vulvar leukoplakia occur in women aged

A. 31–40 years old
B. 41–50 years old
C. 51-60 years
D. 61–70 years old
E. regardless of age
223. Uterine prolapse:

A. the bottom of the uterus is at the level of the plane of
entry into the pelvis;
B. the body of the uterus outside the genital gap, cysto and
rectocele;
C. The internal uterine pharynx is below the interspinal
line, the prolapse of the walls of the vagina;
D. the cervix is elongated, determined outside the genital
gap, cysto and rectocele;
E. The internal uterine pharynx is located above or at the
level of the interspinal line, the prolapse of the walls of the
vagina I degree.
224. Morphological changes with vulvar kraurosis are more
pronounced
A. in the epithelium
B. in the vessels of the vulva
C. Throughout the vulva
D. in the connective tissue of the vulva
E. in the basement membrane
225. For kraurosis of the vulva is not characteristic:
A. Puckering of the labia minora and labia minora
clitoral itching
B. dryness of the mucous membranes of the vulva
C. narrowing of the vaginal opening
D. vulvar edema
226. Hyperkeratosis of the epithelium of the vaginal part of

the cervix is ...
A. erythroplakia;
B. leukoplakia;
C. ectropion;
D. pseudo-erosion;
E. intraepithelial neoplasia.
227. The precancerous conditions of the cervix include:

A. erythroplakia;
B. leukoplakia without atypia;
C. ectropion;
D. pseudo-erosion;
E. Dysplasia of the stratified squamous epithelium.
228. What corrective hormone therapy is carried out with

DMK of the reproductive period:
A. Estrogens in the 1st phase of chicoa
B. Estrogen-progestogen drugs in a contraceptive
regimen;
C. Estrogen-progestogen drugs in the 1st phase of the cycle;
D. Estrogens in phase 2;
E. Gestagens continuously.
229. The main etiological factor for dysplasia and cervical

cancer is:
C. hyperestrogenia;

A. does not change;
B. turns pale;
“grapes”.

the multilayer:
A. glycogen;
B. proteins;
C. fats;
D. Ca salts;
E. immunoglobulins.
232. Incomplete prolapse of the uterus:

rectocele;
C. The internal uterine pharynx is below the interspinal line,
the prolapse of the walls of the vagina;
vagina I degree.
233. Complete prolapse of the uterus:

B. the body of the uterus outside the genital gap, cysto
and rectocele;
vagina I degree.
234. What are the leading clinical symptoms of dysplasia

and cancer of the cervical insitu:
A. pelvic pain;
E. infertility.
235. In the etiology of pelvic organ prolapse, it does not

matter: Answer options:
A. traumatic birth;
B. estrogen deficiency;
C. the presence of tumors of the pelvic organs;
D. connective tissue dysplasia;
E. heavy physical labor.
236. For the treatment of cervical dysplasia of moderate and

severe degree do not apply:
A. local destruction of the cervical epithelium with acid
solutions;
B. radiosurgical excision;
C. electroconization;
D. Cone amputation of the cervix according to Sturmdorf;
E. Uterus extirpation.
237. Indicate the precancerous changes in the vaginal part of

the cervix:
E. Cervical ectopy
238. To prevent the development of cervical endometriosis,

the menstrual cycle
A. 1-2 days before the start of menstruation
B. immediately after the end of menstruation
C. on day 12-14
D. on day 16-18
E. on day 20-24
239. Itching of the vulva as a result of neuroendocrine

A. candidiasis
B. trichomoniasis
C. krauroza
D. leukoplakia
E. erythroplakia
240. In the surgical treatment of a patient with kraurosis and
vulvar leukoplakia, the following is performed:
A. ovariectomy;
B. vulvectomy;
C. extended vulvectomy;
D. lymphadenectomy;
E. Uterus
241. Women with DMK are at risk:

A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency
C. Development of genital tumors
D. On the development of anomalies of labor
E. Pregnancy
242. Hyperprolactinemia is:

A. Increase in blood gonadotropins
B. Increase in hemoglobin
C. Increase in BCC
D. Increased blood prolactin
E. Decreased blood prolactin levels
243. Cytological cervical screening is performed at the age

of:
D. from the age of menarche to 69 years
E. from the onset of sexual activity (after 21 years) to 69
years
244.. The earliest symptom of genital prolapse is:

A. stress urinary incontinence
B. recurrent vaginitis;
C. gaping genital fissure;
D. frequent urination;
E. foreign body sensation in the perineum.
245. To improve the effect of surgical treatment of genital

prolapse in elderly patients, the preoperative preparation
includes:
A. course of antibiotic therapy;
B. indirect anticoagulants;
C. topical estrogen preparations
D. a-GnRH for 3 months;
E. immunomodulators.
246. Indicate the most effective method for the early

diagnosis of postmenopausal osteoporosis:
A. Radiography of the lumbosacral spine
B. Mono- and biphoton absorptiometry
D. Radiography of cysts
E. Joint ultrasound
247. Indications for the use of sounding of the uterine
cavity:
A. A suspected uterine perforation during curettage;
B. B acute endometritis;
C. C suspected presence of submucous uterine fibroids;
D. D cervical cancer;
E. E ectopic pregnancy;
248. In what cases, for diagnostic purposes, puncture of the
abdominal cavity through the posterior arch is indicated?
A suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy;
B suspected ovarian cancer;
C dysfunctional uterine bleeding;
D uterine fibroids;
E suspected ovarian apoplexy;
249. Research methods of the anatomical and functional

state of the vagina:
A inspection in the mirrors;
B combined vaginal rectal examination;
C cytological examination of the contents of the uterine
cavity;
D puncture of the posterior fornix;
E determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.
250. The most effective treatment for postmenopausal

osteoporosis is:
A. Diet Therapy
B. Physiotherapy and exercise therapy
C. Hormone therapy
D. Vitamin Therapy
E. Antibiotic therapy
251. The treatment of bartholinitis is:

A. Physiotherapy
B. Radio waves
C. Hormones
D. Vitamin Therapy
252. Treatment of false (ovarian) premature sexual

development:
A. Vitamin Therapy
B. Surgical
C. Hormonal
D. Antibiotic therapy
E. Physiotherapy
rectocele;
vagina I degree.

rectocele;
vagina I degree.

and rectocele;
vagina I degree.
256. The horizontal displacement of the uterus in the pelvic

cavity does not apply:
A. anterior displacement;
B. posterior displacement;
C. Turn of the uterus;
D. offsets to the left;
E. Offset to the right.
257. The prolapse of the walls of the vagina is accompanied
by the prolapse of the bladder and the anterior wall of the
rectum. What is the clinical degree of prolapse of the walls
of the vagina, uterus and their prolapse?
A. I;
B. II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. V.
258. The genital gap is gaping, the anterior and posterior
walls of the vagina are slightly lowered. What is the clinical
degree of prolapse of the walls of the vagina, uterus and
their prolapse?
A. I;
B. II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. V.
259. What complaint does the patient not have when

lowering the internal genital organs:
A. difficulty in emptying the bladder;
B. stress urinary incontinence;
C. difficulty with bowel movements;
D. a feeling that something is falling out;
E. on the mucous membranes from the vagina.
260. Squeezing the entrance to the vagina carries out:

A. transverse superficial muscle of the perineum;
B. muscle lifting the anus;
C. sciatic-cavernous muscle;
D. bulbous-cavernous muscle.
E. transverse deep muscle of the perineum
261. Polycystic ovary syndrome is:

A. Androgenic disease
B. Profuse uterine bleeding
C. Heterogeneous disease
D. Cyclic uterine bleeding
E. Lack of menarche
262. In the etiology of pelvic organ prolapse do not matter:

A. traumatic birth;
263. The earliest symptom of genital prolapse is:
A. stress urinary incontinence;
264. The most common cause of bleeding from the genital

tract in postmenopausal women is:
A. Cervical Cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Submucous uterine fibroids
D. Ovarian Cancer
E. Cervical dysplasia
265. The main method for the diagnosis of dysplasia and

pre-invasive cancer of the vulva is:
B. Vulvoscopy
E. Colposcopy
266. The most informative method for the diagnosis of
genital prolapse is:
A. ultrasound;
C. sigmoidoscopy;
D. cystoscopy;
E. hysteroscopy.
267. For the surgical treatment of genital prolapse, do not
use:
A. Manchester operation;
B. vaginal extirpation of the uterus;
C. use of mesh implants;
D. supravaginal amputation of the uterus;
E. shortening and strengthening of the ligamentous
apparatus of the uterus.
268. The choice of method for the correction of genital
prolapse does not depend on:
A. age of the patient;
B. severity of prolapse;
C. history of childbirth;
D. reproductive plans of the patient;
E. sexual activity.
269. Correction of asymptomatic genital prolapse of 1–2
degrees in a 38-year-old patient is carried out:
A. Pelvic floor muscle training
B. surgical method - vaginal extirpation of the uterus;
C. staging of the mesh implant;
D. staging of the urogynecological pessary;
E. Surgical method - over vaginal amputation of the uterus;
270. The main treatment for cancer and vulvar melanoma:

A. Remote radiation therapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Hormone therapy
D. Surgical
E. Radio waves
271. The most effective screening test for early diagnosis of
cervical cancer:
A. Simple colposcopy
B. Bimanual rectovaginal examination
C. Cytological examination of smears from the surface of
the cervix and cervical canal
D. Vacuum curettage of the cervical canal
E. Pelvic ultrasound

cervical dysplasia:
A. Advanced colposcopy
B. Histological examination of the cervical biopsy
the vaginal part of the cervix
272. Reconstructive plastic surgery using a mesh implant for
pelvic organ prolapse is not performed when:
A. senile age of the patient;
B. recurrence of prolapse;
C. post hysterectomy prolapse (enterocele);
D. severe connective tissue dysplasia;
E. Hereditary factor of genital prolapse.

cervical dysplasia:

includes:
275. Before giving a woman an injection of Depo-Provera,
the health care provider must make sure that she does not
have:
A. Vaginal bleeding of unknown etiology
B. Cardiovascular Disease
C. History of STIs
276. What contraceptive methods are not recommended for
breastfeeding women:
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Condoms and spermicides
C. Navy
D. MLA
E. Purely progestin contraceptives
277. What method is not recommended for a 40-year-old

smoking woman:
A. Pure-progestin oral contraceptives
B. Depot-Provera
D. Voluntary surgical sterilization
E. Navy
278. What should be done when spotting spotting occurs

during the installation of a copper-containing IUD:
A. Carry out a diagnostic curettage of the uterine cavity
B. Prescribe haemostatic and contractions
C. Remove IUD
D. Reassure a woman and prescribe a short course of
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
E. Refer to hospital
279. If a woman uses the method of lactational amenorrhea,

when any signals appear she needs to see a doctor to receive
recommendations on the use of another contraceptive:
A. The child is 3 months old
B. Maternal period resumes
C. Baby exclusive breastfeeding
D. Baby sleeps all night without feeding
E. 10 days of the postpartum period
280. The most common complication of taking progestin

drugs is:
A. Menstrual irregularities
B. Strokes, heart attacks
C. Weight gain
D. Violation of the blood coagulation system
E. Nausea, vomiting
281. The cytological equivalent of cervical dysplasia is:
A. Acanthosis
B. Discariosis
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. Cariolysis
E. Hypokeratosis
282. Characteristic features of uterine fibroids:
A. It is a benign, hormone-dependent tumor
B. Comes from the striated muscle of the tissue
C. Most common in puberty and women of early
reproductive age
D. Prone to malignancy
E. Malignant tumor
283. What method of contraception has the effect of double

protection
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera
284. Depo-Provera is not recommended:

A. Women of all ages with more than 3 children
B. Women with migraine
D. Nulliparous women and adolescents
285. Reliable information about contraceptives is provided:

A. From the personal experience of a specialist
B. Pharmaceutical companies
C. From evidence-based material
D. From the personal experience of the consumer
E. From the Internet
286. What can be done if a woman missed the next COC?
A. As soon as possible, take the missed active (hormonal)
tablet, then continue taking the tablets as usual
B. Do not refrain from sexual intercourse and do not use
additional contraceptives (condom) for the next 7 days
C. Do not resort to emergency contraception
D. Cancel birth control pills
E. Start taking pills from the next pack
287. A high risk of HIV infection or the presence of HIV

infection / AIDS is a contraindication for use:
A. Spermicides
B. Surgical sterilization methods
C. Navy
E. Progestin-only contraceptives
288. Women with a history of deep vein thrombosis are not

recommended to use:
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera
289. What qualities are not acceptable for a good consultant:

A. Competence and professionalism
B. Respect for Confidentiality
C. Use of personal preferences when choosing a method
of contraception
D. Friendliness and attentiveness
E. Listening skills
290. What method of contraception is least effective:
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Natural family planning methods
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera
291. The duration of the menstrual cycle when taking most

COCs is
A. 21 days
B. 28 days
C. 35 days
D. 32 days
E. 40 days

intermuscular uterine fibroids:
A. Vaginal examination
B. Ultrasound examination
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Colposcopy
293. One of the disadvantages of spermicides is:

A. Possible burning or itching in the vagina when used
B. The presence of estrogen-related side effects
C. Effect on breastfeeding
D. Need for pelvic examination before use
E. Progesterone-related side effects
294. The introduction of IUD as a postcoital method is

effective if, after unprotected intercourse, it has passed to:
A. 2days
B. 5days
C. 1week
D. 2 weeks
E. 1 month
295. Using Postinor as a post-coital method is effective if,

after unprotected intercourse, it has passed to:
A. 24 hours
B. 72 -120 hours
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
E. 1 month
296. Interrupted intercourse:
A. Highly effective contraceptive method
B. Ineffective contraception
C. STI Prevention Method
D. HIV Prevention Method
E. Ideal for continuous contraception
297. What conditions of the endometrium are classified as
precancerous?
A. Glandular cystic hyperplasia
B. Glandular endometrial polyp
C. Atrophy of the endometrium
D. Atypical hyperplasia
E. Fibrous endometrial polyp
298. Characteristic features of ovarian cysts:

A. These are retention formations
B. Increase in size due to cell proliferation
C. Do not have capsules
D. May be malignant
E. Multi-chamber
299. Which of the ovarian tumors most frequently

undergoes malignancy?
A. Fibroma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Tekoma
E. Sarcoma
300. What method of contraception is irreversible?

A. DMPA
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. COC
E. DHS
301. What can be used as emergency contraception:
B. Interrupted intercourse
C. Depot Check
302. The most appropriate time for a contraceptive after an

abortion:
A. Immediately after the procedure
B. The next menstrual cycle
C. 3 months after abortion
D. 6 months after abortion
E. Do not prescribe at all
303. The absolute indication for surgery in gynecology is

not:
A. intra-abdominal bleeding;
B. peritonitis;
C. gonorrheal pelvioperitonitis;
D. threat of perforation of the tubo-ovarian abscess.
E. Beginning miscarriage
304. An ectopic pregnancy can be localized in all of the

organs listed below, except:
A. vagina;
B. cervix;
C. rudimentary uterine horn;
D. ovary;
E. abdominal cavity.
305. The methods for diagnosing endometrial cancer are as

follows, except:
A. metrosalpingography;
B. separate diagnostic curettage of the uterine mucosa and
cervix;
C. functional diagnostic tests;
D. ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs;
E. hysteroscopy.
307. What is the most common morphological characteristic
of the endometrium prior to adenocarcinoma?
A. secretory transformation;
B. adenomatosis;
C. hyperplasia;
D. proliferation;
E. resting endometrium.
308. The main symptoms of adenocarcinoma, except:

A. uterine bleeding in postmenopausal women;
B. pain in the lower abdomen and in the lumbar region;
C. infiltration of the pelvic tissue;
D. decrease in the size of the body of the uterus;
E. enlargement and compaction of regional lymph nodes.
309. Additional methods for diagnosing the degree of spread

of adenocarcinoma, except:
A. cystoscopy;
B. bacteriological examination of uterine aspirate;
C. rectoscopy;
D. radiopaque lymphography;
E. Radioisotope lymphography.
310. The age period during which in situ carcinoma is most

often detected?
A. 45-55 years old;
B. 7-17 years old;
C. 30-40 years;
D. older than 60 -70 years;
E. older than 70 years.
311. What is the main treatment for chorionepithelioma?

A. antibiotic therapy;
B. immunostimulating therapy;
C. hysterectomy with appendages;
D. cytostatic therapy;
E. physiotherapeutic treatment.
312. Methods for diagnosing cervical pathology are used,

except:
A. Pap smear;
B. colposcopy;
C. cervicogysterosalpingography;
D. measuring rectal temperature;
E. Curettage of the cervical canal.
313. Factors contributing to the development of cervical

cancer, except:
A. hormonal contraception;
B. cicatricial deformity of the cervix after childbirth;
C. ectropion;
D. long-existing cervical erosion;
E. Cervical leukoplakia.
314. Regional metastasis of cervical cancer to the lymph

nodes, except:
A. external iliac;
B. common iliac;
C. Presacral;
D. paraaortic;
E. inguinal.
315. Treatment of preinvasive carcinoma of the cervix in a

young woman, except:
A. laser conization of the cervix;
B. hysterectomy with appendages;
C. intracavitary gamma therapy;
D. electroconization of the cervix;
E. knife conical excision of the cervix.
316. What research allows to establish the diagnosis of
invasive carcinoma of the cervix?
A. Pap smear;
B. aspiration of cervical mucus;
C. targeted biopsy of the neck with histological
examination;
D. flushing from the vagina;
E. colposcopy.
317. The most common cause of endometrial hyperplasia in
reproductive age?
A. inflammatory diseases of the genitals;
B. prolonged hyperestrogenism with anovulation;
C. hyperestrogenia in case of insufficiency of the luteal
phase of the menstrual cycle;
D. estrogen producing ovarian tumor;
E. Long-term use of estrogen.
318. Endometrial hyperplasia develops as a result of:

A. hyperprogesteronemia;
B. hyperestrogenemia;
C. hyperprolactinemia;
D. use of combined estrogen-progestogen drugs;
E. Genetically determined proliferation of basal endometrial
cells.
320. The histological differential diagnosis between in situ

carcinoma and invasive carcinoma is based on the following
symptoms:
A. damage to the basement membrane by atypical cells;
B. atypical cells are detected in a smear for oncocytology;
C. detection of cells with squamous metaplasia;
D. the entire layer of stratified squamous epithelium is
replaced by atypical cells;
E. pronounced proliferation of basal cells of the stratified
squamous epithelium.
321. With endometrial cancer, the lymph nodes are

primarily affected:
A. paracervical;
B. obstructive;
C. inguinal;
D. sacred;
E. hypogastric.
322. Treatment for stage II endometrial cancer includes:

A. only exposure;
B. extirpation of the uterus with appendages;
C. a combination of irradiation and hysterectomy with
appendages;
D. radical hysterectomy with resection of the greater
omentum;
E. only symptomatic therapy.
323. Uterine sarcoma can occur from the following tissues,

except:
A. myometrium;
B. nerve fibers;
C. endometrium;
D. blood vessels;
E. fibrous node.
324. The primary treatment for stage II ovarian cancer is:
A. immunotherapy;
B. remote exposure;
C. chemotherapy;
D. hormone therapy;
E. surgical method.
325. In a barren woman of reproductive age, histological
examination of the endometrium revealed adenomatosis.
Which drug will be more effective?
A. clostilbegit;
B. non-ovlon;
C. norkolut;
D. Pergon;
E. Chorionic gonadotropin.
328. The most appropriate sequence of measures in the

diagnosis of impaired ectopic pregnancy:
A. surgery, blood transfusion;
B. consultation of the therapist, anesthetist, surgery;
C. ultrasound, blood transfusion, surgery;
D. blood transfusion, surgery;
E. The use of hemostatic therapy, blood transfusion,
surgery.
330. When a vaginal examination in a patient with suspected

ectopic pregnancy revealed: external pharynx ajar; scarlet
spotting from the cervical canal; the uterus is enlarged to 8
weeks of pregnancy; appendages are not determined; the
vaginal arches are free. Diagnosis:
A. tube abortion;
B. impaired uterine pregnancy;
C. ovarian apoplexy;
D. inflammatory process of the uterus;
E. endometrial hyperplasia
331. Ovarian apoplexy often occurs:

A. during ovulation;
B. into the stage of vascularization of the corpus luteum;
C. during the maturation of the graaf follicle;
D. during atresia of the follicles.
E. During menstruation
332. With significant bleeding into the abdominal cavity in a

patient with ovarian apoplexy, it is shown:
A. laparotomy, ovarian resection;
B. gluttony, removal of the ovary;
C. dynamic observation of the doctor on duty, according to
indications - blood transfusion;
D. conservative therapy: rest, cold on the lower abdomen,
restorative therapy.
E. Hormone therapy;
333. In a patient with a clinical diagnosis of ovarian

apoplexy, the indication for surgery is:
A. history of appendage inflammation;
B. history of ovarian dysfunction;
C. pain syndrome;
D. intra-abdominal bleeding.
E. amenorrhea in the anamnesis.
335. Termination of tubal pregnancy by type of tubal

abortion occurs more often during pregnancy:
A. 11-12 weeks;
B. 9-10 weeks;
C. 7-8 weeks;
D. 4-6 weeks;
E. 16-17 weeks.
342. Risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
A. uterine hypoplasia;
B. oral contraception;
C. transferred inflammatory diseases of the genitals;
D. a history of cesarean section;
E. Insufficiency of the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
343. What is the most common implantation of a fetal egg

during an ectopic pregnancy?
A. in the ampulla of the fallopian tube;
B. on the peritoneum;
C. on the ovary;
D. in the isthmic section of the fallopian tube;
E. in the interstitial section of the fallopian tube.
344. The least informative sign for the differentiation of

uterine and tubal pregnancy?
A. ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs;
B. level of chorionic gonadotropin in the blood;
C. bimanual examination of the pelvic organs;
D. smears for colpocytology;
E. Uterine curettage.
347. The main cause of death during ectopic pregnancy:

A. embolism of the lungs with trophoblast elements;
B. intestinal obstruction;
C. acute renal failure;
D. intra-abdominal bleeding;
E. peritonitis.
348. The diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy denies:

A. decidual endometrial reaction;
B. absence of fetal sac on echoscopy;
C. lack of a characteristic clinical picture;
D. negative test for chorionic gonadotropin;
E. Negative puncture of the abdominal cavity through the
posterior vaginal fornix.
349. The system of specialized gynecological care for

infertility includes the steps of:
A examination of women in antenatal clinics;
B examination and treatment of a married couple;
C in-patient examination and treatment;
D periodic medical examinations.
E women counseling
351. Which of the factors does not increase the risk of

developing inflammatory diseases of the genital organs?
A. the beginning of sexual activity at the age of 15;
B. medical abortion;
C. use of oral contraceptives;
D. hysterosalpingography;
E. Use of the IUD.
352. Choriocarcinoma - malignant neoplasm:

A. Decidual sheath
B. Myometrium
C. trophoblast
D. Theca tissue
E. Endometrium
353. Complaint, not typical for inflammatory diseases of the
genital organs:
A. pain in the lower abdomen;
B. fever;
C. fetid vaginal discharge;
D. high bilirubin in the blood;
E. Accelerate ESR and increase white blood cells.
354. What microorganisms causing colpitis require

treatment for both partners?
A. Trichomonas;
B. Candida;
C. streptococci;
D. staphylococci;
E. Escherichia coli.
355. Which of the following examination methods most

reliably confirm the diagnosis of inflammation of the
appendages?
A. quantification of white blood cells;
C. culdocentesis;
D. laparoscopy;
E. Ultrasound of the pelvic organs.
356. What is unnecessary in establishing a diagnosis of
inflammatory disease of the pelvic organs:
A. laparoscopy;
B. ultrasound;
C. culdocentesis;
D. urinalysis according to Zimnitsky;
E. rectal studies.
357. It is not a complication of inflammatory diseases of the

pelvic organs:
A. endometriosis;
C. adhesions in the pelvic area;
D. dyspareunia;
E. hydrosalpinx.
358. In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years) are more

common:
A. ovarian tumors;
C. Congenital malformations of the genitals
D. vulvovaginitis;
E. salpingoophoritis.
359. The complication most often arising in the conduct of

the IUD is:
D. acute infection;
E. Pelvic vein thrombosis.
360. Pathological changes in cervical mucus can be the

result of all of the following conditions, except:
A. infection of the cervix by cytotoxic microorganisms;
B. posterior uterine displacement;
C. chronic inflammatory process in the cervix;
D. previous electrocoagulation of any formations of the
cervix;
E. vaginal inflammation.
361. Endometritis is:
A. inflammation of the fallopian tube;
B. uterine muscle inflammation;
C. inflammation of the peritoneum;
E. inflammation of the uterine mucosa.
362. Treatment of acute endometritis includes:

A. physiotherapy;
B. surgical treatment;
C. antibacterial agents;
D. diuretics;
E. antispasmodics.

364. What treatment is not used for acute inflammation of

the uterine appendages of a non-specific etiology?
A. cold to the lower abdomen;
B. antibiotic therapy;
C. mud therapy;
D. vitamin therapy;
E. detoxification therapy.
365. What is the most common cause of atrophic colpitis?

A. oral contraception with progestins;
B. drug amenorrhea in the treatment of uterine fibroids or
endometriosis;
C. menopause;
D. oral contraception with progestogens;
E. Uterine fibroids
366. Factors of resistance of the vaginal mucosa to

infection?
A. high levels of androgens;
B. low estrogen levels;
C. acidic environment;
D. lack of Dederlein bacteria;
E. High progesterone.
367. Treatment of acute endometritis, except:

A. desensitizing agents;
C. antibacterial agents
D. antioxidant complex of vitamins;
E. Antispasmodics.
368. What disease is not differentiated in acute

inflammation of the pelvic organs?
A. acute appendicitis;
B. uterine fibroids;
C. acute urinary tract infection;
D. Lower lobar pneumonia
E. Torsion of the legs of the tumor.
369. The main diagnostic method for evaluating the
effectiveness of treatment of trophoblastic disease?
A. Dynamic transvaginal ultrasound
B. Computed tomography
C. Determination of the titer of chorionic gonadotropin
in blood serum and urine in dynamics
D. Hysteroscopy with separate diagnostic curettage
E. Determination of hemoglobin level
370. What least contributes to the development of the

inflammatory process in the pelvis?
A. curettage of the uterine cavity;
B. menstruation;
C. sperm;
D. endocervicitis;
E. fibrotic changes.
371. Atrophic colpitis may develop in the following
situations, with the exception of:
A. postmenopause;
B. premature depletion of ovarian function;
D. pituitary necrosis;
E. Surgical castration at a young age.
572. The following complaint is characteristic of the onset

of acute inflammation of the uterus:
A. fever;
B. the appearance of rashes;
C. dyspeptic disorders;
D. polyphagy;
E. vomiting.
373. An indication for surgical treatment in inflammatory

processes of the uterine appendages is:
A. pyosalpinx;
B. perforation of purulent tubo-ovarian formation;
C. frequent exacerbations of the chronic inflammatory
process of the uterus;
D. endometriosis;
E. acute salpingitis.

A. sharp pains;
B. burning, itching
D. ulceration;
E. spotting.
375. Select the symptoms characteristic of pelvic peritonitis:

A. the appearance of rashes;
B. intestinal paresis;
C. a positive symptom of Shchetkin in the hypogastric
region;
D. abdominal distension;
E. enterocolitis.
376. Which statement of relative anaerobic sepsis is not

true:
A. more common with criminal termination of pregnancy;
B. may result from a hospital-acquired clostridial
infection;
C. accompanied by hemolysis of red blood cells;
D. early development of oligo- and anuria due to
hemoglobinuria;
E. Blood levels of total and unconjugated bilirubin are
elevated
377. For a clinic of septic shock are uncharacteristic:

A. drop in blood pressure;
B. oligo- and anuria;
C. icteric color of the skin precedes a drop in blood
pressure;
D. hyperthermia is replaced by hypothermia;
E. progressive DIC.
378. For emergency care in septic shock, it is not applicable:

A. paracetamol;
B. corticosteroids;
C. dopamine;
D. fresh frozen plasma;
E. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
379. The most important risk factor for endometritis after

childbirth is:
A. frequent sex life;
B. caesarean section;
C. childbirth through the natural birth canal;
E. associated upper respiratory tract infection.
380. Select characteristic complaints for acute endometritis:

A. pain throughout the abdomen;
B. pain radiating to the lower extremities;
C. fever;
D. nausea, vomiting;
E. dyspeptic disorders;
381. Parametritis occurs more often after:
A. childbirth, abortion
B. hypothermia;
C. accidental sexual intercourse;
D. ARVI
E. otitis media.
382. Select the research methods necessary for the diagnosis

of acute salpingo-oophoritis:
A. chest x-ray;
B. fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs;
C. urinalysis;
D. hysteroscopy;
E. laparoscopy.
383. Indicate an unfavorable period for surgery in case of

chronic inflammatory processes of the uterine appendages:
A. without exacerbation;
B. during an exacerbation;
C. fever is low-grade;
D. ESR more than 20 mm / hour;
E. The temperature is normal;
384. What parts of the female reproductive system are most

A. fallopian tubes;
B. ovaries;
C. uterus;
D. external genitalia;
E. vagina.
385. The main clinical symptom of tuberculosis of the

uterus appendages:
B. amenorrhea;
C. menometerorrhagia;
386. Rising gonorrhea is a defeat:
A. cervical canal;
B. fallopian tubes;
C. paraurethral glands;
D. urethra;
E. All of the above organs.
387. Clinical data characteristic of candidiasis:

A. Profuse curdled discharge from the genital tract,
itching and burning in the genital area;
B. Vaginal discharge with an unpleasant odor, plentiful,
gray-green, yellow, foamy; dysuria, itching, burning;
hyperemia, swelling, "raspberry neck", involvement in the
process of the vulva;
C. Mucous or mucopurulent discharge from the cervical
canal, often asymptomatic treatment;
D. Vaginal discharge is liquid, with an unpleasant "fishy"
smell, homogeneous adhering to the walls of the vagina, the
absence of an inflammatory reaction, itching and burning;
E. Drawing pains in the lower abdomen and lower back.
388. The diagnosis of gonorrhea can be established based

on:
A. detection in smears of microorganisms separated from
the genital tract located in pairs in the form of diplococci;
B. Gram negative cocci;
C. the location of bacteria inside the cell;
D. detection of any of the listed symptoms;
E. When establishing a diagnosis, a combination of all
the listed symptoms is necessary.
vaginosis:
B. dyspareunia;
C. profuse leucorrhoea;
D. dysuria;
E. Pelvic pain.
390. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is

A. Genital infantilism
B. External genital endometriosis
D. Chronic salpingitis
E. Adenomyosis
391. The patient has been taking antibiotics for acute
pyelonephritis for a long time. She had a burning sensation
in the vagina, itching, copious discharge. What complication
arose?
A. acute endometritis;
C. inflammation of the uterus;
D. candidal colpitis;
E. Cervical erosion.
392. An 18-year-old woman with a delay of menstruation

for 10 days had acute pain in the lower abdomen, fever up to
37.4 ° C, leukocytosis 12.4 109 / L. On palpation, the pain
spreads to the upper abdomen on the right. Differential
diagnosis is carried out with all of the following diseases,
except:
A. ectopic pregnancy;
B. appendicitis;
C. acute salpingitis;
D. colpitis;
E. Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor.
393. The following do not predispose to the development of

candidal vaginosis:
A. oral contraceptives;
B. pregnancy and diabetes;
C. taking antidepressants;
D. antihypertensive drugs
E. diuretics
394. What disease should be suspected if vaginal yeast

infection often recurs?
A. anemia;
B. diabetes mellitus;
C. systemic lupus erythematosus;
D. genital endometriosis;
E. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
395. Bacterial vaginosis is not characterized by the

following manifestation:
A. pH 5.0;
B. key cells;
C. severe inflammatory reaction;
D. an increase in the number of gardnerella;
E. Good effect from metronidazole treatment.
396. Ectopic pregnancy should not be differentiated:
A. with salpingitis;
B. with abortion;
C. with torsion of the cystoma legs;
D. with hemorrhage in the corpus luteum;
E. with endometritis;
397. The main clinical symptoms of pipe rupture do not

include:
A. sharp paroxysmal pain in the lower abdomen;
B. short-term loss of consciousness;
C. positive phrenicus symptom;
D. pallor of the skin, cold sweat.
E. Increase in body temperature;
398. Treatment measures for abortion should include:

A. observation against antibiotic therapy;
B. laparotomy after the development of a clinic of intra-
abdominal bleeding;
C. the appointment of drugs that enhance blood
coagulability;
D. immediate laparotomy and removal of the tube;
E. hormonal hemostasis.
399. The risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are not:

A. inflammatory diseases of the pelvic organs;
B. surgical interventions on the pelvic organs;
C. Tubal ligation
D. spontaneous abortion;
E. Herpes simplex virus infections.
401. At what daily dose is heparin used to prevent
thromboembolic complications?
A. 10 thousand units;
B. 20 thousand units;
C. 30 thousand units;
D. 15 thousand units.;
E. 5 thousand units.;
402. Preovulatory changes in the hormonal background are

characterized by an increase in the level
C. FSH and LH
D. prolactin
403. In the first phase of the menstrual cycle

A. LH secretion increases gradually, reaching maximum
values
B. endometrial glands become sawtooth
C. decreases the number of estradiol-binding receptors
D. there is an overgrowth of granulosa cells of the follicle
E. pupil symptom becomes "negative"
405. In the second phase of the menstrual cycle

A. There is a second peak in estrogen production
associated with the flowering of the corpus luteum
B. There is a pronounced proliferation of follicle granulosis
C. Intensive proliferation of the endometrial functional layer
occurs.
D. mucus crystallization symptom reaches maximum
severity
E. Basal temperature rises by O.2 degrees
406. The maturity of the follicle can be determined

A. blood FSH level
B. blood progesterone level
C. urinary pregnanediol level
D. ultrasound examination
E. basal temperature
407. Cervical index

A. allows you to diagnose the moment of ovulation
B. is rated on a 3-point system
C. determined during colposcitological examination
D. takes into account the shape of the vaginal cervix
E. allows you to assess the level of estrogen saturation
408. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the reproductive

period due to
A. impaired ectopic pregnancy
B. endometriosis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome
D. inflammatory process of the endometrium
E. Disorder of the mechanism of regulation of the
menstrual cycle
409. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with persistence of the
follicle proceeds against the background
D. androgenic saturation
E. glucocorticoid deficiency
410. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in menopause due to

A. Disorder of the circhoral production of gonadotropin
releasing hormone (GnRH)
B. adenomyosis
C. adenomatosis
D. Atrophic processes in the endometrium
E. Immunodeficiency
411. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period

includes bleeding
A. for blood diseases
B. with cardiovascular disease
C. with thyroid disease
D. for adrenal disease
E. Disorder of the formation of circhoral production of
gonadotropin releasing hormone
412. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with follicular atresia

occurs against


415. Hypoplastic endometrium is characteristic

A. for ovarian hypofunction
B. for dysfunctional uterine bleeding in menopause
C. For ectopic pregnancy
D. for endometrial precancer
E. for tecom and granulosa cell tumors of the ovary
416. The condition of the endometrium with follicular

atresia is characterized by
A. glandular hyperplasia
B. atypical glandular hyperplasia (adenomatosis)
C. High glycogen
D. Decidual changes
E. The emergence of large Arias-Stella cells
417. The condition of the endometrium with persistence of

the follicle is characterized by the presence of
A. the light glands of Overbeck
B. adenocontoms
C. adenomatosis
D. adenomyosis
E. glandular cystic hyperplasia
418. For the treatment of bleeding with persistence of the

corpus luteum, apply
A. curettage of the uterus
B. cervical electrical stimulation
C. gestagens
D. danazol
E. Parlodel
419. Indications for hysteroscopy:

A. Pregnancy
B. Suspicion of submucous uterine fibroids
C. Heavy uterine bleeding
D. Cervical stenosis
E. Common Cervical Cancer
420. The diagnosis of torsion of the cystoma legs confirms:

A. sudden abrupt onset of pain;
B. tension of the anterior abdominal wall;
C. positive symptom of Shchetkin-Blumberg;
D. detection of a sharply painful tumor in the pelvis;
E. leukocytosis, accelerated ESR.
421. Acute inflammation of the uterine appendages of

gonorrheal etiology
A. usually develops within the first week after infection
B. often complicated by pelvioperitonitis
C. is an indication for surgical treatment
D. diagnosed with hysterosalpingography
E. is an indication for the administration of ampicillin in a
course dose of 3.5 g
422. The diagnosis of gonorrhea can be made.

A. with a positive Borde-Zhangu reaction
B. if bilateral inflammation of the fallopian tubes is detected
C. In cases of concomitant inflammation of the urethra and
cervical canal
D. In cases of gonococcus detection
E. in cases of fever up to 38 degrees in response to
administration of gonovaccine

A. Inflammation of the vulvar mucosa
B. Inflammation of the uterine lining
C. Cervical inflammation
D. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes
E. Ovarian inflammation
424. A feature of the course of gonorrhea in women is
A. the presence of pronounced clinical symptoms with
lesions of the urethra and cervical canal
B. the presence of foamy discharge
C. bilateral lesion of the uterus
D. the lack of connection between certain stages of the
development of the disease and menstruation, childbirth,
abortion
E. Frequent development of parametritis
425. The criterion for cured gonorrhea in women is the

absence of gonococci in smears taken
A. during follow-up examinations using physiological
and combined provocations for three months
B. after three monthly nutritional provocations
C. after three series of monthly physical provocations
D. after a series of intramuscular injections of increasing
doses of gonovaccine
E. after completion of treatment
426. The rapid increase in the size of fibroids.

A. may be due to malignant degeneration of the node
B. usually associated with necrosis of the node
C. may be a symptom of endometrial cancer
D. is an indication for more active conservative therapy
E. always accompanied by pain
427. Conservative treatment of uterine fibroids

A. includes the use of diathermy
B. based on long-term use of androgens in a continuous
mode
C. can be carried out by preparations of a norsteroid
row
D. Based on long-term use of vitamin B12
E. includes chemotherapy
428. Common forms of ectopic pregnancy include

A. tubal pregnancy
B. Ovarian pregnancy
C. abdominal pregnancy
D. Interconnected pregnancy
E. Pregnancy in the rudimentary horn

with
A. bimanual research
B. ultrasound examination
D. puncture of the posterior fornix
E. serological pregnancy response
430. In the differential diagnosis of tubal pregnancy:

A. History data are usually not significant
B. The detection of an Arias-Stella phenomenon in
histological examination of the endometrium is indisputable
evidence.
sign
E. Under any conditions, puncture of the posterior fornix is
crucial
431. Inflammation of the perinatal fiber is called:
A. Peritonitis
B. Endometritis
C. Vaginitis
D. Parametritis
E. Vulvit

A. Uterine fibroids
B. Anovulation
C. Adenomyosis
D. Endometritis

indication
B. for laparoscopy
435. The pelvic floor is:

A. Hymen;
B. vagina;
C. Muscles and fascia of the perineum;
D. The vestibule of the vagina.
E. Douglas space
436 Cervical pregnancy
A. usually interrupted for 4-5 weeks
B. interruption usually accompanied by internal bleeding
C. Diagnosed only during curettage of the uterus
D. can be diagnosed by the location of the external
E. In most cases, can be treated with vacuum aspiration of
the ovum.
437. Cervical cancer

A. diagnosed with a specific Schiller test
B. more common in nulliparous women
C. found only in exophytic form
D. in the early stages manifested by acyclic bleeding
E. in the pre-invasive stage may be an indication for
cervical electroexcision
438. The acidic environment of the vagina is provided by

the presence of:
A. Epithelium of the vagina;
C. The wand of Dederlein;
D. Gonococcus.
E. Kokkov
439. If pathological changes in the cervix are detected, it is

necessary:
A. Take a smear from the changed area for cytological
examination;
B. Treat the neck with a disinfectant solution;
C. Surveillance with periodic examinations.
D. Take a smear on the flora
E. PCR analysis
440. Dysplasia
A. This is a pathology of the integumentary cervical
epithelium, in the entire thickness of which there are
histological signs of cancer, but there is no invasion of the
underlying stroma
B. does not apply to background diseases of the cervix
C. may be detected by a special study of a visually
unchanged cervix
D. is an indication for hysterectomy at any age
E. is usually treated with electrocoagulation of the affected
areas of the cervix

menstruation
menstruation
442. Internal endometriosis

A. diagnosed by colposcopy
B. rare
C. develops from the basal layer of the endometrium
D. Well amenable to hormone therapy
E. not detected by hysteroscopy
443. Relates to internal genital endometriosis.

