5.

Learning

Definition of Learning

It Makes Your Mouth Water: Classical Conditioning

1. Michael noticed that whenever he moved his dog’s food dish, his dog would come into the kitchen and act hungry
and excited. He reasoned that because he feeds the dog using that dish, the sound of the dish had become a(n)

a. unconditioned stimulus. b. conditioned stimulus. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned response.

2. Ever since she was scared by a dog as a young child, Angelica has been afraid of all dogs. The fact that she is afraid
of not only the original dog but all types of dogs is an example of

a. extinction. b. spontaneous recovery. c. stimulus discrimination. d. stimulus generalization.

3. In Watson’s experiment with “Little Albert,” the conditioned stimulus was

a. the white rat. b. the loud noise. c. the fear of the rat. d. the fear of the noise.

4. Which of the following would be an example of vicarious classical conditioning?

a. As a young child, Tony frequently observed his older sisters jump around and scream whenever any of them saw a
spider, as they were very afraid of them. Subsequently, Tony experiences feelings of fear when he sees a spider.

b. Tommy is told about a new product by a close friend and decides to buy it for himself.

c. A cat responds to the sound of a bell because it sounds similar to a bell it hears on the television.

d. Tonja watches her grandfather check the air pressure in her bike tire and then use a hand pump to add air to the
tire. She is later able to check the air pressure and pump up the tire herself.

5. Cindy had cheesy tacos at a local Mexican restaurant. Later she became terribly ill and suffered bouts of nausea
and vomiting. What might we predict based on conditioned taste aversion research?

a. Cindy will probably develop a strong liking for cheesy tacos.

b. Cindy will probably be able to eat cheesy tacos with no nausea at all.

c. Cindy will probably get nauseated the next time she tries to eat cheesy tacos.

d. Cindy will probably continue to eat cheesy tacos except when she feels nauseous.

6. Rescorla found that the CS must _________ the UCS for conditioning to take place.

a. replace b. come after c. come at the same time as d. predict

What’s In It for Me? Operant Conditioning

1. To a dog, _______ is an example of a primary reinforcer, whereas _______ is an example of a secondary

a. a paycheck; money b. dog food; a Frisbee c. dog food; dog treats d. a gold star; candy

2. Edgar cannot sleep because he is terribly worried about his research paper. So Edgar decides to get out of bed and
continue working on the paper. Although he stays up to nearly 3 a.m., he is relieved that it is done and easily falls off
to sleep. In the future, Edgar will be more likely to finish his work before going to bed so that he can avoid the worry
and sleeplessness. Such behavior is an example of

a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. classical conditioning.

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 3. Joe owned a small repair shop. Each day, he would check the mail to see if any of his customers mailed in a
payment for the work he had done for them. Some days, he would receive a check or two. At other times, he would
have to wait days before getting another payment. What schedule of reinforcement is evident here?

a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio

4. Little Jimmie’s mother was upset to find that Jimmie had not picked up his building blocks after repeated requests
to do so. The next morning, Jimmie found all his blocks had been picked up and put into a bag on top of the
refrigerator. Jimmie’s mother told him that he couldn’t play with his blocks for the next 2 days. Which type of
discipline did she use?

a. negative reinforcement b. punishment by application c. punishment by removal d. positive reinforcement

5. Tabitha signed up for a new credit card that offers reward miles for every purchase. Tabitha plans to make as
many purchases as she can so that she can accumulate enough miles to go on a trip over spring break. Such an
approach is an example of

a. a token economy. b. shaping. c. a schedule of reinforcement. d. a form of negative reinforcement.

6. Which of the following is the best example of applied behavior analysis?

a. Tiffany works with children by asking them what they want to accomplish and then helping them attain that goal
through different forms of classical conditioning.

b. Bethany has children watch her repeatedly so as to understand how a task is to be done. Once they have finished
the observation, then they are asked to imitate the behavior.

c. Agatha observes a child to see what purpose a disruptive classroom behavior serves and identifies a new
replacement behavior. She then implements a training program for the new behavior, reinforcing often at the
simplest levels and gradually removing reinforcers as the child demonstrates the behavior independently.

d. Camille wants children to learn a new behavior and uses punishment as the basis for the behavior change.

Cognitive Learning Theory

1. In Tolman’s maze study, the fact that the group of rats receiving reinforcement only after day 10 of the study
solved the maze far more quickly than did the rats who had been reinforced from the first day can be interpreted to
mean that these particular rats

a. were much smarter than the other rats.

b. had already learned the maze in the first 9 days.

c. had the opportunity to cheat by watching the other rats.

d. were very hungry and, therefore, learned much more quickly.

2. Lisa’s parents have decided to take a 3-week trip to Europe. Consequently, Lisa’s mother will not be able to make
her famous pies for the upcoming bake sale. When her mother encourages Lisa to bake the pies herself, Lisa panics
at first, but then she finds that she knows how to put the recipe together. Her ability to prepare the recipe is an
example of

a. latent learning. b. learned helplessness c. insight learning. d. discovery learning.

3. Which theory is commonly referred to as the “aha!” phenomenon?

a. Tolman’s latent learning theory b. Köhler’s insight theory

c. Seligman’s learned helplessness theory d. Bandura’s observational learning

4. Research by Steven Maier suggests that learned helplessness may be due to a higher-level region of the brain
known as the _______, which helps subjects determine what is controllable.

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 a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. dorsal raphe nucleus d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC)

Observational Learning

1. Bandura’s studies found that learning can take place without actual performance. What is this referred to as?

a. learning/performance distinction b. insight-based learning c. ARID d. cognitive learning

2. Which of the following statements is false?

a. There is a strong link between viewing violent media and an increase in aggressive behavior among young people.

b. Prosocial behavior can be positively influenced by the viewing/playing of prosocial media.

c. Young people spend more than 7 hours a day viewing various forms of media.

d. Adults are not negatively affected by viewing or playing violent media.

3. What is the correct sequence of the four elements of observational learning?

a. Attention, Imitation, Desire, Memory b. Attention, Memory, Imitation, Desire

c. Desire, Attention, Memory, Imitation d. Memory, Attention, Desire, Imitation

4. Leticia wanted to help her father prepare breakfast. She had watched him crack eggs into a bowl many times,
paying careful attention to how he did it. But when she went to crack her own eggs, they smashed into many pieces.
Which of the following elements of observational learning was Leticia’s problem?

a. attention b. memory c. imitation d. desire

Test Yourself

1. Sheila almost got hit by a car at a street corner because she was too busy texting on her phone. From that day on,
Sheila looks before she reaches the street corner. Her change in behavior is a result of

a. learning. b. memory. c. motivation. d. both sensation and perception.

