Table of contents

Description

About the Author

About Dubai Municipality

Why Dubai Municipality Exam is important for Engineers

What is the Criteria of Dubai Municipality Exam for Engineers?

What if an engineer fail the exam paper?

What is the procedure of Applying for the exam and pattern?

How to become Accredited Engineer?

Selection of date and and payment of fee for the exam

Required Cards

How to apply offline for the exam if online date is not available

Questions for G+1 and G+4 Building Contracting

G+12 and G+ Unlimited Exam Questions for Dubai Municipality

Consultants or structural Engineers Exam

References

These questions are mostly collected from my friends past tests papers. After a long hard
work for engineers I am able to write these questions in the form of book.

Note: Same questions are used equally for Sharjah municipality Exam also
Description
This book is a guide to for the processes of Dubai Municipality Exam from start to end. This will provide
guidance to all those Engineers who are keen to clear Dubai Municipality Exam and become a register
Engineer in Dubai. It includes information for Engineers about the Exam and guidance how to clear the
exam and even get high percentage score in the Exam. It also guide about the required criteria and
eligibility standards. It also guide how to apply online for the exam and how to take date and where to
go for the exam. What to do after passing the Exam. The main purpose of this book is to get prepare for
the Exam to get high score. For this purpose we have collected a lot of questions and answers from the
previous exams and we have taken the Questions from our friends who have passed the test paper
already. So the questions and answers are presented In the same pattern as in the exam. After reading
and learning these questions the engineer is able to get high score in the exam. The best thing is that
this book covers all the categories of Exam like G+1, G+4, G+12 and G+ unlimited.

About the Author

I am Civil Engineer and have 6 years of experience in Dubai construction field. Currently I am working for
an engineering consultancy. I have got 100% marks in Dubai Municipality Exam. I have prepared this
book for young engineers who want to get Dubai municipality Approval. I have membership of UAE
Society of Engineers and Dubai Municipality and Abu Dhabi Municipality. I have worked on different
projects in UAE like Villas, high rise buildings, commercial and residential buildings.

About Dubai Municipality

Dubai Municipality is one of the largest government institutions in UAE. DM is the leading growth and
development body in terms of smart services and projects. DM was established in 1954. And now it is 34
departments, 126 sections with 11000 employees and workers. DM controls most of the buildings
projects in Dubai and is managing all the requirements and supervision of the projects.

Why Dubai Municipality Exam is important for Engineers

Dubai Municipality requires that all the professional be accredited by Dubai Municipality. Only after you
get accredited will you be able to practice engineering profession in Dubai. That’s why every company
must hire Dubai municipality approved engineers to run the projects as per DM law.

Criteria of the DM Exam

The criteria is simple. They required 3 years of experience for Bachelor degree engineers and 5 years of
experience for DAE diploma engineers. Sharjah Exam required 2 years of experience.
What if an Engineer fail the Exam
If you fail the exam than no worries. You can appear multiple times for the Exam by submitting the
required fee. There is no limit for the attempt.

Pattern and type of Exam

After the pandemic in January 2021, Dubai and Sharjah Municipality have changed the old pattern of
exam for engineers. They have replaced the old pattern of long subjective paper of 3 hours with a short
objective paper of 1 hour only. There are total 25 questions in the paper and you have to complete it in
1 hour. They do not share the course outlines with anyone but this is specially prepared for passing the
exam. Some questions are difficult and need to think more so do not get worry about the time as 1 hour
is enough time. There are some diagrammatic type of questions like section of beams, slab, footing,
piles, truss, column, shear force and bending moment diagrams, envelops and designs.

There are some numerical type questions also that will need calculator but you are not allowed to keep
calculator with you. You can use soft calculator in the computer system where you are solving the paper.

At first you will feel it difficult but later when read the question 2 or 3 times than it will be easy. You will
get worry that I cannot go back to question 1 or 2 but it is not true. You can solve any question first. If
you do not know than you can ask the invigilator staff for help. And the most important thing is that you
should be present there in the hall 30 minutes before the start time otherwise you will be in trouble.

How to become Accredited Engineer?

It is very easy to register login to DEQ portal. Now you can apply for accreditation exam by providing
your experience and educational information. I will recommend to use I7 laptop or PC to avoid any issue
as mostly Android phones are not able to load the site. So can choose your exam type whether you are
appearing for contracting or consultants.

Selection of date and and payment of fee for the exam

When you select your exam type than you can see the available dates to appear for the exam. Than you
have to pay the exam fee though credit or debit card or through Al Ansari exchange cash. The fee is 420
AED for the exam. After selection of date you have a specific time to sit for the exam.

Required Cards
Educational original certificate

Society of Engineers Membership card

Experience Certificate

Emirate ID card

How to apply offline for the exam if online date is not available
Unfortunately you cannot apply offline for the exam now. You have to wait for the date which is
available online in the DM system.

Take exam and get result

You will receive message via email and cell number to notify you for the exam but you must be there in
the AL tawar center Dubai exam hall 30 minutes before the exam as there are so many candidates so the
examiner will validate your ID and documents and after assign you the PC system to give the exam.

Questions and Answers from the previous Exam paper. Mostly these questions are repeated in exam.

Questions for G+1 and G+4 Building Contracting

Q1) The shutters and bottom support of non-cantilever slab is removed within minimum of

______ days.

A: 7 days

B: 14 days

C: 28 days

D: 21 days

Q2) Shotcrete is used in ________

A: Repairing surfaces

B: Dam surfaces

C: Curved surfaces

D: All of above

Q3) The shutters and bottom support of non-contiliver beam can be removed within minimum of ____

A: 7 days

B: 14 days

C: 28 days

D: 21 days

Q4) Bitumen is used in construction to provide ______

A: Protective Surface
B: Shining surface

C: decorative surface

D: All of above

Q5) First test on concrete is done after ______days

A: 7 days

B: 14 days

C: 28 days

D: 3 days

Q6) Core samples are taken for finding ____

A: tensile strength

B: compressive strength

C: water absorption

D: surface hardness

Q7) Rebound smidth hammer test is _____

A: Destructive test

B: non-destructive

C: cohesion test

D: All of above

Q8) Core samples are taken after _____ days

A: 7 days

B: 14 days

C: 28 days

D: 10 days

Q9) Density of Aluminium is _____Kg/m3 in normal temperature.

A: 3500

B: 2700

C: 2500

D: 3000
Q10) Which type of cement is used in normal slabs ____

A: SRC

B: OPC

C: Non-shrinkage

D: Rapid hardening

Q11) Density of Steel is _____ Kg/m3

A: 7000 B: 8000 C: 6500 D: 7800

Q12) Contractors use blankets over fresh concrete to ____

A: increase evaporation

B: reduce evaporation

C: be rapid harden

D: avoid sulphate attack

Q13) The density of light weight concrete is ____ Kg/m3

A: 1000 B: 2000 C: 300 D: 1300

Q14) How many cubes samples required for 110cum concrete on single day?

A: 18 B:12 C: 9 D: 6

Q15) Adding more water to concrete mix, its workability ____

A: Decrease B: remain same C: increase D: no effect

Q16) Density of ACC block is _____ Kg/m3

A: 500 B: 550 C: 700 D: 600

Q17) Compaction of concrete is done to _____

A: increase strength B: increase durability C: remove air D: All are required

Q18) Proper curing of concrete should be continued for ____ days.