A. endometriosis of the vaginal cervix
B. peritoneal endometriosis
C. Ovarian endometriosis
D. endometriosis of the interstitial uterine tubes
E. retrocervical endometriosis
444. Retrocervical endometriosis

A. may be manifested by pain, flatulence, delayed stool
on the eve and during menstruation
B. Impossible to diagnose with bimanual examination
C. diagnosed with hysterography
D. diagnosed with pneumopelviography
E. is treated only by surgery
445. The differential criterion that determines stage II of

cancer
A. ovary (FIGO classification, 1976), is

B. ascites
C. capsule rupture
D. hydrothorax
E. damage to the second ovary
F. Damage to the fallopian tube and uterus
446. A sign defining the III stage of ovarian cancer (FIGO
classification, 1976) is
A. ascites
B. capsule rupture
C. damage to the second ovary
D. damage to the uterus
E. the presence of metastases in the omentum
447. The most important additional method of preoperative

diagnosis of the nature of the tumor process in the ovary is
A. ultrasound examination
B. Bi-Contrast Pelviography
C. pelviotomography
D. lymphography
E. Cytological examination of punctate from the
abdominal cavity
448. The treatment of benign tumors of the ovary in

childhood and puberty is
A. in the course of chemotherapy
B. in the appointment of hormone therapy
C. Bilateral removal of appendages
D. in resection of the affected ovary
appendages
449. The <choice operation> in benign ovarian tumor in pre-

and postmenopausal women is
A. Ovarian resection
B. removal of the appendages from the lesion
D. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with
appendages
E. Subvaginal uterine amputation with appendages +
omentectomy
450. The <operation of choice> in ovarian cancer is

Wertheim operation
A. expanded hysterectomy with removal of paraaortic
lymph nodes
B. Extirpation or supravaginal amputation of the uterus
with appendages and omentectomy
C. hysterectomy with appendages
D. Removal of affected appendages
omentectomy

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
452. The leading method of complex treatment of malignant

ovarian cancer is
A. chemotherapy and surgical treatment
B. surgical treatment + radiotherapy
C. X-ray and hormone therapy
D. hormone therapy and surgical treatment
E. chemo-hormone therapy
453. Most malignant tumors of the ovary are
A. serous tumors
B. Mucinous tumors
C. Tumor stroma tumors
D. teratomas
E. metastatic tumors

E. Husband Disease
455. The good patency of the fallopian tubes can be judged

by the data of chromohydrotubation in case urine
A. Blue in one hour
E. Remains colorless after one hour and after 24 hours
456. According to the WHO classification (198O),

premenopause is called the period
A. From the end of reproductive age to the onset of
menopause
B. The length of time after the last menstruation
C. Last menstruation
D. Period of menstrual dysfunction until the last
menstruation
E. The Period Before the Menarche

menopause is called

B. The period from the onset of menstruation to the last
menstruation

A. 45 years
B. 5O years
C. 4O years
D. 55 years
E. 43 years
460. The autonomic-nervous manifestations of menopausal
syndrome include
A. Irritability
B. Sweating
C. Sleep Disorders
E. Decreased libido
461. The pathogenetic treatment of adrenogenital syndrome

(AGS) is
C. Glucocorticoid Therapy
462. To confirm Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome

A. Transfenoidal Arteriography
B. Determination of gonadotropin hormones
C. Ultrasound scan of the pelvic organs or
pneumopelviography
D. Hysterography
E. Karyotype study
463. Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster syndrome is an indication

A. For long-term parlodel therapy
B. For demedulation of the ovaries
C. For plastic surgery on the uterus
D. For colpopoiesis
E. For surgery on the pituitary gland
464. Sheehan syndrome

A. Develops with pituitary tumors
B. May be due to massive blood loss during childbirth
C. Characterized by hyperprolactinemia
D. Accompanied by hyperthyroidism
E. Accompanied by hypercorticism
465. When hyperprolactinemia is used

A. Diphenin
B. Pergonal
C. Clomiphene
D. Parlodel
E. Danazole
466. The most important role in the formation of prolapse

and prolapse of the walls of the vagina and uterus belongs to
traumatic injuries.
A. vaginal mucosa
B. wide uterine ligaments
C. Sacro-uterine ligaments
D. round uterine ligaments
E. Pelvic floor muscles
467. Uterine prolapse

A. not found in nulliparous women
B. may be associated with a sedentary lifestyle
C. It is considered complete if the cervix extends beyond the
genital gap
D. may be complicated by the development of decubital
ulcers
E. is an indication for Emmett's operation
468. The uterine suspension does not include

A. Own ligaments of the ovaries
B. round uterine ligaments
C. wide uterine ligaments
D. Suspending ovarian ligaments
E. Sacro-uterine ligaments
469. The most common chorionic carcinoma occurs after:

A. abortion
B. cystic drift
C. Normal birth
D. premature birth
E. inflammatory processes
470. Management tactics for patients with DMC of the
juvenile period:
A. limit yourself to symptomatic hemostatic and antianemic
therapy
B. carry out hormonal hemostasis with progesterone
C. Treatment and diagnostic curettage of the endometrium
and endocervix
D. complex therapy, including hemostatic, antianemic,
uterotonic therapy, with inefficiency - hormonal
hemostasis
E. hysteroscopy
471. The main clinical symptom of submucous uterine
fibroids:
B. Algodismenorea
C. menorrhagia
D. leucorrhoea
E. secondary infertility

A. Includes diathermy
B. Based on long-term use of androgens in a continuous
mode
row
D. Based on long-term use of Vitamin B12
473. For anovulatory menstrual cycle is characteristic

B. prolonged persistence of the follicle
C. Prevalence of gestagens in the second phase of the cycle
D. prevalence of gestagens in the first phase of the cycle
E. estrogen deficiency
474. The following does not apply to endoscopic research

methods in gynecology:
A. hysteroscopy
B. colposcopy
C. culdocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. Culdoscopy
475. Obstetric peritonitis most often occurs after:

A. childbirth
B. early spontaneous miscarriage
C. Cesarean section
D. Artificial abortion
E. Late spontaneous miscarriage
476. The hypothalamus produces the following hormones

A. gonadotropins
B. estrogens
C. gestagens
D. releasing factors
E. glucocorticoids
477. With exacerbation of chronic salpingoophoritis by the

type of pelvic nerve neuralgia, the effect does not have:
A. antibiotic therapy
B. electrophoresis of amidopyrine
C. Diadynamic currents
D. ultraviolet erythema
E. amplipulse therapy
478. Low doses of estrogen

A. stimulate FSH production
B. inhibit FSH production
C. enhance LH production
D. inhibit LH production
E. do not affect FSH production
479. Hysterosalpingography in the diagnosis of internal

uterine endometriosis is the most informative:
B. immediately after menstruation
C. on day 12-14
D. on day 16-18
E. on day 20-22
480. The complication most often arising with the

introduction of the IUD is:
A. ischemic cervical insufficiency
B. ectopic pregnancy
C. perforation
D. acute infection
481. In the differential diagnosis between uterine myoma

and ovarian tumor, the most informative:
B. Ultrasound
C. Puncture of the posterior fornix.
D. laparoscopy
E. Probing of the uterine cavity

A. hysterosalpinography
B. vaginal smear cytology
C. determination of basal temperature
D. endometrial biopsy
E. sperm examination
483. If you suspect a malignant lesion of the ovary in a

patient 55 years old, it is shown:
A. Removal of the uterus on the affected side
B. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with
appendages and resection of the greater omentum
D. Removal of the uterus with appendages on both sides
484. Tactics at the clinic of “acute abdomen” at the

prehospital stage:
A. Anesthesia
B. Cold on the stomach;
C. Cleansing enema;
D. Urgent hospitalization
E. Observation
485. When acyclic spotting appears:

A. hysterosalpingography
B. definition of PH
C. Ultrasound
D. definition of HCG
E. Diagnostic curettage
486. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during

A.4 months
B.5 months
C.6 months
D.2 months
E.3 months
487. The main method for stopping abnormal uterine

agents
C. Use of androgens
D. continuous use of 17-hydroxyprogesterone capronate
(17-OPK)
E. Separate diagnostic curettage of the mucous
membrane of the uterine cavity and cervical canal
488. Which parts of the female reproductive system are

most often affected by tuberculosis:
A. fallopian tubes
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
E. vagina

uterus appendages:
B. amenorrhea
D. infertility
E. NMC
vaginosis:
B. dyspareunia
C. Profuse discharge whitewash
D. dysuria
E. Pelvic pain

fibroids:
B. Algodismenorea
C. Uterine bleeding
D. secondary infertility
E. iron deficiency anemia
492. In the chain of steroid biosynthesis, the first

biologically active
hormone is
A. androstenedione
B. estradiol
C. estriol
D. testosterone
E. progesterone
493. The main estrogen hormone in a woman’s body
postmenopausal period is
A. estradiol
B. estrone
C. estriol
E. progesterone
494. Gonadotropins, which play a role in the pathogenesis of

hyperplastic processes and endometrial cancer, are secreted:
A. adrenal glands
B. hypothalamus
C. anterior pituitary
D. posterior pituitary gland
E. Ovaries

A. 10 thousand units
B. 20 thousand units
C. 30 thousand units
D. 25 thousand units
E. 15 thousand units
496. Delayed sexual development is lack

A. secondary sexual characteristics by 14 g., and
menstruation by 16 g.
B. secondary sexual characteristics by 12 g., and
C. secondary sexual characteristics by 14 g., and
D. secondary sexual characteristics by 12 g., and
E. secondary sexual characteristics by 13 g., and

A. surgery, blood transfusion
B. consultation of the therapist, anesthetist, surgery
C. Ultrasound, blood transfusion, surgery
D. blood transfusion, surgery
E. application of hemostatic therapy, blood transfusion,
surgery
498. In patients with amenorrhea with Itsenko-Cushing's

disease, there is a hyperproduction of the hormone
adenohypophysis
A. somatotropic
B. thyrotropic
C. adrenocorticotropic
D. follicle-stimulating
E. Luteinizing
499. The criterion of gonorrhea cured in patients is

established after treatment during
A.1 month
B.2 months
C.3 months
D.4 months
E. 5 months
500. The transferred inflammatory process of the pelvic

organs cannot be the reason:
A. tubal pregnancy
B. endometriosis
C. Adhesive process in the pelvis
D. painful intercourse
E. hydrosalpinx
END
1. Duration of menstrual cycle
A. 21-35 days
2. Phases of ovarian cycle

3. preovulatory changes in the hormonal background are characterized by an:
C. FSH & LH
4. The mechanism of action of hormones on the cell is due to the presence

of:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Receptors
C. Specific Enzymes
D. isoenzymes
E. Thromboxant
5. According to the WHO classification (1980), menopause is called
A. Period Of stable menstrual function
C. The length of after the last menstruation
Time span after reproductive age
6. According to the WHO classification (1980), is called
B. The period from the onset of menstruation to the last menstruation
10.Algodismenorea is:
C, Reduced blood loss during menstruation

D. meager spotting
E. Heavy periods
ll. Menorrhagia is:
E. Change in the rhythm Of menstruation
12. Metrorrhagia is
C. Increase in the duration Of menstruation
13. For anovulatory menstrual cycle With follicular atresia is

characteristic:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. polymenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
A, Lean menstmatlon
E. Pmnful menstruation
15. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during:
A. 4 months
B. 5months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
E. 2 months
16. For menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is characteristic:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhgo
C. Oligoamenorrhea
D. Premenomenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
17. In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal temperature is characterized

by:
B. Lack Of Temperature Rise
E, Rise In Temperature Immediately After Menstruation
18. menstrual cycle is characterized by:
C. Prevalence Of in phase 2
D. Prevalence of estrogen in phase I
E, Acyclic change in the body
A. Progestogens
B. Antiestrogens
D Prostaglandins
E. Antagonists Of Prostaglandins
20. most effective method of preventing unwanted pregnancy is:

B. Britm method
C. Spermicides
21 For planned hormonal contraception use:
A. Pure estrogens
B. Pure gestagens
D. Prostoglandins
E. Selective Inhibitors Of progesterone receptors
22. Intrauterine system "Mirena"
C. Has a therapeutic effect in submucous uterine myoma
D Does not have a contraceptive effect
E. Has a contraceptive effect by suppressing ovulation
23. the most common cause of female infertility is :
C. Endocrine
D. Uterine factor
24. During what time does not pregnancy occur in the presence of regular
sexual life, without the use of contraceptives, to consider the marriage
infertile:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D 3 years
E. 5 years
25. Name the composition of injectable contraceptives:

D. Antiandrogens
26. Specify the day of menstrual cycle to start estrogen-progestin

preparations for contraception:
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14
E. 28
27. Specify the most serious complication when taking combined oral
contraceptives:
E. Violation ofvltamrn metabolism
28. Infection with what microorganisms that cau$ requires treatment of
both partners:
A. Trichomonas
B. Candida
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci
E. E-co1i
29. In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years). the following are more
common:
A. Ovarian tumors
D. Vulvovaginitis
E. salpingo-oophoritis
30. Classification of pelvioperitonitis by stages, choose the correct

answer:
C. Adhesive. exudative
D. serous purulent fibrinous
E. Adhesive. fibrinous

accompanied by symptoms of irritation:
A. Endometritis
B. Colpitis
C. vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
32. The main clinical symptom or bacterial is:
A. Itching of the external genitals and perineum
B. Dyspareunia
C. Profuse leucorrhea with an unpleasant odor
33. Dunne the a stage is distinguished.
A. Desquamation
B. Infiltration
C. Proliferation
E. Edematous
34. The complication that most often arises in the management of the
intrauterine device is:
D. Acute infection
35. The symptom most characteristic of
A. Sharp pains
B. Burning, itching
C. High temperature
D. Ulceration
E. Spotting
B. Cesarean section
37. What are the diagnostic tests that indicate the presence of bacterial
vaginosis:
B. Lowering the ph. of vaginal secretions
D. Detection of abnormal cells
38. The anatomical features of the uterus in a newborn girl include:
A. The body of the uterus is small, the cervix is almost not expressed
B. The length or the cervix 3 times more the length of the uterus
C. The uterus has a bicorn shape
D. The body of the uterus is almost 2 times larger than the cervix
39. Small doses of estrogen'
A Stimulate FSH production
D, Suppress I.H production

40. The vaginal part of the cervix In a woman of reproductive age is

normally
A Cylindrical epithelium
D. Stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium
E. Cubic epithelium
41. The main estrogen hormone in the body of a woman in the postmenopausal
period is:
A. Estradiol
B. Estron
C. Estriol
E. Estrogen
A. priliminary consultation by a neurologist
D. Use of ultrasound examination of the uterus
E. Hormone testing
A. Miscarriage

force
E. Pregnancy
50. What is the mechanism of action of the amenorrhea method (LAM)
B. Changes In the structure of the endometrium
D. Thickening of ggrvieal mucus
E. Change movement
51. The high efficiency of the method amenorrhea (LAM), subject to all the
rules, is observed:
A_ Within 3 months after childbirth
C. u•ithin 9 months after childbirth
52. What is the mechanism Of action of voluntary surgical sterilization:
A. Thickening of cervical mucus
E. dilution of cervical mucus
53. Specify the mechanism of action of spermicides:
B. Destroy the membranes or spermatozoa
C. thickening Of cervical mucus
D. Violation of egg Implantation
54. Before giving a woman an injection of Depo-provera, the health worker

must make sure that she does not have:
A. Vaginal bleeding of unclear etiology
C. History of STIs

A Women of any age with more than 3 children
B. Women with migraines
D. Unborn women and adolescents
56. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the contraceptive

effect Of birth control pills that contain both synthetic estrogen and
progestin?
B. Inhibition or ovulation
C. Production of uterine secretions that are toxic to the developing embryo
E. Impairment of sperm transport due to uterotubal obstruction
57. A woman has period every 33 days lasting 8 days with large clots being
A. Metrorrhaggia
B. Menometrrohagia
C. Dysmenorhea
D. Menorrhagia
E. Polymenorrhea
58. Of the following. which woman is the best candidate for the female
condom"
A. 16 year Old high school student who has never had but wishes to start
with her new Is-year-old boyfriend
B. 29 year old secretary who has been married for 7 years, and is in
monogamous relationship with her husband
C. 40 year old obese smoker whose partner refuses to wear condoms
D. 34 year old woman who has three children and had a post-
partum tubal ligation
59. For conservative treatment of Abnormal uterine bleeding the 1st line
drug is:
A Oxytocin
B Nsaids
C. Tranexamic acid
D. Aminocaproic acid
E. Sodium ethamsylate
60. What is the most common presenting complaint ofa woman with vaginitis?
A Dyspareunia
C. Pelvic pam
D Fever
E. Irregular menses
61 The most effective method for diagnosing gonococcus is:
A Linked immunosorbent
B. Cultural
C. Bacterioscopic
62. A 23-year-old female patient complains of mucopurulent discharge from

the genital tract, itching at the antenatal clinic. By examination: the
mucous of the cervix is sharply hyperemic, edematous. the discharge is
profuse, mucopurulen. uterus In anteversion-flexio_ not enlarged, painless;
the appendages are not defined_ is the most likely diagnosis:
A Vulvovaginitis
B. Bartholinitis
C Endometritis
D. Acute salpingo-oophoritis
E. Endocervicitis.
63. For conservative treatment of Abnormal uterine bleeding the 1st line
drug is:
A. oxytocin
B. NSATDs
C. tranexamic acid
D. aminocaproic acid
E. sodium
65. A mother with a 4-year-old girl turned to a pediatric gynecologist. who
has itching and redness in the external genital area, purulent discharge
from the genital tract. These symptoms occur periodically throughout the
year. Genital hygiene IS observed. The child is observed by an allergist in
connection with atopic dermatitis (skin rashes on the elbows and on the
face). What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. salpingo-oophoritis
b. Atopic vulvovaginitis
c. Atopic
d. Endometntls
e. Endocervlcitls
66. Patient L. 24 years old. complains of profuse vaginal discharge with an

unpleasant smell of "rotten fish". Gynecological examination: the external
genital organs and vaginal mucosa without signs of inflammation. Vaginal
discharge copious. watery. with an unpleasant odor. Internal genital organs
without pathology. During of smears from the cervical canal and urethra,
"key cells" were found. What is the most likely diagnosis
C. Chlamydia] cervicitis
E. Bartholmltis
67. Task 2 Patient R.. 25 years old. was admitted to the gynecological
department With complaints of pain in the external genital area.
awkwardness when walking, fever. Pain appeared four days ago, after
hypothermia. Last period 3 weeks ago. By examination: in the area of the
right labia majora. a tumor-like formation measuring 4x3 cm is determined,
the skin above it is hyperemic, hot to the touch. fluctuation IS noted on
palpation. Examination of the cervix In the speculum and bimanual
examination revealed no abnormalities. What is the most probable
preliminary
C. Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor
D. Necrosis of subserous myomatatus node
E. Perforation of purulent formation of appendages
68. A 23-year-old female patient came to the antenatal clinic with

complaints of cramps during urination, fever up to 37. S 0 C, purulent
discharge from the genital tract. She has several sexual partners.
Examination by speculum: the mucous membrane of the urethra is hyperemic
the cervix is cylindrical, hyperemia of the area of the external opening of
the cervical canal. Discharge from the cervical canal is purulent. Define
the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor:
A. Prescribe an outpatient course of antibiotic therapy
C. Hospitalize the patient in a gynecological hospital
E. Hospitalization In the dermatovenerologic clinic
69, Patient S. 21 years Old. at the reception in the antenatal clinic

complains of mucopurulent discharge from the genital tract. itching.
Speculum exam: the cervix is hyperemic. edematous, with pinpoint
hemorrhages_ The discharge is profuse, mucopurulent. Vaginal examination
revealed no pathology. Was diagnosed Endocervitis
Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor.
A To urgently hospitalize the patient for surgical intervention
B. Antibiotic therapy, take culture for microorganisms
C. Healthy lifestyle. diet. phytohomeopatholic treatment.
D. Refer the patient to a dermatovenerologic dispensary
E. Recommended a re-examination after the next menstruation
70. Patient V. 22 years old. consulted a antenatal clinic with complaints

of discomfort in the vagina, burning sensation. itching. leucorrhea.
Considers himself ill for S days. Examination revealed: the mucous membrane
of the vagina and cervix is sharply hyperemic, edematous. deposits easily
removed with a gauze ball, a cheesy discharge. examination normal.
diagnosed: Vulvovaginal candidiasis. Define the tactics of the antenatal
clinic doctor
B. Hormonal therapy
D. Surgica1 therapy
E. Physiotherapy
71. A 20-year-old female patient turned to clinic, complaining of abundant.

purulent discharge from the genital tract, itching, burning and pam m the
vagina. She fell ill acutely, 2 days ago, when the above complaints
appeared. Menstrual function is not impaired. By examination: the vaginal
mucosa is sharply hyperemic, covered with a purulent bloom, bleeds easily
when touched. The cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is not
changed. is the most likely acutely. 2 days ago. when the above complaints
appeared. Menstrual function is not impaired. By examination: the vaginal
mucosa is sharply hyperemic, covered with a purulent bloom. bleeds easily
when touched. The cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is not
changed. What is the most likely diagnosis
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Acute colpitis
C. Endometritis
D. Endocervicitis
E. Bartholinltis
72. 5-year-old woman. unmarried. has sex 2-3 times a month, and sometimes
less often. Partners are different. There were no pregnancies. What method
of contraception is appropriate to prescribe?
A. Intrauterine deuce
B. Condom
73. A young nulliparous woman, 20 years old. has an active sex life outside
of manage. has several sexual partners. What methods Of contraception can
be recommended to the patient?
A. Condom
B. Spermicides
74. A 25-year-old female patient consulted a gynecologist to receive

recommendations on contraception. FROM ANAMNESIS: menarche from 1 3 years
old, irregular, painful, takes to relieve Bain. Married.In obstetric
anamnesis was I birth 3 years ago. She does not plan pregnancy for the next
2-3 years, she Wants reliable contraception. Somatically healthy,
Gynecological examination and ultrasound revealed no pathology. What method
of contraception is recommended for this patient?
B. Calendar rhythm meth04.
E. postcoital contraception
75. Patient L, 42 years old, consulted a gynecologist to receive

recommendations on contraception. suffers from hypertension for years.
Regular sex life in marriage. History of 2 births. 2 medical abortions,
General condition is satisfactory, blood pressure is 135/90 mm Hg., height
164 cm, weight 90 kg, BMI —35. Recommended method of contraception:
A. Condom
E. Postcoital contraception
Test TOP. ANATOMY
1. Sperm production begins in the
a. seminiferous tubules
b. epididymis
c. vas deferens
d. ejaculatory duct
2. The structure between the uterus and the vagina is the
a. uterine tube
b. cervix
c. vulva
d. hymen
3. Out of the following, which hormone does not secret from corpus luteum?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Relaxin
d) Testosterone
4. Mark the INCORRECT statement about prostate gland?
a) Located inferior to the urinary bladder
b) Secretion is thin and milky colored
c) Secretion is acidic in nature
d) Function in increasing the mobility of the sperm
5. Which of the following is an energy source for the sperm?
a) Somatostatin
b) Prostaglandin
c) Proteins
d) Fructose
OBS
1. Which one of the following fetal heart rate (FHR) is considered normal:
A. 120-160 per minute
B. 110-150 per minute
C. 100-180 per minute
E. 80-100 per minute
2. Pregnancy duration:
A. 36 weeks
B. 40 weeks
C. 42 weeks
D. 38 weeks
E. 37 weeks
A. 3-6 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 18-20 hours
E. 2-4 hours
A. 3 - 4 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 12-14 hours
A. 3 - 4 cm
B. 5 - 6 cm C. 7- 8 cm
D. 9-10 cm
E. 11-12 cm
6. What is determined by the 1st maneuvers of Leopold?
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
7. What is determined by the 2nd maneuvers of Leopold?
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Attitude
C. Type of fetus
D. Presenting part
E. Relation of presenting part to pelvic planes

10. Dilatation of cervix is full, amniotic membrane is intact. What phase of 1st
stage?
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase
C. Beginning of 1st stage
D. End of 1nd stage
E. Beginning of 2nd stage
11. What period is, if vaginal examination revealed the cervical dilatation of 5
cm?
A. 1st stage
B. Beginning of 2nd stage
C. End of 2nd stage
D. 3rd stage
E. Preliminary phase
12. Multipara has regular active contractions every 3-4 minutes for 35-40
seconds, which started 6 hours ago? What stage of labor is expected?
A. Latent phase
B. Beginning of labor
C. End of 1st stage
D. 2nd stage
E. 3 rd stage
A. 3-6 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 18-20 hours
E. 2-4 hours
A. 3 - 4 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C. 10-12 hours
D. 12-14 hours
A. 3 - 4 cm
B. 5 - 6 cm
C. 7- 8 cm
D. 9-10 cm
E. 11-12 cm
16. During pregnancy, which of the following is not true about maternal
cardiovascular physiology?
A. Heart rate decreases
B. Total peripheral resistance decreases
C. Arterial blood pressure decreases
D. Cardiac output increases
E. New murmurs are common
17. Why do pregnant women fill more easy breathing at the end of the
physiological pregnancy?
A. Absorption of amniotic fluid
B. Descending of the presenting part into the relaxed lower uterine segment
C. Contraction of the uterus
D. Reduction in fetal weight
E. Flexion of the fetal

18. What is determined by the second Leopold’s maneuver?
A. Height of the uterine fundus
B. Presenting part
C. Back and small parts of the fetus
D. Station of fetal head
E. Attitude
19. The smallest anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet is called:
A. Interspinous diameter
B. True conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric conjugate
E. Anatomic conjugate
20. The primigravida women fill the first quickening of fetus in:
A.12 weeks
B.16 weeks
C.18 weeks
D.20 weeks
E.22 weeks
21. The multipara women fill the first quickening of fetus in:
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 20 weeks
E. 22 weeks
22. The fundal height in 12 weeks of pregnancy is placed on the level of:
A. Umbilicus
B. Pubis symphysis
C. 2 cm above the pelvic inlet
D. Xiphisternum
E. 2 cm above umbilicus
23. Immunological tests depend upon secretion of:
A. Chorionic gonadotropins by trofoblast
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Prolactin
E. Lactogen
24. An 22-year-old maltipara with a last menstrual period of May 7 presents for
her first obstetric visit at 10 weeks. What is this patient’s estimated date of
confinement?
A. November 10
B. February 10
C. February 14
D. November 14
E. November 7
25. Which one of the following statements regarding physiological amount of
blood loss in 3 phases of labor is true?
A.100-550 ml
B. 250-500 ml
C. 550-650 ml
D. 500-700 ml
E.10% of placental weight

26. How change the concentrations of hormones during pregnancy?
A. Increase level of progesterone and estrogen
B. Decrease level of progesterone and estrogen
C. Increase level of androgen
D. Increase level of estrogen
E. Decrease level of estrogen
27. All of the following changes are seen in pregnancy except:
A. Increased stroke volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased intravascular volume
D. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
E. Increased pulse
28. In pregnancy all occurs except:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased blood volume
C. Increased MCV
D. Increased glomerular flow
E. Increased pulse
29. Which of the following is correct for urinary system changes in pregnancy:
A. Renal blood flow decreased
B. GFR increased
C. Decreased creatinine clearance
D. Kidneys shrink by 1cm
E. Polyuria
30. Cardinal movements of labor are:
A. Engagement → descent → flexion → internal rotation → extension →
restitution → external rotation → expulsion

B. Engagement → flexion → descent → internal rotation → extension →
expulsion
C. Engagement → flexion → descent → external rotation → expulsion
D. Engagement → extension → internal rotation → external rotation → expulsion
31. How does the blood content change during pregnancy?
A. Volume erythrocytes decreases
B.Hemoglobin’s and plasma increases
C.Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s and plasma decreases
D.Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s and plasma increases
E. Hemoglobin, plasma decreases
32. How does the blood and volume of the plasma change during pregnancy?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s decreases and plasma increases
D. Volume erythrocytes, hemoglobin’s increases and plasma decreases
E. No changes
33. What is the true sign of pregnancy?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Enlargement of the uterus
D. Auscultation of the fetal heartbeat
E. Pigmentation changes
34. Normal diameters of big pelvis?
A. 22-25-28-15 cm
B. 24-26-30-20 cm
C. 26-28-30-20 cm
D. 27-27-30-17 cm
E. 25-27-29-18 cm
35. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
A. Interspinous Diameter
C. True conjugate
D. Intertuberous diameter
E.Lateral conjugate
36. The shortest diameter of fetal head is:
A. Biparietal diameter
B. Suboccipitofrontal diameter
C. Occipitofrontal diameter
D. Bitemporal diameter
C. Verticomental
37. Shortest diameter of pelvis is:
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. True conjugate
D. Lateral conjugate
E. All are equal
38. Longest diameter of pelvic inlet is:
A. Transverse diameter
C. Obstetric conjugate
D. True conjugate
E. All are equal
39.What is common type of presentation?
A. Cephalic
B. Vertex
C. Face
D. Brow
E. Breech
40. What is the submentobregmatic diameter on the fetal head?
This distance extends from:
A. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the chin
B. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the angel of bregma
C. under surface of the occipital bоnе to the line of hair
D. junction of the neck and lower jaw to the center of bregma,
41. What is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter of the fetal head?
A. 10 cm, circumference 33 cm
B. 9.5 cm, circumference 32 cm
C. 12 cm, circumference 34 cm
D. 13.5 cm, circumference of 38 cm
42. Which is not included in active management of III stage of labor?
A. Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
B.Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of cord
C. General massage of uterus
D. Controlled cord traction
43. Cervical dilatation per hour in primapara is:
A. 1.0 cms
B. 1.5 cms
C. 1.7 cms
D. 2 cms
E. 2.5 cms
44. The graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and duration of
labor is:
A. Partogram
B. Cervicograph
C. Growth curve
D. Dilatation chart
E. Gravidogram
45.What is not characteristic of true labor pain:
A. Absence of ‘bag of waters’
B. Painful uterine contractions
C. Progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix
D. Pain often felt in front of the abdomen or radiating
towards the thighs
E. Irregular
46. A patient comes to your office with LMP 4 weeks ago. She denies any
symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.
She thinks that she may be pregnant.
Which of the following evaluation methods is most sensitive in diagnosing
pregnancy?
A. No evaluation to determine pregnancy is needed because the patient is
asymptomatic and therefore cannot be pregnant
B. Serum pregnancy test
C. Detection of fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment
D. Abdominal ultrasound
E. Bimanual exam to assess uterine size.

47. A healthy 22-year-old primapara presents for her first OB visit at 1 weeks
gestational age. She denies any significant medical history both personally and in
her family. All of the following tests should be ordered as part of the initial
prenatal care visit except
A. CBC
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis B surface antigen
D. Type and screen
E. One-hour glucose
GYNECOLOGY
1. FSH stimulates:
2. The treatment of patients with ovarian exhaustion syndrome should be
directed:
3. The effect of large doses of exogenous estrogen on the ovary:

4. In a negative test with gonadotropins in patients with amenorrhea, it is
shown:
5. In the ovary, androgens serve as a substrate for the formation of:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
D. Gestagenov
E. Testosterone
6. The following applies to hypergonadotropic amenorrhea:
E. Sheehan Syndrome
7. Women with DUB are at risk:
A. Miscarriage
force
E. Pregnancy
8. In the diagnosis of amenorrhea associated with acromegaly and gigantism, a
change is significant:
A. the size of the Turkish saddle on the radiograph of the skull
B. visual fields
C. FSH level
9. Gestagens are secreted:
D. Ovary cells
E. theca cells
10. Amenorrhea is considered pathological when menstruation is absent
A. before puberty
B. during puberty
C. during lactation
E. during pregnancy
11. False amenorrhea can be caused by:
E. Ovarian tumor
12. Ovarian exhaustion syndrome needs to be differentiated

13. Treatment for DUB does not include:
A. physiotherapy
B. vitamins
C. uterotonics
D. antibiotics
A. colposcopy
B. hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. bacterioscopy
E. laparoscopy
15. In what cases, for diagnostic purposes, puncture of the abdominal cavity
through the posterior arch is indicated?
A. suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy;
B. suspected ovarian cancer;
C. dysfunctional uterine bleeding;
D. uterine fibroids;
E. suspected ovarian apoplexy;
A. inspection with speculum;
B. combined vaginal rectal examination;
C. cytological examination of the contents of the uterine cavity;
D. puncture of the posterior fornix;
E. determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.

17. The main method for the diagnosis of dysplasia and pre-invasive cancer of
the vulva is:
B. Vulvoscopy
E. Colposcopy
18. The most informative method for the diagnosis of genital prolapse is:
A. ultrasound;
C. sigmoidoscopy;
D. cystoscopy;
E. hysteroscopy.
E. heavy periods
20. Menorrhagia is:

21. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with follicular atresia occurs against
A. Uterine fibroids
B. Anovulation
C. Adenomyosis
D. Endometritis
25. The diagnosis of impaired tubal pregnancy is an indication
B. for laparoscopy
A. 45 years
B. 5O years
C. 4O years
D. 55 years
E. 43 years
27. The autonomic-nervous manifestations of menopausal syndrome include
A. Irritability
B. Sweating
C. Sleep Disorders
E. Decreased libido
28. Metrorrhagia is

29. The most informative in the differential diagnosis between uterine myoma
and ovarian tumor:
B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
30. Hysteroscopy allows to diagnose:
a) subserous uterine fibroids;
b) submucous uterine fibroids;
c) tubal-peritoneal infertility;
d) Stein-Levinthal syndrome;
e) tubal pregnancy.
31. The screening method to detect cervical pathology in modern conditions is:
B. smear cytology;
E. PCR for HPV
32. The presence of ovulation can be judged by the results of all the studies listed
below:
B. Ultrasound monitoring of the development of a dominant follicle
D. Determination of the concentration of sex steroid hormones in the blood on
days 12-14 of the menstrual cycle
33. Screening - a method for detecting cervical pathology is:
A. Visual inspection
B. Colposcopy
C. Radionuclide method
D. Cytological examination of smears
E. Laparoscopy
A. ovarian tumors;
C. congenital anomalies of the genital organs;
D. vulvovaginitis;
E. salpingo-oophoritis.
A. primary, secondary
B. reactive, terminal, toxic
C. adhesive, exudative
D. serous, purulent, fibrinous;
E. adhesive, fibrinous
accompanied by symptoms of bryuschina irritation?
A. Endometritis.
V. Kolpit
C. vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
37. Which of the following inflammatory diseases is an indication for
laparotomy in case of suppuration?
A. Parameter
V. Kolpit
C. vulvovaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bartholinitis
A. detection of key cells;
B. lowering the pH of vaginal secretions;
C. negative amino test of whites;
D. detection of abnormal cells
E. increase in basal temperature.
A. desquamation
B. infiltration
C. proliferation
D. tissue decomposition
E. edematous
40. The complication that most often arises in the management of the IUD is:
D. acute infection;
E. pelvic vein thrombosis.

A. sharp pains;
B. burning, itching
D. ulceration;
E. spotting.
A. frequent sexual activity;
B. cesarean section;
C. childbirth through the birth canal;
E. corresponding upper respiratory tract infection
43. The main clinical symptom of tuberculous lesions of the uterine appendages:
B. amenorrhea;
C. menometrorrhagia;
44. Which of the following symptoms is the main clinical one for bacterial
vaginosis?
B. dyspareunia;
C. profuse leucorrhoea with an unpleasant odor;
D. dysuria;
E. pelvic pain.
45. Specify the lack of an intrauterine device:
A. increases the risk of inflammatory diseases
B. contraindications for lactation
C. short term
D. a large number of side effect
E. effect on lactation
46. Specify the time during which the sperm retains the ability to fertilize during:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 72 hours
47. The most informative way to assess the functional state of the ovaries is:
D. laparoscopy
F. Hysteroscopy
E. heavy periods
49. Basal temperature is measured:
A. In the morning
B. In the evening;
C. 2 times a day;
D. After 3 hours.
E. After 5 hours

Training test questionnaire for Reproductive system
1. Which imaging modality is used as breast diagnostic screening?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. Ultrasound
D. CT-scan
E. MRI
2. Identify the view on the mammogram
A. Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

B. Bilateral craniocaudal (CC)
C. Lateromedial (LM)
D. Lateromedial oblique (LMO)
E. Mediolateral (ML)
3. Simple cyst was detected during ultrasound examination. Which BI-RADS classification it
belongs to?
A. BI-RADS 0
B. BI-RADS 1
C. BI-RADS 2
D. BI-RADS 3
E. BI-RADS 4
4. Which imaging modality is the best for evaluation of breast cyst?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. MRI
D. CT-scan
E. Ultrasonography
5. Which imaging examination can be performed to study fallopian tubes with iodine containing
contrasting agent?
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Intravenous pyelography
D. Ultrasonography
E. Cystoscopy
6. A 48 year- old female came to mammologist, she complained to breast lump. Clinical
examination revealed palpable mass of breast. What is first choice imaging modality in this
case?
A. Mammography
B. Chest X-ray
C. MRI
D. CT-scan
E. Ultrasonography
7. A 50-year-old women admitted to oncology center. She has complains of pain and last week
abnormal bleeding. Hb level 70 . A 2 year ago she had diagnosed with cervical polyp (15
mm) Which imaging study is most suitable for clarifying the diagnosis?
A. Ultrasound
B. CT-scan
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
E. X-ray
8. A 32-year female was consulted to the doctor with complain to heavy and painful periods.
Doctor suggested pelvic endometriosis. Which imaging modality is the first choice in this
case?
A. Ultrasound
B. CT-scan
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
E. X-ray
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Training Tests
A) Gonadotropins
b) Estrogen
b) Gestagens
d) Leasing – factors
2) FSH stimulate:
A) Growth of follicles in the ovaries
b) Products of corticosteroid
(b) TTG products in the thyroid gland
D) All of the above
3) Progestin:
A) Reduce blood cholesterol
b) Determine the content of primary and secondary sexual characteristics
b) All of the above
4) The group of risk of inflammatory after birth diseases include women:

A) With a burdened obstetric and gynecological history
b) With chronic inflammatory process
c) With Extra Energy inflammatory diseases (tonsillitis, pyelonephritis)
D) All of the above
5) in inflammatory diseases of female genital organs is noted:

(a) Prevalence of microbial associations
b) Increase the number of anaerobic and virus
(b) increased permeability and exhaustion
6) The causes of infertility of women in marriage are:

(a) Inflammatory diseases of the genital organs
b) Infantialism and hypoplasia of genital organs
(b) General debilitating diseases and intoxication
7) Features of normal menstrual cycle are:

A) Ovulation
b) Formation of yellow body in the ovary
b) Prevalence of progesterone in the second phase of the cycle
D) All of the above
8) Estrogen:
A) Promote peristalsis of the uterus and tubes
b) Strengthen the processes of ossification
b) All of the above
9) Androgens are formed:

A) In the ovaries (interstitial cells, Strome, inner Take)
b) In the net zone of the adrenal cortex
b) All of the above
10) In its action on the body of estrogen:
A) Block receptors to oxytocin
b) Cease (weaken) proliferative processes in the endometrium
b) Cause secretory transformations in the endometrium
D) All of the above
11) Increase of rectal temperature in the second phase of menstrual menstrual

cycle
due to:
A) The action of the ovarian progesterone
b) The action of progesterone, which reduces the heat return
(b) Intensification of biochemical processes in the uterus
D) All of the above
12) The full value of the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is evidenced by:
A) Increase in basal temperature in the first phase of the cycle
b) Proliferative processes in the endometrium in the second phase of the cycle
c) All of the above

A) 4 months
b) 5 months
c) 6 months
d) All of the above
14) In the interaction of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland and ovaries in the
regulation of the menstrual cycle:
A) One link (overlying) stimulates the function of another link
b) The underlying link brakes or regulates the function of the overlying
b) The function of the links is synchronous
D) The shutdown of one link violates the whole system
e) All of the above
15) After ovulation, the egg retains the ability to fertilize during:
A) 6 hours:
b) 12-24 hours;
in) 3-5 days;
d). 10 days
16) During puberty, the following major changes occur in the body:
(a) Suppression of the Gonadotropic function of the pituitary gland;
b) Activation of hormonal function of ovaries;
c) The rhythm of the FSH allocation is not established;
D) Regular "peaks" of the LG excretion are established;
17) Body mass deficiency is usually one of the reasons:

a) Delay in the onset of the first menstruation;
b) Long-term formation of menstrual function;
b) The development or aggravation of menstrual dysfunction;
d) All listed;
18) Mechanism of action of hormones on a cage is caused by presence:

a) Prostaglandins;
b) Receptors;
b) Specific enzymes;
d) All listed;

a) Stimulate FSH products;
b)Ssuppress FSH products;
b) Strengthen the production of LG;
D) Suppress the production of LTG.
20) Desquamation of the functional layer of endometrium occurs due to:

a) Pathway; "Peak" reset luther
b) Reducing the level of estrogen and progesterone in the blood;
b) Reducing the level of prolactin in the blood;
d) Increase the level of estradiol in the blood;
e) "Peak" release of Follitropin.
21) Physiological Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation:
a) Girls under 10-12 years of age;
b) During pregnancy;
b) During lactation;
d) In old age;
e) All of the above are true.
22) The reason of false amenorrhea in girls of Puberty Nogo age can be all
listed,
except:
a) Hymen atresia;
b) Atrezia Vagina;
b) Uterine hyperplasia;
d) Atrezia Cervical canal.
23) False amenorrhea may be caused by:

a) Cervical canal atresia;
b) Aplasia of the body of the uterus;
b) The dysgenesis of the Gonnad;
d) All the diseases listed above.
24) Lack of sexual development is due to:

a) Transferred infectious diseases in early childhood;
b) Undergone inflammatory processes of pelvic organs of viral etiology;
b) Chromosomal anomalies;
d) All listed;
25) Delay of sexual development is absence:

a)Secondary sexual characteristics by 14 years and menstruation by 16 years;
d) Secondary sexual characteristics to 12 years, and menstruation to 18 years.
Tests for the propedeutics of childhood diseases.
1. Delayed sexual development in girls consider the absenceof the secondary sexual
characteristics at the age?
A. 10-13
B. 11-14
C. 12-16
D. 13-17
E. 14-18
2. What age corresponds to the degree of puberty (years) Ма3P2 Ax2Мео?
A. 16-17
B. 14-15
C. 12-13
D. 10-11
E. 8-9
3. One of the main reasons for delayed sexual development, it is believed
A. Birth injury
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Chromosomal abnormality
D. Infectious diseases
E. Stressful situation
4. The girl has 3 days of life, there is an engorgement of the mammary glands, bloody
discharge from the genital tract, hyperemia of the skin. Determine what condition you are
talking about?
A. sclerema
B. jaundice of newborn
C. sexual crisis
D. hermaphroditism
E. hypothyroidism
5. When examined by a pediatrician, a 2-month old boy, there is a change in the urine
stream, during urination, in the form of leakage into the perineum. Objectively: in the area of
the penis there is a splitting of the lower wall of the urethra. What pathology of the genital
organs is mentioned in the task?
A. epispadias
B. hypospadias
C. cryptorchidism
D. anarchism
E. micropenis
6.A boy of 8 years old is being examined by a pediatrician. Objectively: a change in the
timbre of the voice, an increase in the width of the shoulder girdle, hair growth in the armpits,
pubic region, enlargement of the penis and testicles. What state does the objective status
correspond to?
A. The child is healty
B. hypopituitarism
C. False male hepmaphroditism
D. Premature sexual development
E. Delayed sexual development
7. On a routine examination, the girl 14 years old. Objectively: the mammary glands are
round in shape, the nipples rise above the areola. Pubic hair in a triangle, long, curly, thick. In
the hair is thick, curly over the entire surface. Menses are regular. Estimate the sexual
development of a girl according to Tanner?
A. Мао РоАхоМео
B. Ма2Р1 АхоМео
C. Ма3 Р3 Ах1Ме1
D. Ма3 Р2Ах2 Мео
E. Ма3 Р3 Ах3 Ме3
8.A 2-year-old girl is being examined by a pediatrician Objectively: physical development
corresponds to age, there is an increase in mammary glands. What changes do you see in the
patient?
A. Isolated thelarche
B. Isolated adrenarche
C. Sexual crisis
D. Premature pubarche
E. Premature sexual development
9.At the reception at FMC №3, a mother and her 8-year-old daughter addressed.Objectively:
the mammary glands are significantly enlarged, hair growth in the armpits, pubic region, the
appearance of the first menarche. What state is described in the task?
A. sexual crisis
B. premature sexual development
C. delayed sexual development
D. hypothyroidism
E. The child is healty
Urology Test for students: REDRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
1). Marriage should be considered infertile if pregnancy is not comes?