2. At home, you rattle the chain on your dog’s leash every time you prepare to take him for a walk. After several
episodes like this, you find that your dog comes running to the front door even when you pick up the leash to put it
back in the closet. In this example, what is the conditioned stimulus?

a. going for a walk b. the sound of the leash c. the front door d. the dog runs to the door

3. A child has been classically conditioned to fear a white rat. If the child does not show fear when shown a black rat,
this is called

a. stimulus generalization. b. stimulus discrimination. c. spontaneous recovery. d. extinction.

4. During the cold winter, you have stopped taking your dog for walks. What’s more, your dog has gotten used to the
fact that when you accidentally rattle his leash, he isn’t going for a walk, and subsequently he doesn’t come running
to the front door. What has occurred?

a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. spontaneous recovery d. extinction

5. Rhonda had tartar sauce with her fish one night. The next morning she was nauseated and sick for much of the
day. The next time she was offered the chance to go out for fish, she felt queasy and declined. Her queasiness at the
thought of fish with tartar sauce was probably due to

a. higher-order conditioning. b. a conditioned taste aversion.

c. stimulus substitution. d. stimulus generalization.

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 6. Caitlin works in the psychology department’s rat lab. In her studies, she found that many of her lab rats would
develop a conditioned taste aversion to certain foods after as little as one trial. Caitlin’s psychology professor refers
to this as a classic example of

a. biological preparedness. b. psychological preparedness. c. instinctive drift. d. stimulus substitution.

7. Blake finds that if he washes his car prior to going out on the town, more of his friends want to ride along with
him. What theory would best explain his willingness to always wash and clean his car before going out?

a. Thorndike’s law of effect b. Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning c. Pavlov’s theory of classical conditioning

8. In classical conditioning, behavior typically is _______, whereas with operant conditioning, behavior is _______.

a. rewarded; punished b. biological; internal c. voluntary; involuntary d. involuntary; voluntary

9. Where do secondary reinforcers get their power from?

a. Classical conditioning b. Law of effect c. Observational theory d. Insight theory

10. Positive reinforcement results in _______ in the target behavior and negative reinforcement results in _______
in the target behavior.

a. an increase; a decrease b. an increase; an increase c. a decrease; a decrease d. a decrease; an increase

11. Belinda has a terrible headache. If she takes some aspirin so as to make her headache go away, this would be an
example of

a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. generalization.

12. Ben gets paid every 2 weeks. In one 2-week period, he works a total of 20 hours. During another 2-week period,
he worked a total of 50 hours. Regardless of the total number of hours he works each week, he is paid every 2
weeks. What schedule of reinforcement is being used?

a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval

13. Denise is grounded for coming home after curfew. Additionally, her parents have taken away her cell phone for a
month. Losing her cell phone privileges is an example of

a. negative reinforcement. b. punishment by application. c. punishment by removal. d. learned helplessness.

14. What is the relationship between negative reinforcement and punishment?

a. Both tend to strengthen a response.

b. Both tend to weaken a response.

c. Negative reinforcement strengthens a response, while punishment weakens a response.

d. Negative reinforcement weakens a response, while punishment strengthens a response.

15 Which of the following is an example of the use of extinction with operant conditioning?

a. A mother ignores her child’s temper tantrum so that the behavior ultimately goes away.

b. A mother gives in to her child’s demands for candy by buying the child some chocolate so as to quiet him or her.

c. A mother spanks a child when he or she starts throwing a tantrum.

d. A mother gives a child chocolate prior to him or her asking for it so as to keep a tantrum from occurring in the first
place.

16. Studies by Keller and Marian Breland found that many animals exhibit instinctive drift. What does this mean?

a. The animals studied could not learn any skills even with the use of reinforcement.

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 b. The animals studied would learn skills through reinforcement but eventually revert to their genetically controlled
patterns of behavior.

c. The animals studied would learn skills through reinforcement, and they remained that way no matter how much
reinforcement they were given.

d. The animals studied could only learn skills similar to those found in the wild.

17. Jose was lying in bed when he suddenly realized how he might deal with a fast-approaching deadline at work.
When his coworkers asked how he came up with his idea, he said, “It just came to me out of nowhere.” Psychologists
would refer to this as

a. latent learning. b. learned helplessness. c. insight learning. d. observational learning.

18. Jody failed repeatedly in college algebra. Finally, she gave up and was seriously considering dropping out of
college. One day, her best friend offered to personally help her if she signed up for college algebra again, but she
refused. What concept might explain her reluctance?

a. latent learning b. learned helplessness c. insight learning d. observational learning

19. What does AMID stand for?

a. Attention, Memory, Intention, Detention b. Attention, Memory, Imitation, Desire

c. Ask, Memory, Imitate, Develop d. Association, Memory, Imitation, Desires

20. Darla has noticed how some of her friends have lost weight and gotten trim by exercising 1 to 2 hours each day.
However, she has no plans to imitate their behavior. What component of Bandura’s model of observational learning
will explain why Darla has not started a similar weight-loss program?

a. Darla’s unconscious does not believe she can achieve the goal.

b. Darla is not motivated, nor does she have the desire to begin the program.

c. Darla’s self-esteem must first be addressed.

d. Darla’s unwillingness may be a sign of mental disorder.

6. Memory

What Is Memory?

1. Human memory consists of multiple systems that have the ability to store information for periods of time that
range from ________ to ___________.

a. seconds; hours b. seconds; our lifetime c. minutes; decades d. hours; our lifetime

2. Ruth has just finished her research paper and handed it in. As she walks out of the classroom, she realizes that
there were a few more things she should have included in the paper. Ruth’s problem is in the memory process of

a. encoding. b. storage. c. retrieval. d. retention.

3. Which model of memory suggests that memory processes occur throughout a neural network simultaneously?

a. levels-of-processing model b. parallel distributed processing model

c. information-processing model d. three-stage model

4. Research has demonstrated you can enhance your memory for a specific word if you think about its meaning, how
it can be used, and by giving a personal example of its use. This is best accounted for by which model of memory?

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 a. levels-of-processing model b. parallel distributed processing model

c. information-processing model d. three-stage model

The Information-Processing Model: Three Memory

1. _________ memories are said to linger in the mind for a few seconds, allowing people the chance to keep up with
the flow of conversations and remember what was just said.

a. Iconic b. Echoic c. Short-term d. Long-term

2. Information enters into short-term memory through a process known as ______________.

a. recency effect b. primacy effect c. selective attention d. repetition

3. Of the following, which is the most similar to the concept of longterm memory?

a. a computer hard drive b. a computer monitor c. a computer mouse d. a computer keyboard

4. Amber meets a cute guy named Carson at a party. She wants to make sure she remembers his name, so she
reminds herself that he has the same name as the capital of Nevada (Carson City). This transferring of information
from short-term memory to long-term memory is an example of what type of rehearsal?

a. repetitive b. imagery c. elaborative d. maintenance

5. Brenda has been able to tie her shoes since she was 4 but now finds it difficult to explain to her baby brother how
to tie his shoes, but she can easily demonstrate it for him. Brenda’s memory for shoe tying is best characterized as a
__________ memory.

a. declarative (explicit) b. semantic c. episodic d. nondeclarative (implicit)

6. When you take your final exam in your psychology class, what type of memory will you most certainly need to
access to answer each question?

a. nondeclarative b. semantic c. episodic d. working

Getting It Out: Retrieval of Long-Term Memories

1. What concept suggests that the best place to study for your psychology final to ensure good retrieval of concepts
is your psychology classroom?

a. serial position effect b. encoding specificity c. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon d. automatic encoding

2. Jaclynn had written a grocery list but accidentally left it at home. Trying to remember the list, Jaclynn remembers
what was at the beginning of the list and what was at the end but not those things in the middle. This is an example
of

a. encoding specificity. b. the serial position effect. c. the tip-of-the-tongue effect. d. flashbulb memory.