A: 7 B: 14 C: 10 D: 28 days

Q19) The average strength of cubes at the end of 28 days should be ____

A: greater than fc’ by 15%

B: Greater than or equal to fc’

C: equal to or less than fc’ by 15%

D: greater than fc’ by 1.15 times

Q20) Compaction of concrete is done to ____

A: increase strength B: increase durability C: remove air D: All of above

Q21) When casting , if the temperature of concrete mix is above 32C0, than how should you bring the
temperature of the mix down to 32 or less?

A: adding water B: adding fly ash C: adding silica D: adding ice

Q22) structural element that holds the earth retaining wall is ____

A: stem B: shear key C: foundation (toe & heel) D: toe

Q23) Minimum amount of steel required in normal column is ____

A: 2% B: 3% C: 4% D: 1%

Q24) Amount of steel in flat slab is _____ Kg/m3

A: 80-100 B: 200 C: 120 D: 160-185

Q25) What is the effect of corrosion in reinforcement on RCC element _____

A: damage of concrete element

B: cracking of the element

C: deflection become more than normal

D: All of above are correct

Q26) concrete is __________

A: weak in compression and strong in tension

B: strong in compression and strong in tension

C: strong in compression but weak in tension

D: Enough strong in tensile strength for normal loads

Q27) The correct lapping location in beam is ________

A: middle in top and middle in bottom bars

B: extreme middle third in top and at support in bottom layers

C: middle in bottom and at support at top

D: anywhere is correct.

Q28) What is the thickness to which the soil is back filled in layers and compacted?

A: 600mm B: 400-500mm C: 150-200mm D: 250-300mm

Q29) Density of water is ___________Kg/m3

A: 800 B: 900 C: 1200 D: 1000

Q30) Concrete beam is reinforced to increase ____

A: strength B: compression C: serviceability D: tension

Q31) The clear cover given to footing is _________

A: 40mm B: 50mm C: 100mm D: 75mm

Q32) Which part of a building transfer the load to the soil below the foundation?

A: Column B: plinth C: super structure D: foundation

Q33) When moderate sulfate resistance is desired for concrete element than cement ASTM C150 ___.

A: Type I B: Type III C: Type IV D: Type II is used.

Q34) Honey comb in concrete is caused by ______

A: no vibration B: less workability C: spacing less than 25mm D: All

Q35) Identify the correct section of beam for reinforcement ____

So you have to check whether the depth is more 700mm than you have to look for face reinforcement
also. Otherwise check for normal bottom and top bars.

Q36) The modulus of elasticity of concrete is _____ N/mm2

A: (57000)fc’0.5 B: 29000000 C: 210000 D: 4700fc’0.5

Q37) The Poisson ration ratio of structural steel is ______

A: 0.2 B: 0.5 C: 0.4 D: 0.3

Q38) Which type of cement is used for foundation concrete?

A: OPC B: rapid hardening C: self compacting D: SRC

Q39) Adding more water to concrete mix than its strength ______

A: increase B: constant C: no relation D: decrease

Q40) Maximum allowable settlement of raft foundation is _____mm

A: 40 B: 75 C: 60 D: 50

Q41) In concentric footing the column is at the ____of footing.

A: corner B: edge C: diagonal D: center

Q42) Maximum allowable deflection for isolated footing is ____

A: 50mm B: 40mm C: 30mm D: 25mm

Q43) Density of RCC is ______ Kg/m3

A: 2000 B: 2300 C: 2400 D: 2500

Q44) The most common type of footing used in building is ______

A: combine B: strap C: Raft D: Isolated footing

Q45) In continuous slab the maximum bending moment will be at _____

A: mid of slab B: middle third C: L/2 from beam D: Near column or beam

Q46) The Clear cover provided to beam is _____

A: 20mm B: 45mm C: 50mm D: 25mm

Q47) The thickness of external fence wall plaster wall should be _____

A: 10mm B: 12mm C: 15mm D: 20mm

Q48) The gate level of the villa should be above from the road level by ____

A: 10cm B: 15cm C: 20cm D: 30cm

Q49) The correct definition of durability of concrete is ______

A: The capability of concrete to resist weathering action.

B: Ability to resist against chemical attack and abrasion.

C: Ability to bear heavy load

D: Both A and B

Q50) The 6 concrete cubes are casted and are tested after ____

A: 3 days B: 7 days C: 28 days D: 7 and 28 days

Q51) When water content in concrete increase than strength _____

A: increase B: no change C: no relation D: decrease

Q52) Which section of column is best for construction purpose to bear crushing ____
A: rectangular B: square C: triangular D: Circular

Q53) The durability of concrete can be improved to most by adding _____

A: Fly ash B: silica fume C: GGBS D: Both Fly ash and slag

Q54) The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length will be _____

A: a horizontal line B: vertical line C: inclined line D: parabolic curve

Q55) When shear force at a point is zero, then the bending moment is _____ at that point.

A: Zero B: Minimum C: infinity D: Maximum

Q56) The point of contra flexure is a point where ______

A: shear force changes sign

B: Bending moment changes sign

C: shear force is maximum

D: bending moment is maximum

Q57) In a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load w per unit length , the point of
contra flexure ____

A: lies in the center of beam

B: lies at the end of beam

C: depend on L of beam

D: Does not exist.

Q58) For normal size of blocks 200x200x400, the number of blocks required for 3mx5m wall is ___

A: 140 B: 187 C: 165 D: 150

Q59) For external fence wall the type of block used is ____

A: solid blocks B: thermal C: ACC thermo D: Hollow blocks

Q60) For external villa walls which type of blocks are usually used?

A: Hollow blocks B: solid blocks C: semisolid D: Thermal blocks

Q61) For unsupported block masonry exceeding _____ m2 you should provide dummy columns.

A: 10 B: 20 C: 25 D: 14

Q62) The strength of solid blocks should be _____N/mm2 for walls.

A: 5 B: 2 C: 20 D: 12.5

Q63) The Sulfate content SO3 should not exceed _____in fine aggregate used for construction.

A: 1% B: 0.6% C: 0.8% D: 0.4%

Q64) As per DM requirements, the yield strength of deformed bars should be ____ N/mm2

A: 260 B: 370 C: 514 D: 460

Q65) As per DM rules the lap length usually used is _____ for reinforcement.

A: 40d B: 60d C: 30d D: 50d

Q66) As per DM rule for beams depth more ___shrinkage bars should be used on each face of beam.

A: 600mm B: 800mm C: 760mm D: 700mm

Q67) The clear cover for strap beam is _______

A: 50mm B: 75mm C: 20mm D: 30mm

Q68) The purpose of integrity test on piles in deep foundation is _____

A: to find necking B: to find bulging C: to find cracks D: All

Q69) Integrity test on Rcc piles is done after no sooner than ____days after casting

A: 3 B: 5 C: 10 D: 7

Q70) The minimum percentage of steel in beam as per BS standards is _____

A: 1% B: 2% C: 0.5% D: 0.8%

Q71) For water used in construction, the Ph value is not _____ than 6.

A: more B: equal C: less D: related.

Q72) In bottom layer of Raft foundation the overlap is provided _____

A: near the column B: near the beam C: away from column D: anywhere

Q73) Smidth hammer is a non-destructive test for ______

A: steel B: Aluminum C: is destructive test D: concrete

Q74) If a site engineer forgets to cast concrete cubes for test than what to do ___

A: He should make same cubes next day

B: He should not do the test and trust ready mix

C: He should check with the plant if they made the cubes or do core test.

D: He should used smidth hammer test.

Q75) What are the documents to be available with the contractor prior to the start of the project?
Ans: Building permit, NOC from authorities like (RTA, DEWA), Drawings, contract, trade license.