1. within 6 months
2. within 1 year
3. within 2 years
4. within 3 years
5. More than 3 years
2). The lower limit of normal sperm count in 1 ml should be (according

to WHO criteria):
1. 20 million
2. 40 million
3. 60 million
4. 80 million
5. 100 million
3). Azoospermia - is
1. The absence of the cells of spermatogenesis in the ejaculate and

spermatozoas
2. The presence of single cells of spermatogenesis in the ejaculate
3. The presence of only dead sperm in the ejaculate
5. the absence of ejaculate
4). Aspermia - is
4. The small amount of sperm in the ejaculation

5). Male sex cells (sperm) are formed in:
1. Ovaries
2. Gonad - testis
3. Epididymis
4. Prostate
5. Seminal vesicles
6). Male sex hormones are produced in:
1. Ovarian Theca cells
2. Prostate
3. Testis Leydig cells
4. Seminal vesicles
5. Sertoli cells
7). Reproductive function is:
1. The regulation of sexual activity
2. The fusion of two cells
3. Regulation of oogenesis and spermatogenesis
4. Reproductive function
5. Sexual arousal and attraction
8). Functions of male sex hormones:
1. The regulation of oogenesis
2. The development of secondary sexual characteristics
3. Ensuring the development of mammary glands
4. Ensure the development of the genital organ

5. Regulation of water-salt metabolism
9). What is oligozoospermia?
3. The absence of mature sperm in the ejaculate
4. The small amount of sperm in the ejaculate
10). How much the normal amount of single ejaculate in an adult?
1. 0.5-1.5 ml
2. depends on body weight men
3. 2.0-5.0 ml
4. 6-7 ml
5. 8-10 ml
11). What is aspermia?
3. The absence of motile sperm in the ejaculate 4. The absence of mature

sperm in the ejaculate 5. The small number of sperm in the ejaculate
12). What is hemospermia?
1. The presence of blood in urine
2. The total hematuria
3. The discharge of blood after urination
4. The presence of blood in the ejaculate

5. The discharge of blood from the urethra at the beginning
of urination
13). What is necrospermia?
3. The absence of mature
4. The small amount of
14). What is prostatorrhea?
1. The allocation of prostate fluid during erection
2. The allocation of prostate fluid in the end of the act of
defecation or urination 3. Premature ejaculation
4. The allocation of semen without erection
5. Prostate secretions during intercourse.
15). Oligozoospermia may be the result of: 1. After

severe infections
2. Diabetes
3. Nephroptosis
4. Urolithiasis
5. Genitourinary fistula
16). Where occurs maturation of majority of the
sperm?
1. in the testis
2. in the epididymis
3. in the vas deferens

4. in the seminal vesicles
5. throughout ejaculatory tract
17). Insufficient numb

er of sperm with normal morphology is
1. Asthenozoospermia
2.Oligozoospermia
3. Necrospermia
4. Hemospermia
5. Theratozoospermia
8). Causes of male infertility
1. Pyelonephritis
2. Urolithiasis
3. Acute respiratory viral
infections
4. Varicocele
5. Nephroptosis
20). Testicular inflammation is
1. Prostatitis
2. Epididymitis
3. Orchitis
4. Cystitis
5. Vesiculitis
PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER
GYNECOLOGY TESTS (500) FOR THE 5th YEAR
STUDENTS OF THE GENERAL MEDICINE.
1) A positive test (small test) with dexamethasone indicates
that:
A. The source of hyperandrogenism is the ovaries
B. The source of hyperandrogenism is the adrenal gland
E. Hyperandrogenism associated with an ovarian tumor
2) The therapeutic and diagnostic effect of dexamethasone

E. Inhibition of pituitary function
3) To restore generative function during gonad dysgenesis, it

is necessary:
A. Long-term cyclic therapy with sex hormones
B. Stimulation of ovulation
C. Functional diagnostic tests
D. Sphenoid ovarian resection
E. Restoring generative function is futile.
4) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is called:

A. bleeding due to changes in the uterus
B. bleeding in inflammatory diseases of the uterus
C. due to impaired rhythmic secretion of ovarian
hormones
D. Genital bleeding in Werlhof disease
E. Bleeding due to miscarriage

dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period is:
A. hypoluteinism
B. follicle persistence
C. atresia of the follicle
E. disorders in the blood coagulation system
6) The most informative way to assess the functional state of

the ovaries is:
D. laparoscopy
E. Hysteroscopy
7) According to the tests of functional diagnostics (TFD), it

is impossible to determine:
A. biphasic menstruation
C. Ovulation
8) For anovulatory menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is
characteristic:
A. amenorrhea
B. Algomenorrhea
C. oligoamenorrhea
D. promenomenorrhea
E. hypomenorrhea
9) The conditions for cyclic hormone therapy in patients

with menstrual irregularities are:
C. The use of a minimum amount of estrogen,
taking into account the age of a woman, monitoring tests
of functional diagnostics
D. use of gestagens, ultrasound examination of the
uterus
E. hormone testing
10) A 16-year-old girl developed spotting from the genital

tract, lasting 8 days after a 2-month delay. The first
menstruation appeared 4 months ago for 2 days, after 28
days, moderate, painless. Denies sexuality. The
development is correct, well physically built. When recto-
abdominal examination of the pathology is not detected. Нb-
80 g / l. Probable diagnosis:
A. hormone-producing ovarian tumor
B. cervical cancer
D. juvenile uterine bleeding
E. endometrial polyposis
11) Pathogenetic therapy of endometrial hyperplastic
processes in women of reproductive age consists in the use
of:
A. estrogen-progestogen drugs or progestogens
B. dexamethasone
C. androgen
D. Thyroidin
E. estrogen
12) In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal temperature is

characterized by:
A. rise in temperature after ovulation
B. lack of temperature rise
C. rise in temperature before ovulation
D. rise in temperature before menstruation
E. Rise in temperature immediately after menstruation
13) Most often, women aged 40-45 years complain of:

A. Algodismenorea
B. heavy periods
C. irregular menstruation
D. premenstrual tension
E. painful menstruation
14) Anovulatory menstrual cycle is characterized by:

D. prevalence of estrogen in phase 1

A. Gonadotropins
B. Estrogens
C. gestagens
D. Releasing factors
E. prolactin
14) Releasing factors carry out:

A. Transmission of nerve impulses to the nervous system
B. Production of gonadotropins
C. Estrogen Production
D. Production of FSH and LH
E. ACTH production
15) In the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex are formed:

A. Glucocorticoids
B. Aldosterone
C. Norepinephrine
D. Androgens
E. Estrogens
16) FSH stimulates:


18) Polymenorrhea is:

19) For anovulatory menstrual cycle with short-term

persistence of a mature follicle is not typical:
D. In the scraping of the endometrium in the second phase
of the cycle - the late phase of proliferation
20) The treatment of patients with ovarian exhaustion

syndrome should be directed:
21) The mechanism of action of hormones on the cell is due

to the presence of:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Receptors
C. Specific Enzymes
D. Isoenzymes
E. Thromboxant
22) The effect of large doses of exogenous estrogen on the

ovary:

A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
E. 2 months
24) Clinical manifestations, a typical form of gonadal
dyskinesia karyotype (45XO / 46XY) and no menstruation:
A. Sheehan Syndrome
B. Swyer Syndrome
C. Bisexual Gonad Syndrome
D. Symmonds disease
E. Shereshevsky-Turner
25) In patients with amenorrhea with Symmonds disease,

the following clinical manifestation is not observed:
A. Severe metabolic endocrine disorders
B. Premature aging
C. Decreased appetite
D. Sudden exhaustion
E. Massive bleeding
26) Amenorrhea associated with gigantism:

A. With hyperproduction of ACTH until puberty
B. With hyperproduction of GH, until puberty
C. With hyperproduction of ACTH after puberty
D. With hyperproduction of GH after puberty
E. With hyperproduction of ACTH during puberty
27) When treating a patient with any form of gonadal

dysgenesis, recovery, as a rule, is excluded:
A. Menstrual function
B. Sexual function
C. Generative function
D. Proliferative function
E. Ovulation
28) Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome is:

A. A “pure” form of gonadal dysgenesis
B. A typical form of gonadal dysgenesis
C. "Mixed" form of gonadal dysgenesis
D. False male hermaphroditism
E. The pathological process associated with massive
bleeding in childbirth
29) In a negative test with gonadotropins in patients with

amenorrhea, it is shown:
30) In the ovary, androgens serve as a substrate for the

formation of:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
D. Gestagenov
E. Testosterone
31) The main estrogen hormone in the body of a woman in

the postmenopausal period is:
A. Estradiol
B. Estron
C. Estriol
E. estrogen
32) The following applies to hypergonadotropic

amenorrhea:
E. Sheehan Syndrome
33) Features of the treatment of DUB in menopausal

patients are:
A. Conducting a separate diagnostic diagnostic curettage
to verify the diagnosis
34) Women with DUB are at risk:

A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency and
anomalies of the birth force
E. Pregnancy
38) In the diagnosis of amenorrhea associated with
acromegaly and gigantism, a change is significant:
A. the size of the Turkish saddle on the radiograph of the
skull
B. visual fields
C. FSH level
39) Gestagens are secreted:

D. Ovary cells
E. theca cells
40) Amenorrhea is considered pathological when

menstruation is absent
A. before puberty
B. during puberty
C. during lactation
E. during pregnancy

E. Ovarian tumor
42) Ovarian exhaustion syndrome needs to be differentiated

43). Treatment for DUB does not include:

A. physiotherapy
B. vitamins
C. uterotonics
D. antibiotics
44). Which test of functional diagnostics indicates the

presence of a biphasic menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
45) Algodismenorea is:

E. heavy periods
46). Menorrhagia is:

47) Metrorrhagia is

dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period is
A. increased FSH
B. follicular persistence
C. follicular atresia
E. LH increase
49) The main method for stopping dysfunctional uterine
agents
C. Use of 17-hydroxyprogesterone capronate (17-OPK)
continuously
D. Separate diagnostic curettage of the mucous
membrane of the uterine cavity and cervical canal.
E. use of progestogens
50) The composition of injectable contraceptives includes:

A. prolonged progestogens
B. conjugated estrogens
D. Antiandrogens
E. estrogens

D. follicular atresia
E. Severe Infectious Diseases
52) False amenorrhea may be the result of:

A. hypothyroidism
B. neurogenic anorexia
C. testicular feminization syndrome
D. hyperthyroidism
E. Atresia hymen
53) What additional research methods are not used to clarify

the diagnosis of amenorrhea:
A. Ultrasound examination of the internal genital organs
B. Functional diagnostic test examination
C. Craniography
D. Separate curettage
E. Determination of hormone levels
54) What form of amenorrhea indicates a negative result of

a functional test with combined estrogen-progestogen
drugs?
A. Hypothalamic
B. Pituitary
C. Ovary
D. Uterine
E. Central
55) When a combination of uterine fibroids and internal

uterine endometriosis in a patient of reproductive age with
hyperpolymenorrhea and secondary anemia is shown:
A. Extirpation of the uterus with appendages
B. Subvaginal uterine amputation without appendages
C. Subvaginal amputation of the uterus with fallopian
tubes, with excision of the mucous membrane of the
cervical canal
D. Subvaginal amputation of the uterus with tubes
E. Uterine amputation with appendages
56) The term "Adenomyosis" applies:
A. In all cases of detection of endometriosis, regardless of
location
B. Only with focal growths of endometrioid tissue in the
muscle layer of the uterus
C. With endometriosis, which is accompanied by the
formation of cysts
D. Only in cases when the germination of the myometrium
is accompanied by the presence of myomatous nodes
E. With endometriosis of the cervix
57) For internal endometriosis of the uterus of the 3rd stage

on the eve of menstruation, a bimanual examination is not
characteristic of:
A. Uterine compaction
B. Uterine enlargement
C. Uterine softening
D. Severe soreness
E. Uterus reduction
58) A 38-year-old patient complained of abdominal pain.

The pain appeared today 3 hours ago, weakly positive with \
m Shchetkina. T-38.2 C, leukocytosis. With a gynecological
examination, the uterus is enlarged to 8 weeks, nodular.
Diagnosis:
A. Inflammation of the appendages
B. Charioamnionitis
C. Endometritis
D. Necrosis of myoma nodes
E. Salpingitis
59) A 38-year-old woman complained of very painful

menstruation during the last 6 years, especially in the first 2
days. A history of 2 births and 2 medical abortions without
complications, the last year ago. The menstrual cycle is not
broken. The last menstruation ended 5 days ago. She was
protected from pregnancy by interrupted sexual intercourse.
On examination, the abdomen without painful, the cervix
and vagina without pathologies, the body of the uterus is
slightly more than normal, dense, the appendages are not
palpable. Probable diagnosis:
A. Uterine fibroids
B. endometriosis
C. Uterine pregnancy
D. Endometrial polyposis
E. Adenomyosis
60) The main symptom of submucous uterine fibroids:

A. Chronic pelvic pain
B. Algodismenorea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Acute pain
E. Chills
61) The most informative method for diagnosing a born

myomatous node:
A. Transvaginal ultrasound
B. Inspection by the speculum
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Bimanual research
62) An informative method for the diagnosis of submucous

myomatous node:
A. Inspection by the speculum
B. Laparoscopy
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Colposcopy
E. Sonography
63) The method of drug treatment of uterine fibroids in

reproductive age:
A. gestagens
B. Estrogens
C. Androgens
D. Progestins
E. Vitamin Therapy
64. What are the leading clinical symptoms of dysplasia and

in situ cervical cancer:
A. pelvic pain;
E. infertility.
65) The optimal amount of surgical treatment in the

presence of uterine fibroids with the location of the node in
the cervix:
A. Subvaginal uterine amputation
B. Conservative myomectomy using vaginal access
C. Extirpation of the uterus
D. Surgical treatment of uterine fibroids does not result in
such localization
66) Which of the following symptoms are not related to

uterine fibroids?
A. Palpable palpable tuberous formation in the small pelvis
associated with the cervix
C. Heavy menstruation
D. Dysfunction of the bladder and rectum
E. Rare menstruation
67) What complications are characteristic for the subserous

form of uterine fibroids?
A. Malignant degeneration of the tumor
B. Twisting the legs of the tumor
C. Uterus inversion
D. Posthemorrhagic anemia
E. Bladder dysfunction
68) To prevent the development of cervical endometriosis,

the menstrual cycle:
A. 1-2 days before your period
B. Immediately after menstruation
C. On day 12-14
D. On day 16-18
E. On day 16-25
69) Basal temperature is measured:

A. In the morning
B. In the evening;
C. 2 times a day;
D. After 3 hours.
E. After 5 hours

A. round ligament;
E. Broad ligament
71. The microorganisms that are most often the causative

agents of inflammatory diseases of the female genital organs
of a non-specific etiology do not include:
1. staphylococci
2. streptococci
3. gonococci
4. gardnerella
5. anaerobes
A. uterine artery;
B. ovarian artery;

A. dermoid cyst
B. follicular cyst
D. piovar
74. With a slight bleeding from the ovary, detected by

laparoscopy, is performed:
of laparoscopy;
D. laparotomy and removal of the uterine appendages one
hundred
75. What is the most common complication in benign

ovarian tumors?
B. capsule rupture;

B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
77. With genital tuberculosis, the primary focus is most

often localized:
A. In the lungs
B. In bone
C. In the urinary system
D. In the lymph nodes
E. On the peritoneum
78.. What parts of the female reproductive system are most

A. fallopian tubes
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
E. vagina
79. In what age period is tuberculosis of the internal genital

organs most often detected?
A. in childhood
B. puberty
C. in the reproductive period
D. in the premenopausal period
E. with the same frequency in any of the above periods
80. The main clinical symptom of tuberculosis of the uterus
appendages?
B. amenorrhea
D. infertility
E. DUB
81. During an operation for a paraovarial cyst:

A. cyst husking;

A. elevated
B. lowered
C. normal
D. negative
E. doesn't matter

vaginosis?
B. dyspareunia
C. Profuse unpleasant whitewash
D. dysuria
E. pain in the lower abdomen
85. The following diagnostic method is used to recognize

ovarian tumors:
A. cytological
B. endoscopic
C. ultrasound
D. histological
E. bacterioscopic
86. For menopausal manifestations of a typical form of

menopause syndrome is most characteristic:
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Pain in the heart
C. Osteoporosis
D. Laryngitis
E. Anemia
87. Specify precancerous changes in the vaginal part of the

cervix:
E. Cervical ectopy
88. The main route of transmission of HPV:

A. lymphogenous
B. airborne
C. sexual
D. hematogenous
E. Contact Household
89. Itching of the vulva as a consequence of neuroendocrine

A. candidiasis
B. trichomoniasis
C. krauroza
D. leukoplakia
E. erythroplakia
90. The screening method to detect cervical pathology in
modern conditions is:
B. smear cytology;
E. PCR for HPV
91.. The main etiological factor for dysplasia and cervical
cancer is:
C. hyperestrogenia;

A. does not change;
B. turns pale;
“grapes”.
93. The treatment of acute endometritis does not include:

A. detoxification and infusion therapy
B. glucocorticoids
C. antibiotics
D. desensitizing agents
E. Vitamins

the multilayer:
A. glycogen;
B. proteins;
C. fats;
D. Ca salts;
E. immunoglobulins.
95. The differential diagnosis of acute salpingo-oophoritis

does not include:
A. acute appendicitis
B. tube abortion
C. colpitis
D. Ovarian apoplexy
E. Torsion of cyst legs
96. The main cause of adrenogenital syndrome (congenital

dysfunction of the adrenal cortex - CDAC) is:
A. Chronic inflammatory diseases of the ovaries;
B. Adrenal gland tumor;
C. Inherited deficiency of C21 - hydroxylase;
D. Decreased secretion of THG;
E. Hyperproduction of ACTH.
97. For bleeding from the genital tract in girls under the age
of 9, it is necessary:
A. Hormonal hemostasis
B. Observation
C. Appointment of hemostatic and uterine-contracting
agents
D. Exclusion of a local “organic” cause of bleeding
E. Hormone therapy
98. Specify the main criteria for PCOS:

A. weight loss;
C. Normal ovulation;
D. Echographic signs in the uterus;
E. Polymenorrhea.
99. Indicate the universal diagnostic ultrasound criterion for

PCOS:
A. Increasing the thickness of the M-echo;
B. Increase in ovarian volume ≥ 7 cm2;
C. Increase in ovarian volume ≥ 5 cm3;
D. The presence of hyperplastic stroma;
E. At least 5 follicles along the periphery of the ovary d =
10mm.
100. Indicate typical clinical diagnostic signs of PCOS:

A. Polymenorrhea;
B. AMK;
C. Anorexia
D. Dysmenorrhea;
E. Infertility, chronic anovulation.
101. Hirsutism is ...

A. Excessive hair growth
B. Excessive male terminal hair growth
C. Excessive growth of nail plates
D. Overweight
E. Weight loss
102. Hormonal changes in PCOS are characterized by the

presence of:
A. A sharp increase in the secretion of FSH, LH;
B. Increases in TSH levels;
C. Decreased levels of testosterone, estrogen;
D. Increased testosterone levels, 17-OP;
E. Decreased prolactin levels.
103. Treatment of CDAC (congenital dysfunction of the

adrenal cortex) is carried out:
A. Regulon;
B. Femoston 1/5;
C. Dexamethasone;
D. clomiphene;
E. metformin
104. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by:

A. Bilateral reduction of the ovaries;
C. The ratio of LH / FSH is less than 2.5;
D. Habitual miscarriage;
E. AMK.
105. When identifying adrenogenital syndrome (AGS),
treatment must begin:
A. Since diagnosis
B. After the establishment of menstrual function
C. After marriage (depending on the time of the planned
pregnancy)
D. Only after childbirth
E. After menopause
106. Among various forms of ectopic pregnancy, tubal
pregnancy is
A. about 28%
B. about 48%
C. about 68%
D. about 88%
E. about 98%
107. In the pathogenesis of PCOS, there are:

A. Hypoprolactinemia;
B. Pituitary dysfunction;
C. Violation of the menstrual cycle;
D. Ovarian hyperandrogenism and decreased synthesis
of estradiol;
E. AMK.
108. Symptoms are observed in the clinical presentation
of PCOS:
A. Tachycardia;
B. Anorexia;
C. Polymenorrhea;
D. hirsutism;
E. Infertility.
109. For the diagnosis of PCOS, it is necessary to carry out:

A. Ultrasound, hormonal examination, biochemical
analysis of blood
B. MRI of the brain, mammography
C. Culdocentesis;
D. X-ray of OGK;
E. Hysteroscopy.
110. At the first stage of treatment for PCOS, it is
prescribed:
A. Low-calorie diet, metformin, lipase inhibitors;
B. Laparoscopic resection of 2/3 of the ovaries;
C. Clomiphene ovulation stimulator;
D. Monophasic COCs;
E. Progestogens in the second phase of the menstrual cycle.
111. CDAC (congenital dysfunction of the adrenal cortex) is

...
A. Hormone-active pituitary adenoma (corticotropinoma);
B. Genetically determined deficiency of 21-hydroxylase
involved in the synthesis of cortisol;
C. Androgen-producing adrenal gland tumor;
D. Adrenal hypoandrogenia;
E. Acromegaly.
112. The clinical forms of CDAC (congenital dysfunction of

the adrenal cortex) are:
A. Salting;
B. Vascular;
C. Asthenovegetative;
D. Edematous;
E. Total.
113. Hormonal changes in CDAC (congenital dysfunction

of the adrenal cortex)
A. Increased cortisol levels;
B. Increased levels of LH and FSH, the ratio of LH / FSH
more than 2.5;
C. Increased levels of 17-SNP, DHEA-S;
D. Decrease in testosterone and estradiol;
E. Decreased ACTH.
114. For the differential diagnosis of viril syndromes
(PCOS, CDAC) carry out:
A. ultrasound of internal organs;
B. Biochemical studies;
C. CT, MRI of the pituitary, adrenal gland;
D. A test with estrogen;
E. Hysterosalpingography.

with
A. Bimanual research
B. Ultrasound Research
D. Puncture of the posterior arch
E. Serological Pregnancy Response
116. Adrenogenital syndrome
A. Has a synonym for adrenal hyperandrogenism
B. Manifested by hypermenstrual syndrome
C. May cause infertility
D. It is necessary to differentiate with menopausal syndrome
E. Treated HRT
117. To confirm adrenogenital syndrome (AGS) use

A. Determination of blood testosterone and 17
ketosteroids in urine
B. Probing of the uterus
D. Laparoscopy
E. Pelvic Scan
118. Pathogenetic treatment for adrenogenital syndrome
(AGS) is
C. Glucocorticoid therapy
119. In the development of polycystic ovary syndrome, the

following are essential:
A. Increased ovarian secretion of estrogen
B. Increased ovarian secretion of progesterone
C. Increased secretion compared to androgen
D. Increased secretion of prolactin
E. Decreased TSH secretion
120. Sterilization is carried out by:

A. Pipe compression;
B. Hysterosalpingography;
C. Tube ligation;
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Pipe removal.
121. For the diagnosis of polycystic ovaries, the following is

used:
A. General clinical laboratory tests
B. Functional tests with progesterone and
dexamethasone
C. Adrenal ultrasound
D. Laparotomy
E. Functional tests with estrogen
122. Which of the tests of functional diagnostics indicates

the presence of a two-phase menstrual cycle?
A. Pupil symptom
E. Cervical index
123. A negative dexamethasone test (a slight decrease in the
excretion of 17-ACS and 17-KS) indicates the presence of:
A. Tumors of the adrenal cortex;
B. Adrenogenital Syndrome (AGS);
C. Neuro-exchange-endocrine syndrome;
D. Sclerocystic ovary syndrome.
E. Pituitary tumors
124. The main clinical signs in true premature puberty of the

central genesis
A. neurological symptoms,
B. intracranial hypertension
C. emotional disturbances
D. lack of menstruation until 15-16 years
E. weight gain
125. The full form of premature puberty is characterized by:

A. varying degrees of development of secondary sexual
characteristics and abcense of menstruation
B. bone age corresponds to the calendar
C. Body weight not elevated
D. lack of neurological symptoms
E. emotional disturbances
126. Features of the physique of girls with congenital
adrenogenital syndrome
A. narrow shoulders and wide pelvis
B. long limbs
C. tall
D. overweight
E. neurological symptoms
127. Causes of the viril syndrome in a girl

A. dysfunction of the adrenal cortex
B. masculinizing tumors of the adrenal cortex
C. Congenital androgenital syndrome
D. chromosome abnormalities
128. During puberty, the following major changes occur in

the body:
A. Suppression of the pituitary gonadotropic function;
B. activation of hormonal function of the ovaries;
C. The rhythm of FSH release is not established;
D. regular “peaks” of LH excretion are established;
E. elevated prolactin levels
129. Nipple pigmentation and breast enlargement usually

occur:
A. at 8-9 years old;
B. at 10-11 years old;
C. at 12-13 years old;
D. at the age of 14-15;
E. at the age of 16-18.
130. The anatomical features of the uterus in a newborn girl

include:
A. The body of the uterus is small, the cervix is almost not
expressed;
B. the uterus is small, the length of the cervix is almost 3
times the length of the uterus;
C. The uterus has a bicorn shape;
D. The body of the uterus is almost 2 times larger than the
cervix;
131. The diagnosis of absolute female infertility can be

made:
A. in the absence of one fallopian tube
B. in the absence of the uterus
C. in PCA syndrome
D. during anovulatory cycles
E. with AGS syndrome
132. To exclude cervical factor of infertility use:

A. Shuvarsky-Huner test
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Study of sex chromatin
D. Chromosomal analysis
E. Determination of Antisperm antibodies in the blood
133. The course of hydrotubations is shown:

A. with partial obstruction of the fallopian tubes
B. With obstruction of the tubes in the ampullar sections
C. With severe adhesions in the pelvis.
D. With an abundance of peritubular adhesions
E. In Asherman's Syndrome
134. Good patency of the fallopian tubes can be judged by

the data of chromohydrotubation in case urine
A. blue after one hour
E. remains colorless after 24 hours
135. The frequency of male infertility is

A. 10-15%
B. 15-20%
C. 20-30%
D. 40-50%
E. 60-70%
136. Microsurgical operations on the fallopian tubes are

performed
A. with tube occlusion in various departments
B. In bilateral tubo-ovarian formations
C. With severe adhesions in the pelvis
D. With a duration of infertility of more than 10 years
E. In patients older than 35 years
137. Artificial insemination with donor sperm is used
A. with Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster syndrome
B. in women with anovulatory cycle
C. in women with Asherman syndrome
D. for male infertility
E. tubal infertility
E. Husband Disease
139. What percentage of abnormal sperm is permissible in a

normal spermogram?
A. 1-2%
B. 6-8%
C. 10-15%
D. 20-40%
E. over 50%
140. What percentage of motile sperm is acceptable in a

normal spermogram?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50-60%
D. 80%
E. 90%
141. The total number of sperm in a normal male ejaculate:

A. 20 - 40 million
B. 100 thousand - 1 million
C. 60 - 80 million
D. 10 - 20 million
E. 150 - 200 million
142. Reducing the number of antibodies to sperm in cervical

mucus can be achieved
A. Using oral contraceptives
B. taking antihistamines
C. Having more frequent coituses
D. Using condoms
E. Irrigating the cervix
143. The modern method of treating tubal infertility is:

A. Artificial insemination using sperm from a donor;
B. psychotherapy;
C. insemination;
D. In Vitro Fertilization

B. Cytology of the vaginal smear
C. Determination of basal temperature
D. Sperm examination
E. ECHO-GHA
145. The term "primary infertility" means that:

A. there was no pregnancy
B. no live births were born
C. All pregnancies are interrupted for medical reasons
D. a woman has no internal genital organs
E. All pregnancies are interrupted spontaneously
146. The synthesis of gonadoliberin is carried out in:

C. The nuclei of the hypothalamus
D. Neurons of the cerebral cortex
E. Middle lobe of the pituitary gland
376. 147. The following does not apply to endoscopic

research methods in gynecology:
A. Hysteroscopy;
B. Colposcopy;
C. Culdocentesis
D. Laparoscopy;
E. Culdoscopy.
148. With tubal-peritoneal infertility, the most effective
treatment is:
A. therapeutic laparoscopy;
B. laparotomy, microsurgical intervention on the pipes
(resection of the pipe section, the imposition of
anastomoses);
C. course of antibacterial and anti-inflammatory therapy;
D. enzyme preparations;
E. physiotherapeutic treatments.
149. The presence of ovulation does not determine:

A. functional diagnostic tests;
B. tests with LH;
C. ultrasound monitoring;
D. determination of progesterone levels in phase 2 of the
menstrual cycle;
E. FSH indicators
150. As a treatment method for infertility on the background

of intrauterine synechia does not include:
A. laparotomy, metroplasty;
B. hysteroresectoscopy;
C. hormonal treatment with estrogen-progestogen drugs;
D. antibacterial and anti-inflammatory treatment;
151. At the first stage, in IVF programs:

A. embryo transfer;
B. transvaginal ovarian puncture;
C. maintaining the luteal phase;
D. stimulation of superovulation;
E. In vitro fertilization.
152. Sperm in the crypts of the cervical canal can retain the
ability to move (deadline) for
A. 6-12 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
153. Sperm after penetration into the uterus and tubes

retain fertility for
A. 6-12 hours
B. 24-48 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
154. After ovulation the egg remains fertile for

A. 6 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 10 days
E. 1-2 hours
155. Positive test (small test) with dexamethasone

indicates that
A. Ovarian source of hyperandrogenism
B. Adrenal gland source of hyperandrogenism
E. Hyperandrogenism due to ovarian cystoma
156. The therapeutic and diagnostic effect of dexamethasone

E. Increased prolactin
157. The cause of infertility in gonadal dysgenesis is the

absence of
A. Ovarian tissue or its sharp underdevelopment
B. Uterus or its severe underdevelopment
C. gonadotropin production
D. Sensitivity of the normally formed ovary receptor
apparatus to gonadotropins
E. vaginal atresia
158. Ovarian hyperstimulation may occur.

A. When using clomiphene (clostilbegit)
B. When using pergonal
C. With prolonged use of combined estrogen-progestogen
drugs
D. When using radon baths
E. When using progestogens.
159. A woman asked you to pick a contraceptive. Single.
She lives sexually 2-3 times a month, and sometimes less
often. The partners are different. There were no pregnancies.
Your recommendations:
A. Intrauterine contraceptive
B. Condom
C. Emergency contraception
D. Oral contraceptives
160. A married woman of 28 years, having one sexual

partner, suffering from chronic thrombophlebitis of the
veins of the lower extremities, the mother of one child,
needs:
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Surgical sterilization
C. Intrauterine contraception
D. Mechanical contraception
E. Barrier contraceptives
161. The composition of injectable contraceptives includes:

D. Antiandrogens
162. For the purpose of contraception, the use of combined

estrogen-progestogen drugs begins:
A. During ovulation
B. On the eve of menstruation
C. From the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
D. Regardless of the day of the menstrual cycle
E. On the 7th day of the menstrual cycle
163. Combined estrogen-progestogen drugs are

contraindicated in:
A. At the age of 18 to 28 years
B. For the purpose of contraception
C. During breastfeeding and during pregnancy
D. For the purpose of treatment
E. At the age of 28-38 years
164. The Pearl Index is:

A. Percentage of contraceptive failure when using the
method during the year;
B. The ratio of heart rate and systolic blood pressure;
C. The ratio of heart rate and diastolic blood pressure.
D. The percentage of contraceptive failures when using the
E. The percentage of contraceptive failures when using the
165. What method of contraception refers to the natural

method of family planning:
A. Calendar;
B. Barrier;
C. Surgical;
D. Chemical;
E. Hormonal.
166. The optimal time for the introduction of the intrauterine

device (IUD):
A. 4-6 day of the menstrual cycle;
B. 14-16 day of the menstrual cycle;
C. During menstrual bleeding.
D. Before menstruation
E. 18-20 day of the menstrual cycle.
167. The composition of injectable contraceptives includes

D. Antiandrogens
E. Antigonadotropins
168. In the differential diagnosis of tubal pregnancy

A. History is usually not significant
B. Detection by histological examination of the
endometrium
The Arias-Stella phenomenon is indisputable evidence
sign
E. Under any conditions, puncture of the posterior arch is
crucial
169. What are the frequent complications of taking
progestogens?
A. Allergic reactions
B. Intermenstrual spotting
C. Nausea, vomiting
D. Weight gain
E. Oligoamenorrhea
170. Contraindications to taking combined oral

contraceptives
A. Hypertension III stage
B. Women with miscarriage
C. Women with a history of ectopic pregnancy
D. Women with mild anemia
E. Algodismenorea

indication
B. For laparoscopy
C. For ultrasound examination
D. For special studies
E. For puncture of the back arch
172. Voluntary sterilization - a mechanism of action.

A. thickening of cervical mucus
B. Blocking the patency of the fallopian tubes
D. Decreased uterine tone
E. Promotes adhesions in the pelvis.
173. Advantages of tubal occlusion

A. Irreversibility of the method
B. Protection against STIs
C. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
D. Increased libido
174. Mechanism of action for vasectomy

A. Blocking the patency of the vas deferens
B. Change in hormone production by the ovaries
C. Spermicidal effect
D. Decreased libido
E. Decreased vascular tone
175. Benefits of Condoms

B. High Efficiency
C. Influencing sexual feelings
D. Spermicidal effect
E. Contributes to thickening
176. Disadvantages of condoms

B. Lack of systemic side effects
C. Wide availability
D. Contraceptive effectiveness depends on the
willingness of the couple to follow the instructions.
E. High price
177. The mechanism of action of spermicides

B. Destruction of sperm membranes, which reduces their
motility and ability to fertilize the egg
D. Disruption of egg implantation
E. Toning the fallopian tubes
178. The mechanism of action of the method of lactational

amenorrhea (MDA)
B. Change in the structure of the endometrium
C. Implant Impaired
E. Endometrial hyperplasia
179. The high efficiency of the method of lactational

amenorrhea (MDA) with all the rules observed
A. Within 3 months after delivery
B. Within 6 months after delivery
C. Within 9 months after delivery
D. Within 12 months after delivery
E. Within 15 months after delivery
180. Contraception contraceptive against STI

A. COC
B. Navy
C. Barrier
D. Calendar method
181. The goals of family planning are:

A. Birth of wanted children
B. Reducing the prevalence of sexually transmitted
infections
C. Correction of menstrual irregularities.
D. Overcoming infertility
E. Decrease in maternal and perinatal mortality
182. Blastocyst implantation disorders:

A. Changes in the enzymatic system of the endometrium
B. Activation of peristalsis of the fallopian tubes
C. Lack of ovulation
D. Decrease in the tone of the fallopian tubes
E. Late ovulation
183. Disadvantages of the intrauterine device

A. Increased risk of inflammatory diseases
B. Effect on lactation
C. Short validity
D. A large number of side effects
E. Systemic effects on the body
184. Indications for use of the intrauterine device:

A. The need for long-term contraception and the
presence of one sexual partner
B. menstrual irregularities
C. Genital tract infections
D. Genital abnormalities
E. Adolescence
185. The complication most often arising on 3 5 days

after the introduction of the intrauterine device is:
A. Cervical insufficiency
D. Uterine inflammation
186. What are the most common complications in women

who have been using the intrauterine device for a long time
as a contraceptive?
A. Thrombophlebitis of the pelvic veins
B. Adhesive process in the pelvis
C. Inflammatory diseases of the internal genital organs
D. Cervical insufficiency
E. Amenorrhea
187. Visualization of an intrauterine contraceptive in the
cervical canal indicates:
A. Normal position of the intrauterine device
B. Low position of the intrauterine device
C. Uterine perforation
D. Intrauterine device expulsion
E. Pregnancy

A. round ligament;
E. Broad ligament
A. uterine artery;
B. ovarian artery;

A. dermoid cyst
B. follicular cyst
D. piovar
191. Ovarian tumors that do not have hormonal activity
include:
A. granulosa cell tumor
B. dysgerminomas
C. Theca cell tumor
D. androblastoma
E. arrhenoblastoma
192. With a small bleeding from the ovary, detected by

laparoscopy, it is performed:
of a laparoscope;
D. Laparotomy and removal of the uterus on the affected
side
E. Hemostatic infusion therapy
193. The tumorous formations of the ovaries do not include:

A. dermoid cyst;
B. follicular cyst;
C. corpus luteum cysts;
D. pyovar;
E. Theca-luteal cysts.
194. What complication is most common with benign

ovarian tumors?
B. capsule rupture;

B. hysteroscopy
C. ultrasound;
D. laparoscopy;
196. The presence of ovulation can be judged by the results

of all the studies listed below:
B. Ultrasound monitoring of the development of a
dominant follicle
D. Determination of the concentration of sex steroid
hormones in the blood on days 12-14 of the menstrual cycle
197. During surgery for a paraovarial cyst:

A. cyst husking;
198. Treatment of benign tumors of the ovary in childhood
and puberty is:
A. in the course of chemotherapy;
B. in the appointment of hormone therapy;
C. in bilateral removal of appendages;
D. in resection of the affected ovary;
appendages;
199. An examination for an ovarian tumor may include:

A. X-ray of the gastrointestinal tract;
B. sigmoidoscopy;
C. hormonal colpocytology;
D. X-ray of the Turkish saddle;
E. phlebography;
200. The symptom complex characteristic of a granulosa

cell tumor of the ovary in menopausal women includes:
A. galactorrhea in menopause;
B. menopausal masculinization;
C. change in voice in menopause;
D. bleeding in menopause;
E. decreased libido;

A. elevated
B. lowered
C. normal
D. negative
E. doesn't matter
202. Prognosis for life in borderline ovarian tumors

A. Doubtful
B. adverse
C. poorly understood
D. relatively favorable
E. unknown

204. Paraovarial cysts are formed from residues:

A. omphalomesenteric duct;
B. paramesonephral duct;
C. Wolf duct
D. Muller duct;
E. allantois.
205. Each woman with a detected ovarian tumor should:

A. hospitalize urgently;
B. direct to separate diagnostic curettage;
C. put on dispensary records;
D. conduct hormone therapy;
E. carry out anti-inflammatory therapy.
206. Cervical pregnancy

A. Usually interrupted for 4-5 weeks
B. Interruption usually accompanied by internal bleeding
C. Diagnosed only during curettage of the uterine cavity
D. Can be diagnosed by the location of the external
E. In most cases, it is treated with vacuum aspiration of the
ovum.
207. Diagnostic methods most often used in the initial

detection of benign genital tumors in women
A. Cytological examination
B. gynecological examination, ultrasound
C. Ultrasound
D. pneumopelviography
E. Tumor puncture
208. Follicular cysts are most common:

A. in reproductive age;
B. in the neonatal period;
C. postmenopausal women;
D. in the juvenile period;
E. in the perimenopausal period.
209. A sign of the transition of the physiological process of

follicular maturation into a pathological follicular cyst is the
diameter of the fluid formation more:
A. 15 mm;
B. 20 mm;
C. 30 mm;
D. 35 mm;
E. 40 mm.
210. For tumor-like formations of the ovaries, it is

characteristic:
A. proliferation of the epithelium of the cellular elements of
the wall
B. lack of proliferation of the epithelium of the cellular
elements of the wall
C. consist of parenchyma and stroma
D. formed from germ cells
E. susceptible to metaplasia and paraplasia.
211. The most common ovarian tumors are:

A. cystadenomas;
B. endometrioid tumors;
C. Brenner's tumor;
D. granulosa cell tumor;
E. Mature teratoma.
212. Treatment of mucinous cystadenoma in reproductive

age:
A. course of anti-inflammatory therapy;
B. ovarian resection;
C. adnexectomy on the side of the affected ovary;
D. hysterectomy with affected appendages;
E. Combined oral contraceptives for 3–6 months.
213. The contents of the dermoid cyst:
A. hair, fat, cartilage;
B. mucus-like secret;
C. liquid, clear contents;
D. connective tissue;
E. blood.
214. Masculinizing tumor:
A. tecom;
B. androblastoma;
C. serous cystoma;
D. papillary.
E. fibroma
menstruation
menstruation
216. The vaginal part of the cervix in a woman of

reproductive age is normally covered:
A. cylindrical epithelium
B. stratified squamous epithelium
C. glandular epithelium
D. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium
E. cubic epithelium
217. In the puberty, the vaginal part of the cervix has, as a
rule, the following features of the epithelial cover
A. covered with cylindrical epithelium
B. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the ectocervix, is
covered by a stratified squamous epithelium
C. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the endocervix, is
covered with stratified squamous epithelium
D. covered with stratified squamous epithelium
E. the junction of the stratified squamous and cylindrical
epithelium is located on the surface of the ectocervix,
covered with a cylindrical epithelium
218. Clinical manifestations of endometrial hyperplasia:

abnormal uterine bleeding;
A. asthenovegetative syndrome;
B. amenorrhea;
C. pain in the lower abdomen;
D. intoxication syndrome.
E. NMC
219. Differential diagnosis of endometrial polyp must be

performed with:
A. submucous uterine myoma;
B. subserous uterine myoma;
C. interstitial uterine myoma;
D. adenomyosis;
E. chorionic carcinoma.
220.. Side effects of agonists of gonadotropic releasing
hormones that limit the duration of use in the reproductive
period are:
A. osteoporosis;
B. impaired metabolism of fats and carbohydrates;
C. hyperthyroidism;
D. dyspepsia;
E. diarrhea.
221. The scope of the examination for pathology of the

cervix
A. colposcopy
B. hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. bacterioscopy
E. laparoscopy
222. Kraurosis and vulvar leukoplakia occur in women aged

A. 31–40 years old
B. 41–50 years old
C. 51-60 years
D. 61–70 years old
E. regardless of age

rectocele;
vagina I degree.
224. Morphological changes with vulvar kraurosis are more
pronounced
A. in the epithelium
B. in the vessels of the vulva
C. Throughout the vulva
D. in the connective tissue of the vulva
E. in the basement membrane
225. For kraurosis of the vulva is not characteristic:
A. Puckering of the labia minora and labia minora
clitoral itching
B. dryness of the mucous membranes of the vulva
C. narrowing of the vaginal opening
D. vulvar edema
226. Hyperkeratosis of the epithelium of the vaginal part of

the cervix is ...
A. erythroplakia;
B. leukoplakia;
C. ectropion;
D. pseudo-erosion;
E. intraepithelial neoplasia.
227. The precancerous conditions of the cervix include:

A. erythroplakia;
B. leukoplakia without atypia;
C. ectropion;
D. pseudo-erosion;
E. Dysplasia of the stratified squamous epithelium.
228. What corrective hormone therapy is carried out with

DMK of the reproductive period:
A. Estrogens in the 1st phase of chicoa
B. Estrogen-progestogen drugs in a contraceptive
regimen;
C. Estrogen-progestogen drugs in the 1st phase of the cycle;
D. Estrogens in phase 2;
E. Gestagens continuously.
229. The main etiological factor for dysplasia and cervical

cancer is:
C. hyperestrogenia;

A. does not change;
B. turns pale;
“grapes”.

the multilayer:
A. glycogen;
B. proteins;
C. fats;
D. Ca salts;
E. immunoglobulins.

rectocele;
vagina I degree.

and rectocele;
vagina I degree.
234. What are the leading clinical symptoms of dysplasia

and cancer of the cervical insitu:
A. pelvic pain;
E. infertility.
235. In the etiology of pelvic organ prolapse, it does not

matter: Answer options:
A. traumatic birth;
236. For the treatment of cervical dysplasia of moderate and

severe degree do not apply:
A. local destruction of the cervical epithelium with acid
solutions;
B. radiosurgical excision;
C. electroconization;
D. Cone amputation of the cervix according to Sturmdorf;
E. Uterus extirpation.
237. Indicate the precancerous changes in the vaginal part of

the cervix:
E. Cervical ectopy
238. To prevent the development of cervical endometriosis,

the menstrual cycle
B. immediately after the end of menstruation
C. on day 12-14
D. on day 16-18
E. on day 20-24
239. Itching of the vulva as a result of neuroendocrine

A. candidiasis
B. trichomoniasis
C. krauroza
D. leukoplakia
E. erythroplakia
240. In the surgical treatment of a patient with kraurosis and
vulvar leukoplakia, the following is performed:
A. ovariectomy;
B. vulvectomy;
C. extended vulvectomy;
D. lymphadenectomy;
E. Uterus
241. Women with DMK are at risk:

A. Miscarriage
B. On the development of placental insufficiency
C. Development of genital tumors
D. On the development of anomalies of labor
E. Pregnancy
242. Hyperprolactinemia is:

A. Increase in blood gonadotropins
B. Increase in hemoglobin
C. Increase in BCC
D. Increased blood prolactin
E. Decreased blood prolactin levels
243. Cytological cervical screening is performed at the age

of:
D. from the age of menarche to 69 years
E. from the onset of sexual activity (after 21 years) to 69
years
244.. The earliest symptom of genital prolapse is:

A. stress urinary incontinence

includes:
246. Indicate the most effective method for the early

diagnosis of postmenopausal osteoporosis:
A. Radiography of the lumbosacral spine
B. Mono- and biphoton absorptiometry
D. Radiography of cysts
E. Joint ultrasound
247. Indications for the use of sounding of the uterine
cavity:
A. A suspected uterine perforation during curettage;
B. B acute endometritis;
C. C suspected presence of submucous uterine fibroids;
D. D cervical cancer;
E. E ectopic pregnancy;
248. In what cases, for diagnostic purposes, puncture of the
abdominal cavity through the posterior arch is indicated?
A suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy;
B suspected ovarian cancer;
C dysfunctional uterine bleeding;
D uterine fibroids;
E suspected ovarian apoplexy;
249. Research methods of the anatomical and functional

state of the vagina:
A inspection in the mirrors;
B combined vaginal rectal examination;
C cytological examination of the contents of the uterine
cavity;
D puncture of the posterior fornix;
E determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.
250. The most effective treatment for postmenopausal

osteoporosis is:
A. Diet Therapy
B. Physiotherapy and exercise therapy
C. Hormone therapy
D. Vitamin Therapy
251. The treatment of bartholinitis is:

A. Physiotherapy
B. Radio waves
C. Hormones
D. Vitamin Therapy
252. Treatment of false (ovarian) premature sexual

development:
A. Vitamin Therapy
B. Surgical
C. Hormonal
D. Antibiotic therapy
E. Physiotherapy
rectocele;
vagina I degree.

rectocele;
vagina I degree.

and rectocele;
vagina I degree.
256. The horizontal displacement of the uterus in the pelvic

cavity does not apply:
A. anterior displacement;
B. posterior displacement;
C. Turn of the uterus;
D. offsets to the left;
E. Offset to the right.
257. The prolapse of the walls of the vagina is accompanied
by the prolapse of the bladder and the anterior wall of the
rectum. What is the clinical degree of prolapse of the walls
of the vagina, uterus and their prolapse?
A. I;
B. II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. V.
258. The genital gap is gaping, the anterior and posterior
walls of the vagina are slightly lowered. What is the clinical
degree of prolapse of the walls of the vagina, uterus and
their prolapse?
A. I;
B. II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. V.
259. What complaint does the patient not have when

lowering the internal genital organs:
A. difficulty in emptying the bladder;
B. stress urinary incontinence;
C. difficulty with bowel movements;
D. a feeling that something is falling out;
E. on the mucous membranes from the vagina.
260. Squeezing the entrance to the vagina carries out:

A. transverse superficial muscle of the perineum;
B. muscle lifting the anus;
C. sciatic-cavernous muscle;
D. bulbous-cavernous muscle.
E. transverse deep muscle of the perineum
261. Polycystic ovary syndrome is:

A. Androgenic disease
B. Profuse uterine bleeding
C. Heterogeneous disease
D. Cyclic uterine bleeding
E. Lack of menarche
262. In the etiology of pelvic organ prolapse do not matter:

A. traumatic birth;
263. The earliest symptom of genital prolapse is:
A. stress urinary incontinence;
264. The most common cause of bleeding from the genital

tract in postmenopausal women is:
A. Cervical Cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
D. Ovarian Cancer
E. Cervical dysplasia
265. The main method for the diagnosis of dysplasia and

pre-invasive cancer of the vulva is:
B. Vulvoscopy
E. Colposcopy
genital prolapse is:
A. ultrasound;
C. sigmoidoscopy;
D. cystoscopy;
E. hysteroscopy.
267. For the surgical treatment of genital prolapse, do not
use:
A. Manchester operation;
B. vaginal extirpation of the uterus;
C. use of mesh implants;
D. supravaginal amputation of the uterus;
E. shortening and strengthening of the ligamentous
apparatus of the uterus.
268. The choice of method for the correction of genital
prolapse does not depend on:
A. age of the patient;
B. severity of prolapse;
C. history of childbirth;
D. reproductive plans of the patient;
E. sexual activity.
269. Correction of asymptomatic genital prolapse of 1–2
degrees in a 38-year-old patient is carried out:
A. Pelvic floor muscle training
B. surgical method - vaginal extirpation of the uterus;
C. staging of the mesh implant;
D. staging of the urogynecological pessary;
E. Surgical method - over vaginal amputation of the uterus;
270. The main treatment for cancer and vulvar melanoma:

A. Remote radiation therapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Hormone therapy
D. Surgical
E. Radio waves
271. The most effective screening test for early diagnosis of
cervical cancer:
A. Simple colposcopy
B. Bimanual rectovaginal examination
the cervix and cervical canal

cervical dysplasia:
272. Reconstructive plastic surgery using a mesh implant for
pelvic organ prolapse is not performed when:
A. senile age of the patient;
B. recurrence of prolapse;
C. post hysterectomy prolapse (enterocele);
D. severe connective tissue dysplasia;
E. Hereditary factor of genital prolapse.

cervical dysplasia:

includes:
275. Before giving a woman an injection of Depo-Provera,
the health care provider must make sure that she does not
have:
A. Vaginal bleeding of unknown etiology
B. Cardiovascular Disease
C. History of STIs
276. What contraceptive methods are not recommended for
breastfeeding women:
B. Condoms and spermicides
C. Navy
D. MLA
E. Purely progestin contraceptives
277. What method is not recommended for a 40-year-old

smoking woman:
A. Pure-progestin oral contraceptives
B. Depot-Provera
E. Navy
278. What should be done when spotting spotting occurs

during the installation of a copper-containing IUD:
A. Carry out a diagnostic curettage of the uterine cavity
B. Prescribe haemostatic and contractions
C. Remove IUD
D. Reassure a woman and prescribe a short course of
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
E. Refer to hospital
279. If a woman uses the method of lactational amenorrhea,

when any signals appear she needs to see a doctor to receive
recommendations on the use of another contraceptive:
A. The child is 3 months old
B. Maternal period resumes
C. Baby exclusive breastfeeding
D. Baby sleeps all night without feeding
E. 10 days of the postpartum period
280. The most common complication of taking progestin

drugs is:
A. Menstrual irregularities
B. Strokes, heart attacks
C. Weight gain
D. Violation of the blood coagulation system
E. Nausea, vomiting
281. The cytological equivalent of cervical dysplasia is:
A. Acanthosis
B. Discariosis
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. Cariolysis
E. Hypokeratosis
282. Characteristic features of uterine fibroids:
A. It is a benign, hormone-dependent tumor
B. Comes from the striated muscle of the tissue
C. Most common in puberty and women of early
reproductive age
D. Prone to malignancy
E. Malignant tumor
283. What method of contraception has the effect of double

protection
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera

A. Women of all ages with more than 3 children
B. Women with migraine
D. Nulliparous women and adolescents
285. Reliable information about contraceptives is provided:

A. From the personal experience of a specialist
B. Pharmaceutical companies
C. From evidence-based material
D. From the personal experience of the consumer
E. From the Internet
286. What can be done if a woman missed the next COC?
A. As soon as possible, take the missed active (hormonal)
tablet, then continue taking the tablets as usual
B. Do not refrain from sexual intercourse and do not use
additional contraceptives (condom) for the next 7 days
C. Do not resort to emergency contraception
D. Cancel birth control pills
E. Start taking pills from the next pack
287. A high risk of HIV infection or the presence of HIV

infection / AIDS is a contraindication for use:
A. Spermicides
B. Surgical sterilization methods
C. Navy
E. Progestin-only contraceptives
288. Women with a history of deep vein thrombosis are not

recommended to use:
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera
289. What qualities are not acceptable for a good consultant:

A. Competence and professionalism
B. Respect for Confidentiality
C. Use of personal preferences when choosing a method
of contraception
D. Friendliness and attentiveness
E. Listening skills
290. What method of contraception is least effective:
A. COC
B. Navy
C. Natural family planning methods
D. Condoms
E. Depot-Provera
291. The duration of the menstrual cycle when taking most

COCs is
A. 21 days
B. 28 days
C. 35 days
D. 32 days
E. 40 days

intermuscular uterine fibroids:
A. Vaginal examination
B. Ultrasound examination
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Colposcopy
293. One of the disadvantages of spermicides is:

A. Possible burning or itching in the vagina when used
B. The presence of estrogen-related side effects
C. Effect on breastfeeding
D. Need for pelvic examination before use
E. Progesterone-related side effects
294. The introduction of IUD as a postcoital method is

effective if, after unprotected intercourse, it has passed to:
A. 2days
B. 5days
C. 1week
D. 2 weeks
E. 1 month
295. Using Postinor as a post-coital method is effective if,

after unprotected intercourse, it has passed to:
A. 24 hours
B. 72 -120 hours
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
E. 1 month
296. Interrupted intercourse:
A. Highly effective contraceptive method
B. Ineffective contraception
C. STI Prevention Method
D. HIV Prevention Method
E. Ideal for continuous contraception
297. What conditions of the endometrium are classified as
precancerous?
A. Glandular cystic hyperplasia
B. Glandular endometrial polyp
C. Atrophy of the endometrium
D. Atypical hyperplasia
E. Fibrous endometrial polyp
298. Characteristic features of ovarian cysts:

A. These are retention formations
B. Increase in size due to cell proliferation
C. Do not have capsules
D. May be malignant
E. Multi-chamber
299. Which of the ovarian tumors most frequently

undergoes malignancy?
A. Fibroma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Tekoma
E. Sarcoma
300. What method of contraception is irreversible?

A. DMPA
B. Navy
C. Implants
D. COC
E. DHS
301. What can be used as emergency contraception:
B. Interrupted intercourse
C. Depot Check
302. The most appropriate time for a contraceptive after an

abortion:
A. Immediately after the procedure
B. The next menstrual cycle
C. 3 months after abortion
D. 6 months after abortion
E. Do not prescribe at all
303. The absolute indication for surgery in gynecology is

not:
A. intra-abdominal bleeding;
B. peritonitis;
C. gonorrheal pelvioperitonitis;
D. threat of perforation of the tubo-ovarian abscess.
E. Beginning miscarriage
304. An ectopic pregnancy can be localized in all of the

organs listed below, except:
A. vagina;
B. cervix;
C. rudimentary uterine horn;
D. ovary;
E. abdominal cavity.
305. The methods for diagnosing endometrial cancer are as

follows, except:
A. metrosalpingography;
B. separate diagnostic curettage of the uterine mucosa and
cervix;
C. functional diagnostic tests;
D. ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs;
E. hysteroscopy.
307. What is the most common morphological characteristic
of the endometrium prior to adenocarcinoma?
A. secretory transformation;
B. adenomatosis;
C. hyperplasia;
D. proliferation;
E. resting endometrium.
308. The main symptoms of adenocarcinoma, except:

A. uterine bleeding in postmenopausal women;
B. pain in the lower abdomen and in the lumbar region;
C. infiltration of the pelvic tissue;
D. decrease in the size of the body of the uterus;
E. enlargement and compaction of regional lymph nodes.
309. Additional methods for diagnosing the degree of spread

of adenocarcinoma, except:
A. cystoscopy;
B. bacteriological examination of uterine aspirate;
C. rectoscopy;
D. radiopaque lymphography;
E. Radioisotope lymphography.
310. The age period during which in situ carcinoma is most

often detected?
A. 45-55 years old;
B. 7-17 years old;
C. 30-40 years;
D. older than 60 -70 years;
E. older than 70 years.
311. What is the main treatment for chorionepithelioma?

A. antibiotic therapy;
B. immunostimulating therapy;
C. hysterectomy with appendages;
D. cytostatic therapy;
E. physiotherapeutic treatment.
312. Methods for diagnosing cervical pathology are used,

except:
A. Pap smear;
B. colposcopy;
C. cervicogysterosalpingography;
D. measuring rectal temperature;
E. Curettage of the cervical canal.
313. Factors contributing to the development of cervical

cancer, except:
A. hormonal contraception;
B. cicatricial deformity of the cervix after childbirth;
C. ectropion;
D. long-existing cervical erosion;
E. Cervical leukoplakia.
314. Regional metastasis of cervical cancer to the lymph

nodes, except:
A. external iliac;
B. common iliac;
C. Presacral;
D. paraaortic;
E. inguinal.
315. Treatment of preinvasive carcinoma of the cervix in a

young woman, except:
A. laser conization of the cervix;
B. hysterectomy with appendages;
C. intracavitary gamma therapy;
D. electroconization of the cervix;
E. knife conical excision of the cervix.
316. What research allows to establish the diagnosis of
invasive carcinoma of the cervix?
A. Pap smear;
B. aspiration of cervical mucus;
C. targeted biopsy of the neck with histological
examination;
D. flushing from the vagina;
E. colposcopy.
317. The most common cause of endometrial hyperplasia in
reproductive age?
A. inflammatory diseases of the genitals;
B. prolonged hyperestrogenism with anovulation;
C. hyperestrogenia in case of insufficiency of the luteal
phase of the menstrual cycle;
D. estrogen producing ovarian tumor;
E. Long-term use of estrogen.
318. Endometrial hyperplasia develops as a result of:

A. hyperprogesteronemia;
B. hyperestrogenemia;
C. hyperprolactinemia;
D. use of combined estrogen-progestogen drugs;
E. Genetically determined proliferation of basal endometrial
cells.
320. The histological differential diagnosis between in situ

carcinoma and invasive carcinoma is based on the following
symptoms:
A. damage to the basement membrane by atypical cells;
B. atypical cells are detected in a smear for oncocytology;
C. detection of cells with squamous metaplasia;
D. the entire layer of stratified squamous epithelium is
replaced by atypical cells;
E. pronounced proliferation of basal cells of the stratified
squamous epithelium.
321. With endometrial cancer, the lymph nodes are

primarily affected:
A. paracervical;
B. obstructive;
C. inguinal;
D. sacred;
E. hypogastric.
322. Treatment for stage II endometrial cancer includes:

A. only exposure;
B. extirpation of the uterus with appendages;
C. a combination of irradiation and hysterectomy with
appendages;
D. radical hysterectomy with resection of the greater
omentum;
E. only symptomatic therapy.
323. Uterine sarcoma can occur from the following tissues,

except:
A. myometrium;
B. nerve fibers;
C. endometrium;
D. blood vessels;
E. fibrous node.
324. The primary treatment for stage II ovarian cancer is:
A. immunotherapy;
B. remote exposure;
C. chemotherapy;
D. hormone therapy;
E. surgical method.
325. In a barren woman of reproductive age, histological
examination of the endometrium revealed adenomatosis.
Which drug will be more effective?
A. clostilbegit;
B. non-ovlon;
C. norkolut;
D. Pergon;
E. Chorionic gonadotropin.

A. surgery, blood transfusion;
B. consultation of the therapist, anesthetist, surgery;
C. ultrasound, blood transfusion, surgery;
D. blood transfusion, surgery;
E. The use of hemostatic therapy, blood transfusion,
surgery.
330. When a vaginal examination in a patient with suspected

ectopic pregnancy revealed: external pharynx ajar; scarlet
spotting from the cervical canal; the uterus is enlarged to 8
weeks of pregnancy; appendages are not determined; the
vaginal arches are free. Diagnosis:
A. tube abortion;
B. impaired uterine pregnancy;
C. ovarian apoplexy;
D. inflammatory process of the uterus;
E. endometrial hyperplasia
331. Ovarian apoplexy often occurs:

A. during ovulation;
B. into the stage of vascularization of the corpus luteum;
C. during the maturation of the graaf follicle;
D. during atresia of the follicles.
E. During menstruation
332. With significant bleeding into the abdominal cavity in a

patient with ovarian apoplexy, it is shown:
A. laparotomy, ovarian resection;
B. gluttony, removal of the ovary;
C. dynamic observation of the doctor on duty, according to
indications - blood transfusion;
D. conservative therapy: rest, cold on the lower abdomen,
restorative therapy.
E. Hormone therapy;
333. In a patient with a clinical diagnosis of ovarian

apoplexy, the indication for surgery is:
A. history of appendage inflammation;
B. history of ovarian dysfunction;
C. pain syndrome;
D. intra-abdominal bleeding.
E. amenorrhea in the anamnesis.
335. Termination of tubal pregnancy by type of tubal

abortion occurs more often during pregnancy:
A. 11-12 weeks;
B. 9-10 weeks;
C. 7-8 weeks;
D. 4-6 weeks;
E. 16-17 weeks.
C. transferred inflammatory diseases of the genitals;
343. What is the most common implantation of a fetal egg

during an ectopic pregnancy?
A. in the ampulla of the fallopian tube;
B. on the peritoneum;
C. on the ovary;
D. in the isthmic section of the fallopian tube;
E. in the interstitial section of the fallopian tube.
344. The least informative sign for the differentiation of

uterine and tubal pregnancy?
A. ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs;
B. level of chorionic gonadotropin in the blood;
C. bimanual examination of the pelvic organs;
D. smears for colpocytology;
E. Uterine curettage.
347. The main cause of death during ectopic pregnancy:

A. embolism of the lungs with trophoblast elements;
B. intestinal obstruction;
C. acute renal failure;
D. intra-abdominal bleeding;
E. peritonitis.
348. The diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy denies:

A. decidual endometrial reaction;
B. absence of fetal sac on echoscopy;
C. lack of a characteristic clinical picture;
D. negative test for chorionic gonadotropin;
E. Negative puncture of the abdominal cavity through the
posterior vaginal fornix.
349. The system of specialized gynecological care for

infertility includes the steps of:
A examination of women in antenatal clinics;
B examination and treatment of a married couple;
C in-patient examination and treatment;
D periodic medical examinations.
E women counseling
351. Which of the factors does not increase the risk of

developing inflammatory diseases of the genital organs?
A. the beginning of sexual activity at the age of 15;
B. medical abortion;
D. hysterosalpingography;
E. Use of the IUD.
352. Choriocarcinoma - malignant neoplasm:

A. Decidual sheath
B. Myometrium
C. trophoblast
D. Theca tissue
E. Endometrium
353. Complaint, not typical for inflammatory diseases of the
genital organs:
A. pain in the lower abdomen;
B. fever;
C. fetid vaginal discharge;
D. high bilirubin in the blood;
E. Accelerate ESR and increase white blood cells.
354. What microorganisms causing colpitis require

treatment for both partners?
A. Trichomonas;
B. Candida;
C. streptococci;
D. staphylococci;
E. Escherichia coli.
355. Which of the following examination methods most

reliably confirm the diagnosis of inflammation of the
appendages?
A. quantification of white blood cells;
C. culdocentesis;
D. laparoscopy;
E. Ultrasound of the pelvic organs.
356. What is unnecessary in establishing a diagnosis of
inflammatory disease of the pelvic organs:
A. laparoscopy;
B. ultrasound;
C. culdocentesis;
D. urinalysis according to Zimnitsky;
E. rectal studies.
357. It is not a complication of inflammatory diseases of the

pelvic organs:
A. endometriosis;
C. adhesions in the pelvic area;
D. dyspareunia;
E. hydrosalpinx.
358. In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years) are more

common:
A. ovarian tumors;
C. Congenital malformations of the genitals
D. vulvovaginitis;
E. salpingoophoritis.
359. The complication most often arising in the conduct of

the IUD is:
D. acute infection;
E. Pelvic vein thrombosis.
360. Pathological changes in cervical mucus can be the

result of all of the following conditions, except:
A. infection of the cervix by cytotoxic microorganisms;
B. posterior uterine displacement;
C. chronic inflammatory process in the cervix;
D. previous electrocoagulation of any formations of the
cervix;
E. vaginal inflammation.
A. inflammation of the fallopian tube;
B. uterine muscle inflammation;
C. inflammation of the peritoneum;
E. inflammation of the uterine mucosa.
362. Treatment of acute endometritis includes:

A. physiotherapy;
C. antibacterial agents;
D. diuretics;
E. antispasmodics.

364. What treatment is not used for acute inflammation of

the uterine appendages of a non-specific etiology?
A. cold to the lower abdomen;
B. antibiotic therapy;
C. mud therapy;
D. vitamin therapy;
E. detoxification therapy.
365. What is the most common cause of atrophic colpitis?

A. oral contraception with progestins;
B. drug amenorrhea in the treatment of uterine fibroids or
endometriosis;
C. menopause;
D. oral contraception with progestogens;
E. Uterine fibroids
366. Factors of resistance of the vaginal mucosa to

infection?
A. high levels of androgens;
B. low estrogen levels;
C. acidic environment;
D. lack of Dederlein bacteria;
E. High progesterone.
367. Treatment of acute endometritis, except:

A. desensitizing agents;
C. antibacterial agents
D. antioxidant complex of vitamins;
E. Antispasmodics.
368. What disease is not differentiated in acute

inflammation of the pelvic organs?
A. acute appendicitis;
B. uterine fibroids;
C. acute urinary tract infection;
D. Lower lobar pneumonia
E. Torsion of the legs of the tumor.
369. The main diagnostic method for evaluating the
effectiveness of treatment of trophoblastic disease?
A. Dynamic transvaginal ultrasound
B. Computed tomography
C. Determination of the titer of chorionic gonadotropin
in blood serum and urine in dynamics
D. Hysteroscopy with separate diagnostic curettage
E. Determination of hemoglobin level
370. What least contributes to the development of the

inflammatory process in the pelvis?
A. curettage of the uterine cavity;
B. menstruation;
C. sperm;
D. endocervicitis;
E. fibrotic changes.
371. Atrophic colpitis may develop in the following
situations, with the exception of:
A. postmenopause;
B. premature depletion of ovarian function;
D. pituitary necrosis;
E. Surgical castration at a young age.
572. The following complaint is characteristic of the onset

of acute inflammation of the uterus:
A. fever;
B. the appearance of rashes;
C. dyspeptic disorders;
D. polyphagy;
E. vomiting.
373. An indication for surgical treatment in inflammatory

processes of the uterine appendages is:
A. pyosalpinx;
B. perforation of purulent tubo-ovarian formation;
C. frequent exacerbations of the chronic inflammatory
process of the uterus;
D. endometriosis;
E. acute salpingitis.

A. sharp pains;
B. burning, itching
D. ulceration;
E. spotting.
375. Select the symptoms characteristic of pelvic peritonitis:

A. the appearance of rashes;
B. intestinal paresis;
C. a positive symptom of Shchetkin in the hypogastric
region;
D. abdominal distension;
E. enterocolitis.
376. Which statement of relative anaerobic sepsis is not

true:
A. more common with criminal termination of pregnancy;
B. may result from a hospital-acquired clostridial
infection;
C. accompanied by hemolysis of red blood cells;
D. early development of oligo- and anuria due to
hemoglobinuria;
E. Blood levels of total and unconjugated bilirubin are
elevated
377. For a clinic of septic shock are uncharacteristic:

A. drop in blood pressure;
B. oligo- and anuria;
C. icteric color of the skin precedes a drop in blood
pressure;
D. hyperthermia is replaced by hypothermia;
E. progressive DIC.
378. For emergency care in septic shock, it is not applicable:

A. paracetamol;
B. corticosteroids;
C. dopamine;
D. fresh frozen plasma;
E. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
379. The most important risk factor for endometritis after

childbirth is:
A. frequent sex life;
B. caesarean section;
C. childbirth through the natural birth canal;
E. associated upper respiratory tract infection.
380. Select characteristic complaints for acute endometritis:

A. pain throughout the abdomen;
B. pain radiating to the lower extremities;
C. fever;
D. nausea, vomiting;
E. dyspeptic disorders;
381. Parametritis occurs more often after:
A. childbirth, abortion
B. hypothermia;
C. accidental sexual intercourse;
D. ARVI
E. otitis media.
382. Select the research methods necessary for the diagnosis

of acute salpingo-oophoritis:
A. chest x-ray;
B. fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs;
C. urinalysis;
D. hysteroscopy;
E. laparoscopy.
383. Indicate an unfavorable period for surgery in case of

chronic inflammatory processes of the uterine appendages:
A. without exacerbation;
B. during an exacerbation;
C. fever is low-grade;
D. ESR more than 20 mm / hour;
E. The temperature is normal;
384. What parts of the female reproductive system are most

A. fallopian tubes;
B. ovaries;
C. uterus;
D. external genitalia;
E. vagina.

uterus appendages:
B. amenorrhea;
C. menometerorrhagia;
386. Rising gonorrhea is a defeat:
A. cervical canal;
B. fallopian tubes;
C. paraurethral glands;
D. urethra;
E. All of the above organs.
387. Clinical data characteristic of candidiasis:

A. Profuse curdled discharge from the genital tract,
itching and burning in the genital area;
B. Vaginal discharge with an unpleasant odor, plentiful,
gray-green, yellow, foamy; dysuria, itching, burning;
hyperemia, swelling, "raspberry neck", involvement in the
process of the vulva;
C. Mucous or mucopurulent discharge from the cervical
canal, often asymptomatic treatment;
D. Vaginal discharge is liquid, with an unpleasant "fishy"
smell, homogeneous adhering to the walls of the vagina, the
absence of an inflammatory reaction, itching and burning;
E. Drawing pains in the lower abdomen and lower back.
388. The diagnosis of gonorrhea can be established based

on:
A. detection in smears of microorganisms separated from
the genital tract located in pairs in the form of diplococci;
B. Gram negative cocci;
C. the location of bacteria inside the cell;
D. detection of any of the listed symptoms;
E. When establishing a diagnosis, a combination of all
the listed symptoms is necessary.
vaginosis:
B. dyspareunia;
C. profuse leucorrhoea;
D. dysuria;
E. Pelvic pain.
390. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is

A. Genital infantilism
B. External genital endometriosis
D. Chronic salpingitis
E. Adenomyosis
391. The patient has been taking antibiotics for acute
pyelonephritis for a long time. She had a burning sensation
in the vagina, itching, copious discharge. What complication
arose?
A. acute endometritis;
C. inflammation of the uterus;
D. candidal colpitis;
E. Cervical erosion.
392. An 18-year-old woman with a delay of menstruation

for 10 days had acute pain in the lower abdomen, fever up to
37.4 ° C, leukocytosis 12.4 109 / L. On palpation, the pain
spreads to the upper abdomen on the right. Differential
diagnosis is carried out with all of the following diseases,
except:
A. ectopic pregnancy;
B. appendicitis;
C. acute salpingitis;
D. colpitis;
E. Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor.
393. The following do not predispose to the development of

candidal vaginosis:
A. oral contraceptives;
B. pregnancy and diabetes;
C. taking antidepressants;
D. antihypertensive drugs
E. diuretics
394. What disease should be suspected if vaginal yeast

infection often recurs?
A. anemia;
B. diabetes mellitus;
C. systemic lupus erythematosus;
D. genital endometriosis;
E. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
395. Bacterial vaginosis is not characterized by the

following manifestation:
A. pH 5.0;
B. key cells;
C. severe inflammatory reaction;
D. an increase in the number of gardnerella;
E. Good effect from metronidazole treatment.
396. Ectopic pregnancy should not be differentiated:
A. with salpingitis;
B. with abortion;
C. with torsion of the cystoma legs;
D. with hemorrhage in the corpus luteum;
E. with endometritis;
397. The main clinical symptoms of pipe rupture do not

include:
A. sharp paroxysmal pain in the lower abdomen;
B. short-term loss of consciousness;
C. positive phrenicus symptom;
D. pallor of the skin, cold sweat.
E. Increase in body temperature;
398. Treatment measures for abortion should include:

A. observation against antibiotic therapy;
B. laparotomy after the development of a clinic of intra-
abdominal bleeding;
C. the appointment of drugs that enhance blood
coagulability;
D. immediate laparotomy and removal of the tube;
E. hormonal hemostasis.
399. The risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are not:

A. inflammatory diseases of the pelvic organs;
B. surgical interventions on the pelvic organs;
C. Tubal ligation
D. spontaneous abortion;
E. Herpes simplex virus infections.
A. 10 thousand units;
B. 20 thousand units;
C. 30 thousand units;
D. 15 thousand units.;
E. 5 thousand units.;
402. Preovulatory changes in the hormonal background are

characterized by an increase in the level
C. FSH and LH
D. prolactin
403. In the first phase of the menstrual cycle

A. LH secretion increases gradually, reaching maximum
values
B. endometrial glands become sawtooth
C. decreases the number of estradiol-binding receptors
D. there is an overgrowth of granulosa cells of the follicle
E. pupil symptom becomes "negative"
405. In the second phase of the menstrual cycle

A. There is a second peak in estrogen production
associated with the flowering of the corpus luteum
B. There is a pronounced proliferation of follicle granulosis
C. Intensive proliferation of the endometrial functional layer
occurs.
D. mucus crystallization symptom reaches maximum
severity
E. Basal temperature rises by O.2 degrees
406. The maturity of the follicle can be determined

A. blood FSH level
B. blood progesterone level
C. urinary pregnanediol level
D. ultrasound examination
E. basal temperature
407. Cervical index

A. allows you to diagnose the moment of ovulation
B. is rated on a 3-point system
C. determined during colposcitological examination
D. takes into account the shape of the vaginal cervix
E. allows you to assess the level of estrogen saturation
408. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the reproductive

period due to
A. impaired ectopic pregnancy
B. endometriosis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome
D. inflammatory process of the endometrium
E. Disorder of the mechanism of regulation of the
menstrual cycle
409. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with persistence of the
follicle proceeds against the background
D. androgenic saturation
E. glucocorticoid deficiency
410. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in menopause due to

A. Disorder of the circhoral production of gonadotropin
releasing hormone (GnRH)
B. adenomyosis
C. adenomatosis
D. Atrophic processes in the endometrium
E. Immunodeficiency
411. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the juvenile period

includes bleeding
A. for blood diseases
B. with cardiovascular disease
C. with thyroid disease
D. for adrenal disease
E. Disorder of the formation of circhoral production of
gonadotropin releasing hormone
412. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with follicular atresia

occurs against


415. Hypoplastic endometrium is characteristic

A. for ovarian hypofunction
B. for dysfunctional uterine bleeding in menopause
C. For ectopic pregnancy
D. for endometrial precancer
E. for tecom and granulosa cell tumors of the ovary
416. The condition of the endometrium with follicular

atresia is characterized by
A. glandular hyperplasia
B. atypical glandular hyperplasia (adenomatosis)
C. High glycogen
D. Decidual changes
E. The emergence of large Arias-Stella cells
417. The condition of the endometrium with persistence of

the follicle is characterized by the presence of
A. the light glands of Overbeck
B. adenocontoms
C. adenomatosis
D. adenomyosis
E. glandular cystic hyperplasia
418. For the treatment of bleeding with persistence of the

corpus luteum, apply
A. curettage of the uterus
B. cervical electrical stimulation
C. gestagens
D. danazol
E. Parlodel
419. Indications for hysteroscopy:

A. Pregnancy
B. Suspicion of submucous uterine fibroids
C. Heavy uterine bleeding
D. Cervical stenosis
E. Common Cervical Cancer
420. The diagnosis of torsion of the cystoma legs confirms:

A. sudden abrupt onset of pain;
B. tension of the anterior abdominal wall;
C. positive symptom of Shchetkin-Blumberg;
D. detection of a sharply painful tumor in the pelvis;
E. leukocytosis, accelerated ESR.
421. Acute inflammation of the uterine appendages of

gonorrheal etiology
A. usually develops within the first week after infection
B. often complicated by pelvioperitonitis
C. is an indication for surgical treatment
D. diagnosed with hysterosalpingography
E. is an indication for the administration of ampicillin in a
course dose of 3.5 g
422. The diagnosis of gonorrhea can be made.

A. with a positive Borde-Zhangu reaction
B. if bilateral inflammation of the fallopian tubes is detected
C. In cases of concomitant inflammation of the urethra and
cervical canal
D. In cases of gonococcus detection
E. in cases of fever up to 38 degrees in response to
administration of gonovaccine

A. Inflammation of the vulvar mucosa
B. Inflammation of the uterine lining
C. Cervical inflammation
D. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes
E. Ovarian inflammation
424. A feature of the course of gonorrhea in women is
A. the presence of pronounced clinical symptoms with
lesions of the urethra and cervical canal
B. the presence of foamy discharge
C. bilateral lesion of the uterus
D. the lack of connection between certain stages of the
development of the disease and menstruation, childbirth,
abortion
E. Frequent development of parametritis
425. The criterion for cured gonorrhea in women is the

absence of gonococci in smears taken
A. during follow-up examinations using physiological
and combined provocations for three months
B. after three monthly nutritional provocations
C. after three series of monthly physical provocations
D. after a series of intramuscular injections of increasing
doses of gonovaccine
E. after completion of treatment
426. The rapid increase in the size of fibroids.

A. may be due to malignant degeneration of the node
B. usually associated with necrosis of the node
C. may be a symptom of endometrial cancer
D. is an indication for more active conservative therapy
E. always accompanied by pain

A. includes the use of diathermy
B. based on long-term use of androgens in a continuous
mode
row
D. Based on long-term use of vitamin B12
428. Common forms of ectopic pregnancy include

A. tubal pregnancy
B. Ovarian pregnancy
C. abdominal pregnancy
D. Interconnected pregnancy
E. Pregnancy in the rudimentary horn

with
A. bimanual research
B. ultrasound examination
D. puncture of the posterior fornix
E. serological pregnancy response
430. In the differential diagnosis of tubal pregnancy:

A. History data are usually not significant
B. The detection of an Arias-Stella phenomenon in
histological examination of the endometrium is indisputable
evidence.
sign
E. Under any conditions, puncture of the posterior fornix is
crucial
431. Inflammation of the perinatal fiber is called:
A. Peritonitis
B. Endometritis
C. Vaginitis
D. Parametritis
E. Vulvit

A. Uterine fibroids
B. Anovulation
C. Adenomyosis
D. Endometritis

indication
B. for laparoscopy
435. The pelvic floor is:

A. Hymen;
B. vagina;
C. Muscles and fascia of the perineum;
D. The vestibule of the vagina.
E. Douglas space
436 Cervical pregnancy
A. usually interrupted for 4-5 weeks
B. interruption usually accompanied by internal bleeding
C. Diagnosed only during curettage of the uterus
D. can be diagnosed by the location of the external
E. In most cases, can be treated with vacuum aspiration of
the ovum.
437. Cervical cancer

A. diagnosed with a specific Schiller test
B. more common in nulliparous women
C. found only in exophytic form
D. in the early stages manifested by acyclic bleeding
E. in the pre-invasive stage may be an indication for
cervical electroexcision
438. The acidic environment of the vagina is provided by

the presence of:
A. Epithelium of the vagina;
C. The wand of Dederlein;
D. Gonococcus.
E. Kokkov
439. If pathological changes in the cervix are detected, it is

necessary:
A. Take a smear from the changed area for cytological
examination;
B. Treat the neck with a disinfectant solution;
C. Surveillance with periodic examinations.
D. Take a smear on the flora
E. PCR analysis
440. Dysplasia
A. This is a pathology of the integumentary cervical
epithelium, in the entire thickness of which there are
histological signs of cancer, but there is no invasion of the
underlying stroma
B. does not apply to background diseases of the cervix
C. may be detected by a special study of a visually
unchanged cervix
D. is an indication for hysterectomy at any age
E. is usually treated with electrocoagulation of the affected
areas of the cervix

menstruation
menstruation
442. Internal endometriosis

A. diagnosed by colposcopy
B. rare
C. develops from the basal layer of the endometrium
D. Well amenable to hormone therapy
E. not detected by hysteroscopy
443. Relates to internal genital endometriosis.

A. endometriosis of the vaginal cervix
B. peritoneal endometriosis
C. Ovarian endometriosis
D. endometriosis of the interstitial uterine tubes
E. retrocervical endometriosis
444. Retrocervical endometriosis

A. may be manifested by pain, flatulence, delayed stool
on the eve and during menstruation
B. Impossible to diagnose with bimanual examination
C. diagnosed with hysterography
D. diagnosed with pneumopelviography
E. is treated only by surgery
445. The differential criterion that determines stage II of

cancer
A. ovary (FIGO classification, 1976), is

B. ascites
C. capsule rupture
D. hydrothorax
E. damage to the second ovary
F. Damage to the fallopian tube and uterus
446. A sign defining the III stage of ovarian cancer (FIGO
classification, 1976) is
A. ascites
B. capsule rupture
C. damage to the second ovary
D. damage to the uterus
E. the presence of metastases in the omentum
447. The most important additional method of preoperative

diagnosis of the nature of the tumor process in the ovary is
A. ultrasound examination
B. Bi-Contrast Pelviography
C. pelviotomography
D. lymphography
E. Cytological examination of punctate from the
abdominal cavity
448. The treatment of benign tumors of the ovary in

childhood and puberty is
A. in the course of chemotherapy
B. in the appointment of hormone therapy
D. in resection of the affected ovary
appendages
449. The <choice operation> in benign ovarian tumor in pre-

and postmenopausal women is
A. Ovarian resection
B. removal of the appendages from the lesion
D. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with
appendages
omentectomy
450. The <operation of choice> in ovarian cancer is

Wertheim operation
A. expanded hysterectomy with removal of paraaortic
lymph nodes
B. Extirpation or supravaginal amputation of the uterus
with appendages and omentectomy
D. Removal of affected appendages
omentectomy

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
452. The leading method of complex treatment of malignant

ovarian cancer is
A. chemotherapy and surgical treatment
B. surgical treatment + radiotherapy
C. X-ray and hormone therapy
D. hormone therapy and surgical treatment
E. chemo-hormone therapy
453. Most malignant tumors of the ovary are
A. serous tumors
B. Mucinous tumors
C. Tumor stroma tumors
D. teratomas
E. metastatic tumors

E. Husband Disease
455. The good patency of the fallopian tubes can be judged

by the data of chromohydrotubation in case urine
A. Blue in one hour
E. Remains colorless after one hour and after 24 hours

premenopause is called the period
A. From the end of reproductive age to the onset of
menopause
B. The length of time after the last menstruation
C. Last menstruation
D. Period of menstrual dysfunction until the last
menstruation
E. The Period Before the Menarche

menopause is called

B. The period from the onset of menstruation to the last
menstruation

A. 45 years
B. 5O years
C. 4O years
D. 55 years
E. 43 years
460. The autonomic-nervous manifestations of menopausal
syndrome include
A. Irritability
B. Sweating
C. Sleep Disorders
E. Decreased libido
461. The pathogenetic treatment of adrenogenital syndrome

(AGS) is
C. Glucocorticoid Therapy
462. To confirm Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome

A. Transfenoidal Arteriography
B. Determination of gonadotropin hormones
C. Ultrasound scan of the pelvic organs or
pneumopelviography
D. Hysterography
E. Karyotype study
463. Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster syndrome is an indication

A. For long-term parlodel therapy
B. For demedulation of the ovaries
C. For plastic surgery on the uterus
D. For colpopoiesis
E. For surgery on the pituitary gland
464. Sheehan syndrome

A. Develops with pituitary tumors
B. May be due to massive blood loss during childbirth
C. Characterized by hyperprolactinemia
D. Accompanied by hyperthyroidism
E. Accompanied by hypercorticism
465. When hyperprolactinemia is used

A. Diphenin
B. Pergonal
C. Clomiphene
D. Parlodel
E. Danazole
466. The most important role in the formation of prolapse

and prolapse of the walls of the vagina and uterus belongs to
traumatic injuries.
A. vaginal mucosa
B. wide uterine ligaments
C. Sacro-uterine ligaments
D. round uterine ligaments
E. Pelvic floor muscles
467. Uterine prolapse

A. not found in nulliparous women
B. may be associated with a sedentary lifestyle
C. It is considered complete if the cervix extends beyond the
genital gap
D. may be complicated by the development of decubital
ulcers
E. is an indication for Emmett's operation
468. The uterine suspension does not include

A. Own ligaments of the ovaries
B. round uterine ligaments
C. wide uterine ligaments
D. Suspending ovarian ligaments
E. Sacro-uterine ligaments
469. The most common chorionic carcinoma occurs after:

A. abortion
B. cystic drift
C. Normal birth
D. premature birth
E. inflammatory processes
470. Management tactics for patients with DMC of the
juvenile period:
A. limit yourself to symptomatic hemostatic and antianemic
therapy
B. carry out hormonal hemostasis with progesterone
C. Treatment and diagnostic curettage of the endometrium
and endocervix
D. complex therapy, including hemostatic, antianemic,
uterotonic therapy, with inefficiency - hormonal
hemostasis
E. hysteroscopy
fibroids:
B. Algodismenorea
C. menorrhagia
D. leucorrhoea
E. secondary infertility

A. Includes diathermy
B. Based on long-term use of androgens in a continuous
mode
row
D. Based on long-term use of Vitamin B12
473. For anovulatory menstrual cycle is characteristic

B. prolonged persistence of the follicle
C. Prevalence of gestagens in the second phase of the cycle
D. prevalence of gestagens in the first phase of the cycle
E. estrogen deficiency
474. The following does not apply to endoscopic research

methods in gynecology:
A. hysteroscopy
B. colposcopy
C. culdocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. Culdoscopy
475. Obstetric peritonitis most often occurs after:

A. childbirth
B. early spontaneous miscarriage
C. Cesarean section
D. Artificial abortion
E. Late spontaneous miscarriage
476. The hypothalamus produces the following hormones

A. gonadotropins
B. estrogens
C. gestagens
D. releasing factors
E. glucocorticoids
477. With exacerbation of chronic salpingoophoritis by the

type of pelvic nerve neuralgia, the effect does not have:
A. antibiotic therapy
B. electrophoresis of amidopyrine
C. Diadynamic currents
D. ultraviolet erythema
E. amplipulse therapy
478. Low doses of estrogen

A. stimulate FSH production
B. inhibit FSH production
C. enhance LH production
D. inhibit LH production
E. do not affect FSH production
479. Hysterosalpingography in the diagnosis of internal

uterine endometriosis is the most informative:
B. immediately after menstruation
C. on day 12-14
D. on day 16-18
E. on day 20-22
480. The complication most often arising with the

introduction of the IUD is:
A. ischemic cervical insufficiency
B. ectopic pregnancy
C. perforation
D. acute infection
481. In the differential diagnosis between uterine myoma

and ovarian tumor, the most informative:
B. Ultrasound
C. Puncture of the posterior fornix.
D. laparoscopy
E. Probing of the uterine cavity

A. hysterosalpinography
B. vaginal smear cytology
C. determination of basal temperature
D. endometrial biopsy
E. sperm examination
483. If you suspect a malignant lesion of the ovary in a

patient 55 years old, it is shown:
A. Removal of the uterus on the affected side
B. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with
appendages and resection of the greater omentum
D. Removal of the uterus with appendages on both sides
484. Tactics at the clinic of “acute abdomen” at the

prehospital stage:
A. Anesthesia
B. Cold on the stomach;
C. Cleansing enema;
D. Urgent hospitalization
E. Observation
485. When acyclic spotting appears:

A. hysterosalpingography
B. definition of PH
C. Ultrasound
D. definition of HCG
E. Diagnostic curettage
486. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during

A.4 months
B.5 months
C.6 months
D.2 months
E.3 months
487. The main method for stopping abnormal uterine

agents
C. Use of androgens
D. continuous use of 17-hydroxyprogesterone capronate
(17-OPK)
E. Separate diagnostic curettage of the mucous
membrane of the uterine cavity and cervical canal
488. Which parts of the female reproductive system are

most often affected by tuberculosis:
A. fallopian tubes
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
E. vagina

uterus appendages:
B. amenorrhea
D. infertility
E. NMC
vaginosis:
B. dyspareunia
C. Profuse discharge whitewash
D. dysuria
E. Pelvic pain

fibroids:
B. Algodismenorea
C. Uterine bleeding
D. secondary infertility
E. iron deficiency anemia
492. In the chain of steroid biosynthesis, the first

biologically active
hormone is
A. androstenedione
B. estradiol
C. estriol
D. testosterone
E. progesterone
493. The main estrogen hormone in a woman’s body
postmenopausal period is
A. estradiol
B. estrone
C. estriol
E. progesterone
494. Gonadotropins, which play a role in the pathogenesis of

hyperplastic processes and endometrial cancer, are secreted:
A. adrenal glands
B. hypothalamus
C. anterior pituitary
D. posterior pituitary gland
E. Ovaries