3. Multiple-choice test questions typically rely on ____________, while essay questions rely on ____________.

a. rehearsal; recall b. relearning; rehearsing c. recall; recognition d. recognition; recall

4. Felisha can recall with great detail the day of her wedding and all that occurred. What might psychologists say
about these particular flashbulb memories?

a. The memories were likely enhanced in part by the hormones released during emotional moments.

b. The memories should last up to 15 to 20 years.

c. The memories are unusually accurate.

d. The memories are stored as nondeclarative memories.

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 5. In Loftus’s 1978 study, subjects viewed a slide presentation of an accident. Later, some of the subjects were asked
a question about a yield sign when the actual slides contained pictures of a stop sign. When presented with this
inaccurate information, how did these subjects typically respond?

a. Most corrected Loftus and recalled seeing a stop sign.

b. Many began seeing both a stop sign and a yield sign.

c. Many subjects’ overall accuracy dropped when confronted with conflicting information.

d. Subjects were confused, but only briefly, at which point their accuracy of recalling the event returned.

6. A key component for any person to believe that a false event is in fact true is to make sure that the false
information is

a. as plausible as possible.

b. introduced as soon after the event as possible.

c. introduced by a source perceived as trustworthy.

d. introduced no sooner than 24 hours after the event but no later than 15 days.

What Were We Talking About? Forgetting

1. Raven has just finished learning a list of nonsense words given to her by her psychology instructor as part of a
class activity. She had 100 percent recall at the end of class. According to Ebbinghaus’s curve of forgetting, how
quickly will Raven likely forget about 40 percent of the information she has just learned?

a. within the first 20 minutes after leaving the class b. within the first day after leaving the class

c. nearly a week after the class d. nearly a month after the class

2. Collin is asked to repeat what his mother just told him. He says he “forgot,” but in reality, Collin wasn’t paying
attention to his mother at all. This is an example of the __________ explanation of forgetting.

a. interference b. memory trace c. encoding failure d. repression

3. Shantel spent a year living abroad in Spain. During that time, her ability to read and speak Spanish grew
tremendously. However, now, 2 years later, Shantel feels she can no longer travel there because she can barely
remember a thing. Her problem is most likely due to

a. encoding failure. b. retroactive interference. c. proactive interference. d. decay theory.

4. Noland bought a fancy new smart phone. It was a different brand of phone than his old phone, so he spent quite a
few frustrating hours learning to use the new one. The problem was that he kept trying to tap icons on the new
phone in the places they had been on his old phone. Noland’s problem was most likely due to

a. encoding failure. b. retroactive interference. c. proactive interference. d. decay theory.

Neuroscience of Memory

1. Chantal is very afraid of clowns, no doubt because she was frightened by one when she was very young. Chantal’s
memories of that fearful encounter are likely to be associated with the

a. cerebellum. b. prefrontal cortex c. posterior cingulate cortex. d. amygdala.

2. Henry Gustav Molaison (H.M.) suffered from profound anterograde amnesia after his ________________ were
surgically removed in an attempt to control his seizures.

a. hippocampi b. amygdalae c. frontal lobes d. thalami

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 3. What type of amnesia do you have when you cannot remember things that happened before a traumatic
accident?

a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. psychogenic amnesia d. infantile amnesia

4. Which neurotransmitter is no longer readily produced in Alzheimer’s patients?

a. dopamine b. endorphins c. GABA d. acetylcholine

Test Yourself

1. The steps to memory can best be described as follows:

a. finding it, using it, storing it, using it again b. putting it in, keeping it in, getting it out

c. sensing it, perceiving it, remembering it, forgetting it d. a series of passive data files

2. According to Sperling, what is the capacity of iconic memory?

a. Everything that can be seen at one time. b. Everything that can be heard in 1 minute.

c. Everything that can be sensed in 1 second. d. Everything that can be perceived in a lifetime.

3. Which type of memory system best explains the “What?” phenomenon?

a. iconic sensory system b. echoic sensory system c. short-term memory system d. tactile sensory system

4. For information to travel from either the iconic or echoic sensory system to short-term memory, it must first be
______________ and then encoded primarily into _______________ form.

a. unconsciously chosen; auditory b. selectively attended to; visual

c. biologically chosen; visual d. selectively attended to; auditory

5. You are introduced to someone at a party. While talking with the person, you realize that you have already
forgotten the person’s name. What amount of time does it typically take before such information is lost from short-
term memory?

a. approximately ¼ of a second b. usually no more than 4 seconds

c. typically between 12 and 30 seconds d. Short-term memories typically last a lifetime.

6. Early studies of the capacity of short-term memory suggested that most people could remember approximately
______________ bits of information.

a. two b. three c. seven d. ten

7. Mary has just met an attractive man named Austin at a party. She wants to make sure she remembers his name.
What should she do?

a. Mary should repeat the name continuously so as to commit it to long-term memory.

b. Mary should chunk it by remembering the first three letters as a set and then remembering the remaining letters
as a set.

c. Mary should make it more meaningful. For example, she might remind herself that Austin has the same name as
the capital of Texas.

d. Mary should create a song to help her remember his name.

8. __________ memory includes what people can do or demonstrate, whereas ______________ memory is about
what people know and can report.

a. Nondeclarative; declarative b. Declarative; nondeclarative c. Semantic; nondeclarative d. Episodic; semantic

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 9. The semantic network model of memory suggests that the ______ nodes you must pass through to access
information, the longer it will take for you to recall information.

a. fewer b. more c. bigger the d. more complex the

10. Phineas walks out of his office and into the conference room. However, after he leaves his office, he forgets what
he was coming into the conference room for. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, what should Phineas
do to regain his lost memory?

a. Phineas should return to his office to help him remember what he had forgotten.

b. Phineas should ask someone else, “What did I come in here for?”

c. Phineas should remain in the conference room and simply relax so that his memory should return.

d. Phineas should consider seeing a doctor, since such memory loss can be a sign of mental illness.