Q76) For G+3 buildings in Dubai usually ______ foundation is used.

A: Mat foundation B: strip footing C: pile foundation D: Isolated footing

Q77) As per DM, tall buildings are those of minimum ______ meter height measured from ground.

A: 50m B: 70m C: 40m D: 60m

Q78) Which test is done before casting the concrete in dubai?

A: slump test B: temperature test C: cubes test D: Both A and B

Q79) The formwork of columns can be removed after _____

A: 3 days B: 7 days C: 4 days D: 1 day

Q80) After 7 days of compressive strength test of cubes, what is the minimum value should be
accepted

A: 40% B: 50% C: 60% D: 65%

Q81) SRC concrete is used in the construction in _____

A: Piling work B: direct contact with soil C: contact with water D: In All circumstances A,B,C

Q82) Workability of concrete is measured by ____

A: thermometer B: mould C: smidth hammer D: slump cone

Q83) The initial setting time of normal cement concrete is _____

A: 60 minutes B: 2 hours C: 10 hours D: 30 minutes

Q84) What is the standard size of cubes taken for compressive strength test?

A: 50x50mm B: 100x100mm C: 200x200mm D: 150x150mm

Q85) Why polythene sheet is used under the footing of buildings?

A: to stop water seepage B: to make the footing strong C: to avoid evaporation D: None

Q86) If the 28 days result of the cubes compressive test is not satisfactory than what to do?

A: Do smidth test B: no need again C: make new cubes D: take core samples

Q87) We provide strap beams in foundation or footing to avoid ______

A: cracks B: crushing C: settlement D: overturning

Q88) The design of strap beam shows that the reinforcement is more in the _____

A: bottom B: mid C: Top D: All same

Q89) After how many days can we remove the shuttering of 3.75mx4.75m room slab?

A: 14 days B: 7 days C: 28 days D: 10 days

Q90) Expansion joints are provided in big structure to avoid ____

A: sound effect B: Earth quake effect C: wind effect D: thermal effect or cracks

Q91) Tests for bearing capacity of soil used is/are _____

A: plate load test B: SPT C: cone penetration D: All

Q92) In Cantilever beam the tension side is the _____

A: bottom B: mid C: face D: top

Q93) Which test is used to determine the bearing capacity of piles?

A: Dynamic formula B: static formula C: pile load test D: All

Q94) For plastering the exposed blocks wall, the mortar should be of ratio____

A: 1:2 B: 1:3 C: 1:5 D: 1:4

Q95) The doors used in residential buildings should be fire rated up to _____

A: MI30 B: Mi100 C: MI120 D: MI60

Q96) The finished surface of flat roof should have a slope of _____ for effective drainage.

A: 1 in 5 B: 1 in 30 C: 1 in 10 D: 1 in 20

Q97) For stairs the sum of tread and rise must lie between _____mm

A: 300-350 B: 300-500 C: 600-650 D: 400-450 mm

Q98) The horizontal member for supporting common rafter in sloping roof is ____

A: cleat B: batten C: strut D: purlin

Q99) The bearing capacity of water logged soil can be improved by ____

A: compacting the soil B: depth increase C: grouting D: draining the soil

Q100) The compaction of concrete is necessary to _____

A: avoid honeycomb B: remove air C: remove water D: Both A and B

Q101) Bulk density of aggregate depends upon ____

A: shape B: grading C: compaction D: All of above

Q102) Slump test of concrete is measure of its ____

A: compressive strength B: tensile strength C: impact value D: consistency

Q103) Water to cement ratio is _____ of water to that of cement.

A: volume B: weight C: strength D: none

Q104) concrete beam sides shuttering are removed minimum after ____

A: 2 days B: 3 days C: 7 days D: 1 day

Q105) Durability of concrete means that concrete _____

A: has more strength

B: has high creep value

C: get stronger with time

D: is less brittle

Q106) The bulk density of aggregate is generally expressed as ____

A: Tons/m3 B: Kg/m3 C: kg/litr D: g/cm3

Q107) Allowable shear strength of concrete depends upon ____

A: tensile strength B: compressive strength C: shear strength D: none

Q108) Depth of slab depend upon _____

A: deflection B: modulus of elasticity C: modification factor D: none

Q109) Workability of concrete depends upon _____

A: water content

B: gradation and admixtures

C: aggregate shape and size

D: All of above

Q110) High temperature _____ the strength of concrete.

A: increase B: no effect C: decrease D: none

Q111) Which of the following is not the characteristic of hard concrete ____

A: brittle B: strong in compression C: weak in tension D: soft

Q112) Fly ash a by product of coal fired electric generating plants is used to partially replaced OPC by _

A: 30% by mass B: 50% by mass C: 10% by mass D: 60% by mass

Q112) The minimum thickness of slab should be ____

A: 200mm B: 250mm C: 125mm D: 100mm

Q113) The ratio of larger span to shorter span for the one way slab is ___
A: less than 2 B: 2 C: 3 D: greater than 2

Q114) Open stirrups are provided principally to resist ____ forces in concrete beams.

A: flexure B: bending C: shear D: punching

Q115) U-shaped stirrups are placed in the ____ side of beams in which shear cracks would occur.

A: compression B: both C: tension D: none

Q116) The density of wood is ______kg/m3

A: 7800 B: 2500 C: 700 D: 1500

Q117) Workability of concrete can be checked by ____

A: by pouring in cone and measure the flow B: fill moulds C: hammer D: none

Q118) To resist the sides earth soil fall, type of wall used is _____

A: Bearing wall B: shear wall C: block wall D: retaining wall

Q119) The members which support covering material of a sloping roof are ___

A: purlins B: battens C: struts D: Rafters

Q120) A wooden block hinged on post outside a door is known as ____

A: stop B: horn C: cleat D: none

Q121) The window which is provided in flat roof of a room is known as ___

A: dormer window B: louvered C: sky window D: Lantern

Q122) Weep holes are provided in retaining and breast walls to ___

Ans. To drain off the water from the filling.

Q123) Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for ___

A: coastal regions B: plain regions C: covering large areas D: all

Q124) The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to ___

A: 10 B: 15 C: no limit D: 12

Q125) A pre-stressed concrete pile is ____

A: easy to handle B: lighter in weight C: durable D: All of above

Q126) The depth of an arc is the distance between ____

Ans. Intrados and extrados

Q127) Depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of wall footing is kept___

A: 10cm B: 15cm C: equal to its projection beyond wall base D: none

Q128) For effective drainage, the finished surface of flat roof should have a minimum slope of ___

A: 1 to 50 B: 1 to 10 C: 1 to 5 D: 1 to 20

Q129) For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be ____

A: 1:2 B: 1:3 C: 1:6 D: 1:4

Q130) The Auger boring method is not suitable for _______

A: very hard soil B: cemented soil C: very soft soil D: All

Q131) The ceiling height of a building is ____

Ans. Between ceiling and floor level.

Q132) To ensure that supporting area of an offset footing of a boundary wall is fully compressive, the
Centre of gravity of load must act ____

Ans. Within the middle third of the base

Q133) The vertical faces of a door opening which support frame of the door are _____

A: posts B: styles C: reveals D: jambs

Q134) In corridor floors outward slope is ____

A: 1 in 40 B: 1 in 50 C: 1 in 70 D: 1 in 60

Q135) The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making ____

Ans. Heat insulation and sound insulation both.

Q136) The member which is placed horizontally to support common rafter of sloping roof is ___

A: cleat B: batten C: strut D: purlins

Q137) Safe bearing capacity of black cotton soil varies from ____

Ans. 5 to 7.5 T/m2

Q138) The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel column is ____

A: raft foundation B: well foundation C: isolated D: Grillage foundation

Q139) The raft slab is projected beyond the outer walls of the structure by ____

Ans. 30 to 45cm

Q140) The projections of head or sill of a door or window frame are _____

A: Transoms B: stops C: chocks D: Horns

Q141) You are asked to design and supervise a truss for a factory to have spans 6-9m. the type of truss
you will use is _____
Ans. King post truss

Q142) The line of intersection of two surfaces of a sloping roof forming an internal angle less than 1800

Is known as ____

A: Ridge B: hip C: rafter D: valley

Q143) The vertical sides of a door and window openings provided in a wall are known as ___

A: verticals B: reveals C: lintel D: jambs

Q144) In soil of low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided is ____

A: Column footing B: Grillage footing C: raft footing D: All

Q145) The concrete slump recommended for beams and slab is ____

Ans. 30 to 125mm

Q146) If depth of excavation is 20m, number of single stage well points to be installed at various levels _

A: 2 B: 4 C: 5 D: 3

Q147) shear reinforcement or stirrups in beams are provided to resist____

A: horizontal shear B: vertical shear C: diagonal compression D: diagonal tension

Q148) If the shear stress in a RCC beam is _____

A: equal or less than 5kg/cm2 no shear steel is provided

B: greater than 4 kg/cm2 but less than 20 kg/cm2 shear steel is provided

C: greater than 20 kg/cm2, the size of the section is changed.

D: All of above

Q149) Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam follows ____

Ans. A parabolic curve

Q150) in pre-stressed member it is advisable to use _____

Ans. High strength concrete and high tensile steel bars

Q151) In simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at ____

Ans. 1/7th of the Span.

Q152) Density of wood is ______kg/m3

Ans. 1500 kg/m3

Q153) A cantilever beam subjected to point load at free end than the slope at fixed end is ___

Ans. Zero at fixed end. Deflection is Pl3/3EI

Q154) In cantilever beam the deflection occurs only at ____

Ans. Free end

Q155) The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6

Q156) The bottom or lowermost horizontal part of a window frame is known as ____

Ans. The Sills

Q157) A construction joint is provided where ____

Ans. Bending moment is less and shear force is small.

Piling questions
Q1) The percentage of piles should be tested by static load method is _____as Per DM.

A: 5% B: 15% C: 4% D: 1%

Q2) The percentage of piles should be tested by dynamic test is ____

A: 15% B: 10% C: 20% D: 5%

Q3) The percentage of piles should be tested by integrity test is ____

A: 15% B: 20% C: 50% D: 100%

Q4) Type of piles used in case of high water table is ____

Ans. Secant Piles

Q5) Concrete clear cover for piles used is ____

75 to 100mm. minimum is 75mm.

Q6) The minimum spacing between piles is ____

Ans. 2.5D where D is diameter of pile maximum spacing is 3.5D

Q7) The lapping length used for piles is ____

Ans. 50d where d is diameter of steel bars

Q8) Pile foundation are suitable for ____

A: soft rocks B: compact soils C: multi storey buildings D: water logged soil

Q9) Engineering Formula for obtaining safe bearing capacity of the pile for drop hammer is ___
Ans: Q= Wh/6(S+2.5)

Q10) The pile which is provided with a bulb filled with concrete at its lower end is known as ___

A: simplex pile B: franki pile C: Raymond pile D: Mac Arthur pile

Q11) The bearing capacity of piles is determined by ____

A: dynamic formula B: static formula C: pile load test D: All

Q12) The additional piles which are driven to increase the capacity of supporting loads on vertical piles
are known as ____

Ans. Raking piles

Q116) prepare I beam sections, ribbed slab sections, punching shear failure pictures, heavy equipment
picture, maximum water absorption in blocks and bricks, rain water collecting tank pictures, combined
footing with eccentric load sections, beam with both ends free of moment is simply supported beam.

G+12 and G+ Unlimited Exam Questions for Dubai Municipality

Q1) Why are vibrators not used in piles concrete during casting for compaction?

A: concrete of pile is of high strength

B: compaction is not necessary in concrete

C: the concrete is of high slump and is self compacting

D: vibrators are not allowed

Q2) As per DM the most suitable technique for deep compaction used in Dubai is ____

A: soil removal B: vertical drains C: grouting D: vibro compaction

Q3) Vibro compaction is the dynamic process used to reduce the volume of soil by ____

A: removing soil B: replacing soil C: adding stone columns D: expelling air

Q4) The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join 2 footing is called ___

A: strip footing B: combined C: raft D: strap

Q5) Pile foundation is suitable for _____ soils.

A: Soft rocky soil B: compact soil C: multi storey building D: water logged soil

Q6) The compaction of concrete in the drilled pile hole is done by compressed air in case of ___

A: Franki pile B: vibro pile C: simplex pile D: pressure pile

Q7) The minimum depth of foundation or footing in case of clay soil is ___

A: 1m B: 0.7m C: 1.2m D: 0.9m

Q8) Generally the bearing capacity of granite is _____ Kg/cm2

A: 5-10 B: 40-45 C: 15-20 D: 30-35

Q9) The form work including the props can be removed from beams minimum after ____ days

A: 3 days B: 7 C: 21 D: 14 days

Q10) The pile which supports the load partly by friction and partly by resting on hard strata is ___

A: friction pile B: bearing pile C: rough pile D: friction bearing pile

Q11) The function of the grouting in post tensioning tendons is to _____

A: Protect the tendons from corrosion

B: make the slab more strong

C: provide bond between tendons and the concrete

D: Both A and C are correct

Q12) The minimum thickness of post tensioning slab is _______

A: 15cm B: 120mm C: 300mm D: 20cm

Q13) The stressing of post tensioning cables in Dubai is done after _____ days

A: 3 days B: 10 days C: 21 days D: 7 days

Q14) The first layer of the block masonry in buildings walls should be ____

A: Thermal block B: hollow blocks C: ACC block D: Solid blocks

Q25) The dewatering techniques used in Dubai for disposing water from construction site ____

A: Bypass B: Flood control C: deepwells D: Both Wellpoint and deepwells

Q26) For non-cohesive soil like silty sand which dewatering technique is suitable?

A: deepwells B: Flood control C: Bypass D: Well point system

Q27) In prestressed concrete beams, the loss is due to which of the following?

A: Elastic shortening B: shrinkage of concrete C: relaxation of steel D: All

Q28) When the prestress is transferred to concrete in pre-tensioned concrete, the member shortens
and the prestressing steel _______ in it.

A: stressed B: increase in length C: remain same D: shortens

Q29) The main purpose of providing pour strip in post tensioning slab in Dubai is ____

A: to stress tendons easily B: to separate slabs C: water flow D: control elastic shortening

Q30) What is the value of poisson ratio for concrete of Pt slab?

A: 0.3 B: 0.4 C: 0.25 D: 0.2

Q31) The maximum allowable settlement in the raft foundation is ______

A: 30mm B: 25mm C: 40mm D: 50mm

Q32) As the column height in RCC building increase, the reinforcement _______

A: increase B: no change C: size of column increase D: decrease

Q33) In a 3 storey building, the live load of upper floors is taken by _______

A: beams and column of first floor B: beams only C: first slabs D: column only

Q34) The final setting time of normal cement concrete is _______

A: 5 hours B: 3 hours C: 7 hours D: 10 hours

Q35) The modulus of elasticity for concrete element is ______

A: 4700xfc’ B: 57000xfc’ C: 5700x(fc’)0.5 D: 4700x(fc’)0.5

Q36) As per ACI code, what is the maximum deflection for horizontal member due to live load is ___

A: L/100 B: L/240 C: L/360 D: L/180

Q37) The effect of liquefaction on the soil ______

A: Settlement B: land sliding C: loss of lateral stiffness D: All

Q38) The effective length K factor for column with both ends fixed is _____

A: 2 B: 0.5 C: 1.5 D: 0.65

Q39) When the mixture is mixed in the plant the time should not be less than ____

A: 10s B: 20s C: 30s D:50s

Q40) For heavily reinforced concrete members the nominal maximum size of aggregate shall be ____

A: 20mm B: 10mm C: 15mm D: 5mm

Q41) The strength of normal concrete primarily depends upon the _____

A: Workability B: Aggregate ratio C: cement content D: W/c ratio

Q42) In massive structures like Corewall, concrete should be placed in _____

A: Edge layers B: Longitudinal layers C: Horizontal layers D: place all in one time

Q43) In the case of horizontal shallow beams, concrete should preferably deposited starting from___

A: Edge of span B: outer portion of span C: inner portion D: Centre of span

Q44) The maximum area of tension steel in beams shall not exceed ____

A: 2% B: 1% C: 1.5% D: 4%

Q45) We should not use longitudinal reinforcement bars in column less than 12mm ______

A: to avoid cracks B: avoid crush C: we can use 10mm D: due to buckling

Q46) The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a prestressed member is _____ Kg/cm2

A: 50 B: 150 C: 250 D: 350

Q47) The number of treads in a flight of stairs is equal to _____

A: risers in flight B: riser plus 2 C: riser plus 1 D: riser minus 1

Q48) For initial estimate of non-cantilever beam design the width is taken as ______

A: 1/15th of Span B: Span/20 C: Span/10 D: Span/30

Q49) The formwork from the roof slabs excluding props can be removed only after _____

A: 3 days B: 7 days C: 21 days D: 14 days

Q50) In fumigation process for the timber truss is cover with chemicals in tablets form for ____

A: 3 days B: 48 hours C: 12 hours D: 24 hours

Consultants or Structural Engineer Exam

Q1) The piossons Ration for structural steel is _____

A: 0.2 B: 0.4 C: 0.5 D: 0.3

Q2) As per DM rules the minimum additional loads to be taken from sides for design shoring is
_____KN/m2
A: 15 B: 10 C: 25 D: 20

Q3) What is the maximum vertical defection for cantilever steel structural is ___ As per BS 5950

A: L/360 B: L/200 C: L/100 D: L/180

Q4) The effective length factor Ky for column with both ends pinned is____

A: 2 B: 0.8 C: 2.1 D: 1

Q5) The Modulus of elasticity for structural steel is _____ N/mm2

A: 250,000 B: 270,000 C: 290,000 D: 210,000

Q6) The yield strength of ASTM A36 steel is _____ MPa

A: 200 B: 3600 C: 36 D: 250

Q7) The column with large radius of gyration is ______

A: easy to fail in buckling

B: easy to fail in crushing

C: hard to fail in buckling

D: no relation with buckling

Q8) If d is the distance between flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not
greater than _____

A: d B: 1.25d C: 1.75d D: 1.5d

Q9) The yield strength of ASTM A516 Grade 60 steel is ______N/mm2

A: 200 B: 250 C: 516 D: 265

Q10) When a large value of radius of gyration is not required than ____

A: Channels are placed back to back

B: channel flanges are kept outward

C: Channel flanges are kept inward

D: none of them

Q11) As per DM rules, the average compressive stress under working loads shall not exceed ____ of
the design cube strength of the pile concrete at 28 days.

A: 20% B: 50% C: 35% D: 25%

Q12) Mechanical splice (min. 50d) may be used after demonstration to the site engineer that the
splice can develop _____ of the specified yield strength of the bars.
A: 50% B: 100% C: 150% D: 125%

Q13) The correct lapping location in beams of heavy load slab is ____

A: mid in top and bottom

B: middle in bottom and near support at top bars.

C: extreme middle third in top and at support in bottom

D: anywhere

Q14) The lap in the RCC column in 3 storey buildings is provided in ____ of column.

A: near slab B: near bottom C: extreme middle third D: center

Q15) In offshore projects, piles can be driven down to a maximum of _____ meter.

A: 90m B: 100m C: 200 D: 150m

Q16) The maximum deflection for cantilever beam under uniformly distributed load is ____

A: PL3/48EI B: PL3/3EI C: wL2/2 D: WL4/8

Q17) As per DM requirement, the modification factor for post tensioning slab is ____

A: 0.35 B: 0.25 C: 0.7 D: 0.5

Q18) As per DM requirements, the maximum angle of excavation is ___

A: 30 B: 35 C: 45 D: 400

Q19) As per DIN 1048 standards, water penetration at 28 days test should not exceed max of ____

A: 5mm B: 7mm C: 15mm D: 10mm

Q20) As per ASTM C1202, the rapid chloride penetration at 28 days test for RCC piles should not
exceed maximum of ____ Coulombs.

A: 700 B: 1500 C: 1000 D: 1200

Q21) As per ACI 318-14 the maximum allowable of elongation in post tensioning tendons is ____

A: 5% B: 3% C: 10% D: 7%

Q22) If d is the depth of PT slab than maximum spacing for the pt tendons as per ACI 318-05 is ___

A: 5d or 5ft B: 10d or 5ft C: 7d or 7ft D: 7d or 5ft

Q23) Which test is required for piles during construction _____

A: Dynamic test B: sonic test C: integrity test D: All

Q24) The minimum diameter of spiral shear links used for piles steel as per DM rules is ____
A: 6mm B: 8mm C: 10mm D: 12mm

Q25) The maximum acceptable settlement for the piles under working loads is ____

A: 12mm B: 10mm C: 25mm D: 8mm

Q26) The area of main reinforcement bars for piles shall not be less than ____ of sectional Area.

A: 2% B: 3% C: 1.5% D: 1%

Q27) Percent elongation of steel reinforcement is a measure of _______

A: toughness B: strength C: weakness D: ductility

Q28) The percent Elongation of mild steel is given by the _____

Answer. % Elongation= ((final gage length - initial gage length)/initial gage length)x100

= ( ΔL/L)x100

Q29) Which tests are performed on steel reinforcement before use?

A: Tensile test B: bending test C: compression test D: All

Q30) The minimum acceptable value in case of high strength reinforcement is ___ N/mm2

A: 250 B: 360 C: 550 D: 460

Q31) Which of the following is the correct bending moment diagram for the given beam.

Answer. Loads will be given so you have to fing shear force and bending moment values and plot.

Q32) Which of the following is the correct section of the given cantilever beam?
Answer. You have to look carefully to all the beams section and select the most correct one.

Q33) Soft storey effect occurs if the lateral stiffness of a storey is less than ______ of the above storey.

A: 25% B: 30% C: 50% D: 70%

Q34) Weak storey effect occurs if the storey strength is less than _____ of the above storey.

A: 40% B: 50% C: 70% D: 80%

Q35) If the building seismic period is less than 0.7, the Delta m shall not exceed ____ x storey height

A: 0.01 B: 0.02 C: 0.05 D: 0.025

Q36) Base shear is an estimate of the maximum expected lateral force that will occur due to seismic
ground motion at the ____ of the structure.
A: side B: mid storey C: foundation D: base

Q37) As per DM requirement, the minimum additional loads to be taking from the sikka for design
shoring is ______KN/m2

A: 20 B: 30 C: 10 D: 15

Q38) For steel structural cantilever beam with length L, the maximum deflection as per BS 5950 is ___

A: L/200 B: L/360 C: L/150 D: L/180

Q39) The allowable strength of grade 50 steel when the thickness t is less than or equal to 16mm is___

A: 450 N/mm2 B: 460 N/mm2 C: 290 N/mm2 D: 355 N/mm2

Q40) In case of built-up section As per DM requirements, the min thickness of steel plate is to be ____

A: 10mm B: 8mm C: 4mm D: 6mm

Q41) The ultimate deflection for steel structure due to live loads As per DM rules is ____

A: L/150 B: L/200 C: L/250 D: L/360

Q42) The allowable deflection for exterior walls with flexible finishes due to wind load is ____

A: L/240 B: L/600 C: L/360 D: L/120

Q43) If you have residential building G+5 existing and you want to add one more floor what step will
you follow for check?

Ans. These 4 steps are important.

A: Check soil capacity according new loads

B: take sample for core test

C: redesign foundation according to new fuc

D: redesign the column according to new loads

Q44) What is the slenderness limit for braced short column as per BS 110?

Ans. λ > 15 for long and λ < 15 for short.

Q45) Liquefaction factor is seen in ____ during earth quack.

A: concrete B: foundation C: water D: soil

Q46) Which of the following system is used for resisting lateral loads in Rcc buildings?

A: Bearing wall B: dual system or shear wall C: moment resisting frame D: All

Q47) Storey drift ratio is the storey drift divided by the storey____
A: Length B: lateral load C: span D: height

Q48) What forces cause drift in high rise buildings ?

A: wind B: gravity loads C: Earthquake D: Both A & C

Q49) What is the modification factor for cracked wall as per ACI ____

A: 0.7 B: 0.25 C: 0.5 D: 0.35

Q50) Modification factor for Post tension slab is _____

A: 0.35 B: 0.25 C: 0.7 D: 0.5

Q51) The maximum deflection of simply supported beam under distributed load is ____

A: PL3/48EI B: PL3/3EI C: PL3/384EI D: 5wL4/48EI

Q52) A cantilever beam is loaded at the far end by 100 N load and length is 10m the maximum
bending moment produced is ____

A: 2KNm B: 10KNm C: 0.1KNm D: 1KNm

Q53) The dynamic analysis is performed for irregular buildings of storey above ____

A: 10m B: 15m C: 25m D: 19.8m

Q54) The toe depth of pile with respect to diameter of pile in the rock soil is ___

A: 3D B: 1D C: 5D D: 2D

Q55) Maximum storey drift ΔM for time period T < 0.7sec is ____

Ans. ΔM= 0.7xRxΔS > 0.025H

Q56) The maximum vertical reinforcement in columns in case of overlap is ___

A: 8% B: 5% C: 1% D: 4%

Q57) The maximum deflection for piles as per DM rules is ____

A: 10% B: 5% C: 0.1% D: 1%

Q58) The maximum length anchors in shoring system as per DM requirements is ___

A: 7m B: 5m C: 15m D: 10m

Q59) The effect of liquefaction on soil due to EQ load is ____

A: land sliding B: loss of stiffness C: loss of Bearing Capacity D: All

Q60) The minimum between piles as per DM requirements in terms of diameter is ___

A: 1D B: 2D C: 1.5D D: 2.5D
Q61) The value of wind load used for design of normal residential building if speed is 70mi/hr ___

Ans: F= PxA Φs= 0.613 N/m2 A=50m2(given)

P= Ce x Cd x Φs x Iw

P=0.84x1.05x42.91x1

P=37.84 N/m2

F=37.84x50=1892 N load is taken for design

Q62) New buildings in Dubai of 10 floors or more will be built to withstand forces created by
Earthquake Of up to a magnitude ______

A: 7 B: 4 C: 3 D: 5.9

Q63) The Dubai municipality has announced that buildings taller than 10 floors as well as schools and
hospitals should withstand Earthquake of magnitude ____

Ans. 5 - 5.9 (zone 2B)

Q64) Burj Khalifa tower can withstand wind speed upto ____ Km/hr

A: 100 B: 200 C: 140 D: 160

Q65) In steel structures Bolts A325, A449 and A490 Are _____ bolts.

A: low strength B: medium strength C: low carbon D: high strength

Q66) Which of the following is not the US bolt grade?

A: 2 B: 5 C: 8 D: 3

Q67) A325 bolt is made of medium carbon steel and its tensile strength ___ with increase in dia.

A: increase B: remain same C: first increase than decrease D: decrease

Q68) The maximum tensile strength of ASTM A36 steel is ____ MPa

A: 250 B: 300 C: 460 D: 550

Q69) As per BS 4360, the allowable strength for 16mm thick grade 55 steel plate is ____MPa

A: 275 B: 550 C: 375 D: 450

Q70) Bolts are designed to resist failure in ____

A: shearing B: bearing C: tearing D: All

Q71) The minimum spacing for bolts as per BS 5950 is ____

Ans: the spacing a along long direction a>=2.5d and short direction b>=2.5d

Q72) The minimum distance between piles as per DM requirements is ____

A: 1D B: 2D C: 3D D: 2.5D

Q73) The minimum distance between ground anchors in shoring system is ____

Ans: 1.2m

Q74) The minimum and maximum length of ground anchors for shoring system is ___

Ans: 3m and 10m respectively.

Q75) The maximum angle of excavation as per DM rules is _____

Ans. 40 degree.

Q76) The minimum angle of excavation is ____

Ans. 25 degree. Mostly used is 35 degrees.

New Question in 2022 for G+1 & G+4 steel contracting

Q1. W/C is mix of ______

Ans. Water to cement ratio with respect to weight.

Q2. Minimum days to deshutter the beam sides ____

A: 1 B: 3 C: 7 D: 14

Q3) Cube test is taken for or done for ____

Ans. To determine the compressive strength of concrete.

Q4) Water content increase in concrete than ______?

Ans. Compressive strength of concrete decrease while the workability increase.

Q5) Adding admixtures in concrete_____?

A: increase durability B: reduce segregation C: increase workability D: All

They also help in frost resistance and sulfate resistance.

Q6) Curing of concrete is _____?

Ans. Adding adequate water while concrete is gaining strength or keeping concrete moisture to allow
the hydration reaction.

Q7) HEA 280B height is ______? H= 270 W=280 see the table for full understanding.

A: 300 B: 270 C: 400 D: 280

Q8) Ub 533x210 height is ____? 533

Ans. 533 inches is the height or depth and 210 is width.

Q9) UPN is ?

Ans. Channels

Q10. HEA which standard?

Ans. European standard steel beams.

Q11) 205x205x97 weight per m?

Ans. 97 kg/m

Q12) Yield strength of grade 60 steel?

Ans. 60000 pounds per square inch or 420 Mpa

Q13) Yield strength of grade 60 steel 16mm?

Ans. 60000 pounds per square inch or 420 Mpa

Q14) Yield strength of grade43(S275 new name) steel 63mm?

Ans. 255 N/mm2 while for grade50 is 335 N/mm2

Q15) Eave connection between?

Ans. Column and beam

Q16) Allowable sway in column with full block work while wind force?

Ans. H/400 to H/500. Mostly used h/500

Q17) Vertical deflection of floors members for DL+LL?

Ans. Span/240 or L/240

Q18) When large radius of gyration is not required?

Ans. Channel flanges are kept inward.

Q19) Plate girders outside Flange t is?

Ans. 16t

Q20) Minimum thickness of plate in PreEngineering?

Ans. 6mm

Q21) Battern plates?

Ans. Are steel plates uniting the angles or flanges of composite girders, columns or strut.

Q22) Laced strut design when?

Ans. Rx>Ry means when there is eccentric load to carry.

Q23) Compressive forces acting and member of longitudinal support named?

A: Column B: strut C: post D: stanchion E: All

Q24) Horizontal forces transverse to rails for electric operated cranes?

Ans. 10% of the vertical load.

Q25) Minimum inclination?

Ans. 20 degrees

Q26) HE 300B width is ?

Ans. B=300 and h= 300

Q27) Column moulds deshuttering time after casting concrete?

A: 2 days B: 5 days C: 7 days D: 10 days

Q28) Footing deshuttering time?

A: 3 days B: 7 days C: 5 days D: 1 day

Q29) Water content increase in concrete, compressive strength will?

Ans. Decrease

Q30) Allowable temperature of concrete while casting?

A: 28C B: 30 C: 36 D: 32C0

Q31) In super structure concrete, which type of cement is used?

Ans. OPC

Q32) In sub structure concrete, which cement is used?

Ans. SRC(sulfate resisting cement)

Q33) Column clear cover for below ground level?

A: 15mm B: 100mm C: 50mm D: Any one

Q34) 533x210x122 weight per meter?

A: 533 B: 210 C: 122 D: 500

Q35) Apex connection is in between?

A: beam & beam B: beam & column C: column & column D: anywhere

Q36) Two equal wheel loads act where maximum bending moment?

A: L/4 B: L/3 C: near support D: L/2

Q37) A36 118 kn.M than which beam is safe?

A: 500 B: 700 C: 900 D: 3200 (the greater the section modulus the safer the beam)

Q38) Which of the following is weld test method?

A: LPI B: magnetic test C: ultrasonic sound test D: All

Q39) Tie beam cover below ground level is?

Ans. 50mm

Q40) Batten plate height or depth?

A: 4 times of width B: 6 times of t C: 23 times of width D: 2 times of width

Q41) RHS is which hollow section?

Ans. Rectangular hollow section

Q42) UPN is?

A: beam section B: column section C: I beam D: channel section

Q43) Grade50 yield strength for 16mm plate?

A: 335 B: 275 C: 235 D: 355

Q44) Impact load for crane girders for electric operated crane is?

Ans. 25% of the vertical load.

Q45) The effective length of Simply supported beam restrained against torsion and flanges restrain
partially against lateral bending is ?

A: L B: 0.75L C: 0.7L D: 0.85L

Q46) intermediate vertical stiffeners in plate girder need to be provided if the depth of web exceeds?

A: 50t B: 100t C: 200t D: 85t

Q47) The effective length of a battened column is increased by?

A: 20% B: 15% C: 5% D: 10%

Q48) For a cantilever beam of length L built in at the support and restrained against torsion at the free
end, the effective length is?

A: 0.5L B: 2L C: 0.7L D: 0.75L

Q49) For a cantilever beam of length L continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at
the support and free end , the effective length is?

Ans. 3L

Q50) The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in
direction at both ends is?
Ans. 0.67L

Recent Exam G+12 and Unlimited in 2022

Q1) Tops of all piles shall be embedded at least ______ in concrete pile cap.

A: 150mm B: 100mm C: 125mm D: 75mm

Q2) The distance between the center of gravity of compression and center of gravity of tension of the
steel beams is called ______

A: Overall depth B: clear depth C: total depth D: Effective depth

Q3) In plate girder bending moment is primarily resisted by _____

A: Web Plate B: flange angle C: Flange plate D: All

Q4) Horizontal stiffeners are used in girders to prevent web buckling due to ____

A: bending B: shear C: point load D: diagonal cracks

Q5) Vertical stiffeners are used in plate girders to prevent web buckling due to ___

A: buckling B: load C: moment D: shear

Q6) Bearing stiffeners are used to prevent deformation against large_____

A: bending B: moment C: shear D: pointed loads.

Q7) The maximum allowable lateral displacement of the shoring system is ___

A: 20mm B: 30mm C: L/180 D: 40mm

Q8) The maximum deflection of shoring if the road is away more than 5m is ___

A: 30mm B: 25mm C: 50mm D: 40mm.

Q9) The Maximum deflection of shoring system if the road is adjacent or less than 5m ___

A: 25mm B: 20mm C: 40mm D: 30mm.

Q10) The minimum spacing of anchors in shoring system is ____

A: 1m B: 3m C: 1.5m D: 1.2m.

Q11) Maximum grout length for anchors in shoring is _____

A: 3m B: 5m C: 7m D: 10m.

Q12) The minimum depth of unplanned excavation for shoring system as per DM is ____

A: 1m B: 2m C: 3m D: 0.5m.

Q13) If the soil type is less firm and need water to retain than ____ piles are used in shoring.
A: Contiguous piles B: sheet C: secant D: any one

Q14) The correct statement about secant piles and contiguous piles is that____

A: All secant piles are having reinforcement

B: Contiguous piles are overlapped

C: Secant Piles are overlapped

D: None of above

Q15) If all the piles of the building foundations are of 75cm diameter than static load test is required
for _____ percent of the piles.

A: 2% B: 3% C: 5% D: 1%.

Q16) dynamic load test is required for _____ % of the piles in the foundation.

A: 1% B: 2% C: 100% D: 5%.

Q17) Sonic test for piles is required for at least _____ %

A: 1% B: 2% C: 5% D: 10%.

Q18) Integrity test is required for at least _____% of all the piles.

A: 10% B: 20% C: 50% D: 100%.

Q19) The minimum steel bars required in pile design to achieve the ductility As per DM is _____

A: 5% B: 3% C: 1% D: 0.5%

Q20) The minimum steel bars diameter for main steel and stirrups for piles are____

A: 10mm,8mm B: 10mm,10mm C: 16mm,12mm D: 12mm,10mm

Q21) The minimum pile spacing as per DM rules is _____

A: 1.5D B: 2D C: 3D D: 2.5D

Q22) The maximum out of position allowed for piles is _____

A: 7mm B: 25mm C: 50mm D: 75mm.

Q23) The Maximum limit for crack width due to tension load for tension piles is ____

A: 0.1mm B: 0.5mm C: 0.3mm D: 0.2mm

Q24) Cross hole sonic logging test is usually done if the diameter and length of piles is ___

A: 1m,15m B: 1.5m,20m C: 75cm, 20m D: 1m, 20m

Q25) Which of the following is not the grade of bolt used?(mostly repeated question)

A: 5.6 B: 8.8 C: 10.9 D: 6.6

Q26) the overall lateral deflection for the building due to wind pressure shall not exceed ____

A: H/300 B: H/400 C: H/500 H/600

Q27) the limit for inter storey lateral drift due to wind force is _____

Ans: H/400 to H/600

Q28) wind tunnel testing is required for the buildings as per DM rule with height more than____

A: 50m B: 90mm C: 100m D: 120m

Q29) In all cases, the designed wind pressure shall not be less than____ KN/m2

A: 2 B: 0.5 C: 1.5 D: 1

Q30) grouting of the PT slab tendons shall be done at least ____ days before removing shuttering.

A: 10 B: 5 C: 3 days D: 14

Q31) water to cement ratio is taken with respect to ____-

A: volume B: density C: weight dimension

Q32) in steel structure Eve connection is between _____

A: columns B: beam to beam C: beam to column D: roof to beam

Q33) Apex connection is between beam and beam.

Q34) solid blocks and blocks for load bearing wall shall have compressive strength not less than___

A: 12N/mm2 B: 10N/mm2 C: 7.5N/mm2 D: 9N/mm2

Q35) Hollow blocks and blocks for non-load bearing wall shall have strength not less than ____ N/mm2

A: 7.5 B: 7 C: 5 D: 6

Q36) the minimum yield strength fy of the Angles used in steel structure as per British standards is
____N/mm2

A: 355 B: 250 C: 300 D: 275

Q37) the recommended minimum thickness of the PT slab as per DM rule is

A: 100mm B: 150mm C: 175mm D: 200mm

Q38) the jacking force to stress the cables shall not exceed ____% of the total tendons tensile strength.

A: 50% B: 60 C: 70 D: 80%

Q39) the wall thickness of the metal duct used in PT slab tendons shall not be less than___

A: 2mm B: 1mm C: 0.5mm D: 0.4mm

Q40) grouts in tendons shall have a strength not less than strength of the concrete at ___ days
A: 3 days B: 7 days C: 14 D: 28 days

Q41) the minimum concrete clear cover for substructure if it has direct contact with soil is ___

A: 50mm B: 65mm C: 100mm D: 75mm

Q42) The concrete used for structural elements shall have compressive strength f’c not less than___

A: 40N/mm2 B: 30N/mm2 C: 28N/mm2 D: 20N/mm2.

Q43) plate girders are considered as shallow if the depth of the plate girder is less than ____

A: 900mm B: 700mm C: 500mm D: 750mm

Q44) the web plate is provided with stiffeners when the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of the web
is greater than _____

A: 58 B: 75 C: 68 D: 85

Q45) web buckling due to shear will not happen ie no need of stiffeners when d/tw<85

Q46) When building is completed than shoring beams are cut at level of ____ in case of adjacent plot.

A: 1m B: 2m C: 3m D: 5m.

Q47) The most common type of shoring system used in UAE is____

A: Secant piles B: sheet piles C: wall D: I beam or soldier piles

Q48) Minimum overlap length between secant piles is_____

A: 25mm B: 50mm C: 75mm D: 100mm

Q49) The maximum angle of excavation is ______degrees

A: 20 B: 25 C: 35 D: 40

Q50) Minimum distance from the edge of plate to the center of bolt is ____

A: 2.5D B: 2D C: 1D D: 1.5D

Q51) The hydrogeological model for dewatering must be prepared for at least ____ below the bottom of
the excavation.

A: 50m B: 40m C: 25m D: 20m

Q52) The permeability is usually measured in units of _____

A: N/m B: N/min C: kg/s D: m/s

Q) Draw shear force diagram for the beam given.(most important diagrams)
G+4 and G+12 Consultants or structural recent exams Questions
Q1) Modulus of elasticity of C45 concrete is?
Ans: 4700 45 =23500 N/mm2 or MPa

Q2) What is the exposure factor of direct sea side building?

Ans. D while C for rural flat terrain, city center A.

Q3) 200KN isolated footing load, 150 MPa is the bearing capacity, the minimum size of the footing is?

Ans. Area of footing is=Service load/Bearing capacity

Minimum area= 200/150=1.33m2

Area required=1.4m2

Q4) Which software is used to design slab floor is______

A: Etabs B: Staad C: Sap2000 D: SAFE

Q5) Software used to design raft foundation is _____

A: Etabs B: Staad C: Sap2000 D: SAFE

Q6) Importance factor for Police station building design is____ As per UBC

A: 1 B: 1.1 C: 1.5 D: 1.25

Q7) Importance factor for Fire station building is _____ per UBC

A: 1 B: 1.5 C: 2 D: 1.25

Q8) Importance Factor for Residential building is _____ per UBC

A: 2 B: 1.5 C: 1.25 D: 1

Q9) If moment is 55 KNm, size of beam is 20x60cm, Fcu is 35, than minimum reinforcement required
in mid span is____

Ans. K=M/fcu x bd2= z=d(0.5+ sqroot of 0.25- fck/0.9)

As= M/0.8x fy x z

Q10) What is the Wind speed used for design of high buildings in 2022 in Dubai is____m/s

A: 45m/s B: 42m/s C: 35m/s D: 38m/s

Q11) AS per DM circular, modulus of elasticity of concrete E is given as _____

Ans: E= 0.043 x (Wc^1.5) x (fc’^0.5) N/mm2 or MPa where Wc is weight of concrete and fc’ strength

Q12) The minimum distance between centers of two piles according to ACI is ____

2.5D while for friction piles it is 3D

Q13) What is the exposure factor for the building in the location in open to sea?

Ans. Open to sea = D

On rural flat terrain = C

In center of city between high rise buildings = A

Q14) What is the zone seismic factors(z) for the zone 2B?

Ans. 2B = 0.2

1 = 0.075

2A= 0.15

4 = 0.4

Q15) What is the long term seismic coefficient cv for zone 2A?

Ans. Zone 2A, Soil profile SD: 0.32

Q16) What is the importance factor I for the following ?

Ans. Hotel=1

Cinema=1

Police station=1.25

Hostel=1

Hospital=1.25

Fire station=1.25

Residential building=1

Q17. What is Factor R for the following structure as per UBC?

Ans. Bearing wall structure with shear walls=4.5

Dual system with shear wall concrete and SMRF=8.5

Building Frame system with concrete shear wall= 5.5

Q18. What is the stiffness modification factor for retaining wall and cracked wall?

Ans. Retaining wall= 0.25 Cracked wall=0.3

Q19) What is the minimum percentage of steel for column as per DM, ACI, and BS8110-1

Ans. 1%, 1%, 0.4% respectively

Q20) What is the maximum allowable deflection for buildings due to lateral load?

Ans. H/500 per storey, H is storey height BS 8110-2

Q21) Where does the Maximum hogging moment occur between 2 columns?

Ans. At supports

Q22) Wind multiplication factor according ASCE?

Ans. 1

Q23) if Fc’ is 35MPa than Fcu?

Ans. 45 (fc’=0.8fcu)

Q24) If Fcu=40N/mm2 than shear stress is?

Ans. 5 N/mm2

Q25) Which of the following statement is correct?

The differentiation of elastic line give bending moment

The differentiation of load give you shear force.

Bending moment is the integration of shear force.

The deflection is the integration of elastic line.

Q26) Yield strength of grade 60 steel is?

Ans. 420 KN/mm2

Q27) Unbraced column may be considered as short as per BS if Le/h is less than___

Ans. 10

Q28) flat slab stiffness modification factor is____

Ans. 0.25

Q29) Grade 37 yield strength is _____

Ans. 240 N/mm2

Q30) Grade 50 plate design yield strength is ____

Ans. 355 N/mm2

Q31) The maximum hogging moment occurs in beams at ____

Ans. Supports

Q32) The steel bars required for 20x70 with moment M= 120 KNm and Fu 35 than ____

Ans. 2Y20 bars needed.

Q33) Ultimate load 1500 KN, SBC 200 MPa, than minimum size of footing is ____

Ans. 2.5x2.5m
Q34) Design moment of the strap beam with eccentricity e=5cm and load 50KN than M____

Ans. 12KNm by using moment equation

Q35) The maximum vertical steel for shear wall with 35cm thickness ____

Ans. Y32@100mm/m
Thank you for reading the book now this up to you how to utilize the complete knowledge for exam.