A. 10 thousand units
B. 20 thousand units
C. 30 thousand units
D. 25 thousand units
E. 15 thousand units
496. Delayed sexual development is lack

A. secondary sexual characteristics by 14 g., and
B. secondary sexual characteristics by 12 g., and
C. secondary sexual characteristics by 14 g., and
D. secondary sexual characteristics by 12 g., and
E. secondary sexual characteristics by 13 g., and

A. surgery, blood transfusion
B. consultation of the therapist, anesthetist, surgery
C. Ultrasound, blood transfusion, surgery
D. blood transfusion, surgery
E. application of hemostatic therapy, blood transfusion,
surgery
498. In patients with amenorrhea with Itsenko-Cushing's

disease, there is a hyperproduction of the hormone
adenohypophysis
A. somatotropic
B. thyrotropic
C. adrenocorticotropic
D. follicle-stimulating
E. Luteinizing
499. The criterion of gonorrhea cured in patients is

established after treatment during
A.1 month
B.2 months
C.3 months
D.4 months
E. 5 months
500. The transferred inflammatory process of the pelvic

organs cannot be the reason:
A. tubal pregnancy
B. endometriosis
C. Adhesive process in the pelvis
D. painful intercourse
E. hydrosalpinx
END
Gprinciple of antise X Be6 TecTvpoea
Gcoronary heart dis X
C
CHHrx MaHMaipman
Bonpoc: N°23
Why is expected change in the hematologic system during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Decreses in protein
2 Decrease in sedimentation rate
3 Increase in blood volume
4 Decrease in WBC's
5 Increase inhematocrit
19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
1
2 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 400
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBe4eHHlM Bonpo
niponyueiHHbi Bonpoc
TexyuwA Bonpoc
Ao aabepiioHHA TecTa oCranoo
1:11:51
coronary heart d x G principle of antisex Be6TecTypoBa
G
O avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
C
CHHrx KaHManpma Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°22
to reduced incidence of neural tube
defects:
Periconceptional use of the following agent leads
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Magnesium
2 Calcium
3 Vitamin A
4 Iron
5( Folic acid
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
50
89 10
1
2 3 4 567
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbi Bonpoc
nponyueHHbil Bonpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3abepuieHw TecTa ocTanoc
1:12:01
Gcoronary heart di X principle of antise x Be6 TectwpoBaH X
C Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing9
CHHTx MaHMaRAMan
Bonpoc: N 26
Why does anemia of pregnancy occur?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Levels of erythropoietin decrease
2 None of the above
3 Plasma volume increases
4 More Fe is available for fetal erythropoesis
5/ Red cellmassdecreases
22 23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 1415 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbl Bonpoc
ponyujenin Bonpoc
Texyunn Bonpoc
o sabepuienw Tedra ocTanocb
1:11:31
G coronary heart dis X Gprinciple of antise X 6 TecTpo
C Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHx KaHMaip
Bonpoc: N°21
The duration of the second stage of labor should not be more:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
20 min
2 30 min
3 2 hour
4 3 hour
5(1 hour
17 18 19 20
50
12 3 45 6 7 B 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHl Bonpoc
nponyujewHbl BOnpoc
TeKyuiw Bonpoc
X Gprinciple of antis Be6TecTHpoBa
Gcoronary heart dis
C Ka Ru
CHHrx KaHMangwa
Bonpoc: N 24
three-analyte combination for Down's syndrome screening?
What is considered the best
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 AFP hCG, estriol

2 AFP hCG, PAPP-A
3 AFP estriol, inhibin
4 AFP estriol, PAPP-A
AFPhCG, inhibin
20 2122 23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9 10
5
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyujeHHLIM BOnpoc
Texyiunn Bonpoc
-La o Banepüieiwa TecTa oTanoch
1:11:44
61% 7:33AM
Gcoronary heart dis X G principle of antise x Be6 TecTpoBar
C O avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHrx KaHMaaman Ks Ru
Bonpoc: N°25
During physiologically developing pregnancy the
following changes in the haemostatic system
help to prevent postpartum bleeding:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Hypercoagulation
2 Activation of only the plasma link
3 Consumption coagulopathy
Activation of only the vascular-platelet link
5 Hypocoagulation
21 22 23 24 25 26
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 789 10
31 1213 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHI BOnpo0c
nponyuetHbi BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao BaBepuieuwa Tecra ocranocu:
1:11:37
O O
61% 7:33
G coronary heart dis x G principle of antise X Be6 TecTpoBa
O COavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHrx Mawmanama
Bonpoc: N 27
You have just examined a 28 year-old primagravida in spontaneous labor at 38 weeks
Examination findings are cephalic presentation, cervix is 7 cm dilated, posterior fontanelle
palpable anteriorly under symphisis pubis. What is presenting diameter of the fetus?
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBET)
1 Suboccipitobregmatic
Verticomental
3 Suboccipitjfrontal
Submentobregmatic
5 Occipitofrontal
23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 56789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHii Bonpoc
iponyuueHHil Bonp0c
wsssl unnnn
27
G twenty-seven
4 O
6% 7:33 AM
G coronary heart di: X Gprinciple of antise x Be6TeCTHpOBaH X
f C O avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHrx aHMa@pma K3 Ru
Bonpoc: N°28
Pregnant woman at term of pregnancy complains
of a feeling of heaviness and pressure in the
lower abdomen, sometimes a little pain?
From the vagina there were scanty mucous
What is your diagnosis? discharges?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Beginning of labor
2 Premature labor
3 Active phase
4 Latent phase
5 Preliminary phase
50
24 25 26 27
28 20
2 345 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 77 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbih Bonpoe
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
Tekyuini Bornpoc
Ao sanepuieina Tecra o0Tanoch
Multi-User Lenovo
PS HD Dual Front 86 ( Kid's Ac
Speakers 9 Accounts
5 Samsung India X LMS KTMA Be6TecrwpoBal
C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
rapr AMKua
Bonpoc: N°1
What frequency range of transducers should be used for transabdorminal examination of the
pelvic organs?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 3.5-5.0 MHz
2 10.0-15.0 MHz
3 7.5-10.0 MHz
4 15.0-20.0 MHz
5 5.0-7.5 MHz
23 4 5 6 7 50
2 3 4 5 678 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHEIM BONpoc
nporyujeHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyuan Bonpoc
Ao saBepiueHnA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:12:56
3aBepuwTb TeCT
SAMGUNG
al 76% m07 41
Samsung India LMS KrMA X
Be6TecTwpoBaX
Fapr Auxua
Bonpoc:Ne6
Specity the age at which girls are determined by the stage of butane breast and nipple
"
pigmentation.:
OTBeTbi(0gMH OTBeT)
1 8-9
2 16-17
3 14-15
4 12-13
5 10-11
23 4 7 8 9 10 50
7 212 3 4 57 8 9 10
11 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl BOnpoC
riponyueHHbIM Bonpoc
Texyuna Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TecTa ocTanocb
1:06:43
3anepuWTb TeCT
SAMSUB
Al 76% m0743
B Samsung IndiaX LMS KTMA Be6TecTMpOBR
FaprAKua
Bonpoc: N°7
Determine at what age the absence of secondary sexual characteristics is considered a sign of
delayed sexual development in giris
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1 14-18
2 10-13
3 11-14
4 13-17
5 12-16
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 50
123 4 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHblM Bonpoc
rponyiueHHbi Bonpoc
Teixyuumt sonpoc
Ao sanepiuieHR TecTa oCTanoch
1:03:51
3asepuwTb TeCT
TpMnaTxW AeBAyTT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°1
A 56-year-old man was admitted to the oncology clinic

with complaints of pain in the pelvic bones. He has
frequent urination. The urine, sometimes with blood
impurities. Digital rectal exam revealed an abnormal
solid mass in the prostate. What imaging study is the
first choice to clarify the diagnosis ?
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBET)
1 X-ray
2 Transabdominal Ultrasound
3 Transrectal Ultrasound
4 MRI
5 CT-scan
1
23 4 5 6 1
50
SAMSUNG
S Samsung india | al 75%m07 48

X LMS KTMA
Be6TecTApoBBX
rapr Awxwa
Bonpoc: N9
At the pediatricians examination,
the girl is 3 months old. Objectively: hypertrophy
aplasia of the labia, and hymen. Guess ofthe clitoris
what the girl's preliminary diagnosis is?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 synechia of the labia
3 hyperpitultarism
hermaphroditism
5 hypopituitarism
7 9 10 11 12 13 50
1 2 3 45 5 7 8910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHbl Boipoc
TexyuuA BOnpoc
AO 3anepuenwR TecTa oCTanoch
0:59:23
3anepunTb TecT
Aepa Ke
Bonpoc: N926
Periconceptional use
of the following
agent leads to reduced incidence
of neuraltube defects:
OTBeTbi(oAMH oTBeT)
1 Calcium
2 Vitamin A
3 Magnesium
Iron
5 Folic acid
22
22 23 24 25
2627 28 29 30 So
10
20
30
40
Bonpoc: N941
Parametritis is inflammation
50 of the:
OTBeTbl(oAMH oTBeT)
1OParauterinefiber
1anocb 2 Fallopian tube
3 Cecum
4 Gland
5 Ovary
37 38 39 40 42 43 44 45
SAMSUNG
S SamsungIndia x
,
l 73% m08 05
LMS KTMA
f
Be6TecTposa X
TaprAMxua R
Bonpoc: N 24
What causes flexion of the
head during labor?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Resistance of pelvic floor
2 Rotation of head
3 Resistance of pelvic bones

4 Decent of head
5 Engagement of head
20 21 22 23
24 25 26 27 28
50
1 2 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 232 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM Bonpoc
nporyuyetHbl Bonpo0C
Texyumh Bonpoc
A0 30BepuieHus TecTa ocTanocb
0:42:33
3aeepuwh TeCT
SAMSUNG
Al 73%m08.08
S Samsung India| x LMS KrMA X Be6TeCTHpOBa x
Fapr AMKwa
Bonpoc: N°27
A 25 year old, pregnant presents to the 0B clinic. She is 30 weeks pregnant by
last menstrual
period dating. With an external obstetric examination of a pregnant woman in the fundus of
the
uterus determined a round, dense, balloted part of fetus. Which of the following Leopold's
maneuvers determines this?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Second maneuvers
2 Third maneuvers
3 Fourth maneuvers
4 Firstmaneuvers
5 Fifth maneuvers
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
1 2 3 4567 89.10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHiR BOnpoe
iponyLujeuel BOnpoc
Tekyun sunpod
Ao sasepuwewn recTa ocTaIOC
0:39:27
SAMSUNO
73% mOh 10
0 Samng inte LMS KTMA
Be6 Tectpoe
C A avn.kgma,kg/webtest/testin
r'apr axu
Bonpoc: N°31
Algodismenorea is
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Painful menstruation
2 Reduced blood loss during menstniation
Intermenstrual meager spotting
4 Rare and scarce menstruation
Heavy periods
27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
10
123 13 144 1556 16 177 a9
18 19 20
11 12
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHblt BOnpec
npanyuieHibt Bonpoc
TERyiuw Boripoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb
0:36:53
3anepuwTb TeCT
M
al 72%
mO8 13
6 Samsung India |
x MLMSKTMA Be6TecrwpoBaX
apr AMia
Bonpoc: N°32
Name the composition of injectable contraceptives:
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Mixed doses of hormones
2 Small doses of a progestogen
3 Long-acting Progestogens
Conjugated estrogens
5 Antiandrogens
28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
1 23 456 7 B
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17/18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
TexyLn eonpoc
Ao 38BepuieHMA TecTa ocTanocb
0:34:24
SaBepuWTb TeCT
61% 7:34 A
Gcoronary heart dis Xx
G principle of antise x Be6 TecTpoBaH
CWHx KaHManpa Kg
Bonpoc: N°29
In the anovulatory menstrual cycle, basal temperature is characterized by:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Rise In Temperature Before Ovulation
2 Lack Of Temperature Rise
3 Rise In Temperature Before Menstruation
Rise In Temperature After Ovulation
5 Rise In Temperature Immediately After Menstruation
25 26 27 28 29 30
50
12
11
3 4 5 6 7 89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM BOnp0c
Tekyuinn Bonpoc
29
G twenty-nine
61 61% 7
Gcoronary heart dis X Gprinciple of antise X Be6TeCTpoBaHx
CMHrx MaHMaigma
Bonpoc: N930
What are the diagnostic tests that indicate the presence of bacterial vaginosis
OTBeTb (oAMH OTBeT)

1 Lowering the ph of vaginal secretions
2 Increase in basal temperature
Detection of abnormal cells
4 Detection of key cells
5 Negative amino test of whites
26 27 28 29 31 34
50
1 23 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM Bopoc
nporiyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao a6eLAIe recra ograngcb
1:10:57
O
A55% 8:1
CMHrx KaHManpan K
Bonpoc: N°1
In which of the following conditions is recommended to perform Hysterosalpingography?
OTBETbl(oAWH OTBeT)
1 Pregnancy
2 Infertility
3 Bloody discharge
4 Pelvicinfection
5 Heavy periods
23 50
211 12 133 14456 177 89 10

15 16 18 19
20
2122 23 2425 2627 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 A8 49
50
oTBeeHHbi Bonpo
niponyujeHHi Bonpog
TEKyuinn Bonpoc
Ao aanepuenwa Tecra
ograioch
0:27:24
3aBepuwTb TeCT
72% m0814
x LMS KIMA X Be6 TecTMpoBaX
Samsung India |
Of C
raprAwKua
Bonpoc: N 33
For planned hormonal contraception use:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
Pure gestagens
2 A-gn realizing hormones
Pure estrogens
Selective inhibitors of progesterone

receptors
4
5 Prostoglandins
35 36 37
30 31 32 33 34
29
50
10
2 3 45 6 7
1 9 8
16 17 18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15
29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
39 400
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 50
48 49
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
OTBeyeHHbIMBOpoc
iponyujeHHbM BOnpoc
Texyunn Bonpoc
ocTanoch
Ao 3asepuueHwa Tecra
0:32:52
3aBepuWTh TeCT
SAMSUNG
al 72% 08 18
0 SamsungIndia x LMS KTMA
Be6 TecTWpOB
rapr Awxu1a
Bonpoc: Ne39
A 20-year-old female patient turned
to clinic, complaining of abundant, purulent
the genital tract, itching, burning and discharge from
pain in the vagina. She fell ll acutely, 2 days ago,
above complaints appeared. Menstrual function not when the
is impaired. By examination:
mucosa is sharply hyperemic, covered the vaginal
with a purulent bloom, bleeds easily
cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa when touched. The
is not changed. What is the most likely diagnosis
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Acute colpitis
2 Vulvovaginitis
3 Bartholinitis
4 Endocervicitis
5 Endometritiss
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
123 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18, 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31.32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
FiponyuyeHHb1A BonpoC
TekyLLn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHwa TecTa ocTanoch

Tagwepa Keean NpaeHH6
Bonpoc: N942
Which factors not increase
the risk of developing inflammatory
diseases sexual organs:
OTBeTbi(oAUH OTBeT)
1 Hysterosalpingography
2 Oral contraceptives
3 IUCD
4 Medical abortion
5 Sexual initiation at age 15
38 39 40 41 47 43 44 45 46 50
45 8:18 AM
CHHrx MaHMaipan Ka Rtu
Bonpoc: N°4
Ultrasound examination revealed hyperechoic finding on the endometrium. Most probable
diagnosis is endometrium polyp. What is the best imaging study to do next to clarify the
diagnosis 7
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Pelvic Xray
3 MRI
CTscan
5 Hysteroscopy
12 3 5 6 7 50
111 122 133 144 515 166 717 18B919 10

20
2122 23 2425 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoc
nporyiuewHbl BOnpoc
Teryunn sonpoc
Ao 3asepuenas TecTa ocTanoc
0:27:06
3anepuMTb TecT
4
Gfour
IPS HD dDual Frant Muit-User enovo

55% 8:17 AM
CHHrx HaHManpwa Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne3
Which medical imaging is used to obtain an image of the mucous surface of the uterine cavity?
OTBETbli(OAMH OTBeT)
Hysteroscopy
2 MRI
Ct-scan
4 Ultrasound
5 Sonohysterography
1 4 5 6 7 50
1212 133 414 155 166717 188 91020

11 19
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29
23 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
Tekyuinn BOnpoc
Ao 3asepueHwa Tecta ocTanocb
0:27:18
3aBepunTb Tecr
G 3
three
A O O
Kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Taqepa Keean MpaeWHOxan
Patient L, 42 years old, consulted

Bonpoc: N939
a gynecologist to receive
marriage. History of 2 births, recommendations on contraception,
2 medical abortions. General suffers from hypertension
35. Recommended method of contraception: condition is satisfactory, for 5 years. Regular sexlifein
blood pressure is 135/90mm Hg,
height 164 cm, weight 90
kg. BMI
OTBeTbI(oAnH OTBeT)
Postcoital contraception (Postinor, Dvella)
OIntrauterine device with silver

3 Surgical sterilization
4 Condom
5 Calendar chythm method
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 S0
SAMSUNG
71%m0823
Samsung India x LMS KIMA Be6TecrpoBa
C A avn.kgma.kg/wehbtest/testin9
rapr Awxu
Bonpoc: N939
the genital tract, itching, burning and pain in the vagina. She fell ill acutely,2 discharge fron
above complaints appeared. Menstrual function days ago, when the
is not impaired. By examination: the vagnal
mucosa is sharply hyperemic,
covered witha purülent bloom, bleeds easily
cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is not when touched, The
changed. What is the most likely diagnósi
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Acute colpitis
2 VulvovaginitisS
Bartholinitis
Endocervicitis
5 Endometritis
35 36 37
38 3940 41 42 43
50
1 23 45 6 78 9 10
11 1213 1718
14 15 16 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
nponyuteHHbiM Boripoc
Tekyiuw Boripoc
Mo 3asepwenwn TecTa OCTanoC

SAMSUNG
8 Samsung India 71% m 0823

X LMS KTMA X Ee6TecTHpoBa X
rapr Auxuwa
Bonpoc: NP42
Pathological amenorhea does not include:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Amenorrhea In Kallmann syndrome
2 Ameniorthea in Sheehan's syndrome
3 Amenorrhea with gonadal dysgenesis
4 Psychogenic amenorrhea
5 Amenorrhea of childhood
38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
50
12 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 62 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHi BOnpoc
riponyieuik sonpoe
Texyun Bonpoe
o saBepuuena TeCTa DCTanOC
0:24:08
308epuinTb TeCT
a6 Tecrvposo
C kgma.kg/webtest/tenting
apr Au
Parametritis-is inflammation
Bonpoc: N943
ofthe:
OTBeTbi(opMH
1
OTBeT)
Cecum
2 Gland
3 Parauterinefiber
4 Ovary
5 Fallopiantube
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50
1 2 3 4 56 78 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM BOnpoc
npornyujeHHbih BOnpoe
TeKyuw Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwA TecTa ocTanocb
0:24:43
3aBepwwTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
S Samsung India X l 70%m08 28

LMS KrMA
Be6TecTwpoB
Tapr AMiKua
Bonpoc: NP48
Through the lesser
sciatic foramen passes
the following structures
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
the pudendal neurovascular
bundle, internus obturator
muscle
2 the external obturator artery, external
cutaneus nerve of thigh
3 the inferior vesical artery, internal pudendal
artery and vein
4 the posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh, internus
obturator muscle
5 the inferior vesical artery, posterior cutaneus nerve
of thigh
43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
1 2 3 4 56 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM BOnpoc
riponyujeHHbl Bonpoc
TEKyuyin BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TecTa oCTanocb
0:19:29
O Sammungtndia
i MS KTMA
Bef Tec
O C A avn kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Tayr Fo
Bonpoc: N947
The suspensory system of the uterus includes
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
cardinal ligaments of uterus
2 ig propria of ovaries
suspensory ligaments of ovaries
rectouterine ligaments
5 broad ligaments of uterus
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl BOnp0c
nporyueHHblR Bonpoc
Texyuna Bonpoc
Ao sanepuieHwa TecTa oCTanocb
0:18:02
3aBepuiwrb TeCT
ShMSUNG
S SamsingIndiox LMSKTMA l 70m8 29

Be6Tecrvpoes
CA C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
1
Tapr Aptu
Bonpoc: N948
Through the lesser sciatic foramen
passes the following structures:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
the pudendal neurovascular bundle, internus
obturator muscle
2 the external obturator artery, external cutaneus nerve
of thigh
3 the inferior vesical artery, internal pudendal artery and vein
4 the posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh, internus obturator muscle
5 the inferior vesical artery, posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh
43 44 45 46 17 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
26 29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBevewHbit Bonpoc
riponyugeubia Bonpoc
Texyunn ponpoc
o sanepuienws recTa oCTanocb
0:17:54
3anepuwTb TeCT
avn.k na.kg/webt
btest/testing
s
rapr
e
Bonpoc: N949
Benign hyperplasia
(excessive growth
would be most likely of cells) of which part
to interfere with the of
passage of urine? the male1eproductive system
OTBeTbi(OAMH
OTBeT)
Peripheral Zone of
the Prostate
2 Ejaculatory Duct
3 Seminal Vesicle
4 Central Zone of the Prostate
5 Periurethral Zone of the Prostate
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 S0
1 2 3 4 56 7 8 9
10
11 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIR Bonpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHHA TeCta oCTanocb
0:17:21
3aBepuwTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
al 69% m08.36
S Samsung Indla x LMS KTMA
Be6 Tecrpoea
rapr Awku
Bonpoc: N°18
Which of the following statements is the most accurate
regarding the normal changes in the
cardiovascular system at term? Total volume
OTBeTbi(opMH OTBeT)
1
Increases by 20%, plasma volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase
2 Increases by 20%, RBC mass increase exceeding plasma volume increase
4 Increases by 40%, volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase
5 No change in the total blood volume
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
2 3 4 56 7 89 10
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
39 40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbIM BOpoc
iponyuueHHbl Bonpoc
TeKyuun Bonpoc
AO 3asepuieHa TeCTa oCTan0cb
0:10:53
3aBepuiHTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
S SamsungIndiax LMSKIMA 69%m08 39

Be6TectwpoBa
Tapr cua
Bonpoc: N949
Benign hyperplasia (excessive
growth of cells) of which part
would be most likely to interfere of the malereproductive systerm
with the passage of urine?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1
Peripheral Zone of the Prostate
2 Ejaculatory Duct
3 Seminal Vesicle
A3 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 34 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbl BOnpoc
nporyuueHHbIR Bonpoc
Texyuiwn BOnpoc
ocCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TecTa
0:08:27
3aBepuiwTb TeCT
l 98% 8.55 am
S samsung | GLOBAL x Be6 TecTpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap MpaTan

gRu
Bonpoc: Ne9
The14-year-old girl complained of low growth (on
the scale of height-age", red zone), there are
no secondary sexual characteristics. From
the family history, it is known that the parents are of
average height. What is your presumed diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 chronic eating disorder
2 Shereshevsky-Turner Syndrome
3 congenital hypothyroidism
constitutional growth retardation
5 family short stature
56 7
89 10 11 1213 50
1
2 3 45 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb.
1:06:23
l 98% B8.56 am
S samsung| GLOBAL X Be6 TecTwpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap lpaTan
Bonpoc: Ne10
The 12-year-old boy has an appointment with a pediatrician. Objectively: the body weight is 45 kg,
thePFA is excessively developed. There is a symmetrical increase in the mammary glands,
moderate pain on palpation. Choose which clinical syndrome reflects the above complaints?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT
gynecomastia
hypogonadism
3 hypopituitarism
4 hyperpituitarism
5 Shereshevsky Turner Syndrome
6 7 8 9
1011 12 13 14
50
1 23 4 5 6 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbln Bonpoc
TeKyun BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHw TeCTa ocTanocb
1:05:16
98%B9 58 arm
S samsung GLOBAL
Be6 Tectposaee
CA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
O
CHHx KyHBap Tparan
Bonpoc: N°11
Examination of the boy's external genitalia revealed that the external
opening of the urethra is
located in the area of the penoscrotal angle. What is the type of anomaly in a
child?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Epispadias
2 Phimosis
3 Paraphimosis
4 Hypospadias
5 Bladder exstrophy
8 10 11 12 13 14 15
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
31 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHulh 8onpoe
nponyuyewa Bonpoe
TexyuM BOnpoc
Ao sabepuienin Tecra 0Cranoch
1:04:06
3aepuTb TeCT
S samsung | GLOBAL l 96% 9 19 arm
Be6 TecTMpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap
Nparan gRu
Bonpoc: N°24
Early breastfeeding and
manual stimulation of the breast nipple
to decrease postpartum bleeding. The is a technique that can be
mechanism by which this maneuver works
used
is stimulation
OTBeTbli(OAMH OTBeT)
Sexual stimulation causing vaginal
contractions
2 Stimulation of opiate production
3 Stimulation of prolactin production
Stimulation of prostaglandins
5 Of oxytocin production causing uterine contraction
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8919 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl BonpoOC
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb
0:42:21
3aBepwwTb TeCT
95% 927 arm
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TecTpoBaHne

A
CWHrx KyHBap ipaTan Ru
Bonpoc: N°30
To induce ovulation, use:
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Antiestrogens
2 Prostaglandins
3 Antagonists Of Prostaglandins
4 Progestogens
5 Natural Estrogens
29 30 31 32 33 34
26 27 28
50
10
1 2 3 4 5
717 89
18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
50
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
OTBeyeHHbl BOnpoc
TekyuiuM Bonpoc
TeCTa oCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuweHwA
l 94%929 am
S samsung | GLOBAL
Be6 TecTvpoBaHne
CWHrx KyHBap lpaTan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 33
Research methods of the anatomical and functional state
of the vagina:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Inspection with speculum;
2 Puncture of the posterior fornix,
3 Combined
vaginal rectal examination
4 Determination of the purity of the vaginal contents.
5 Cytological examination of the contents of the uterine cavity
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHBIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHEIM BOnpoc
Texyuwh eonpoc
0:32:36
3aBepuWTb TeCT
l 94%929 am
S samsung | GLOBAL
X Be6 TecTwpoBanne
0
CWHrx KyHBap npaTan
Bonpoc: N°33
Research methods of the anatomical and functional state of the
vagina
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1
Inspection with speculum
2 Puncture of the posterior fornix
3 Combined vaginal rectal examination,
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuju Bonpoc
Ao 388epuwewwa TeCTa ocTanocb
0:32:27
3aBepuHTb TeCT
94% 9.33 am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpOBaHMe
o
CWHTx KyHBap npaTan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°39
A 23-year-old female patient came to the antenatal clinic with complaints of cramps during
urination, fever up to 37.8 C, purulent discharge from the genital tract. She has several sexual
partners.Examination by speculum: the mucous membrane of the urethra is hyperemic, the cervix
is cylindrical, hyperemia of the area of the external opening of the cervical canal. Discharge from
the cervical canal is purulent. Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Prescribe an outpatient course of antibiotic therapy
2 Get swabs for chlamydia infection
3 Hospitalize the patient in a gynecological hospital
4 Hospitalization in the dermatovenerologic clinic
5 Take swabs, culture for gonorrhea
1 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
TekyuwM BOnpocC
oCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuueHwa TeCTa
94% 1935am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpoBaHme
Bonpoc: N940
Task 2 Patient R., 25 years old, was admitted to the gynecological department with complaints of
pain in the external genital area, awkwardness when walking, fever. Pain appeared four days ago
after hypothermia. Last period 3 weeks ago. By examination: in the area of the right labia majora,
a tumor-like formation measuring 4x3 cm is determined, the skin above it is hyperemic, hot to the
touch, fluctuation is noted on palpation. Examination of the cervix in the speculum and bimanual
examination revealed no abnormalities. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis:
OTBeTbl (OAMH OTBeT)

1 OPerforation of purulent form ofappendages
2 Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor
3 acutebilateral salpingitis, pelvioperitonitis

4 Necrosis of subserous myomatous node
5 Bartholine abscess
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
1 23 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbIMBonpoc
iponyujeHHblM Bonpoc
Tekyuinn BOnpoc
o 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb
0:27:05
Al 93 % 19.:36 arm
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6 TeCTMpOBaHMe
CMHx KyHBap TpaTan KgRu
Bonpoc: Ne41
Which factors not increase the risk of developing inflammatory diseases sexual organs:
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
2 Medical abortion
4 IUCD
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
0:25:40
3aBepuvTb TeCT
al 93% 9.38 anm
TecTMpoBaHme
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6
CHHrx KyHBap nparan ORu
Bonpoc: N942
central genesis include everything besides:
The causes of secondary amenorrhea of
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Psychogenic amenorrhea
2 Syndrome of hyperprolactinemia
Sheehan syndrome
3
Amenorrhea due to weight loss
5 Kallmann Syndrome
43 44 45 46
40 41 42
38 39
50
3 4 5 67 89 10
12
18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
28 29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
38 39 40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
OTBeveHHblMBonpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
TecTa oCTanoCb
Ao saBepweHna
93% 940 am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTwpoBaHe
Bonpoc: N944
Patient with amenorrhea has a negative result (absence of menstrual reaction) after the
hormonal test with estrogens and progesterone, it means:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Presence uterine form of amenorrhea
2 Presence ovarian form of amenorrhea
3 Presence central form of amenorrhea
4 Presence polycystic ovary syndrome
5 Presence amenorrhea of central genesisS
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
123 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa OCTanocb
0:21:33
3aBepuinrb TeCT
92%1 94
Ssamsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpOBaHve
+
O F C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CWHx KyHBap NpaTan
Bonpoc: N°46
The suspensory system of the uterus includes:
OTBETbi(ogVH OTBET)
2 rectouterine ligaments
3 lig. propria of ovaries
5 cardinal ligaments of uterus
42 A3 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
7 89 10
3 4 5 6
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepujeHwa TeCTa ocTanocb
0:18:46
l 92%1945
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6 TecTWpoBaHMe
O F C Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CWHTx KyHBap paTan
Bonpoc: Ne47
hich structure is not included in the deep perineal pouch of female?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
OCowper's glands
OInferior perineal fascia
Superior perineal fascia
M.transversus perinei profundi

External urethral sphincter
46
1 43 44 45 48 49 50
1 3 4 5 67 89
2 10
1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1
42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TekyuMM BOnpoC
o 3aBepweHnI TeCTa OCTanocb.
0:16:49
nonuu1ATh TACT
91% 9.47 am
Text se.. cOPY SHARE SELECT ALL QWEB SEARCH
Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
f C
Bonpoc: N°48
Innervation of superficial perineal pouch formed by?
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBET)
1 Genitofemoral nerve
2 Perineal nerve
3 Superficial pudendal nerve
4 Internal pudendal nerve
5 Superficial perineal nerve
43 44 4546 47 48 49 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHb1M BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbl BOnpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
ocTanoch
Ao 3aBepuieHwa TeCTa
0:14:22
3aBepunTb TeCT
C 4344454647484950
A91%1 948 ar
S samsung | GLOBAL x Be6 TecTupoBaHne
CMHrx KyHBap lpaTan
Bonpoc: N949
part of the scrotum. Two
During a vasectomy, the ductus deferens is ligated in the superior
months following this sterilization procedure, the subsequent ejaculate contains
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBET)
Sperm and seminal fluid
2 Seminal fluid and prostatic fluid
3 Sperm only
only
4 Prostatic fluid
seminal fluid, and prostatic fluid
5 Sperm,
46 48 49 50
43 4445 47
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHwA TeCTa ocTanocb
0:13:38
S samsung | GLOBAL
91% 948 am
X Be6 TeCTupOBaHMe
X
CHHTx KyHBap IpaTan Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N°50
Which structure should be taken
into account not to damage while ligating the uterine artery
during hysterectomy (amputation of uterus)?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Urethra
2 Pelvic splanchnic nerves
3 Pudendal nerve
4 Ovarian artery
5 Ureter
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuinn BOnpoc
40 3aBepweHuA TeCTa oCTanocb
0:13:29
3aBepuinTb TeCT
The duration of the second stage of labor should not be
more:
OTBeTbli(oqMH OTBeT)
1 30 min
2 20 min
3 3 hour
4 1 hour
5 2 hour
Scanned by TapScanner
t what age are boys determined by the appearance d
acial hair, pigmentation of the scrotum, the first

jaculation?:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
14-15
8-9 8-9
10-11
1 12-13
16-17
Ultrasound examination using saline solution to
visualize uterus is:
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Ultrasonography
2 Cystoscopy
3 Hysteroscopy
4 Sonohysterography
Biparietal diameter of the fetal head
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1
11.5cm
2 8.5 cm
3 12.5cm
A
4 9.5
5 10.5
At what age are boys determined by the appearance of
facial hair, pigmentation of the scrotum, the first
ejaculation?:
OTBeTbli(oqMH OTBET
1 14-15
2 8-9
3 10-11
4 12-13
5 16-17
Which of the following is not true (positive) sign of
pregnancy?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeeT)
1 Audible fetal heart
2 Ultrasound evidence of a fetus
3 Amenorrhea
4 Palpation of fetal parts
55 Fetal movements
Male, 30 years old, married for 4 years. Have no children.
A history of trauma to both testicles at the age of 20, for
which an organ-preserving operation was performed
(which one the patient does not know exactly) on both
testicles. On examination: both testicles are reduced in
size, of dense consistency, the vas deferens are
unremarkable. The prostate gland is unchanged.
Spermogram. No spermatozoa or spermatogenesis cells
were found in the ejaculate. Total testosterone in the
blood is 4 nmol/I (the norm is 12-35 nmol/ 1). What is
your diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Testicular hypogonadism, azoospermia.
2 Cryptorchidism
33 Testicular cancer
4 Congenital atrophy of testicles
5 Late onset hypogonadism
The onset of labor should be considered by the following
criteria:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Regular contractions
2 Decent of fetal head
3 True labor pain
A Rupture of membrane
5 Engagement of fetal head
Specify what age corresponds to the degree of puberty
(years) MA 3 2x2 My:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
12-13
2 14-15
33 8-9
4 10-11
16-17
The lower limit of the norm for the number of sperm in
the ejaculate is (according to WHO criteria)
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 80 million
22 60 million
3 20 million
A 100 million
5 40 million
The mass of the uterus after childbirth is on average:
OTBETbi(onMH OTBeT)
1
150-200 g
2 2000 g
33 300-500g
A
4 1000 g
5 50-80 g
At the reception, the boy is 2 years old. Objectively:
physical development corresponds to age, testicles with
a volume of 1 ml, palpated on both sides, the scrotum is
split, urethral hypospadias are noted. Determine which
diagnosis corresponds to the objective data?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
delayed sexual development
2 false hermaphroditism
3 true hermaphroditism
A
4 a healthy child
55 premature sexual development
Specify the age at which girls are determined by the
stage of" butane breast and nipple pigmentation.
"
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
14-15
2 8-9
3 12-13
4 10-11
5 16-17
The labor has the following stages
OTBETbl(oguH OTBeT)
1 Preparation, dilation, expulsion
2 Effacement of the cervix, the expulsion, delivery

of placenta
3 Preparation, dilation, expulsion, early

postpartum
A Preliminary, dilatation, expulsion, postpartum
5 Dilation, expulsion, delivery of placenta, early

postpartum
At the reception, the girl is 8 years old. Objectively: the
mammary glands are significantly enlarged, hair in the
armpits, pubic area, the appearance of the first
menarche. Find out from the description what kind of
preliminary diagnosis can be made for a girl?
OTBeTbI(oAWH OTBeT)
1
premature sexual development
2 healthy child
3 hypothyroidism
4 delayed sexual development
5 sexual crisis
At which gestational age detecting pregnancy using
transvaginal ultrasonography?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 5-6 weeks
2 2-3 weeks
3 1-2 weeks
4 4-5 weeks
5 3-4 weeks
The 17-year-old boy was examined. Objectively: men's
tone of voice, the protrusion (Adamis Apple) thyroid
cartilage. On the pubis, thick, curly hair that spreads on
the inner surface of the thigh and is directed to the navel,
in the armpit, hair that curls all over the hollow. Evaluate
the boy's sexual development according to Tanner.
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 V1 P1 LO Ax0 FO
2 V1 P4 L1 Ax0 FO
3 V2 P3 L1 Ax2 FO
4 V2 P5 L2 Ax4 F3
5 V2 P5 L2 Ax4 F3
A woman was admitted to the oncology department with
complaints of pain in the lower abdomen and bloody
discharge. 2 years ago, she was diagnosed with a
cervical polyp (11 mm in size). Which imaging study is
most suitable for clarifying the diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 MRI
2 X-ray
33 Hysteroscopy
4 Ultrasound
55 CT-scan
Which of the following imaging technique in which
iodine containing contrast agent is inserted into the
uterus to obtain an image?
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Hysteroscopy
2 Ultrasound
4 Ct-scan
5 Sonohysterography
A 20-year-old patient was kicked in the crotch while
playing football. Urethroragia appeared. He notes the
urge to urinate, but cannot urinate on his own. Above the
pubis, a bulging is determined, over which a dull sound is
revealed during percussion. There is a perineal
hematoma. Blood is released from the urethra. What
kind of damage do you assume?
OTBeTbl(oguH OTBET)
1 Ruptured bladder
2 Balanoposthitis
3 Damage to the prostate
4 Kidney rupture
5 Urethral ruptured
What happens to the kidneys during pregnancy?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Glucosuria increases
2 Creatinine fall during pregnancy
3 GFR falls during pregnancy
Renal function remains unchanged
5 Proteinuria increases
Gprinciple of antise X Be6 TecTvpoea
Gcoronary heart dis X
C
CHHrx MaHMaipman
Bonpoc: N°23
Why is expected change in the hematologic system during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Decreses in protein
2 Decrease in sedimentation rate
3 Increase in blood volume
4 Decrease in WBC's
5 Increase inhematocrit
19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
1
2 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 400
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBe4eHHlM Bonpo
niponyueiHHbi Bonpoc
TexyuwA Bonpoc
Ao aabepiioHHA TecTa oCranoo
1:11:51
coronary heart d x G principle of antisex Be6TecTypoBa
G
C
CHHrx KaHManpma Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°22
to reduced incidence of neural tube
defects:
Periconceptional use of the following agent leads
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Magnesium
2 Calcium
3 Vitamin A
4 Iron
5( Folic acid
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
50
89 10
1
2 3 4 567
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbi Bonpoc
nponyueHHbil Bonpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3abepuieHw TecTa ocTanoc
1:12:01
Gcoronary heart di X principle of antise x Be6 TectwpoBaH X
C Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing9
CHHTx MaHMaRAMan
Bonpoc: N 26
Why does anemia of pregnancy occur?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Levels of erythropoietin decrease
2 None of the above
3 Plasma volume increases
4 More Fe is available for fetal erythropoesis
5/ Red cellmassdecreases
22 23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 1415 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbl Bonpoc
ponyujenin Bonpoc
Texyunn Bonpoc
o sabepuienw Tedra ocTanocb
1:11:31
G coronary heart dis X Gprinciple of antise X 6 TecTpo
CHHx KaHMaip
Bonpoc: N°21
The duration of the second stage of labor should not be more:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
20 min
2 30 min
3 2 hour
4 3 hour
5(1 hour
17 18 19 20
50
12 3 45 6 7 B 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHl Bonpoc
nponyujewHbl BOnpoc
TeKyuiw Bonpoc
X Gprinciple of antis Be6TecTHpoBa
Gcoronary heart dis
C Ka Ru
CHHrx KaHMangwa
Bonpoc: N 24
three-analyte combination for Down's syndrome screening?
What is considered the best
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 AFP hCG, estriol

2 AFP hCG, PAPP-A
3 AFP estriol, inhibin
4 AFP estriol, PAPP-A
AFPhCG, inhibin
20 2122 23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9 10
5
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyujeHHLIM BOnpoc
Texyiunn Bonpoc
-La o Banepüieiwa TecTa oTanoch
1:11:44
61% 7:33AM
Gcoronary heart dis X G principle of antise x Be6 TecTpoBar
CHHrx KaHMaaman Ks Ru
Bonpoc: N°25
During physiologically developing pregnancy the
following changes in the haemostatic system
help to prevent postpartum bleeding:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Hypercoagulation
2 Activation of only the plasma link
3 Consumption coagulopathy
Activation of only the vascular-platelet link
5 Hypocoagulation
21 22 23 24 25 26
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 789 10
31 1213 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHI BOnpo0c
nponyuetHbi BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao BaBepuieuwa Tecra ocranocu:
1:11:37
O O
61% 7:33
G coronary heart dis x G principle of antise X Be6 TecTpoBa
O COavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHrx Mawmanama
Bonpoc: N 27
You have just examined a 28 year-old primagravida in spontaneous labor at 38 weeks
Examination findings are cephalic presentation, cervix is 7 cm dilated, posterior fontanelle
palpable anteriorly under symphisis pubis. What is presenting diameter of the fetus?
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBET)
1 Suboccipitobregmatic
Verticomental
3 Suboccipitjfrontal
Submentobregmatic
5 Occipitofrontal
23 24 25 26 27
50
1 2 3 4 56789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHii Bonpoc
iponyuueHHil Bonp0c
wsssl unnnn
27
G twenty-seven
4 O
6% 7:33 AM
G coronary heart di: X Gprinciple of antise x Be6TeCTHpOBaH X
f C O avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CHHrx aHMa@pma K3 Ru
Bonpoc: N°28
Pregnant woman at term of pregnancy complains
of a feeling of heaviness and pressure in the
lower abdomen, sometimes a little pain?
From the vagina there were scanty mucous
What is your diagnosis? discharges?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Beginning of labor
2 Premature labor
3 Active phase
4 Latent phase
5 Preliminary phase
50
24 25 26 27
28 20
2 345 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 77 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbih Bonpoe
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
Tekyuini Bornpoc
Ao sanepuieina Tecra o0Tanoch
Multi-User Lenovo
PS HD Dual Front 86 ( Kid's Ac
Speakers 9 Accounts
5 Samsung India X LMS KTMA Be6TecrwpoBal
rapr AMKua
Bonpoc: N°1
What frequency range of transducers should be used for transabdorminal examination of the
pelvic organs?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 3.5-5.0 MHz
2 10.0-15.0 MHz
3 7.5-10.0 MHz
4 15.0-20.0 MHz
5 5.0-7.5 MHz
23 4 5 6 7 50
2 3 4 5 678 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHEIM BONpoc
nporyujeHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyuan Bonpoc
Ao saBepiueHnA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:12:56
3aBepuwTb TeCT
SAMGUNG
al 76% m07 41
Samsung India LMS KrMA X
Be6TecTwpoBaX
Fapr Auxua
Bonpoc:Ne6
Specity the age at which girls are determined by the stage of butane breast and nipple
"
pigmentation.:
OTBeTbi(0gMH OTBeT)
1 8-9
2 16-17
3 14-15
4 12-13
5 10-11
23 4 7 8 9 10 50
7 212 3 4 57 8 9 10
11 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl BOnpoC
riponyueHHbIM Bonpoc
Texyuna Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TecTa ocTanocb
1:06:43
3anepuWTb TeCT
SAMSUB
Al 76% m0743
B Samsung IndiaX LMS KTMA Be6TecTMpOBR
FaprAKua
Bonpoc: N°7
delayed sexual development in giris
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1 14-18
2 10-13
3 11-14
4 13-17
5 12-16
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 50
123 4 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHblM Bonpoc
rponyiueHHbi Bonpoc
Teixyuumt sonpoc
Ao sanepiuieHR TecTa oCTanoch
1:03:51
3asepuwTb TeCT
TpMnaTxW AeBAyTT Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°1
A 56-year-old man was admitted to the oncology clinic

with complaints of pain in the pelvic bones. He has
frequent urination. The urine, sometimes with blood
impurities. Digital rectal exam revealed an abnormal
solid mass in the prostate. What imaging study is the
first choice to clarify the diagnosis ?
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBET)
1 X-ray
2 Transabdominal Ultrasound
3 Transrectal Ultrasound
4 MRI
5 CT-scan
1
23 4 5 6 1
50
SAMSUNG
S Samsung india | al 75%m07 48