11. Which of the following is an example of a test using recognition?

a. short answer b. essay c. fill in the blanks d. true–false

12. When creating a presentation, many public-speaking instructors will tell you to develop a strong opening or
attention getter to your presentation as well as a good summary and finish. What aspect of memory best explains
these suggestions?

a. parallel distributed processing model of memory b. chunking

c. elaborative rehearsal theory d. serial position effect

13. Your mother tells you to dress for success at your interview because it’s all about “first impressions.” In other
words, she is telling you that people often remember what they see first. This belief is in line with what element of
memory?

a. the primacy effect b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon c. the recency effect d. the power of false positives

14. Research by Elizabeth Loftus shows that eyewitness recognition is very prone to what psychologists call

a. automatic encoding. b. a false positive. c. a flashbulb memory. d. a recency effect.

15. The tendency of certain elements to enter long-term memory with little or no effort to encode and organize
them is what defines

a. encoding specificity. b. automatic encoding. c. flashbulb memories. d. eidetic imagery.

16. The ability to remember where you were and what you were doing when the United States was attacked on
September 11, 2001, is an example of

a. eyewitness testimony. b. encoding specificity hypothesis. c. false-memory syndrome. d. flashbulb memory.

17. In Hermann Ebbinghaus’s classic study on memory and the forgetting curve, how long after learning the lists does
most forgetting happen?

a. Forgetting started immediately. b. 1 hour c. 5 hours d. 9 hours

18. You are surprised by the fact that you cannot remember if Abraham Lincoln’s head faces the left or the right on a
penny. This is all the more surprising given the fact that you work with money at your job on nearly a daily basis.
What would best explain such an inability to recall this information?

a. encoding failure b. decay theory c. interference theory d. distributed practice effect

19. Henry Gustav Molaison, infamously known as H.M., was unable to form new declarative memories. He suffered
from what psychologists call

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 a. psychogenic amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. retroactive amnesia. d. anterograde amnesia.

20. Your English instructor has given you an assignment to write down your most favorite memory from when you
were 12 months old. What might you tell him?

a. Memories from this time are exceptionally vivid because of the exciting nature of childhood.

b. Students will not be able to recall such memories if they had yet to develop the ability to talk by age 1.

c. Students’ memories are detailed but often inaccurate.

d. Students will probably not be able to recall events from such an early age

7. Cognition: Thinking, Intelligence, and Language

How People Think

1. What is thinking?

a. mental activity that involves processing, organizing, understanding, and communicating information

b. spontaneous, nondirected, and unconscious mental activity

c. simply and succinctly, it is only our ability to remember

d. all mental activity except memory

2. People in the United States often think of a sports car when asked to envision a fun, fast form of travel. In this
example, a sports car would be considered a

a. prototype. b. natural concept. c. formal concept. d. mental image.

3. While taking a shower, Miguel suddenly realizes the solution to a problem at work. When later asked how he
solved this problem, Miguel said, “The answer just seemed to pop into my head.” Miguel’s experience is an example
of

a. a mechanical solution. b. a heuristic. c. an algorithm. d. insight.

4. Alicia leaves her office building only to find it is raining. She returns to her office and gets a trash bag out of the
supply cabinet. Using a pair of scissors, she cuts the bag so that she can put her head and arms through the bag
without getting wet. In using the trash bag as a makeshift rain jacket, Alicia has overcome

a. functional fixedness. b. confirmation bias. c. creativity bias. d. confirmation fixedness.

5. Randall believes that aliens are currently living deep under the ocean. When looking for information about this on
the Internet, he ignores any sites that are sceptical of his belief and only visits sites that support his belief. This is an
example of

a. functional fixedness. b. confirmation bias. c. creativity bias. d. confirmation fixedness.

6. Which of the following is the best way to encourage divergent, creative thinking?

a. Go for a walk or engage in some other automatic activity.

b. Stare at a blank sheet of paper until a new, innovative solution comes to mind.

c. Engage in many activities simultaneously.

d. Force yourself to think of something new and creative.

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 Intelligence

1. In Gardner’s view, effective counselling psychologists and managers would likely be high in __________
intelligence.

a. verbal/linguistic b. visual–spatial c. interpersonal d. intrapersonal

2. According to Sternberg, which type of intelligence has a low relationship to academic success and would be the
most difficult to measure in the classroom?

a. practical b. creative c. analytical d. verbal

3. Professor Becker designed an IQ test. To validate this test, the professor should be careful to do which of the
following?

a. Give the test at least twice to the same group to ensure accuracy.

b. Select the people in the sample from the population of people for whom the test is designed.

c. Select only university professors to take the test so that they can critique the questions on the test.

d. Strive to make sure that the test measures what it is supposed to measure.

4. In terms of differing cultures, what should be the goal of every test designer?

a. to create a test free of cultural bias b. to create a test that is culturally fair

c. to create a test with no questions involving culture d. to create a series of culture-varied tests

5. In recent studies, what do some researchers argue is a more accurate means of gauging success in relationships
and careers?

a. intellectual intelligence b. emotional intelligence c. heredity studies d. stress surveys

6. Which of the following would be an example of a stereotype threat?

a. Joaquim, who believes IQ tests are unfair to Hispanics, something that his IQ score seems to reflect

b. Jasmine, who feels she must excel on her IQ test

c. Tiana, who believes that all testing, no matter the type, is stereotypical and biased

d. Malik, who believes that tests are equal but must excel so as not to be stereotyped by his friends

Language

1. The basic units of sound in a language are known as

a. grammar. b. morphemes. c. syntax. d. phonemes.

2. According to Noam Chomsky, what is a language acquisition device?

a. an environmental entity that allows people to learn foreign languages

b. a biological element of the brain that allows us to learn language

c. a learning method that many can use to understand the language of infants and small children

d. a part of the brain that develops during puberty that allows teens and adults to formulate questions and engage
others

3. Researchers believe that up to the age of ______, individuals possess the ability to understand phonemes of all
languages.

a. 3 months b. 9 months c. 2 years d. 7 years

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 4. ___________ believed that language helps develop concepts, whereas ___________ believed that concepts must
be developed first if language is to follow.

a. Vygotsky; Piaget b. Chomsky; Sapir and Whorf c. Piaget; Rosch-Heider d. Sapir and Whorf; Vygotsky

5. “Daddy go bye-bye” is an example of __________.

a. telegraphic speech b. babbling c. a holophrase d. cooing

Test Yourself

1. Researchers have found that it takes ____________ to view a mental image that is larger or covers more distance
than a smaller or more compact one.

a. longer b. less time c. the same amount of time d. half the time

2. Research suggests we engage mental images in our mind ____________ the way we engage or interact with

physical objects.

a. a little like b. much like c. not at all like d. randomly and completely different than

3. A psychologist asks people to envision a circle. Next he asks them to draw the circle they envisioned. When
comparing the pictures, almost all circles look identical. The fact that a circle typically fits a specific and rigid set of
rules is an example of a

a. formal concept. b. natural concept. c. fuzzy concept. d. prototype.

4. Trial and error is sometimes referred to as a(n)

a. algorithm. b. heuristic. c. rule of thumb. d. mechanical solution.

5. John and Karen bought a new house with an unfinished basement. To determine how they want to finish it, they
lay down tape on the floor showing where walls will go and rooms will be. This process of problem solving is known
as

a. representativeness heuristic. b. trial and error. c. working backward from the goal. d. algorithms.

6. One day at work, Pauline’s earring fell on the floor, and she was unable to find the back. To keep from losing her
earring, Pauline reinserted it and used part of a pencil eraser to keep the earring in place. Using a pencil eraser as a
temporary earring back showed that Pauline overcame

a. a mental set. b. functional fixedness. c. confirmation bias. d. transformation bias

7. Which of the following questions would be more likely to produce divergent thinking?

a. “What is a clothes hanger?” b. “How do you spell clothes hanger?”

c. “How many uses can you think of for a clothes hanger?” d. “What does a clothes hanger typically look like?”

8. Which type of intelligence, according to Howard Gardner, would most likely be present in farmers, landscapers,
and biologists?

a. naturalist b. visual/spatial c. existentialist d. movement

9. According to Sternberg, “book smarts” is another way of talking about which kind of intelligence?

a. analytical b. creative c. practical d. emotional

10. Which of the following tests came first?

a. The Wechsler tests b. The Stanford Binet c. The ACT d. Binet’s mental ability test

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 11. Dr. Davenport gives all her classes 45 minutes to complete their psychology test regardless of if the class meets
for 50 minutes, 75 minutes, or even 3 hours. Such a technique ensures test

a. reliability. b. validity. c. norms. d. standardization.

12. In contrast to comparing mental age to chronological age, most modern tests of intelligence use ____________.

a. Stern’s formula b. age-group comparison norms c. creativity assessments d. emotional assessments

13. The goal of all test developers is to ____________ cultural bias in their intelligence tests.

a. maximize b. eliminate c. minimize d. hide

14. Dr. Miller works with children who have grown up in poor socioeconomic conditions. Many of her clients come
from homes that do not emphasize education or social involvement, and opportunities for advancement are
practically nonexistent. Many are malnourished, have been exposed to a variety of environmental toxins, and have
multiple infections without adequate or timely health care. What might these children be at risk for?

a. intellectual disability b. genetic inhibition

c. organically induced deprivation d. increased emotional intelligence

15. Dr. Thomas has found that William, her patient, has a defect in a gene on the X chromosome of his 23rd pair,
which has resulted in a deficiency of a protein needed for William’s brain development. William most likely suffers
from

a. Down syndrome. b. cretinism. c. fragile X syndrome. d. fetal alcohol syndrome.

16. In Terman’s study of gifted children, mental health issues and relationship problems only occurred in those with
IQs of

a. 150 or higher. b. 180 or higher. c. 100 or lower. d. 45 or lower.

17. What might be the best predictor of why some people do not excel in school but essentially succeed in their life
and career choices?

a. cretinism b. phonemes c. one’s intelligence quotient d. emotional intelligence

18. What does the Flynn effect theorize?

a. Intelligence scores are steadily increasing in modernized countries.

b. Intelligence scores are decreasing due to an overreliance on technology.

c. Intelligence scores are relatively stable in contrast to improvement in our educational system.

d. Intelligence scores are meaningless and should be abandoned.

19. Edward Sapir and Benjamin Whorf theorized that ____________, a concept reflected in their linguistic relativity
hypothesis.

a. language shapes thoughts b. thoughts shape language

c. language and thought develop independently d. language and thought influence each other

20. Cognitive universalism tends to ____________ the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

a. contradict b. support c. add further proof to d. mildly downplay

8. Development across the Life Span

Studying Human Development

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 1. In a __________ design, one group of people is followed and assessed at different times as the group ages.

a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. cross-sequential d. cross-longitudinal

2. The cognitive and social changes students go through because they are born and grow up in an age of
smartphones would be referred to as a(n)

a. experimental group b. control group. c. dominance effect. d. cohort effect.

3. Brandy has naturally blond hair. Based on this information, what do we know about Brandy’s parents?

a. At least one of her parents has a recessive blond hair gene.

b. Each of her parents must have one recessive blond hair gene.

c. Each of her parents must have one dominant brown hair gene.

d. Neither of her parents has a recessive blond hair gene.

4. When sets of genes group together, the result can be multiple traits expressed as a single dominant trait. This is
best explained by the process known as

a. dominant inheritance. b. recessive inheritance. c. polygenic inheritance. d. amines.

5. Which of the following is a disorder resulting from recessive inheritance?

a. Turner’s syndrome b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. cystic fibrosis d. Down syndrome

6. Which disorder is characterized by having only one X chromosome in the 23rd pairing?

a. Tay-Sachs b. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. PKU

Prenatal Development

1. The first 2 weeks of pregnancy are called the __________ period.

a. fetal b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal

2. Which of the following does NOT happen in the germinal period?

a. dividing mass of cells travels to the uterus

b. developing organs can be affected by toxins passing through the placenta

c. mass of cells form a hollow ball

d. cells begin to differentiate

3. The period of pregnancy that contains the clearest examples of critical periods is the __________ period.

a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. gestational

4. Intellectual disability and blindness are possible outcomes of the effects of __________ on the developing baby.

a. alcohol b. caffeine c. cocaine d. mercury

Infancy and Childhood Development

1. One way researchers study newborn development involves measuring how long infants continue to focus upon a
nonchanging stimulus. This technique is referred to as

a. adaptation. b. habituation. c. longitudinal study. d. a cross-sectional design.

2. In which of Piaget’s stages would a child be who has just developed the ability to conserve?

a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations

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 3. Vygotsky defines __________ as the process of helping less as the learner improves at a given task.

a. scaffolding b. habituation c. zone of proximal development d. metamemory

4. What kind of attachment, according to Ainsworth, is shown by a baby who clings to his or her mother, gets upset
when the mother leaves, and demands to be picked up but at the same time kicks and pushes her away?

a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized–disoriented

5. Studies by Harry Harlow showed that the most important element to developing attachment is

a. feeding. b. physical contact. c. mental challenges. d. sleep.

6. According to Erikson, which stage results in a sense of independence because of one’s ability to control their own
actions?

a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt

c. initiative versus guilt d. generativity versus stagnation

Adolescence

1. A change in the body of young boys such as the appearance and

growth of body hair is considered

a. a primary sex characteristic.

b. a secondary sex characteristic.

c. the final stage of puberty.

d. a sign of postconventional morality.

2. “It can’t happen to me. I’m special” is a common attitude found in

adolescents who have developed

a. a self-concept. c. a personal fable.

b. an imaginary audience. d. a preconventional morality.

3. According to Kohlberg, about one-fifth of the adult population is at

the __________ level of morality.

a. preconventional c. postconventional

b. conventional d. preliminary

4. According to Erikson, the task of the adolescent is to

a. find a consistent sense of self.

b. develop a sense of initiative.

c. find intimacy with another.

d. develop a sense of industry.

5. If Colin is going to argue and disagree with his parents, which of the

following topics will he typically be arguing over?

a. political beliefs

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 b. religious beliefs

c. social values

d. his taste in clothes

Adulthood and Aging

1. As Conrad has gotten older, he finds that it is becoming more difficult to remember certain words or the name of a
new acquaintance. What is the most likely explanation for this change in memory?

a. Alzheimer’s disease b. the aging process c. stress d. heredity

2. According to Erikson, the primary task of early adulthood is

a. completing your education. b. finding a mate. c. starting a career. d. taking care of aging parents.

3. According to Baumrind, which type of parent would most likely say, “Because I said so” or “It’s my way or the
highway!”

a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive neglectful d. permissive indulgent

4. Which theory of aging is compared to the limited number of repairs you can have before your car’s warranty runs
out?

a. wear-and-tear theory b. cellular-clock theory c. free-radical theory d. activity theory

5. According to research, the reason many older people are no longer involved in their community is because

a. they are not asked to take part. b. they quite often are unable to take part.

c. they do not wish to be involved. d. they die.

6. What stage might terminally ill patients be in if they refuse to write a last will and testament because they believe
that in doing so, they are admitting they will die?

a. bargaining b. anger c. depression d. denial

Test Yourself

1. The thinking and attitudes of many who survived the Depression of the 1930s changed them for the rest of their
lives. This would be an example of a

a. cohort effect. b. cultural group. c. longitudinal group. d. cross-sequential group.

2. If a person has one gene influencing blue eyes but actually has brown eyes, blue eyes must be a __________ trait.

a. dominant b. recessive c. sex-linked d. polygenic

3. In __________ syndrome, the 23rd pair of chromosomes consists of an XXY pairing, resulting in reduced masculine
characteristics and excessive height.

a. PKU b. Down c. Klinefelter’s d. Turner’s

4. Which of the following represents the fertilization process for monozygotic twins?

a. One egg is fertilized by two different sperm.

b. One egg splits and is then fertilized by two different sperm.

c. One egg is fertilized by one sperm and then splits.

d. Two eggs are fertilized by the same sperm.

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 5. What part of an infant’s body is said to stay in an immature state until needed to produce more cells?

a. uterus b. stem cells c. umbilical cord d. placenta

6. Based on today’s science and medicine, when does the age of viability begin?

a. between 8 and 12 weeks b. between 12 and 18 weeks

c. between 22 and 26 weeks d. between 28 and 36 weeks

7. Dr. Kahn measures how long baby Lydia looks at a particular stimulus. The technique is known as

a. preferential looking. b. dishabituation. c. habituation. d. stimulus discrimination.

8. At what age can the typical infant roll over?

a. 2 months b. 5 weeks c. 8 months d. 12 months

9. Studies of the infant brain show signs of what scientists call synaptic pruning. What occurs during this process?

a. The brain creates additional neural connections by removing parts of the surrounding bone.

b. Unused synaptic connections and nerve cells are cleared out to make way for new cells.

c. New cells work to “rewrite” old cells and ultimately change their functioning.

d. New cells will not develop until the body makes sufficient physical space within the brain.

10. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child become capable of understanding conservation?

a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operations d. concrete operations

11. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child become capable of abstract reasoning?

a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operations d. concrete operations

12. Which infant temperament is associated with babies who are very regular in their schedules of sleeping and
eating?

a. Slow-to-warm-up b. Easy c. Difficult d. Anxious

13. In the Strange Situation, __________ babies would cry when their mother left the room but were happy upon
her return.

a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized–disoriented

14. What is a most likely explanation as to why teenagers and young adults may engage in risky and dangerous
behavior?

a. Such behavior is due to the tremendous pressure applied by peers.

b. Such behavior is actually hereditary.

c. Such behavior may be due to unbalanced levels of hormones in the body.

d. Such behavior may be due to the incomplete development of the prefrontal cortex.

15. Samantha enters a classroom where two students are talking. When they stop their discussion, Samantha is
certain they must have been talking about her. Such a belief is an example of

a. the imaginary audience. b. the personal fable. c. abstract egocentrism. d. formal operations.

16. What cognitive changes occurring during middle adulthood are the most noticeable?

a. Changes in memory begin to occur. b. Problem-solving skills diminish.

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 c. Hearing begins to decline. d. Hair begins to turn gray.

17. Independence and self-reliance in the teenage years are most likely due to __________ parenting.

a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive neglectful d. permissive indulgent

18. The crisis of late adulthood, according to Erikson, is

a. identity versus role confusion. b. generativity versus stagnation.

c. intimacy versus isolation. d. integrity versus despair.

19. Which theory of aging states that unstable oxygen molecules tend to steal electrons as they bounce around, thus
causing damage to surrounding cells?

a. cellular-clock theory b. wear-and-tear theory c. free-radical theory d. activity theory

20. Kip is worried that he is losing his mind because he finds himself angry at a friend who died in an automobile
accident. Based on Kübler-Ross’s research, what might you tell him?

a. Anger of this type is self-destructive and unhealthy.

b. Anger is usually a mask to your true feelings of sadness.

c. Anger toward a deceased individual is simply not normal and may require psychological counseling.

d. Anger is a normal reaction to death and not a sign of mental illness

9. Motivation and Emotion

Approaches to Understanding Motivation

1. If a person carries out a behavior to receive an outcome that is separate from the person, this is known as

a. intrinsic motivation b. extrinsic motivation. c. drive-reduction motivation. d. instinctual motivation.

2. What motivational theory relies heavily on the concept of homeostasis?

a. instinctual theory c. drive-reduction theory

b. need for affiliation theory d. need for achievement theory

3. People high in the need for __________ want to be liked by others and are good team players.

a. achievement b. affiliation c. power d. emotion

4. In terms of arousal and task difficulty, easy tasks typically demand a __________ level for optimal performance,
whereas difficult tasks require a __________ level.

a. high–moderate; low–moderate b. low–moderate; high–moderate

c. either a high or low; medium d. low; low

5. In Maslow’s theory, how often do people reach a point of self-actualization?

a. Most people reach a state of self-actualization before they reach adulthood.

b. Most people reach a state of self-actualization as they finish adolescence.

c. Seldom, although there are times in a person’s life when they are self-actualized at least temporarily.

d. No one ever reaches the ultimate state. Our motivations express themselves in how we try to attain it.

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 6. In Ryan and Deci’s self-determination theory, what is the key to achieving one’s needs for autonomy, competence,
and relatedness?

a. an instinctual motivation b. support from others around you

c. a motivation often driven by heredity d. a driving desire not to be a failure

What, Hungry Again? Why People Eat

1. Damage to the __________ in rats can cause them to starve to death, while damage to the __________ will cause
them to eat and eat and eat.

a. pancreas; stomach b. liver; kidneys

c. ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus d. lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus

2. If calorie intake stays the same, as the basal metabolic rate decreases, the weight set point

a. decreases. b. increases. c. stays the same. d. varies up and down.

3. Jermaine eats a late breakfast at 10:00 a.m. but finds he is hungry at 11:30 a.m. when he typically eats lunch.
What best explains his hunger pains only 90 minutes after eating breakfast?

a. heredity b. social pressure c. classical conditioning d. self-actualization

4. In cultures in which Western lifestyles of eating and exercising have been adopted, obesity rates have
_____________ over the last 20 years.

a. remained relatively stable b. decreased slightly c. doubled d. tripled

Emotion

1. Which of the following is not one of the three elements of emotion?

a. Physical arousal b. Behavioral reaction c. Objective experience d. Subjective experience

2. The phrase “I’m embarrassed because my face is red” is best explained by which theory of emotion?

a. Cannon-Bard b. James-Lange c. Schachter-Singer d. common-sense theory of emotion

3. “I believe that emotions and physiological arousal tend to happen simultaneously.” Which theorist would be
responsible for making such a statement?

a. Walter Cannon or Philip Bard b. William James or Carl Lange

c. Stanley Schachter or Jerome Singer d. Sigmund Freud or Erik Erikson

4. One day at school, someone collides with you in the hall and knocks you down, causing you to be angry. However,
when playing football with friends, if you get knocked down, you do not express anger. What theory best explains
how we label each situation and choose the appropriate emotion to show?

a. James-Lange b. Schachter-Singer c. Cannon-Bard d. facial feedback

5. In Schachter and Singer’s classic study, participants who received epinephrine and were in the company of the
“angry” research confederate interpreted their physiological arousal as __________, whereas those who were
exposed to the “happy” confederate interpreted their arousal as __________.

a. anger; happiness b. happiness; anger c. happiness; happiness d. anger; anger

6. Eileen smiles wherever she goes. She smiles a lot in the classroom, which in turn prompts her fellow students to
smile, making them feel happier too. This effect is best explained by which of the following theories of emotion?

a. James-Lange b. cognitive-mediational c. Schachter-Singer d. facial feedback

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 Test Yourself

1. Eli enjoys woodcarving. Although none of his teenage friends are interested, he often spends hours creating
several different pieces. His enjoyment of the task is all his own, and he rarely shows others his work. Many would
call his motivation __________ in nature.

a. instinctual b. arousal c. extrinsic d. intrinsic

2. Jasmine often requires her friends’ approval when she buys new outfits. Her need is an example of a(n)
__________ drive.

a. primary b. acquired (secondary) c. innate d. instinctive

3. The approach to motivation that forced psychologists to consider the value of homeostasis in motivation was the
__________ approach.

a. arousal b. drive-reduction c. instinct d. incentive

4. Motivational theories such as _________________ are physical in terms of their needs, while __________ is based
on psychological motives.

a. drive theory; instinctual theory b. biological theory; drive theory

c. drive theory; McClelland’s need theory d. need for power; drive theory

5. Dodi is always looking for new hobbies. He prefers exciting hobbies that will get him noticed. In his company, Dodi
constantly asks for feedback from customers so he can know what he needs to do to be the best. Dodi is high in the
need for __________.

a. achievement b. affiliation c. power d. attention

6. An important component to Carol Dweck’s theory of motivation is

a. one’s view of self. b. an understanding of classical conditioning and its impact on motivation.

c. the importance of heredity in biological motivations. d. an understanding of emotions.

7. According to the arousal theory, people are typically motivated toward __________________ point of arousal.

a. the highest b. the optimal c. the easiest d. the quickest

8. According to Maslow, what is meant by a peak experience?

a. that point, even for a moment, when someone reaches a state of self-actualization

b. the point at which someone reaches transcendence

c. the point at which someone begins to work through the hierarchy

d. the point at which someone must descend back down the hierarchy to address a previous need which is no longer
secure

9. Jacob believes he is in control of his own destiny. He feels he is secure in the friendships he has with others.
However, he still feels the need to master many of the challenges in his own life and career. According to self-
determination theory, which stage is Jacob still working to complete?

a. autonomy b. competence c. relatedness d. affiliation

10. Leptin is a hormone involved in

a. appetite control. b. metabolism control. c. digestion of fatty foods. d. neurotransmissions.

11. The structure in the brain that, when damaged, causes rats to eat and eat and eat is called the

20
 a. ventromedial pituitary. b. lateral hippocampus.

c. ventromedial hypothalamus. d. lateral hypothalamus.

12. The level of weight the body tries to maintain is called the

a. basal metabolic rate. b. weight set point. c. basal set point. d. weight metabolic rate.

13. Studies indicate that women from __________________ are more likely to eat because their body tells them
they are hungry.

a. Hungary b. the United States c. Italy d. Japan

14. Since Dillon’s family has a history of obesity, he has __________ of becoming obese compared to people without
such a family history.

a. the same risk b. double or triple the risk c. five times the risk d. less risk

15. LeDoux’s work on the physiology involving emotions has focused on what part of the brain?

a. thalamus b. hippocampus c. prefrontal cortex d. amygdala

16. Research on facial expressions has taught us that facial expressions are

a. inherent to a region and therefore mean different things in different countries.

b. inherent to a culture and therefore mean different things to different cultures.

c. learned.

d. universal.

17. What is meant by a display rule?

a. an understanding of when and under what conditions emotions and feelings may be displayed within a culture

b. an understanding of what behaviors can be expressed when someone is new to a situation

c. an understanding of how children are to act in the presence of adults

d. an understanding of how to hide emotions from others

18. What theory of emotion states that the emotion typically occurs before arousal and behavior?

a. the original, or common-sense, theory b. Schachter and Singer’s theory

c. Cannon and Bard’s theory d. James and Lange’s theory

19. Which theory of emotion relies heavily on cognition and labeling?

a. the original, or common-sense, theory b. Schachter and Singer’s theory

c. Cannon and Bard’s theory d. James and Lange’s theory

20. The first stage of David Allen’s Getting Things Done (GTD) method is _____________ anything and everything
that has your attention.

a. reviewing b. doing c. capturing d. organizing

BURAYA KADAR

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 10. Sexuality and Gender

The Physical Side of Human Sexuality

1. The sex structures that develop during puberty are categorized as

a. primary sex characteristics. b. secondary sex characteristics.

c. either primary or secondary sex characteristics. d. primary or secondary sex characteristics based on the culture.

2. Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?

a. uterus b. enlarging breasts c. penis d. ovaries

3. Which of the following is NOT associated with the embryo developing into a male:

a. androgen b. Wolffian ducts c. Müllerian ducts d. testosterone

4. People who are intersex

a. commonly have both ovaries and testes.

b. are extremely rare—1 in a million births.

c. have a mixture of male and female sexual characteristics.

d. are people who suffer from gender dysphoria but are physically normal.