X LMS KTMA
Be6TecTApoBBX
rapr Awxwa
Bonpoc: N9
At the pediatricians examination,
the girl is 3 months old. Objectively: hypertrophy
aplasia of the labia, and hymen. Guess ofthe clitoris
what the girl's preliminary diagnosis is?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 synechia of the labia
3 hyperpitultarism
hermaphroditism
5 hypopituitarism
7 9 10 11 12 13 50
1 2 3 45 5 7 8910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHbl Boipoc
TexyuuA BOnpoc
AO 3anepuenwR TecTa oCTanoch
0:59:23
3anepunTb TecT
Aepa Ke
Bonpoc: N926
Periconceptional use
of the following
agent leads to reduced incidence
of neuraltube defects:
OTBeTbi(oAMH oTBeT)
1 Calcium
2 Vitamin A
3 Magnesium
Iron
5 Folic acid
22
22 23 24 25
2627 28 29 30 So
10
20
30
40
Bonpoc: N941
Parametritis is inflammation
50 of the:
OTBeTbl(oAMH oTBeT)
1OParauterinefiber
1anocb 2 Fallopian tube
3 Cecum
4 Gland
5 Ovary
37 38 39 40 42 43 44 45
SAMSUNG
S SamsungIndia x
,
l 73% m08 05
LMS KTMA
f
Be6TecTposa X
TaprAMxua R
Bonpoc: N 24
What causes flexion of the
head during labor?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Resistance of pelvic floor
2 Rotation of head
3 Resistance of pelvic bones

4 Decent of head
5 Engagement of head
20 21 22 23
24 25 26 27 28
50
1 2 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 232 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM Bonpoc
nporyuyetHbl Bonpo0C
Texyumh Bonpoc
A0 30BepuieHus TecTa ocTanocb
0:42:33
3aeepuwh TeCT
SAMSUNG
Al 73%m08.08
S Samsung India| x LMS KrMA X Be6TeCTHpOBa x
Fapr AMKwa
Bonpoc: N°27
A 25 year old, pregnant presents to the 0B clinic. She is 30 weeks pregnant by
last menstrual
period dating. With an external obstetric examination of a pregnant woman in the fundus of
the
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Second maneuvers
2 Third maneuvers
3 Fourth maneuvers
4 Firstmaneuvers
5 Fifth maneuvers
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
1 2 3 4567 89.10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHiR BOnpoe
iponyLujeuel BOnpoc
Tekyun sunpod
Ao sasepuwewn recTa ocTaIOC
0:39:27
SAMSUNO
73% mOh 10
0 Samng inte LMS KTMA
Be6 Tectpoe
C A avn.kgma,kg/webtest/testin
r'apr axu
Bonpoc: N°31
Algodismenorea is
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Painful menstruation
2 Reduced blood loss during menstniation
Intermenstrual meager spotting
4 Rare and scarce menstruation
Heavy periods
27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
10
123 13 144 1556 16 177 a9
18 19 20
11 12
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHblt BOnpec
npanyuieHibt Bonpoc
TERyiuw Boripoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb
0:36:53
3anepuwTb TeCT
M
al 72%
mO8 13
6 Samsung India |
x MLMSKTMA Be6TecrwpoBaX
apr AMia
Bonpoc: N°32
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
Conjugated estrogens
5 Antiandrogens
28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
1 23 456 7 B
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17/18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
TexyLn eonpoc
Ao 38BepuieHMA TecTa ocTanocb
0:34:24
SaBepuWTb TeCT
61% 7:34 A
Gcoronary heart dis Xx
G principle of antise x Be6 TecTpoBaH
CWHx KaHManpa Kg
Bonpoc: N°29
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1
Rise In Temperature Before Ovulation
Rise In Temperature After Ovulation
25 26 27 28 29 30
50
12
11
3 4 5 6 7 89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM BOnp0c
Tekyuinn Bonpoc
29
G twenty-nine
61 61% 7
Gcoronary heart dis X Gprinciple of antise X Be6TeCTpoBaHx
CMHrx MaHMaigma
Bonpoc: N930
What are the diagnostic tests that indicate the presence of bacterial vaginosis
OTBeTb (oAMH OTBeT)

1 Lowering the ph of vaginal secretions
2 Increase in basal temperature
Detection of abnormal cells
4 Detection of key cells
5 Negative amino test of whites
26 27 28 29 31 34
50
1 23 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM Bopoc
nporiyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao a6eLAIe recra ograngcb
1:10:57
O
A55% 8:1
CMHrx KaHManpan K
Bonpoc: N°1
OTBETbl(oAWH OTBeT)
1 Pregnancy
2 Infertility
3 Bloody discharge
4 Pelvicinfection
5 Heavy periods
23 50
211 12 133 14456 177 89 10

15 16 18 19
20
2122 23 2425 2627 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 A8 49
50
oTBeeHHbi Bonpo
niponyujeHHi Bonpog
TEKyuinn Bonpoc
Ao aanepuenwa Tecra
ograioch
0:27:24
3aBepuwTb TeCT
72% m0814
x LMS KIMA X Be6 TecTMpoBaX
Samsung India |
Of C
raprAwKua
Bonpoc: N 33
For planned hormonal contraception use:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
Pure gestagens
2 A-gn realizing hormones
Pure estrogens
Selective inhibitors of progesterone

receptors
4
5 Prostoglandins
35 36 37
30 31 32 33 34
29
50
10
2 3 45 6 7
1 9 8
16 17 18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15
29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
39 400
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 50
48 49
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
OTBeyeHHbIMBOpoc
iponyujeHHbM BOnpoc
Texyunn Bonpoc
ocTanoch
Ao 3asepuueHwa Tecra
0:32:52
3aBepuWTh TeCT
SAMSUNG
al 72% 08 18
0 SamsungIndia x LMS KTMA
Be6 TecTWpOB
rapr Awxu1a
Bonpoc: Ne39
the genital tract, itching, burning and discharge from
pain in the vagina. She fell ll acutely, 2 days ago,
above complaints appeared. Menstrual function not when the
is impaired. By examination:
mucosa is sharply hyperemic, covered the vaginal
with a purulent bloom, bleeds easily
cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa when touched. The
is not changed. What is the most likely diagnosis
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Acute colpitis
2 Vulvovaginitis
3 Bartholinitis
4 Endocervicitis
5 Endometritiss
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
123 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18, 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31.32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
FiponyuyeHHb1A BonpoC
TekyLLn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHwa TecTa ocTanoch

Tagwepa Keean NpaeHH6
Bonpoc: N942
Which factors not increase
the risk of developing inflammatory
diseases sexual organs:
OTBeTbi(oAUH OTBeT)
3 IUCD
4 Medical abortion
38 39 40 41 47 43 44 45 46 50
45 8:18 AM
CHHrx MaHMaipan Ka Rtu
Bonpoc: N°4
Ultrasound examination revealed hyperechoic finding on the endometrium. Most probable
diagnosis is endometrium polyp. What is the best imaging study to do next to clarify the
diagnosis 7
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Pelvic Xray
3 MRI
CTscan
5 Hysteroscopy
12 3 5 6 7 50
111 122 133 144 515 166 717 18B919 10

20
2122 23 2425 2627 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoc
nporyiuewHbl BOnpoc
Teryunn sonpoc
Ao 3asepuenas TecTa ocTanoc
0:27:06
3anepuMTb TecT
4
Gfour
IPS HD dDual Frant Muit-User enovo

55% 8:17 AM
CHHrx HaHManpwa Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne3
OTBETbli(OAMH OTBeT)
Hysteroscopy
2 MRI
Ct-scan
4 Ultrasound
5 Sonohysterography
1 4 5 6 7 50
1212 133 414 155 166717 188 91020

11 19
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29
23 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
Tekyuinn BOnpoc
Ao 3asepueHwa Tecta ocTanocb
0:27:18
3aBepunTb Tecr
G 3
three
A O O
Kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Taqepa Keean MpaeWHOxan
Patient L, 42 years old, consulted

Bonpoc: N939
a gynecologist to receive
marriage. History of 2 births, recommendations on contraception,
2 medical abortions. General suffers from hypertension
35. Recommended method of contraception: condition is satisfactory, for 5 years. Regular sexlifein
blood pressure is 135/90mm Hg,
height 164 cm, weight 90
kg. BMI
OTBeTbI(oAnH OTBeT)
Postcoital contraception (Postinor, Dvella)
OIntrauterine device with silver

4 Condom
5 Calendar chythm method
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 S0
SAMSUNG
71%m0823
Samsung India x LMS KIMA Be6TecrpoBa
C A avn.kgma.kg/wehbtest/testin9
rapr Awxu
Bonpoc: N939
the genital tract, itching, burning and pain in the vagina. She fell ill acutely,2 discharge fron
above complaints appeared. Menstrual function days ago, when the
is not impaired. By examination: the vagnal
mucosa is sharply hyperemic,
covered witha purülent bloom, bleeds easily
cervix is cylindrical in shape, the mucosa is not when touched, The
changed. What is the most likely diagnósi
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Acute colpitis
2 VulvovaginitisS
Bartholinitis
Endocervicitis
5 Endometritis
35 36 37
38 3940 41 42 43
50
1 23 45 6 78 9 10
11 1213 1718
14 15 16 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 3334 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
nponyuteHHbiM Boripoc
Tekyiuw Boripoc
Mo 3asepwenwn TecTa OCTanoC

SAMSUNG
8 Samsung India 71% m 0823

X LMS KTMA X Ee6TecTHpoBa X
rapr Auxuwa
Bonpoc: NP42
Pathological amenorhea does not include:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Amenorrhea In Kallmann syndrome
2 Ameniorthea in Sheehan's syndrome
3 Amenorrhea with gonadal dysgenesis
4 Psychogenic amenorrhea
5 Amenorrhea of childhood
38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
50
12 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 62 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHi BOnpoc
riponyieuik sonpoe
Texyun Bonpoe
o saBepuuena TeCTa DCTanOC
0:24:08
308epuinTb TeCT
a6 Tecrvposo
C kgma.kg/webtest/tenting
apr Au
Parametritis-is inflammation
Bonpoc: N943
ofthe:
OTBeTbi(opMH
1
OTBeT)
Cecum
2 Gland
3 Parauterinefiber
4 Ovary
5 Fallopiantube
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50
1 2 3 4 56 78 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM BOnpoc
npornyujeHHbih BOnpoe
TeKyuw Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwA TecTa ocTanocb
0:24:43
3aBepwwTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
S Samsung India X l 70%m08 28

LMS KrMA
Be6TecTwpoB
Tapr AMiKua
Bonpoc: NP48
Through the lesser
sciatic foramen passes
the following structures
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1
the pudendal neurovascular
bundle, internus obturator
muscle
2 the external obturator artery, external
cutaneus nerve of thigh
3 the inferior vesical artery, internal pudendal
artery and vein
4 the posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh, internus
obturator muscle
5 the inferior vesical artery, posterior cutaneus nerve
of thigh
43 44 45 46 47
48 49 50
1 2 3 4 56 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM BOnpoc
riponyujeHHbl Bonpoc
TEKyuyin BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TecTa oCTanocb
0:19:29
O Sammungtndia
i MS KTMA
Bef Tec
O C A avn kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Tayr Fo
Bonpoc: N947
The suspensory system of the uterus includes
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
cardinal ligaments of uterus
2 ig propria of ovaries
rectouterine ligaments
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl BOnp0c
nporyueHHblR Bonpoc
Texyuna Bonpoc
Ao sanepuieHwa TecTa oCTanocb
0:18:02
3aBepuiwrb TeCT
ShMSUNG
S SamsingIndiox LMSKTMA l 70m8 29

Be6Tecrvpoes
1
Tapr Aptu
Bonpoc: N948
Through the lesser sciatic foramen
passes the following structures:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
the pudendal neurovascular bundle, internus
obturator muscle
2 the external obturator artery, external cutaneus nerve
of thigh
3 the inferior vesical artery, internal pudendal artery and vein
4 the posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh, internus obturator muscle
5 the inferior vesical artery, posterior cutaneus nerve of thigh
43 44 45 46 17 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
26 29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBevewHbit Bonpoc
riponyugeubia Bonpoc
Texyunn ponpoc
o sanepuienws recTa oCTanocb
0:17:54
3anepuwTb TeCT
avn.k na.kg/webt
btest/testing
s
rapr
e
Bonpoc: N949
Benign hyperplasia
(excessive growth
would be most likely of cells) of which part
to interfere with the of
passage of urine? the male1eproductive system
OTBeTbi(OAMH
OTBeT)
Peripheral Zone of
the Prostate
2 Ejaculatory Duct
3 Seminal Vesicle
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 S0
1 2 3 4 56 7 8 9
10
11 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl Bonpoc
nponyueHHbIR Bonpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHHA TeCta oCTanocb
0:17:21
3aBepuwTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
al 69% m08.36
S Samsung Indla x LMS KTMA
Be6 Tecrpoea
rapr Awku
Bonpoc: N°18
Which of the following statements is the most accurate
regarding the normal changes in the
cardiovascular system at term? Total volume
OTBeTbi(opMH OTBeT)
1
4 Increases by 40%, volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
2 3 4 56 7 89 10
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
39 40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbIM BOpoc
iponyuueHHbl Bonpoc
TeKyuun Bonpoc
AO 3asepuieHa TeCTa oCTan0cb
0:10:53
3aBepuiHTb TeCT
SAMSUNG
S SamsungIndiax LMSKIMA 69%m08 39

Be6TectwpoBa
Tapr cua
Bonpoc: N949
Benign hyperplasia (excessive
growth of cells) of which part
would be most likely to interfere of the malereproductive systerm
with the passage of urine?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1
Peripheral Zone of the Prostate
2 Ejaculatory Duct
3 Seminal Vesicle
A3 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 34 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHbl BOnpoc
nporyuueHHbIR Bonpoc
Texyuiwn BOnpoc
ocCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TecTa
0:08:27
3aBepuiwTb TeCT
l 98% 8.55 am
S samsung | GLOBAL x Be6 TecTpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap MpaTan

gRu
Bonpoc: Ne9
The14-year-old girl complained of low growth (on
the scale of height-age", red zone), there are
no secondary sexual characteristics. From
the family history, it is known that the parents are of
average height. What is your presumed diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
3 congenital hypothyroidism
constitutional growth retardation
56 7
89 10 11 1213 50
1
2 3 45 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb.
1:06:23
l 98% B8.56 am
S samsung| GLOBAL X Be6 TecTwpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap lpaTan
Bonpoc: Ne10
The 12-year-old boy has an appointment with a pediatrician. Objectively: the body weight is 45 kg,
thePFA is excessively developed. There is a symmetrical increase in the mammary glands,
moderate pain on palpation. Choose which clinical syndrome reflects the above complaints?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT
gynecomastia
hypogonadism
3 hypopituitarism
4 hyperpituitarism
5 Shereshevsky Turner Syndrome
6 7 8 9
1011 12 13 14
50
1 23 4 5 6 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyun BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHw TeCTa ocTanocb
1:05:16
98%B9 58 arm
S samsung GLOBAL
Be6 Tectposaee
O
CHHx KyHBap Tparan
Bonpoc: N°11
Examination of the boy's external genitalia revealed that the external
opening of the urethra is
located in the area of the penoscrotal angle. What is the type of anomaly in a
child?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Epispadias
2 Phimosis
3 Paraphimosis
4 Hypospadias
5 Bladder exstrophy
8 10 11 12 13 14 15
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
31 12 1314 15 16 17 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHulh 8onpoe
nponyuyewa Bonpoe
TexyuM BOnpoc
Ao sabepuienin Tecra 0Cranoch
1:04:06
3aepuTb TeCT
S samsung | GLOBAL l 96% 9 19 arm
Be6 TecTMpoBaHMe
CWHrx KyHBap
Nparan gRu
Bonpoc: N°24
manual stimulation of the breast nipple
to decrease postpartum bleeding. The is a technique that can be
mechanism by which this maneuver works
used
is stimulation
OTBeTbli(OAMH OTBeT)
Sexual stimulation causing vaginal
contractions
2 Stimulation of opiate production
Stimulation of prostaglandins
5 Of oxytocin production causing uterine contraction
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8919 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl BonpoOC
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
0:42:21
3aBepwwTb TeCT
95% 927 arm
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TecTpoBaHne

A
CWHrx KyHBap ipaTan Ru
Bonpoc: N°30
To induce ovulation, use:
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Antiestrogens
2 Prostaglandins
3 Antagonists Of Prostaglandins
4 Progestogens
5 Natural Estrogens
29 30 31 32 33 34
26 27 28
50
10
1 2 3 4 5
717 89
18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
50
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
OTBeyeHHbl BOnpoc
TekyuiuM Bonpoc
TeCTa oCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuweHwA
l 94%929 am
S samsung | GLOBAL
Be6 TecTvpoBaHne
CWHrx KyHBap lpaTan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 33
Research methods of the anatomical and functional state
of the vagina:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Inspection with speculum;
2 Puncture of the posterior fornix,
3 Combined
vaginal rectal examination
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHBIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHEIM BOnpoc
Texyuwh eonpoc
0:32:36
3aBepuWTb TeCT
l 94%929 am
S samsung | GLOBAL
X Be6 TecTwpoBanne
0
CWHrx KyHBap npaTan
Bonpoc: N°33
Research methods of the anatomical and functional state of the
vagina
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1
Inspection with speculum
2 Puncture of the posterior fornix
3 Combined vaginal rectal examination,
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuju Bonpoc
Ao 388epuwewwa TeCTa ocTanocb
0:32:27
3aBepuHTb TeCT
94% 9.33 am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpOBaHMe
o
CWHTx KyHBap npaTan Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°39
A 23-year-old female patient came to the antenatal clinic with complaints of cramps during
urination, fever up to 37.8 C, purulent discharge from the genital tract. She has several sexual
partners.Examination by speculum: the mucous membrane of the urethra is hyperemic, the cervix
is cylindrical, hyperemia of the area of the external opening of the cervical canal. Discharge from
the cervical canal is purulent. Define the tactics of the antenatal clinic doctor:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Prescribe an outpatient course of antibiotic therapy
2 Get swabs for chlamydia infection
3 Hospitalize the patient in a gynecological hospital
4 Hospitalization in the dermatovenerologic clinic
5 Take swabs, culture for gonorrhea
1 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM Bonpoc
TekyuwM BOnpocC
oCTanocb
Ao 3aBepuueHwa TeCTa
94% 1935am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpoBaHme
Bonpoc: N940
Task 2 Patient R., 25 years old, was admitted to the gynecological department with complaints of
pain in the external genital area, awkwardness when walking, fever. Pain appeared four days ago
after hypothermia. Last period 3 weeks ago. By examination: in the area of the right labia majora,
a tumor-like formation measuring 4x3 cm is determined, the skin above it is hyperemic, hot to the
touch, fluctuation is noted on palpation. Examination of the cervix in the speculum and bimanual
examination revealed no abnormalities. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis:
OTBeTbl (OAMH OTBeT)

1 OPerforation of purulent form ofappendages
2 Torsion of the legs of the ovarian tumor
3 acutebilateral salpingitis, pelvioperitonitis

4 Necrosis of subserous myomatous node
5 Bartholine abscess
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
1 23 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbIMBonpoc
iponyujeHHblM Bonpoc
Tekyuinn BOnpoc
o 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb
0:27:05
Al 93 % 19.:36 arm
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6 TeCTMpOBaHMe
CMHx KyHBap TpaTan KgRu
Bonpoc: Ne41
Which factors not increase the risk of developing inflammatory diseases sexual organs:
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
2 Medical abortion
4 IUCD
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
0:25:40
3aBepuvTb TeCT
al 93% 9.38 anm
TecTMpoBaHme
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6
CHHrx KyHBap nparan ORu
Bonpoc: N942
central genesis include everything besides:
The causes of secondary amenorrhea of
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
2 Syndrome of hyperprolactinemia
Sheehan syndrome
3
Amenorrhea due to weight loss
5 Kallmann Syndrome
43 44 45 46
40 41 42
38 39
50
3 4 5 67 89 10
12
18 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
28 29 30
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
38 39 40
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
OTBeveHHblMBonpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
TecTa oCTanoCb
Ao saBepweHna
93% 940 am
S samsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTwpoBaHe
Bonpoc: N944
Patient with amenorrhea has a negative result (absence of menstrual reaction) after the
hormonal test with estrogens and progesterone, it means:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
3 Presence central form of amenorrhea
5 Presence amenorrhea of central genesisS
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
123 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa OCTanocb
0:21:33
3aBepuinrb TeCT
92%1 94
Ssamsung | GLOBAL X Be6 TeCTMpOBaHve
+
O F C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CWHx KyHBap NpaTan
Bonpoc: N°46
The suspensory system of the uterus includes:
OTBETbi(ogVH OTBET)
2 rectouterine ligaments
3 lig. propria of ovaries
5 cardinal ligaments of uterus
42 A3 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
7 89 10
3 4 5 6
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepujeHwa TeCTa ocTanocb
0:18:46
l 92%1945
S samsung | GLOBAL Be6 TecTWpoBaHMe
O F C Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
CWHTx KyHBap paTan
Bonpoc: Ne47
hich structure is not included in the deep perineal pouch of female?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
OCowper's glands
OInferior perineal fascia
M.transversus perinei profundi

46
1 43 44 45 48 49 50
1 3 4 5 67 89
2 10
1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1
42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM Bonpoc
TekyuMM BOnpoC
o 3aBepweHnI TeCTa OCTanocb.
0:16:49
nonuu1ATh TACT
91% 9.47 am
Text se.. cOPY SHARE SELECT ALL QWEB SEARCH
Oavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
f C
Bonpoc: N°48
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBET)
1 Genitofemoral nerve
2 Perineal nerve
43 44 4546 47 48 49 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHb1M BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbl BOnpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
ocTanoch
Ao 3aBepuieHwa TeCTa
0:14:22
3aBepunTb TeCT
C 4344454647484950
A91%1 948 ar
S samsung | GLOBAL x Be6 TecTupoBaHne
CMHrx KyHBap lpaTan
Bonpoc: N949
part of the scrotum. Two
During a vasectomy, the ductus deferens is ligated in the superior
months following this sterilization procedure, the subsequent ejaculate contains
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBET)
Sperm and seminal fluid
2 Seminal fluid and prostatic fluid
3 Sperm only
only
4 Prostatic fluid
seminal fluid, and prostatic fluid
5 Sperm,
46 48 49 50
43 4445 47
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepueHwA TeCTa ocTanocb
0:13:38
S samsung | GLOBAL
91% 948 am
X Be6 TeCTupOBaHMe
X
CHHTx KyHBap IpaTan Kg Ru

Bonpoc: N°50
Which structure should be taken
into account not to damage while ligating the uterine artery
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Urethra
2 Pelvic splanchnic nerves
3 Pudendal nerve
4 Ovarian artery
5 Ureter
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuinn BOnpoc
40 3aBepweHuA TeCTa oCTanocb
0:13:29
3aBepuinTb TeCT
Bonpoc: N°46
The uterine artery is a branch of:
OTBeTbI(OAMH OTBeT)
thecommon iliac artery

the inferior epigastric artery
theobturator artery
theexternal iliac artery
the internal iliac artery
42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: Ne48
The urinary bladder in relation to prostate gland is situated:
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBET)
1 posteriorly
22 superiorly
3 postero-inferiorly
4 anteriorly
5 inferiorly
1 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: N913
Male, 30 years old, maried for 4 years. Have no children A history of trauma to both testicle
the age of 20, for which an organ-preserving operation was performed (which one the patien
does not know exactly) on both testicles. On examination: both testicles are reduced in size,
dense consistency, the vas deferens are unremarkable. The prostate gland is unchanged
Spermogram. No spermatozoa or spermatogenesis cells were found in the ejaculate. Total
testosterone intheblood is 4 nmol /I (the norm is 12-35 nmol/). What is your diagnosis?
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Cryptorchidism
3 Testicular hypogonadism, azoospermia.
4 Testicular cancer
9 10 11 12 14 15 16 17
50
Bonpoc: N 47
The peritoneum covers the following areas of anterior surface of uterus
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 not covered at all
2 body, fundus of uterus
3 the body and supravaginal part of uterus
4 the body of uterus, supravaginal part of cervix, anterior vaginal fornix
5 the body and entire cervix of uterus
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: Ne45
Which structure from following not included in perineal body containment?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 the superficialtransverse perineim
2 therectovaginal fascia (Denonvillier's)

3 the m. ischiocavernosus
4 the m. bulbospongiosus
55 the deep transverse perinei muscle and its fascia
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Bonpoc: Ne49
Which structure is outlined with contrast on a CT using intraperitoneal contrast material?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBET)
1 Ovary
2 Rectum
3 Prostate
4 Vagina
5 Seminal Vesicles
1
* 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: N°41
Pathological amenorrhea does not include
OTBETbI(oAUH OTBeT)
1
0Amenorrhea in Kallmann syndrome
2 O Psychogenic amenorrhea
OAmenorrhea in Sheehan's syndrome
O Amenorrhea of childhood
O Amenorrhea with gonadal dysgenesis
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
Bonpoc: N942
Pathogenetic therapy of amenorrhea in Kallmann syndrome:
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 Multivitamins
2OPhystotherapy
3 Diuretics and antidepressants
4 Antidepressants and multivitamins
5 OHormone replacementtherapy
1 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
50
Bonpoc: N 43
latrogenic amenorrhea can be caused by all except:
OTBeTbi(oqnH OTBeT)
1 0 Taking GnRH agonists
2 O cauterization of the ovaries
3 O Bilateral oophorectomy
4 Taking MAO inhibitors
5 Total hysterectomy
1 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 A
50
Bonpoc: N°38
The conditions for cyclic horrnone therapy In pallentn with nenstrual rretjularition afe
OTBeTbI(ognH OTBeT)
1
Hormone testlng
2 The use of a minimum arnount of estrogen
3 Preliminary consultation by a neurologist

4 Use of gestagens, ultrasound exarnination of the uterus
5 Preliminary consultation of the therapist
1 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
50
Bonpoc: Ne44
Patient A 28 years old, was admitted to the gynecological department with complaints
spotting for two weeks. Ultrasound scan was revealed persistence of the follicles. Wha
hormonal changes can you expect?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Hyperandrogenemia
2 Hyper progesteronemia
3 Hypoestrogen saturation
4 Hyperestrogenemia
5 Failure of glucocorticoids
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
Bonpoc: N 39
For conservative treatment of Abnormal uterine bleeding the 1st line drug is:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 sodium ethamsylate
2 oxytocin
3 tranexamic acid
4 0aminocaproic acid
5 O NSAIDS
1 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
50
Bonpoc: N°40
A mother with a 4-year-old girl turned to a pediatric gynecologist, who has itchlng and redness
the external genital area, purulent discharge from the genital tract. These symptoms occur
periodically throughout the year. Genital hygiene is observed. The child is observed by an alle.
In connection with atopic dermatitis (skin rashes on the elbows and on the face). What is the
most ikely diagnosis
OTBETbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 Bartholinitis
2 Salpingo-oophoritis
3 O Atopic vulvovaginitis
4 Endocervicitis
5 Endometritis
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
Bonpoc:N937
What is the mechanism of action of voluntary surgical sterilization
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Suppression of ovulation
2 O Thickening of cervical mucus
3 O Violatlon of implantation
4 OBlockage of the falloplan tubes
1 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
50
Bonpoc: N 31
The most common cause of female infertility is:
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Endocrinefactor
2 O Immunological factor
3 O Tubal-peritoneal factor
4 OUterinefactor
5 Psychosexual disorders
1 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
Bonpoc: N®35
What Is the most cormmon presenting cornplaint of a wornan ith vaylnitis?
OTBeTbI(ouH OTBeT)
1 Dyspareunia
2 Pelvic paln
3
Vaginal discharges
Irregular menses
O Fever
1 ** 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Bonpoc: Ne36
The high efficiency of the method of lactational amenorrhea (LAM), subject to all the rules, is
observed:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
10Within 12 months after childbirth

2 O Within 9 months after childbirth
3 Within 6 months after childbirth
4 Within 15 months after giving birth
50 Within 3 months after childbirth
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
50
Bonpoc: Ne34
The mechanism of action of hormones on the cell is due to the presence of
OTBeTbI(oguH OTBeT)
1
OThromboxant
2 O Isoenzymes
3 OProstaglandins
4 OReceptors
5O Specific Enzymes
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
50
Bonpoc: N932
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
4 Antiandrogens
5 Conjugated estrogens
1 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
Bonpoc: N30
which af the folliowing infiammatary diseasesin e acute sage is zccompariedby smptom
af bryuschina iritation
OTBETBI(ogMH OTBET)
1 Vulvovagintis
2 Bartholintis
3 Coipitis
Endometritis
5 Cervictis
26 2
50
Bonpoc: N°29
Duration of the menstrual cycle:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBET)
1 24-32days
2 21-35days
3 O25-37days
4 0 28-29days
5 35-39days
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
50
Bonpoc: N 33
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
3 Rise In Temperature Before Ovulation
4 O Rise In Temperature After Ovulation
5 OLack Of Temperature Rise
1 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
Bonpoc: N°27
A 19 year-old primigravlda is expecling her first-child, she is 12 weeks pregnant by last menstrua
period daling. By external examination the uterline fundus is at the level of pubis. Determine the
expected date of pregnancy?
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBer)
1
O12 weeks
2 6 weeks
3 10 weeks
4 O16 weeks
5 8 weeks
1 23 24 25 26
27 28 29 30 31
50
Bonpoc: N°28
pregnant presents to the 0B clinic. She is 30 weeks pregnant by last menstrual
A 25 year old,
pregnant woman in the fundus of the
period dating. With an external obstetric examination of a
Leopold's
uterus determined a round, dense, balloted part of fetus. Which of the following
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBeT)
1
First maneuvers
2 Third maneuvers
3 Fourth maneuvers
4 Second maneuvers
5 Fifth maneuvers
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
50
1 23 45 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
23 24 25 26 27 28
2122 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BONpoc
nponyueHHBIM BOnpoc
Tekynn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TecTa oCTanocb
1:07:45
Bonpoc: N 21
After the first four months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is t
OTBeTbI(0gMH OTBeT)
1 0 Corpus luteum
2 O Anterior hypophysis
3 Placenta
4 chorion
5 0 Adrenal cortex
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
Bonpoc: N°25
What is the role of digital exam in the evaluation of normal labor?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
0Assessment of fetal well-being
2 O Fetal movements
3 O Time of labor
4 O Degree of dilatations of the cervix
5 Frequency and duration of contractions
1 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
50
Bonpoc: Ne24
To calculate the expected date of dellvery (EDD) in primaparouse women to the date of the fr
fetal movements should be added:
OTBeTbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1
18 weeks
2 22 weeks
3 25 weeks
4 20 weeks
5 16 weeks
20 21 22 23
24 25 26 27 28
50
Bonpoc: N 26
How is the first labor characterlzed? Labor begins with:
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
10Regular uterine contractions and ends with engagement of the head
2 0 Regular uterine contractions and ends with full dilatation of cervix
3 O Regular uterine contractions and ends with effacement of cervix
4O Regular uterine contractions and ends with decent of the head
5 Rupture of membrane and ends with full dilatation of cervix
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
50
Bonpoc: N 22
A baby Is born In the following conditlon at 1 minute. She is pink with acrocyanosis, a heart ra
of 120 bpm. She is crying, sneeze. Her limbs are flexion. What is her Apgar score?
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
109
207
3 8
4 O6
1 18 19 20
2122 23 24 25 26
50
Bonpoc: N°50
Female 23 years old came to gynecological department with swelled and enlarged labia majora
on one slde. Examination revealed inflammation of Bartholin's gland cyst. Determine the locatic
of Bartholin's glands according to topography In anatomy?
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBeT)
1 Superficial perineal pouch
2 O Labia majora
3 Deep perineal pouch
4 Labla minora
5 Vaginal vestibule
1 43 44 A5 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: N944
Pallent A, 28 years old, was admitted to the gynecological department with complaints of
spotting for two weeks. Ultrasound scan was revealed persistence of the follicles. What
hormonal changes can you expect?
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBeT)
1 Hyperandrogenemla
2 Hyper progesteronemia
3 Hypoestrogen saturation
4 Hyperestrogenemia
5 Failure of glucocorticoids
1 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
Bonpoc: N933
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
3 Rise In Temperature Before Ovulation
4 Rise In Temperature After Ovulation
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
2 3 4 5 678 910
1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 2930
31 3233 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbIM Bonpoc
iponyueHHbl Bonpoc
TexyuuA Bonpoc
Bonpoc: N940
A mother with a 4-year-old girl turned to a pediatric gynecologist, who has itching and redness
the external genital area, purulent discharge from the genital tract. These symptoms occur
perlodically throughout the year. Geital hygiene is observed. The child is observed by an allerg
in connection with atopic dermatitis (skin rashes on the elbows and on the face). What is the
most likely diagnosis:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
1 Bartholinitis
2 Salpingo-oophoritis
3 O Atopic vulvovaginitis
4 Endocervicitls
5 Endometritis
37 38 39 41 42 43 44
1 36
50
Bonpoc: N°30
Which of the following inflammatory diseases in the acute stage is accompanied by symptoms
of bryuschina irritation:
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 OVulvovaginitis
2 O Batholinitis
3 O Colpitis
4 0Endometritis
5 Cervicitis
1 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
50 P
Bonpoc: N 37
What is the mechanism of action of voluntary surgical sterilization:
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1
Suppression of ovulation
3OViolationof implantation
4 O Blockage of the fallopian tubes
5 OThickening of cervical mucus
1 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
50
Bonpoc: N 28
25 year old,pregnant presents to the OB clinic. She is 30 weeks pregnant by last menstrual
A
period dating. With an external obstetric examination of a pregnant woman in the fundus of the
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 First maneuvers
2 Third maneuvers
3 Fourth maneuvers
4 Second maneuvers
5 Fifth maneuvers
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
50
Biparietal diameter of the fetal head:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 9.5
2 10.5
3 12.5cm
4 8.5 cm
5 11.5cm
Bonpoc: N°18
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Preparation, dilation, expulsion, early postpartum
2 Preliminary, dilatation, expulsion, postpartum
Effacement of the cervix, the expulsion, delivery of placenta
5 Dilation, expulsion, delivery of placenta, early postpartum
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
Bonpoc: N°19
Which of the following investigations are performed at the antenatal visitat 30 weeks of
pregnancy?
OTBeTbI(opMH OTBeT)
1 Rubella
2 cytomegalovirus (CMV)
3 Toxoplasmosis
4 Syphills
5 Hepatitis A
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
Bonpoc:N°17
Which of the following hormones is not synthesized by the placenta?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Prolactin
2 Progesterone
3 Estriol
4 Human chorionic gonadotropin,
5 Human placental lactogen
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
50
Bonpoc:N°16
A sign of placental separation from the uterus is
OTBETbI(oaMH oTBeT)
1 Contraction of the uterus on palpation
2 Softening of the uterus on palpation
3 The umbilicalcord shortened

4 The umbilical cord lengthens
5 Lack of bloody discharge
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
50
Bonpoc: N°10
The17-year-old boy was examined. Objectively: men's tone of voice, the protrusion (Adams
Apple)thyroid cartilage. On the pubis, thick, curly hair that spreads on the inner surface of the
thighand is directed to the navel, in the armpit, hair that curls all over the hollow. Evaluatethe
boy's sexual development according to Tanner.
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBeT)
1 V1 P1 LO AxO FO
2 v2 P5 L2 Ax4 F3
3 v2 P5 L2 Ax4 F3
4 1 P4 L1 AxO FO0
5 V2 P3 L1 Ax2 FO
7 8 10 11 12 13 14
50
Bonpoc: N°19
Which of the following investigations are performed at the antenatal visit at 30 weeks of
pregnancy?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Rubella
2 Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
3 Toxoplasmosis
4 Syphilis
5 Hepatitis A
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
50
Bonpoc: N°2
OTBeTbi(oaH OTBeT)
1 Hysteroscopy
2 Ultrasound
3 Sonohysterography
4 Ct-scan
5 MRI
3 5 7 50
23 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeveHHbi BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIA BOnpoc
texyunA Bonp0c
Bonpoc: N°7
Identify the main clinical signs of delayed sexual development in girls
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 amenorrhea, the mammary glands are poorly developed
2 the presence of menstruation and developed mammary glands
3 amenorrhea, developed mammary glands
4 amenorrhea, mammary glands do not exist
5 the presence of menstruation, in the absence of mammary glands
3 4 6 7 8 9 10 11 5
Bonpoc: Ne6
Specify the reasons for delayed sexual development
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBer)
1 intrauterine infection
2 infectious diseases
3 chromosomal anomaly
birth trauma
5 stressful situation
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 50
Bonpoc: N°8
A 9-year-old boy was examined. Objectively: a change in the timbre of the voice, an increasein
thewidth ofthe shoulder girdle, hair in the armpits, pubic area, an increase in the penis and
testicles.Forthis objective status, specify the presumed diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBET)
2 the child is healthy
3 hypopituitarism
4 false male hermaphroditism
5 6 10 11 12
Bonpoc: N°5
delayed sexual development in girls.
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 13-17
2 10-13
12-16
4 14-18
5 11-14
2 3 5
7 9 50
Bonpoc: N94
finding on the endometrium. Most probable
trasound examination revealed hyperechoic
study to do next to clarify the
agnosis is endometrium polyp. What is the best imaging
agnosis?
OTBeTbi(oAnH OTBeT)
Pelvic X-ray
Hysteroscopy
4 MR
s CTscan
Bonpoc: N°11
Thelower limit of the norm for the number of sperm in the ejaculate is (according to WHO
criteria)
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 40 million
2 100milion
3 80 million
4 60 million
5 20 million
8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15
50
Bonpoc: N°11
Thelowerlimit of the norm for the number of sperm in the ejaculate is (according to WH0
criteria)
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 40 million
2 100 million
3 million
4 60 million
5 20 million
Bonpoc: N°12
Synorchidism is:
OTBeTb(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Testicular cross-dystopia
2 Intraperitoneal fusion of the testicless
3 Testicularhypotrophy
4 Congenital absence of testicles
5 Having one testicle
9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
Bonpoc: N°12
Synorchidism is:
OTBeTb(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Testicular cross-dystopia
2 Intraperitoneal fusion of the testicless
3 Testicularhypotrophy
4 Congenital absence of testicles
5 Having one testicle
9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
Bonpoc: N 3
Inwhich of the following conditions isrecommended to perform Hysterosalpingography?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1
Heavy periods
2 infertility
3 Pelvic infection
4 Bloody discharge
Pregnancy
50
6 Samsung India | Mobile |TVI X Be6 TecTHpoBaHve
CAavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap IpaBHH
Bonpoc: N®1
Ultrasound examination using saline solution to visualize uterus is:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
CystoscopPY
2 Sonohysterography
Ultrasonography
Hysteroscopy
4 5
6 50

KyMap npaBMH
Bonpoc: N°2
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Ultrasound
MRI
3 Ct-scan
Hysteroscopy
5 Sonohysterography
23 4 5 6 50

S Samsung India | Mobile TV x Be6 TecTpoBaHne
KyMap npasHH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 3
A 32-year female was consulted to the doctor with complain to heavy and painful periods. Doctor suggested pelvic endometriosis. Which imaging modality is
the first choice?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
Ultrasonography
MRI
Hysteroscopy
CT-scan
5 CystoscopPy
50

SSamsung India | Mobile | TV|X Be TecTwpOBaHMe
KyMap 1paBwH KgRu
Bonpoc: N°4
A 43-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of acute pain in the groin and frequent painful urination. He has a fever and weakness for the second
day.Ultrasound examination of the prostate revealed hypoechoic areas in the periphery. He was diagnosed with a suspected prostate abscess. What imaging
studyis preferred to clarify this diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
CT-scan
Nuclear imaging
Xray
Pelvic MRi
Fluoroscopy
2
34 6

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Bonpoc: N°5
of premature puberty:
Recognize the main clinical signs
OTBeTbI(ognH OTBeeT)
changes of the fundus

1 congestive
sexual characteristics at the age of less
than 6 years.
2 the appearance of repetitive
emotional stability
older than 10 yearsS
theappearance of secondary sexual characteristics
5 delaying intellectual development
2 3 4 567 8

TeCTHpOBaHMe
Samsung India | Mobile
|
TV|X Be6
6
C
KyMap lpaBHH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°6
development in boys:
Identify the main clinical signs of delayed sexual
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 eunuchoid physique
2 the rapid growth of the testes, but the lack of body hair on the male type
3 no testicular growth, but the beginning of voice changes
4 rapid testicular growth, and voice changes
notesticular growth, but hair growth in the armpit
23 4 5
7 10 50

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Samsung India Mobile TV| Be6
|
X
KyMap npasMH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°7
At what age are boys determined by the appearance of facial hair, pigmentation of the scrotum, the first ejaculation?
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT
12-13
14-15
10-11
4 8-9
5 16-17
3 4 5 89 10 11

TecTwpoBaHne
Samsung India | Mobile| TV|
X Be6
6
C A
KyMap npaBMH
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°8
area, the appearance of the first
enlarged, hair in the armpits, pubic
old. Objectively: the mammary glands are significantly
8 years can be made for a girl?
At the reception, the
girl is
description what kind of preliminary diagnosis
menarche. Find out from the
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
healthy child
sexual crisis
delayed sexual development
5 hypothyroidism
10 11 2

6 Samsung India | Mobile| TV X Be6 TecTupoBaHWe
+
Kymap paBMH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°9
The14-year-old girl complained of low growth (on the scale of "height-age", red zone),
there are no secondary sexual characteristics. From the family history
itis known that the parents are of average height. What is your presumed diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 constitutional growth retardation

congenital hypothyroidism
5 7 8 10 1112 13

S Samsung India | Mobile| TV X Be6TecTpOBaHMe +
KyMap npaenH Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
On inspection at the walls of 11 years old. Objectively: the mammary glands are significantly protruding along with the nipple, have the shape of a cone.
There is no hair on the pubis or under the armpit. There is no menu. Evaluate the girls sexual development according to Tanner
OTBeTbi(oAVH OTBeT)
Mao Po Axo Me0
Ma2 P1 Axo Meo
Ma3 P3 Ax3 Me
Mas P2 Ax2 Meo
Ma3 P3 Ax1 Me1
6 7 8 10 11 1213 14

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Samsung India | Mobile |
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Kg Ru
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Bonpoc: N°11
criteria)
ejaculate is (according to WHO
lower limit of the norm for the number of sperm in the
The
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
40 million
2 80 million
3 100 million
60 million
5 20 million
7
910 11 12 13 14 15 50

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Samsung India | Mobile |
TV X Be6
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Aavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing Kg Ru
C KyMap npasMH
Bonpoc: N°12
occurs after
Dilution of the ejaculate normaly
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
30-50 min.
2 50-60 min
8 min
4 10-30 min.
5 >1 hour
B 9 10 1112 13 14 15 16 50

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Samsung India | Mobile TV|
| Xx Be6
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avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing Ru
C A KyMap npaBMH Kg
Bonpoc: N°13
operation was
which an organ-preserving
testicles at the age of 20, for vas
years. Have no children. A history of trauma to both
testicles are reduced in size of dense consistency. the
Male, 30 years old, married for 4 examination: both ejaculate. otal
on both testicles. On
performed (which one the patient
does not know exactly) No spermatozoa or
spermatogenesis cells were found in the
unchanged. Spermogram.
prostate gland is
deferens are unremarkable. The 71). VWhat is your diagnosis?
blood is 4 nmol/1 (the norm is 12:35 nmol
testosterone in the
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT
Congenital atrophy of testicles
Testicular hypogonadism, azoospermia
3 Cryptorchidism
4 Testicular cancer

6 Samsung India Mobile TV
| |
X Be6TecTWpOBaHe
Bonpoc: N914
What is the occipitofrontal diameter of fetal head?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
9.5 cm, circumference 32 cm
3 10 cm, circumference 33 cm
4 12 cm, circumference 34 cm
cm, circumference 38 cm
135
10 11 12 13 14 5 16 17 18
23 456 78 9 10

Samsung India | Mobile TVX Be6 TecTMpoBaHHe
CAavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
Bonpoc: N 15
Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the normal changes in the cardiovascular system at term? Total volume:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)

Increases by 40%, volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase
50
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Bonpoc: N°16
Name the 5th movement of the mechanism of labor in the anterior occipital presentation:
OTBeTbi(oqWH OTBeT)
Sacral rotation
Extension of the head
Flexion of the headE
internal head rotation
External head rotation
15 16 18 19 20 50
12 1314

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Samsung India | Mobile| TV|
X Be6
S
C A
Bonpoc: Ne17
not synthesized by the placenta?
Which of the following hormones is
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
Human chorionic gonadotropin,
2 Human placental lactogen,

Estriol
Prolactin
Progesterone,
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 50
9 10

Bonpoc: N18
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
Preliminary, dilatation, expulsion, postpartum
2 Effacement of the cervix, the expulsion, delivery of placenta
Preparation, dilation, expulsion, early postpartum
Dilation, expulsion, delivery of placenta, early postpartum
Preparation, dilation, expulsion
14 15 16 17
18 19 20 21 22 50
2 3 4 5678 9 10

TecTupOBaHHe
Samsung India | Mobile|
TV X Be6
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C A
Bonpoc: N°19
estrogen and progesterone is the:
pregnancy, the chief source of
After the first four months of
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
Anterior hypophysis
2 Chorion
Adrenal cortex
Corpusluteum
5 Placenta
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 50
2 3 4 5 67 89 10

TecTMpOBaHne
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Samsung India | Mobile | TV|
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Bonpoc: N°20
physiology?
the following is not true
about maternal cardiovascular
During pregnancy, which of
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
1 Extracellular fluld volume decreases
2 Total peripheral resistance decreases
3 Heart rate increases from an average of 70->85
4 Blood flow to brain increases 150-250 ml/min
5 Uterine blood flow increases by 500 ml/min

50
16 17 18 19 20 2122 23 24
2 3 4 56 7 8

TecCTHpOBaHMe
Samsung India Mobile | TV X Be6
Bonpoc: N°21
A sign of placental separation from the uterus is
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
Lackofbloody discharge
Contraction of the uterus on palpation
The umbilical cord shortened
4 Softening of the uterus on palpation
umbilicalcord fengthens
The
17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25
89 10

S Samsung India | Mobile| TV| X Be6 TecTHpoBaHne
Bonpoc: N°22
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant women in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
10 Respiratory acidosis
Physiologic anemia
3 Metabolic alkalosis
4 Disuria
5 Mastitis
18 19 20 21 23 24 25 26 50
12 3 45 6 7 89 1

mpee: NP23
Oraer(e erser)

TecTHpoBaHMe
Samsung India | Mobile | TVX
Be6
6 avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
C A
Bonpoc: N°23 mechanism by which
The
that can be used to
decrease postpartum bleeding.
nipple is a technique
manual stimulation of the breast
maneuver works is stimulation:
this
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBeT)
stimulation of opiate production

1
2 Sexual stimulation causing vaginal contractions
4 Stimulation of prostaglandins
uterine contraction
5 Of oxytocin production causing
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 50
2 3 4 5 6 78 9 10

TecTHpoBaHMe
India | Mobile|TV|
X Be6
Samsung
A
C
Bonpoc: N°24 presence of a
physician has documented the
pregnancy test is positive. The
women who has just been told that a
the history of
A doctor is reviewing
Goodell's sign. This sign indicates
OTBeTbI(oqMH OTBeT)
Bluishcoloration of the vagina
pulse during palpation of the uterus

OA
A softening of the cervix
The presence of fetal movement
Thepresence of hCG in the urine

20 21 22 23 24 25 2 27 28 50
2 3 4 5 6 73

TeCTMpOBaHMe
India Mobile |
TV XK
Be6
Samsung
A
C
Bonpoc: N 25
labor?
exam in the evaluation of normal
What is the role of digital
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBeT)
Time of labor
2 Fetal movements
Frequency and duration of contractions
4 Assessment of fetal well-being
5 Degree of dilatations of the cervix
21 22 23 24 25 26 21 28 29 50
34 5 67 8 9 10

ll 89o8.b0 am
Gcongenital acyar h 6a3 papM3
Be6TecTMpOBaX
f C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap LUlawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N91
Which of the following imaging technique in which iodine containing
cotrast agent is inserted
into the uterus to obtain an image?
OTBeTbli(OgMH OTBeT)
Ct-scan
3 Hysteroscopy
4 Ultrasound
5 Sonohysterography
2 3 4 5 6 7 50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbi BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyujnn Bonpoc
Ho 3aBepuieHwA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:15:01
3aBepuwTb TeCT

89% I 8:50 am
Gcongenital acyan h Ba3 bapM3 X

Be6 TecTWpOBaX
KyMap lawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°2
What medical imaging is used to control diagnosed ovarian cancer?
OTBeTbI(opMH OTBeT)
1 Sonohysterography
2 Ct-scan
3 Ultrasound
MRI
5 Hysteroscopy
1 2 3 4 56 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuwn Bonpoc
Ao saBepueHwa TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:55
3aBepwTb TeCT

G congenital acyan i Ba3 cþapM3 Be6 TeCTMpoBaHX
KyMap llannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N93
1 Uitrasonography
2 cystoscopy
4 Sonohysterography
5 HysteroscopY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50
1 2 345 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyun Bonpoc
1:14:52
3aBepunTb TeCT

89% 8:51 am
Gcongenital acyar iBas dapM3 X Be6TeCTMpOBa X +
O >
Kymap llanew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°4
A 43-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of acute pain in the groin and frequent
painful urination. He has a fever and weakness for the second day. Ultrasound examination of the
prostaterevealed hypoecholic areas in the periphery. He was diagnosed with a suspected
prostate abscess. What imaging study is preferred to clarify this diagnosis ?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBET)
Nuclear imaging
2 Xay
3 Pelvic MRI
4 OFluoroscopy
5 CT-scan
12 3 5 6 7 8 50
123 4567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoC
nponyueHHLIM BOnpoc
TEKyuwn BOnpoc
Scannead with CamScanner

(020ecc0.2
89% 18:51 am
Gcongenital acyar iBa3 papM3 Be6TeCTWpoBa
KyMap launeu Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne5
Recognize the main clinical signs of premature puberty:
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics older than 10 years.
2 the appearance of repetitive sexual characteristics at the age of less than 6 years.
congestive changes of the fundus
4 emotional stability
5 delaying intellectual development
22 33
456 7 8 9 50
1 234567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHLIMBonpoc
nponyuyeHHLIA BOnpoc
Texyujnn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuiewwa TecTa ocTanocb
1:14:45
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

89% 8:51 am
G congenital acyar i Eaa papM3 Be6TecTwpoea X
KyMap lawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°6
Determine at what age girls have breast enlargement and nipple pigmentation.:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBET)
10-11
2 12-13
3 14-15
B-9
5 16-18
2 3 5 8 9 10 *** 50
12 12 34 56 7 B 9 10
11 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
nponyuyenHblM BOnpoc
Tekyujnn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHnA TecTa ocTanocb
1:14:42
3aBepuuwTb TeCT

89% 8:51 am
G congenital acyar Ba3 dapM3 X Be6TeCTupoBaX
KyMap auneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°7
Determine at what age the absence of secondary sexual characteristics is considereda sign of
delayed sexual development in boys
OTBETbl (OAMH OTBeT)
secondary sexual characteristics by 14 years, and sperm maturation by 17 years

by 16 years
2 secondary sexual characteristics by 13 years, and sperm maturation
3 secondary sexual characteristics by 12 years, and sperm maturation by 15 years
secondary sexual characteristics by 11 years, and sperm maturation by 14 years
by 13 years
5 secondary sexual characteristics by 10 years, and sperm maturation
9 10 11 50
4 5 6 **
10
2 3 45 67 89
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
11
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbI BOnpoc
TeKyuynn Bonpoc
TECTa oCTanocb
Ao 3aBepweHnA
1:14:39
89% 8:51 am
G congenital acyar Baa cpapM3 Be6TeCTwpoBaX
KyMap Llanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 8
At the pediatrician's examination,the girl is 3 months old. Objectively: hypertrophy of the clitoris,
aplasia of the labia, and hymen. Guess what the girl's preliminary diagnosis is?
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBeT)
hermaphroditism
synechia of the labia
3 hyperpituitarism
5 hypopituitarism
5 6 7 9 10 11 12 50
123 4 5679 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbM BOnpoC
nponyujeHHbi BOnpoc
TeKyuwn BOnpoc

89%89%8:51 am
Gcongenital acyar hBas dpapM3 Be6TecTwpoBa
KyMap lanneu
Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N99
At the reception, the girl is 8 years old. Objectively: the mammary glands are significantly
enlarged, hair in the armpits, pubic area, the appearance of the first menarche. Find out from the
description what kind of preliminary diagnosis can be made for a girl?
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBET)
1 healthy child
hypothyroidism
5 sexual crisis
5 6 7 10 11 12 13 50
123 4 56 7 B9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbI BOrnpoc
TekyulM BOnpoc
o 3aBepuweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:33 Scanned with CamScanner

A 89% 8:51 am
Gcongenital acyan ibaa papM3 Be6TecTpoBaX +
KyMap llawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
On inspection at the girl of 15 years old. Objectively: rounded mammary glands, the nipples are
raised above the pre-pedigree angular. Pubic hair in the form of a triangile, long, curly, thick. In the
ampits of the head thick, curly on all surfaces. Manager of regular services. Evaluate the girls
sexual development according to Tanner.
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Ma3 P2 Ax2 Meo
Ma3 P3 Ax1 Me1
3 Ma2 P1 Axo Meo
4 Mao Po Axo Meo
5 Ma3 P3 Ax3 Me3
1
6 7 89 10 11 12 13 4
59
12 3 4 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbI BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHblM Bonpoc
Tekyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuueHnA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:2O
89%89%8:51 am
congenital acyan i Baa hapM3 Be6TecrupoBaX
C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing 2
KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne11
Examination of the boy's external genitalia revealed that the external opening of the urethra is
located in the area of the penoscrotal angle. What is the type of anomaly in a child?
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Phimosis
2 Hypospadias
3 Paraphimosis
4 Bladder exstrophy
5 Epispadias
1 8 10 1112 13 14 15
50
12 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbiM Bonpo0c
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
go 3aBepweHnA TeCTa oCTa/nocb:
1:14:26
89% 8:51 am
congenital acya Ea3 papM3 Be6TeCTMpoBaX
KyMap Wanneuw Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°12
Necrospermia is:
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Presence of only dead sperms in the ejaculate
Presence of only sedentary sperm in the ejaculate
Presence of only spermatogenesis cells in the ejaculate
4 Absence of sperm in the ejaculate
5 Absence of elements ofspermatogenesis in the ejaculate
9 10 11
12 13 14 15 16
50
1 23 4 56 7 8
9
10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbI BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIMBOnpoc
Tekyuunn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuweHwA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:23
3aBepunTb TeCT

22eeeoecco
8:51 am
89%
Gcongenital acyan h baa dapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBaX
C A
Kg Ru
KyMap Llawneu
Bonpoc: N 13
at
A history of trauma to both testicles
4 years. Have no children.
Male, 30 years old, married for performed (which one the patient
for which an organ-preserving operation was
the age of 20,
On examination: both testicles
are reduced in size, of
exactly) on both testicles.
does not know unremarkable. The prostate gland is
unchanged.
deferens are
dense consistency, the vas ejaculate. Total
No spermatozoa or spermatogenesis cells were found in the
Spermogram. your diagnosis?
(the norm is 12-35 nmol/ What is
1).
testosterone in the blood is 4 nmol/1
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Testicular hypogonadism, azoospermia.
2 Cryptorchidism
3 Testicular cancer
14 15 16 17
10 11 12 13
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl BOnpoc
ponyujeHHblM Bonpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
oCTanocb
Ao3aBepweHns TeCTa

ese
89% 89%8:51 am
Gcongenital acyar h Ba3 papM3 Be6TecTnpoBaX
KyMap LLanneu Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N°14
Which of the following does not apply to instrumental research methods?
OTBeTbI(opMH OTBeT)
Amniocentesis
2 USE with dopplerometry

3 Cordocentesis
Gravidogramm
5 Cardiotocography
13 14 15 16 17 18
10 11 12
50
2 3 4 5 678 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiMBOnpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TeCTa ocCTanocb:
1:14:15
3aBepunTb TeCT

89% 1 8:51 am
congenital acyan iBa3 dapM3 Be6TeCTpoBa X +
KyMap lannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne15
Active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection (1M) of
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1 10 W of oxytocin
2 5IU of oxytocin
3 1 IU ofoxytocin
4 20 1U of oxytocin
5 30 IU of oxytocin
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
50
1 2 3 456 789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 1718 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbl Bonpoc
nponyujeHHbi Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TecTa oCTanoCb
1:14:11
3aBepuWTb TeCT
8:51 am
89%
TecTupoBa
+
Be6
i ba3 hapM3
congenital acyar avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
G
Ru
CA A
KyMap
Ulanneus Kg
Bonpoc: N°16
pregnancy
during
1000 times
which hormone increases
The synthesis of
OTBeTbi(OqMH OTBeT)
Progesterone
2 Estriol
3 Cortisol
4 Thyroxine
5 Estradiol
17 18 19 20
14 15 16
12 13
50
123 567 89 10
A
1112 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbinBonpoc
rnponyueHHbl Bonpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
4o 3aBepweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:08B
3aBepuwTb TeCT

m8:51
89% am
G congenital acya h Ea3 bapM3 Be6TeCTupoBa X
KyMap Llanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°17
The labor has the following stages:
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
Preparation, dilation, expulsion
Effacement of the cervix, the expulsion, delivery of placenta
5 Preliminary, dilatation, expulsion, postpartum
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
50
1 5678
2 3 4
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHLIM BOnIpoc
nponyuueHHbIM Bonpoc
TeKyuyn Bonpoc
o 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:04
3aBepunTb TeCT
Scanned with Camscanner

89% 8:51 am
G congenital acyar hBa3papM3 Be6 TecTupoBaX +
KyMap Llanneuu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°18
A sign of placental separation from the uterus is:
OTBETbI(oquH OTBeT)
Contraction of the uterus on palpation
Lack of bloody discharge
3 The umbilical cord lengthens
Softening of the uterus on palpation
5 The umbilical cord shortened
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
1
23 4567 10 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBe4eHHbi BOnpoc
nponyujeHHEIM BONIpoc
Texyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:01
3aBepuWTb TeCT

89% 89%8:51 am
congenital acyar iEBaa chapM3 Be6TecTwpoBarX
Ru
Kg
KyMap lWawneu
Bonpoc: N919
Adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic region that results in a
purplish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa, which is known as:
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
Ladin's sign
2 Chadwick's sign
Palmer's sign
4 Hegar's sign
5 Goodell's sign
15 16
16 17 18 1920 21 22 23
50
123 4567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbiM BOnp0c
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:57
3aBepuWTb TecT
ll 89%8:51 am
G congenital acyar :Eaa dapM3 Be6TecTupoBa X
KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°21
Biparietal diameter of the fetal head:
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 12.5cm
2 11.5cm
9.5
4 10.5
5
8.5cm
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
50
1
2 3 4567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
22 23 24 25
26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHLIM BOnpoc
Teryuywn BOnpoc
g0 3aBepuwenns TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:52
3aBepunTb TeCT

89% M8:52 am
G congenital acyan Ba3 dapM3 Be6TeCTwpoBa X
KyMap awnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne20
The third stage of labor continues from:
OTBETbl(ogMH OTBeT)
Cervical dilatation to birth of membranes
Birth of fetus to birth of placenta
3 Dilatation of the cervix to the birth of the fetus
4 Separation of the placenta to the birth of the placenta
5 Birth of fetus to birth of membranes
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 ***
50
12 3 4 567 6 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYEHHbl BOnpoc
nponyuieHHLA BOrIpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc
Mo 3aBepuueHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:48
3aBepuiWTb TeCT

89% 8:52 am
Gcongenital acyar Eaa hapM3 Be6TecTpoBaX
KyMap lawneuu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 22
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant women in the 2nd trimester of
pregnancy?
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Disuria
Metabolic alkalosis
3 Physiologicanemia
4 Respiratory acidosis
Mastitis
18 19 20 21 22 23
24 25 26
50
1 2 34 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOpoc
nponyuyeHbiM BOnpoc
TeKylnn BOnpoc
1:13:45
3aBepuwTb TeCT
Scanned With CamScanner

l 89% 8:52 am
G congenital acyar Ba3 dapM3 Be6TeCTMpoBa x +
Kymap LWanneu Ru
Kg
Bonpoc: N°23
How is the first labor characterized ? Labor begins with:
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Regular uterine contractions and ends with decent of the head
2 Regular uterine contractions and ends with engagement of the head
3 Regular uterine contractions and ends with full dilatation of cervix
Rupture of membrane and ends with full dilatation of cervix
5 Regular uterine contractions and ends with effacement of cervix
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
50
123 45 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbI Bonpoc
nponyuyeHHbI BOnpoc
TeKyuinn Boripoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa oCTa/iocb
1:13:42
3aBepuwTb TeCT

89% 8:52 am
congenital acyar h ba3 dapM3 Be6 TecTupoBa X
KyMap anne Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 24
After the delivery of the newborn the doctor manage 3 stage of labor. Which observation would
indicate that the placenta has separated from uterine wall and is ready for delivery?
OTBETbl(OqMH OTBeT)
1 Changes in the shape of the uterus
2 Soft and boggy uterus
3 Maternal complaints of severe uterine cramping
4 The umbilical cord shortens in length and changes in color
Hemorrhage
1 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
50
12 3 456 78910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 2425 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
TBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM Bonpoc
rexyunn Bonpoc
1:13:38
3aBepunTb TeCT

KyMaplawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°25
Which of the following is true about the uterine contractility?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
Aspirin or indomethacin may delay the onset of labor
2 The number of gap junctions decreases prior to labor
3 Progesterone levels increases prior to labor
Estrogen has an inhibitory effect
5 The uterus contracts segmentally via nervous connections
21 22 23 2425 26 27 2829 **
50
12
11
3 4 56789 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHbI BOpoc
nponyuyeHHIM BOnpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHna TeCTa ocTanocb
1:13:35
3aBepuwwTb TeCT

89% 8:52 am
G congenital acyar i 6a3 cpapM3 Be6TecTMpoBaX
KyMap lWanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°26
The true conjugate is the distance between:
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBeT)
Uppersurface of pubic arch to sacral promontory
2 Upper edge of the symphysis pubis and to promontory
Inner surface of pubis and sacral promontory
ishial tuberosities
5 Undersurface of pubic arch to sacral promontory
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
50
1 234 56 7 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 1718 19 20
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
23
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeueHHblM Bonipoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:13:32
3aBepuwTb TeCT

Bonpoc: N°27
A doctor determines that the woman is in the beginning 2nd stage of labor when which of the
following assess ments is noted?
OTBETbl(OAMH OTBET)
1 The cervix is dilated completely
2 The membrane have ruptured
3 Begins expel clear vaginal fluid
4 Thecontractions are regular

5 The face of women becomes red
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
50
1212 1334 5678 9 10

11 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
o 3aBepweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:30
3aBepuTb TeCT

O C Aavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap Llawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°28
weeks' pregnant is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This
A 21-year old client, 6
excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
Pregnancy induced hypertension
2 Bowel perforation
3 Toxemia
4 Electrolyte imbalance
5 Miscarriage
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
50
1 2 3 456789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbl BOnpoC
nponyujeHHbl Bonpoc
Tekyunn BOnpoc
Ao saBepueHnA TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:13:27
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

89%8:52 am
G congenital acyar 6a3 dapM3 Be6TeCTupoBa X +
Kymap Lawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°29
Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during:
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
5months
2 months
O4 months
12months
5 6 months
25 26 27 28 29
3031 32 33
50
1
2 3 4 567 8910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbl Bonp0c
nponyujeHHbiM BOipoc
TeKyuinn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:13:23
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

l89%8:52 am
Gcongenital acyar i Baa dapM3 Be6TeCTwpoBa X +
KyMap Llawneu
Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne30
Preovulatory changes in the hormonal background are characterized by an increase in the level
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
1 FSH and decreased LH
Prolactin
LH and decrea sed FSH
4 FSH and LH
5 FSH, LH and prolactin
26 27
27 28 29 30 31 3233 34
50
1 2 3 456 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnp0c
nponyuueHHbiM BOnpoc
Tekyujnn Bonpoc
lo 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:20
3aBepunTb TeCT

Bonpoc: N31
Phases of the ovarian cycle:
OTBETbl(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Desquamation and ovulation
2 Follicularand luteal
3 Anovulatory and luteal
4 Ovulatory and anovulatory
5 Folicular and ovulation
29 30 31 32 33 34 35
27 28
50
12 34 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
npornyuyeHHbIM BOIpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TeCTa oCTanOCb
1:13:17
3aBepwWTb TeCT

SA
l 89% 8:52 am
congenital acyar i 6a3 dapM3 Be6TeCTHpOBa X
KyMap Llauneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°32
in giris at an early age (from 2 to 8 years), the following are more common:
OTBETbl(ogMH OTBeT)
Ovarian tumors
2 Dysfunctional bleeding
Salpingo-oophoritis
Vulvovaginitis
Congenital anomalies of the genital organs
28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
1 23 4 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHEHHLIM BOnpoc
nponyuenHbi Bonpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuieHnA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:13:14
3aBepuTb TeCT

Bonpoc: N°33
The complication that most often arises in the management of the intrauterine device is
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBeT)
OPelvic vein thrombosis

2 Habitual miscarriage
3 Acuteinfection
4 isthmic-cervical insufficiency
5 Ectopic pregnancy
29 30 31 32 333334 35 36 37
50
B
12 3 4 567 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbi BOnIpoc
Texyu BOnpoc
o 3aBepuweHnA TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:10
3aBepwnTb TeCT

89% 8:52 am
congenital acyar ba3 dapM3 Be6TeCTwpoBaX
C Aavn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap lawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°34
For anovulatory menstrual cycle with follicular atresia is characteristic:
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Aigomenorrhea
2 Oligoamenorthea
3 Hypomenorrhea
Amenorrhea
5 Polymenorrhea
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
50
123 4567 B9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 A0
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHEHHbl BOnpooc
riponyuieHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuynA BOnpoc
o 3aBepuieHnA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:07
3aBepwwTb TeCT

l 89% 8:52 am
Gcongenital acyar i Ba3 dhapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBaX
KyMap LWanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N935
The anatomical features of the uterus in a newborn girl include:
OTBETbl(ogMH OTBeT)
Uterus curved posteriorly
2 The body of the uterus is smal, the cervix is almost not expressed
3 The uterus has a bicorn shape
The length of the cervix 3 times more the length of the uterus
The body of the uterus is almost 2 times larger than the cervix
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
50
1 23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHblM Bonpoc
nponyujeHHbi BOIpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
Mo 3aBepuieHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:04
3aBepwWTb TeCT
Scanned wíth CamScanneer

l89% M 8:52 am
Gcongenital acyar hBaa dapM3 Be6TecTMpOBaX

KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N936
Women with AUB are at risk:
OTBETbi(oaMH OTBeT)
On the development of breast tumors
2 On the development of placental insufficiency and anomalies of the birth force
3 Pregnancy
4 Miscarriage
5 0n the development of genital tumors
32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 ***
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 78910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHBIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbl Bonpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:01
3aBepuwTb TeCT

l88%8:52 am
congenital acyar i
Ba3 cpapM3 Be6 TecTMpoBa X
KyMap Llawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N937
What is the most common presenting complaint of a woman with vaginitis?
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Pelvic pain
2 Fever
3 Vaginal discharges
4 Dyspareuniaa
5 irregular menses
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
50
1
23 4 56 78 10 9
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4EHHbiM BOnpoc
nporiyuieHHblM Bonpoc
TeKyuwn Bonpoc
1:12:58
3aBepuWTb TeCT

Bonpoc: N°38
Which of the following mechanisms best explains the contraceptive effect of birth control pills
that contain both synthetic estrogen and progestin?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeeT)
1 Production of uterine secretions that are toxic to the developing embryo
2 Direct inhibition of oocyte maturation
Impairment of implantation
4 Inhibition of ovulation
Impairment of sperm transport due to uterotubal obstructio
34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
50
12 3 4 56789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbM Bonpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TeCra oCTanocb
1:12:55
3aBepuMTb TeCT

Bonpoc: N°39
receive recommendations on contraception,
gynecologist to
consulted a births, 2 medical
Patient 1, 42 years oid, Regular sex life in marriage. History of 2
for 5 years. mm Hg., height 164 cm,
suffers from hypertension pressure is 135/90
condition is satisfactory, blood
abortions. General contraception
BMI =35. Recommended method of
weight 90 kg,
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
Calendar rhythm method
2 Intrauterine device with silver
4 Condom
5 Postcoital contraception (Postinor, Dvella)
39 40 41 42 43
35 36 37 38
50
7 89 10
12 3 4 56
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
npornyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:12:51
ss
88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar Bas dapM3 Be6TeCTpOBa X +
KyMap Llanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N940
A 16-year-oldgirl developed spotting from the genital tract, lasting 8 days after a 2-month delay.
The first menstruation appeared 4 months ago for 2 days, after 28 days, moderate, painless.
Denies sexuality. The development is correct, well physically built. When recto-abdominal
examination of the pathology is not detected. Hb-80 g/1. Probable diagnosis:
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
Juvenile uterine bleeding
2 Polyp of the cervix
Hormone-producing ovarian tumor
Cervical cancer
Endometrial polyposis
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 ***
50
12 3 4 5678 910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 4344 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHBIM BOnpoc
TeKyuMn BOnpoc
1:12:48 Scanned wíth Camscanner

88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar 6a3 hapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBaX
Kymap lawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne41
Infiammation of the female genital organs.
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
Tend to increase incidence
No differences in acute and chronic forms
Often develops with one pathogen
in 60% of cases proceeds as an acute process
Have a relationship with contraception
37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45
50
1
23 4567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeHeHHIM BOnpoc
nponyuewwui BOIpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepwenwa TecTa oCTanocb
1:12:46
3aBepuwTb TeCT

88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar i Baa dapM3 Be6TecTWpoBa X
KyMap lawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N942
The optimum tempereture for sperm activity:
OTBeTbl(OAUH OTBeT)
40 C
From 38 to 39
30 C below body t0
37 C abovebodyt0
42C
38 39 40
4142 43 44 45 46
50
1 2 3 456 789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHLIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyuinn Bonpoc
Ho 3aBepujenmA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:12:43
3aBepuWTb TeCT

88% 8:53 am
ngenital acya Esas hapM3 Be6TecTpoBaX
KyMap Lllawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N943
The causes of secondary amenorrhea of central genesis include everything besides:
OTBETbi(opuH OTBeT)
Psychogenicamenorrhea
Sheehan syndrome
Kalimann Syndrome
Syndrcome of hyperprolactinemia
Amenorhea due to weight loss
39 A0 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
50
1234
11
S67B910
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHulh Bonpoc
nponyueHH BOnpoc
Texyuawn BOnpoc
ho 3asepujewna TecTa oCTanoCb
1:12:39
3aBepunTb TeCT

88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar 5a3 papM3 x Be6TecTMpOBai X +
Kymap Llaune Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne44
The ultrasound examination revealed the persistence of the follicles in the patient. What phase of
the menstrual cycle does not occur with follicle persistence:
OTBeTbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Desquamation
2 Regeneration
3 Proliferation
4 Secretion
5 Luteal
40 41 42 43 44 4546 47 48
50
123 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbi Bonpoc
Tekyulni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHWA TecTa oCTanocb
1:12:36
3aBepuWTb TeCT

KyMap LLlanne Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N945
The second cross of ureter of the uterine artery at the level of
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
laterally 1.5-2 cm to upper part of vagina
2 laterally 1.5-2cm to ovaries
3 laterally 1.5-2 cm to cervix
all are incorrect
laterally 1.5-2 cm to corpus uteri
42 43 4445 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHEHHLi BOnpo0
nponyueHHLI BOnpoc
Texyuinn Bonipoc
Ao 3aBepueHna TeCTa ocTanocb
1:12:33
3aBepwWTb TeCT

88% 88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar iBa3 dapM3 Be6TecTpoBaX
Kymap Llawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N946
The uterine artery is a branch of
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBET)
the external iliac artery
the common iliac artery
the internal iliac artery
4 the inferior epigastric artery

5 the obturator artery
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 45 6 7 89 10D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBe4eHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHLIM BOnpoc
Tekyuinn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuienwa TecTa oCTanocb
1:12:30
3aBepuwTb TeCT

88% am
I 8:53
Gcongenital acyar hBaa papM3 Be6TecTMpOBaX
KyMap lannew Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N947
Pelvic diaphragm refers to:
OTBETbi(oquH OTBeT)
Perin eal membrane with levator ani m.
2 Perineal membrane with coccygeus m.
3 Coccygeus m. with urogenital diaphragm
4 Urogenital diaphragm with Levator ani m.
5 Coccygeus m. with levator ani m.
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 45 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbi BOnpoc
nponyuieHHLI BOnpoc
Texyuinn Bonpoc
o 3aBepujeHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:27
3aBepuWTb TeCT

88% 18:53 am
G congenital acya h Ba3 hapM3 Be6TeCTWpoBaH X
KyMap lanneu Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: Ne48
Anatomic structures passing through the suprapiriform foramen:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1
theilioinguinal nerve
2 the pudendal neurovascular bundle
the sciatic nerve
4 the superior gluteal neurovascular bundle
5 the inferior epigastric artery
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
12 3 4 5 6 7 89
10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 500
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyujeHHBI BOnpoc
TeKyujnn Bonpoc
o 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:24
3aBepwWTb TeCT

SA
88% 8:53 am
congenital acyar h baa dapM3 X Be6TeCTMpOBa X +
Ru
Kg
KyMap Lllawneuu
Bonpoc: N949
During a prostatectomy, the surgeon attempts to protect the prostatic plexus of nerves which
contains nerve fibers that innervate penile tissue to cause erection. From which nerves do these
fibers originate?
OTBETbl(oqUH OTBeT)
Deepperineal
2 Pudendal
3 Pelvic splanchnics
Genitofemoral
5 Dorsal nerve of the penis
43 44 45 4647 48 49 50
12 3 45678910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 36 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHLI BOonpoc
nponyuyewHbi Bonpoc
TeKyujun Bonp0C
o 3aBepuennA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:12:20
3aBepunTb TeCT

Be6TeCTpu
papM3
acya h 6a3
congenital avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
C KyMap LLlanneu
Kg Ru
Bonpoc: NO50
reproductive system
which part of the male
cells) of
(excessive growth of
hyperplasia passage of urine?
Benign
likely to interfere with the
would be most
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Prostate
1 Periurethral Zone ofthe
Prostate
Peripheral Zone of the
Central Zone ofthe

Prostate
3
4
Ejaculatory Duct
5 Seminal Vesicle
48 49 50
44 45 46 47
43
1 2 3 456 17789 10
18 19 200
11 12 13 14 15 16
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
400
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYEHHLIM BOnpoc
Tekyuiwn BOnpoc
o 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb:
1:12:17
3aBepwwTb TeCT

What is not typical for the corpus luteum of pregnancy?
1
Secretes progesterone
2 Develops from the corpus luteum of the ovary
3 Actively functions up to 3 months of pregnancy
4 Actively functions throughout pregnancy
5 HCG stimulates the development of the corpus luteum
Determine at what age the absence of secondary sexual characteristics is

considered a sign of delayed sexual development in boys
1 secondary sexual characteristics by 10 years, and sperm maturation by 13
years
years
years
secondary sexual characteristics by 12 years, and sperm maturation by 15
years
years
What frequency range of transducers should be used for transabdominal

examination of the pelvic organs?
1
10.0-15.0 MHz
2 15.0-20.0 MHz
3 7.5-10.0MHz
4 5.0-7.5 MHz
5 3.5 5.0 MHz
-
A 19 year old primagravida presents to the OB clinic. She is 36 weeks

pregnant by last menstrual period dating. By pelvimetry pelvis sizes:
Distancia Spinarum 25cm, - Distancia Cristarum-28 cm,- Disatancia
Trochanterica 30cm, - Conjugata Externa 20 cm. Determine the true
conjugate by the external conjugate.
1
12 cm
211 cm
3 10 cm
4 8 cm
59 cm
Why desquamation of the functional layer of the endometrium occurs
1
Increase in estradiol levels in the blood
2 Hypersecretion of FSH
3 Decrease the prolactin level in the blood
4 Hypersecretion of LH
5 Due to low estrogen and progesterone
During pregnancy, which of the following is not true about the respiratory
system response to pregnancy?
1
There is a respiratory alkalosis
2 The thoracic cage is pushed up and widened
3 The vital capacity is decreased
4 The diaphragm is elevated
5 The residual volume decreases
Patient with amenorrhea has a negative result (absence of menstrual

reaction) after the hormonal test with estrogens and progesterone, it
means
1
Presence central form of amenorrhea
5 Presence amenorrhea of central genesis
What is the role of digital exam in the evaluation of normal labor?

1
Assessment of fetal well-being
2 Frequency and duration of contractions
3 Fetal movements
4 Time of labor
5 Degree of dilatations of the cervix
The peritoneum covers the following areas of anterior surface of uterus

1
not covered at all
2 the body and entire cervix of uterus
3 the body and supravaginal part of uterus
4 body, fundus of uterus
5 the body of uterus, supravaginal part of cervix, anterior vaginal fornix
Which structure from following not included in perineal body containment

?
1
the superficial transverse perinei m.
2 the m. bulbospongiosus
3 the rectovaginal fascia (Denonvillier's)
4 the m. ischiocavernosus
5 the deep transverse perinei muscle and its fascia
A 21 year old primigravida is expecting her first-child, She is 16 weeks

pregnant by last menstrual period dating She is upset by the appearance of
spots on her face Which of the following terms applies to the dark blotchy,
brown, blanched, patches of skin found on the forehead, upper lip. nose,
and cheeks during pregnancy?
1
Epulis
2 Telangiectasia's
3 Striae gravidarumm
4 Linea nigra
5 Melasma
Gravidogramm is graphic recordings:
Number of deliveries
Symphisis fundal height
Number of pregnancies
Date of pregnancy
Circumference of abdomen
Which of the following would be most likely to be damaged by a stab

wound into the ischiorectal (ischioanal) fossa 2 cm lateral to the anal
canal?
Crus of the Penis with cavernous tissue
Vesicular Bulb
Pudendal Neurovascular bundle
Inferior Rectal Artery, vein
Perineal Body
The third stage of labor continues from:

Cervical dilatation to birth of membranes
Birth of fetus to birth of placenta
Dilatation of the cervix to the birth of the fetus
Separation of the placenta to the birth of the placenta
Birth of fetus to birth of membranes
The onset of labor should be considered by the following criteria:
Regular contractions
Rupture of membrane
True labor pain
Engagement of fetal head
Decent of fetal head
In girls at an early age (from 2 to 8 years), the following are more common:
Salpingo-oophoritis
Ovarian tumors
Congenital anomalies of the genital organs
Vulvovaginitis
Dysfunctional bleeding
Multigravidae woman in postpartum period developed septic pelvic

thrombophlebitis, after inadequately treated endometritis. Where will be the
possibility of coursing the thrombus if the left ovarian vein involved in the
process?
IVC
Portal vein
Azygos vein
Left lumbar vein
Left renal vein
Determine at what age the absence of secondary sexual characteristics is

considered a sign of delayed sexual development in girls.
12-16
14-18
11-14
10-13
13-17
Name the conjugate, which is the determining factor for the outcome of labor
Anatomical conjugate
Diagonal conjugate
Lateral conjugate
External conjugate
True conjugate
What signs characterize the state of readiness of the organism of a pregnant

woman for
delivery
True labor pain

Braxton-Hicks contractions
Cervical ripening
Cervical immaturity
Date of pregnancy
Which of the following is not true (positive) sign of pregnancy?
Amenorrhea
Palpation of fetal parts
Audible fetal heart
Fetal movements
Ultrasound evidence of a fetus
What is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter of the fetal head?
12 cm, circumference 34 cm
Specify the age at which girls are determined by the stage of butane breast and
nipple
pigmentation
16-17
10-11
12 13
14-15
8-9
On which of the postpartum days can the women expect lochia serosa
Days 8 to 14
Days 3 and 4
Days 15 to 30
Days 16 to 42
Days 5 to 7
Specify what age corresponds to the degree of puberty (years) MA 3 2x2 My.
8-9
12-13
14-15
10-11
16-17
Male, 30 years old, married for 4 years. Have no children. A history of trauma to
both testicles at the age of 20 for which an organ-preserving operation was
pertormed (which one the patient does not know exactly) on both testicles. On
examination: both testicles are reduced in size, of dense consistency, the vas
deferens are unremarkable The prostate gland is unchanged. Spermogram No
spermatozoa or spermatogenesis cells were found in the ejaculate. Total
testosterone in the blood is 4 nmol/l (the norm is 12-35 nmol ). What is your
diagnosis?
Testicular cancer
Late onset hypogonadism
Congenital atrophy of testicles
Cryptorchidism
Testicular hypogonadism, azoospermia.
For what purpose do we measure the size of the false pelvis? To determine the
Shape of pelvis
Degree of contracted of the pelvis
Size of the small pelvis
Diagonal conjugates
Thickness of the pelvic bones
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant women in the 2nd
trimester of pregnancy?
Disuria
Mastitis
Respiratory acidosis
Physiologic anemia
Metabolic alkalosis
The ovarian artery is a branch of:
Internal iliac artery

Uterine artery
Inferior vesical artery
Common iliac artery
Abdominal aorta
pregnant is diagnosed with hyperemesis

A 21-year old client, 6 weeks'
gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which
of the following conditions
Bowel perforation
Miscarriage
Electrolyte imbalance
Toxemia
Pregnancy induced hypertension
Which structure should be taken into account not to damage while ligating the
uterine artery during hysterectomy (amputation of uterus)
Ovarian artery
Ureter
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Pudendal nerve
Urethra
Pathological amenorrhea does not include:
Amenorrhea of childhood
Amenorrhea in Sheehan's syndrome
Amenorrhea with gonadal dysgenesis
Amenorrhea in Kallmann syndrome
What is the least contributes to the appearance of infection in the pelvis:
Endometritis
Curettage of the uterus
The semen
Fibrotic changes
Menstruation
During pregnancy, which of the following is not true about the respiratory system
response to pregnancy?
There is a respiratory alkalosis

The thoracic cage is pushed up and widened
The vital capacity is decreased
The diaphragm is elevated
The residual volume decreases
A 14-year-old boy came to the clinic complaining of acute pain in the scrotum
Clinical examination revealed edematous scrotum on both sides the skin is
hyperemic. What imaging study should be done first?
MRI
Hysteroscopy
CT-scan
X-ray
Ultrasound
What is the reason for a slight decrease in blood pressure in the 1st trimester of
pregnancy?
Decreases total peripheral resistance

Increased stroke volume of the heart
Physiological left ventricular hypotension
Increased cardiac output
Increased heart rate
Canal formed by the fascia of m. obturator internus?
Femoral canal
Perineal canal
Pudendal canal
Obturator canal
Inguinal canal
Ultrasonography
Hysteroscopy
Cystoscopy
Hysterosalpingograpny
Sonohysterography
Pus leakage from the periuterine space into the inguinal canal along
the cardinal lig of uterus

the suspensory lig of ovary
the inferior epigastric artery
the round lig, of uterus
the broad lig of uterus
The most effective method for diagnosing gonococCus is:
Polymerase chain reaction

Cultural
Linked immunosorbent assay
Bacterioscopic
Immunofluorescent
Why desquamation of the functional layer of the endometrium occurs
Increase in estradiol levels in the blood

Hypersecretion of FSH
Decrease the prolactin level in the blood
Hypersecretion of LH
Due to low estrogen and progesterone
is expected change in the hematologic system during the 2nd trimester of

pregnan
Decreses in protein
Decrease in WBC's
Decrease in sedimentation rate
Increase in blood volume
Increase in hematocrit
Among the following, specify the therapeutic manipulations that are not used for
priapism relief
Novocaine blockade of the spermatic cord

Intracavernous administration of epinephrine solution
Cavernous-spongiose bypass surgery
Puncture of the corpora cavernosa with blood aspiration
Perfusion of the corpora cavemosa with beparin solution
Perineal membrane, superior perineal fascias together with structures of deep

perineal pouch known in clinical anatomy as:
Pelvic floor
Urogenital triangle
Urogenital diaphragm
None is correct
Pelvic diaphragm
What signs characterize the state of readiness of the organsm of a pregnant

woman for delivery
True labor pain

Braxton-Hicks contractions
Cervical ripening
Cervical immaturity
Date of pregnancy
W ich of the following hormones is used as a marker a normally developing

pregnancy in the First trimester?
Estnol
Chorionic gonadotropin
Prolactin
Pituitary gonadotropin
Progesterone
A 26-year old multigravida is 14 weeks' pregnant and is scheduled for an alpha-
fetoprotein test. She asks "What does the alpha-fetoprotein test indicate?" The
bases a response on the knowledge that this test can detect:
Cardiac defects
Kidney defects
Urinary tract defect
Neural tube defects
Heart defect
Enter to what age corresponds to the degree of sexual development (years) Mao
Horomia
14-15
16-17
10-11
12-13
8-9
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant women in the 2nd

trimester of
pregnancy?
Disuria
Mastitis
Respiratory acidosis
Physiologic anemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Which structure should be taken into account not to damage while ligating the
uterine artery
Ovarian artery
Ureter
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Pudendal nerve
Urethra
Ovaries are fixed by the following ligaments:
Suspensory ovarian and round ligament of uterus

Suspensory ovarian and proper ovarian
Round lig. and proper ovarian
Cardinal lig. and proper ovarian lig.
Cardinal lig., and rOund lig.
years old, her physical and neuropsychic state

At the reception, the girl is 7
corresponds to he age. There is pubic hair on the female type from 4 years, the
mammary glands are not develop menarche is absent. What is your presumed
diagnosis?
premature puberty
isolated adrenarche
sexual crisis
isolated telarche
hyperpituitarism
Factors that not play a role in the pathogenesis of inflammatory diseases of the
internal genital organs:
Age
Uterine fibroids
Sexual intercourse
Menstruation
IUCD
What is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter of the fetal head?
Fetal presentation refers to which of the following descriptions:
Fetal head to the uterine fundus

A classification according to the fetal part
Relationship of the presenting part to the maternal pelvis
Relationship of fetal parts to each other
Relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother
At the reception,a 12-year-old girl, complaints about the appearance of hair on
her fa armpits, mammary glands are not developed, there are no monthly
periods, body we bone age is ahead of the passport. Assume which syndrome
the above data relate to
delayed puberty
false male hermaphroditism
true hermaphroditismn
congenital adrenogenital syndrome
congenital hypothyroidism
After the end of labor, the postpartum woman should be monitored in the
maternity ward for.
30 min
60 min
120 min
180 min
90 min
Which structure is not included in the deep perineal pouch of female?