The Psychological Side of Human Sexuality: Gender

1. The process by which people learn their culture’s preferences and expectations for male and female behavior is
called

a. gender role b. gender identity. c. gender typing. d. gender stereotyping.

2. People whose sense of gender identity does not match their external biological appearance are known as

a. intersex b. homosexual. c. hermaphrodites. d. transgender.

3. Alex sees his mother mixing ingredients for a cake. Later, Alex takes a bowl and spoon out of the cabinet and
pretends to mix some imaginary ingredients. Of which theory of gender development would this be a good example?

a. gender schema theory b. psychoanalytic theory c. gender-role theory d. social learning theory

4. Which theory of gender-role development places a heavy emphasis on the use of mental patterns?

a. gender schema theory b. social learning theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. behavioral theory

5. Karl is often perceived as strong and tough, but he also has been known to be sincere and loving. Karla is warm
and kind but is also independent and assertive when necessary. Bem would classify such behavior as examples of

a. androgyny b. benevolent sexism. c. schema error. d. negative stereotyping.

6. Studies show that women tend to use a _____________ style to their conversation, while men use a
____________ style.

a. relate; report b. report; relate c. masculine; feminine d. androgynous; stereotypical

Human Sexual Behaviour

1. Which of the following is the first phase of the human sexual response cycle?

a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution

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 2. Which phase of the sexual response is typically the shortest?

a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution

3. In Kinsey’s original data, approximately ____________ of women reported being predominantly homosexual,
while as many as ____________ of men reported the same.

a. 6 percent; 21 percent b. 6 to 14 percent; 46 percent

c. 2 percent; 22 percent d. 2 to 6 percent; 10 percent

4. Which of the following was a criticism of Kinsey’s research?

a. The study was incomplete. b. The study asked poorly worded questions.

c. The study was rushed. d. The study had a restricted sample.

5. Robert Trivers’s theory of parental investment states that a ____________ desire to engage in sex at an early age
results from ____________.

a. man’s; social pressure b. man’s; evolution

c. woman’s; biological concerns d. woman’s; psychological pressure

6. One study found that the major reason for decrease in sexual activity in later adulthood was primarily due to

a. a loss of interest in sex.

b. fewer opportunities to find an available partner.

c. a belief that sex and sexual fantasies in late adulthood was unhealthy.

d. a desire to channel energy into other tasks.

Sexual Health

1. Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted infection?

a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. candidiasis d. chlamydia

2. Which STI, if left untreated, can cause pelvic inflammatory disorder?

a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. candidiasis d. chlamydia

3. The human papillomavirus or HPV is the cause of ____________ in both men and women.

a. chlamydia b. syphilis c. genital warts d. AIDS

4. Which of the following ways can the human immunodeficiency virus be passed along to another person?

a. kissing b. exposure to an infected person’s tears

c. exposure to an infected person’s saliva d. exposure to an infected person’s blood

Test Yourself

1. Primary sex characteristics

a. include the development of pubic and ancillary hair. b. always begin their development during puberty.

c. are typically the same for males and females. d. are directly involved in human reproduction.

2. What is the average age in the United States that menarche typically begins?

a. 10 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14

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 3. If the gonads within an embryo produce testosterone because of the presence of a Y gene on the sex
chromosome, then the ____________ will develop and the _________ will deteriorate.

a. Müllerian ducts; Wolffian ducts b. Wolffian ducts; Müllerian ducts

c. ovaries; testes d. testes; ovaries

4. An intersex person is

a. a person who has sex with both men and women. b. another name for a homosexual.

c. a person born with ambiguous sexual organs. d. another name for a heterosexual.

5. Annika’s mother wants her daughter to grow up to become a mother of a large family. Such an expectation for
Annika might be seen as an example of her

a. gender role. b. gender typing. c. gender identity. d. gender constancy.

6. Darla shares with a close friend that she often feels a strong desire to be another gender and that it bothers her so
much that she is having problems at work and in her social life. What is the term used to describe this?

a. hermaphroditism b. transsexual c. intersex d. gender dysphoria

7. In social learning theory, gender identity results

a. when a child learns that they are either a “girl” or a “boy.” b. from observation and imitation.

c. from biological changes that occurred before birth. d. from unconscious forces.

8. Jennifer’s aunt tries to explain that running around with boys on the playground isn’t “ladylike.” Such a statement
could be an example of

a. androgyny. b. gender typing. c. role development. d. gender stereotyping.

9. Plateau occurs in

a. Phase 1. b. Phase 2. c. Phase 3. d. Phase 4.

10. The refractory period is a time during which

a. a woman cannot have another orgasm. b. a man cannot have another orgasm.

c. a man begins to get sexually aroused. d. a woman cannot be aroused.

11. Which of the following studies was the most controversial for its method of gathering information?

a. the Kinsey report b. the Janus report

c. Masters and Johnson’s study d. Savic’s research on sexual orientation

12. The Kinsey report indicates that more than ____________ as many men had intercourse by age 16 as did
women.

a. twice b. four times c. ten times d. three times

13. Parental investment theory seeks to explain

a. why men have sex more often than women. b. why women are sexually attracted to men.

c. why couples meet and remain together. d. why sexual activity diminishes in seniors.

14. Research on the epi-mark offers a ____________ explanation to the existence of homosexuality.

a. genetic b. psychological c. social d. behavioral

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 15. Some research suggests that a man is more likely to be homosexual if he has a lot of

a. older sisters. b. older brothers. c. social support. d. testosterone.

16. Sexual health can be influenced by

a. organic factors. b. organic and sociocultural factors.

c. organic, psychological, and sociocultural factors. d. hereditary factors primarily.

17. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections can ultimately affect the brain?

a. genital herpes b. chlamydia c. syphilis d. gonorrhea

18. Brandon has a couple of painful sores on his penis and experiences severe itching and burning in the surrounding
area. Brandon probably has

a. genital herpes. b. chlamydia. c. syphilis. d. gonorrhea.

19. Which of the following is a way in which HIV can be transmitted?

a. through exposure to contaminated blood or other body fluids containing contaminated blood

b. by sharing beverages with someone who is HIV positive

c. by making contact with the tears of an HIV patient

d. through hand holding, especially if the person with HIV is perspiring

20. Alicia is horrified to hear that her date from last night carries the human immunodeficiency virus. While they did
not engage in sex, they did share a quick kiss at the end of the evening, hastened by her phone ringing in her
apartment. Besides discussing her concerns with her date should they go out again, what precautions should Alicia
take?

a. She should see her doctor immediately, since kissing can cause the spread of HIV.

b. She should see her doctor only if she begins to have symptoms.

c. She should try to calm down, since stress helps transmit HIV.

d. She should try not to worry, since kissing has not been proven to be a successful way to transmit HIV, and follow
up with her doctor or other health care provider if she has concerns or questions.

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