M. transversus perinei profundi
Inferior perineal fascia
Cowpers glands
Bonpoc: N91
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 Pregnancy
2 O Infertility
3 Pelvic infection
4 OBloody discharge
5 OHeavy periods
2 B 4 5 6 7 50
Bonpoc: N93
OTBeTbl(oqMH OTBeT)
1OHysteroscopy
2 O Sonohysterography
3 OUltrasound
4 O MRI
5 OCt-scan
34 5 67 50
Bonpoc: N94
A 43-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of acute pain in the groin and frequent painful urination. He has a fever and weakness for the second day.
Ultrasound examination of the prostate revealed hypoechoic areas in the periphery. He was diagnosed with a suspected prostate abscess. What imaging study is
preferred to clarify this diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(oAuH OTBeT)
1OX-ray
2O CT-scan
3 OFluoroscopy
4 OPelvic MRI
5 Nuclear imaging
6 7 8 S0
07:39
OEi O ) ENG
31-12-2020 L
Bonpoc: N96
Determine at what age girls have breast enlargement and nipple pigmentation
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1O10-11
2 016-18
3 O 12-13
4 O 14-15
5 8-9
1 2 5
67 8 10 50
Bonpoc: N95
At what age are boys determined by the appearance of facial hair, pigmentation of the scrotum, the first ejaculation?:
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBET)
1O14-15
20 12-13
3 8-9
4 10-11
5 16-17
1
2 A 5 6 7 8 9 50
BonpoC: N97
to the degree of sexual development (years) Mao Horomia:
Enter to what age corresponds
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT
1 8-9
20 12-13
3 010-11
4 O 14-15
5 0 16-17
67 8 50
Bonpoc: N98
on the female type from years, the
girl is 7 years old, her physical and neuropsychic state corresponds to her age. There is pubic hair
Atthe reception, the 4
mammary glands are not developed, menarche is absent. What is your presumed diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(o4MH oTBeT)
1 O isolated adrenarche
2 Opremature puberty
3 O sexual crisis
4 O isolated telarche
5 Ohyperpituitarism
4 10 1 12 50
07:46
O D )ENG 31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N°9
Objectively physical development corresponds to age. testicles with a volume of 1 m, palpated on both sides, the scrotum is
At the reception, the boy is 2 years ald.
split, urethral hypospadias are noted. Determine which diagnosis corresponds to the objective data?
OTBeTb1(o4uH OTBeT)
1O a healthy child
2 O false hermaphroditism
3 Otrue hermaphroditism
1
e112 13 50
0747
O d) ENG
31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N910
A 15-year-old boy was examined. Objectively: mutation (breaking) of the voice, noticeable protrusion of the thyroid catilage. Thick, curly pubic hair in the form of a
triangle. There is no hair in the armpit or on the face. Evaluate the boy's sexual development according to Tanner
OTBeTbi(oAnH OTBET)
1 OV1 P4 L1 Ax0 FO
2 OV1 P1 LO AxO FO
3 Ov2 P5 L2 Ax4 F3
4 V2 P3 L1 Ax2 FO
F
5 Ov2 P5 L2 Ax4
6 78910 1 12 13 14 **
S0
07:47
n 9) ENO 31-12-2020 L
Bonpoc: Ne12
the>
He notes the urge to urinate, but
cannot urinate on his own. Above
while playing football. Urethroragia appeared. kind
the crotch
was kicked in from the urethra. What
There is a perineal hematoma. Blood released
A 20-year-old patient is
a dull sound is revealed during percussion.
pubis, a bulging is determined, over which
of damage do you assume?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBET)
1 OKidney rupture
2 ODamage to the prostate
3OUrethralruptured
4ORuptured bladder
5 Balanoposthitis
8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 S0
Bonpoc: Ne13
Male, 30 years old, married for 4 years. Have no children. A history of trauma to both testicles at the age of 20, for which an organ-preserving operation was
performed (which one the patient does not know exactly) on both testicles. On examination: both testicles are reduced in size, of dense consistency, the vas deferens
are unremarkable. The prostate gland is unchanged. Spermogram. No spermatozoa or spermatogenesis cells were found in the ejaculate. Total testosterone in the
blood is 4 nmol/I (the norm is 12-35 nmol / 1). What is your diagnosis?
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1OTesticular hypogonadism, azoospermia

2 O Congenital atrophy of testicles
3 OTesticular cancer
5 Cryptorchidism
9 12 1415M1617 S0
07:51
D la) ENG
31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N914
What signs characterize the state of readiness of the organism of a pregnant woman for delivery?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBET)
1 True labor pain
2 O Date of pregnancy
3O Braxton Hicks contractions
4 Cervical immaturity
5 Cervical ripening
10 11 13
14 15 16 17 18 50
Bonpoc: N916
Which symptom refers to the probable signs of pregnancy?
OTBeTbI(oqnH OTBeT)
10Nervous irritation
2 Pigmentation changes
3 Appetite changes
4 Nausea and vomiting
5 Uterine enlargement
1
12 13 14 1516
15 17 18 19 20 50
Bonpoc: Ne17
OTBETbi(OAMH OTBET)
2 0 Preliminary, dilatation, expulsion, postpartum
3 O Effacement of the cervix, the expulsion, delivery of placenta
1 ** 13 14 15 16 17 18y 19 20 21 ** 50
Bonpoc: Ne19
What is fetal lie? This is relation of:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1 Fetal parts to each other
2 Fetal head to the fundus
3 Fetal long axis to the long axis of uterus
4 O Fetal head to the pelvic inlet
5 Fetal back to the left or right sides of uterus
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 50
Bonpoc: N920
Which of the following hormones is secreted during pregnancy the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland ofthe mother and fetus?
OTBeTbi (oAMH OTBeT)

1 OProlactin
2 O Human chorionic gonadotropin
3 O Estriol
4 O Human placental lactogen
5 Progesterone
16 17 18 19
208 22 23 24 50
Bonpoc: N921
In the first day of the postpartum period, the fundus of the uterus Is
OTBeTbi(oqMH oTBeT)
1 3 transverse fingers below the navel
2 O At the level of the navel
3 O Midway between the navel and the symphysIS
4 2 transverse fingers above the navel

5 O 3 transverse fingers above the navel
22 23
17 18 19 20
21 24 25 50
Bonpoc: Ne23
Indicate purpose of external conjugate measurement. o determine:
OTBeTbl(oAnH oTBeT)
1 Diagonal conjugates
2 O Thickness of the pelvic bones
3 Lateral conjugates
Shape of pelvis
5 True conjugate
1 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 50
Bonpoc: N25
Active management of the third stage of labor includes:
OTBeTbi(oAuH OTBET)
1 Supervision of the woman in labor
2 Manual separation of the placenta

3 Instrumental separation of the placenta
4 O Controlled cord traction
5 Ice on the lower abdomen
21 22 23 24 2526 27 28 29 50
Bonpoc: N°27
When involved in prenatal teaching, the doctor should advise the clients that an increase in vaginal secretions during pregnancy is called leukorrhea and is caused by
increased:
OTBeTbi(oquH OTBeT)
1OSupply of sodium chloride to the vagina
2 O Functioning of the Bartholin glands
3 OIncrease blood supply

4 O Metabolic rates
5 O Production of estrogen
23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 50
08:12
D( ) ENG 31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N 26
What causes low blood pressure during first half of pregnancy?
OTBeTbi(oqnH OTBET)
1 Uterine blood flow increases
2 Progesterone effect
3 Blood flow to skin increases
4 OBlood flow increase
5 Blood flow to brain increases
22 23 24
25 26 2 28 29 30 50
Bonpoc: Ne28
A 25 year-old woman has vaginal delivery of a baby in her first pregnancy After delivery newborn was assessed by neonatologist. Which of the following is a no
sign of fetus born at term:
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
1O Good newborn reflex
2 VWeight >2500 gr., length 47 cm.
3 O Testes within scrotum
4 Length of hair > 2 cm
5OWeight <2500 gr., length 45 cm.
24
25 28
26 27 29 30 31 32 50
Bonpoc: N932
According to the WHO classification (1980), postmenopause is called
OTBeTbi(O4MH OTBeT)
1O The period from the onset of menstruation to the last menstruation
2 Period of first menstruation
3 O Period of stable menstrual function
4 Last menstruation
5 The length of time after the last menstruation
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 50
Bonpoc: N935
Women with AUB are at risk:
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBET)
1 On the development of placental insufficiency and anomalies of the birth force
2 On the development of genital tumors
3 O Miscarriage
4 On the development of breast tumors

5 Pregnancy
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 50
Bonpoc: N936
womanbperiod esery 33 days lasting 8days with iarge ciots being passed. She could be dassifed as having
OTBETDI(oAMH oTBeT)
Meortaga
2 Menanagia
ysamenonea
agja
34 39 40
Maps KSMA Sub entre Session.
Kancapn NpTM
Bonpoc: N936
as
A woman has period every 33 days lasting 8 days with large clots being passed. She could be classified having
OTBeTbi(OAUH OTBeT)
O Metrorrhagia
OMenorrhagia
Dysmenorrhea
Menometrrohagia
5 OPolymenorrhea
38 39 40 50
32 33 34 35 36 87
08:22
) ENG 31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N937
For anovulatory menstrual cycle with short term persistence of a mature follicle is not typical:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1O Single-phase basal temperature
2 Prolonged spotting discharge
3 O High estrogen levels
4 Symptom of the pupil (+++)
5 In the scraping of the endometrium in the second phase of the cycle
33 34353637 38 39 40 41 50
Bonpoc: N939
A 23-year-old female patient complains of mucopurulent discharge from the genital tract, itching at the antenatal clinic. By examination: the mucous of the cervix is
sharply hyperemic, edematous. The discharge is profuse, mucopurulen. uterus in anteversio-flexio, not enlarged, painless, the appendages are not defined. What is
the mostlikely diagnosis:
OTBeTbl(oanH OTBeT)
1 OEndocervicitis.
2 O Endometritis
3 O Vulvovaginitis
4 OBartholinitis
5 OAcute salpingo-oophoritis
35 40 41 42 43 50
08:25
D )EO
O C 31-12-2020
kgma.kg/webtest/testing
s KSMA E Sub Centre Session..
Kancap npwrHu
Bonpoc: N940
Patient L, 24 years old, complains of profuse vaginal discharge with an unpleasant smell of "rotten fish". Gynecological examination: the external genital organs and
vaginal mucosa without signs of inflammation. Vaginal discharge copious, watery, with an unpleasant odor. Internal genital organs without pathology. During
bacterioscopy of smears from the cervical canal and urethra, "key cells" were found.What is the most likely diagnosis:
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1 OBartholinitis
2 OBacterial vaginosis
3 OChlamydial cervicitis
OCandidiasis vulvovaginitis
5 O Atrophic colpitis
36
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 50
08:26
) ENG31-12-2020
Bonpoc: N944
The patient after childbirth was diagnosed with endometritis. Describe the possible complications of acute inflammation of the endometrium:
OTBeTbi(oAuH oTBeT)
1 tubal infertility
2OOvarian cyst
3O Becomes chronic
4 O Hyperestrogenemia
5 PCOS
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 50
Bonpoc: N9465
OTBeTb(oquH OTBeT)
1 OPerineal nerve
Genitofemoral nerve
42 43 45 46 47 48 49 50
Bonpoc: N947
Which level doesn't exist in the pelvic cavity division?
OTBETbi(o4MH OTBeT)
1
Peritoneale
2 O Subperitoneal
3 Subcutaneus
4 All correct
5 Superficial
1 43 44 45 46 48 49 50
SAMSUNG
93% 0900am
BeTecsee Bes p Be6 Teerpom
O C Aavn kgma kg/webtest/testing
KyMap faneneu Ru
Bonpoc: N°1
This condition is a common cardiac dysrhythmia characterized by prermature heartbeats
ornginating in the atria. While the sinoatrial node typicaly regulates the heartbeat during normal
ainus thythm, this condition occurs when another region of the atrla depolarizes before the
sinoatral node and thus triggers a premature heartbeat. Select correct answer
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Supraventricular tachycardia
2 Ventricular premature beats
Torsade's de pointes
Ventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular extrasystole
5
6 50
2 34 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
oTBeeHHLah BOnpoc
nponyuewHui Bonpoo
Texyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepueHwa TecTa oCTanocb:
1:14:58
BapenILIA
Scanned wíth Camscanner
SAMSUNG
93% 9.00 am
Be6TecTHpOBO X h BaadapM3 Be6TeCTupoBa X
KyMap Wawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 2
What is the location of the auscultation point of mitral valve?
OTBETbI(ogMH OTBeT)
2nd intercostal space, left border of sternum
4th intercostal space, midclavicular line
3 2nd intercostal space, right border of sternum
2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
5 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
4 5 67 50
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbi BOnpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwA TecCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:55
3aBepwwTb TeCT

Be6TeCTMpOBaHX h Baa papm3 Be6TecTupoBa
Kymap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N93
Single ventricular impulses caused by reentry mechanism within the ventricle or abnormal
automaticity of ventricular cells. They may present in both healthy patients and patients with a
heart disorder, it may be asymptomatic or cause palpitations. Diagnosed by electrocardiography
What is it?
OTBETbI(oaMH OTBeT)
1 Ventriculartachycardia
2 Ventricular extrasystoles
3 Ventricularfibrillation
4 Partial atrioventricular block
5 Full atrioventricular block
1 2 3
4 5 6 7 50
1 23 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbl Bonpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepuweHMA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:52
SaBepuIMTh TecCT
93%l93% 9:00 am
Be6 TecTMpOBa X h Ba3 dapM3 Be6 TeCTpOBa X
KyMap LlWanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N94
Which BP level is considered as arterial hypertension? (ESC classification)
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 2140/90 mm Hg
2130/90mm Hg
3 2130/80 mmHg
4 140/100 mm Hg
5 2120/80mm Hg
2 67 8 50
1 234 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbli Bonpoc
nponyueHHbl BOnpoc
TeKyunn Bonpoc
Ao saBepueHWR TecTa oCTanoCb:
1:14:49
3aBepuiTb TeCT

Be6TecTHpOBaH h baa dapM3 Be6TecTupoBaX
O C avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testingg
KyMap lawnew Kg
Ru
Bonpoc: N°5
Which of the following numbers is optimal blood pressure level? (ESC classification)
OTBeTbli(ogMH OTBET)
1 119/80 mm Hg
180/100 mm Hg
3 160/70 mm Hg
4 140/92 mm Hg
5 135/90 mm Hg
2 34 6 8 9 50
123 4 56 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbI BOnpoc
nponyujeHHbin BOnpoc
TeKyuinn BOripoc
Ao 3aBepweHna TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:46
3aBepuTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
93% 09.00 am
Be6 TecTpOBa X h Baa þapM3 Be6TecTwponaX
KyMap llawneus Kg Ru
Bonpoc: NP6
What is dyspnea?
OTBeTbi(oaMH OTBeT)
fatigue
dizziness
shortness of breath
fainting
sensation of heartbeat
1 2 3 456 8 910 50
2 3 4567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIMBOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbi BOnpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuueHna TecTa oCTanocb
1:14:43
3aBepunTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
93% 0 9.00 am
Be6TecTpoBa X h Baa chapM3 Be6TeCTMpoBa
KyMap lawneus Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°7
Q wave at ECG during syndrome of acute coronary
What reflects appearance of pathological
insufficiency?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
Myocardial Injury
Subepicardial Myocardial Ischemia

2
3 Transient Myocardial Ischemia
4 Subendocardial Myocardial Ischemia
5 Myocardial Necrosis
11 50
3 5
6 8 9 10
3 45 67 10
12 89
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIMBOnpoc
TeKyujni Bonpoc
Jo 3aBepweHnA TeCTa ocTanocb

1:14:37

SAMSUNG
93%l93%9.00 am
Be6TecTHpOBa X h baa papM3 Be6TeCTMpoBa X
KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne8
This arrhythmia is presented as a fast, abnormal heart rate. It starts in hear's ventricles, and is
defined as 3 or more heartbeats in a row, at a rate of more than 100 beats per minute. How is it
called?
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT)
1 Atrialfibrillation
2 Atrial flutter
3 Ventricular tachycardia
4 Sinus bradycardia
5 Supraventricular tachycardia
5 6 7 9 10 1112 50
12 3 4 56 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyunn BOnpoc

SAMSUNG
94% 9.00 am
Be6TecTHpOBa Baa dapM3 Be6TecTwpoBa
KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°9
Which valvular disease is typical for the development of De Musset's sign (rhythmic nodding of
the head)?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Mitralregurgitation
2 Aortic stenosis
3 Aorticregurgitation
4 Mitral stenosis
5 Tricuspid regurgitation
6 7 89 10 11 12 13 50

SAMSUNG
94% 9:00am
Be6TecTpOBa X i Baa dapM3 Be6 TecTMpoBa
CA CA avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMaplawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°10
This arhythmia occurs when a "reentrant" circuit is present, causing a repeated loop of electrical
activity to depolarize the atriums at a rate of about 250 to 350 beats per minute. This produces a
characteristic "sawtooth pattern of the P waves. Which condition do you think about?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 Atrialflutter
2 Ventricular tachycardia
Atrial premature beats
4 Ventricular fibrillation
5 Atrial fibrillation
6 7 8 10 11 1213 14
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyunn Bonpoc

SAMSUNG
94% 9.00 am
Be6 TecTpoBaX h Ba3 dapM3 Be6TecTMpoBa X +
KyMap lanneuw Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°11
This condition can be recognized as a consequence of using of drugs (digoxin, beta blockers,
calcium channel blockers), increased vagal tone, sinoatrial conduction disease, right coronary
infarction, at ECC: progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. Select
answe
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Atrioventricular block, first-degree block
2 Right bundle branch block
3 Atrioventricular block, third-degree block
AVblock, Mobitz type l1/Wenckebach
5 AV block, Mobitz type 1/Wenckebach
7 9
1011 12 13 14 15
50
2 3 4 56 789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
TeKyuwn BOnpoc
Scannedwith CanmScanner
SAMSUNG
94% 09.00 am
Be6 TecTpoBa X h Baa cþapM3 Be6TecTMpoBa +
KyMap Waunew Ru
Bonpoc: Ne12
Which of the listed mechanisms of myocardial hypoxia occur in the chronic coronary
insufficiency syndrome?
OTBETbi(oqMH OTBeT)
1 reduced oxygen utilization
2 insufficient oxygen supply
3 circulatory disorders
4 conduction disturbance
5 valvular dysfunction
9 10 11 12
1314 15 16
50

SAMSUNG
l94% 09:00 am
BeóTecTHpoBa X i 6aa dhapm3 Be6TeCTMpOBa X
KyMap lannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne13
Which of the followings isolated hypertension?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
180/100 mm Hg
160/110 mm Hg
140/90 mm Hg
140/80 mm Hg
150/90 mm Hg
9 1011 12 13 14 15 16 17
50
23 4 567 89 10
11 13 14 15 16
12 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHbi BOnpoOc
TeKyuw Bonpoc
Ho 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:15
3aBepuwwTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 94%99.00 am
Be6TecTHpOBa X h Baa hapM3 Be6TecTpoBa
KyMap Wannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne14
What characterizes syndrome of endocardium inflammation?
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT
Normal body temperature
Dizziness
3 Burning anginal pain
Hemorrhage in the skin and mucous membranes
5 Epigastric pain
10 11 2 13 14 1516 17 18
50
1 23 4 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 1415 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbI Bonpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
o 3aBepueHna TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:14:12
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 0 9:00 am
BeóTeCTHpOBaN X h Ba3 papM3 Be6 TecTMpoBa X
KyMap Llannew K Ru
Bonpoc: N915
Endomyocardial biopsy is gold standard in diagnostics of?
OTBETbI(oqMH OTBeT)
coronary insufficiency syndrome
2
arterial hypertension syndrome
3
heart failure syndrome
syndrome of myocardium inflamation
5 syndrome of pericardium inflamation
11 12 13
1415 16 17 18 19
50
12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyun Bonpoc
1:14:08
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

Be6TectpoBar X
ibaa dapM3 Be6TeCTpoBaX
O C A
KyMap Llawneus Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°16
Patient with complaints like dyspnea at the rest, orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea,
palpitations, chest pain admitted to hospital. The symptoms are worsening over the years. In
anamnesis he had an Coronary heart disease. Echocardiography showed ejection fraction 20%
What is your diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
1 Chronic Heart failure Class l
2 Chronic Heart failure Class ll
3 Chronic Heart failure Class
Chronic Heartfailure Class IV

5 Acute Heart failure
14
12 13 15
16 17 18 19 20
50
12 3 4
567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuieHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:14:05
SAMSUNG
94% 09:00am
Be6TeCTpOBar X o Baa hapM3 Be6TecTpOBal +
KyMap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne18
A 53-year-old man admitted to the hospital with complains on burning pain behind the sternum,
radiating to left hand, accompanied by cold sweat, weakness. Pain has developed at rest and
lasts for 3 hours. The last few days patient has been drinking heavily and smoking a lot. What is
he most reliable laboratory diagnostic method to clarify the diagnosis?
OTBeTbI(oquH OTBeT)
1 Tropinins
2 CRRP
3 Creatinine
4 CBC
5 AST
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbI BOnpoc
TekyuMM BONpoc
1:14:00
Scanned With Camscanner
9:01 am
94%
Be6TeCTHpOBaH X h bas cpapM3 Be6TecTMpOBaX
KyMap llawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°17
According to NYHA classification of heart failure, which of the following is associated with no
limitation of physical activity?
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
1 Heart
failure Class IV
2 Heart failure Class ll with preserved ejection fraction
Heart failure Class l
Heartfailure Class
5 Heart failure Class II with reduced ejection fraction
13 14 1516 17 18 19 20 21
50
1 2 34 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbI BOnpoc
nponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
T TeKyunn Bonpoc
go 3aBepweHnA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:13:56
3aBepuWTb TecT
SAMSUNG
94% 09:01 am
Be6TecTHpOBO X h Ba3 chapM3 Be6TecTpoBa X
KyMap Wawneuu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°19
Patient is describing his complaints as: "my heart flip-flops, skips beats, especially if I carry stuff
up his stairs or when I'm bending down.". ECG showed no visible P waves and an irregular narrow
QRS Complexes. What do you suspect?
OTBETbl(oguH OTBeT)
1 atrialfibrillation
2 atrial flutter
3 ventricular tachycardia
4 supraventricular tachycardia
ventricular fibrillation
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
50
12 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM Bonpoc
TeKyujnn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb
1:13:52
Be6 TecTpoBa X h Baa dapM3 Be6 TecTpoBa
KyMap Llauneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°20
54 year old male admitted to physician with complaints for an chest pain, nocturnal dyspnea,
fatigue. On auscultation: loud S1 and opening snap after s2. Which of the following diagnostic
tools can confim diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 Chest x-ray
2 CT/MRI
3 ECG
Spirometry
5 Echocardiography
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
50
12 3 4 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
Texyuw Bonpoc
1:13:49
SAMSUNG
94% 9:01 am
Be6TeCTHpOBa X h 5a3 (hapM3 Be6TecTMpoBa X
KyMap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne21
A 45 year old male admitted to the hospital with complaints of fever for 2 weeks up to 39
degrees, severe weakness. A history of congenital heart disease since childhood bicuspid
aorticvalve. RR-20 per minute. Auscultation-diastolic murmur in the aorta region. BP
40 mm Hg. CBC: increased ESR. Echocardiography mobile vegetation of large sizes on the
-tic valve. Blood culture results: Staphylococcus aureus. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(OAMH OTBeT)
Syndrome of inflammation pericardium
2 Syndrome of acute coronary insufficiency
3 Syndrome of inflammation endocardium
4 Syndrome of inflammation myocardium
5 Syndrome of mitral valvular diseases
17 18 19 20 21 2223 24 25
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 78 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHblM Bonpoc
Tekyuwi Bonpoc
Ao saBepuweHwa TeCTa oCTanocb.

Be6TecTHpoBa h Eaa dapM3 Be6TecTMpoBa
C
f A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap llanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°22
A 63-year-old woman complains on the chest pain developed at rest and lasted for 1.5 hours
accompanied by cold sweat, weakness. Nitroglycerin didn't help to relief the pain. Patient history
retrostermal chest pain worries her for about a year, which usually happens during moderate
physical exertion and lasts for about 5 minutes. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
OTBeTbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Stable angina FCIV

2 New-onset angina pectoris
3 Unstable angina
4 Vasospastic angina
5 Acute myocardial infarction
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
50
12 3 456 7 89 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbl BOnpoc
TeKyuin Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:40
Be6 TeCTHpOB X h Bas dapm3 Be6TecTpoBa +
Kymap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°23
40 years old female without admitted to physician with complaints for an feeling of irregular
heartbeat, such as: pounding or jumping, missed beats. Doctor performed an auscultation and
revealed rare iregular heartbeats. Which diagnostic test should be recommended in this case?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBET)
1 Selective coronaryangiography
2 RestingECG
3 Transthoracic echocardiography
Transesophageal echocardiography
5 24 ECG (Holter) monitoring
19 20
2122 2324 25 26 27
50
1
2 3 4 5 6789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
rexyuwi Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHwA TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:13:36
Bonpoe 24
m eg
Oreerog oTRer)
1:13:32
Scanned wíth CamScanner
Bonpoc: 25
e gs e
of he dgot te
OTBeT(og OTBeT)

Bonpoc: N°25
52years old female admitted to the family doctor with the complaints on intense headaches,
dizziness, noise in ears and weakness at night. Heavy smoker. Examination: no signs of heart
failure. Heart rate 68 per minute, blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. Heart sounds are clear. ECG:
sinus rhythm, regular, 68 in 1 min. Echocardiography: normal. Which of the diagnostic test you
are going to administer to this patient?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
1 24-hourblood pressure monitor
2 Stresstest
3 Chest Xray
4 Coronary angiography
5 Echocardiography
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuni Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHwA TeCTa oCTanocb:

SAMSUNG
94% 9.01 am
Be6TecrpoBa X hBa3 chapM3 Be6TecTMpOBa
Kymap lanneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 26
A 40 years old male applied to physician with complaints for an pain in chest, orthopnea, fatigue.
Doctor did auscultation and the first heart sound is loud and palpable at the apex. After $2 the
doctor auscultated an opening snap sound. Which of the following results of Echo will be seen in
this disease
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 Concentric hypertrophy
2 Narrowing of aortic valve
3 Narrowing of mitral valve
Calcification of aortic valvea
5 Dilated aorta
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
50
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHblM BOnpocC
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao sabepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb.
1:13:18
Be6 TectwpOBa X h Ba3 hapM3 Be6TeCTpOBal X +
CA avn.kgma.kg/welbtest/testing
KyMap anneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 27
62years old male complains of retrosternal chest pain, radiating to the left arm, jaw. Pain
develops after 200-300 meters of walking or at rest and lasts 3-5 minutes. BP -130/70 mm Hg.
HR-82 beats per min. Which diagnostic method is necessary to confirm diagnosis?
OTBeTbi(oAWH OTBeT)
1 24-hourblood pressure monitor
2 24-hour ECG monitor
3 Stress ECGtest
4 Chest X-ray
5 Coronary angiography
23 24 25
2627 28 29 30 31
50
1
2 3 4 567 8 109
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
TekyuMn Bonpoc
1:13:14
SAMSUNG
94% 0 9.01 am
Be6TecTIHpoBa X i Bas papM3 Be6TeCTMpOBaX
f C A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing
KyMap Wawneu K Ru
Bonpoc: N 28
Select, whereby enhanced apical impulse in children:
OTBETbi(ogMH OTBeT)
hypertrophy ofright ventricle
leftatrial hypertrophy
3 hypertrophy of the right atrium
4 heartfailure
5 hypertrophy of the left ventricle
24 2526 27 28 29 30 31 32 **
50
1 23 4 5 67 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbIM BOnpoc
ponyuyeHHbI BOnpoc
Tekyuw BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHwa TecTa oCTanocb
1:13:06
3aBepwwTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 94% 9:01 am
Be6TecTHpOBa X h Ba3 dapM3 Be6TecTMpOBaX
KyMap Llawneus Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°29
Expansion of the left border of the heart is observed in:
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
right ventricular hypertrophy
2 right atrial hypertrophy
3 left atrial hypertrophy

stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
5 left ventricular hypertrophy
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 ***
50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbl Bonpoc
Tekyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepueHWA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:13:01
3aBepwwTb TeCT

Be6TecrpoBa X baa dapM3 Be6TeCTMpoBa X
C A
KyMap lWawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 30
The Shalkov Test is considered positive (adequate) when:
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
all indicators are restored in 5 minutes
all indicators are restored in 10 minutes
3 all indicators are restored in 20 minutes
26 2728 29 30 3132 33 34
50
1
23 456 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbiMBOnpoc
Tekyuwn BOnpoc
o 3aBepweHnA TeCTa oCTanocb

1:12:57
3aBepuWTb TeCT

Bonpoc: Ne31
What is the difference between "pericardial friction noise" and endocardial noise in children:
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT
1 coincides with heart tones
radiation in the back and side is not characteristic
increases when the stethoscope is pressed
4 does not change when the patient changes position
5 disappears whenthe stethoscope is pressed
27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
50
1
2 3 45678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoc
Texyuni Bonpoc
Ao saBepweHnA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:53
3aBepuuWTb TeCT

Be6 TeCTHpOBa X h baa dapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBa
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testing9
A
f C
KyMap Wannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N932
What is the formation of the apical shock in a newborn
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
1 right ventricle
2 left atrium
3 left and right ventricles
4 left ventricle
5 rightatrium
28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
50
1
2 3 A
567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbl BOnpOC
nponyueHHbl Bonpoc
TeKyun Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHnA TecTa oCTanoCb
1:12:46
3aBepuwTb TeCT

Bes TecTpoBa X bas dapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBa
Kymap Wawnew Ru
Bonpoc: N33
Describe the pulse tension in congenital aortic stenosis noted
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
1 thread-like pulse
hard pulse
large pulse
4 paradoxical pulse
5 alternating pulse
29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
50
1 23 4 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbI BOnpOc
niponyueHHbIM BOnpoc
Tekyuwn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:41
3aBepuiTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 09:02 am
Be6TectTpoBa X h Bas tpapM3 Be6TecTMpOBa X
KyMap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N934
Edema of cardiac origin in children initially appears on:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBET)
1
feet
abdomen
face
anterior surface of the shins
chest
30 31
32 3334 35 36 3738
50
12
11
3 4 5 67 89 10
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
TekyuMM BOnpoc
Ao saBepweHwA TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:37
3aBepuuWTb TeCT

Be6 TecTpoBa X iBaadhapM3 Be6TeCTMpoBa
KyMap Wawnew Ru
Bonpoc: N°35
Evaluate the pulse in aortic stenosis:
OTBeTbi(oguH OTBeT)
1 high fast pulse
small, weak filling and tension
3 positive venous pulse

4 it is not palpable on the back of the foot
5 the radial artery is tense
31 3233 34 35 36 37 38 39
50
1
2 3 456789 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 3435 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbiM BOnpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
1:12:32
3aBepunTb TeCT
Scanned wíth CamScanner

SAMSUNG
94% 09.02 am
Be6TecvpoBar X baa dapM3 Be6TecTmpona
KyMap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N936
The Child is 11 months behind in physical development, there is cyanosis of the nasolabial
triangle and shortness of breath. A heart hump formed. With percussion, the borders of the heart
areexpanded across. Auscultative listening to systolic-diastolic noise 'machine type". According
to the patient's description, what kind of congenital heart disease do you assume?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT)
atrial septal defect
2 pulmonary artery stenosis
3 open ductus arteriosus
4 aorticstenosis
5 Vventricular septal defect
32 33 34 35 36 37 38
38 39
39 40
A0
50
1
2 3 45 67 8 9.10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3132 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHWA TecTa oCTanocCb.
1:12:27
Scannead with CamScanner
Be6 TeCTHpOBa h Bas papM3
X Be6TeCTMpoBar +
KyMap Wawneu Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 37
The Child is 1 year old. Complaints from the mother: weakness, fatigue. Objectively:
Physical
development lag. The skin is pale, cyanosis of the nasolabial triangle. During auscultation,
abnormal heart murmurs are heard on the right side of the sternum. What additional
instrumental
method should be prescribed to clarify the diagnosis?
OTBeTbl(OAMH OTBeT
MRI
2 EC
3 ECH0-CG
4 ECHO-EG
5 CT
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
50
12 3 4 5 6 7 8
9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbi BOnpoc
Tekyuw Bonpoc
1:12:24
SAMSUNG
l 94%09:02 am
Be6TecTpOBar X Saa dapM3 Be6Tecrmposa +
KyMap lllannew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N938
What is the main source of energy in the heart
OTBETbi(oAMH OTBeT)
Sucrose
Fatty acid
Ketone
bodies
Aminoacids
5 Glucose
34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
50
12 3 4 56 7
89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpOC
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyynn Bonpoc
1:12:19
3aBepuTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94%0902 am
Be6TecTpOBO X hBaa dapM3 Be6TecTpoBa X
KyMap llawneus Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N°39
The etiological factors of primary arterial hypertension can be:
OTBETbl(oAMH OTBeT)
Renal artery atherosclerosis
Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
Frequent psycho-emotional overstrain
Insufficient production of glucocorticoids
5 Decreased blood flow to the kidneys
35 36 37 38
39 40 41 42 43
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeeHHbIM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TeKyuni Bonpoc
1:12:16
3aBepunTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 09.02 am
Be6TecTvpoeaX Baa dapm3 Be6TecTmpoRa
KyMap Wawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: Ne40
What blood pressure values indicate the presence of hypertension
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT
1 170/110
100/60
120/80
105/60
110/70
1 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
50
12 3 4 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BONnpoc
nponyujewHbI BOnpoc
TeKyuw BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepweHMA TecTa ocTanocb
1:12:11
3aBepuiwTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 09.02 am
Be6 TecrpoBar X h Baa dapM3 Be6TecTpoBa X +
C
KyMap lawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N941
with left ventricular heart failure, there is
OTBETbI(oAH OTBeT)
Neckvein pulsation
Swelling in the lower extremities
3 Pulmonary edema
Ascites
5 Cirhosis of the liver
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
50
12 3 4 5 678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
-OTBeYeHHbin Bonpoc
nponyueHHblM BOnpoc
TekyunM BOnpoc
1:12:08
3aBepuiWTb TeCT

SAMSUNG
94% 9:02 am
Be6TecTvpoBar: X i Baa hapM3 Be6TecTpoBa
KyMap LWawnew Kg Ru
Bonpoc: N 42
The re-entry mechanism is
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
Re-entry of the impulse to the place of its origin
An increase in the number of mitochondria in cardiomyocytes
Overload of cardiomyocytes with calcium
Excess energy and substrates in cardiomyocytes
5 Ativation of antioxidant systems in cardiomyocytes
38 3940 41 42 43 44 45 46
50
1 2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbI BOnpoc
nponyueHHb1 BOnpoc
Tekyun BOnpoc
Ao 3asepweHua TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:04
3aBepwWTb TeCT

Be6TeCTHpoBa X Baa dapM3 Be6TecTMpoBa
KyMap llWawneu Ko Ru
Bonpoc: N°43
Definition of Kerley lines on chest radiography?
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
dilated pulmonary arteries
interiobar pleural thickening
pleuro-phrenic fibrosis
4 intralobular septal thicken ing
5 calcification of valves
39 40 41
4243 4 45 46 47
50
12 3 456 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM
BOnpoc
TeKyun Bonpoc
Lo 3aBepuweHna TeCTa oCTanocb
1:12:00
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Scanned with CamScannher

SAMSUNG
94%d94%09.03 am
Be6TectpoBa X Baa hapM3 Be6TectvpoBa +
A avn.kgma.kg/webtest/testingg
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Bonpoc: N°44
What may be relative contraindication in performing transthoracic echocardiography?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
pregnancy
enlarged fat pad
intercostal space narrowing
calcification of valves
pericardial effusion
40 4142 43 44 45 46 47 48
50
1 2 3 4 567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4142 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyueHHblM BOmpoc
Tekyulwn BOnpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHWA TecTa oCTanocb
1:11:57
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Bonpoe: 4S
OrseTog oTBer)
1:11:54

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94% 09.03 am
Be6TecTHpoBa i Ba3 dhapM3 Be6TecTpoBa X
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Bonpoc: Ne45
a contrast
tf both the left atrium and aorta are contrasted itin systole of left ventricle, when
medium is administered into the left ventricle, is?
OTBeTbI(ogMH OTBeT
ventricular septum defect
mitral regurgitation
3 leftventricle diverticulum
tricuspid regurgitation
5 aorticaneurism
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 4849 50
1
23 4 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeEHHbiM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbl BOnpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHMA TecTa oCTanocb
1:11:51
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Be6 Tectpoea X i Baa dapM3 Be6TecCTWpoBa
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Bonpoc: NP46
What vessel is projected onto the anterior chest wall in the area of the right sternum edge and
right costal cartilage from the 1st to the 3rd?
OTBETbI(oAMH OTBeT)
superiorvena cava
brachiocephalic trunk
3 aortic arch
4 pulmonarytrunk
5 ascending aorta
42 4344 45 46 47 48
49 50
12 3 4 5678 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeyeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyueHHbiM BOnpoc
TeKyuiwn Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepweHMa TeCTa oCTanoCb
1:11:47
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Bonpoc: Ne47
Which vessel is projected at the level of attachment of the 3rd costal
cartilage to the sternum on
the left?
OTBeTbI(oAMH OTBeT)
pulmonary trunk
ascending aorta
3 descending aorta
brachiocephalic trunk
aortic arch
43 44 45 46 4748 49 50
12 3 45678910
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHbiM BOnpoc
Texyuwn Bonpoc
o 3aBepweHMA TeCTa oCTanoCb:
1:11:43
3aBepwWTb TeCT

Be6TecTpoBa X hBaa dapM3 Be6TeCTMpOBa X
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Bonpoc: N°48
Thefemoral artery and vein are projected along a line connecting a point on the border between:
OTBeTbi(oAMH OTBeT)
middle and medial third inguinal folds with the posterior edge of the lateral condyle of
the femur
middle and medial third inguinal folds with the posterior edge of the medial condyleof
the tibia
3 middle and medial third inguinal folds with the posterior edge of the medial condyle of
the femur
middle and medial third inguinal folds with the posterior edge of the medial condyle of
the fibula
5 middle and medial third inguinal folds with the posterior edge of the lateral condyle of
the tibia
43 4445 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 567 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeYeHHblM BOnpoc
nponyuyeHHbI BOnpoc
TeKyuwi Bonpoc
Ao 3aBepuweHnA TeCTa ocTanocb
1:11:39
SAMSUNG
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Bonpoc: N949
A patient was admitted to the emergency department at the age of 60, an electrocardiogram
diagnosed an infarction of the anterior wall of the left ventricle of the heart. Justify the possible
level of impaired blood flow through the coronary vessels?
OTBeTbi(ogMH OTBeT)
flexor artery
2 posterior intergastric artery
right coronary artery
left coronary artery
5 coronal sinuS
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 89 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeveHHbIM BOnpoc
Texyuni BOnpoc
o 3aBepweHwa TecCTa oCTanoCb
1:11:34
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Bonpoc: N50
A 70-year-old patient with esophageal bleeding was admitted to the admission unit, the abdomen
is enlarged, in the abdomen there is a jellyfish head" (dilated superficial veins of the chest and
abdomen). Explain, if the blood flow of which vessel is disturbed, the above clinical
manifestations are observed?
OTBETbI(oguH OTBeT)
aortas
2 portal vein
3 intrathoracicartery
subclavian artery
5 brachiocephalic veins
43 44 45 46 47 48 49
50
2 3 4567 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
OTBeHeHHbl Bonpoc
T TeKyuwn Bonpoc
1:11:29
3asepuiWTb TeCT

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Hyperglycaemia:-

Pulse rapid or slow both ,

Graefe , kocher , mobius , pretibial myxedema

T3 T4 increased, sinus tachycardia , atrial fibrillation

If "leukocytes" then acute inflammation of thyroid gland...

If "lymphocytes" answer will be sub-acute inflammation

Acute inflammation's pathogens - microbial

Sub-acute inflammation's pathogens – viral

cushingoid or Cushing syndrome in question....then answer will be hypercorticism

1. Factors predisposing to the development of hyperglycemia syndrome:

3. A 16-year-old patient complains of intense thirst (the volume of liquid drunk up

5. An 18-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital unconscious. It is known

6 Rare blinking in hyperthyroidism syndrome, this is a symptom:

8. Patient K., 30 years old, complains of severe weakness, headache, chilliness,

10. Patient K.A., 50 years old, complained of weight gain, constipation,

A. syndrome of acute inflammation of the thyroid gland

B. syndrome of chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland

D. thyroid nodule syndrome

E. syndrome of hypofunction of the parathyroid glands

12. Patient A. 40-year-old applied to a polyclinic with complaints of an increase in

A. determination of T3, T4 in blood

B. thyroid scan with 131 I

C. ultrasound with biopsy

D. lateral radiography of the neck.

E. auscultation of the thyroid gland

A. increased body temperature

18. Causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism:

21.Patient E., 42 years old, at a doctor's appointment complains of muscle

Module "Endocrine system" Option 2

1. With an increase in ACTH production, synthesis is primarily increased:

12. hypothyroidism (myxedema) is characterized by the following changes:

14. Select characteristic changes in the cardiovascular system with hyperthyroidism

15. Diabetes insipidus develops in defeat:

1. The development of panhypopituitarism in adults Does not include:

The Training Tests Module “Endocrine System”

1. Select, from the listed which is the main thyroid hormone?

3. Indicate the blood glucose level in healthy children (mmol/l

4. Describe the stool for hypothyroidism in early childhood:

5. Explain the cause of overweight in hypothyroidism:

6. What disorders lead to the development of hyperglycemia syndrome?

9. At what level of glucose hypoglycemia syndrome develops (below…mmol/l)?

1.When conducting a test with triiodothyronine, toxic goiter is characterized by:

B) increasing the absorption of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland by 30%

B) impact on the autoimmune process in the thyroid gland

C) blocking the flow of iodine into the thyroid gland

D) inhibition of the conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine

3.Preparation of patients with thyrotoxicosis for radioiodine therapy includes:

A) reaching the euthyroid state before the appointment of radioactive iodine

B) treatment against the background of thyrotoxicosis

C) treatment against the background of reaching hypothyroidism

D) treatment against the background of beta-blockers

B. lower laryngeal nerve

E. inferior laryngeal artery

A. Magnetic resonance imaging

B. Positron Emission Tomography

E. cystadenoma in the stage of resorption

the mammary gland is a nodular formation up to 2 cm in diameter. She turned to a

A. multispiral computed tomography

C. magnetic resonance imaging

8.Scintigraphy for autoimmune thyroiditis is characterized by: