Tron Bo 60-De-Minh-Hoa-Tieng-Anh-2023-Trang-Anh

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2023

Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class
the previous day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by
salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the
United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull
____ the promise she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had
C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh,
honey, please don't make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern
for the social prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is
B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are
D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in
_______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite
well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was
assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the
world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed
scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business
trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful
weather, the historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team
will be sent out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that
admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one
heard anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of
work per week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be
full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.
Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility
needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and
people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only
option. Others work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions - and
working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some situations, part-time
employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers
do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their part-
time employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific
industries that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____
the factors before deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your
specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it
is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the
USA in 1935. A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North
America and
A B C
half in Canada.
D
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all
close relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between
1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again
in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other
country, and their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II,
Britain and the US supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is
usually the first country to come forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the
union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared
political interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two
countries are very similar. They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature,
films and television. Many Americans have British ancestors, or relatives still living in
Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s, and there are many
Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people
are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power.
The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime
Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special
relationship between Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and
Mademoiselle. It's the message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and
accessory designs, on shopping bags and totes, in advertisements and on price tags.
A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in
Vogue this month, may not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the
pervasiveness of ecological themes in the images and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is
also somewhat paradoxical. The fashion industry, whose driving philosophy involves
encouraging consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is now trying to push itself to
the forefront of efforts to conserve and preserve.
The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations
in designer collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which
the environmental advantages of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy
dangled from the ceiling at a Paris fashion show; a carpet of grass covered a runway in New
York; models marched along in T-shirts or carrying signs all bearing slogans like ''Clean Up
or Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental Protection Agents.
The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where
''clothes with conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and
sportswear company based in New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the
individual's outlook toward saving the environment'' through educational tags. This summer,
the first wave of what Bonjour executives said would be 50 million fashion items a year are
to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from how to save water to how to
reduce pollutants.
Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise
environmental awareness, with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear.
There is some skepticism. Professor Ewen says the new environmental symbolism should be
viewed as part of an overall change in America's economy, from one built on industrial
production of hard goods to one based on ''pure representation”. “Going back to fashion, the
environment has become a commercial cliche separated from real concerns. What can be
attached to this year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental sanity.''
Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The green movement in the fashion world
B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.
C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.
D. Going green is the new big thing.
Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much
of an irony?
A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.
B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.
C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.
D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry.
Question 40: The word “wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green fashion?
A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.
B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.
C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.
D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.
B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the
garments.
C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.
D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.
Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.
Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.
A. You must have told her the truth.
B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.
-----THE END-----
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. confide B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. particular B. electrify C. fashionable D. geneticist
Question 4: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Some English words have the same pronunciation _______ they are spelled
differently, for example, dear and deer.
A. unless B. even though C. even if D. since
Question 6: WHO's objective is ___________ by all people of the highest possible level of
health.
A. attainment B. approach C. advance D. acquisition
Question 7: In 1791, Pierre-Charles L' Enfant ________ plan for the new capital city at
Washington.
A. had submitted B. has submitted C. was submitting D. submitted
Question 8: He did not want __________ his fears and insecurity to anyone.
A. to expose B. to be exposed C. to have exposed D. exposing
Question 9: My brother and his friend, Duong and Son, aged 15 and 16, ___________ won
the first and the third prize in the contest "Nation’s Brain.”
A. each B. respectively C. one by one D. every
Question 10: "You _____________ be thirsty! You've just drunk a lot of water.”
A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. can't D. mustn't
Question 11: The man was innocent; it was a case of mistaken ______________ .
A. identically B. identified C. identity D. identification
Question 12: This book is an __________ of a series lectures given last year.
A. expense B. extension C. addition D. expansion
Question 13: Culture shock is a feeling of confusion and anxiety that someone experiences
________ with a very different culture, especially a different country.
A. as they leave a place and go to another B. while visiting or leaving a place
C. visiting or going to live in a place D. when they visit or go to live in a place
Question 14: The police officer said two of the victims were known gang members; the other
was an innocent __________ .
A. bystander B. stander by C. standing-by D. by-standing
Question 15: This clock is always slow; I put it ___________ ten minutes every morning.
A. back B. up C. forward D. ahead
Question 16: If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a
better job years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 17: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. 0
Question 18: Now that the scandal is in the ______, the Minister will have to resign.
A. string B. offing C. swing D. spring
Question 19: A strong wind spread the flames, __________?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - "Hi. You must be new here." - “_____________“
A. Yes, this is my first day on the job. B. Yes, am you surprised?
C. No, I’m very old here. D. Are you new here, too?
Question 21: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “ ___________ “
A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way. D. You are wrong. It's not here. .
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The architect was let down that his new city plan had been turned down.
A. disappointed B. satisfied C. emotional D. optimistic
Question 23: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 24: Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a reform B. inflation C. an improvement D. a decline
Question 25: When people are angry, they seldom act in a rational way.
A. impolite B. dissatisfied C. unreasonable D. inconsiderate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be
settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
Question 27: In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being great delicacies to
eat.
A B C D
Question 28: Although Mark had been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know how to
prepare
A B
French foods in the traditional manner.
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
Each year thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of
English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves
(29) ________ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living
in an unfamiliar culture. One (30) _____________ these problems is the Homestay method.
With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and
interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student with
information about (31) ______________activities that are available locally, and takes them
on trips. Students get “Between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected
to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore
learn how to use the language in everyday (32) ______________. Homestay programs
usually last for up to four weeks. Although costs are higher than of regular language schools,
students can feel (33) ___________ that they will be receiving top - class language teaching
in a safe and pleasant environment.
Question 29: A. attending B. going C. studying D. learning
Question 30: A. requirement B. answer C. argument D. reaction
Question 31: A. what B. where C. how D. why
Question 32: A. positions B. chances C. situations D. occasions
Question 33: A. confidence B. confidential C. confidently D. confident
Myriad occupational schools in the central coastal city of Da Nang have received just
a small number of applications over the past few years. “Last year we only had 142 new
students, but the number of new enrollees is 50 this school year,” Truong Van Hung, rector of
the Duc Tri Da Nang Vocational College, said, adding the school has set a target of recruiting
1,200 students for the 2014-2015 academic year. “Closing the school is just a matter of time,”
he said.
Similarly, the Viet A Vocational School in Hai Chau District in Da Nang has not
recruited any new enrollee for over one year given the absence of job opportunities for its
graduates. “We do not want to enroll because we cannot help students land jobs after they
graduate,” a leader of Viet A said. “We will only admit new students when we can have a
partnership with companies who can employ our students after they finish their studies.”
Elsewhere, vocational schools in the southern province of Dong Nai are ‘frozen’.
The Dong Nai Information Technology-Telecommunications Vocational School in the
academic year of 2013-2014 enrolled only 82 students compared with a target of 1,000; the
Nhon Trach Industrial Engineering Vocational School only had 200 out of its goal of 600
students for the school year; the 26-3 Vocational School received 150 students while they set
a target of 250; and the South-Eastern Electromechanical Vocational School only recruited
300 out of the 500 students they planned to admit.
The situation means that equipment for training programs at those schools has been
left unused and covered with rust. Local experts have commented that if the lack of
students persists, vocational schools are at high risk of being closed, sooner or later.
(Source: https://tuoitrenews.vn/)
A. Vocational schools in Vietnam struggling to survive.
B. Several principals failing to manage local schools.
C. Students turning their back at tertiary education.
D. More and more teenagers choosing to work.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, what was the attitude of the headmaster of the Duc
Tri Da Nang Vocational College?
A. He regretted not making any effort.
B. He was upset at his own incompetence.
C. He lamented the tragic plight of his school.
D. He was pleased to be able to change schools.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. companies B. students C. studies D. jobs
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the reason for the vocational schools in the
southern province of Dong Nai being ‘frozen’?
A. Because their invested money cannot return.
B. Because they do not have enough students.
C. Because they cannot pay a debt from the land rent.
D. Because the government has suddenly changed the policy.
Question 38: The word “persists” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. withstands B. sustains C. insists D. continues
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and
programmes is increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc
Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2 million people over the age of two with disabilities, making
up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population. Of those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58
per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living in poverty. Most live in rural
areas and many are victims of Agent Orange.
Minister Dung said in the past, the State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid
much care to people with disabilities. Vietnam ratified the United Nations Convention on the
Rights of People with Disabilities in 2014. In March this year, the country ratified the
International Labour Organisation’s Convention 159 about jobs for people with
disabilities. It strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment to ensuring the disabled would not
be discriminated against at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading
work on affairs related to people with disabilities . The National Assembly later ratified the
amended Law on Labour with many adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that
every year, millions of disabled people receive an allowance from the State and all provinces
and cities had rehabilitation centres. Attending the event, Truong Thi Mai, head of the Party
Central Committee’s Commission for Mass Mobilisation, said besides the achievements,
Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still limited in demand for people with
disabilities and many life below the poverty line depending heavily on their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the
meaning of supportive work to people with disabilities. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion
(US$735.4 million) from the State budget was allocated to provinces and cities
to implement policies for people with disabilities, according to the Ministry of Labour,
Invalids and Social Affairs.
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme
“White stick for Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white
sticks to visually impaired people across the country. Training to use the device will also be
provided. Minister of Planning and Investment Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen
to disabled people’s demands and wishes and put them into its policies. Deputy chairwoman
of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam has committed to developing socio-
economy, taking care of social equality and improving social management ability.
(Source: https://vietnamnews.vn/)
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visually impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 40: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian
C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies
towards the disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 43: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
Question 44: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment
have in mind when launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident.
B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind.
D. Improving the overall image of the government.
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare has only gained recognition in recent
years.
B. The handicapped are annually supported by the government financially and
physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
B. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
C. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
D. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
Question 47: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He brought a wet blanket to the party.
B. He was wet through when going home from the party.
C. He made people at the party wet through.
D. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party.
Question 48: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive of Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: He thought he must have made a mistake somewhere. He went through his
calculations again.
A. Thinking he had made a mistake somewhere, he would go through his calculations
again.
B. Thinking he must have made a mistake somewhere, he went through his calculations
again.
C. He went through his calculations again before he went thought of making mistake
somewhere.
D. He thought to have made a mistake somewhere and had gone through his calculations
again.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive B. electronic C. ecology D. individual
Question 3: A. features B. inserts C. reveals D. destroys
Question 4: A. access B. championship C. laborer D. democratic
Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.
A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a
Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with
families.
A. that B. which C. what D. whose
Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an
individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably
Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood
looking for her car.
A. Unable to remember where she was parking B. Unable to remember where she
has parked
C. Forgetting where to park D. Not remembering where she had parked
Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.
A. about B. to C. with D. of
Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.
A. would succeed B. would not have succeeded
C. would not succeed D. could have not succeeded
Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.
A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because
Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ to the
health service.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of women into
the workforce, the transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least
important.
A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable
Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's good
to have a proper ______________ sometimes.
A. head-to-head B. heart-to-head C. heart-to-heart D. head-to-heart
Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8
pm.
A. prime B. leading C. main D. major
Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at home
today.
A. works – is working B. works – works
C. is working – works D. is working – is working
Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that would mean
_______ the house at 6.00.
A. to leave B. having left
C. leaving D. having to be leaving
Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of people all
over the world.
A. is thought to have originated B. is thought to have been originated
C. thought to have originated D. thought to have originated
Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"
Mary: " ______________ "
A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles. B. Three times a week, but sometimes
twice.
C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7. D. Not much, only a couple of
hours every day.
Question 21: John: "___________"
Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."
A. How is your class this term?
B. How many students in your class can speak English?
C. What are you going to do this term?
D. What is the problem with your English students?
Question 22: She said to me that she had just read an interesting book which had a new
approach Shakespeare. A B C D
Question 23: From bones found in the United States, we have learned that many animals
which existed no
A B C
longer in the world once made their homes there.
D
Question 24: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertisings and commercials trying to
persuade the
A B C
public to buy their products.
D
Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage.
They think weddings are money-consuming and nonsensical.
A. do away with B. pay no attention to
C. ignore D. put an end
Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from
understanding and keeping our customs and traditions.
A. no worry about B. feel like
C. get involved in D. are unconcerned about
Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not
related to traditional values and the status.
A. conservational B. progressive C. modern D. economic
An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth.
The astronaut is able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather
challenging as the water droplets will (29)__________ around. The astronaut will also have
to make to do with sponge baths.
There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which
includes beverages and food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximum of three
main meals a day. The meal varies each day until the sixth day. On that day, the menu is
(31)_____________ and the astronaut eats the meals he had on the first day. The food (32)
________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be dehydrated, in natural form for fresh.
Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed pouches. It takes only thirty
minutes to cook a delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space mission.
(33)_________, astronauts have to eat slowly and carefully or the food will float away.
Question 29: A. dive B. fall C. float D. fly
Question 30: A. board B. move C. air D. business
Question 31: A. repetition B. repeatedly C. repeating D. repeated
Question 32: A. what B. that C. whose D. 0
Question 33: A. However B. Moreover C. Instead D. In contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or
magnitude of the quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake
zones, and so the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and
the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire city.
We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will
occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is
now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University
of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a pattern—pressure builds in a zone
and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments
indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based
on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake
hit again, it was years off schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled
deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something.
Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places where the plates
widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great
earthquake does happen in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists
think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)
Question 34: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.
B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.
C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.
D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.
Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means
___________.
A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.
B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger
zones.
C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to
predict.
D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.
Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern
Question 37: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.
B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.
C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.
D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.
Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.
A. Japan and the United States B. Tokai and San Andreas
C. Parkfield and Kato D. California and Tokyo
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in
evolutionary history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out
onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater
with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions,
snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and
various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land,
none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life,
including breathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land
animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned
to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates
might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales
(including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the
manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their
remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air,
having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation.
Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the
water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water
than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor
which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys
quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear
to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can
tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found.
Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with
fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like
dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring
the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
__________.
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the
water least completely?
A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing
to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”
A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him. B. He offered to post the letter for
me.
C. He said I should post the letter myself. D. I wanted him to post the letter for me.
Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.
A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.
B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.
C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.
D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices
Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except
silver, copper and gold.
A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal as
conductors of heat and electricity.
B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.
C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum.
D. Silver, copper and gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and
electricity.
Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.
A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.
B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.
C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.
D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.
Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any
solutions.
A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.
B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.
C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.
D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions
too.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. hostile B. hotel C. hourglass D. honest
Question 2: A. chocolate B. difference C. identity D. vegetable
Question 3: A. meet B. free C. prefer D. repeat
Question 4: A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. roughed
Question 5: Would you care for __________________ cup of tea?
A. other B. more C. one other D. one more
Question 6: John, you know what I feel for you and I’ve told you enough times,
_______________?
A. don’t you B. don’t I C. doesn’t he D. haven’t I
Question 7: To become a good teacher, you have to have such a lot of ________ when
you’re dealing with kids.
A. patient B. patience C. patients D. impatience
Question 8: I think our guests will ________________.
A. be here shortly B. shortly be here C. here be shortly D. here shortly be
Question 9: We have much to ____________ today, so please concentrate.
A. discuss B. discuss about C. discuss over D. discuss with
Question 10: __________________ Tom’s opposition, we would have agreed to the
contract.
A. But for B. If hadn’t it been for C. If it hadn’t had D. Hadn’t it been for
Question 11: _______________, the woman was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired though she is B. She being tired C. Despite being tired D. Though
was tired
Question 12: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, the student left the
classroom.
A. Having been turned off B. Turning off
C. To have turned off D. Having turned off
Question 13: The entire staff was thrown off _______ when the news of the takeover was
announced.
A. stable B. balance C. composure D. disarray
Question 14: Micelle looked really sunburnt. She must have been _______________ in the
sun for long.
A. screening B. wading C. swimming D. bathing
Question 15: When his parents are away for wok, his oldest brother _________.
A. is in the same boat B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. knocks it off
Question 16: I made it quite clear that I had no ________________ of selling the portrait.
A. aim B. intention C. meaning D. purpose
Question 17: By the end of this year, they _____________ on that bridge for more than a
decade.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. have work
Question 18: Most educators today consider computer literacy _________ a necessary
addition to the basic scholastic requirements.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. be
Question 19: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 20: “What’s the best place to have lunch?”
-: “_________________.”
A. I’ll have a soup, please B. There’s a great restaurant at the street corner
C. I usually eat lunch at twelve there D. Twelve would be convenient for us
Question 21: “I’ve got an earache in this ear. I couldn’t sleep last night because it was so
painful.”
-: “___________”
A. Let me check your temperature…. Yes, it’s higher than normal.
B. Drink lots of water and come back if you don’t feel better.
C. Let me have a look …… ah …. Yes, it’s very red in there.
D. Well, you should take this medicine twice a day. It’s good for a sore throat.
Question 22: The fire was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to
learn more about
A B C
ancient civilizations.
D
Question 23: Perhaps the most distinctive features of insects and undoubtedly one of the
most important
A B
reasons for their success is their quite well-developed sensory system.
C D
Question 24: Unless the money is returned, we shall shortly be contacting
our lawful department.
A B C D
Question 25: He said he had never come across such a pleasing painting.
A. run into B. bump into C. cross his path D. hook up
Question 26: John was in the news during the latter part of the Watergate scandal.
A. former B. second C. eventual D. end
Question 27: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them
before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 28: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you
can reach a conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
While many behaviors and practices associated with going green are designed to save
money, there are certain ways in which green living can actually be moderately to very
expensive. Much of the technology associated with green (29) ___________provides benefits
to the environment but often at a much higher cost than their traditional counterparts. For
instance, the use of solar panels can potentially save you money on your energy bills, but they
can (30) ______________ thousands of dollars to install. Energy-efficient appliances are
designed to use less electricity and water but they often come with a high price tag.
Going green can also potentially have a negative effect on the environment. (31)
______________, the development of alternative fuels is an innovation in the green
movement in an effort to reduce reliance on (32) ___________ natural resources. While these
fuels are intended to reduce the toxic emissions caused by the burning of traditional gasoline,
they may have unintentionally caused the opposite effect. One of these alternative fuels, E85,
actually gives (33) ___________ more ozone into the atmosphere than traditional fuel. While
ozone is a natural part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere, if it becomes concentrated in the
lower atmosphere, it can potentially increase air pollution in areas where smog is a concern,
which can in turn impact the health of those living in these areas.
Question 29: A. living B. lives C. live D. lively
Question 30: A. spend B. take C. cost D. charge
Question 31: A. Such as B. However C. In addition D. For example
Question 32: A. advanced B. alternative C. nonstop D. nonrenewable
Question 33: A. out B. away C. off D. in
May 1 is marked as International Labour Day, also referred as May Day. The day
celebrates labourers and the working class. Labour Day is an annual public holiday in many
countries. It is also referred as International Workers’ Day or just Worker’s Day.
During industrialization in beginning of the 19th Century, the industrialists used to exploit the
labour class and made them work up to 15 hours a day. The workers in the U.S. rose against
this exploitation and demanded paid leaves, proper wages and breaks for the workforce. The
eight-hour day labour movement advocated eight hours for work, eight hours for recreation,
and eight hours for rest. The Labour Day annually celebrates the achievements of the
workers.
The day has different story for different places. May 1 was chosen to be International
Workers’ Day to commemorate the 1886 Haymarket affair in Chicago. In that year, on May
1, there was a general strike for the eight-hour workday. On May 4, the police acted to
disperse a public assembly in support of the strike when an unidentified person threw a bomb.
The police responded by firing on the workers. The event lead to several deaths. The incident
is remembered as the Haymarket affair, or the Haymarket massacre. The place in Haymarket
Square where the incident happened was designated a Chicago Landmark in 1992.
Labour Day or May Day has been a focal point of protests by various socialist and
communist groups and is an important holiday in communist countries like China, North
Korea, Cuba and the former Soviet Union countries. In India, the first Labour day or May
Day was celebrated in the year 1923. It was the Labour Kisan Party who had organised the
May Day celebrations in Chennai (then Madras).
Question 34: What is main topic of the passage?
A. The birth of the day dedicated to workers. B. Holidays that fall on Mondays.
C. Why and how Labour Day is celebrated. D. The rights of working class.
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. workforce B. Labour Day C. public holiday D. working class
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what is the origin of May Day being described?
A. Labour Day dates back to the late 1900s when the heavy industries were blooming.
B. Worker’s Day beginning was linked with the advent of class consciousness.
C. Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States.
D. Worker’s Day concept has been brewing since the dawn of capitalism.
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT correct about the incident of
Haymarket?
A. Many people were killed when the police intervened by random gunfire.
B. The Haymarket tragedy inspired generations of rightist activists.
C. The Haymarket riot happened in the late 1800s in Chicago.
D. A bomb was thrown by an individual never positively identified.
Question 38: The word “focal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. permanent B. leading C. basic D. central
The World Health Organization on Wednesday declared the rapidly spreading
coronavirus outbreak a pandemic. Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus said that
“We expect to see the number of cases, the number of deaths, and the number of affected
countries climb even higher.”
WHO officials had said earlier they were hesitant to call the outbreak a pandemic in case it
led governments and individuals to give up the fight. On Wednesday, they stressed that
fundamental public health interventions can still limit the spread of the virus and drive down
cases even where it was transmitting widely, as the work of authorities and communities in
China, Singapore, and South Korea has shown.
The virus, which probably originated in bats but passed to people via an as yet
unrecognized intermediary animal species, is believed to have started infecting people in
Wuhan, China, in late November or early December. Since then the virus has raced around
the globe. South Korea, which has reported nearly 8,000 cases, also appears poised to bring
its outbreak under control with aggressive measures and widespread testing. But other
countries have struggled to follow the leads of China and South Korea — a reality that has
frustrated WHO officials who have exhorted the world to do everything possible to end
transmission of the virus. Tedros used the fact that 90% of the cumulative cases have been
reported in just four countries as evidence that the rest of the world still had time to prevent
an explosion of cases with action.
WHO officials also stressed that countries should be implementing a strategic
combination two types of measures. One involves trying to detect and stop known chains of
transmission by isolating cases and following and potentially quarantining their contacts. The
other involves community-level steps like social distancing and comes into play when the
virus is spreading more broadly and transmission chains can’t be tracked. Mike Ryan, the
head of the WHO’s emergency program, said that the public health interventions might not
have straightforward effect, but to slow the spread of the virus. People with severe cases can
require long periods of critical care and strain the resources of hospitals. He said he was
worried about “the case load, the demand on the health workers, the dangers that come with
fatigue, and potentially shortages of personal protective equipment.”
A. Some contracted with coronavirus get very ill but most don’t.
B. What scientists still don’t know about coronavirus patients.
C. What governors are doing to tackle spreading coronavirus.
D. The WHO declares the coronavirus outbreak a pandemic.
Question 40: The word “pandemic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. epidemic B. ebullition C. epizootic D. endemic
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. outbreak B. spread C. fight D. virus
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT mentioned about the virus and its state
of spreading?
A. The WHO suggested that all countries can still change the course of this pandemic.
B. The current spreading virus is the second coronavirus to reach pandemic levels.
C. Coronavirus primitively circulates among animals but somehow spreads to human.
D. China is the assumed country of virus origin and where the disease hits the hardest.
Question 43: The word “poised” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. composed B. confident C. excited D. ready
Question 44: According to paragraph 4, what is the objective of the measures mapped out by
the WHO?
A. To buy time for the invention of vaccines. B. To stop the virus sharply in its
tracks.
C. To avoid an overwhelmed health system. D. To achieve the point of zero
transmission.
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The WHO acknowledged that the virus will likely spread to all countries on the
globe.
B. Local factors related to healthcare systems have no effect on the course of the
disease.
C. Countries used to an authoritarian government is most suitable to contain the virus.
D. The pandemic is an opportunity to see the backfire of an expensive healthcare
system.
Question 46: “Will you give this to Tony when you see him, please?”, he said to me.
A. He asked me if I would give that to Tony when I saw him.
B. He asked me whether I could give that to Tony when he saw me.
C. He asked me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
D. He begged me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
Question 47: All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
A. No matter how their score in the competition is, all the children will receive a prize.
B. Each children will receive a prize no matter what their score is in the competition.
C. Each children will receive a prize no matter how much their score in the competition
is.
D. All the children will receive a prize whatever their score in the competition.
Question 48: What a pity! They missed the football match on TV yesterday.
A. They wish they attended the football match on TV yesterday.
B. They wish they had come the football match on TV yesterday.
C. If only they hadn’t missed the football match on TV yesterday.
D. If only they would attend the football match on TV yesterday.
Question 49: Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school. Do you know him?
A. Do you know him, Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school?
B. Do you know Mr. Watson, is a strict teacher in our school?
C. Do you know Mr. Watson, a strict teacher in our school?
D. Do you know a strict teacher in our school is Mr. Watson?
Question 50: Many people start plant-based diets. They want to improve their health.
A. Many people start plant-based diets because they want to improve their health.
B. Many people start plant-based diets although they want to improve their health.
C. Many people start plant-based diets, so they want to improve their health.
D. Many people start plant-based diets, but they want to improve their health.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. defend B. deny C. repeat D. borrow
Question 2: A. quality B. cinema C. importance D. reference
Question 3: A. health B. wealth C. breathe D. dealt
Question 4: A. plays B. travels C. seems D. thinks
Question 5: Your brother is living in HCM city, ___________?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. isn’t she D. does he
Question 6: My neighbor offered ____________ us to the airport.
A. taking B. take C. to taking D. to take
Question 7: My mother says that we__________ the party in the garden if the weather is
good.
A. would have B. would have had C. will have D. will be having
Question 8: Who ___________ over the company when the manager retires?
A. took B. will take C. take D. was taking
Question 9: Everyone in the company knew that he had revealed the confidential information
,_____ nobody dared to report it.
A. so B. but C. and D. for
Question 10: It won’t be safe to use these stairs __________ .
A. before they repair them B. after they will repair them
C. when they repaired them D. until they have them repaired
Question 11: The topic is very interesting and I'd like to continue it but we're all __________
time.
A. on B. out of C. off D. up
Question 12: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution __________ health
problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is
seriously caused
Question 13: We were banned from entering this area for _____________ reasons.
A. secure B. security C. securely D. securities
Question 14: Daddy, how can I ___________ so little money? Please send me some more
money.
A. get through B. get over C. get by on D. get by
Question 15: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young men stood up and
_______ room for her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 16: There's a shortage of cheap accommodation in this city of five million
__________.
A. citizens B. dwellers C. inhabitants D. residents
Question 17: Farmers ___________ into big cities to find work when the harvest time is up.
A. migrate B. emigrate C. immigrate D. stuff
Question 18: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the ______of death.
A. scary B. fear C. dream D. threat
Question 19: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 20: - “Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.”
- “_____________”
A. Do you really like it, sir? B. Here you are, sir.
C. But you don’t need it, sir D. Yes, sure. Thank you.
Question 21: - “I’m sorry, I’m late.” - “____________”
A. You are welcome
B. No, I don’t mind
C. All right. The early bird catches the worm!
D. No worries. Better late than never.
Question 22: Athletics were his favourite sport when he was young.
A B C D
Question 23: When I was a little girl, I used to play hide-and-seek, making toys
and draw pictures.
A B C D
Question 24: The treatment for people addictive to tranquillizers includes training in stress
management
A B C
and relaxation techniques.
D
Question 25: Physical barriers can be a range of things, such as speech impairments which
affect the ability of a person to communicate.
A. talk B. skill C. dialogue D. language
Question 26: When Tom revealed that Peter was secretly planning to quit his job, he upset
the apple cart for Peter, who wanted nobody to know of his plans.
A. ruined carefully laid plans B. caused trouble
C. spoil secretly laid plans D. object to the plan
Question 27: Passing this important English test was such a boost to my confidence.
A. inefficiency B. disability C. untruth D. uncertainty
Question 28. Being self-reliant means that you are able to do or decide things by yourself,
rather than depending on other people for help.
A. decisive B. selfish C. reliable D. dependent
Father's Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother's Day
(29)________ honors mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and
paternal bonds; it highlights the (30)___________ of fathers in society. Many countries
celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also celebrated widely on other days.
Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of male parenting.
Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (31)
________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in 1909,
she told her pastor that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she
initially suggested June 5, her father's birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to
prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first
celebration was in Spokane, Washington at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association)
on June 19, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional day (32) ________ year.
In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a
party celebrating male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (33)
_______, schools help children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the
celebration.
Question 29: A. which B. when C. who D. where
Question 30: A. conquest B. impact C. influence D. effect
Question 31: A. realized B. raised C. took D. made
Question 32: A. another B. other C. any D. every
Question 33: A. Besides B. In contrast C. However D. Then
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once
you are in the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard
to slow down. But relaxation is essential for a healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the
bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation
and give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor
performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual.
Some people are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for
managerial responsibilities. Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When
exposed to stress in whatever form, we react both chemically and physically. In fact we make
choice between “fight” or “flight”, and in more primitive days the choice made the difference
between life or death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but however
little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through
continued exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high
blood pressure and heart disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove
stress from our lives (and it would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find
ways to deal with it.
Question 34: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because
__________.
A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
B. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
C. they are travelling fast all the time
D. they are becoming busier their work
Question 35: According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his
_______.
A. not fearing stress B. high sense of responsibility
C. knowing the art of relaxation D. having control over performance
Question 36: Which of the following statements is true?
A. We can find some ways to avoid stress
B. Stress is always harmful to people
C. It’s easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work
D. Different people can withstand different amounts of stress
Question 37: In paragraph 3, “such a reaction” refers back to__________.
A. making a choice between “fight” or “flight”
B. reaction to stress both chemically and physically
C. responding to crises quickly
D. losing heart at the signs of difficulties
Question 38. In the last sentence of the passage, “do so” refers to _________.
A. expose ourselves to stress B. find ways to deal with stress
C. remove stress from our lives D. establish links between diseases and stress
The Socialist Republic of Vietnam has stood out as one such example of how to
effectively respond to the pandemic. Vietnam, which shares a border with China and is about
1,200 miles from where the outbreak was first reported in Wuhan, has overcome steep odds
in the global fight against COVID-19. As of April 6, the Vietnamese government has
reported 245 confirmed cases with 95 recoveries and no fatalities.
The country’s response to the outbreak has received international recognition,
including from the World Health Organization and World Economic Forum, for its
comprehensive, low-cost model of disease prevention. WHO representative in Vietnam, Dr.
Ki Dong Park, attests the government “has always been proactive and prepared for necessary
actions”.
The Communist Party of Vietnam has strengthened its anti-pandemic measures by
implementing nationwide social distancing rules, such as banning outside gatherings of more
than two people while keeping a distance of 6.5 feet, and temporary shutdowns of “non-
essential” businesses, including restaurants, entertainment centers and tourist sites.
Supermarkets and other essential services remain open, but are instructed to safeguard
customers’ health by checking their temperatures before entering the building and providing
them with hand sanitizers. In addition, the government has warned against panic buying and
has taken action against businesses engaged in price gouging. To ensure social security for
affected workers, Vietnam has approved a 111.55 million dollar financial support package
that includes covering all costs for workers in quarantine or are recovering from the disease.
Unlike the U.S. capitalist class and the Trump administration, the Vietnamese
government took early measures to combat the current coronavirus epidemic. Officials began
preparing strategies to combat the outbreak immediately after the first cases emerged in
China.
On February 1, Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc signed Decision No.173.QD-TTG,
categorizing the virus as a Class A contagious disease “that can transmit very rapidly and
spread widely with high mortality rates.” This declaration of a national emergency came after
the sixth case of coronavirus in the country was reported. In contrast, the Trump
administration only declared a national emergency over the global pandemic on March 13,
when there were at least 1,920 confirmed cases across 46 states.
(Adapted from https://vietnaminsider.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vietnam and the U.S in the campaign to combat the pandemic.
B. Why has no one in Vietnam died of COVID 19?
C. How does the pandemic affect Vietnam’s society?
D. The international recognition for Vietnam’s response to COVID 19.
Question 40: Vietnam’s reaction to the epidemic was acknowledged as a ____________ by
the WHO and WEF.
A. comprehensible and economical model of disease prevention
B. perfect and expensive model of disease prevention
C. complete and inexpensive example of disease prevention
D. incomplete and luxurious example of disease prevention
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure to the pandemic in
Vietnam?
A. prohibiting outside gatherings
B. keeping a distance of 6.5 feet
C. closing unnecessary businesses permanently
D. warning inhabitants against panic buying
Question 42: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. supermarkets’ B. customers’ C. governments’ D. essential services’
Question 43: The word “gouging” in the fourth paragraph most probably means
____________.
A. rising B. reducing C. stabilizing D. remaining
Question 44: The word “contagious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. dangerous B. fatal C. hazardous D. infectious
Question 45: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Vietnam implemented the measures to push back the outbreak after the first cases
emerged in China.
B. The Trump administration declared a national emergency over the global pandemic
earlier than the Vietnamese government did.
C. Vietnam has become the country that combats the epidemic most effectively.
D. The strategies to deal with the disease of Vietnam and the U.S are familiar.
Question 46: You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 47: “Please don't tell anyone what happened," he said to me.
A. He said to me please don't tell anyone what happened.
B. He told me didn't tell anyone what had happened.
C. He said me not to tell anyone what happened.
D. He told me not to tell anyone what had happened.
Question 48: China is the country with the largest population.
A. China is larger than any other country.
B. China has more population than any other country.
C. China is as crowded as other countries.
D. Other countries are more crowded than China.
Question 49: He was an incompetent director. The company lost a lot of money.
A. If he were an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t lose a lot of money.
B. If it hadn’t been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a
lot of money.
C. If he had been an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of
money.
D. Had it been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of
money.
Question 50: Spring hasn’t come. We can’t see the blooming flowers.
A. Only when spring has come can we see the blooming flowers.
B. Only when spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
C. Only after spring has come we can see the blooming flowers
D. Only if spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. admit B. reply C. cancel D. discuss
Question 2: A. information B. comparative C. economic D. independence
Question 3: A. control B. unfold C. record D. hold
Question 4: A. hopes B. changes C. cakes D. hates
Question 5: You have to leave early, ___________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. have you D. do you
Question 6: Barney stopped ____________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 7: We ____________ for three hours straight! Where’s the bus?
A. have been waiting B. had been waiting C. has been waiting D. has
waited
Question 8: ______________ some assistance with your essay, feel free to ring me up.
A. Were you to need B. Had you needed
C. Should you need D. Will you need
Question 9: Kate Bouman is ______ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take
_______ first ever image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 10: Mathematics, ____ by many students as a difficult subject, is actually very
fascinating.
A. which are considered B. considered
C. considering D. to be considered
Question 11: My father’s company, which has its base _______ Ho Chi Minh city, plans to
set up an office in Quang Binh.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 12: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be ______________.
A. reduced B. deducted C. deduced D. distracted
Question 13: Although his first book was a roaring success, his later ones never really
__________.
A. took in B. took on C. took up D. took off
Question 14: _______________, she was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Because the woman was tired B. When the woman was tired
C. Despite tired D. Tired though the woman was
Question 15: It is important that Mike ___________ a training course if he wants to
participate in scuba-diving.
A. make B. hold C. take D. has
Question 16: One of the _________ related to weddings is that the bride should wear
something blue.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. superstitions
Question 17: The Hurricane laid ___________ to the entire village and left the villagers
homeless.
A. waste B. rubbish C. garbage D. trash
Question 18: Indonesia got off to a ____________ start with a goal in the first half, but
Vietnam still won the match in the end.
A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking
Question 19: We couldn’t find the hotel _________ we used google map.
A. so B. but C. and D. if
Question 20: Tony and Steve are friends. They have just finished dinner in a restaurant.
- Tony: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
- Steve: “ _________________”
A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. It’s nothing
C. No, it is on me. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 21: Stark goes to the bank for a money change.
- Stark: “Do you have a change for a 100-dollar note, please?”
- Bank clerk: “___________”
A. What kind of money do you want? B. How much money do you want?
C. How do you want your money? D. How many notes do you want?
Question 22: Jonas, along with his friend Joseph, are travelling to Portland next week .
A B C D
Question 23: In the 1980s, actress Sarah Bernhardt made an important attribution to the role
of Lady
A
Macbeth when she displayed an overt sensuality that has been stressed by her twentieth-
century successors.
B C D
Question 24: How does the organization address the problems identified and found out the
best
A B C
solution to them.
D
Question 25: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by
surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise
Question 26: When I came across him in front of the office, he was conspicuous as usual
with a big yellow bow tie.
A. easily seen B. popular C. unnoticeable D. open
Question 27: Some research has shown that acupuncture might help with the alleviation of
headaches and migraines.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Question 28: If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green
fingers.
A. make plants grow well B. bad at doing the gardening
C. lack skills in gardening D. don’t have a good head for gardening
Like high schools, American colleges are sometimes criticized for discarding required
courses and offering too (29)____________ electives. In the mid-1980s, the Association of
American Colleges issued a report that called for teaching a body of common knowledge to
all college students. A similar report, “Involvement in Learning,” issued by the National
Institute of Education, concluded that the college curriculum had become “excessively work-
related”. The report also (30) __________ that college education may no longer be
developing in students “the shared values and knowledge” that traditionally bind Americans
together.
These reports coincided with a trend away from the liberal arts. (31)____________,
students were choosing major fields designed to prepare them for specific jobs. In 1992, 51
percent of the bachelor’s degrees were conferred in the fields of business and management,
communications, computer and sciences, education, engineering, and health sciences.
This trend raises questions (32)___________ apply to the educational philosophy of
all industrialized countries. In an age of technological breakthroughs and highly specialized
disciplines, is there still a need for the generalist with a broad background and well-
developed abilities to reason and communicate? And if the answer to that question is yes,
should society take steps to encourage its colleges and universities to produce more such
generalists? Like their (33) ____________ in other countries, American educators continue to
debate these questions.
(Adapted from http://usa.usembassy.de/etexts/factover/ch6.htm)
Question 29: A. a lot of B. many C. lots of D. a great many
Question 30: A. threatened B. urged C. warned D. expected
Question 31: A. alternatively B. consequently C. additionally D. frequently
Question 32: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Question 33: A. friends B. supporters C. counterparts D. opponents
Australia is suffering from one of its worst fire seasons in history, with more than two
dozen people killed, thousands of homes destroyed, and millions of acres burned so far.
Unfortunately, fires like this, exacerbated by the effects of climate change, will
likely rage again, but Australia’s government can take steps to minimize their destruction.
With warming temperatures, Australia will face longer fire seasons. To reduce future
damage, governments at all levels must act. Areas of focus should include enhancing early
warning systems and fire prediction capabilities; launching public awareness campaigns on
the dangers posed by climate-fueled bushfires and necessary prevention measures;
conducting more controlled burns; and developing more stringent building codes that address
climate risk.
At the state and local levels, communities need to professionalize their firefighting
capabilities. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local
leaders about the changing characteristics of bushfires. And, once this fire season subsides,
states should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting redevelopment
of particularly fire-prone areas.
(Adapted from https://www.cfr.org/)
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Australia’s measures to reduce the forest fires’ damage
B. The harmful effects of the Australia’s forest fires
C. The causes of forest fires in Australia
D. How Australia reconstructs the forests
Question 35: The word “rage” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stop B. spread C. change D. maintain
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT the solution taken by
the Australia’s government?
A. improving early warning systems and fire prediction capabilities
B. raising public awareness of the dangers of bushfires and essential prevention
measures
C. limiting the number of controlled burns
D. developing more stringent building codes to address climate risk.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________________.
A. local levels B. communities
C. firefighting capabilities D. local leaders
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 3, what should the states do to decrease the effects
of the fires after this fire season?
A. They should professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
B. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders.
C. They should take steps to minimize their destruction.
D. They should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting
redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest
victims. While they have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of
COVID-19 - at least to date – the crisis is having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All
children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected, in particular by the socio-
economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures that may inadvertently do more
harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the impact will be lifelong.
Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally. They are
expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest
neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis:
infection with the virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop
transmission of the virus and end the pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of
delayed implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children
could fall into extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386
million children already in extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed
countrywide school closures, affecting more than 1.5 billion children and youth. The
potential losses that may accrue in learning for today’s young generation, and for the
development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of countries
have introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the
share is only 30 percent. Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young people were
already digitally excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children
witnessing or suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those
living in unsanitary and crowded conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at
considerable risk. Children’s reliance on online platforms for distance learning has also
increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content and online predators.
(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/
Question 39: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 41: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the
pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful
to children.
C. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year.
D. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the
pandemic.
Question 43: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 44: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the
pandemic_______________.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
B. children have more risks than adults.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. most children don’t want to learn online.
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on
children, EXCEPT _____________.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Question 46: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 47: “I was just getting into the shower when the phone rang." he said to me.
A. He said to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
B. He told me he had just been getting into the shower when the phone had rung.
C. He said to me that he had just been getting into the shower when the phone rang.
D. He told to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
Question 48: Though my bag may be cheaper than Lucas’s, it is bigger and more attractive.
A. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not so big and attractive as
mine.
B. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not bigger and attractive than
mine.
C. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not as big and attractive as
mine.
D. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not bigger or more attractive
than mine.
Question 49: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week.
A. Were Collin good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week.
B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week.
C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week.
D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week.
Question 50: She decided to move to the city. She didn’t bring any money with her.
A. No money with her did she decide to move to the city.
B. Not money did she bring with her, she decided to move to the city.
C. Not a penny did she bring with her when she decided to move to the city.
D. Not a penny she brought with her did she decide to move to the city.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. mental B. dental C. canal D. nasal
Question 2: A. television B. informative C. employee D. responsible
Question 3: A. book B. foot C. moon D. wood
Question 4: A. hatred B. naked C. hacked D. sacred
Question 5: You are very unhappy with the service, _________?
A. aren’t you B. are you C. won’t you D. have you
Question 6: His parents suggested _____________ a break from studying.
A. having B. him to have C. he have D. that he had
Question 7: By the time my brother went to bed last night, he _____________ his homework
A. has already finished B. will have already finished
C. had already finished D. were already finishing
Question 8: Had they listened to their parents’ advice, they _____________ happier now.
A. would be B. am C. will be D. would have been
Question 9: It’s believed that __________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of
damage to our environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 10: I am not a selfish man ___________ in the past of my girlfriend.
A. interested B. interesting C. who interests D. to interest
Question 11: My brother is a very industrious student who spent the past few months doing
research ________ the library.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: I would like to take this opportunity to _________ my gratitude for your
ongoing support.
A. extend B. expand C. enlarge D. broaden
Question 13: My petrol tank was empty so I pulled into a garage to ____________.
A. fill up B. top up C. speed up D. blow up
Question 14: Mary has applied for a lot of jobs recently, which suggests ___________ her
present job.
A. that she not be altogether satisfied with B. that she’s not altogether satisfied with
C. she doesn’t altogether satisfy D. that she not altogether satisfy
Question 15: On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she __________ into tears.
A. burst B. break C. run D. set
Question 16: She was very ____________, and brought me at least fifteen pairs of shoes to
try on.
A. obliged B. obliging C. obligated D. obligatory
Question 17: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into___________.
A. influence B. impact C. effect D. affect
Question 18: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ____________.
A. head B. hairs C. eyes D. mouth
Question 19: ____________ John’s being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Question 20: - “What a gorgeous make-up style you have got, Jane!”
- “___________________.”
A. I am afraid not. B. You are telling a joke.
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don’t like your sayings
Question 21: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
- “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Question 22: Not only the students but also the teacher feel that the
school should offer computer classes.
A B C D
Question 23: My friend decided to change his life by moving abroad and set up his
new company.
A B C D
Question 24: Look out! The frightening horse may injure you, so you’d better not play near
it.
A B C D
Question 25: This national event not only helps enhance city’s reputation but also brings
happiness and fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 26: Who knows how many different chemicals there are in our water, mixing and
forming all kinds of deadly compounds.
A. important B. ghostly C. avoidable D. fatal
Question 27: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their
employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 28: During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincidence with a dramatic rise in
the popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out
of business.
A. like hot cakes B. like a streak of lightning
C. like you need a hole in the head D. like a cat on a hot tin roof
There have never been so (29)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(30)__________ —pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. (31)________ an
earthquake hit again, it was years of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists
drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found
something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places
(32)_______ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great
earthquake does (33)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some
scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 29: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 30: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 31: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 32: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 33: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-
in-ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban
or suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily
interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have
a neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban
areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in
their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they
would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 34: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural
areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 36: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 37: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________.
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 38: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer
time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
While the debate regarding how much screen time is appropriate for children rages on
among educators, psychologists, and parents, it’s another emerging technology in the form of
artificial intelligence and machine learning that is beginning to alter education tools and
institutions and changing what the future might look like in education. It is expected that
artificial intelligence in U.S. education will grow by 47.5% from 2017-2021 according to the
Artificial Intelligence Market in the US Education Sector report. Even though most experts
believe the critical presence of teachers is irreplaceable, there will be many changes to a
teacher’s job and to educational best practices.
AI has already been applied to education primarily in some tools that help develop
skills and testing systems. As AI educational solutions continue to mature, the hope is that
AI can help fill needs gaps in learning and teaching and allow schools and teachers to do
more than ever before. AI can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks to
allow teachers the time and freedom to provide understanding and adaptability—uniquely
human capabilities where machines would struggle. By leveraging the best attributes of
machines and teachers, the vision for AI in education is one where they work together for the
best outcome for students. Since the students of today will need to work in a future where AI
is the reality, it’s important that our educational institutions expose students to and use the
technology.
Artificial intelligence tools can help make global classrooms available to all including
those who speak different languages or who might have visual or hearing impairments.
Presentation Translator is a free plug-in for PowerPoint that creates subtitles in real time for
what the teacher is saying. This also opens up possibilities for students who might not be able
to attend school due to illness or who require learning at a different level or on a particular
subject that isn’t available in their own school. AI can help break down silos between
schools and between traditional grade levels.
(Adapted from https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
A. The roles of teachers in the time of technology
B. Is AI appropriate for students using in classrooms?
C. How AI is used in education
D. What AI tools are used in the classrooms
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. AI B. education C. some tools D. testing systems
Question 41: The word “mature” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. improve B. replace C. change D. decrease
Question 42: According to paragraph 2, what can AI do to help teachers in the classrooms?
A. It can work to give the best outcome for students.
B. It can urge the students to get familiar to the technology before working in the future.
C. It can help teachers to control the class more effectively.
D. It can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks.
Question 43: The following are the benefits of Presentation Translator mentioned in
paragraph 3, EXCEPT ___________.
A. creating subtitles in real time for what is being said in the lessons
B. giving chance for the students to follow the lessons without attending school because
of sickness
C. allowing students to learn the particular subject unavailable at their own school
D. providing opportunities for students to learn different languages
Question 44: The phrase “break down” in the last paragraph most probably means
__________.
A. maintain B. stop C. develop D. implement
A. The blind and the deaf are able to join the class with the help of AI tools.
B. The use of AI in education in the United States will reach the peak in the near future.
C. Experts believe that teachers will lose their presence in classroom by AI.
D. Students can work together to have good results of the job.
Question 46: Diana is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. Diana is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
B. I have never met a more intelligent woman than Diana.
C. Diana is more intelligent than any women I ever met.
D. This is the first time I have met such an intelligent woman as Diana.
Question 47: “Why were you absent from the class yesterday?” The teacher said to Andrew.
A. The teacher wondered why Andrew has been absent from the class the day before.
B. The teacher told Andrew why had he been absent from the class the previous day.
C. The teacher wanted to know why Andrew was absent from the class the previous day.
D. The teacher asked Andrew why he had been absent from the class the day before.
Question 48: It’s almost impossible for us to get them to agree on anything.
A. We can’t have got them to agree on anything.
B. We can’t get them to agree on anything.
C. We mustn’t get them to agree on anything.
D. We needn’t have got them to agree on anything.
Question 49: You can choose your favorite university. Make sure that it is suitable for your
ability.
A. You can’t choose your favorite university if it is suitable for your ability.
B. You can’t choose your favorite university in case it is suitable for your ability.
C. You can choose your favorite university unless it is suitable for your ability.
D. You can choose your favorite university provided it is suitable for your ability.
Question 50: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. angry B. climate C. upset D. footprint
Question 2: A. vulnerable B. psychologist C. society D. responsible
Question 3: A. breath B. health C. heart D. head
Question 4: A. motivated B. flooded C. wicked D. looked
Question 5: I am not a good husband, __________?
A. am I B. aren’t I C. are I D. isn’t I
Question 6: They claim that advertising encourages _________ three times higher than the
average consumption.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. purchase D. to purchasing
Question 7: He has just said that my piano playing ___________ on since he last
_________me play.
A. had really come/ heard B. had really come/ had heard
C. has really come/ heard D. has really come/ had heard
Question 8: If I _________ rich, I ___________ the shoes we saw at the shopping mall
yesterday.
A. were/would buy B. had been/would have bought
C. were/would have bought D. had been/would buy
Question 9: He politely asked me to pass _______ salt and ________pepper.
A. a/the B. the/a C. the/0 D. 0/0
Question 10: Boys! Put away all the toys ___________ at the bottom of the wardrobe.
A. which lied B. lay C. lying D. that are lain
Question 11: I saw some boys swimming _________ the river this afternoon.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: The government decided to close the frontiers off with a view to ________ the
disease.
A. containing B. holding C. including D. comprising
Question 13: There was an accident on the highway, ___________ traffic.
A. putting off B. holding off on C. holding up D. holding over
Question 14: He will drop you a line _____________.
A. providing he settled down in his new house B. as soon as he has settled down in
his new house
C. when he settled down in his new house D. till he settles down in his new house
Question 15: The teacher ___________ an example of Tom to the class for cheating in the
exam.
A. set B. followed C. made D. gave
Question 16: The doctor warned us not to let other family members share towels because the
infection is highly____________.
A. contagion B. contagious C. contagiously D. contagions
Question 17: Thanks to __________ provision, many women who wish to work are capable
of doing so.
A. childbearing B. childrearing C. childcare D. child-centred
Question 18: The poor mother was forced to have her baby adopted, __________herself.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 19: He shouldn’t have hurt her feelings, ___________.
A. any way you slice it B. be that as it may
C. with the best will in the world D. never mind that
Question 20: Two colleagues are talking with each other:
A: “Your day was just like mine.”
B: “_______________.”
A. So was I. B. It is sure.
C. Of course it was. We work together! D. We have to work for 30 years!
Question 21: A: “Sometimes I wish I was back to school.”
B: “__________________________.”
A. Me, too. School was fun. B. I thought school was hard.
C. Me, too. I couldn’t wait to graduate. D. Life is hard.
Question 22: Playing cards is most commonly used for playing card games as well as for
fortune-telling.
A B C D
Question 23: Every morning, we make our bed, eating breakfast, feed the dog
and do exercise.
A B C D
Question 24: My boss is the person who is so bored a man that no one wants to work
with him.
A B C D
Question 25: Although Mr. Anderson is very rich, in fact he is a millionaire, he lives in a
small house in the suburbs.
A. resides B. relaxes C. experiments D. employs
Question 26: In twenty years’ time, the food supplies will be so scarce for some countries
that people will start immigrating in huge numbers.
A. in short supply B. in large number
C. abundant and nutritious D. nourishing but limited
Question 27: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no
one heard anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 28: The country’s infrastructure is in poor condition and needs to be upgraded.
A. improved B. repaired C. examined D. deteriorated
Each family forms its own set of values and decides what is most important to them.
Discipline also varies among families. Families have different ways of dealing with different
issues. In some families, one or both parents make all the decisions with no
(29)________from the children, while other families may encourage input from all family
members before decisions are made. Perhaps you know of a family (30)_______ there is
equal decision making among family members.
There is no one family style for everyone. A family’s style develops based on each
family’s individual situation and the values they care about. (31)_______, your family may
be laid-back, while another family is very active and hurried. Many different ways of living
together can work. What makes a family strong is not just (32)__________ of people in it,
whether its members are related, or their pace of life; people caring for one another and
sharing their lives is what really matters.
Many families also share faiths such as religious activities with one another. As a
Scout, part of your duty is to do your best to make your family strong and help your family
thrive. By doing this, you are helping to lay the (33)__________ for a stronger community
and society.
Question 29: A. import B. export C. output D. input
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 31: A. For instance B. Such as C. In other words D. Furthermore
Question 32: A. a number B. most C. the number D. amount
Question 33: A. base B. background C. ground D. groundwork
When it comes to discussing AI and the future of work we exhale in relief when
someone says machines will have a hard time replacing us. This statement is backed by the
argument that most AI systems are ‘narrow’. AI systems only do one thing but do it really
well, for example, predicting what you want to watch on Netflix. If you ask the same system
to make you a cup of coffee or drive your car, you’re likely to be disappointed.
But what happens when the AI system can perform the most significant tasks that a
job entails? One interesting example we found came from the fashion industry, where a
company had implemented two AI systems to produce novel designs. Together, they did all
work and the human’s role was only to surveil the work.
Research published earlier this year coined the term ‘Shadow Learning’. As explained
in the Harvard Business Review article titled ‘Learning to work with intelligent machines’,
the researcher studied the challenges new surgeons faced when learning robotic surgery
skills. Previously, they learned how to perform surgery by working alongside expert
surgeons, but now they’re forced to watch over the surgeon’s shoulder as, thanks to robotics,
individuals can handle entire surgeries with one pair of hands. The term, however, does not
mean that you learn by shadowing someone. The phrase refers to students who gained
experience with robotic tools by taking it upon themselves to acquire new skills outside of the
curriculum.
If we look beyond the current discussion of AI and the future of work – which
usually revolves around the number of jobs that will be impacted by AI – we can focus on
how to create inspiring new ways to work with machines.
(Source: https://www.ericsson.com/)
A. AI and the future of work. B. Finding the sweet spot of trust.
C. Overreliance on AI systems. D. Ensure that work remains meaningful.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, why should we not worry about AI snatching away
our jobs?
A. Because creating something new and unique is an ability exclusive to humans.
B. Because nothing can replace the caring and empathy that a live person can extend.
C. Because AI can take over certain tasks, but possibly not entire multidisciplinary roles.
D. Because AI cannot proactively find and start new tasks without some sort of prompt.
A. designs B. systems C. tasks D. students
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem for surgical apprentices in the
time of AI universality?
A. Offer of exposure to new technologies would be used as recruiting strategy.
B. There would be fewer hands-on learning opportunities for the students.
C. Ability to work individually, however brilliantly, would not give a competitive edge.
D. The students could advance only by upstaging other people around them.
Question 38: The word “revolves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. spins B. worries C. muses D. pivots
Stephen Cameron, Vietnam’s patient number 91, has recovered from COVID-19 and
is returning home today (July 12th). The symbol of Vietnam’s pandemic success, as referred
to by Reuters (the ABC news), will be accompanied by a team of doctors during the flight to
London.
The 43-year-old Scot, arriving in Vietnam in early March, was tested positive for
COVID-19 only three days after his first flight for Vietnam Airlines, following a visit to a bar
in Ho Chi Minh City that became a coronavirus outbreak. Cameron’s illness and the highly
publicized efforts of Vietnam’s doctors to save him became a symbol in Vietnam of the
country’s successful fight against the virus, as reported by Reuters.
The ABC news recognized Vietnam’s huge efforts to save the man, who had
been critically ill and spent 65 days on life support. Doctors said at one point they considered
a lung transplant as the man’s lungs were 90% damaged and non-functional. With the vast
majority of Vietnam’s COVID-19 patients already recovered, the news of a potential first
death prompted a national outpouring of support, with dozens of people coming forward as
potential lung donors.
However, like a miracle, after he woke from a coma at the end of May, there were
small signs of improvement – a thumbs-up sign for an attentive doctor, a trip on to the
balcony to catch some sunshine and a video of him holding a Motherwell football club scarf
aloft. Every little progress was closely followed by the media and attracted great attention.
“The patient’s recovery has been like a very long flight” – Dr. Tran Thanh Linh, the
deputy head of the ICU ward at Cho Ray Hospital, said during a meeting between hospital
officials, the British Consulate and Vietnam Airlines representatives just before Cameron’s
discharge – the Washing Post reported. “All of the health workers are overwhelmed with joy
to see him fully recovered and being discharged from the hospital today.”
The UK’s Daily Mail quoted Mr Cameron: “I’m overwhelmed by the generosity of
the Vietnamese people, the dedication and professionalism of the doctors and nurses working
at Cho Ray Hospital. I’m going home with a happy heart because I’m going home, but it is
sad that I’m leaving so many people here that I’m friends with”.
Vietnam has reported 370 coronavirus cases with no local transmitted infection for
nearly three months. All recent cases are people who were infected abroad and had been
under compulsory quarantine upon their arrival in Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://vietnamtimes.org.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Patient 91: “Miracle” Flight Heading Home
B. The COVID-19 British Pilot –A Great Man
C. The Progress of Vietnam’s Medicine in COVID-19
D. Patient 91: The Pride of Vietnamese Doctors
Question 40: The word “accompanied” in the first paragraph most probably means
________.
A. gone through with B. warmly welcomed C. out of control D. under the
care of
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the 43-year-old Scot B. his first flight C. a bar D. Ho Chi Minh city
Question 42: The word “critically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. extremely important B. seriously C. censoriously D. essentially
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the Patient
91?
A. This is the first Stephen Cameron’s flight to Vietnam as a pilot for Vietnam Airlines.
B. His lungs got over nine tenths of functions and need transplanting.
C. More than ten people all over the country volunteer to donate their lung for the
British pilot.
D. A lot of people closely followed his every little improvement after a coma.
Question 44: As mentioned in Cameron’s quotation on the UK’s Daily Mail, how does he
feel when leaving Vietnam for home?
A. devoted B. nostalgic C. heart-breaking D. providential
Question 45: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. The plane getting patient 91 home became a symbol of Vietnam’s success in fighting
against COVID-19.
B. The pilot’s recovery made people in all over the world joyful.
C. The 43-year-old Scot feels quite lucky to be treated in Vietnam.
D. There are still new cases tested positive for COVID-19 in Vietnam.
Question 46: Jane is less orderly than her roommate.
A. Jane’s roommate is less orderly than she is. B. Jane is not as orderly as her
roommate.
C. Jane’s roommate is not as orderly as she is. D. Jane is more orderly than her
roommate.
Question 47: I’m sure this isn’t the type of house that Tom is looking for.
A. This can’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
B. This mustn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
C. This shouldn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
D. This can’t have been the type of house that Tom is looking for.
Question 48: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 49: Covid-19 is highly contagious. Over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
A. So contagious Covid-19 is that over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
B. Such is the contagious disease that Covid-19 had infected over eight million people
worldwide.
C. Only when over eight million people have been infected worldwide is Covid-19 so
contagious.
D. Covid-19 is so contagious a disease that it has infected over eight million people
worldwide.
Question 50: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. thinks B. seems C. plays D. sends
Question 2: A. blind B. kind C. right D. chilly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. usual B. pretty C. canal D. listen
Question 4: A. marriage B. supportive C. musical D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
Question 5: Your father won’t let you go out with me anymore, _________?
A. is he B. will he C. can he D. won’t he
Question 6: Believe me! There will be ______ few problems with that car as it’s quite new.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: We spent our long holiday ___________ the sea last summer.
A. by B. in C. at D. on
Question 8: She denied ________ in the exam.
A. to cheat B. cheating C. being cheated D. having cheat
Question 9: If I _______ you earlier, you could be my husband now.
A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met
Question 10: There __________ many changes in my village since they built a new bridge.
A. has been B. are C. had been D. have been
Question 11: ___________ applying for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. Although B. In spite of C. Because D. Because of
Question 12: He won’t get married _____________.
A. when he has a distinguished career B. as soon as he had had a distinguished
career
C. until he had a distinguished career D. till he has a distinguished career
Question 13: The people ________ the virus must be isolated to prevent its spread.
A. who were caught B. catching C. caught D. catch
Question 14: According to some sources of ________information, his father will be elected
to be the headmaster next year.
A. reliant B. reliability C. rely D. reliable
Question 15: When he _________ from Jimmy as head of department last year, he had to
deal with many financial problems.
A. took on B. took over C. took up D. took in
Question 16: I ____________ the impression that he was lying to all of us.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
Question 17: According to the __________of this game, you mustn’t touch the ball with both
hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 18: Regardless of the law, there are practices that __________against women and
in favor of men
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. differentiate D. dissociate
Question 19: His mother had a _________ when his teacher said that he had played truant
many times.
A. bee B. cow C. buffalo D. deer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
Question 20: The impact of increased urbanization has been harmful to the environment and
has led to the growth of greenhouse gas emissions
A. detrimental B. beneficial C. advantageous D. favorable
Question 21: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5
years. Likewise, that in school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 22: Because trees can prevent land erosion, afforestation projects should be
launched steadily.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. forestation D. deforestation
Question 23: The reality is the economy is hitting the ceiling and the growth rate must slow.
A. is reaching the highest limit B. is becoming extremely angry
C. is reaching the smallest level D. is keeping calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 24: David and Anna are talking about joining a club.
- Anna: “How about this advertisement? Are you interested in acting?”
- David: “_________________.”
A. You’re joking. I hate standing in front of people. B. Yes, I’d love to. I like the
poster the most.
C. Oh no. I’m not a liar. I’m an honest person. D. Never mind. Let’s go to the
cinema tonight.
Question 25: Jack and Jill are going to school together.
- Jack: “________________”
- Jill: “Relax. It doesn’t start until quarter past seven. It’s only five past.”
A. Where are you going? B. I’m anxious about the exam.
C. We are going to be late. D. Sorry. I forgot your address.
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
As the Covid-19 pandemic is becoming more complicated, resulting in a (26)
__________school break for all students in Vietnam, many schools turn to the e-learning
method as a sensible alternative. Vietnam Posts and Telecommunications Group (VNPT) is
providing educational institutes in (27) ______ areas with its E-Learning platform at no cost
until the end of the academic year 2019-2020. Teachers can access this platform to transform
their current lesson plans into the electronic version. They can also monitor students’ learning
process, check attendance, and have learners sit exams. (28)__________, parents can access
the website to check their children’s learning process as well. Additionally, VioEdu by FPT
Group is one prominent online learning product (29) _______ makes use of AI to offer
subscribers more than 500 exciting video lessons, along with a large quantity of exercises,
online tests. It aims at making the learning and evaluation process more convenient for both
teachers and students with features to assign tasks, mark them, and prepare a corresponding
academic report. One week after the product allows free (30)_________, students in all 63
provinces of Vietnam eagerly sign up for an account and nearly 8,000 school are now using it
to deliver lessons to their learners.
Question 26: A. lengthy B. prolonging C. durable D. extending
Question 27: A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. a good many
Question 28: A. In addition B. While C. In the meantime D. However
Question 29: A. whose B. which C. what D. where
Question 30: A. description B. subscription C. transcription D. prescription
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Marine ecotourism focuses specifically on activities that take place on the coast or in
the ocean. It includes activities like eco-friendly boating, dolphin and whale watching,
snorkeling, scuba diving and fishing, but in a sustainable way and with an emphasis on
education.
One of the most popular forms of marine ecotourism is whale watching. Whales are
worth more alive than dead these days, after decades — maybe even centuries — of whaling.
While commercial whaling is banned in most countries, Japan, Norway and Iceland have
continued the practice through finding loopholes or just rebelling against the international
law. A recent National Geographic article discussed the fact that the Japanese, for example,
are eating much less whale meat than in the past. They’re also spending a lot more time
whale watching.
Mexico is another example of this. The shark watching revenue in the Gulf of
California region represents more than half the value from shark fisheries in the country.
Ecotourism has become a much-needed source of employment in the Gulf of California (and
other coastal regions) because of warming ocean temperatures, extreme weather events that
are taking place more often than they have in the past, and declining fish stocks. In
Newfoundland, Canada’s main sealing province, over 1.3 million people participated in
whale watching. That contributed to nearly $20 million to the local economy and is seen as a
possible alternative to the sealing economy.
Ecotourism Australia says that “ecotourism has rocketed from an unknown entity to
global phenomenon in the last 30 years and nature-based tourism already makes up 75
percent of the international tourism market.” It’s an example of knowing better and doing
better, and can make a positive impact on conservation efforts on the coast and in the ocean.
(Source: https://www.renewableenergymagazine.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Whaling and sealing – gruesome tradition.
B. Ecotourism collapse threatens the wildlife.
C. Helping the environment through ecotourism.
D. From personal gratification to public satisfaction.
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. Marine ecotourism B. Eco-friendly boating
C. Sustainable way D. Tourism market
Question 33: According to the passage, marine ecotourism has achieved its goal of
_________
A. helping people value the ecosystem and changing behaviors for a better cause.
B. reminding people of their history of creating havoc in and around the oceans.
C. stopping overtourism by selecting the travelers based on environmental criteria.
D. providing tourists with an adventurous experience of visiting fascinating places.
Question 34: The word “rocketed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. plunged B. risen C. soared D. passed
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the situation of marine ecotourism?
A. Japanese marine ecotourism cannot fix what has been broken.
B. Marine ecotourism has already succeeded in making things better.
C. Many travelers still prefer the traditional tourism to ecotourism.
D. Marine tourism is the only one that has not emerged from obscurity.
Whether you’re put off by student loans, you need a break from education, or you’re
keen on starting work straight after school – going to university isn’t the right choice for
everyone. And you might be surprised at the career prospects available to those without a
degree. If you’re considering not going to university, here are a few options of what you
could do next.
If you’ve just finished school and you don’t have any work experience, traineeships
and internships are a great way to prepare yourself for your future career. Traineeships
usually last from six weeks to six months, and are offered exclusively to 16-23 year olds. Not
only do they provide essential work preparation training, they’re also the perfect opportunity
to gain the practical skills and experience needed to move onto an apprenticeship or job.
While internships are similar to traineeships, they are available to people of all ages – and
usually focus more on providing practical work experience, rather than guided training and
work preparation.
School leaver programmes are becoming a popular choice for A-level students who
aren’t interested in university, but still want the learning and training that’s involved with
further education. These programmes are designed to give school leavers the chance to earn a
qualification whilst working part-time or full-time (and earning a wage). The exact structure
of a school leaver programmes will largely depend on the company you work for. School
leaver programmes could last anything from three to seven years, and are most common in
industries like accountancy, finance, retail, engineering, and IT. .
If you’re keen to start work straight away, an entry-level job could be well within your reach.
And you may be surprised at what kinds of jobs are available. Whether you want to start a
career in education, you’re interested in breaking into the marketing industry, or you’re
passionate about IT – you don’t always need extensive experience or qualifications to start a
career in your preferred sector. And with many employers providing on-the-job training for
new recruits, you’ll be able to learn a range of key skills to help you progress within the
industry.
(Adapted from https://www.reed.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Different Paths after School B. University is Still the Best Choice
C. The Benefits of Not Going to University D. How to choose the Correct Job
Question 37: The word “prospects” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. benefits B. chances C. incomes D. disadvantages
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT provided by
traineeships?
A. work preparation B. practical skills C. work experience D. degrees
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. traineeships B. internships C. practical skills D. people of all ages
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what benefit do people receive from school leaver
programmes?
A. They are able to learn the knowledge about their job while working to get their
salary.
B. They can receive the training directly from the company they work for.
C. They are capable of doing many different kinds of jobs at the same time.
D. They can learn about the most common industries when being a student at school.
Question 41: The phrase “breaking into” in the last paragraph most probably means
____________.
A. running B. stopping C. taking part in D. keeping on
Question 42: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Internships bring more benefits to people than traineeships.
B. School leavers may have to spend from three to seven years on training before being
employed.
C. New employees may make a progress in their job thanks to the training when being
recruited.
D. You have to prepare quite carefully before running the business by yourself.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
Question 43: Due to his obesity, my father is advised to avoid eating fatty
foods, having more vegetables
A B C
and drink water.
D
Question 44: My school where I used to study is a very permissible school
because students are allowed
A B C
to do whatever they want.
D
Question 45: In the pool near my flat is little silvery fish darting around.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t work too much” said David’s sister.
A. David’s sister required him not to work too much.
B. David’s sister advised him not to work too much.
C. David’s sister promised not to force him to work too much.
D. David’s sister ordered him not to work too much.
Question 47: You are not allowed to wear casual clothes to school.
A. You needn’t wear casual clothes to school.
B. You mustn’t wear casual clothes to school.
C. You can’t wear casual clothes to school.
D. You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to school.
Question 48: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey.
A. They were so exhausted that they could continue the journey.
B. Such were their exhaustion that they could hardly continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. So exhausted were they that they could hardly continue the journey.
Question 50: It was raining. That’s the only reason I didn’t take the children to the beach.
A. If it hadn’t been raining, I would take the children to the beach.
B. But for it raining, I would have taken the children to the beach.
C. It was raining; otherwise I would have taken the children to the beach.
D. Hadn’t it been for the rain, I would have taken the children to the beach.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. agree B. import C. prepare D. demand
Question 2: A. urbanize B. develop C. variety D. proposal
Question 3: A. play B. train C. nation D. urban
Question 4: A. looked B. booked C. naked D. cooked
Question 5: Just think, in ___________three months, you will be 18. Why are you always
behaving like a child?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 6: Her father bought her _________ when he went on holiday in Singapore last
week.
A. a beautiful wooden yellow scarf B. a scarf wooden beautiful yellow
C. a yellow beautiful scarf wooden D. a beautiful yellow wooden scarf
Question 7: I _________ them yesterday to check when they____________, but I couldn’t
contact them.
A. was ringing/arrived B. rang/were arriving C. rang/arrived D. rang/had
arrived
Question 8: “It’s ____________ to know that you all are safe and sound”, said he.
A. comfort B. comfortable C. comforting D. comfortably
Question 9: Taking his behaviors into consideration, I guess you and he have been friends
for a long time, so he is familiar ___________ you.
A. to B. with C. for D. towards
Question 10: If you __________him in his office, please tell him to call me back.
A. see B. saw C. had seen D. have seen
Question 11: The man _______________ is my best friend’s father.
A. who I lent the money from B. whom I lent to the money
C. I lent the money D. whose money I lent
Question 12: You don’t think that she is suitable for this position, ________?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. do you D. don’t you
Question 13: ___________ she was late for the interview, she didn’t get the job.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 14: I asked for his help but he refused _____________ me a hand.
A. to giving B. to give C. giving D. give
Question 15: The investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services
___________ promise for the economic development of this city.
A. make B. keep C. break D. hold
Question 16: I can’t believe_____________. Are you telling me a lie?
A. what I am hearing B. that I am hearing
C. what I am hearing from D. that I am hearing from
Question 17: We regret to inform you that the trip was cancelled through ___________ of
interest.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. deficiency D. lack
Question 18: The weather forecast has reported that the snowstorm is ________ to reach the
coast the next morning.
A. expected B. predicted C. anticipated D. foretold
Question 19: They spent a lot of money on doing a _____________ to find out what our
customers think of their local bus service.
A. research B. experiment C. campaign D. survey
Question 20: I’m sorry but the manager and accountant have been on business since last
Monday and he
A B C
won’t return until tomorrow.
D
Question 21: He finds it annoyed at the way she is trying to take over the whole meeting.
A B C D
Question 22: This school has become heavily reliable on government support, so it
can’t have autonomy
A B C
in determining its curriculum.
D
Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically
developed countries (MEDCs).
A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded
Question 24: Too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion,
vulnerability and marginalization.
A. struggle for B. struggle against C. dealt with D. struggle to
Question 25: I really like him, but I’m confused. He seems to blow hot and cold - one
minute he likes me, and the next, he’s ignoring me!
A. changeable B. ambivalent C. loyal D. constant
Question 26: Your dress is really beautiful, Cindy! You look very awesome in it.
A. terrible B. terrific C. enjoyable D. pleasant
A group of researchers and experts in America and Australia listed 12 countries
affecting (27)_________ to the ocean by the year 2018 and Southeast Asia area has up to 5
representatives: Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. China ranks the
first with (28) _________ 8.8 million plastic wastes, and Vietnam ranks the fourth with 1.8
million. It is really alarming that the developing countries are main causes of environmental
pollution in 10 recent years. A terrible fact probably occurring by 2050 is that the ocean (29)
________much more wastes than sea creatures if the plastic wastes situation is still
continuing, according to the United Nations report. (30)________, the unexpected fact is that
it takes only 5 seconds to produce a plastic bag, 1 second to throw, but up to 500 or even
1000 years to decompose.
A reason for water pollution in Vietnam is that many companies and enterprises
cannot manage rubbish and then pour wastes into rivers and streams, (31)________ the
government cannot control at all.
Question 27: A. deeply B. considerately C. significantly D. largely
Question 28: A. mostly B. almost C. most D. most of
Question 29: A. consists B. comprises C. includes D. contains
Question 30: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Whereas
Question 31: A. where B. that C. which D. what
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive
skills, and emotional skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these
skills. Even if your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these
skills is much more effective than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care.
Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem
quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age,
and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child
development. If you do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never
learn. One infamous example of this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a
dark room with extremely little human contact until she was rescued at age 13. She was never
able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So, teaching your
children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional
skills are important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have
sympathy and compassion for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and
lows that come with life. If your child does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be
able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive
choices when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when
they are babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is
very important. In a family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful
in developing a child’s skills with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to
foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something very helpful for
family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain
way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to understand
how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their
feelings and move forward.
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child’s Skill Development
Question 33: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
______________.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 34: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _____________.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 35: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to
adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 37: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following
exchanges.
Question 39: - Mike: “How lovely the present is!”
- Jane: “____________”
A. It’s lucky you love it. B. I think so.
C. Yes, it’s lovely. D. No. I don’t like it.
Question 40: - Sue: “Historic events are always hard to remember. Do you think so?”
- Harry: “_______”
A. I think it’s good. B. I am not intelligent.
C. I don’t think it will happen. D. I can’t agree with you more.
Question 41: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realized how much her family
meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realized how much her family meant to her did she leave home to
start an independent life.
B. To realize how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an
independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realized how much
her family meant to her.
D. Only after Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realize how much
her family meant to her.
Question 42: Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights. More people are flying
for weekend trips to scenic cities.
A. If many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people will be flying
for weekend trips to scenic cities.
B. Although many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are
flying for weekend trips to scenic cities.
C. As many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
D. Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, or more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It’s impossible for you to meet the boss right now because he is out.
A. You can’t have met the boss right now because he is out.
B. You can’t be met the boss right now because he is out.
C. The boss can’t be met right now because he is out.
D. Meeting the boss right now is possible unless he is out.
Question 44: My boss asked me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the bus?”
A. My boss asked me why I was late and if did I miss the bus.
B. My boss asked me why was I late and did I miss the bus.
C. My boss asked me why you were late and if you missed the bus.
D. My boss asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the bus.
Question 45: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
The sound of music has changed as society has changed over the years, thus the
change in the sound of music is really a reflection of our cultural evolution. In the beginning
humans made music that closely mimicked the sounds they heard around them in nature in
terms of tones and repetitions.
In Indigenous cultures, music played a role in ceremonies and traditions. Traditional
instruments were played, and lyrics were often strongly linked to nature. The sounds of music
reflected this close association that indigenous cultures had with the land and its wildlife.
Over time, modern society has lost this connection. This is reflected in the changing sound of
the music and in the changing lyrics of songs that are sung. With time, more musical
instruments were developed and played together, which resulted in more sophisticated and
complex sounds being produced. The beats, rhythms, tempo and lyrics of songs all changed
along with the change in cultures.
Although some indigenous cultures such as many of the African tribes, Native
American tribes, South American ethnic people, and Australian aborigines still retain the
playing of their indigenous music, there have been influences from the western world
incorporated into some of the music. Features of the sound of music have changed over the
decades. The sound has definitely gotten louder. The pace and rhythm in many cases have
become faster, possibly reflecting the fast pace of the modern world that we live in today.
However the feature of music bounciness (how spiky and energetic the music feels) has
become less today when compared with the music of the1980s. Techno and reggae music are
typical examples of what is known as bouncy music.
The sound of music has become more complex over history mainly due to the
increased migration of people and their exposure to new elements. Today much of music has
sounds with elements from more than one region. The increasing tendency for music artists to
collaborate today is another reason we see more complexity and diversity in how music
sounds.
https://sonicspace.org/
Question 46: Which of the following could serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Why People Changed the Sound of Music?
B. Music: Now and Then
C. The Role of Music in Indigenous Cultures
D. Nature and Music
Question 47: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. musical instruments
B. developing and playing many musical instruments together
C. the changing sound of the music
D. the changing lyrics of songs
Question 48: The word “retain” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. preserve B. reduce C. exchange D. combine
Question 49: According to the passage, the following features of music have increased over
years, EXCEPT __________.
A. the sound volume B. the pace and rhythm
C. the connection to nature D. the sound’s complexity and diversity
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Western music has more influence on indigenous music than others.
B. The fast pace of life has caused the loss of connection to nature.
C. Almost every feature of music sounds changed when the cultures altered.
D. Modern music sounds contain different regional elements due to the collaboration of
music artists.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. mistake B. village C. client D. picture
Question 2: A. finds B. stays C. brings D. smarts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. network B. interest C. decide D. mountain
Question 4: A. condition B. generate C. encourage D. remember
Question 5: Winning an incredible prize from the state lottery was a turning point in my life,
which I have never imagined before.
A. unbelievable B. unpopular C. unacceptable D. unclear
Question 6: I really wanted to get my homework done early today, but my favorite TV show
proved to be a serious distraction.
A. attention B. interruption C. depression D. combination
Question 7: It’s pretty tough to find a job when you don’t have any previous experience.
A. difficult B. normal C. simple D. common
Question 8: The future of the project is up in the air as the management has failed to
finalize the budget.
A. undecided B. certain C. distant D. particular
Question 9: Marry and John are talking about drinking water at night.
- Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night “
- John: “___________. This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart
health.”
A. You can say it again B. I have no idea
C. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 10: Linda is talking to Brown after knowing the results. Linda passed her test with
flying colours.
- Brown: “Sincere congratulations on your hard-earned success.”
- Linda: “________________”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you.
C. Make yourself at home. D. There’s no doubt about it
the questions.
Question 11: Although the child was scolded by his parents at home, he did not display any
__________ change at school.
A. noticeable B. notify C. notice D. notification
Question 12: I couldn’t have a nice conversation with him because his girlfriend kept on
_____________ when we were talking to each other.
A. turning up B. taking off C. breaking up D. cutting in
Question 13: Nobody understood what was going on, ____________?
A. didn’t they B. did them C. did they D. do them
Question 14: Because the little boy would not stop playing with matches, it was
___________ that he would burn himself.
A. inevitable B. incompatible C. intractable D. incomparable
Question 15: ____________ my mother knew of my hatred for green beans, she still made
me eat them when I was a child.
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Because of
Question 16: He has lost weight since he _____________ eating chocolate bars.
A. was stopping B. stopped C. would stop D. will stop
Question 17: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he
had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind
Question 18: It is hard to _____________ the difference between the two versions of this
phone.
A. make B. hold C. tell D. keep
Question 19: If a doctor does not abide _______________ the laws of his profession, he may
lose the right to practice medicine.
A. at B. to C. on D. by
Question 20: We’ll give a reward to anyone _____________ the police with information
about the missing child.
A. to provide B. providing C. provided D. provides
Question 21: When I researched into the singer Rihanna’s hometown of Saint Michael
Parish, I learned that her _____________ was Barbadian.
A. citizenship B. partnership C. nationality D. ethnicity
Question 22: Between his son and his daughter, his daughter is ______________ better
athlete.
A. the B. an C. ∅ D. a
Question 23: The dolphin injured itself while struggling ____________ out of the
fisherman’s net.
A. to get B. getting C. to getting D. get
Question 24: ______wants to marry too early.
A. Neither the man nor the woman B. Whether the man or the woman
C. Both the man and the woman D. Not only the man but also the women
Question 25: You ___________ take this course if you know English grammar well.
A. don’t need take B. won’t need to take C. needn’t to take D. won’t need
take
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We usually walk to work but sometimes takes a cab when it is raining.
A B C D
Question 27: This book contains stories which are moving, enjoyable, and surprise.
A B C D
Question 28: No matter how hard he has tried to learn English, he is rubbishy at it.
A B C D
Question 29: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 30: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 31: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 33: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
There have never been so (34)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(35)__________ - pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may
support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the
San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to
record activity to look for warning signs. (36)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years
of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they
reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes
reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’ - places (37)_____ the plates widened—before
the fault line broke and the quakes occurred. We are learning more about these destructive
events every day. In the future we may be able to track earthquakes and design an early-
warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (38)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles
southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance
warning.
Question 34: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 35: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 36: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 38: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
What is the difference between friendship and love? This question has always been in
the minds of people for centuries. Though a definite answer cannot be given for this question,
one can come across some differences between the two.
When love can be termed as a sacrifice, friendship can be termed as a trust. Love is a
feeling that is uncontrollable, and a feeling which one has for another individual. On the other
hand, friendship is quite different from love in this aspect.
Love is a feeling between two individuals, and most of the time when they say “She/
he is my one and only” and in this case only two individuals are involved. But there are times
people may fall in love with more than one individual, but it is considered morally wrong
when you already have a partner or a boy/girlfriend. On the contrary, friendship involves
more individuals without any guilty feelings involved. One can have many friends, but most
of the time an individual can only have one person to love. You can love your family and
that’s another topic for discussion.
In love, there is great attachment for the other. Most of the time an individual gets
strong feeling of hurt if his loved one is in pain or hurt. This attachment may not be strong in
friendship. Regarding the emotions, individuals in love will experience a faster heartbeat
when they meet their loved one. This is not so when friends meet. There is no way that one
will lie awake and think of his friends for a whole night, but lovers will have sleepless nights,
and dream about their lovers. The lovers even sleep and wake up with the thoughts of his or
her lover.
Another difference that can be seen is that in love, some physical element is also
involved between individuals. On the other hand, there is no such physical element involved
in friendship.
(Adapted from http://www.differencebetween.net/)
Question 39: Which can be the title of the passage?
A. Love or Friendship
B. Distinction between Love and Friendship
C. Should We Love Our Friends?
D. The Connection between Love and Friendship
Question 40: According to the passage, what is TRUE about friendship?
A. People often sacrifice for their friends.
B. The feeling of friendship is uncontrollable.
C. People can have more than one friend at the same time.
D. Not all people trust their friends.
Question 41: The word “guilty” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ashamed B. criminal C. regretful D. unacceptable
Question 42: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. a faster heartbeat B. the emotions
C. their loved one D. strong feeling of hurt
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about love and friendship mentioned in the
passage?
A. People always have a greater attachment for the one they love.
B. Lovers often involve physical element which doesn’t happen in friendship.
C. People are blameworthy if they have many loved ones simultaneously.
D. People may have a sleepless night to think of their friends.
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to
their pupils, particularly older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread
that generation gap even wider, as young people become conversant with mobile digital
devices, games and social media that didn’t exist when their teachers were growing up.
Teachers now face pupils using devices and online systems that they don’t use themselves,
and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more prevalent than ever, but
teachers can bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media
and mobile devices in teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against
it at parent-teacher evenings, without realizing that preventing teenagers from using social
media like this, or messaging apps such as Snapchat and Instagram, is nearly impossible.
Online social media and network gaming are now such an integral part of teenage behavior
that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of young people is likely to
widen the generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists
within the staffroom, too. A teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards
the end of their working life will not have grown up with digital technology, whereas
teaching staff in their 20s and 30s could well be “digital natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you
think you’ve caught up, kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how
young people are using social networks that are, in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older
generation to understand. The key factor to consider is that today’s school students now take
for granted that a lot of their communication with their peers will be online, and
predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people expect their
educational experience to be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of
devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers
C. What Causes Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 46: The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of
teenagers.
Question 48: The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because
______________.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the
younger.
Question 49: The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means
_________.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the
generation gap between teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the
young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones
and mobile devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
-----THE END-----
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
Question 1: A. cleaned B. opened C. learned D. leaned
Question 2: A. purpose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
Question 3: A. conserve B. concern C. confirm D. conquer
Question 4: A. horizon B. additive C. interview D. continent
Question 5: It was ___________ most beautiful morning, so we decided to make for Sam
Son beach.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 6: Although travelling by air is quite expensive, its beauty consists _______ its
speed and ease.
A. in B. of C. for D. at
Question 7: The dogs and their ____________ owners stood waiting to see who would be
crowned winner of the pet show.
A. respected B. respectable C. respectful D. respective
Question 8: Ask a friend to recommend a doctor or, ____________that, ask for a list in your
local library.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. according to
Question 9: We can’t rely on Peter because he always looks for any excuse he can
__________ work.
A. to blow off B. put off C. set back D. call off
Question 10: His latest movie has won high praise from the critics but I don’t think it’s
_______ good.
A. much B. such C. too D. that
Question 11: The reason is ________, he estimated how much the population of London
would increase in the next 100 years.
A. why when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
B. that Bazalgette designed the tunnels
C. what Bazalgette designed the tunnels
D. that when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
Question 12: Nobody thought that he could achieve success, _______________?
A. could he B. didn’t they C. did they D. couldn’t he
Question 13: I didn’t even have time to complete all homework assignments, ____________
hang out with my friends.
A. now that B. in case C. instead of D. let alone
Question 14: If I _____________ younger, I ________ in the contest held last week.
A. were/would participate B. had been/would have participated
C. were/would have participated D. had been /would participate
Question 15: The woman wasn’t sure where she __________the rare illness since no one
else in her family had the disease.
A. contracted B. distracted C. extracted D. attracted
Question 16: Apart from entertaining, art may be used as a _____________for propaganda.
A. means B. vehicle C. method D. way
Question 17: Because I can’t handle all my customer orders by telephone, I need to hire an
engineer to ____________ an app for order processing.
A. deduce B. define C. devise D. deduct
Question 18: If you feel like you are catching a cold, try to nip it in the ___________ so that
it does not cause you to miss work.
A. bush B. bulk C. bud D. bunch
Question 19: Harry went for a picnic with her friends after she ____________ her work.
A. has finished B. would have finished C. had finished D. will finish
Question 20: My father was given a delicious Spanish white wine by a friend of him who had
just returned from Spain. A B C D
Question 21: Over a half of all accidents happens in the home because people aren’t aware
of potential dangers. A B C D
Question 22: I find it difficult to understand the full importance of this statement, so I ask my
brother for his help. A B C D
Question 23: I need an assistant - I’m very busy with work.
A. am up to my eyes B. am up to my ears C. have my hands full D. am up
to my neck
Question 24: Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about
the currency because of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
Question 25: When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he
commanded his officers to release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 26: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next
generation solve the global warming problem.
A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem
Question 27: Leon and Drake are talking about drinking water.
- Leon: “As far as I know, drinking warm water is really good for our health”
- Drake “ ________________ because warm water helps to get rid of harmful toxins from
your body and also works to prevent skin issues like acne.”
A. You must say that again B. I’d say the exact opposite.
C. I have to side with you on this one D. That’s not always true.
Question 28: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
– “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Question 29: Stella said to me: “My company was established in 2000”.
A. Stella told to me that her company was established in 2000.
B. Stella told me that her company had been established in 2000.
C. Stella said me that her company was established in 2000.
D. Stella said her company was established in 2000.
Question 30: I’m pretty sure the burglar got in through the kitchen window.
A. The burglar must be got in through the kitchen window.
B. The burglar should have got in through the kitchen window.
C. The burglar must have got in through the kitchen window.
D. The burglar could have got in through the kitchen window.
Question 31: As students get closer to their exams, they become more nervous.
A. The closer students get to their exams, the more nervous they become.
B. The closer students get to their exams, they become more nervous.
C. The students get closer to their exams, the nervous they become more.
D. The students get to their exams closer, the nervous they become more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
C. Not only some websites are really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable
sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him
because she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal to his girlfriend’s trust, she would have
broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t
have broken up with him.
Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial
City of Hue has long been a (34)____________attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm
of Vietnam. The Imperial City of Hue was actually a walled fortress and palace belonged to
the ancient city of Hue (35)__________ was a capital city of the Nguyen Dynasty for 140
years date back from 1805 until 1945.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6
meters and 21 meters thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by
cannons, artilleries and ammunitions. (36)________the fortress was built solely by soil, only
to be replaced by bricks afterward. Surrounding the city is the complicated canal system
served not only as a protection but also as a waterway with nearly seven kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates (37) _______to the Imperial City of Hue,
which can be divided into two main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and
The Forbidden City. The former served to protect the important palaces inside while the
(38)_________was where the emperor and the royal family stayed as well as the court’s
workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures including majestic palaces,
tombs and museums stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing attraction right in
the heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 34: A. must-have B. must-read C. must-see D. must-do
Question 35: A. what B. where C. that D. who
Question 36: A. At first B. At least C. At most D. At that
Question 37: A. lead B. leading C. led D. having led
Question 38: A. later B. late C. lately D. latter
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-
in-ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban
or suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily
interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have
a neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban
areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in
their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they
would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural
areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 41: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 42: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________. A.
experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 43: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer
time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant
culture takes things from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange
is different from cultural appropriation. Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been
shared between different cultures throughout history. These ‘borrowings’ aren’t the same as
cultural appropriation, because they don’t involve power. When dominant groups take from
an oppressed group, we’re dealing with appropriation, not cultural exchange. Cultural
appropriation is also very different from assimilation. ‘Assimilation’ describes what happens
when minority cultures are forced to adopt features from a dominant culture in order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that’s experiencing oppression, it’s often a result of
colonization, where a dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people.
When the dominant group continues to steal aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues
the economic oppression and disadvantage of that culture. In Australia, there are cases where
white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander artworks for
use on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to make money from the non-
dominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for
aspects of a culture that they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two
groups. For example, Kylie Jenner was credited with starting an ‘edgy’ new hair trend, while
black actress Zendaya faced criticism for wearing her hair the same way. What’s interesting
about this, is that Zendaya’s natural hair was seen as a negative. But Kylie Jenner, a person
with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something that wasn’t hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese
geisha or the Arab sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween.
When people from dominant cultures ‘dress up’ like this, it reduces something of cultural
significance to a costume just so that the dominant group can have ‘a bit of fun’. It also keeps
these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it’s encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being
invited to an Indian wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is
not cultural appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/)
Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange. B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation. D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange,
cultural appropriation and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal
footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority
ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 47: The word “ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 48: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 49: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another
culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behavior and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 50: The word “cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. loves B. likes C. hates D. makes
Question 2: A. device B. derive C. delete D. decent
Question 3: A. oceanic B. physician C. determine D. objective
Question 4: A. comment B. commerce C. commit D. common
Question 5: She died of liver cancer on _________ Tuesday after _________18-month battle
against it.
A. a – an B. no article – a C. a – a D. no article - no article
Question 6: We hope the problem can be ___________ by getting the two sides together to
discuss it.
A. cleared out B. cleared up C. cleared off D. cleared away
Question 7: I have to complete all homework assignments, _______________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t I C. do I D. have I
Question 8: There are many doubts about the quality of the school. ______________, some
families are enrolling their children to it.
A. As yet B. Even so C. Even as D. As if
Question 9: As a teacher, I am always eager to find ways to ________ a love of learning in
my students.
A. institute B. inscribe C. instill D. inspect
Question 10: When his father passed away, he received an _________ amount of money
from his estate.
A. appreciative B. appreciation C. appreciate D. appreciable
Question 11: If the plane tickets _____________ a little cheaper, my parents ____________
coming to visit me last month.
A. were/would consider B. had been/would consider
C. were/would have considered D. had been/would have considered
Question 12: Her story ____________ really moved me a lot.
A. of what had happened throughout her life B. of which had happened throughout
her life
C. what had happened throughout her life D. had happened throughout her life
Question 13: The working conditions in their factories ________ dramatically during the last
few months.
A. improved B. have improved C. was improved D. have been improved
Question 14: Teachers at this school are encouraged to ___________ themselves of the full
range of educational facilities.
A. accord B. avert C. avail D. apply
Question 15: My husband seemed indifferent _______ the food on his plate and ate it
without comment.
A. for B. at C. to D. from
Question 16: Supporters at the event ___________ students from a local school, as well as
their parents.
A. being included B. having included C. included D. including
Question 17: Mutual understanding is very important because it allows all parties ________
to learn about one another.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. involve
Question 18: My aunt has a parking ________ which allows her to park on the street outside
her house.
A. allowance B. permission C. permit D. acceptance
Question 19: She doesn’t have time for idle talk, so you should cut to the ____ and tell her
what you want.
A. point B. chase C. race D. side
Question 20: It gave my brother a kick to see his own play on television.
A. thrust B. threat C. thrill D. thread
Question 21: We had a quarrel about money, but we decided to clear the air by sitting
together and discussing things frankly.
A. make a terrible mess at trivial things
B. explain everything that someone had understood
C. remove all dirty and untidy things
D. get rid of all doubts and negative feelings
Question 22: Rapid economic growth is the most concrete evidence of the overall success of
South-South cooperation in Asia.
A. abnormal B. discrete C. conscious D. abstract
Question 23: My boss is convinced that we will find a satisfactory solution to the problem.
A. irrational B. reasonable C. affordable D. irrelevant
Question 24: Brian and Robert are discussing the topic of nutrition.
- Brian: “People should eat five daily portions of fruit and vegetables, as far as I’m
concerned.”
- Robert “ ________________ since fruit and vegetables are packed with essential vitamins,
minerals, and fiber”
A. I shouldn’t agree with you more B. That’s just what I am thinking.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. I must take issue with you on that.
Question 25: Maria is thanking Daniel for giving her a lift home.
Maria: “Thanks for taking me to my house.”
Daniel: “You’re welcome. ________________ now that I have a car.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. There’s a first time for everything
C. There’s no doubt about it D. It’s the least I could do
Question 26: Succeeding in getting a steady job, you need to take advantage of opportunities
and follow your dreams. A B C D
Question 27: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people’s
attitudes to
A B C
the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 28: I know beyond a shade of a doubt that she will decide to stand as a candidate in
the local
A B C
election.
D
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous
day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 31: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 32: My father has many new clothes. However, he always wears his old coat.
A. However old his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
B. As old as his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
C. However many new clothes he has, my father always wears his old coat.
D. Many clothes as he has worn, my father always wears his old coat.
Question 33: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost
all matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with
an unacceptable result.
How can solar cells become (34)__________ enough to be commercially viable?
There are, of course, a huge range of ongoing efforts to address this problem. Among
the most recent approaches to this problem comes from a team of physicists and engineers at
MIT (35)_____ is using computer modeling and advanced chip-manufacturing techniques.
In December of 2008, researchers from the Research Laboratory of Electronics, and
the departments of materials science and engineering and physics applied an antireflection
coating to the front of ultrathin silicon films, plus a novel combination of multi-layered
reflective coatings and a tightly spaced array of lines to the backs of the films. The result is
photovoltaic cells with as much as 50 (36)______ more electrical output.
The carefully designed layers deposited on the back of the cell cause light to (37)
_________ around longer inside the silicon layer, giving it more time to deposit its energy
and produce an electric current.
The work has attracted interest from industry for (38) _______ranging from
generating remote off-grid electricity to dedicated clean power.
(Source: https://engineering.mit.edu/)
Question 34: A. cost-efficient B. cost-benefit C. cost-conscious D. cost-free
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. that D. what
Question 36: A. percentage B. percent C. proportion D. rate
Question 37: A. burst B. reflect C. bounce D. pour
Question 38: A. applications B. appliances C. applicants D. applicability
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found
that chit-chat actually has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we
realized our most meaningful interactions are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s
when we’re greeting administrative staff, or the friendly gabbing before a meeting,” said
Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers
surveyed 151 full-time employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After
controlling for participants’ baseline engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about
levels of small talk throughout the day, and asked respondents to rate their emotions, work
productivity, and overall engagement.
“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was
lower than what it is for an extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social
emotions and contributed to employees feeling connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to
explain what small talk is not. It is not long-winded ranting about an ineffective supervisor. It
is not a sensitive discussion about someone’s personal life. “It is surface level. It is ‘Weather
looks great this weekend, any plans?’ Surface level is what gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and
foster inclusiveness. “Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small
talk, which can create a barrier for new employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of
greater awareness about diversity and inclusion, small talk can be an asset to a company. It
can be a road to more inclusion by helping socialize and embed employees into the
organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/)
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socializing. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossip-
mongers.
Question 40: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 41: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the
passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 42: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
A. “Can you believe all of this rain we’ve been having?”
B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?”
D. “You look like you could really use a cup of coffee.”
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
In a paper published in Science Advances, an international team of researchers have
examined traits of marine megafauna species to better understand the potential ecological
consequences of their extinction under different future scenarios.
Defined as the largest animals in the oceans, with a body mass that exceeds 45kg,
examples include sharks, whales, seals and sea turtles. These species serve key roles in
ecosystems, including the consumption of large amounts of biomass, transporting nutrients
across habitats, connecting ocean ecosystems, and physically modifying habitats. Traits, such
as how large they are, what they eat, and how far they move, determine species’ ecological
functions. As a result, measuring the diversity of traits allows scientists to quantify the
contributions of marine megafauna to ecosystems and assess the potential consequences of
their extinction.
The team of researchers – led by Swansea University’s Dr Catalina Pimiento – first
compiled a species-level trait dataset for all known marine megafauna to understand the
extent of ecological functions they perform in marine systems. Then, after simulating future
extinction scenarios and quantifying the potential impact of species loss on functional
diversity, they introduced a new index (FUSE) to inform conservation priorities.
The results showed a diverse range of functional traits held by marine megafauna, as
well as how the current extinction crisis might affect their functional diversity. If current
trajectories are maintained, in the next 100 years we could lose, on average, 18% of marine
megafauna species, which will translate in the loss of 11% of the extent of ecological
functions. Nevertheless, if all currently threatened species were to go extinct, we could lose
40% of species and 48% of the extent of ecological functions. Sharks are predicted to be the
most affected, with losses of functional richness far beyond those expected under random
extinctions.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serve as the title of the passage?
A. How marine megafauna species’ extinction affects the ecology
B. The consequences of trait examination of marine megafauna species
C. What should be examined in the research in marine megafauna species?
D. The causes of marine megafauna species’ extinction
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the main roles of the largest
animals in the oceans, EXCEPT _______________.
A. consuming large amounts of biomass B. transporting nutrients across habitats
C. associating ocean ecosystems D. mentally modifying habitats
Question 46: The word “determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
______________.
A. affect B. establish C. describe D. cover
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________.
A. researchers B. ecological functions
C. marine systems D. future extinction scenarios
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what proportion of ecological functions could we
lose if all currently threatened species became extinct?
A. nearly one fifth B. more than one tenth C. two fifths D. nearly a half
Question 49: The word “translate” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___________.
A. interpret B. increase C. cause D. require
Question 50: As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The animals weighing about 45kg are classified as the largest ones in the ocean.
B. Measuring the extinction of marine megafauna allows scientists to know the
consequences to ecosystems.
C. The species guessed to be the most affected by random extinction are sharks.
D. The researchers now have known all the extent of ecological functions of marine
megafauna.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. creative B. threaten C. breadwinner D. heavy
Question 3: A. industry B. register C. optimist D. courageous
Question 4: A. complain B. borrow C. listen D. injure
Question 5: The campaign is trying to get ___________ message across that parental
education plays an important role in ___________ development of a child.
A. no article-the B. a - no article C. the-the D. a-the
Question 6: My parents could hardly afford a house in the city, so we had to settle
____________ the second best in my hometown.
A. down B. into C. for D. in
Question 7: She thought somebody had broken into her house last night, ____________?
A. hadn’t they B. had they C. didn’t she D. did she
Question 8: She expects _________ compensation for all direct expenses _________ out of
the accident.
A. to be received-arising B. to receive-arising C. to be received-
arisen D. to receive-arisen
Question 9: His laziness caused the company to perform badly last quarter. ___________,
his attitude toward the boss has put his job in jeopardy.
A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In addition to
Question 10: Governments need to provide a viable _________ to car travel in order to
reduce pollution in the country.
A. alternation B. alternative C. alternate D. alternating
Question 11: She’d rather you ____________ anyone that she’d lost her job as a hotel
manager.
A. won’t tell B. wouldn’t have told C. didn’t tell D. don’t tell
Question 12: We have just launched our annual campaign to improve the ____ of women’s
health issues.
A. credential B. profile C. portrait D. background
Question 13: He won’t return home ____________________ given to him this morning.
A. until he had finished all the assignments B. until he has finished all the
assignments
C. till he finishes all the assignments D. as soon as he has finished all the
assignments
Question 14: Jack has an amazingly _____________ memory and can easily recall the
capitals of three hundred different countries in the world.
A. attentive B. reactive C. tentative D. retentive
Question 15: Providing a vaccine against the pandemic virus is a __________ issue.
A. scorching B. sweltering C. sizzling D. burning
Question 16: Research needs _____________ the impact of play on the rest of the child’s
life.
A. to study B. to studying C. studying D. to be studied
Question 17: He talked about his incredible experience of being _____ space, looking down
on the Earth.
A. on B. above C. in D. at
Question 18: Students _____________ cheating in any exam will be disqualified from all
their exams.
A. who found B. founded C. found D. having founded
Question 19: It __________ my mind that it’s my friend’s birthday tomorrow and I haven’t
got her a present yet.
A. bore B. kept C. crossed D. bent
Question 20: If you have a food allergy, you should avoid any of the ingredients that
can trigger an attack.
A. set up B. set apart C. set back D. set off
Question 21: She gave up her job as a secretary last year and teaching is her bread and
butter right now.
A. likelihood B. livelihood C. selfhood D. manhood
Question 22: There are specific areas within the festival where children under ten years old
are not allowed.
A. peculiar B. ambiguous C. particular D. delicate
Question 23: By setting up a camera system to monitor his property, the homeowner hoped
he would catch trespassers or thieves.
A. supervise B. revise C. overlook D. oversee
Question 24: Fred and Jerry are discussing the time they arrive at the airport.
- Fred: “We should arrive at the airport two hours before flight within the country.”
- Jerry: “______________. Traffic congestion is getting worse.”
A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. You took the words right out of my mouth
C. Mind your own business
D. I see your point, but I can’t completely agree with your solution
Question 25: Jack is asking Justine about the destination for his summer vacation.
- Jack: “Have you picked your next summer destination? Italy?”
- Justine: “ ______________. I’m going to Thailand.”
A. It’s up to you B. It’s on me
C. Not even close D. Not a moment too soon
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Recent research in the field has concentrated on academic support rather
than integrated into
A B C
the wider social world of the university.
D
Question 27: She’s one of the most consistent student in her class, despite the
many disadvantages she
A B C D
has experienced in her life.
Question 28: Although she has fought a long battle against cancer, she always tries to keep a
positive
A B C
lookout on life.
D
Question 29: How long have you been living in Viet Nam?”, said Fiona to me.
A. Fiona told me that I had been living in Viet Nam for a long time.
B. Fiona asked me how long had I been living in Viet Nam.
C. Fiona asked me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
D. Fiona told me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
Question 30: I’m annoyed that Charles forgot to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
A. Charles didn’t have to forget to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
B. Charles must have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
C. Charles should have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
D. Charles might have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
Question 31: As more people come to the relief camp, our work will probably get more
difficult.
A. The more people come to the relief camp, the more difficult our work will probably
get.
B. More and more people come to the relief camp, more and more difficult our work
will probably get.
C. The more people come to the relief camp, the difficult our work will probably get
more.
D. Our work will probably get less difficult if there are more people come to the relief
camp.
Question 32: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Question 33: The process of global warming continues at its present rate. The polar bears
will ultimately disappear.
A. But for the process of global warming continues at its present rate, the polar bears
will ultimately disappear.
B. Should the process of global warming continue at its present rate, the polar bears will
ultimately disappear.
C. Were not the process of global warming to continue at its present rate, the polar bears
wouldn’t ultimately disappear.
D. As long as the process of global warming didn’t continue at its present rate, the polar
bears wouldn’t ultimately disappear.
Financial independence is one of the many markers used to designate the crossover
from childhood into young adulthood, and it’s a (34)_________ most Americans (64%) think
young adults should reach by the time they are 22 years old, according to a new Pew
Research Center study. But that’s not the reality for most young adults who’ve achieved this
age.
The share of young adults who could be considered “financially independent” from
their parents by their early 20s – an assessment based on their annual income – has gone
down somewhat in recent decades. Looking more broadly at young adults aged 18 to 29, the
share who are financially independent has been (35)__________stable in recent decades.
Overall, young men are more likely than young women to be financially independent, but this
gender gap has diminished significantly.
The new survey findings underscore the extent to which many young adults are
financially reliant on their parents. (36) ________ young adults who have received financial
help from their parents say at least some of it was for recurring expenses. Six-in-ten say the
money went toward household expenses such as groceries or bills, and significant shares used
it to pay their tuition, rent, or mortgage. Beyond financial independence, the pace with
(37)_________ young adults are reaching other markers of adulthood has slowed
significantly over the past several decades. Today’s young adults are staying in school longer
and are marrying and establishing their own households later than previous generations.
(38)_________, a growing share is living in their parents’ homes well into their 20s and even
early 30s. Some of these changes are linked to economic challenges, while others may
represent a realignment of goals and priorities.
(Source: https://www.pewsocialtrends.org)
Question 34: A. springboard B. milepost C. breadwinner D. milestones
Question
35: A. comparatively B. approximately C. considerably D. significantly
Question 36: A. Almost B. Mostly C. Most D. Most of
Question 37: A. where B. that C. which D. who
Question 38: A. In addition B. In contrast C. In short D. Instead
Two-thirds of people in the world will be living in cities by 2050 and the boom will
be concentrated in India, China and Nigeria, according to United Nations estimates released
on Wednesday. The world’s rural population will peak in a few years then decline by 2050,
according to the report by the UN’s population division.
Tokyo is currently the world’s largest city with 37 million people, followed by Delhi
with 29 million, Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and São Paulo, each with around
22 million inhabitants. Cairo, Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million
inhabitants. However, Delhi will overtake Tokyo in top spot by around 2028, the report said.
At about the same time, India is expected to surpass China as the country with the world’s
largest total population.
Around 55% of the world population lives in urban areas today, increasing to 68% by
2050. India, China and Nigeria will account for more than a third of that expansion. There
will also be more megacities. In 1990, there were just 10 megacities, classed as places with
populations of 10 million or more. There are now 33 megacities and by 2030, 43 megacities
are projected, mostly in developing countries.
However, a few cities in Japan and South Korea – for example, Nagasaki and Busan –
have experienced population decline since 2000. Several cities in Eastern Europe, such as in
Poland, Romania, Russia and Ukraine, have lost population since the turn of the century.
However, urbanization could be seen as positive, said John Wilmoth, director of the
population division. “The increasing concentration of people in cities provides a way of more
economically providing services,” he said. “We find that urban populations have better access
to health care and education.” The concentration of population may also help to minimize our
environmental impact on the planet, he said, and help cities design policies and practices to
prepare for the influx.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 39: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The population of cities in the future
B. The new increasing trend of rural population
C. The cities with the largest number of population
D. The future of populations in developing countries
Question 40: The word “overtake” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overdue B. outstrip C. keep up with D. come along
Question 41: The phrase “that expansion” in paragraph 3 refers to the increase of
__________.
A. urban population B. world population C. urban areas D. rural areas
Question 42 : According to the passage, some cities of the following countries have seen the
downward trend in population, EXCEPT __________.
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Russia D. India
Question 43: According to John Wilmoth, more people living in urban areas may reduce
__________.
A. the quality of health care and education
B. the people’s influence on the Earth’s environment
C. the results of cities’ policies and practices
D. the population of the whole country
The earliest recorded festivities in honor of a new year’s arrival date back some 4,000
years to ancient Babylon. For the Babylonians, the first new moon following the vernal
equinox heralded the start of a new year. Throughout antiquity, civilizations around the world
developed increasingly sophisticated calendars. In Egypt, for instance, the year began with
the annual flooding of the Nile, which coincided with the rising of the star Sirius. The first
day of the Chinese new year, meanwhile, occurred with the second new moon after the
winter solstice.
The early Roman calendar consisted of 10 months and 304 days. Over the centuries,
the calendar fell out of sync with the sun, and in 46 B.C. the emperor Julius Caesar decided to
solve the problem by consulting with the most prominent astronomers and mathematicians of
his time. He introduced the Julian calendar, which closely resembles the more
modern one that most countries around the world use today.
In many countries, New Year’s celebrations begin on the evening of December 31—New
Year’s Eve—and continue into the early hours of January 1. In Spain and several other
Spanish-speaking countries, people bolt down a dozen grapes-symbolizing their hopes for the
months ahead-right before midnight. In many parts of the world, traditional New Year’s
dishes feature legumes, which are thought to resemble coins and herald future financial
success; examples include lentils in Italy and black-eyed peas in the southern United States.
Because pigs represent progress and prosperity in some cultures, pork appears on the New
Year’s Eve table in Cuba, Austria, Hungary, Portugal and other countries. Ring-shaped cakes
and pastries, a sign that the year has come full circle, round out the feast in the Netherlands,
Mexico, Greece and elsewhere. In Sweden and Norway, meanwhile, rice pudding with an
almond hidden inside is served on New Year’s Eve; it is said that whoever finds the nut can
expect 12 months of good fortune.
Other customs that are common worldwide include watching fireworks and singing
songs to welcome the new year, including the ever-popular “Auld Lang Syne” in many
English-speaking countries. The practice of making resolutions for the new year is thought to
have first caught on among the ancient Babylonians, who made promises in order to earn
the favor of the gods and start the year off on the right foot.
(Source: https://www.history.com/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How January 1st becomes special. B. Best destinations to celebrate New Year.
C. New Year’s gatherings. D. New Year’s celebrations.
Question 45: The word “occurred” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. happened B. befell C. take place D. surfaced
Question 46: The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. astronomer B. calendar C. sun D. emperor
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, revelers often enjoy specific meals and snacks
during New Year because ________.
A. they are thought to bestow good luck for the coming year.
B. each represents the history and evolution of each country.
C. people want to enjoy their favorite foods in this special holiday.
D. they are on discount, thus cheaper, at this time of the year.
Question 48: The word “favor” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. permission C. partiality D. goodwill
Question 49: According to the passage, which is NOT mentioned as a common tradition
during New Year?
A. Watching fireworks displays. B. Eating special New Year’s foods.
C. Dropping a giant ball from the sky. D. Making resolutions for the next year.
Question 50: Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Civilizations over the world have celebrated the start of a year for at least 4 millennia.
B. The New Year’s Day served an important political purpose for the ancient
Babylonians.
C. Nations across the world typically pinned the first day of a year to an astronomical
event.
D. To realign the Roman calendar with the sun, Julius Caesar introduced his Julian
calendar.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. pleased B. laughed C. brushed D. liked
Question 2: A. divorce B. reliant C. promise D. idiot
Question 3: A. deceive B. debate C. decade D. dessert
Question 4: A. recommend B. necessary C. represent D. university
Question 5: My sister is working in _________ call center and getting paid by ________
hour.
A. a-no article B. the-an C. the-no article D. a-the
Question 6: I had told her that I would help her repair her light, but she __________ asking
me about it all the time.
A. kept on B. carried on C. kept at D. stuck to
Question 7: Neither of your parents speaks a foreign language, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 8: When I saw the book on the bookshelf, I knew it was exactly what I __________
for.
A. have been looking B. was looking C. had been looking D. looked
Question 9: Strict regulations regarding the number of hours workers must work _________
improvements in efficiency at the factory
A. in lieu of B. in the interests of C. in regard to D. in harmony with
Question 10: Researchers are conducting a ___________ study of health problems of people
living in urban and rural areas.
A. comparability B. comparison C. comparable D. comparative
Question 11: The city’s housing authority is in discussion with Marry, ____________ land
most of the village is built.
A. in which B. on whose C. in whose D. on where
Question 12: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ___________of physiotherapy
after she broke her leg in an accident.
A. stage B. chapter C. course D. episode
Question 13: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, the worker __________ in a critical
condition in hospital last night.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 14: Governments have already taken drastic measures to ____________ minerals
and natural resources for our next generations.
A. handle B. remain C. husband D. shoulder
Question 15: In an interview, smart presentation and high level of fluency can ___________
the balance in your favour.
A. keep B. bear C. strike D. tip
Question 16: I couldn’t watch my favorite channel due to the noise made from the next
room, so I paused for a moment and then continued ___________.
A. to watch B. having watched C. watching D. to watching
Question 17: My family used to live and work _________ a farm, so I have quite a good
knowledge of farming.
A. on B. above C. in D. for
Question 18: The issue ________ at the conference was an extremely complicated one.
A. discussing B. to be discussed C. discussed D. having discussed
Question 19: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a
copy of her CV on the ____________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 20: Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they
have finished eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 21: The retailer said that their profits would be lower than those in the previous
year, due largely to an increase in clothing promotions.
A. brochures B. advancements C. encouragements D. advertisements
Question 22: Recent economic conditions have intensified the pressure on industry to raise
prices.
A. heightened B. exaggerated C. varied D. diminished
Question 23: She used to smoke two packets of cigarettes a day, but then she deciced to stop
smoking and quit cold turkey.
A. suddenly and completely B. abruptly and thoroughly
C. calmly and regretfully D. gradually and partially
Question 24: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.”
- Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on
grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that
Question 25: Tung is asking Tram about her favorite drink.
- Tung: “Do you want green tea or milk tea?”
- Tram: “______________.”
A. It’s up to me B. I really hate green tea
C. Oh, either. It doesn’t matter D. Mind your own business
Question 26: Locating in a tranquil setting, this hotel is ideally situated for the beach
and nearby fishing
A B C D
village of Fuenigirolia.
Question 27: The advantages of travelling by public transport is that
it’s convenient and cheap.
A B C D
Question 28: While it was not formally announced, there was an intimacy from the
public that he would
A B C
win the election.
D
Question 29: “You’d better spent the weekend revising for your exam.”, said my mother to
me.
A. My mother scolded me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
B. My mother advised me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
C. My mother suggested me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
D. My mother obliged me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
Question 30: In most developed countries, it is not necessary for people to boil water before
they drink it.
A. In most developed countries, people ought to boil water before they drink it.
B. In most developed countries, people don’t need to boil water before they drink it.
C. In most developed countries, people should have boiled water before they drink it.
D. In most developed countries, people mustn’t boil water before they drink it.
Question 31: It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass.
A. Manufacturing new glass is more expensive than producing recycled glass.
B. Producing recycled glass is less expensive than manufacturing new glass.
C. Manufacturing new glass is as expensive as producing recycled glass.
D. Manufacturing new glass is less expensive than producing recycled glass.
Question 32: The weather conditions became so dangerous. People were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
A. So dangerous were the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
B. Such dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
C. So dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
D. The weather conditions became such dangerous that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
Question 33: She is the winner of the beauty pageant. That is the only reason people pay
attention to her.
A. Were she the winner of the beauty pageant, people would pay attention to her.
B. Should she be the winner of the beauty pageant, people will pay attention to her.
C. If it hadn’t been for the fact that she was the winner of the beauty pageant, people
wouldn’t have paid attention to her
D. If it weren’t for the fact that she is the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t
pay attention to her.
URBANIZATION
Especially for those coming from rural areas, urban areas can create an overall better
quality of life in several ways. When urban areas become (34)_________ cities and towns,
they become a society of culture that can facilitate financial and educational growth.
With industrialization comes the creation of jobs. Usually making a shift from an
agricultural economy, industrialization paves the way for modern industries and will need
more people to perform various jobs. Rural jobs such as farming and mining may be
(35)_________, while urban employment opportunities - such as healthcare, business, and
education - will need a considerable amount of people with a variety of skills to fill many
jobs.
Modern technology provides for better city infrastructure. With modernization, cities
can adapt to cultural needs and provide support systems for future development.
(36)_________, modernization can make for a more sustainable city layout, with better
housing/businesses, market centers, and public transit systems. For example, in advanced
cities, mobile technology can assist large businesses in advanced mobility hubs for vehicles,
(37)_________ significantly reduces the amount of traffic in growing cities.
The very presence of the Internet and IoT technology can expand communication to
nearly any corner of the globe, and has the capability to efficiently run (38)_________ and
lighting for a whole city. These are just a few illustrations of how technology and
modernization can provide efficient solutions to many facets of life, facilitating a better
standard of living.
(Source: https://www.flashparking.com)
Question 34: A. bustling B. secluded C. adventurous D. shallow
Question 35: A. labor-intensity B. labor-intensively C. labor-
intension D. labor-intensive
Question 36: A. Subsequently B. Additionally C. Previously D. Differently
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. which
Question 38: A. utilities B. practicalities C. benefits D. possibilities
to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Flirting is a fundamental fixture in the sexual behavior repertoire, a time-honored way
of signaling interest and attraction. It is a kind of silent language spoken by men and women
around the world. The ways people communicate interest are so deeply rooted in human
nature that the signals are automatically understood by all: from ways of glancing to
movements such as licking one’s lips, to meet nature’s most basic command—find a good
mate and multiply.
Flirting is not a trivial activity; it requires many skills: intellect, body language,
creativity, empathy. At its best, flirting can be high art, whether the flirter is vying for a soul
mate, manipulating a potential customer, or just being playful.
The process of flirting allows the signaling of interest to another in small increments,
which is especially appealing to a partner. Flirting is driven by emotions and instinct rather
than logical thought. Yet the gestures and movements used in flirting also provide reliable
clues to a person’s biological and psychological health.
Flirting has many parallels in the animal world, seen in the behavioral displays many
animals engage in to signal not only their availability but their suitability. For example,
penguins search for small pebbles to deliver to their partner of interest. Seahorses lock their
tails together for a romantic swim. Bower birds use leaves, grass, and twigs to construct
elaborate nests.
Across the animal kingdom, such actions are closely tied to seasonal reproductive
readiness and signal reproductive fitness by one creature to another. Among humans, the
repertoire of flirting behaviors can be deployed at will and the exact meaning of any gesture
is usually a matter of interpretation.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 39: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Flirting B. Charisma C. Nonverbal cues D. Romantic feelings
Question 40: The word “vying” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. seeking B. challenging C. competing D. clashing
Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. nests’ B. pebbles’ C. penguins’ D. seahorses’
Question 42: According to the passage, what can be suggested about the flirting of animals?
A. Animal courtship varies tremendously between species.
B. Birds prefer subtle movements to lavish displays.
C. Aquatic animals do not flirt due to their breeding habits.
D. Animals cannot feel the excitement of flirting like humans.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The behavior of flirting is not restricted to humans.
B. Humans generally flirt with thinly veiled innuendoes.
C. All humans are equipped with the language of flirtation.
D. There is profound information transmitted in flirting.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp
upward demand, reinforcing its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal
wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations
in an effort to contain it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries
has been the closure of all schools. The sudden adjustments of educational processes and
altered dynamics between all involved parties - schools, teachers, students and parents – are
challenging familiar routines and threatening crucial public objectives. Accordingly, the
World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to support policymakers worldwide
in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to modern technologies.
EdTech’s practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing.
Previously considered an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional
schooling systems, it is now essential for preserving a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already
benefitted during the COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools
smoothly mastered the sudden transition to homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for
students and parents. Their early investment in equipment and software and in coaching of
educational staff has allowed them to continue their operations with minimal interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in
the classrooms. However, its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its
sustainable profitability. “So far only 2 to 3% of the 5 trillion USD spent globally on
education is digital. This, combined with EdTech’s sudden vital role during COVID-19 and
the significant differences seen up to now in its geographical investments, intensify the
previously unseized global growth opportunities”, says Dr. Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at
Credit Suisse Asset Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/)
Question 44: What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 45: The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _____________.
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden
adjustments of educational processes, EXCEPT __________.
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 47: What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’ C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 48: The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 49: According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education
interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Investors are uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
16 2023
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Question 1: A. handed B. naked C. looked D. flooded
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Question 3: A. paddle B. cautious C. preface D. extend
Question 4: A. relevant B. survival C. potential D. tuition
Question 5: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 6: Our rule is that all the volunteers must ________ and must have a clean criminal
record.
A. employ B. be employed
C. have employed D. have been employed
Question 7: What I lack __________ my life is an attentive boyfriend who always stands by
me through thick and thin.
A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 8: You are advised to avoid __________ to the confidential information of the
company if you don’t want to have trouble.
A. access B. accessing C. to access D. to accessing
Question 9: __________ that 5,00 famous doctors from around the world were invited to
attend.
A. It was at the conference B. It was the conference
C. It was in the conference D. It was on the conference
Question 10: To everyone’s surprise, __________ lion is a member of the cat family.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: I got caught in the traffic, __________ I would have been here sooner.
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
Question 12: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 13: By the time John read her letter, she __________ the city.
A. will have left B. had left
C. will have been left D. had been leaving
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of
wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: Mary looks sad because she's just __________ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. broken out C. broken off D. broken into
Question 16: Tom really made a ______ when he was young. He bought a new car and a
new house.
A. bomb B. money C. will D. bundles
Question 17: There has been a(n) __________ of interest in networking websites in many
parts of the world in the last ten years.
A. outbreak B. breakthrough C. explosion D. advent
Question 18: Laura's suggestion was turned down because it lacked convincing experimental
______.
A. help B. assistance C. aid D. support
Question 19: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had
said, but I didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 20: Going to a highly prestigious university is a mixed blessing because I’ll have
to study far harder and can be under much pressure.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both the pros and cons
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 21: It is the fifth largest supermarket chain in Vietnam where rigorous standards in
the food industry are applied.
A. thorough B. careful C. adverse D. strict
Question 22: The strict regulations governing the sale of weapons will come into force next
week and everyone must comply with them.
A. wear on B. wear away C. wear off D. wear out
Question 23: The fact that our team scored up to twenty points in the competition was
a fair achievement.
A. unjust B. poor C. partial D. unequal
Question 24: Chi is enjoying her moment in the USA and she is talking to Tram on the
phone.
- Chi: “Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.”
- Tram: “__________. We all have many problems, pressures and tragedies to deal with.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. I'm afraid, I can't agree with you
Question 25: - Minh: "It's true that she's going to leave the company." - Huong:
“__________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge
Question 26: We need to conduct a feasible study to check whether this alternative method
can be
A B
suitable for development.
C D
Question 27: Laura decided to play safe and allow an extra ten minutes to leave the scene of
the accident. A B C D
Question 28: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people's
attitudes
A B C
towards the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous
day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 31: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources
of information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
C. Not only are some websites really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable
sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him
because she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal of his girlfriend’s trust, she would have
broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t
have broken up with him.
A hundred million tourists from China travel to all corners of the world every year. In
2013 alone, Chinese travellers spent over 100 billion dollars abroad. A booming economy
and a growing Chinese middle class allow more people to travel than ever before. Western
countries have been preparing for the mass influx of Chinese tourists for some time. They are
also making it easier for Chinese travellers to feel at home when on holiday.
France, (34) __________, has started hiring police officers from China to protect tourists
in Paris and other cities. Other countries, including the United States and Great Britain, are
not (35) __________ visas for Chinese travellers anymore. Chinese credit cards are
becoming more and more accepted in Europe and elsewhere. Hotels, airports and shopping
malls around the world have been hiring Mandarin speakers.
Shopping is the main reason for Chinese citizens to travel abroad. China is becoming the
biggest market for luxury goods. Louis Viton bags and Rolex watches are only two items (36)
__________ Chinese are fond of, and they will do anything and go anywhere to get them.
Luxury items are bought as status symbols. Many Chinese buy them abroad because there are
high taxes on (37) __________ goods inside China.
However, Chinese citizens also go to other countries for sports and leisure
(38)__________. Canada, for example, wants to help Chinese tourists during the winter
months by hiring Chinese skiing instructors. They also go on extended tours of Europe and
the US and enjoy a new culture that is different from what they experience at home.
Question 34: A. in contrast B. for instance C. in general D. after all
Question 35: A. demanding B. ordering C. requesting D. offering
Question 36: A. who B. when C. whose D. that
Question 37: A. every B. many C. such D. each
Question 38: A. incidents B. pursuits C. actions D. duties
The coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has upended family life around the
world. School closures, working remotely, physical distancing — it’s a lot for parents to
navigate. Robert Jenkins, UNICEF’s Global Chief of Education, offers some tips to help keep
children’s education on track while they’re staying home.
First, plan a routine together. Try to establish a routine that factors in age-appropriate
education programmes that can be followed online, on the television or through the radio.
Also, factor in playtime and time for reading. Use everyday activities as learning
opportunities for your children. Although establishing a routine and structure is critically
important for children and young people, in these times you may notice your children need
some level of flexibility. If your child seems restless and agitated when you’re trying to
follow an online learning programme with them, flip to a more active option. Do not forget
that planning and doing house chores together safely is great for the development of fine and
gross motor functions.
Next, have open conversations. Encourage your children to ask questions and express
their feelings with you. Remember that your child may have different reactions to stress, so
be patient and understanding. Start by inviting your child to talk about the issue. Find out
how much they already know and follow their lead. Discuss good hygiene practices. You can
use everyday moments to reinforce the importance of things like regular and thorough
handwashing. Make sure you are in a safe environment and allow your child to talk freely.
Drawing, stories and other activities may help to open a discussion.
Last, protect children online. Digital platforms provide an opportunity for children to
keep learning, take part in play and keep in touch with their friends. But increased access
online brings heightened risks for children’s safety, protection and privacy. Discuss the
internet with your children so that they know how it works, what they need to be aware of,
and what appropriate behavior looks like on the platforms they use, such as video calls.
(Adapted from https://www.unicef.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following questions does the passage answer?
A. How can parents maintain their children’s education in the pandemic?
B. What should parents do to help their children reduce stress?
C. How does the pandemic affect children’s education?
D. What are the new ways to learn in the COVID-19 pandemic?
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what does Robert Jenkins suggest that parents
should do?
A. Separating learning online from doing everyday activities.
B. Letting their children free in their leisure time.
C. Not involving their children in doing domestic chores.
D. Planning a flexible routine that is suitable for the age of their children.
Question 41: The word “agitated” in paragraph 2 most probably means __________.
A. excited and enjoyable B. anxious and nervous
C. tired and bored D. relaxed and comfortable
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the ways to have open
conversations with children, EXCEPT __________.
A. Stimulate children to ask questions and express their emotions
B. Realizing the current understanding level of children
C. Talking in a secure environment
D. Reacting in different ways to children’s stress
Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. internet B. privacy C. safety D. risk
A new study shows that urbanization shifts this seasonal cue in nuanced ways, with
cities in cold climates triggering earlier spring plant growth and cities in warm climates
delaying it. The study also found that the urban heat island effect, the phenomenon in which
cities are warmer than their surroundings, is not the only culprit behind the shift, suggesting
that other aspects of urbanization, such as pollution, changes in humidity and fertilizer runoff,
may also influence plants' seasonal patterns.
Researchers analyzed millions of observations of 136 plant species across the U.S. and
Europe to study how regional temperature and the local density of people—a proxy for
urbanization—affect when plants sprout leaves and blossoms. Their results revealed a
complex story: Separately, warmer temperatures and higher population density each spurred
earlier springs. A 3.6-degree Fahrenheit increase in temperature bumped up plants'
production of leaves and flowers by about five and six days, respectively. A fourfold increase
in human population density advanced flowering and leaf production dates by about three
days. But the team found that when these two factors worked together, local temperature had
an outsized influence.
In cold regions — areas with an average November-to-May temperature of about 18
degrees—plants produced leaves and flowers about 20 days earlier in locations with about
26,000 people per square mile, compared with equally frigid wildland. When an area's
average November-to-May temperature jumped to 68, however, leaves and flowers appeared
four and six days later, respectively, in locations with about 26,000 people per square mile,
compared with equally balmy wildland. In New York, for example, plants are likely
sprouting leaves about 9.5 days earlier and blossoms eight days earlier than uninhabited
regions with the same temperature. Jacksonville, in contrast, is likely pushing leaf production
later by about one day and flowers by about half a day, with leaves appearing two days later
and flowers a day later in Houston.
Even after accounting for urban heat islands, the team's models revealed cities
significantly affect plants' springtime growth. "Not only are there other things going on, but
they actually matter quite a lot," said study co-author Brian Stucky, Florida Museum research
scientist. Plants may not be the only organisms affected by seasonal shifts, he added.
"Seasons are such a big part of our lives. We define our world around seasonal things. Those
rhythms are what we think of as the normal way the world works."
(Source: https://phys.org/)
A. Fauna and flora reply to human influences.
B. Embracing the urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization may hold the key to plant survival.
D. Urbanization delays spring plant growth.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. subtle B. trivial C. obvious D. refined
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. warm climate B. spring plant C. seasonal cue D. plant growth
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, what will rising temperature combined with
increased crowdedness cause?
A. The plants that are supposed to be summer species will bloom in springtime.
B. The stimulating effect prompted by temperature increase will be immense.
C. The two forces will cancel each other and deliver a normal spring outcome.
D. The fruits will ripen before the appearance of leaves due to early blossom.
Question 48: The word “proxy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. guide B. proof C. demonstration D. representative
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what can be generalized from different pairs of
comparison cases?
A. One is the place where residents use the Celsius scale while the other favors
Fahrenheit.
B. Both investigated areas are selected due to their typicality for research purposes.
C. One is a populous region while the other is desolate with the same weather settings.
D. Both places have immigrants traveling from countries with opposite climates.
A. Human activities within urban environments only affect the biogeochemical cycles.
B. One key area for future temperature research is climate change in suburbs and exurbs.
C. The frigid areas from November to May boast an average temperature of 18 degrees
Celsius.
D. Pollution is one of the aspects of urbanization leading to disrupted plant growth.
-----THE END-----
17 2023
Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Aurora and Linda are reacting to the BLACKPINK member Lisa and her solo
debut.
- Aurora: “I think Lisa showed her great sense of patriotism through her debut.”
- Linda: “___________. She included some elements of her Thai heritage in some of her
outfits.”
A. I don't think so either B. You’re absolutely right
C. That’s not the same thing at all D. Neither do I
Question 6: Giang is showing his appreciation for Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “________________________.”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Question 7: During the 19th century, Britain became the world's first modern ___________
society.
A. urbanize B. urbanized C. urbanization D. urban
Question 8: You have hurt her feelings. You should have put yourself in her __________ to
understand the reason for her reaction.
A. boots B. sandals C. shoes D. sneakers
Question 9: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the
United States.
A. To found B. Having been found
C. Founded D. Founding
Question 10: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before we have finished our work B. as soon as we have finished our work
C. after we had finished our work D. when we finished our work
Question 11: In the past, the __________ exam was very difficult and only a small minority
of candidates got through.
A. national B. mock C. final D. entrance
Question 12: If we continue to use our natural resources at this alarming rate, they will
__________ by the end of the century.
A. run out B. use up C. go off D. bring back
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a handbag on her birthday last week.
A. new nice big yellow B. big nice yellow new
C. nice big new yellow D. nice yellow big new
Question 14: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to _____ their
own culture.
A. maintain B. reserve C. conserve D. preserve
Question 15: Many domestic flights have been cancelled __________ adverse weather
conditions.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: We had some friends to dinner last night, __________?
A. hadn’t we B. had we C. didn’t we D. did we
Question 17: Valentine’s Day, __________ in many countries, is the time when lovers
express their affection with greetings and gifts.
A. is celebrated B. celebrates C. celebrated D. was celebrated
Question 18: I have to take on more extra work so that I could __________ ends meet with a
big family.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: My youngest sister always dreams __________ becoming an English teacher.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
Question 20: The boy __________ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried
Question 21: The more I know her, __________ I admire her.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least
Question 22: The reason why his teacher asked him to repeat the question was that he
wasn’t attending during the lesson.
A. joining B. presenting C. noticing D. appearing
Question 23: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic
measures in this country.
A. untreated B. uninsured C. untested D. uncontrolled
Question 24: I was fairly positive about the fact that I’d heard it before because it’s quite
familiar to me.
A. negative B. pessimistic C. hopeless D. uncertain
Question 25: The government took a range of measures to reduce poverty in the area, but
they just drew a blank.
A. had a consequence B. got a result
C. gained an advantage D. took a chance
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19
outbreak. Our global SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution
Working Group, which (26) __________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their
possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27)
__________ shared these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global
collaboration allows scientists to better track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends
that all countries increase the sequencing of the COVID-19 virus where possible and share
data to help one (28) __________ monitor and respond to the evolving pandemic.
WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework
to identify, monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like
surveillance, research on variants of concern, and (29) __________ of the impact on
diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework will serve as a guide for
manufacturers and countries on changes (30) __________ may be needed for COVID-19
vaccines.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. prediction B. expectation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. which B. when C. whom D. where
The main idea behind ecotourism is to educate tourists about conservation efforts and
research developments in fragile natural areas, while also offering travelers a chance to
experience those areas firsthand. Unfortunately, when those fragile areas start to receive a lot
of traffic from tourists, it can negatively impact their ecosystems.
Tourism inevitably leads to development – even in ecotourism efforts. When natural
areas become popular in the travel industry, they usually become the site of hotels,
excavations and other tourist industry activities. These activities sometimes displace
indigenous groups and local people from their homelands, which not only damages the
integrity of those local communities, but prevents its members from benefiting from the
economic benefits of a growing tourism industry.
On top of ecotourism’s potential impacts on locals, the industry can also take a toll on
surrounding wildlife. It’s ironic, given that ecotourism aims to educate ecotourists and
promote the conservation of natural habitats, but, for some species, the increased presence of
humans may by default negatively impact their natural behaviors. Increased foot traffic can
also affect soil quality and plant life in general, damaging the area’s overall ecosystem.
Finally, not all travel organizations that market themselves as ecotourist programs are
actually environmentally friendly. These organizations know ecotourism is growing in
popularity and may take advantage of that fact by parading as ecotouristic when in reality
they ignore eco-friendly practices. For that reason, it’s important that would-be ecotourists do
their homework before giving an organization their business.
(Adapted from https://traveltips.usatoday.com/)
Question 31: What does the author mainly discuss in the passage?
A. Drawbacks of ecotourism B. Benefits of ecotourism on local areas
C. Ecotourism: A new trend for tourists D. The ways to develop potential
ecotourism
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. homelands
B. tourist industry activities
C. displacing indigenous groups and local people from their homelands
D. natural areas become popular in the travel industry
Question 33: According increase in the employment rate of the local people to the passage,
what is the major goal of ecotourism?
A. to increase the employment rate of the local people
B. to stimulate the preservation of natural habitats
C. to enhance tourists’ knowledge about the beauty of surrounding wildlife
D. to diminish the foot traffic affecting the soil quality
Question 34: Which of the following negative impacts of ecotourism is NOT mentioned in
the passage?
A. Some indigenous groups and local inhabitants may not receive the economic benefits
of ecotourism.
B. The increase in the number of vehicles will make pollution worse.
C. Some travel organizations do not actually provide environmentally friendly tours.
D. The surrounding wildlife may be influenced by the frequent presence of humans.
Question 35. What does the author mean when suggesting that ecotourists should “do their
homework”?
A. Ecotourists should attend some courses about ecotourism.
B. Ecotourists should finish their school work before the journey.
C. Ecotourists should take advantage of the trips to understand more about their school
lessons.
D. Ecotourists should find out information about ecotourism and the travel organization
before travelling.
The administrative room, which serves as the department headquarters, is noisy like a
market. Health workers from all over the country are present. People dispersed to various
corners where we carefully put on our personal protective equipment (PPE). After putting on
the PPE, we slowly entered the danger zone, where the patients were waiting. The ward with
the most seriously ill patients is the red zone, which is completely isolated since it is the most
dangerous. Next is the transition area called the yellow zone, and finally the medical staff's
safe base, the briefing room, dubbed the green zone. When going from green to red we must
wear the PPE, and when leaving the red zone we must remove the PPE and carefully disinfect
it from head to toe before entering the green zone.
We finally entered the ward. With the PPE on, every movement became very difficult,
the goggles became foggy, and even breathing was difficult. Every one of the patients was
suffering from shortness of breath, coupled with anxiety and panic from witnessing other
patients in the room get worse and occasionally pass away. We had to practice speaking and
breathing gently to avoid creating strong air flows through our masks, which makes it easy to
spread the infection. Nurses struggle to perform venipuncture. Normally very dexterous at
drawing blood, here they sometimes need two or three attempts since having to wear multiple
pairs of gloves hinder their ability to feel with their fingers. It is also difficult for doctors to
examine the patients since they cannot use stethoscopes and must be very brief when asking
patients questions. Instead, by observing whether patients breathe gently, with difficulty or
abnormally, and noting their facial expressions, sweat, skin color, we can assess the progress
of the disease.
As the day went by, severe patients were treated and less severe patients were
recovering, and so we finally felt reassured despite being drenched in sweat. Just as it was
time for us to return to the green zone to write up medical records, there was a commotion
from the room next door. A patient's condition was worsening. All the medical staff in the
room rushed in for emergency treatment. After a few minutes the patient's heartbeat returned,
and the ventilator was reattached for the patient to resume breathing. My colleagues were
covered in sweat as if they had just showered.
(Source: https://e.vnexpress.net/)
A. Life in a Covid-19 field hospital.
B. A doctor’s perspective on COVID-19.
C. Dynamics between patients and doctors.
D. A day battle inside a Covid hospital.
Question 37: The word “dispersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scattered B. disunited C. disbanded D. sprinkled
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a challenge for the
medics?
A. tight protective equipment B. some uncooperative patients
C. the restrictions on speaking D. the looming risk of infection
Question 39: The word “dexterous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quick B. graceful C. brilliant D. adroit
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. nurses B. doctors C. patients D. colleagues
Question 41: Which is NOT true about the hospital in this story?
A. Speaking too much or with force is discouraged to avoid the risk of infection.
B. Only until very late at night could the health workers return to the safe area.
C. Observation skills become crucial for the doctors in this difficult time.
D. Movements between the green and red zones are carefully regulated.
Question 42: Where would the author and his colleagues most possibly go right next?
A. The blue zone B. The red zone C. The yellow zone D. The green zone
Question 43: Mike doesn't feel well today. He can't go out with his friends.
A. If Mike felt well today, he could go out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he can go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn't have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can't go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no
exception whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the
exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take
the job.
C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to
take the job.
Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night.
C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at
night.
Question 47: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Question 48: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 49: Marry was on a real height after easily winning the competition because
A B
she really didn't expect to win.
C D
Question 50: Economics in my classes at Sul Ross University were very difficult for me to
A B C
Learn and understand.
D
-----THE END-----
18 2023
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Question 5: He is a highly intelligent person, __________?
A. wasn’t he B. isn’t he C. has he D. was he
Question 6: My mother bought a __________ lunch box for me yesterday.
A. blue new plastic B. new plastic blue C. new blue plastic D. blue new
plastic
Question 7: This expensive car __________ me lots of trouble ever since I got it.
A. has been given B. gave C. has given D. gives
Question 8: __________ nutritious your breakfast is, the healthier you feel during the day.
A. Most of B. More C. Most D. The more
Question 9: __________ poverty and faced problems in pursuing her career, Marry finally
realized the importance of perseverance and bravery.
A. Have experienced B. Having experienced
C. To experience D. Having been experienced
Question 10: The conventional dessert was topped __________ whipped cream and pieces of
fruit.
A. by B. on C. for D. with
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: You must have a guarantor in order to get __________ visa to enter the
country.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 13: Before __________, we had gone home.
A. raining B. having rained C. rained D. it rained
Question 14: According to a new research, The Air Force is the number one ranked
__________ in this area.
A. employer B. employee C. employment D. employ
Question 15: Marry was born in Korea but ______ in Los Angeles and quickly became
Americanized.
A. grew up B. brought up C. turned up D. came up
Question 16: Government has already ____ all reasonable precautions to limit the spread of
coronavirus.
A. taken B. done C. made D. carried
Question 17: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a
copy of her CV on the __________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 18: My vegetarian diet seems to be __________ because I've lost five pounds since
I started this diet.
A. operating B. working C. performing D. driving
Question 19: Ho Chi Minh president raised six urgent issues that government needed to
solve immediately to ease the food __________ in 1945.
A. lack B. deficiencies C. inadequacies D. shortages
Question 20: Laura would like to be financially secure by age 50, so she is working hard to
earn a lot of money.
A. safe B. stable C. confident D. protected
Question 21: He didn’t realize his ambition of becoming a dancer because he lost a leg in a
motorcycle accident.
A. recognize B. achieve C. identify D. succeed
Question 22: I like modern art to a certain degree, but I don't like the really experimental
stuff.
A. unsure B. unlimited C. unchanged D. uncertain
Question 23: Some doctors in this hospital came under suspicion of unethical behavior
towards their patients.
A. betrayed people’s trust B. found not guilty
C. received people’s approval D. considered to be dishonest
Question 24: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Loan: “__________”
Question 25: Thanh and Hung are talking about a businesswoman.
- Thanh: “Mrs Phuong Hang is an exceptionally talented businesswoman to make such an
enormous fortune”
- Hung: “__________. Very few women can achieve great success like her.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. I’m afraid I can’t side with you on this one D. There’re no doubtful about it
Question 26: The boy collided with the car is making recovery from operation.
A B C D
Question 27: It’s reported that the number of cars which is stolen every year has risen.
A B C D
Question 28: I wonder if I can pay for the car by instalments because I really want it but I
don’t have
A B C
money.
D
Question 29: This is the most enjoyable wedding party I have ever attended.
A. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I have never attended a more enjoyable wedding party than this one.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party like this.
Question 30: "It's you who broke my vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her
vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It wasn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may not have worried about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t have worried about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t have worried about these trivial things.
D. You can’t have worried about these trivial things.
Question 32: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost
all matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with
an unacceptable result.
Question 33: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Exploration has changed a lot over time. In the past, only adventurers who were willing
to take (34) __________ were considered explorers. In contrast, anyone can be an explorer
today thanks to modern technology.
In the past, when explorers traveled the world, people back home had to wait for months
to hear about their adventures. Explorers kept (35) __________ and wrote letters about their
experiences. They would only be able to tell (36)__________what they saw after they
returned. By the end of the nineteenth century, explorers were also able to take photos in the
same way (37)__________ they do today. However, they were unable to see the photos right
away. It often took a long time for them to get photos printed.
(38) __________, today’s explorers can travel around the globe and can send back live,
real-time images. Thanks to high-tech devices and the Internet, anyone can interact with
them. When a discovery is made, we can see photos on social media and read blog posts the
same day. We may not be there, but we still take part in the adventure.
(Adapted from Thomas Fast, 2017)
Question 34: A. dangers B. possibilities C. risks D. chances
Question 35: A. magazines B. journals C. history D. publication
Question 36: A. another B. other C. the others D. others
Question 37: A. what B. where C. that D. when
Question 38: A. In the same way B. On one hand C. By
comparison D. Similarly
When I surveyed over 5,000 middle grade students for my book, kids were already
reminding me of the technology gap between them and their parents. They claimed that
parents “didn’t have a clue” as to what they were experiencing on screens. While generation
gap is often characteristic of adolescence in any generation, it is even wider because of
rapidly changing technology.
Even the guidelines I prescribed six years ago would be impossible to implement for this
generation of tablets, cellphones and notebooks that travel in children’s backpacks. Setting
and enforcing guidelines early for children is helpful. Taking technology away at bedtime is
still possible and at least allows them a good night’s rest. Cautioning your children about not
sharing real names, addresses or phone numbers in chatrooms or for any emails protects them
somewhat. Making sure your hardworking home is balanced by non-screen family fun can be
enormous protection. Beware of over-consequencing and over-punishing for small problems.
We don’t want your children to think of their parents as enemies in a battle of wills.
Tell your children how wise and experienced you are and how much you love them at
least five times a week. They need to know they can count on you in this complex, fast-
moving world even if they know more about technology than you do. Like every generation,
your children will grow up and hopefully find responsible directions for their own lives.
Technology skills are valued in the work force and technology is here to stay. Learning as
much about it as possible will help you stay tuned-in to what your children aren’t saying.
(Source: https://www.wdtimes.com/)
A. Technology - a great challenge to parents. B. Negative aspects of technology.
C. Kids don’t want to talk about their lives. D. Technology facilitates
communication.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. characteristic B. middle grade student
C. generation gap D. technology gap
Question 41: According to the passage, what shouldn’t the parents do in order to regulate the
children’s use of technology?
A. Confiscating the technology when bedtime comes.
B. Preserving time for activities beyond screens and technology.
C. Warning kids against oversharing on social media.
D. Demanding kids to share with the parents all their passwords.
Question 42: The word “tuned-in” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. oblivious B. alien C. sensitive D. helpful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE about the technology in this day and age?
A. Guidelines for technological parental control are still the same.
B. People can’t live successfully without technical skills.
C. Technology has made community activities more crucial than ever.
D. The detrimental effects of technology are holding it back.
If we really care about nature, then surely conservation has to be practical; it needs to
work. Everything we hear on the news seems to say the opposite: nature continues to go
down the tube; extinction rates are increasing; new threats like climate change are emerging;
and beautiful places are being destroyed before our eyes. All this is true; and yet…
If things are getting worse, it is obvious that conservation is failing. Well, no. In 2006,
scientists at BirdLife International showed that conservation action had prevented 16 bird
species from going extinct during the 1994-2004 time period. In 2014, scientists from the
Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust found that sustained conservation action from 1988 to
2012 resulted in eight species being down-listed to lower categories of threat on the IUCN
Red List of Threatened Species. In a pivotal study in 2015, a group of researchers from the
IUCN Species Survival Commission found that without conservation action that took place
between 1996 and 2008, the status of the world’s ungulates (deer, antelopes, cattle and their
relatives) would have been nearly eight times worse than was actually observed. In 2017,
researchers were able to quantify how conservation investments made between 1996 and
2008 reduced biodiversity loss in 109 countries by 29% per country on average.
Once again, this suggests that although too little was spent on conservation, it had a
significant level of success. As a result, decision-makers are now in a position, for the first
time, to forecast what the positive impacts of any increase in conservation spending are likely
to be in relation to different scenarios of human development pressure, and then compare
these forecasts to their policy targets.
There is one clear conclusion from these and similar studies: conservation does work,
but we do not do anywhere close to enough of it. The threats to nature are certainly growing
and this means that we have to spend more on conservation just to stand still. On the other
hand, if some of the commitments made by the world’s governments are actually acted upon,
such as the 2010 Aichi Biodiversity Targets and the 2015 Sustainable Development Goals,
then the number of resources to be allocated to conservation is set to increase. Let’s hope
that this will indeed be the case.
(Source: https://www.synchronicityearth.org/)
Question 44: Which question is the passage most possibly the answer to?
A. What exactly do conservationists need to do?
B. Why do we conserve nature in the first place?
C. Does conservation actually work?
D. What is and isn’t conservation?
Question 45: The word “emerging” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.
A. proceeding B. waning C. popping D. arising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a successful effort in
conservation?
A. Many bird species were brought back from the brink of extinction.
B. Situation of the ungulates has become better.
C. Eight species are now less at risk of extinction.
D. The decline in biological diversity in many countries slowed down.
Question 47: The word “quantify” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________.
A. evaluate B. rate C. determine D. judge
Question 48: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. establishing new conservation goals B. support from the governments
C. the amount of resources D. more investment in conservation
Question 49: According to the passage, the overall situation is getting worse, __________.
A. and could turn even worse within the next decade.
B. despite some small local successes in conservation.
C. but not as fast as if we were doing no conservation at all.
D. yet many people still think that we are making progress.
Question 50. Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. There is increasing evidence that conservation is actually working.
B. There are many different views on how to achieve conservation.
C. Governments will need to do more to reach the necessary level of success.
D. Dears and antelopes are the species belonging to the ungulates group.
-----THE END-----
19 2023
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Question 3: A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Question 5: Many people are deeply unhappy about the way the government has handled this
matter, ______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: The basic design of the car is very similar __________ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8: __________ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive B. Most expensive
C. The more expensive D. The most expensive
Question 9: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good
Question 10: I will tell David you are looking for him when I __________ him tomorrow.
A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: It was made of a __________ material.
A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic
C. green strange metallic D. green metallic strange
Question 13: __________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.
A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of
wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: I know you don’t like Jack’s idea, but just __________ with him for a while.
A. get out B. get along C. play along D. play out
Question 16: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had
said, but I didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 17: If you have any information that is __________ to the investigation, you
should call the police.
A. substantial B. material C. identical D. rational
Question 18: The hospital hit the __________ and became the center of a media storm when
a number of suspicious deaths occurred.
A. books B. ceiling C. buffers D. headlines
Question 19: The judge has decided to __________ his decision until a later date because
there wasn’t enough evidence.
A. preserve B. reserve C. maintain D. conserve
Question 20: It is an independent voluntary organization which aims to provide assistance to
people in need.
A. necessity B. hardship C. obstacle D. requirement
Question 21: Manufacturing plants which produce large amounts of carbon dioxide
should closely monitor the emission.
A. nearly B. exactly C. carefully D. strongly
Question 22: That visitors throw garbage into the ocean shows how shallow their
commitment to the environment really is.
A. deep B. serious C. attentive D. significant
Question 23: She demonstrated a clear determination to win because she didn’t throw in the
towel just because she had lost one game.
A. admit that she has been defeated B. stop trying to win
C. have the chance to succeed D. do her best to achieve victory
Question 24: Ronaldo and Messi are meeting at an outdoor cafe serving drinks.
- Messi: “Which drink do you want, coke or water?”
- Ronaldo: “__________ because it’s better for our health than coke.”
A. Either will do B. I’d prefer a glass of water
C. I don’t like both of them D. No thanks, I’ve just had some
Question 25: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Loan: “__________”
Question 26: He introduced himself to me and asked if I’d like him to visit once in awhile on
his rounds. A B C D
Question 27: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A B C D
Question 28: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally
treated regardless of her age, sex, or nationality. A B C D
Question 29: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party a long time ago.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 30: "It's me who broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her
vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may worry about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Question 32: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.
A. If she doesn’t live so far away, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
B. He wishes she lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.
C. If only she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.
D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his
work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his
work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have promoted to chief
executive.
D. But for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief
executive.
The (34) __________ girl who fell off a 12th floor apartment in Hanoi and was saved by
a truck driver last Sunday was discharged from hospital Friday morning. Hoang Hai Duc,
head of pediatric orthopedics at the National Children’s Hospital, said a dislocated hip has
been fixed and the child would have a (35) __________ after two or three weeks to see if her
hips have regained their full function. "This is truly too big a joy for our family," the girl’s
mother said. The three-year-old dislocated (36) __________ falling 50 m from the balcony in
an apartment complex on Nguyen Huy Tuong Street. She fortunately survived after Nguyen
Ngoc Manh, a 31-year-old truck driver (37) __________ had parked nearby, clambered up a
corrugated roof and caught the falling child. Manh, who slightly injured his arms in the
ordeal, said the (38) __________ has turned his life upside down. His story was picked up by
the national and international media, turning him into a celebrity overnight. Many called him
a hero to his discomfort. "I don’t see myself as a hero; I just want to do good," he had said at
the time.
Question 34: A. a little B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. checkup B. breakup C. outbreak D. breakthrough
Question 36: A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 37: A. which B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38: A. occasion B. incident C. accident D. situation
The 21st century has become another important century for inventions and discoveries.
We are only in the 2nd decade of this century currently but we have already witnessed many
big innovations that have drastically changed our way of living. Bluetooth technology,
broadband internet, artificial heart, genetic engineering, virtual reality, 3D printing are some
to name a few. These inventions are changing the way we live, do our things and
communicate with the others. Even though some of these developments are in the early stage
of innovation, they have a more sophisticated and promising future. Social media is one of
the most important aspects that has affected each person in this modern time.
According to Heidi Cohen, Social Media are the platforms that enable the interactive
web by engaging users to participate in, comment on and create content as means of
communicating with their social graph, other users and the public. The power of social media
has changed most of the things in our daily life. Social media has revolutionized and
completely changed the way we send and receive information. It is more interactive, can be
done in realtime and uses a wide number of media like text, audio, video, pictures, graphics
and more. With these sites, sending and receiving messages offline and in realtime, audio and
video chatting, sharing pictures, video and text, going “Live” to many audiences, meeting old
friends and making new has revolutionized our way of establishing connections with others.
There are also the negative sides of the innovation of social media and their usage.
Increase in cyber-crime, invasion of privacy, security threats etc. is some of the issues
associated with social networks. But at the same time social networks are working themselves
to cope with the increasing problems that arise with the improper use of it. With more and
more sophistication and versatility of use, social media have undoubtedly proved to be
a boon to connectivity and social interaction between people in this age of communication
and information technology.
(Adapted from https://arjungelal.wordpress.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following could serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Social Media – One of the Greatest Inventions of the 21st Century
B. How Positive Social Media Changes Our Lives?
C. Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Media
D. Important Inventions in Modern Society
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. information B. the way C. social media D. the power
Question 41: The following are benefits brought by social media mentioned in paragraph
2, EXCEPT __________.
A. connecting people all over the world
B. keeping contact with others via various ways
C. helping people exchange information in a more interactive way
D. increasing the private invasion of users
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE?
A. The new inventions remain the way we interact with each other.
B. It’s unlikely for people to process documents on social media.
C. Using social media improperly will increase the problems for users.
D. People nowadays send and receive more online messages than normal.
Question 43: The word “boon” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefit B. drawback C. challenge D. advance
Six the Musical tells the stories of King Henry VIII's six wives through a collection of
pop songs as they compare lives to see who suffered the most and who should therefore lead
their girl group. The songs are catchy, fun, and exciting, and they are genuinely great pop
tunes. The singing performances from the Australian actresses were amazing, and all
of them were technically very skilled.
It originated as a college student's concept album and it is clear even in performance that
it is not designed to exist as anything more than that. The dialogue is clumsy and tonally
confused. It gives the audience proverbial whiplash by sounding like a Hi-5 concert one
moment to hammy, beginner improv-style dialogue the next, before snapping to blunt, and
pretty overt, British jokes about sex and adultery.
Six tries to emulate Hamilton's success by using modern musical elements and basing
the story on a 'woke' and empowering retelling of history. But, as a revision on Henry VIII's
wives, it just regurgitates a bunch of facts that the audience already knows and sets it to the
song. In performance most of the characters are portrayed as strong, independent women, and
they pull it off well by anchoring their music in modern-day pop feminists. But the squabbles
between the wives play into the stereotype that women are catty and bitch about each other
behind their backs. The entire musical is steeped in the idea that these women are only
notable because of their relationship with King Henry VIII. Only in the last song of the show
do the women finally reject Henry VIII and come to support and appreciate each other. Six
didn't have to be like that. It could have been about the women supporting each other from
the start.
And that is my other problem with Six. It tries to sell itself as a musical when it really
isn’t. Most of the actresses cannot act or dance, they can only sing, and the choreography
they are working with is very static compared to the likes of West Side Story, Moulin Rouge
or most other musicals. At the same time, the set and lighting design are barely used and don't
add much to their performances.
https://www.arc.unsw.edu.au/
A. Feminism in the musical genre. B. Reviewing Six the musical.
C. The fame of a new musical. D. A failed copy of Hamilton.
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Henry VIII's wives B. pop tunes C. performances D. actresses
Question 46: The phrase “steeped in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imbued with B. connected with C. soaked in D. implanted in
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem with Six the musical?
A. It tries to follow in the footsteps of the legendary historical musical – Hamilton.
B. The musical fails to provide a new perspective as a revision on Henry VIII's wives.
C. The characters can’t portray the pop stars they are modelled after.
D. The cast of Six the musical all consists of female performers.
Question 48: The word “static” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stable B. steady C. unvarying D. orderly
Question 49: The author’s criticism about the musical is based on the rationale that
__________.
A. a rendition of history should not stray too far from the original version.
B. historical stories should not be told with adulterous humor and sass.
C. a musical should combine acting, dancing, singing and set design together.
D. in Broadway, women’s stories don’t count unless they are about suffering.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is mentioned about Six the musical?
A. Six the musical is nothing more than a concept album.
B. Six the musical’s songs belong on the Billboard Hot 100.
C. Six the musical is a celebration of 16th-century girl power.
D. Six the musical has a witty, clever, and powerful dialogue.
-----THE END-----
20 2023
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial
disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or
marbles __________ mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their
teachers will become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious
jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained
to deal with difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take
place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware
of what their tour guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________
another job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided
to quit her new job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter
Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of
food poisoning in the countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University
because it has a high reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are
arranged to __________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the
__________ of running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the
__________ because of the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the
hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the
inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local
store, so you can buy them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was
deemed too sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken
into the art gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything
Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time
management skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor
weather conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for
the construction
A B C D
of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that
you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert for two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my
mother to me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be
punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be
punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities.
A. The school ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.
Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have
sympathy for me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for
me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for
me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s
burgeoning population, Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a
deterioration in environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural
production starting in the 1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the
1960s through the 1900s, yields of rice and wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the
continent’s population increased by 60 per cent, grain prices fell, the average Asian
consumed nearly a third more calories, and the poverty rate was cut in half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green
revolution. There are two competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is high-
tech, with a heavy emphasis on continuing work of breeding better crops, but with modern
genetic techniques. Scientists can now identify and manipulate a huge variety of plant genes,
for traits like disease (38) __________ and drought tolerance. That is going to make farming
more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus
has intermittently closed classrooms and campuses over the past year. But despite the
disruption, the widespread shift to online learning has given learners and education providers
a glimpse of the future.
For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology
training provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a
professor of business education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of
the pandemic. For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest
accomplishment was being able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students
to sit hundreds of exams under supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to
graduate. “Inevitably, after the pandemic, some of this will move back offline,” he predicts,
“but I think we will see a much more significant role for online teaching, online assessment,
online socializing and online libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA,
says Paul. “For learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused,
you're going to pay attention and not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a
question at any time,” he says. “You can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn
from each other and the subject matter can be tailored to your understanding.” Paul believes,
“If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still important that you can have a cup of coffee
with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in class. But I don’t think things will
return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/)
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually
Question 41: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?
A. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic?
A. Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these
founded on long-held myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly
interconnected and interdependent world, proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that
gives you the opportunity to engage with the world in a more immediate and meaningful
way—whether in your neighborhood or thousands of miles away—while better preparing you
to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect
with others. Being able to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible
gift. Bilinguals have the unique opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in
their personal and professional lives. Knowing the language makes you a local no matter
where you are, opening up your world literally and figuratively. You will be shaped by
communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of strangers. You will build lifelong
friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of learning languages for
many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your
monolingual peers. They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no
matter your sector or skill level—and the demand for bilingual professionals is rising
exponentially. In fact, between 2010 and 2015, the number of U.S. job postings
specifically geared toward bilingual candidates more than doubled. Employers are seeking
professionals who can communicate seamlessly with customers in new and expanding
overseas markets, as well as serve and sell to a large foreign-born population here at home.
With more than 60 million U.S. residents who speak a language other than English at home,
you don’t need to get on a plane to put your language skills to work. As an added incentive,
in many instances, language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased salaries.
Whatever your career aspiration—with language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the
crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another
language, EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want
to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international
customers in their nation and abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means
_______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the
tallest
-----THE END-----
21 2023
Question 1: A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Question 2: A. begged B. canned C. booked D. buttoned
Question 3: A. erode B. involve C. reduce D. product
Question 4: A. discussion B. assistant C. character D. expensive
questions.
Question 5: There is no use persuading her to join us because her parents_______ her to
return home after the last game _________ over.
A. had told/was B. have told/is C. told/had been D. tell/has been
Question 6: If anyone ________, tell them I'm not at home.
A. call B. calls C. called D. should call
Question 7: All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability.
A. searched B. vetted C. investigated D. scrutinized
Question 8: They knew that it was just not feasible ______ such a small firm to compete
with the big boys.
A. in B. at C. for D. about
Question 9: If we lose the case we may be _______________ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 10: _________ is someone who can reduce spending without hurting morale.
A. What is needed B. What needs C. Being needed D. That needs
Question 11: We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but
it _____ the whole time we were there.
A. poured with rain B. rained dogs and cats
C. dropped in the bucket D. made hay while the sun shined
Question 12: She made as if ____________ but then stopped.
A. to speak B. speaking C. spoken D. speak
Question 13: ____________ the ability to delay normal cognitive decline as we age, there
are significant social benefits to lifelong learning.
A. Aside from B. In addition C. Moreover D. Furthermore
Question 14: _________ massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up
recovery from medical problems.
A. a B. the C. 0 D. some
Question 15. Since the situation was so bad, she should _________ care of much earlier.
A. have taken B. have been taken C. be taken D. take
Question 16: The committee is _______ of well-known mountaineers.
A. contained B. comprised C. included D. consisted
Question 17: It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the __________ staff
every 6 months to clean up the air conditioners.
A. maintaining B. maintain C. maintainable D. maintenance
Question 18: He made all sorts of beautiful plans for his tour without taking into
consideration the possibility ________ an entry visa.
A. of refusing B. of being refused C. of refusal of D. to be refused
Question 19: You have never had any liking for cats, ________ ?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 20: While Tom Spinkler was travelling along Wagon Wheel Road in Big Cypress
Swamp in South Florida, he came across a young snake.
A. run up B. run down C. run into D. run out
Question 21: The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment
with scanty resources.
A. ordinary B. limited C. abundant D. natural
Question 22: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Question 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
It is natural for young people to be critical of their parents at times and to blame them
for most of the (24) __________ between them. They have always complained, more or less
justly, that their parents are old-fashioned, possessive and dominant; that they do not trust
their children to deal with obstacles; (25) ___________ they talk too much about certain
problems and that they have no sense of humor, at least in parent-child relationships. I think it
is true that parents often (26) _________ their teenage children and also forget how they
themselves felt when young.
Young people often irritate their parents with their choices in clothes and hairstyles, in
entertainers and music. This is not their motive. They feel cut off from the adult world into
which they have not yet been accepted. (27)_________they create a culture and society of
their own. Then, if it turns out that their music or entertainers or vocabulary or clothes or
hairstyles irritate their parents, this gives them additional enjoyment. They feel they are
superior, at least in a small way, and that they are leaders in style and taste.
If you plan to control your life, co-operation can be part of that plan. You can charm
others, especially parents, into doing things the ways you want. You can impress others with
your sense of responsibility and (28) _________, so that they will give you the authority to
do what you want to do.
(Source: https://www.woyaosouti.com/topic/107813763)
Question 24: A. misunderstandings B. debates C. conflict D. understanding
Question 25: A. that B. which C. who D. why
Question 26: A. overestimate B. underestimate C. impose D. dominate
Question 27: A. However B. Besides C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 28: A. initiation B. initiate C. initiative D. initial
Question 29: It was reported that a policeman was badly injured in the explosion.
A B C D
Question 30: The Principal demanded that the heaters repair immediately. Winter is coming!
A B C D
Question 31: The accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
So far, COVID-19 has caused the deaths of more than 3 million people worldwide, and
that number could be significantly higher given how challenging it is to track every COVID-
19 death. Despite this, it would make sense to assume that the natural world, at least, is
getting a bit of a break. A world in which humans are traveling far less should offer major
environmental benefits. But is wildlife really benefitting from the pandemic?
One major and predominately positive benefit of the pandemic for wildlife is less human
travel. Due to the significant reduction in journeys, fewer people are hitting and injuring or
killing wildlife on roadways. In addition, fewer ships are traveling through the world’s
waterways and oceans for shipping, fishing, aquaculture, and tourism purposes. A reduction
in water travel and activity could reduce the risk of ships striking and injuring or killing
marine animals. It may also reduce the marine disruption that occurs due to noise pollution
from ships, fishing sonar, and recreational boats. Birds might also be benefitting from the
sharp decline in air travel, which may have vastly reduced the risk of bird strikes. People are
also reporting seeing wildlife in unexpected places, such as in large cities and commercial
harbors. The increased number of animals in urban environments is likely due to reductions
in human presence, air and water pollution levels, and noise pollution.
However, some studies have also found that the pandemic may actually be causing harm
to wildlife. In one study, researchers found that reduced human disturbance relating to
lockdown has benefitted invasive alien species by interrupting the actions that people were
taking to control them. The authors also claim that pandemic restrictions have reduced the
work of conservation and law enforcement organizations that care for wildlife and protected
areas. Some experts also worry that economic hardship in low income countries may lead to
an increase in natural resource exploitation, such as unlicensed logging and the illegal
wildlife market, as people run out of ways to earn a living.
(Adapted from https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/)
A. The Advantages of COVID – 19 for Natural Environment
B. The Influence of COVID – 19 on Economics and on Wildlife: Which is Greater?
C. The Potential Impact of the COVID – 19 Pandemic on Wildlife
D. COVID – 19: Good or Bad?
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as the benefits of COVID –
19 for the wildlife?
A. Fewer terrestrial and marine animals are damaged by people’s transport.
B. The number of birds increases because fewer people travel by plane.
C. There are more animals in urban places owing to the cleaner natural environment.
D. Marine disruption relating to noise pollution happens more frequently.
A. people B. invasive alien species
C. researchers D. studies
Question 35: The word “hardship” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. difficulty B. challenge C. recovery D. cooperation
Question 36: The author stated in the passage that pandemic restrictions __________.
A. limited conservationists from preserving the wildlife and their habitat.
B. increased deforestation and overexploitation.
C. resulted in the disappearance of invasive alien species.
D. caused the reduction in animals’ presence in urban environments.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their
jobs due to the economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever
seen people who have just endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost,
and this is easy to understand. But other people focus on what they did not lose, and they start
thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or
other people. The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations.
Sometimes a situation may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can
influence our own moods by the way you think about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a
devastating storm. One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold
dear has been destroyed. They cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things
and start over again. Their normal life seems to have been completely lost. In contrast, a
second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their families are unharmed and safe.
This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to figure
out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing a very
normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be
better off. They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful
at the time. This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets
through life without having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the
steps you can take to remedy the situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this,
you will be laying the foundation for a better tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain
today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help
you through many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you
are more likely to fix it if you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to
seek help when you need it. The advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional
may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every
problem, it can certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 37: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.
B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.
C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful.
D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists.
Question 38: The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage
Question 39: What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. all of the people
C. the first family D. the second family
Question 40: It can be inferred from the third paragraph that ______________.
A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.
B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems
are.
C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists.
D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations.
Question 41: The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _____________.
A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination
A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. Paying attention to the solutions to the setback is better than focusing on the damage
it causes.
D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations
today.
Question 43: According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have
troubles?
A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary.
C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is.
Question 44: He should have listened to your advice.
A. It was essential that he listen to your advice but he didn't.
B. It was likely that he could have listened to your advice.
C. I was guess he might have taken your advice.
D. He needn’t have listened to your advice.
Question 45: Tom said: "I have already had breakfast, so I am not hungry."
A. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
B. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
C. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
D. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
Question 46: As John became more successful, he had less time for his family.
A. The less time John had for his family, the more successful he became.
B. The more successful John became, the less time he had for his family.
C. More and more successful John achieved caused him to have less time for his family.
D. The more successful John achieved, the less time he had for his family.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: Two classmates are talking to each other.
– Student 1: "How can volunteers benefit from their work?"
– Student 2: “__________________.”
A. They earn a lot of money. B. They can live better than others.
C. They feel happy themselves. D. They don't have any worries.
Question 48: Ryan finds a new job in New York and is about to move there. He doesn't want
his friendship with Adriana to drift apart.
- Adriana: “Don't forget to drop me a line when you settle down."
- Ryan: “________________.”
A. Oh, that's great! But I'm going to miss you. B. I look forward to hearing from
you soon.
C. Trust me. I won't. I'll keep you posted. D. All right! Good luck!
Question 49: We live in a world. Immediate and easy access to information is a standard
expectation there.
A. Immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is a standard
expectation.
B. Immediate and easy access to information is expected to be standardized in the world
we live in.
C. People living in this world expect that immediate and easy access to information is a
standard.
D. It is expected that immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is
a standard.
Question 50: Urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen. Therefore,
our cities have to adapt.
A. Our cities have to adapt if urban population grows and the effects of climate change
worsen.
B. As the urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen, our cities
have to adapt.
C. Our cities are always adaptive to urban population growth and the effects of climate
change.
D. Urban population growth and effects of climate changes are worsening, which make
our cities more adaptive.
-----THE END-----
22 2023
Question 1: A. arranged B. aged C. changed D. managed
Question 2: A. elongated B. integrate C. economy D. reliable
Question 3: A. volunteer B. theory C. physical D. principle
Question 4: A. burden B. childcare C. wisely D. esteem
questions.
Question 5: Thanks to lifelong learning, people's level of awareness ____________
significantly.
A. has improved B. have improved
C. has been improving D. have been improved
Question 6: A generation gap or generational gap, is a difference __________ opinions
between one generation and another regarding beliefs, politics, or values.
A. in B. between C. of D. among
Question 7: A new TV show has sparked ________ by showing the positive side of dropping
out of college.
A. controversy B. argument C. contention D. debate
Question 8: Singapore is a __________ example of a smart city, and is constantly evolving
its "city brain, "a backbone of technologies is used to help control pollution, monitor traffic,
allocate parking, communicate with citizens.
A. lead B. leading C. led D. leader
Question 9: Despite the tough _______ in the sector, our little store managed to break
_________ its first year in operation.
A. contest/level B. competition/equal
C. competition/even D. opposition/equal
Question 10: Under this high-pressure and competitive environment, it is ____ a balanced
lifestyle.
A. difficult for people to achieve B. difficult to achieve for people
C. for people to achieve difficult D. for difficult people to achieve
Question 11: This ticket ____ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B. grants C. entitles D. credits
Question 12: __________ as it was at such a time, his work attracted much attention.
A. Being published B. Published C. Publishing D. To be published
Question 13: It can be argued that the future of human life on the planet rests on __________
smooth transition to cities that are more efficient and less wasteful.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 14: I wish you __________ throw rubbish out of the car window.
A. won't B. wouldn't C. didn't D. couldn't
Question 15: Sarah’s friends all had brothers and sisters but she was a (n) _____ child.
A. singular B. individual C. single D. only
Question 16: The greatest happiness of life is the conviction that we are loved; loved for
ourselves, or rather, loved __________ of ourselves.
A. regardless B. in spite C. in case D. instead
Question 17: Being independent is a mixture of many things from teaching yourself new
things to __________ on an adventure all on your own.
A. to embark B. embark C. embarking D. embarked
Question 18: Ian has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared
for him.
A. lending B. taking C. putting D. heading
Question 19: __________ for about 4 weeks, we now can perform most of the tasks
confidently.
A. Being trained B. Training
C. Having train D. Having been trained
Question 20: That was so serious a matter that I had no choice but to call in the police.
A. ask the police to come and help B. phone to say where we are
C. ask the police to come to a particular place D. order the police by phone
Question 21: An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.
A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant
Question 22: My father was as poor as a church mouse growing up, so his sole focus was
to give his kids every opportunity in life that he missed out on.
A. looked like a million dollars B. was born with a silver spoon in his mouth
C. was short of cash D. was very poor
Question 23: Social media which prove to be an efficient means of communication have
helped narrow the gap between faraway people.
A. inadequate B. ineffective C. incapable D. impotent
The first thing that is included in the "living together” (24) ______ is the expected
good relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. Lots of
people think that everyone should share the housework (25) ________, but in many homes
parents do most of it. To certain minds, many families can't share the housework whereas
they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework equally is not very possible because of the
families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and parents must do things
together. For this they can establish a housework planning.
(26)_________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more
responsible. He will think that he has an important role in his family. According to
researchers, teenagers should share the housework because (27) ______ will help them when
they have to establish their own family in the future. Too many teenagers and young adults
leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate basic housework to
teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework in
their new grown-up life.
It can be (28) ________ concluded that many parents don't really prepare their
children for future, because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents
get them responsible, teens will be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)
Question 24: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 25: A. equal B. equalize C. equality D. equally
Question 26: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 27: A. which B. what C. that D. who
Question 28: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly
Question 29: Everything that parents do will be very likely to transfer to their
children through the learning process. A B C D
Question 30: It was the shop near my school that I bought these shirts and accessories.
A B C D
Question 31: It is said that these good life skills will make young
people become more confidential.
A B C D
Exactly 50 years ago, humanity stepped foot on the surface of the Moon for the first
time. It was a miracle, and one made so powerful because it was so very unlikely. It was
hailed as an incredible success. But the chance of failure was such that authorities had to
prepare for the possibility of losing the astronauts. Those preparations offer a humbling
insight into how risky that mission was, and how high the stakes were. Probably the most
potent document from those preparations is the speech that would have been used to hail the
bravery of the astronauts as they were left to their death on the Moon.
It was written to announce to the world that the astronauts had been lost, and that the
Moon mission was a failure. After it was read, the two astronauts would be given a ceremony
something like the burial at sea, but one entirely without precedent. The document was
hidden for many years – unused, it was "quietly tucked away into the record" after the
astronauts returned home, as the National Archive that now holds it notes. But over time it
became public, after being revealed by the man who wrote it, and is now available for the
public to read.
It was prepared in the case that the astronauts and their moon lander failed to get back
to the main craft that was floating around in the Moon's orbit ready to bring them home, and
contained Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin's colleague Michael Collins. In that case, it was
most likely that those pioneering explorers would not lose their lives in a single spectacular
moment. Instead, they would most likely be stranded, stuck 250,000 miles from Earth with
no way of getting back home. "If they couldn't get back safely, they'd have to be abandoned
on the moon, left to die there," speechwriter William Safire said in 1999. "The men would
either have to starve to death or commit suicide."
In the end, and despite some very anxious moments, the crew would explore the lunar
surface and come back down safely. That meant that, instead of announcing their loss, Nixon
could instead share in the astronaut's success. In one of the most famous moments of the
mission, he spoke to them in a phone call that was beamed around the world. He recognised
the triumph of their achievement, and wished them safety for their return.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
A. The successful landing on the Moon surface.
B. The anxiety for losing the astronauts on the flight to the Moon.
C. The preparations for an incredible success of the astronauts.
D. The speech prepared for the Moon landing failure.
Question 33: The phrase “tucked away” in paragraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. stored B. discarded C. removed D. opened
A. Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
B. Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
C. Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin
D. Neil Armstrong and Michael Collins
A. The writer of the speech made it possible for the public.
B. There was an astronaut on the main craft when the others landed on the Moon.
C. If the astronauts had failed to get back to the main craft, they would have died of hunger
or suicide.
D. The burial ceremony intended to give the astronauts has ever been celebrated some
times before.
Question 36: What did Nixon do after the crew landed safely?
A. He expressed his anxiety and wished them to return safely.
B. He made a call and appreciated their success.
C. He made a speech to share the achievement with other countries in the world.
D. He congratulated them and hailed their bravery.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of
Svalbard, with scientists blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses
were found on the Arctic islands this summer by researchers from the Norwegian Polar
Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once in 40 years of
monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project
leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how
climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be
warming quicker than any other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this
year. The milder temperatures in the region led to unusually heavy rainfall in December,
leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This meant the reindeer could not
dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures,
the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food
is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach problems.
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the
youngest and weakest are often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is
natural because there were so many calves last year. But the large number we see now is due
to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard
reindeer earlier this year. Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted
plant species, currently kept in check by the animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic
ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two
decades, a report by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year.
The report said food security was partly to blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer
summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases spread by flies and parasites.
The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7oC since 1900, more than three
times the global average increase of about 1oC. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s
“Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was
flooded following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 37: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 38: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 39: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 40: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 41: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer
C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs?
A. After over 2 months of investigation, reindeer populations were reported to decrease
because of the increase of unwanted plant species.
B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades.
C. Besides the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality.
D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7oC since 1990.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that ______________ .
A. Arctic reindeer play the most important role in the Arctic ecosystems.
B. the Arctic ecosystems are altering worse because of the global warming.
C. the clearest effect of climate change is the limit of the food chain in nature.
D. the harsh weather in Arctic islands only damages the newborn calves.
Question 44: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 45: “Sometimes, I think I'm overly independent. I hate asking for help." She said.
A. She said sometimes she thought she was overly independent as she hated asking for
help.
B. Sometimes, she said she hated asking for help to be thought of as being overly
independent.
C. She said sometimes, she was thought to be overly independent as she hated asking for
help.
D. Sometimes, as she said, she hated being asked for help and thought she was overly
independent.
Question 46: Elephants have the same importance now as they did in the past.
A. Elephants now are the most important. B. Elephants have never been so
important.
C. Elephants are as important as ever. D. Elephants are as important as they will.
Question 47: Two parents are talking with each other about their teenage daughter:
- The husband: “________________.”
- The wife: "Though she was told not to, she spent all the money."
A. Are you going out with her? B. Have you read her school report?
C. Why are you so angry? D. Thanks god, she's doing very well at school.
Question 48: Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for:
- Manager: “____________.”
- Claudia: “I work hard and I enjoy working with other people.”
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this
position?
Question 49: Could you reply this e-mail? Please confirm your attendance at the meeting!
A. I wonder whether you have the ability to confirm your attendance at the meeting.
B. If I were you I would reply this e-mail to confirm my attendance at the meeting.
C. Do you mind replying this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting?
D. You'd better reply this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting soon.
Question 50: Sunbathing is still a popular activity. People do it even though they know it can
cause cancer.
A. No matter what people know that sunbathing can cause cancer, it is still a popular
activity.
B. Because sunbathing is still a popular activity, it can cause cancer.
C. Sunbathing is still a popular activity as long as it can cause cancer.
D. Unless it can cause cancer, sunbathing is still a popular activity.
-----THE END-----
23 2023
Question 1: A. graduate B. mandatory C. explode D. persuade
Question 2: A. chooses B. clothes C. encourages D. boxes
Question 3: A. abundant B. admission C. demolish D. dynasty
Question 4: A. abroad B. dweller C. degree D. intact
questions.
Question 5: With 1960 islands in different sizes and an unbelievable smooth sea surface, Ha
Long Bay __________ its name to one of the worthiest places in the world to visit.
A. writes B. wrote C. will write D. has written
Question 6: Lifelong learning can also help _______ some of the weaknesses of the
education system.
A. amend B. repair C. mend D. adjust
Question 7: Teachers’ _________ would rise an average of $1000 under the proposal.
A. pensions B. salaries C. wages D. incomes
Question 8: She drinks a lot less now, to ____________ benefit of her health as a whole.
A. a B. an C. 0 D. the
Question 9: _______ the institution type, in the United States, students typically earn credits
for courses they take and these credits count towards the completion of a program.
A. According to B. In regard to C. Thanks to D. Regardless of
Question 10: Electronic devices are becoming ________ common in educational
environment.
A. increase B. increasing C. increasingly D. increased
Question 11: I hope you _______ the point of everything your mother and I do for you.
A. annoy B. have C. see D. take
Question 12: Those in ____ of banning laptops in classrooms like to demonstrate how
handwritten notes lead to better learning compared to notes taken on a computer.
A. search B. need C. view D. favor
Question 13: Teachers can tell their students to use mobile apps like "PIAZZA” to access
course materials and also to post questions about specific subjects, all _______ can be done
in the classroom or outside the classroom.
A. this B. what C. which D. how
Question 14: The Heritage Education for Sustainable Development project aims ____
strengthening the linkage between culture and education for sustainable development.
A. to B. for C. at D. by
Question 15: ____________, the bird may abandon the nest, leaving the chicks to die.
A. If the birds are disturbed B. If disturbed
C. If you disturbed the bird D. Should the birds be disturbed
Question 16: Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve
through hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. certification C. license D. degree
Question 17: __________ with the internet, which is a system of linked computer networks,
the worldwide web was invented by British computer scientist Tim Berners-Lee.
A. Not to confuse B. Not to be confused
C. To be not confused D. Confused not to be
Question 18: It's time for us __________ in efficiency and renewable energy, rebuild our
cities, towns, municipalities and states.
A. to invest B. invest C. investing D. invested
Question 19: People think he will not win the competition, __________?
A. do they B. will he C. don’t they D. won’t he
Question 20: Western cultures are often more informal, where business leaders often refer to
each other by first names. In countries like Japan, this is frowned upon as it indicates
disrespect.
A. hated by B. disapproved of C. agreed on D. kept away from
Question 21: Notwithstanding some members' objections, I think we must go ahead with
the plan.
A. Similarly B. Despite C. Along with D. Otherwise
Question 22: For eliminating pollution, one can switch to alternative and renewable energy
sources like bio fuels instead of depending on non-renewable fossil fuels that only help in
polluting our planet.
A. change for the better B. substitute for the unavailable
C. make no change at all D. find a replacement for
Question 23: Scientists believe that it is possible for waves to reach the heights described
when they come into contact with strong ocean currents.
A. touch B. enter C. meet D. avoid
The "greenhouse effect" is the warming that happens when certain gases in Earth's
atmosphere (24) ________ heat. These gases let in light but keep heat from escaping, like the
glass walls of a greenhouse. First, sunlight shines onto the Earth's surface, (25) ______ it is
absorbed and then radiates back into the atmosphere as heat. In the atmosphere, “greenhouse
gases trap some of this heat, and the (26) ________ escapes into space. The more greenhouse
gases are in the atmosphere, the more heat gets trapped.
Scientists have known about the greenhouse effect since 1824, when Joseph Fourier
calculated that the Earth would be much colder if it had no atmosphere. This greenhouse
effect is what keeps the Earth's climate (27) _________. Without it, the Earth's surface would
be an average of about 60 degrees Fahrenheit cooler. Scientists often use the term "climate
change" instead of global warming. This is because as the Earth's average temperature
climbs, winds and ocean currents move heat around the globe in ways that can cool some
areas, warm others, and change the amount of rain and snow falling. (28)_________, the
climate changes differently in different areas.
(Source: https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent)
Question 24: A. seize B. capture C. trap D. grasp
Question 25: A. which B. where C. that D. what
Question 26: A. rest B. other C. latter D. remain
Question 27: A. lively B. alive C. livable D. living
Question 28: A. However B. In addition C. On the contrary D. As a result
Question 29: At the moment, students in England, Wales and Northern Ireland are
required to pay for
A B
both their tuition fees and life expenses.
C D
Question 30: If you look at the environment around us, you can see that there is a number of
issues
A B C
that come to our attention.
D
Question 31. If you care about protecting nature and having a positive impact,
you should make sure
A B C
that your travels have done sustainably.
D
Many of us worry about the effects of television on family life. We think that we
spend too much time watching television and that it takes us away from more important
activities, such as reading, exercising and talking to family and friends. But is this really true?
Studies have shown that people in the United States do spend a lot of time in front of
their television sets. About 98% of American homes have at least one TV set, and in the
average home the TV is on more than six hours a day. But how much attention do people
actually pay to the programs? And do people who watch TV really spend less time on other
free-time activities? Recently some researchers in New York City tried to find the answers to
these questions by conducting a telephone survey. They phoned more than a thousand people
all over the United States and asked them questions about how they spend their free time.
No one was surprised to find out that watching TV is the most popular free-time
activity in the United States. More than 70% of those asked said that they watch TV every
day or almost every day. The second most popular activity that they mentioned was reading
the newspaper. Listening to music at home was third, talking on the phone to friends and
relatives was fourth and doing some form of exercise was fifth.
But the researchers discovered an interesting fact about Americans' TV habits.
According to this survey, although most people turn the TV on every day, they do not
actually watch it very much. Six out of ten people said that when the TV is on, they seldom
pay attention to it. During a typical television program, they may eat dinner, do housework,
read a newspaper or magazine, talk to their children or even read to them. The TV may be on,
but it is just background music.
The researchers therefore concluded that television does not take Americans away
from more important activities. It doesn't keep them from doing other free-time activities. In
fact, when they compared people who frequently watch TV and those who seldom watch TV,
they found that there were no great differences in their other activities. The frequent watchers
read to their children and talk to their families just as much as the others.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah
Feingold)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Do people prefer watching TV to other free-time activities?
B. The TV is on but who’s watching?
C. Is TV always bad?
D. What are people’s TV habits?
Question 33: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT ____________.
A. Almost all American households own one or more TV sets.
B. Reading newspapers ranks second in popularity, just after watching TV.
C. American people have their TV on for more than a quarter of a day.
D. About a third of those asked spent more time on other free-time activities.
Question 34: The word “conducting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
____________.
A. organizing B. preparing C. asking D. reviewing
Question 35: What did the researchers find about Americans’ TV habits in their survey?
A. TV distracts most people from doing other activities.
B. People who seldom watch TV spend more time on children than frequent watchers.
C. 60% of frequent watchers often do others things while the TV is on.
D. Infrequent watchers do a more variety of activities than others.
A. free-time activities B. Americans
C. the researchers D. frequent watchers
A generation gap in the workplace can make workers both young and old feel inferior,
as well as hamper productivity and teamwork. Differences between generations can be seen
in work ethics, habits and communication styles. Younger workers might fear not being taken
seriously by their older colleagues, while older workers might fear that their experience is not
valued but replaced by workers with knowledge of more current technology. However,
members of each generation can close the gap between them if they're willing to meet one
another halfway.
Older workers can show respect to the younger set by asking for their opinions and
recognizing their contributions to the workplace as valid, or complimenting them on a job
well done. Younger workers can show their elders respect by asking for advice on how to
manage a situation with work, based on the older worker's many years of experience. It's
important for both entry- and senior-level workers to see each other as equals, regardless of
the type of position in which they work. No one wants to feel inferior or irrelevant just
because of their age. Rather, a generation gap at work can be a learning opportunity.
Workers can also put themselves in their colleagues' shoes to determine what might
be bothering them about their generational age difference. If a person is much older than
another, perhaps it is bitterness about fewer job opportunities, or fear that a younger worker
might seem more relevant and edge him out of his job. If workers open their minds to
understand where co-workers are coming from, it can help ease any tension between them
and appreciate each other's work contributions.
If age seems to be a problem for someone at the workplace, it can be helpful to do the
very opposite of what a co-worker might expect from someone of a different age set due
to stereotypes. For example, if a worker is considerably younger such as right out of college,
she can share researched information to indicate that she knows what she's doing, or show
curiosity instead of upset to indicate emotional maturity if the person makes a disparaging
remark about her youth. Older workers can maintain an enthusiastic attitude about work
instead of showing boredom or bitterness from past experiences.
Workers can, moreover, directly address the concern of age differences at work with
the colleague at odds with them by asking the person for constructive advice on how to
handle the issue. For example, older workers who are unfamiliar with new software that
younger colleagues understand might acknowledge to them that they did the same tasks
differently in years past but show interest in learning the program to keep up with modern
technology. Learning to speak their technological language can make them feel more
connected. Likewise, a younger worker can admit to being green on the work scene, but eager
to gain experience by learning from senior colleagues.
(Source: http://work.chron.com/)
Question 37: What is the purpose of writer in the passage?
A. To describe the status of generation gap in the workplace.
B. To suggest the solutions to bridge the generation gap between the older and younger
workers.
C. To determine which generation will have more influence on the workforce.
D. To show the differences between the older and younger at their work.
Question 38: Each generation should respect the other generation at work to
_____________.
A. affirm their ability or personal experience they contribute to work.
B. express the recognition of the other’s position in the workplace.
C. make the other feel that they are necessary or useful in the workplace.
D. treat the other equally at work.
Question 39: What does the writer mean by stating “put themselves in their colleagues'
shoes” in paragraph 3?
A. Workers should try on their colleagues’ shoes to master the difference of their
generation.
B. Workers should buy their colleagues’ shoes not to bother them about generational age
differences.
C. Workers should determine the differences between their generational ages so that
they can understand their colleagues’ situations.
D. Workers should imagine that they are in their colleagues’ situation to understand and
sympathy the difficulties they meet.
Question 40: The word “him” in paragraph 3 refers to ____________.
A. an older worker B. a younger worker C. a colleague D. a person
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word “stereotypes” in paragraph 4?
A. achievements B. failures C. prejudices D. jealousness
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are measures to overcome the
generation gap, EXCEPT _____________.
A. Keeping an open mind B. Doing the opposite
C. Requesting feedback D. Appreciating the opportunity
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that _______________.
A. The younger and older workers should meet one another on the way to reduce the
generation gap in the workplace.
B. The main principle to bridge the generation gap is to balance the experience and
technology.
C. Positive attitude will help to decrease the conflicts between the older and younger.
D. The competitive environment in the workplace might make the generation gap wider.
Question 44: Ecotourism can support conservation and environmental management if
properly carried out.
A. As ecotourism is properly carried out, it can support conservation and environmental
management.
B. In order for ecotourism to support conservation and environment management, it is
properly carried out.
C. Only when properly carried out can ecotourism support conservation and
environmental management.
D. Supporting conservation and environmental management, ecotourism is properly
carried out.
Question 45: "Which cities have the worst waste problem?" the student asked the teacher.
A. The student asked the teacher for which cities had the worst waste problem.
B. The student asked the teacher to tell him which cities had the worst waste problem.
C. The student asked the teacher which cities had the worst waste problem.
D. The student asked the teacher which cities had had the worst waste problem.
Question 46: My brother quickly adapted to his new job at the bank.
A. My brother was used to adapting to new jobs at the bank quickly.
B. My brother's new job at the bank was easy for him to adapt to.
C. My brother quickly got used to his new job at the bank.
D. My brother was able to do his new job at the bank easily.
Question 47: – "What are the major tourist attractions in your city?"
– “______________.”
A. Half of the city has been rebuilt.
B. The more you know about my city, the more you like it.
C. We have a lot of historic buildings and ruins.
D. You should go on a city tour by bus.
Question 48: A: “Can you concentrate on other things when you are listening to music?”
B: “_____________________________.”
A. I prefer to work in a quite area.
B. I'm keen on listening to dance music.
C. I often share my favorite albums with friends.
D. I don't think music can help with this.
Question 49: Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities. Among them are coaching
children and youth.
A. Coaching children and youth are the most common activities included in a wide
range of volunteer working activities.
B. Coaching children and youth are included in a wide range of activities of volunteer
work.
C. Including a wide range of activities, volunteer work involves coaching children and
youth.
D. Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities, among which are coaching children
and youth.
Question 50: The company director decided to raise the workers' wages. He did not want them
to leave.
A. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages, so they did not leave.
B. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages though he wanted them to
leave.
C. The workers did not want to leave since the company director decided to raise their
wages.
D. Not wanting the workers to leave, the company director decided to raise their wages.
-----THE END-----
24 2023
Question 1: A. report B. perform C. according D. word
Question 2: A. eliminated B. forced C. worked D. missed
Question 3: A. dismiss B. destroy C. discount D. district
Question 4: A. remember B. memorize C. dedicate D. clarify
questions.
Question 5: Why should we wait any longer? We’ve been told to act once we ______ the
governor’s permission.
A. received B. will have received
C. have received D. will receive
Question 6: Don’t forget to ring me up if _________ any changes in the timetable.
A. they are B. it will be C. there will be D. there are
Question 7: Of 30 countries inspected for airline safety, only 17 received a _________bill of
health.
A. clear B. clean C. pure D. dirty
Question 8: Solar power is _________ to become the world's largest source of electricity by
2050.
A. estimated B. antedated C. anticipated D. awaited
Question 9: The contract includes a 35-cent per hour increase in night shift ____________
pay.
A. difference B. different C. differential D. differentiate
Question 10: Tom is always blowing his trumpet that he is a qualified electrician, but the
truth is quite _______.
A. or else B. instead C. though D. otherwise
Question 11: Be present _______ the hall _______ time and then I will present you
______him.
A. with/on/to B. at/in/to C. to/on/with D. at/on/with
Question 12: To solve the problems of pollution, it is important to identify the __________
of it.
A. reasons B. purpose C. causes D. facts
Question 13: The company was strongly criticized for _______ large amounts of waste into
the river.
A. dumping B. having dumped C. being dumped D. having been dumped
Question 14: The judge declared he was immune ____________ prosecution.
A. to B. from C. about D. at
Question 15: Most young people want to ____ an independent life without being influenced
by anyone.
A. lay B. put C. lead D. bring
Question 16: _________ to withdraw from the tournament surprised us all.
A. What the champion decided B. That the champion decided
C. The champion decided D. That the champion's decision
Question 17: __________ car is responsible for causing a lot of damage to our environment.
A. A B. An C. The D. 0
Question 18: _____ a cry whenever you have a feeling that you are in danger so that
everyone could hear you and come to help immediately.
A. Send B. Give C. Make D. Lend
Question 19. We are happy today because today is a __________ day.
A. memorable training long B. long memorable training
C. memorable long training D. training memorable long
Question 20: Simon earned the respect of his friends when he determined to complete such a
challenging task while others had already given up.
A. dropped by B. dropped out C. dropped in D. dropped off
Question 21: Because of his disease, the doctor advised him to abstain from alcohol and
meat. However, he seems not to follow this advice.
A. continue B. desist C. increase D. undermine
Question 22: When I was young and idealistic I believed it was possible to change the
world.
A. applicable B. energetic C. practical D. thoughtless
Question 23: There is a (n) world of difference between love and marriage. While love
belongs to emotion, marriage means a lot of bonds and responsibilities.
A. striking similarity B. sharp contrast
C. general equivalence D. clear distinction
Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling people about global warming and
its causes, most people have (24) _______to realize how severe the problem is. Coming
climate changes could alter as much as one third of plant and animal habitats by the end of
the 22nd century. These changes could in (25) ____ cause widespread extinctions among
plant and animal species around the globe.
Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger (26) _______ they face
the combined threats of warming oceans and rising sea levels. As habitats change, many
animals will come under intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass
(27) ____ of at least some animals are certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that
many animals will simply not be able to move fast enough.
Such dire predictions may sound alarmist, but they are based on the rather moderate
estimate that the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will double by 2100. Many
scientists believe, however, that this figure is actually very conservative, and they claim that a
tripling is far more realistic. If they are (28) ____, the effects on nature will be even more
dramatic.
(Source: https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2017/climate)
Question 24: A. hence B. yet C. however D. therefore
Question 25: A. turn B. order C. result D. line
Question 26: A. although B. providing C. since D. therefore
Question 27: A. migrations B. onslaught C. emigration D. extinctions
Question 28: A. precise B. true C. exact D. correct
Question 29: As emissions increase, it trap more heat in the atmosphere, leading to a period
of
A B C
unprecedented warming.
D
Question 30: Thanks to artificial intelligence, the phone's voice-
recognition system converts the sound
A B C
into numerous data.
D
Question 31: One of the most famous and respectable learners of the country is said to have
found this school. A B C D
Long gone but not forgotten are those carefree student days of shared showers,
derelict rental properties and parties where the booze always ran out before midnight. Being a
student was quite a privilege in the good old days when local authorities and the
government footed the bill and there was almost certainly a job at the end of it.
In the early 1960s, only 4% of school leavers went to university, rising to around 14%
by the end of the 1970s. Nowadays, more than 40% of young people start undergraduate
degrees – but it comes at a cost. Today’s students leave with debts of £40,000 and upwards to
pay back over their working lives.
So how has the student experience changed over the years? Parents looking back on
their university lives are amazed at the luxuries their sons and daughters enjoy, such as en
suite bathrooms, flatscreen TVs and leather sofas. Student accommodation has improved but
rents have soared and taken up a bigger whack of the living cost loans, leaving today’s
undergraduates little better off than their parents.
They still party and have a good time, but students are working harder and more
consistently, their parents believe. Partly, it is the move away from “big bang” finals to
continuous assessment, they say, but also the pressure to get that all-important 2:1 or above
degree classification. One-third of students were awarded firsts or 2:1s in 1970. Last year it
was over two-thirds: 70%.
Today’s students are more career-orientated and under pressure to take on
extracurricular activities, more responsibilities and work experience to compete in the
graduate jobs market. Meeting people, making friends for life and discovering new interests:
these are the things that have not changed for students who are following the same route to
independence as their parents.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
A. The differences in students’ and their parents’ thoughts.
B. How universities have changed.
C. The number of undergraduate students over the years.
D. The student experience – then and now.
Question 33: The phrase “footed the bill” in the first paragraph mostly means
______________.
A. paid the cost B. lent the money
C. offered scholarships D. built the facilities
Question 34: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There are more and more high-school graduates attending universities.
B. The life of today’s undergraduates is nearly the same as their parents.
C. Today’s graduates are easier to get a job after university than their parents.
D. Modern students have to work hard after graduating to pay the loans for their studies.
A. students B. today’s undergraduates
C. parents D. friends
Question 36: The following adjectives are true about today’s students in comparison with
their parents, EXCEPT _________.
A. more career-orientated B. more privileged
C. more responsible D. more hard-working
If you’ve done any traveling at all, you’re likely quite aware that customs and
etiquette differ from one culture to another: what may be perfectly innocuous in one place
may be hideously offensive in another, and vice-versa. Granted, even if you haven’t traveled
at all, you’re probably aware of the fact that certain types of behavior aren’t exactly
acceptable in other countries: belching at the table may be a sign of gratitude in some places,
but in most areas of North America and Europe, such a display will earn you a fair bit of ire.
Whether you plan on traveling to any of the places listed below or just doing business with a
foreign client, it’s important to educate yourself on the standards of politesse and etiquette
beforehand—the last thing you want to do is offend someone with any ignorant, boorish
behavior. Here’s how to be polite in different countries.
When dealing with Japanese clients, be sure to dress fairly conservatively, and make
sure that you bow lower than they do upon meeting them. Accept gifts with both hands and
open them later, not in front of the giver, and never blow your nose at the dining table. Avoid
asking and answering direct questions: it’s better to imply rather than ask, and to answer with
vagueness during conversations.
In Mexico, when meeting others, women should initiate handshakes with men, but all
people should avoid making too much eye contact; that can be seen as aggressive and
belligerent behavior. If sharing a meal with others, keep your elbows off the table and try to
avoid burping at all costs. Keep your hands off your hips, and make sure you never make the
“okay” sign with your hand: it’s vulgar.
In Kenya, when greeting someone older or of a higher status than yourself, grip their
right wrist with your left hand while shaking it; it’s a sign of respect and deference. Do ask
questions about their health, family, business etc. before getting to major topics, as skipping
these niceties is seen as impolite. If sharing meals, do not begin eating until the eldest male
has been served and starts to eat.
Turning down an alcoholic drink is considered terribly offensive in Russia, so it’s a
good idea to fortify yourself with some greasy food before heading out for a meal with
Russian or Ukrainian clients. Don’t smile at strangers or they’ll think you’re deranged, and
when paying for items, place your money on the counter rather than trying to hand it directly
to the cashier.
(Adapted from https://www.lifehack.org/)
Question 37: Which of the following could be served as the best title of the passage?
A. Behavior to be a courteous person in distinct nations.
B. Different customs you should know when travelling abroad.
C. Different meanings of the same behavior in many countries.
D. Avoiding offensive behavior in different countries.
Question 38: The word “innocuous” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. wonderful B. acceptable C. impolite D. harmless
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following behavior should be avoided
when sharing meals with others?
A. Try to not burp at the table in North America and Europe.
B. Never blow your nose at a Japanese dinner.
C. Don’t keep your elbows off the table in Mexico.
D. Never eat before the eldest Kenyan man begins his meal.
A. their right wrist B. your left hand
C. a higher status D. a sign of respect and deference
Question 41: The word “fortify” in the last paragraph mostly means _____________.
A. debilitate B. enervate C. invigorate D. enfeeble
Question 42: According to the last paragraph, what behavior is often seen in Russia?
A. turning down an alcohol drink
B. smiling at strangers
C. asking direct questions
D. avoiding handing money directly to the cashier
Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Europeans are stricter than people in other countries.
B. Understanding clients’ customs is an important criterion in doing business.
C. Dinning etiquette is the most important one to know about other countries.
D. Observing and imitating behavior of the eldest is a wise choice.
Question 44: You should not have come to class late.
A. I'd rather you didn't come to class late.
B. I would like you not to be late for class.
C. I'd sooner you hadn't come to class late.
D. I would prefer that you come to class on time.
Question 45: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night.
A. You shouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
B. You left the windows open last night due to your carelessness.
C. If you hadn’t been careless, you wouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
D. You can’t have left the windows open last night because you were careless.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn’t like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
B. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn’t like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
D. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
Question 47. - Hung: "I have thought of a way to save energy around the house!"
- Teacher: "________________!"
A. Best wishes B. My dear C. Well done D. That's very well
Question 48. - A: “______________”
- B: “You have to obtain the high school diploma.”
A. What is the requirement to enter this university?
B. When do we finish high school?
C. I can't wait to obtain the high school diploma.
D. I am trying my best to win a place at university.
Question 49: He was very tired. He agreed to play tennis.
A. Tired as though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
B. Tired though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
C. Tired, he agreed to play tennis.
D. So tired was he that he agreed to play tennis.
Question 50: Tina does not want to become a lawyer. She wants to become a counselor.
A. It is a lawyer, not a counselor that Tina wants to become.
B. It is Tina who wants to become a counselor not a lawyer.
C. It is Tina who wants to become a lawyer not a counselor.
D. It is a counselor, not a lawyer that Tina wants to become.
-----THE END-----
25 2023
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. absence B. arrive C. absorb D. apologize
Question 2: A. dogged B. crooked C. naked D. backed
Question 3: A. approach B. panda C. income D. current
Question 4: A. confidence B. celebrate C. effective D. handicapped
questions.
Question 5: All of the plants now raised on farms _______ from plants that ______ wild.
A. had been developed – once were grown B. have been developed – once grew
C. have been developed – have grown D. had been developed – once grew
Question 6: We _______ more time with our children before they left for university. We
were too busy with our jobs to think about that.
A. wish we spent B. were supposed to be spending
C. would like to have spent D. regret that we didn’t spend
Question 7: Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save _____ so she said
that she had left it willingly.
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame
Question 8: The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the
last minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment
Question 9: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the _____ of anyone walking down
the street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 10: No matter how busy I may be, I shall be there tonight come what_______.
A. may B. might C. can D. could
Question 11: Organizations may qualify for exemption from income tax if they _______
exclusively as charities.
A. operated B. operate C. had operated D. are operated
Question 12: I used to be nervous when my father asked me to give him my school
_________.
A. diploma B. certificate C. report D. background
Question 13: Simon Lake drew the inspiration __________ La submarine of undersea travel
and exploration from Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
A. at B. by C. for D. of
Question 14: Parents should start teaching them how to manage more complicated duties
__________ children graduate from toddlerhood and move toward preschool.
A. yet B. when C. and D. so
Question 15: Ecotourism is any type of tourism to relatively _______ natural areas for the
enjoyment of natural, cultural and historical features.
A. disturbed B. disturb C. undisturbed D. disturbance
Question 16: Different activities should be carried out to raise _________ awareness of our
people about ecotourism.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 17: __________ perform a function that requires water to perform that function,
you had better give that water to the body in advance of the event.
A. Any time you want to B. Unless you want to C. What you want
to D. You want to
Question 18: There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the
moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 19: The older Ms. Lucy is, __________ she becomes.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive
C. the more attractive D. more attractive
Question 20: In the 1960s, the World Health Organization (WHO) began a campaign to get
rid of the mosquitoes that transmit the disease malaria.
A. minimize B. develop C. eradicate D. appreciate
Question 21: A father will be his child's role model. He will be the example for his child of
what husbands and fathers are like.
A. someone that others admire and follow B. someone that others share interest with
C. someone that others love and live with D. someone that others are fond of with
Question 22: For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it
comes to finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.
A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty
Question 23: Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the
wedding before you've even been invited to it?
A. doing things in the wrong order B. do things in the right order
C. knowing the ropes D. upsetting the apple cart
Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People differ (24) ____
opinions, race, nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so
much more, yet at the very basic we are all human species. Ideally, all people feel (25) ____
and joy despite the differences. Today, the changes in time and technology have made it
extremely impossible for any group of people to live without interacting with others outside
their group. Often people of different cultural and geographical (26) ____ meet in
international conferences, education exchange programs, sports, etc.
Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences
has been with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their rights (27)
_________ individual greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to lack
of understanding. Unfortunately, some of these occurrences are visible even today,
perpetuated by people who little understand the importance of the (28)__________of our
diversity.
(Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com)
Question 24: A. from B. by C. in D. with
Question 25: A. pain B. pained C. painful D. painless
Question 26: A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D. surroundings
Question 27: A. because of B. thanks to C. despite D. as a result
Question 28: A. specialty B. uniqueness C. identity D. sustainability
Question 29: The innovators behind objects like the cellphone or the helicopter took
inspiration from
A B C
work like "Star Trek" and “War of the Worlds”.
D
Question 30: How many people know that the Brooklyn Bridge, built in 1883, were the
world's first
A B C
suspension bridge?
D
Question 31: It is said that the accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
The best explainer videos are realized by great background score. When was the last
time you watched a silent movie? Never? Not for a while? A long while? Even if you
remember watching one, it would still have had a background score, or you’ve accidentally
pressed the mute button!
The importance of background music and sound effects for your explainer video,
therefore, cannot be overstated. You may not need a full blown orchestra or classy jazz tones
to create the mood, but whether going for a subtle effect, a professional demonstration or
simply trying to attract customers, music is a must. Explainer videos have the emotional
quotient working for them and music is just going to add more to make the viewers relate to
the pain points you are highlighting in your video. Imagine if your favorite video game has
no background music or sound effects to back the amazing graphics? Would you play it with
the same feel and excitement? Nah! Same is the case with your explainer videos. They need
to and should have apt sound effects to make them worth your viewer’s time.
While the focus of explainer videos production is more on passing the desired
information and explaining technical and complex procedures easily, it doesn’t mean you’ll
be distracting your viewers with the background music. The sound effects and music is not
going to take the message away from your explainer, it’s just going to enhance it and turn it
more watchable and share-able. Even if your video doesn’t require a background score, it
must include some sound effects or else it would be not so good an experience for those who
choose to watch it.
(Source: https://www.b2w.tv/)
A. The importance of background music and sound effects.
B. The influence of silence and background music on memory.
C. Inside the booming business of background music.
D. How to choose the background music for your explainer videos?
Question 33: The word “score” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ______.
A. grove B. mark C. instrument D. music
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is the main purpose for using background
music?
A. Sound helps build and sustain relationships between films and viewers.
B. Background music can control how the audience should react to a scene.
C. Background music can influence both everyone’s mood and choices.
D. A musical atmosphere can actually motivate people to do risky things.
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. score B. video C. sound D. background
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what is the fundamental and typical use of explainer
videos?
A. It is used to distill wide-ranging and complex ideas into a viewer-friendly package.
B. Businesses use them to quickly introduce themselves and their importance.
C. It is designed as a means to stimulate both auditory and visual senses.
D. It helps the customers with their daily life problems with scientific information.
In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications
and business, Mandarin, Hindi, English, Spanish and Russian amongst others, are placing
small languages spoken in remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people
speak languages such as Liki, Taushiro and Dumi as their children shift away from the
language of their ancestors towards languages which promise education, success and the
chance of a better life. While to many parents, this may appear a reasonable choice, giving
their offspring the opportunity to achieve the sort of prosperity they see on television, the
children themselves often lose touch with their roots. However, in many places the more
reasonable option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a local and a national
language, is being promoted. This gives hope that many endangered languages will survive,
allowing people to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture.
While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a minority language,
national governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an economically
unproductive language, especially in times of budget constraints. It is generally accepted that
national languages unite and help to create wealth while minority regional languages divide.
Furthermore, governments have a duty to ensure that young people can fulfill their full
potential, meaning that state education must provide them with the ability to speak and work
in their national language and so equip them to participate responsibly in national affairs.
People whose language competence does not extend beyond the use of a regional tongue have
limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a sentimental attachment to
their local language, their government’s position should be one of benign neglect,
allowing people to speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance.
Many PhD students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their
language skills, with the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to
communicate with speakers of the language they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on
the quality of their research. At the same time, they have to struggle against the frequently
expressed opinion that minority languages serve no useful purpose and should be allowed to
die a natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a unique body of
knowledge and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that
language extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are
part of an impending global catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable.
(Adapted from Complete Advanced by Guy Brook – Hart and Simon Haines)
Question 37: Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage?
A. The threat to minority languages in different parts of the world.
B. The domination of business languages all over the world.
C. The shift from regional to national languages in many countries.
D. The benefits of national languages in the modern world.
Question 38: According to the first paragraph, why do many parents consider the change
towards national languages a reasonable choice?
A. Because not many people nowadays are familiar with the language of their ancestors.
B. Because children now can learn to speak both a local and a national language.
C. Because their children may have a chance to achieve education, success and better
living condition.
D. Because their children may help to combine their links to local tradition with access
to wider world culture.
Question 39: What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. the more reasonable option
B. the place where children can use bilingualism
C. the opportunity to achieve prosperity
D. the promotion of bilingualism
Question 40: The word “constraints” in the second language is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. investments B. restrictions C. crises D. depressions
Question 41: What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many
PhD students mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. These students are unable to persuade people to use the language they are learning.
B. Their qualified research is unlikely to complete.
C. They will have many difficulties in understanding these languages.
D. They have to become interpreters and translators of these languages themselves.
Question 42: The word “facets” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
_____________.
A. aspects B. problems C. procedures D. products
Question 43: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Local languages can’t unite and create as much wealth as national languages.
B. State education is obligatory to ensure young people to speak and work in their regional
languages.
C. Lack of language skills causes a negative effect on the quality of PhD students’
research.
D. Each citizen has the right to decide whether they want to speak a minority language
or not.
Question 44: "Please don't leave until I come back", Sarah said.
A. Sarah suggested not leaving until she comes back.
B. Sarah asked us to leave until she came back.
C. Sarah told us not to leave until she came back.
D. Sarah offered to leave until she came back.
Question 45: The weather has been terrible recently. I am very depressed now.
A. If the weather had not been terrible lately, I wouldn't be so depressed now.
B. If the weather hasn't been terrible recently, I won't be so depressed now.
C. If the weather hadn't been terrible recently, I wouldn't have been so depressed now.
D. If the weather had been more terrible recently, I would be depressed now.
Question 46: I eat a lot. I cannot keep fit.
A. I eat more and more and become fitter and fitter.
B. The less I eat, the fitter I become.
C. The more I eat, the less fit I become.
D. I become fit not only because I eat a lot.
Question 47: - “I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer.”
- “_____________________.”
A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'.
B. I do, but I don't have enough time for studying.
C. That's great. You have been coming of age.
D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?
Question 48. - Phúc: “I am offered the job at Vietravel.”
- Thomas: “_______________.”
A. Good Heavens! B. Congratulations!
C. Good luck! D. Never mind, better luck next time!
Question 49: We came in the room. Our boss was sitting in the front desk.
A. We came in the room, our boss was sitting in the front desk.
B. When we came in the room, our boss had been sitting in the front desk.
C. When we came in the room, in the front desk was sitting our boss.
D. Hardly had we come in the room when our boss sat in the front desk.
Question 50: Sara's classmates said that she littered on the school yard. She denied it.
A. Sara denied having littered on the school yard.
B. Sara denied her friends' littering on the school yard.
C. Having littered on the school yard, Sara's classmates denied it.
D. As Sara denied it, her classmates said that she littered on the school yard.
-----THE END-----
26 2023
Question 1: A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty
Question 2: A. booths B. months C. mouths D. paths
Question 3: A. rechargeable B. continuous C. appreciate D. academic
Question 4: A. thesis B. vital C. tension D. champagne
questions.
Question 5: The late 1800s and early 1900s ____ excitement over a wide array of inventions
and developments.
A. brought B. have brought C. had brought D. would bring
Question 6: ________ the Australian gold mining company ________ more care with the
storage of cyanide, the catastrophe could have been prevented.
A. Has – taken B. Had – taken C. Would – take D. Should – take
Question 7: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations
become more important, and as conventional tourism is forced to ____ tougher
environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Question 8: Gender __________ is not only a fundamental human right, but a necessary
foundation for a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world.
A. equity B. unity C. equality D. identity
Question 9: When children have a strong, positive relationship with their parents, they are
____ to succeed in school.
A. most likely B. more likely C. the likelier D. the more likely
Question 10: Students can only use technological devices to complete their work ____
investment on notebooks and books.
A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case
Question 11: The advantages of the new method really ____ the disadvantages.
A. outperform B. outdo C. outweigh D. outgrow
Question 12: Jimmy always takes the _____ by the horns at every chance in order to become
a famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 13: A smart city is an urban area that uses different types of electronic data
collection sensors to supply information which __________ assets and resources efficiently.
A. used to manage B. is used to managing
C. is used to manage D. is using to manage
Question 14: It is the classical Athenians who can probably lay claim __________ the
invention of commercial advertising as we know it today.
A. to B. for C. of D. with
Question 15: The storm did a lot of ______ to our village. All the crops were drastically
destroyed and many houses were washed away.
A. injury B. hardship C. harm D. damage
Question 16: My aunt gave me a(n) ______ bag on my 24th birthday.
A. expensive small brown Chanel leather B. small brown expensive leather Chanel
C. expensive small brown leather Chanel D. small expensive brown leather Chanel
Question 17: Cultural diversity expands choices, nurtures _______ variety of skills, human
values and worldviews and provides wisdom from the past to inform the future.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 18: Our bodies are supported by the skeletal system, which consists of 206 bones
______ tendons, ligaments and cartilage.
A. that connect to B. that are connected by
C. which connects to D. which is connected by
Question 19: He gave up work because of ill health, __________ ?
A. wasn’t he B. is he C. didn’t he D. does he
Question 20: A lot of adults pay lip service to the idea that it is important to listen to
teenagers' ideas, but they tend to listen and then forget.
A. empty promise B. solemn promise C. broken promise D. early promise
Question 21: Students will find all academic assignments via the class blog their teachers
create to post assignments.
A. by means of B. in terms of C. by the way D. in search of
Question 22: The manager needs an assistant that he can count on to take care of problems
in his absence.
A. discredit B. disrespect C. dislike D. distrust
Question 23: If it had not been for the couch's decision to strike while the iron is hot, the
team would not have won the game so easily.
A. take advantage of an opportunity B. miss the boat
C. face the music D. put others first
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that
Londoners use their cell phones the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let
calls be answered by voice mail (a recorded message) and then they check for messages later.
If the English do answer a call on the street, they seem to dislike talking with others around.
They tend to move away from a crowded sidewalk and seek out a place (24) ________ they
cannot be heard, such as the far side of a subway entrance or even the edge of a street. They
seem to feel that the danger of the traffic is (25) ___________ to the risk of having their
conversation be overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser has called "clustering." At a
busy time of day on the streets of London, you may find small crowds of cell phone users
grouped together, each one talking into a cell phone. Even when it is raining—as it is often in
London—people still prefer not to hold their conversations where others could hear. They
talk (26) _____________ their umbrellas or in a doorway.
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is
not considered polite to use a phone in a restaurant, (27) ______________, though it might be
acceptable in the more informal setting of a café. One special custom that has developed in
cafés seems unique to Paris. Young women often place their cell phones on the table beside
them to signal that they are expecting someone. When the friend arrives, the phone is (28)
_____________. In fact, the French are generally very disapproving of phone use in public
and are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 24: A. which B. when C. where D. what
Question 25: A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential
Question 26: A. on B. under C. in D. after
Question 27: A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance
Question 28: A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside
Question 29: The reasons why lack of water causes the body to become stressed and
diseased, as well
A B
as very simple methods to ensure your own vibrant health, are all explained in details.
C D
Question 30: Volunteer work, understood in its traditional meaning, as unpaid
activity oriented to help
A B
others and to improve society, have existed throughout the history of humanity.
C D
Question 31: Vinton G. Cerf founded the InterNetworking Group in 1972 and this has been
since
A B
recognized as the birth-year of the Internet.
C D
No matter how much you’ve trained, performance anxiety before or during a
competition may occur, hindering the results of your match.
While you can tell yourself to stay calm prior to a competition, managing
performance anxiety may not be as simple as. Research has shown that strategies such as
meditation and guided imagery are great places to start; both require your brain to rehearse
what you will do during your competition. Your imagination holds much more power than
you may expect, helping you focus on how to beat your opponent, instead of other factors
that contribute to your anxiety. Adequate preparation also plays a large role.
To master the mental game, it takes time. Starting one month before your competition,
consider sitting in solitude in a comfortable position for 15 minutes each day. Focus first on
breathing in and out deeply. Then, begin to imagine competition situations and visualize
yourself in a fight with your competitor. Be mindful of your anxiety and return your focus to
breathing if you feel yourself tense up. Sometimes, you may find yourself thinking self-
deprecating or negative thoughts, at which point you should consciously replace any negative
self-talk with positive self-talk. During these visualizations, also be sure to think about your
posture and form and create cues — mental and verbal — that will help you review and
correct your technique.
Pre-competition jitters are completely normal and it’s important to acknowledge that.
Accepting that this excitement and/or nervousness is normal will help your body also
understand that what you are experiencing is not fear, but perhaps part of your adrenaline
response to competition. With more experience, mindful visualization and mental/physical
preparation can help you manage and overcome performance anxiety.
(Source: https://blog.perfectmind.com/)
A. Overcoming performance anxiety before a competition.
B. Songs Olympians listen to before competition.
C. How to pray before, during, and after competition.
D. Anxiety before a competition can lead to insomnia.
Question 33: The word “hindering” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. frustrating B. crippling C. arresting D. hampering
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a contributing factor for
victory?
A. Imagination B. Preparation
C. Anxiety D. Anxiety management
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what step is NOT included in the mindful
visualization technique?
A. Maintain a daily habit of 15-minute sitting alone for a month before the contest day.
B. Visualize interconnected dots in your minds while reciting the secret mantra.
C. Simulate several possible interactions between yourself and your opponents.
D. Steer is clear of pessimistic thoughts and substitutes them with optimistic ones.
Question 36: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. The fact that your fear for the competition is a kind of inexplicable phobia.
B. The fact that feeling anxious before a competition is nothing unusual.
C. The fact that hardly anyone will understand your aversion to contest.
D. The fact that introspection is not an effective pre-test calming practice.
Coral reefs are some of the most diverse ecosystems in the world, housing tens of
thousands of marine species. With their hardened surfaces, corals are sometimes mistaken as
being rocks. And, because they are attached, “taking root” to the seafloor, they are often
mistaken for plants. However, unlike rocks, corals are alive. And unlike plants, corals do not
make their own food. Corals are in fact animals. Appearing as solitary forms in the fossil
record more than 400 million years ago, corals are extremely ancient animals that evolved
into modern reef-building forms over the last 25 million years.
Coral reefs are the largest structures on earth of biological origin. Coral reefs are
unique and complex systems. Rivaling old growth forests in longevity of their ecological
communities, well-developed reefs reflect thousands of years of history.
Corals are ancient animals related to jellyfish and anemones. The branch or mound
that we often call “a coral” is actually made up of thousands of tiny animals called polyps. A
coral polyp is an invertebrate that can be no bigger than a pinhead to up to 30 centimeters (1
foot) in diameter. The polyps extend their tentacles at night to sting and ingest tiny organisms
called plankton and other small creatures. Each polyp has a saclike body and a mouth that is
encircled by stinging tentacles. The polyp uses calcium carbonate (limestone) from seawater
to build a hard, cup-shaped skeleton. This skeleton protects the soft, delicate body of the
polyp.
Reefs only occur in shallow areas that are reachable by sunlight because of the
relationship between coral and algae. Various types of microscopic algae, known
as Symbiodinium, live inside of the coral, providing them with food and helping them to grow
faster.
There are over 2,500 kinds (species) of corals. About 1,000 are the hard corals that
build coral reefs. Other corals are soft corals. Soft corals have skeletons that are flexible and
can bend with the water. The three main types of coral reefs are fringing reefs, barrier reefs,
and coral atolls. The most common type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows
seaward directly from the shore. They form borders along the shoreline and surrounding
islands. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk
entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape, with
an open lagoon in the center. Any reef that is called a barrier reef gets its name because its
presence protects the shallow waters along the shore from the open sea. That protection
promotes the survival of many types of sea plant and animal life.
(Adapted from http://justfunfacts.com)
Question 37: Which of the following could best reflect the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To prove that coral reefs are animals.
B. To provide the facts about coral reefs.
C. To explain that coral reefs are the most diverse ecosystems in the ocean.
D. To distinguish coral reefs from other animals.
Question 38: The word “solitary” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
____________.
A. single B. private C. general D. typical
Question 39: The word “rivaling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. differing from B. comparing with C. relating to D. changing from
Question 40: According to the passage, the following are true about coral
reefs, EXCEPT _______.
A. Coral reefs are mistaken for rocks and plants because of their hardened surface and
“roots”.
B. Polyps are the composition of corals.
C. The skeleton of a polyp is created from calcium carbonate in seawater.
D. Corals absorb food in the sunlight using their tentacles.
A. coral atolls B. barrier reefs C. fringing reefs D. the shores
Question 42: As mentioned in the last paragraph, why a reef is called a barrier reef?
A. As it keeps developing from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level.
B. Because its skeleton is flexible enough to defend many marine organisms.
C. Since it saves the low waters along the coastline from the open sea.
D. Because it is one kind of 1,000 hard corals that protect the shoreline.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that coral reefs ______________.
A. evolved from a kind of plant on the Earth.
B. are the biggest structures that have ever lived on the Earth.
C. are the origin of many marine plants and animals.
D. appeared on the Earth hundreds of million years ago.
Question 44: It is against the school rules to cheat in the test.
A. You don't have to cheat in the test. B. You must cheat in the test.
C. You must not cheat in the test. D. You have to cheat in the test.
Question 45: "You should open up and tell our teacher about your situation", said Maria to
Victor.
A. Maria advised Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
B. Maria forbid Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
C. Maria forced Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
D. Maria allowed Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
Question 46: The professor is a more efficient financial adviser than the expert.
A. The professor gives advice on finance less efficiently than the expert.
B. The expert is a less efficient financial adviser than the professor.
C. The professor gives advice on finance not as efficiently as the expert.
D. The expert gives financial advice more efficiently than the professor.
Question 47: – "Do you get along well with your brothers?"
– “______________”
A. He's not living with us, he's living in the town.
B. We have never got into a fight but sometimes in a quarrel.
C. He likes swimming, and I like reading when free.
D. Mom and Dad always help us with our school work.
Question 48: - A: "Doctor, can you give me some suggestions on how to stay healthy?"
- B: “___________________.”
A. Well, first of all, you need to make sure that you eat the right foods.
B. It is very confusing to know what to eat.
C. As long as you don't overdo it, a glass of wine a day should be OK.
D. If you smoke, you need to stop.
Question 49: His parents don't like some of his friends. His friends wear too flashy clothes.
A. His parents don't like some of his friends despite their too flashy clothes.
B. His parents don't like some of his friends because of their too flashy clothes.
C. His parents don't like some of his friends but for their flashy clothes.
D. His parents don't like some of his friends without their too flashy clothes.
Question 50: Inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem. Instead, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
A. Instead of trying to solve a problem, inventors' and engineers' initial ideas are to try
B. Rarely do inventors' and engineers' initial ideas solve a problem rather than try
C. Because inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
D. Even though inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
-----THE END-----
27 2023
Question 1: A. interaction B. initiative C. hospitality D. activity
Question 2: A. invites B. comes C. arrives D. loves
Question 3: A. cartoon B. answer C. open D. paper
Question 4: A. certificate B. knowledgeable C. prosperity D. development
questions
Question 5: Unfortunately, many of the travel experiences we take part in _______ into
consideration how it affects our planet and the well-being of people.
A. does not take B. do not take C. is not taken D. are not taken
Question 6: If he had not spent his youth not learning anything, he __________ himself for
his lack of knowledge now.
A. will not blame B. would not blame
C. would not have blamed D. would blame
Question 7: Research suggested that people can ________ recall events that never happened.
A. vividly B. clearly C. obviously D. certainly
Question 8: ____________ , the driver couldn’t make out the road signs.
A. There is a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
B. There being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
C. It was a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
D. It being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
Question 9: If you don't have anything __________ to say, it's better to say nothing.
A. construct B. construction C. constructive D. constructor
Question 10: Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk
_______in heavy traffic during rush hour.
A. holding up B. being held up C. to be held up D. to hold up
Question 11: Global warming will result _____ crop failures and famines.
A. with B. from C. for D. in
Question 12: There are both advantages and disadvantages of living in families with three or
four generations, also known as __________ families.
A. single-parent B. extended C. nuclear D. crowded
Question 13: ______ I got to the dentist last week, I had to sit in the waiting room for over
one hour.
A. When B. Once C. While D. Since
Question 14: He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) _____ of
danger.
A. omen B. premonition C. foreboding D. prediction
Question 15: When I agreed to help, I didn't know what I was __________ myself in for.
A. laying B. putting C. letting D. bringing
Question 16: Friends will come and go in your life, but more important than __________ is
your friends' acceptance of you for who you are.
A. how long do your friendships last B. how long your friendships will last
C. how long your friendships last D. how long will your friendships last
Question 17: _______ Spring festival season in Vietnam starts with the Lunar New Year and
closes with the celebration honoring the mythical founding fathers, ______ Hung Kings, on
_____ tenth day of _______ third lunar month.
A. The/the/the/the B. 0/0/the/the
C. The/0/0/the D. The/the/0/0
Question 18: I'm not suggesting ________ that she meant to cause any trouble.
A. for one minute B. for sure
C. for sales D. for a laugh
Question 19: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, __________?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Question 20: I took a course at the employment bureau to learn how to organize my résumé
to best show off my experience and qualifications.
A. enhance B. promote C. boast D. achieve
Question 21: In their senseless killing of innocent people, the terrorists have shown their
lack of respect for human life.
A. had B. earned C. gained D. commanded
Question 22: On the whole, further education still plays an important role in the
development of any country.
A. Generally B. Specifically C. Essentially D. Surprisingly
Question 23: It's not beyond the realm of possibility that some schools may have to cut sport
altogether.
A. possible B. impossible C. unlikely D. certain
An A level is an Advanced level GCE qualification. This exam is (24) __________
taken after two years of A level study, following the O level/IGCSE exams. Students can take
any number of A level exams; in the UK, most college students take three or four A level
exams for their final two years of study. The (25) __________ of A levels to be taken will
often depend on the qualifications that the university chosen requires. A level results can
open doors to undergraduate studies at some of the best higher educational institutions in the
world, and to a wide range of professional and vocational courses (26) _______ can help
build skills for an exciting and rewarding career. In many countries round the world, some
schools follow the GCE syllabus to prepare their pupils for taking A level exams. Students at
these schools should enquire at their school about how they can register and sit (27) ____ the
exams. Students who do not attend a school that follows the GCE syllabus can still take A
level exams and can register as a private individual with the British Council.
In order to register for an A level exam one will need to complete an entry form
which will become available at the British Council offices. Forms usually become (28)
__________ for January examinations in early August of the preceding year. For May/June
examinations, they are available in early December of the preceding year.
(Source: https://qualifications.pearson.com)
Question 24: A. normally B. popularly C. largely D. noticeably
Question 25: A. sum B. number C. amount D. quantity
Question 26: A. what B. that C. when D. who
Question 27: A. at B. in C. for D. into
Question 28: A. availability B. avail C. availably D. available
Question 29: According to the results of a survey which conducted by a USA
magazine, there isn't
A B C
really a generation gap.
D
Question 30: The best way to get ready for an interview is to take the time to review the most
common
A B C
interview questions you will mostly likely be asked.
D
Question 31: Down did an apple fall when he was passing under the tree.
A B C D
New research shows that long-term changes in diseases in ocean
species coincide with decades of widespread environmental change. The paper, "Increases
and decreases in marine disease reports in an era of global change," was published Oct. 9 in
Proceedings of the Royal Society B.
Understanding oceanic trends is important for evaluating today's threats to marine
systems, and disease is an important sentinel of change, according to senior author Drew
Harvell, professor of marine biology at Cornell University. "Disease increases and decreases
can both be bad news," said lead author Allison Tracy, who studied with Harvell. "The long-
term changes in disease that we see here may result from anthropogenic pressure on plants
and animals in the ocean." The researchers examined marine infectious disease reports from
1970 to 2013, which transcend short-term fluctuations and regional variation. They examined
records of corals, urchins, mammals, decapods, fish, mollusks, sharks, rays, seagrass and
turtles.
For corals and urchins, reports of infectious disease increased over the 44-year period.
In the Caribbean, increasing coral disease reports correlated with warming events. It is widely
known that coral bleaching increases with warming, but Harvell said they have established a
long-term connection between warming and coral disease. "We've finally linked a coral killer
like infectious disease to repeated warming bouts over four decades of change," she said.
"Our study shows that infectious disease reports are associated with warm temperature
anomalies in corals on a multi-decadal scale." These results improve understanding of how
changing environments alter species interactions, and they provide a solid baseline for health
of marine life in the period studied.
(Source: https://www.myvetcandy.com/)
Question 32. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Infectious disease in marine life linked to ocean warming.
B. Ocean pollution and diseases resulted from aquaculture.
C. Health threats from polluted coastal waters.
D. What to know about flesh-eating bacteria infections.
Question 33: The word “coincide” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. agree B. coexist C. differ D. concur
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what role does marine disease play in the oceanic
analysis?
A. It reflects the progress in the study of human immunology.
B. It deals with the task of monitoring vector-borne threats.
C. It serves as an indicator of the presence of oceanic changes.
D. It induces changes in fungal communities under the water.
Question 35: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. reports B. researchers C. animals D. fluctuations
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what can be concluded from the Allison Tracy’s
investigation?
A. Water sources might soon become poisonous to ocean life and the humans.
B. Rising global temperatures are spreading disease at an unprecedented level.
C. Oceans have absorbed more than 90% of the warming effects of climate change.
D. No level of conservation in the future will be enough to override the warming
impacts.
To quote CREST founder Dr. Martha Honey, we earnestly believe that ecotourism is
“simply a better way to travel.” Here’s a look at how this transformational approach to travel
benefits conservation, increases cross-cultural understanding, and ultimately turns travelers
into environmental advocates:
To see how ecotourism benefits nature and wildlife, let’s look at endangered species
such as African Elephants. Ivory from Elephant tusks is worth $1500 a pound on the black
market, which has led to a dramatic increase in poaching. But Elephants are worth 76 times
more alive than dead. When you consider the revenue from wildlife photography tours,
luxury safari camps, and other ecotourism offerings, a single Elephant is worth $1.3 million
over the course of its lifetime! Ecotourism offers a long-term alternative to exploitation,
generating sustainable revenue and ensuring the better overall health of the ecosystem.
Nature reserves and national parks help prevent deforestation and pollution, while
also protecting the habitat of endemic species. The revenue that ecotourism provides can help
replace profits from exploitative practices such as mining or slash ‘n’ burn agriculture. It can
also help ensure the long-term financial viability of the area. Naturalist guides also help
travelers understand the value of a pristine ecosystem, and teach them about the importance
of conservation. This ultimately helps to create a more mindful and conscious legion of
travelers.
When managed properly, ecotourism can offer locals alternative revenue streams. In
wildlife-rich countries such as Rwanda, former poachers are often employed as guides or
trackers, capitalizing on their knowledge of the animals and their habitat. In Costa Rica,
unemployment has fallen to less than 10% since the country started building its ecotourism
infrastructure in the 1970s. Involving local communities in tourism management
empowers them by ensuring that more revenue is reinvested locally. Ecotourism also offers
indigenous peoples an opportunity to remain on ancestral land, conserve it, and preserve
traditional culture.
Sure, being a responsible traveler takes a greater level of commitment to being
conscious and mindful of the impact we have on the destinations we visit. But ecotourism
also offers us incredible, transformative experiences, allowing us to develop closer personal
relationships to the nature, wildlife, and local people we encounter during our adventures.
Learning about ecotourism can permanently change your understanding of mankind’s role in
our planetary ecosystem. And once you’ve had that sort of travel experience, you’ll never
want to travel the traditional way again.
(Source: https://www.ith.org.za/what-is-eco-tourism/)
Question 37: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The benefits of ecotourism.
B. Making the most of ecotourism.
C. An introduction to ecotourism.
D. Encourage conservation or adding to exploitation?
Question 38: The word “revenue” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. reward B. benefit C. profit D. interest
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, in what direction can ethical tourism help the
society?
A. Green tourism maintains the balance between animals and humans.
B. Ecotourism provides financial support for local communities.
C. Sustainable tourism yields substantial environmental benefits.
D. Ecotourism encourages open dialogue about deforestation.
Question 40: The word “pristine” in paragraph 3 most likely means _______.
A. natural B. untouched C. beautiful D. dirty
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. species B. relationships C. poachers D. locals
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, why did the author claim that people will prefer
ecotourism over normal one?
A. Because it is such an awakening and mind-expanding experience.
B. Because the author is a trend-setting writer who believes in his words’ influence.
C. Because anything with a green label on it is all the craze now.
D. Because the standard of ecotourism service is more satisfying than other types.
A. Ecotourism is seasonal in nature, therefore a vulnerable industry.
B. The current sustainable tourism service is just greenwashing.
C. Ecotourism is a win-win experience, both for nature and the people.
D. Responsible travel is a unique opportunity for business.
Question 44: She said, "John, I'll show you around my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip around her city with John.
B. She planned to show John around her city.
C. She promised to show John around her city.
D. She organized a trip around her city for John.
Question 45: People say that Vietnamese students are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
A. Vietnamese students are said not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.
B. Vietnamese students say they are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
C. People do not like Vietnamese students to be well-prepared for their future jobs
D. People, as well as Vietnamese students, are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
Question 46: Unlike traditional learning, the e-learning is flexible for the students as well as
for the teachers.
A. The e-learning is more flexible for the students and the teachers than traditional
learning.
B. The students' e-learning is more flexible than the teachers' traditional learning.
C. The e-learning for the students is more flexible than traditional learning for the
teachers.
D. The students use more flexible e-learning than traditional learning used by the
teachers.
Question 47: - Nick: "What about stopping by a fishing village for lunch?”
- Linh: “_______________.’
A. It's isn't really worth seeing. B. Thanks, that's really useful.
C. That sounds fantastic! D. You've done a very good job.
Question 48: - "Will you please show me how to operate the new machine?
- “_______________.”
A. Sure. It's a piece of cake. B. Is it like a piece of cake?
C. Of course it's no easy work. D. No, I won't.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey
A. They were so exhausted that they could hardly continue the journey.
B. They were hardly exhausted but they could not continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. They could continue the journey as they were hardly exhausted.
Question 50: Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us. She had already seen the movie.
A. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us, so she had already seen it.
B. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us as she had already seen it.
C. As Karen had already seen the movie, Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema.
D. Karen had already seen the movie, then she didn’t want to go the cinema.
-----THE END-----
28 2023
Question 1: A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 2: A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
Question 3: A. social B. common C. verbal D. polite
Question 4: A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
questions.
Question 5: The majority of the students _______ home for their holidays for the past few
weeks.
A. has gone B. had gone C. goes D. have gone
Question 6: My sister often reads _______ fashion pages in _______ newspapers to keep up
with __________ latest styles.
A. Ø/the/the B. the/the/the C. Ø/Ø/the D. the/Ø/the
Question 7: Mrs Townsend was left ___________ all the arrangements for the outing by
herself.
A. to make B. making C. having made D. to making
Question 8: “If I ________ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55
minutes determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could
solve the problem in less than five minutes." - Albert Einstein
A. have an hour to solve a problem B. had an hour solving a problem
C. had had an hour to solve a problem D. had an hour to solve a problem
Question 9: I’m sorry but I assure you that I had no intention ____________ offending you.
A. in B. of C. to D. for
Question 10: As a devoted and respectable woman, she makes a large donation to a
_____________ cause every year.
A. worthless B. worthy C. worthwhile D. worth
Question 11: __________ you have thought about where you are at now and where you want
to be, you can work on getting to know your skills, interests and values.
A. As B. Although C. Unless D. Once
Question 12: When we went to Egypt he knew __________ no Arabic, but within six months
he had become extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. virtually D. scarcely
Question 13: In ______________, I must acknowledge that we were guilty of errors of
judgment.
A. retrospect B. review C. experience D. hindsight
Question 14: Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______________ on
the table regarding their long-term plans.
A. cards B. hands C. feet D. papers
Question 15: "Anyone who stops learning is old, ________. Anyone who keeps learning
stays young." - Henry Ford
A. either at twenty or eighty B. neither at twenty or eighty
C. neither at twenty nor eighty D. whether at twenty or eighty
Question 16: He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _____ for
heights.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
Question 17: The ________________ of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday.
A. survey B. inspection C. appraisal D. review
Question 18: One moment you say you love me, the next moment you are dating another girl,
______?
A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. won’t you D. do you
Question 19: Ms. Hoa is a __________ girl who always smiles with everyone friendly.
A. beautiful tall young B. young beautiful tall
C. young tall beautiful D. tall young beautiful
Question 20: If the rain doesn't let up soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
A. brighten B. stop C. clear D. darken
Question 21: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had
no alternative but to expel her.
A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster
C. punish her severely D. beat her violently
Question 22: It is an ideal opportunity to make yourself memorable with employers for the
right reasons by asking sensible questions.
A. theoretical B. silly C. practical D. burning
Question 23: Steve was very happy in his job until he fell out with his boss. After that, it
was difficult for them to work together.
A. made up with B. made for C. made out D. made off
A little while ago, the European Parliament recommended a list of 8 key
competencies which they believe all (24) ____ institutions should provide their students with,
to promote lifelong learning. These key competencies consist of knowledge, skills, and
attitudes which are central to the development of (25) ____ children, young people and
eventually adults.
Finland isn't the first country to recognize the value of ‘lifelong learning’ but Finland
is the first country to base their teaching curriculum (26) ____ the eight key competencies.
Instead of focusing on classic academic subjects, like. History or English, Finnish schools
will now structure lessons around broader, crosscutting and interdisciplinary "topics".
Speaking on why Finland decided to make this shift towards lifelong learning. Pasi
Sahlberg. Visiting Professor at the Graduate School of Education Harvard University, said:
“educators in Finland think, quite correctly, that schools should teach what young people
need in their lives ... (27) ______ Finnish youth need more than before are more integrated
knowledge and skills about real world issues”.
As Professor Sahlberg explains the key competencies don't focus on knowledge
acquisition and test score results, (28) ____ on developing skills for longer term learning,
with an emphasis on social and emotional development.
(Source: https://www.mindmeister.com/blog/8-lesson-plans-promote-lifelong-learning/)
Question 24: A. educate B. educating C. education D. educational
Question 25: A. good-rounding B. well-rounding C. good-rounded D. well-
rounded
Question 26: A. in B. for C. over D. round
Question 27: A. that B. it C. what D. which
Question 28: A. rather B. instead C. but D. than
Question 29: If students are going to an open day they should be familiarized themselves
with a
A B
Range of courses in that institution.
C D
Question 30: Employers offer pension or a salary for the workers in exchange for the
worker's work or labor. A B C D
Question 31: Many people suppose that the more popular television programmes become,
the
A B C
more badly they seem.
D
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes
the types of encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships,
as was time spent enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance
of making a “casual friend,” as opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent
when people spent approximately 43 hours together within three weeks of the meeting. He
further found that casual friends evolve into friends at some point between 57 hours after
three weeks, and 164 hours over three months. Hall's research also demonstrated, however,
that when it comes to time spent developing friendships, quality is more important than
quantity. And when it comes to conversation, topics matter. When it comes to building
quality relationships, the duration of conversation is not as important as the content.
Meaningful conversation is the key to bonding with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through
catching up and joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider
the inane topics that often come up when you are trapped in an elevator with an
acquaintance. Discussing the weather or speculating on how many stops you will make
before finally reaching the lobby does not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere proximity. Hall
found that obligatory time spent together, such as in a classroom or workplace, does not
promote closeness. Friendships require an efficient use of time together. Someone who
remembers the details of your life and asks questions about your family, your job, your latest
vacation, etc., is much more likely on his or her way to becoming someone you consider a
friend, as opposed to an acquaintance.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
A. The priceless gift of time B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances. D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 33: The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate B. friend C. acquaintance D. Jeffrey
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of
Jeffrey A. Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen
relationships.
Question 35: The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly B. small C. regular D. normal
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street.
B. Travelling with your friend on holiday.
C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor.
D. Discussing with a classmate for the class project.
Although television was first regarded by many as “radio with pictures,” public
reaction to the arrival of TV was strikingly different from that afforded the advent of radio.
Radio in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of
cultural significance. The public quickly adjusted to radio broadcasting and either enjoyed its
many programs or turned them off. Television, however, prompted a tendency to criticize and
evaluate rather than a simple on-off response.
One aspect of early television that can never be recaptured is the combined sense of
astonishment and glamour that greeted the medium during its infancy. At the midpoint of the
20th century, the public was properly agog about being able to see and hear actual events
that were happening across town or hundreds of miles away. Relatively few people had sets
in their homes, but popular fascination with TV was so pronounced that crowds would gather
on the sidewalks in front of stores that displayed a working television set or two. The same
thing happened in the typical tavern, where a set behind the bar virtually guaranteed a full
house. Sports events that might attract a crowd of 30,000 or 40,000 suddenly, with the
addition of TV cameras, had audiences numbering in the millions. By the end of television’s
first decade, it was widely believed to have a greater influence on American culture than
parents, schools, churches, and government-institutions that had been until then the dominant
influences on popular conduct. All were superseded by this one cultural juggernaut.
The 1950s was a time of remarkable achievement in television, but this was not the
case for the entire medium. American viewers old enough to remember TV in the ’50s may
fondly recall the shows of Sid Caesar, Jackie Gleason, Milton Berle, and Lucille Ball, but
such high-quality programs were the exception; most of television during its formative years
could be aptly described, as it was by one Broadway playwright, as “amateurs playing at
home movies.” The underlying problem was not a shortage of talented writers, producers, and
performers; there were plenty, but they were already busily involved on the Broadway stage
and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures. Consequently, television drew chiefly on a
talent pool of individuals who had not achieved success in the more popular media and on the
young and inexperienced who were years from reaching their potential. Nevertheless, the new
medium ultimately proved so fascinating a technical novelty that in the early stages of its
development the quality of its content seemed almost not to matter.
Fortunately, the dearth of talent was short-lived. Although it would take at least
another decade before areas such as news and sports coverage approached their potential,
more than enough excellence in the categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s to
deserve the attention of discriminating viewers. They are the most fondly remembered of the
Golden Age genres for both emotional and intellectual reasons. Live TV drama was, in
essence, the legitimate theatre’s contribution to the new medium; such shows were regarded
as “prestige” events and were afforded respect accordingly. The comedies of the era are
remembered for the same reason that comedy itself endures: human suffering and the ever-
elusive pursuit of happiness render laughter a necessary palliative, and people therefore have
a particular fondness for those who amuse them.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/)
Question 37: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Television development in comparison with radio
B. Sports events on television
C. High-quality programs enjoyed by American
D. Television in the United States
Question 38: The phrase “agog about” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by _____.
A. looking forward to B. interested in
C. involved in D. keen on
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why would the public gather on the sidewalks in
front of stores?
A. They had no work B. They had a sense of astonishment
C. Because of their fascination with TV D. They went to the tavern together
Question 40: Which of the following does the word “aptly” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. at a slow speed; not quickly
B. in a way that is suitable or appropriate in the circumstances
C. happening in a short time or without delay
D. the whole of; as much as
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, why is television described as “amateurs playing at
home movies”?
A. Writers, producers, and performers don’t have enough money to invest in television.
B. There are no high-quality programs.
C. Because talented writers, producers, and performers are busy with Broadway stage
and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures.
D. There are no talented writers, producers, and performers.
Question 42: The word “dearth” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lack B. plenty C. absence D. empty
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE according to the paragraph?
A. Television in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a
medium of cultural significance.
B. Few people had TV sets at home but they all enjoyed watching programs especially
sports on TV.
C. Television could draw chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had achieved
success in the more popular media.
D. The categories of comedy and drama that emerged in the 1950s were not good
enough to attract viewers.
Question 44: He broke up with her but now he thinks that was a mistake.
A. He feels pity that he had broken up with her.
B. He wishes not to have broken her up.
C. He regrets having broken up with her.
D. He was mistaken about breaking up with her.
Question 45: "Let's tell Dad about our problem” said Carol to Tony.
A. Carol ordered Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
B. Carol suggested telling Dad about their problem.
C. Carol forbid Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
D. Carol allowed Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
Question 46: People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.
D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Question 47: A student is talking with his professor about his missing the midterm test.
Complete the exchanges with the best answer:
- Student: "What can I do to make up for the missing midterm test, professor?"
- Professor: “______________________.”
A. Don't mention it. It's my pleasure to do this.
B. Thank you very much for accepting the invitation.
C. You are supposed to write a chapter review.
D. I agree to some extent with this statement.
Question 48: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Question 49: The average lifespan is 79 years. However, the poorest men in this city have a
life expectancy of 54 years.
A. If the average lifespan is 79 years, the poorest men in this city have a life expectancy
of 54 years.
B. The average life expectancy of 79 years is higher than that of the poorest men in this
city.
C. The poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years, much lower than the
average lifespan.
D. The average life expectancy is 25 years higher than the poorest men in this city.
Question 50: Sam has a new job title and she gets a higher salary now. This means, she has
been promoted.
A. Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now, which means she has been
promoted.
B. Sam has been promoted because she has a new job title to get a higher salary now.
C. Getting a higher salary after having a new job title had made Sam promoted.
D. Having been promoted, Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now.
-----THE END-----
29 2023
Question 1: A. breath B. path C. wither D. breakthrough
Question 2: A. reads B. meets C. stops D. drops
Question 3: A. comment B. common C. commence D. compass
Question 4: A. compliment B. argument C. nursery D. requirement
questions.
Question 5: She was sitting on the grass, out of breath. She ______. She shouldn't have run
so long.
A. was running B. had run home C. had been running D. ran
Question 6: If____________, those areas will not be available to future generations any
longer.
A. those areas were damaged or destroyed B. are damaged or destroyed
C. damaged or destroyed D. they damage or destroy
Question 7: His aggressive style contrasts __________ with that of his low-key predecessor.
A. thoroughly B. sharply C. fully D. coolly
Question 8: The company had to _______ reparation to those who suffered ill health as a
result of chemical pollution.
A. take B. do C. make D. pay
Question 9: Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like
health, food, safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.
A. communication B. communicative C. communicator D. communicating
Question 10: A good way to show your responsibility and commitment to your family is to
do your chores without complaining or___________.
A. asking B. ask C. being asked D. to be asked
Question 11: According to some researchers, the emphasis in education in the next few years
would be __________ the development of student's computer skills.
A. to B. at C. on D. with
Question 12: I hope you won’t take _________ if I tell you the truth.
A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence
Question 13: Just water these plants twice a week, and ____________ the ones in the
bedroom.
A. likewise B. otherwise C. nonetheless D. unless
Question 14: Crops are often completely destroyed by _________ of locusts.
A. bands B. troupes C. swarms D. flocks
Question 15: They failed to ___________ the necessary precautions to avoid infection.
A. take B. lead C. do D. conduct
Question 16: The more satisfied employees are, ______________ to the company.
A. the more likely they will remain loyal B. the more loyal they will remain likely
C. the more they will likely remain loyal D. the likely they will remain more loyal
Question 17: _______lunch in Spain is _____ bit different from what we're used to in _____
America.
A. The/a/0 B. 0/a/0 C. 0/0/0 D. A/a/the
Question 18: The victims of the disaster finally decided not to choose __________ of the
two plans of receiving relief supplies from the government.
A. both B. either C. not D. neither
Question 19: __________ to wake him up, I turned off the radio.
A. Not wanting B. Not wanted
C. Not to want D. Not have been wanted
Question 20: It was Giovanni Luppis, an officer in the army of the Austrian empire, who
first came up with the idea of a self-propelled anti-ship weapon.
A. suggested B. discovered C. propose D. revealed
Question 21: If he so much as harms a hair on her head, I won't be responsible for my
actions.
A. hurts her B. flirts her C. dates her D. beats her
Question 22: Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals
such as tigers, rhinoceros, bears and even primates.
A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law
C. introducing a law D. imposing a law
Question 23: His lawyer thought he had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no
further evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. advised of appealing D. charged of fraud
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In
my culture, usually, if a woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (24)_______,
in the first few days of school, I found it strange that so many women were talking to me and
I was under the impression that some women on my dormitory floor were interested in me.
To (25) _____ their politeness, I would buy them flowers or offer small gifts, as is done in
my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that these same women now seemed (26)
_______ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to leave her alone. Eventually
I talked to the residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong, and he explained
to me the way men and women usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear that
(27) _____ was wrong with me, but rather with the way I was interpreting my conversations
with women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in the USA, I still
made many good female friends afterwards (28) _______I still maintain contact.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 24: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 25: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 26: A. uncomfortable B. comfort C. comfortably D. comfortable
Question 27: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 28: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom
Question 29: Everyone can take an important role by always doing their best to help their
families flourish.
A B C D
Question 30: The liver has many functions, which includes detoxifying of harmful
chemicals,
A B
breakdown of drugs, filtering of blood, secretion of bile and production of blood-
clotting proteins.
C D
Question 31: Not only men and women do have many differences, but they also have many
similarities.
A B C D
How might volunteering contribute to lower blood pressure? Performing volunteer
work could increase physical activity among people who aren’t otherwise very active, says
lead study author Rodlescia Sneed, a doctoral candidate in social and health psychology at
Carnegie Mellon University. It may also reduce stress. “Many people find volunteer work to
be helpful with respect to stress reduction, and we know that stress is very strongly linked to
health outcomes,” she says.
As with any activity thought to improve health, researchers are trying to identify the
specific characteristics of volunteering that provide the greatest benefit. For example, how
much time would you need to put into volunteer work to lower your blood pressure or live
longer? In the Carnegie Mellon study, 200 hours of volunteering per year correlated to lower
blood pressure. Other studies have found a health benefit from as little as 100 hours of
volunteering a year. Which types of volunteer activities improve health the most? No one
really knows. Sneed speculates that mentally stimulating activities, like tutoring or reading,
might be helpful for maintaining memory and thinking skills, while “activities that promote
physical activity would be helpful with respect to cardiovascular health, but no studies have
really explored this.”
One key for deriving health benefits from volunteering is to do it for the right reasons.
A 2012 study in the journal Health Psychology found that participants who volunteered with
some regularity lived longer, but only if their intentions were truly altruistic. In other words,
they had to be volunteering to help others—not to make themselves feel better.
The Greek philosopher Aristotle once surmised that the essence of life is “To serve
others and do good.” If recent research is any indication, serving others might also be the
essence of good health.
(Source: https://www.health.harvard.edu/)
A. Global volunteer experience. B. Volunteer opportunities for teenagers.
C. The benefits of volunteering. D. Voluntary work with children
A. Physical activity B. Blood pressure C. Doctoral candidate D. Volunteer
work
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what information about volunteers has NOT been
supported by researchers?
A. 100 hours of voluntary activities are enough for a certain health benefit, but a low
blood pressure level requires double that amount.
B. Only 100 hours of volunteering per annum are needed to reap a health benefit.
C. 200 hours of voluntary activities should be spent annually to influence the level of
blood pressure.
D. Mentally demanding works enhance intellectual capacity while physical ones benefit
the heart and blood flow.
Question 35: The word “altruistic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. egoistic B. philanthropic C. liberal D. magnanimous
Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what is the lesson from one of the greatest
intellectual figures in history?
A. Opportunities to serve others result in a stronger sense of purpose and meaning in
life.
B. Without the freedom of forgiveness, you’ll end up serving for the wrong reasons.
C. We should take advantage of the generous help of others without giving in return.
D. Only a small minority of people use their lives to serve others.
The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than
men might be due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers
have suggested.
Recent figures show about 65% of those living with dementia in the UK are women,
with a similar statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading
cause of death for women in England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of
dementia, but the most common form. While one explanation is that dementia risk increases
with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men, new research suggests there
might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within neurons and linked
to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.
The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los
Angeles by researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-
reviewed, used scans from a method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them
to look at the way clumps of a protein called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and
178 women without cognitive problems, as well as 101 men and 60 women with mild
cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Cognitively
normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.
From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show
similar signals relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based
on that we kind of try to reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is
presenting the research, told the Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.”
The team says the results suggest these maps look different in women and men, suggesting
tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female brain.
Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer-reviewed – added
weight to the idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect
dementia risk. Research by scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of
genes and genetic variants appear to be linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological
sex or the other. While the actual importance of these factors has yet to be unpicked, and the
study only looked at white participants, the team says it underscores that there could be a
genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women, and the way it
develops.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
A. The differences between the male and female brain and the condition for
Alzheimer’s.
B. Research shines a light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.
C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women
D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.
Question 38: The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions
Question 39: As mentioned in paragraph 3, positron emission tomography is a method to
__________.
A. distinguish between the amount of tau in normal people and that in those with
cognitive problems.
B. diagnose who are easier to get Alzheimer’s disease.
C. observe the increase of a protein called tau in the brains of subjects.
D. review whether people with cognitive problems have a protein called tau or not.
Question 40: What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems
B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems
C. cognitively normal older people’s
D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease
A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.
B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from
Alzheimer’s.
C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.
D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.
Question 42: The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated
Question 43: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ____________.
A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.
B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been
scientifically illuminated.
C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.
D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.
Question 44: “What happens to what we throw away?", Mary wonders.
A. Mary wonders what happens to what we throw away.
B. Mary wondered what happened to what we threw away.
C. Mary wondered what has happened to what we threw away.
D. Mary wonders what happened to what we threw away.
Question 45: Dr. Mercer decided not to accept the research grant at Harvard because he is
going to take six months off to spend more time with his family.
A. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to
take six months off to spend more time with his family.
B. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to take
six months off to spend more time with his family.
C. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he had not been
going to take six months off to spend more time with his family.
D. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he had not been going to
take six months off to spend more time with his family.
Question 46: Textbooks can't provide students with the latest information as a mobile device
can.
A. Textbooks do not provide students with information later than can a mobile device.
B. The information provided by textbooks is not later than that provided by a mobile
device.
C. Textbooks can't provide students with as new information as a mobile device can.
D. The information provided by textbooks is newer than that provided by a mobile
device.
Question 47. – “I am sorry. I've spoilt the cake.”
- “__________”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, definitely
C. That's alright. Don't worry. D. I'd rather not do it
Question 48: - A: “I need to stop eating such unhealthy foods.”
- B: “___________________.”
A. That sounds delicious and nutritious.
B. I know what you mean. I've started eating better myself.
C. I mainly eat baked chicken, because there's not a lot of fat.
D. Are you sure that's how you want me to make it?
Question 49: Technology allows for remote working. This expands women's options.
A. Technology allows for remote working, which expands women's options.
B. That technology allows for remote working will expand women's options.
C. Because technology allows for remote working, it expands women's options.
D. Allowing for remote working, technology expands women's options.
Question 50: She teaches children with special needs. Many of them have severe learning
difficulties.
A. She teaches children with special needs and whoever has severe learning difficulties.
B. She teaches children with special needs and severe learning difficulties.
C. She teaches children with severe learning difficulties and with special needs.
D. She teaches children with special needs, many of whom have severe learning
difficulties.
-----THE END-----
30 2023
Question 1: A. promote B. voluntarily C. solidarity D. bronchitis
Question 2: A. obliged B. graduated C. attended D. wretched
Question 3: A. advice B. apply C. career D. lifelong
Question 4: A. demonstrate B. paperwork C. probation D. dealership
questions.
Question 5: By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he __________ five
different schools because his parents moved frequently.
A. attended B. was attending
C. had attended D. has been attending
Question 6: If computers become as smart as humans, ____________?
A. would they do our jobs better than we can B. will they do our jobs better than we
can
C. would they do our jobs better than we could D. will they do our jobs better than
we could
Question 7: Most people are interested in __________ about famous celebrities, which is
why tabloid magazines still exist.
A. juicy chatter B. juicy gossip C. gossip freely D. juicy talk
Question 8: There’s no need for you to try to _____ an argument with him. You need to calm
down or your relationship will get worse.
A. win B. beat C. defeat D. gain
Question 9: Lifelong learning involves the use of both formal and informal learning
opportunities throughout people's lives in order to foster the __________ development.
A. continuing B. continuous C. continual D. continued
Question 10: She couldn't resist _______ at him in those clothes
A. to laugh B. laugh C. laughing D. laughed
Question 11: He harbors a deep resentment ___________ his parents for his miserable
childhood.
A. on B. from C. for D. against
Question 12: We are raising funds for people with visual __________ in the city.
A. breakages B. failures C. impairments D. damages
Question 13: The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _____,
they do free home deliveries.
A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead
Question 14: On being told about her sack, ________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked
C. Mary's face turned pale D. her boss changed his attitude
Question 15: He did his work ____________ because he did not like the culture of this
company.
A. reluctantly B. willingly C. inefficiently D. successfully
Question 16: It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age,
____?
A. isn't it B. is it C. doesn't he D. does he
Question 17: The government is trying its best to narrow the gap between ____ rich and
____ poor
A. the / a B. a / the C. the / the D. a / a
Question 18: The government has given the _____ light to our tree – planting project, so we
can go ahead and start organizing things.
A. blue B. green C. red D. white
Question 19: Vietnam has become __________ to foreign tourists.
A. the more and more attractive B. most and most attractive
C. the most and most attractive D. more and more attractive
Question 20: The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and
health.
A. blare B. flask C. stark D. spark
Question 21: To keep up with new developments and technology, modern people need to
implement lifelong learning all the time.
A. come up with B. get on with C. face up with D. catch up with
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: The rapid development of artificial intelligence can replace many people in
their jobs and make many people unemployed.
A. have a job working for a company or another person
B. not have a job that provides money
C. have enough skills and abilities for someone to employ you
D. have enough skills and abilities
Question 23: My teacher required us to present our report of the survey's result in black and
white in order for her to see our points easily.
A. clearly B. ambiguously C. thoroughly D. obviously
The next time you are watching a film and you see one of the characters jumping out
of a plane, falling off a horse, or being blown through a window - spare a (24) ________ for
the stunt artist. Lots of people think that stunt artists are just "extras" who play small,
unimportant parts in films and television. Nothing could be further from the truth. A stunt
artist must combine the skills of an actor with the physical abilities of a first - (25)
_____________ athlete. He or she must be extremely fit, and highly trained in a number of
activities like scuba-diving, horse riding, martial arts or parachuting.
It is not easy to get started in a career as a stunt performer. Film and television
producers look for experience and proven ability, as it is unlikely that they will take on a
complete newcomer. However, because of the (26) ____________ of their profession, stunt
artists tend to retire early. This means that new performers must be employed, or there will be
no one to take (27) ______________ when the present generation quits.
Even when a stunt artist becomes well-known, the work is not regular. It may
sometimes be necessary to travel to the other side of the world for a job which involves long
hours and great physical danger. It is not a glamorous occupation either. Unlike the famous
actors for (28) ____________ they sometimes risk their lives, few stunt artists are recognized
in the street by adoring fans.
(Source: https://matthewtoffolo.com/category/cinematography/page/2/)
Question 24: A. coin B. sympathy C. minute D. thought
Question 25: A. gold B. class C. national D. level
Question 26: A. feature B. nature C. aspect D. type
Question 27: A. over B. in C. up D. out
Question 28: A. who B. whom C. them D. which
Question 29: The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held
on the campus
A B C
of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956.
D
Question 30: A recent report in Neurology noted that while cognitive activity can't change
the biology
A B
of Alzheimer's, learning activities can help delay symptoms, preserve people's quality of life.
C D
Question 31: Many nations protect endangered species by forbidding hunting, to restrict land
A B C
development and creating preserves.
D
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not
the disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew
Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger
and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller
percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not
see them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of
disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of
technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in
their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The
answer is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less
emotionally charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the
younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the
musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation
generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the
older generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s
with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all
generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for
others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in the generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 33: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant
Question 34: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t
cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder
generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 35: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 36: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the
young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better
technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for
others.
TẢI SÁCH TẠI: TAISACHONTHI.COM

Sixty percent of working Americans today say they’ve left a job, or considered
leaving a job, because they didn’t like their direct supervisor, according to a survey from
human resource consulting firm Randstad US. Though leaving a job may seem like the best
solution for retiring a bad boss, that doesn’t mean that it’s always the best plan for your
career. In fact, if you’re in a situation where you love your job and the opportunities it
presents, then leaving your role because of a difficult boss may not be the best idea. Pollak
and Monster.com career expert Vicki Salemi broke down three ways you can deal with a bad
boss without quitting a job you love.
Pollak says that in many cases, a difficult relationship with your boss is often due to
differing personalities and habits. One way to mend this relationship, she says, is to closely
study your boss’s behavior so that you can meet their expectations. “Become the world’s
leading expert on your boss or your manager,” says Pollak, who is also the author of the book
“The Remix: How to Lead and Succeed in the Multigenerational Workforce.” “How does this
person like to communicate? If she hates long emails, stop sending long emails. If she doesn’t
like it when you drop by her office but reacts better when you schedule an appointment, then
learn to always schedule appointments instead of dropping in. If she is not a morning person,
don’t ask for things in the morning. If this person is really detail-oriented, then triple check
your documents before handing them in.” Salemi agrees. She says that if you have a boss
who’s critical or a micromanager, often the best way to deal with them is to be proactive in
meeting their needs. “It’s kind of like you’re managing them without making it seem like
you’re managing them,” she says.
When dealing with a difficult boss, Pollak says one of the best ways to figure out how
to successfully work under their leadership is to talk to other people who you know have been
in a similar situation. “Other people can be a resource, whether it’s a mentor, someone at a
different company, a coach or people who have worked for this person in the past,” she says.
“Treat it as a positive and say, ‘I really want to be successful working with X. What
recommendations do you have?’” However, she emphasizes, you should never talk about the
situation in a negative way, or say you don’t like working for your boss. Instead, discuss
about the situation in a way that shows your willingness to adapt to make the relationship
work.
If talking to other colleagues isn’t helpful, then Pollak says one of your last options
should be to talk directly to your boss. Consider your approach carefully. Instead of saying,
“We’re not getting along. What should we do?”, say something to the effect of, “I’d really
like to make sure that I’m serving your needs. I’d like to make sure that I’m communicating
in a way that’s effective for you and I want to make sure that I’m being as productive as
possible. Is there anything I can do differently?” This way, she says, you’re approaching the
situation by asking how you can help, instead of emphasizing a problem.
(Adapted from https://www.cnbc.com/)
Question 37: Which best serves as the main idea of the passage?
A. How to get on well with your strict boss.
B. Is it a good idea to quit the job you love?
C. How to make the best plan for your career.
D. Three ways to become a boss of the job you love.
Question 38: The phrase “dropping in” in the second paragraph mostly means __________.
A. paying a formal visit to a place B. paying an informal visit to a person
C. having an arrangement before D. leaving before saying goodbye
Question 39: What does the phrase “this person” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. a mentor B. someone at a different company
C. a coach D. your boss
Question 40: What should you have to pay attention to if you want to ask for others’ advice
about your boss?
A. your feeling B. your attitude C. your situation D. your relationship
Question 41: The word “productive” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
_____________.
A. useful B. destructive C. harsh D. critical
Question 42: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Always check your documents carefully before giving them to a detailed-oriented
boss.
B. Don’t talk about your situation negatively.
C. Never show your enthusiasm for work when talking to your boss.
D. Don’t mention the problem between you and your boss.
A. Not every boss appreciates your willingness to adapt their behavior.
B. Finding help whenever suffering a bad boss is the best solution.
C. A proactive person will not face a strict boss.
D. Your positive attitude will help you know how to deal with your difficult boss.
Question 44: “My father doesn’t work in the factory anymore” Bella told us.
A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.
B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory anymore.
C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory
D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.
Question 45: He visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years.
B. He was in London for three years.
C. He didn’t visit London three years ago.
D. He has been in London for three years.
Question 46: If someone understands this theory, they are cleverer than I am.
A. There is someone who is cleverer than I am as he understands this theory
B. Some people who understand this theory are cleverer than I am
C. No one who is cleverer than I am understands this theory.
D. Anyone who understands this theory is cleverer than I am.
Question 47: Two friends meet on the first day at school. Complete the conversation.
- A: “Hey John. I didn't know you were coming to this school.”
- B: “__________ . It's good to see you.”
A. Oh, nice to meet you B. Yeah, what a coincidence
C. That's life D. Every now and then
Question 48: Joanna is inviting Sally to go out with her.
- Joanna: “Well, would you like to come out for dinner? Let's go somewhere this evening.”
- Sally: “__________ .”
A. Really? I'd love to. B. How do you feel about it?
C. Shall we go out tonight? D. I love going out.
Question 49: Ann can't use her office this week. The painters are working there.
A. Ann is not working at her office because the painters are working there.
B. Ann can't use her office this week because her office is being painted.
C. The painters who are working at Ann's office ask her out during the week.
D. The painters are using Ann's office this week as they are working there.
Question 50: So many animals are now in danger of extinction. Then, a list of them is kept in
a Red Book.
A. To keep many animals from danger of extinction, a list has been made in a Red Book.
B. So many animals are now in danger of extinction that a list of them is kept in a Red
Book
C. So many animals are now in danger of extinction so that a list of them is kept in a
Red Book.
D. So many animals are now in danger of extinction as to keep a list of them in a Red
Book.
-----THE END-----

31 2023
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
Question 1: A. bachelor B. chapter C. chemistry D. teacher
Question 2: A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. upset B. preserve C. rhino D. expand
Question 4: A. benefit B. pesticide C. cinema D. aquatic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Hoang ______ his email four times a week in order not to miss anything
important.
A. checks B. will check C. is checking D. check
Question 6: We're best friends as we have a ______ interest in music.
A. passion B. passionately C. passionless D. passionate
Question 7: However, some scientists argue that the historical evidence shows that over time
the Earth heats ______ and cools ______ naturally.
A. up – away B. away – down C. up – down D. down – up
Question 8: Everyone can help the needy by making a/ an ______ to a charity organization.
A. volunteer B. donation C. effort D. fund
Question 9: They ______ your money if you haven't kept your receipt.
A. won't refund B. didn’t refund C. no refund D. not refund
Question 10: The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new ______ it was made in the
1995s.
A. or B. because C. although D. however
Question 11: People demand higher wages because prices are ______ all the time.
A. rising B. progressing C. growing D. exceeding
Question 12: What measures have been ______ to control traffic jam at rush hours?
A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried
Question 13: He left on ______ 10 o'clock train yesterday to see his father who was taken to
______ hospital last week when he broke his right leg.
A. the-the B. the-a C. a-a D. the-0
Question 14: Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered ______ it
before leaving.
A. to lock B. having locked C. to have locked D. she locks
Question 15: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 16: It’s normal for small businesses to operate at a __________ for the first couple
of years before they start to break even.
A. loss B. failure C. luck D. loose
Question 17: Mary expected ______ to her dreamy university, but she wasn't.
A. to admit B. admitting C. to be admitted D. being admitted
Question 18: These thought-provoking poems ___ questions about what it means to love
unconditionally.
A. draw B. raise C. make D. give
Question 19: She had owned the telephone for 5 years __________ a new smartphone.
A. until she decides to buy B. when she was deciding to buy
C. before she decided to buy D. after she had decided to buy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Both CARE and Oxfam organizations have programmes to help people in
underdeveloped countries better their lives.
A. make B. risk C. improve D. start
Question 21: Some tourist areas have suffered from some environmental damage.
A. covered B. finished C. taken D. undergone
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 22: From my point of view, parental divorce can cause lasting negative
consequences for children.
A. beginning of a marriage B. the situation of not marrying
C. single person D. ending of a marriage
Question 23: Cutting down on energy use is the best way to help reduce global warming.
A. Shrinking B. Declining C. Decreasing D. Increasing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - Mai: "How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!”
- Nam: "_________________."
A. Do you want to know where I bought them? B. Thanks for your compliment.
C. I know it's fashionable. D. Yes, of course.
Question 25: - A: "What a beautiful wedding dress you are wearing today, Daisy!"
- B: “____________________.”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Thanks, it's nice of you to say so.
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift!
or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
At present, single-parent families ought to be of great focus, be recognized and
supported as they are a growing family form and should not be an afterthought in family,
economic and labor market policies. Single parent families should be (26) _______
considered and addressed in all family policy discussions and decisions. (27)________,
home-care cash allowances, which are paid to a parent who abstains from employment to
take care of her child at home, can have significant consequences encouraging lower levels of
female employment among single-parent families, (28)________ in turn results in higher
childhood poverty. In this regard, work-life balance policies and workplace practices also
need to (29)________ a single-parent perspective, for example, the impact of non-standard
work hours when childcare is not available.
The provision of educational and skill-building opportunities and affordable quality
daycare becomes even more urgent in families with single parents. Such families should have
a higher priority and subsidized access to childcare facilities. Governmental agencies should
be established (30)________ child support payment from non-resident parents in case of
conflicts, disagreements or delayed payments, e.g., after a divorce or separation.
(Adapted from http://www.socialtrendsinstitute.org/)
Question 26: A. implicitly B. clearly C. indirectly D. completely
Question 27: A. For instance B. However C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 28: A. who B. whose C. which D. that
Question 29: A. take responsible for B. take in hand
C. take no notice of D. take account of
Question 30: A. to facilitate B. facilitating C. facilitated D. facilitate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each
of the questions.
The world’s oldest post office, which has been operating in Sanquhar, Scotland, for
more than 300 years, faces an uncertain future. Current owner and stamp collector, Manzoor
Alam, and his wife, Nazra, have been forced to put the business and
its accompanying cottage on the market due to ill health.
The Alams are “heartbroken” to leave the post office, and are concerned that if a
buyer cannot be found its rich history could be lost. “It was my husband who was always the
one most interested in stamps and the postal service but over the last few years of working
here it has grown on me too,” said Mrs Alam. The couple are the post office’s 16th
postmasters, and if they become the last, the title will fall to a Stockholm branch, which
opened in 1720.
Dumfries and Galloway councillor, Andrew Wood, said lots of rural areas were
struggling to keep their post offices open. He said it would be a “sad day” if the business
folded. “I was wondering if the community could arrange a buyout but it shouldn’t come
down to that,” he said. “We’re a wealthy country and should be able to have them in good-
sized towns.”
The property is on the market for £275,000, and includes a three-bed cottage with two
bathrooms, a large living room, and garden with outbuildings. Agent Humberstones suggests
the outbuilding could be a holiday let, tea room or postal museum, as Mr Alam had planned.
“My ambition is to promote the rich heritage of the past by establishing a postal museum —
the only one in Scotland — and combining it with a modern business, securing this wonderful
post office for future generations,’” he had said when he took on the business.
(Source: https://www.countrylife.co.uk/)
A. The world’s oldest post office facing prospect of closure.
B. The longest-standing post office closed due to weather.
C. The world’s oldest post office re-opening this month.
D. The longest-standing post office got revamping.
Question 32: The word “accompanying” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attending B. coinciding C. supported D. associated
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the owners of
Sanquhar post office?
A. They are the 15th successor of the structure.
B. They are married as husband and wife.
C. They are the last postmasters of the place.
D. Mrs Alam slowly displayed her love for the post office.
Question 34: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. rural areas B. post offices C. outbuildings D. postmasters
Question 35: According to paragraph 4, what is NOT included in the premises?
A. A yard. B. A museum. C. A common rooms. D. Two washrooms.
of the question.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity.
They represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development.
Many positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will
discuss and present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans
living in these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical
health effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing
country experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40
years went from being an agrarian-based society to a significant industrialized country. This
industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning
having lots of jobs and living spaces within close proximity. This is what is known as
urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial
based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within
its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled.
These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban
areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health
challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas
is air pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air.
This could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and
refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and
refineries as well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to the vast number of
people in these urbanized cities, air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions
can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or
disease, and different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these
conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health
effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more
susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in
diet. For instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food.
This food is also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of
sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase
in consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease,
obesity, or any other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 36: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urbanization – Pros and cons
B. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
C. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 37: What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. lots of jobs and living spaces
C. immigrants D. negative physical health effects
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about China?
A. This is a developed country for the past 30-40 years.
B. The population of cities now more than doubles that in the past.
C. Most of the new urban areas’ populations are emigrants from remote places.
D. Because of urbanization, more immigrants find their ways to this country.
Question 39: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overcrowded B. sparse C. contaminated D. fresh
Question 40: The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 mostly means ___________.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 41: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph
3, EXCEPT _____.
A. industrial factories B. refineries waste C. chemicals D. sewage
A. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants
shorten.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from overpopulation in industrialized
countries.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization
than those in developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to
people in urban cities.
Question 43. I wish to publicly record my gratitude to those whose support and
assistance were made this possible. A B C D
Question 44. Viet Nam was the first lndochinese country joining ASEAN, and its
move helped end
A B C
confrontation between the lndochinese party and ASEAN.
D
Question 45. Anyone who gambles on the stock exchange has to be prepared to loose money.
A B C D
Question 46: “We saw a strange man in the garden,” they told their son.
A. They told their son that we had seen a strange man in the garden.
B. They told their son that they had seen a strange man in the garden.
C. They told their son that we saw a strange man in the garden.
D. They told their son that they saw a strange man in the garden.
Question 47: Nobody in my class is as outgoing as I am.
A. I am as outgoing as nobody in my class.
B. I am the more outgoing than nobody in my class.
C. I am the most outgoing person in my class.
D. I am not as outgoing as people in my class.
Question 48: It is pointless to ask me about it because I know nothing.
A. It's no use asking me about it because I know nothing.
B. It's no use to ask me about it because I know nothing.
C. It's not use asking me about it because I know nothing.
D. It's not use to ask me about it because I know nothing.
Question 49: It’s cold outside and my leg hurts. I haven’t been out for weeks.
A. I haven't been out for weeks, which makes the weather cold and my leg bad.
B. The weather is cold and my leg is bad as a result of my stay indoors for weeks.
C. Due to the cold weather and my bad leg, I haven't been out for weeks.
D. What makes the weather cold and my leg bad is my stay indoors for weeks.
Question 50: His Wife phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to
bring along the document.
A. His wife phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the
document.
B. His wife phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the
document.
C. His wife phoned him early in the morning when she didn't want him to bring along the
document.
D. His wife phoned him early in the morning though she didn't want him to forget to
bring along the document.
-----THE END-----
32 2023
Question 1: A. culture B. student C. institution D. university
Question 2: A. kites B. hopes C. balls D. kicks
Mark the letter A, B, G or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 3: A. shadow B. lifelong C. worship D. unique
Question 4: A. decorate B. disabled C. privacy D. integrate
Mark the letter A B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: They had a global ______ hit with their album concept about “The dark side of
the Moon”.
A. top B. song C. smash D. popular
Question 6: When you get involved in a volunteer project, you are able to ______ your
knowledge into practice.
A. take B. put C. bring D. push
Question 7: In the past, the ______ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two years
before the wedding.
A. propose B. proposing C. proposal D. proposed
Question 8: ______ Japanese manage not to ask direct questions in order not to embarrass
_____ person who they are speaking with.
A. A – the B. A – a C. The – the D. The – a
Question 9: ______ a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner.
A. Finding B. After having found
C. Having found D. We found
Question 10: Nowadays, people ______ social networks with more and more caution.
A. uses B. are using C. used D. use
Question 11: It is predicted that over the next few decades many species will die ______ as
once fertile areas turn to desert.
A. off B. out C. up D. down
Question 12: The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money to
______ to charity to help those in need.
A. give away B. give in C. give back D. give up
Question 13: Unless you ______ well-trained, you ______ to the company.
A. aren't / will never be admitted B. aren't / will never admit
C. are / will never be admitted D. are / will never admit
Question 14: We ______ today and I got into trouble because l hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 15: ______ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very
clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 16: Tom looks so frightened and upset. He ______ something terrible.
A. must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 17: When preparing a CV, university ______ can consider attaching a separate
report about official work experience during the course.
A. graduates B. leavers C. candidates D. applicants
Question 18: The company's advertising campaign was a ______ failure - it didn't attract a
single new customer.
A. miraculous B. spectacular C. wonderful D. unprecedented
Question 19: There was hardly a cloud in the sky yesterday, __________?
A. was it B. wasn’t it C. was there D. wasn’t there
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: In spite of poverty, we manage to raise our children properly.
A. give up B. go up C. make up D. bring up
Question 21: I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older
brother, but my sister, whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years.
A. contactable B. harmonized C. opposed D. truthful
Question 22: They fear that with the enactment event taken off, the festival may fade away
in obscurity
A. darkness B. dimness C. fuzziness D. sharpness
Question 23: His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was better than B. was worse than
C. became higher than D. became cheaper than
Question 24: - Hung: “How was the game show last night?”
- Phuong: “____________.”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock.
B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game.
D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
Question 25: - Hanh: “It's very generous of you to offer to pay!”
- Quan: “_______________.”
A. I'm glad you like it. B. Thanks a million.
C. That was the least I could do. D. You can say that again.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should
drink this water first thing before doing anything else. The (26) ______ of the water should
be similar to body temperature; (27) ______ too hot nor too cold. Why should you drink this
water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It prepares your
stomach for (28) ______, Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking
water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go
to the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people (29) ______ 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But
don't drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much
harder to eliminate it. It's better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon.
Some people think it's better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water
dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs, (30) ______ can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow,
you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to
drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier!
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 26: A. moisture B. heat C. coolness D. temperature
Question 27: A. either B. both C. neither D. but
Question 28: A. digestion B. digestive C. digestible D. digest
Question 29: A. take out B. take up C. take in D. take off
Question 30: A. that B. which C. who D. whom
Cable television was born in 1928. Sadly, we are all witnessing its death. Not so long
ago, a TV guide could be found on every living room coffee table to help consumers plan
their evening TV show lineup. Today, Generation Z consumes video content in a completely
different way. These young viewers have placed a premium on flexibility. Rigid time frames
outlining ad-laden TV shows are wholly unappealing to such an audience.
From the type of content they watch and the format they watch it in to the device they
watch it on, Gen Z is asking for content to be catered to them. The successful streaming
platforms will be the ones that listen. The migration from traditional media to on-demand
streaming has forced media outlets to become more agile than ever.
While cable TV is holding on for dear life to its remaining subscribers, successful
platforms have provided what their customers want — content on the go. Gone are the days
where family members rush home to secure a spot on the couch just in time to tune into their
favorite programs. Instead, Gen Z has ignited the movement of content providers toward
specialized content streaming. Specifically, platforms have carved out success by placing
more tailored content onto apps and services that are geared toward the younger viewers and
accessible by phone or tablet. Studies have revealed that a Gen Z audience consumes the
majority of its content on three platforms: YouTube, Instagram, and Twitter.
Gen Z consumes three hours of entertainment and video content on their phones,
nearly doubling the number of hours spent watching cable TV. With this in mind, it should
come as no surprise that producers are opting to create streamable, accessible, mobile content
over traditional platforms.
(Source: https://gritdaily.com/)
A. How to win with a Gen Z audience.
B. Traditional media still matters in the digital age.
C. Digital and traditional media work together.
D. Traditional content missing the mark.
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, what is NOT mentioned as the reason that causes
TV to be neglected?
A. It lacks in flexibility regarding the airing schedules.
B. It broadcasts an excessive amount of advertisements.
C. The television is infected with fake and misleading news.
D. Other technologies can accommodate the weakness of TV.
A. format B. content C. type D. device
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what do successful businesses do to retain young
viewers?
A. Cutting through the noise and removing commercials and ads.
B. Providing consumers with the desirable content even outside of the house.
C. Using cutting-edge CG technology to offer better, targeted content on TV.
D. Playing mainstream music and incorporating youngsters’ lingo.
Question 35: The word “opting” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. dropping B. singling C. picking D. choosing
Modern technologies have changed the way that people communicate with one
another. These technologies provide new and innovative ways for people to communicate --
text messaging, email, chat and social networks. They allow faster and more efficient
communication and can help build relationships. However, modern technologies can also
have negative effects such as limiting personal contact and straining relationships. The
nature of the effect depends in large part on the type of relationship.
Modern technologies limit the amount of separation between work and home. With
the advent of computers, the Internet and cell phones people can -- and are often expected to -
- address work issues from home. This can limit family interactions and cause conflict
between family members. The use of Internet and television by children and teenagers also
limits the amount time spent with family and can increase conflict between children and their
parents.
Young people use modern technologies in increasing numbers to communicate with
their friends. Text messaging and online chats have become the preferred method of youth
communication. A California State University and UCLA study indicates that for young
people face-to-face interactions are less desirable than modern modes of
communication. This preference could cause an inability to form lasting friendships or
difficulty understanding social cues. Others believe that modern technologies increase
communication and therefore strengthen friendships.
Starting new relationships -- romantic and otherwise -- can be difficult. Modern
technologies allow people to make new connections without the fears characteristic of face-
to-face contact. The anonymity and low risk are what makes Internet dating and social
networks popular ways of meeting people. However, this anonymity can also be dangerous.
In April 2011, a woman sued an online dating site after allegedly being raped by a man she
met online.
Modern technologies allow couples to be in contact with each other more than ever
before. This can lead to increased expectations and conflict. With the increasing use of cell
phones and email, people often expect an instant reply to communication. A delayed reply --
or none at all -- can lead to suspicion and anger. The use of social networks can also affect
relationships. Information that was once private -- such as relationship conflicts -- is now part
of the public sphere.
(Adapted from https://oureverydaylife.com/)
A. The advantages and disadvantages of social networks.
B. The positive and negative effects of modern technologies on communication.
C. The differences between the way people communicate in the past and now.
D. How people’s relationships have to change to keep up with the development of
modern technologies.
Question 37: The word “straining” in the first paragraph mostly means _________.
A. connecting B. healing
C. breaking down D. experiencing pressure
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, why do modern technologies cause conflict between
family members?
A. Because people often take advantage of these technologies to work from home.
B. Since parents spend so much time on TV and the Internet that they can’t take care of
their children.
C. As the pressure of work in modern time is too heavy for parents to solve at the
workplace.
D. Because people prefer spending time on the Internet to talking with each other.
Question 39: What does the phrase “this preference” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the preference for face-to-face communication
B. the preference to young people
C. the preference for communicating by modern modes
D. the preference for communicating with their friends
Question 40: The following are benefits of modern technologies mentioned in the
passage, EXCEPT __________.
A. People are easier to keep in touch with their friends.
B. Singles can have all information about their partners before face-to-face meeting.
C. More work is done from home instead of at the workplace.
D. People will have a more efficient way to build new relationships.
Question 41: The word “instant” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. exact B. appropriate C. immediate D. gradual
Question 42: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that __________.
A. people’s personal information now is no longer confidential as people depend too
much on social networks.
B. people’s relationships become worse and worse with the increasing use of modern
technologies.
C. couples are likely to separate because of the pressure of keeping in touch on social
networks.
D. conflicts between people are not difficult to solve with the help of modern
technologies.
Question 43: ASEAN was found in Bangkok, Thailand on 8 August 1967 when the
five founding
A B C
members signed the ASEAN Declaration.
D
Question 44: We need to consider if or not the disadvantages of the plan outweigh the
advantages.
A B C D
Question 45: Trigonometry concerns the functions of angels, such as sine,
cosine and tangent.
A B C D
Question 46: "I'm sorry I couldn't come to your birthday party last Friday, Jane" Bod said.
A. Bob was sorry for not coming to Jane's birthday party last Friday.
B. Bob apologized for not coming to Jane's birthday party the last Friday.
C. Bob made excuses for not coming to Jane's birthday party the last Friday.
D. Bob wished to come to Jane's birthday party the last Friday.
Question 47: When I was young, I wasn't allowed to watch much TV.
A. When I was young, my parents did not make me watch much TV.
B. When I was young, my parents did not let me watch much TV.
C. When I was young, my parents did not ask me to watch much TV.
D. When I was young, my parents did not take me to watch much TV.
Question 48: Cultural changes have never been as accelerated as they are now during the
globalization.
A. Never before cultural changes have been as accelerated as they are now during the
globalization.
B. Never before cultural have changes been as accelerated as they are now during the
globalization.
C. Never before have been cultural changes as accelerated as they are now during the
globalization.
D. Never before have cultural changes been as accelerated as they are now during the
globalization.
A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.
B. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
C. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
D. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
Question 50: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars.
However, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the
greatest contributors of air pollution.
B. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are
among the greatest contributors of fair pollution.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the
greatest contributor of air pollution.
D. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars
to contribute to the pollution of air.
-----THE END-----
33 2023
Question 1: A. control B. ecology C. contour D. combine
Question 2: A. understated B. washed C. produced D. confessed
Question 3: A. magpie B. engaged C. import D. fortune
Question 4: A. masterpiece B. television C. emperor D. emission
questions.
Question 5: Their massive salaries let them afford to give __________ huge amounts to
Charities.
A. off B. up C. away D. back
Question 6: Viet Nam has kept a variety of superstitious _____ about daily activities.
A. believe B. believing C. beliefs D. believable
Question 7: I do morning exercise and play volleyball regularly so as to keep _____ and be
healthier.
A. fit B. good shape C. healthy D. strong
Question 8: As well as its beautiful sun-soaked beaches and excellent gastronomy, the region
boasts no fewer than thirty golf courses, _____ amateurs and professionals alike with year-
round golfing opportunities.
A. provides B. provided C. providing D. to provide
Question 9: I _____ a bike to school every day but today I _____ to school by bus because it
was stolen yesterday.
A. rode – went B. ride - am going
C. ride – go D. is riding - am going
Question 10: She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn't help _____ at.
A. laugh B. laughing C. to laugh D. to laughing
Question 11: Every week, his mother goes to _____ university to visit him while my mother
has never come to visit me since I went to _____ university.
A. the-0 B. the-the C. 0-0 D. a-the
Question 12: Many of the people who attended Major Gordon's funeral _____ him for many
years.
A. didn't see B. wouldn't see C. haven't seen D. hadn't seen
Question 13: Fast food is very popular. _____, a diet of hamburgers, pizzas and fried chicken
is not very healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. In contrast
Question 14: Out _____ from its tiny cage.
A. does the bird fly B. flew the bird
C. did the bird fly D. fly the bird
Question 15: Experts say that another outbreak of flu epidemic is on the _____.
A. cards B. boards C. papers D. days
Question 16: After the last argument I _____ with my brother, we didn't speak to each other
for months.
A. made B. had C. caused D. took
Question 17: There are usually a lot of job seekers applying for one position. Only a few of
them are __________ for an interview.
A. shortlisted B. listed C. screened D. tested
Question 18: We thought the repairs on the car would cost about $500, but our estimate was
way off the _____ it was $4000.
A. mark B. point C. spot D. trace
Question 19: They can all kinds of fruit, __________?
A. can’t they B. don’t they C. can they D. do they
Question 20: We're surprised to hear that his musical talent was nurtured by their loving
parents when he was a child.
A. abandoned B. limited C. fostered D. restricted
Question 21: Ecotourism is a unique way for travelers to engage in sustainable tourism while
vacationing.
A. disconnect B. promise to marry
C. join D. catch
Question 22: It is undeniable that instrument innovations hit the right note in 2013 with the
3D-printed guitar, the AT-200 guitar, the seaboard grand and the wheel harp.
A. growth B. modernization C. revolution D. stagnation
Question 23: It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable, so we kicked it into touch.
A. measure it B. mention it C. forgot it D. approved it
Question 24: - Mai: “Do you know an apple a day can help you keep fit, build healthy bones
and prevent disease like cancer?”
- Huong: “Wow! ___________________.”
A. I would love to B. It's a good idea
C. That's incredible D. You must like apple
Question 25: - James: "Do you know that many inventions were inspired by the natural
world?"
- Anna: “____________________.”
A. Of course. You're right. B. There is no hope about it.
C. Well, that sounds interesting. D. Yes, I couldn't agree more.
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Do you ever find yourself flustered when you see someone you don't expect? Have
you experienced those embarrassing and awkward moments (26) _____ you can't think of
something to say? Prepare yourself for the future so you won't be caught off guard. Being
prepared can (27) _____ the difference between feeling self-conscious and being confident as
you express your delight (28) _____ seeing someone you know.
When you're out and about, there is a good chance you'll encounter someone you
know or have met in the past. Although you might be tempted to pretend not (29) _____ or
hear the other person if you are in a hurry, it's a good idea to be friendly and at least offer a
greeting in return. Not doing so can label you a snob and that will stay with you for a long
time.
When you see someone you know, it's a good form to start with a warm smile. If the
situation allows, and you don't have your hands full of packages, extend your hand and offer
a firm handshake, unless you have a cold. In that case, you can do a fist bump or explain that
you might be (30) _____.
(Source: https://www.thespruce.com)
Question 26: A. when B. which C. what D. that
Question 27: A. make B. tell C. create D. do
Question 28: A. at B. on C. in D. out
Question 29: A. seeing B. to see C. having seen D. to seeing
Question
30: A. contagious B. contagiousness C. contagiously D. contagion
of the questions.
National parks play a highly valuable role in documenting climate change.
Researchers have utilized the vast tracts of pristine wilderness to collect data on species and
habitats. At first, they collected observational data on foot; now, they use sophisticated
methods such as aerial surveillance with drones like those used in Northrop Grumman’s
Wildlife Challenge to collect information on polar bears.
Observational longitudinal data collection shows the effects of climate change that
impact vegetation and animal species. The pika is the perfect example of an animal who may
need to be relocated from the parks due to climate change, as described in Smithsonian
Magazine. The park service is taking this very seriously. “It is … openly discussing the
possibility of “assisted migration”: manually relocating some animals and plants if it turns
out they can’t survive within the park’s changing landscapes.”
National park research also documents glacier retreat, finding that some ice fields
have lost as much as 85 percent in the last five decades, according to U.S. Geological Survey.
Glacier Park might be recognizable only as a historical name by 2030, it projects. It’s not just
glaciers retreating. The Conversation notes that national park data shows that trees are also
affected by climate change: “Climate change is killing trees due to increased drought,
changes in wildfire patterns and increased bark beetle infestations. Tracking of trees in …
national parks has contributed to a database that revealed how climate change has doubled
tree mortality since 1955 across the western United States.”

We should not forget that at its inception, the National Parks Service’s long-term
intention was to protect the parks and “leave them unimpaired for the enjoyment of future
generations.”
(Source: https://now.northropgrumman.com/)
A. The importance of national parks is more than for scenery.
B. Consider modernizing and privatizing national parks.
C. The implications of climate change for biodiversity conservation.
D. The importance of research and science for the national parks.
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, what do NOT scientists capitalize on when keeping
a record of climate change?
A. Aerial tracking through the use of drones.
B. Observation information gathered when walking.
C. Reports of jungles turning into residential areas.
D. Data on areas of unspoiled hinterland.
A. animals B. species C. plants D. parks
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, in what way does climate change affect trees?
A. It makes trees experience longer growing seasons.
B. It increases the death rates of trees through disturbances.
C. It creates a negative change in wood density.
D. It causes lumber from trees to be less durable.
Question 35: The word “inception” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. debut B. genesis C. conclusion D. establishment
of the questions.
Covering more than 70 percent of our planet, oceans are among the earth’s most
valuable natural resources. They govern the weather, clean the air, help feed the world, and
provide a living for millions. They also are home to most of the life on earth, from
microscopic algae to the blue whale, the largest animal on the planet. Yet we’re
bombarding them with pollution. By their very nature—with all streams flowing to rivers, all
rivers leading to the sea—the oceans are the end point for so much of the pollution we
produce on land, however far from the coasts we may be. And from dangerous carbon
emissions to choking plastic to leaking oil to constant noise, the types of ocean pollution
humans generate are vast. As a result, collectively, our impact on the seas is degrading their
health at an alarming rate. Here are some ocean pollution facts that everyone on our blue
planet ought to know.
When we burn fossil fuels, we don’t pollute just the air but the oceans, too. Indeed,
today’s seas absorb as much as a quarter of all man-made carbon emissions, which changes
the pH of surface waters and leads to acidification. This problem is rapidly worsening—
oceans are now acidifying faster than they have in some 300 million years. It’s estimated that
by the end of this century, if we keep pace with our current emissions practices, the surface
waters of the ocean could be nearly 150 percent more acidic than they are now.
The majority of the garbage that enters the ocean each year is plastic—and here to
stay. That’s because unlike other trash, the single-use grocery bags, water bottles, drinking
straws, and yogurt containers, among eight million metric tons of the plastic items we toss
(instead of recycle), won’t biodegrade. Instead, they can persist in the environment for a
millennium, polluting our beaches, entangling marine life, and getting ingested by fish and
seabirds.
Where does all this debris originate? While some is dumped directly into the seas, an
estimated 80 percent of marine litter makes its way there gradually from land-based
sources―including those far inland―via storm drains, sewers, and other routes. Oil from
boats, airplanes, cars, trucks, and even lawn mowers is also swimming in ocean waters.
Chemical discharges from factories, raw sewage overflow from water treatment systems, and
storm water and agricultural runoff add other forms of marine-poisoning pollutants to the
toxic brew.
The ocean is far from a “silent world.” Sound waves travel farther and faster in the
sea’s dark depths than they do in the air, and many marine mammals like whales and
dolphins, in addition to fish and other sea creatures, rely on communication by sound to find
food, mate, and navigate. But an increasing barrage of human-generated ocean noise
pollution is altering the underwater acoustic landscape, harming—and even killing—marine
species worldwide.
(Adapted from https://www.nrdc.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following could best reflect the main idea of the passage?
A. Oceans are being contaminated from many different pollution sources.
B. Oceans bring myriad benefits to people on the Earth.
C. Waste from human’s activities is the cause of ocean pollution.
D. People should know what they have done to the oceans.
Question 37: What does the word “them” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. natural resources B. oceans C. millions D. blue whales
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 2, acidification ______________.
A. changes the pH of surface waters.
B. is formed due to the absorption of artificial carbon emissions.
C. was more serious 300 million years ago than today.
D. is estimated to keep up with our current emission practices.
Question 39: The word “persist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. degrade B. damage C. develop D. endure
A. The oceans are mainly damaged by the pollution humans produce on the coasts.
B. Most garbage we litter in the oceans can be decomposed easily.
C. Sea creatures are unlikely to have a normal life because of the increase in ocean
noise.
D. Water treatment systems always process raw sewage before discharging it into the
ocean.
Question 41: Which source of ocean pollution is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. trash in the oceans B. acidification C. noise pollution D. soil pollution
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. oceans are at risk because of human’s activities.
B. people don’t care much about what they have done to the oceans.
C. people still can’t find an effective way to protect the oceans.
D. tiny creatures are affected by the alteration of the oceans more than big ones.
Question 43: The book publishing last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in
Viet Nam. A B C D
Question 44: I wish you won't come through the kitchen with your dirty boots on.
A B C D
Question 45. The town has a concert hall and two theatres. The later were both built in the
1950.
A B C D
Question 46: "Let’s go for a walk. We've been working all day”, said Joanna.
A. Joanna suggested going for a walk because they had been working all day.
B. Joanna insisted on going for a walk because they had been working all day.
C. Joanna suggested going for a walk because they have been working all day.
D. Joanna suggested going for a walk because she had been working all day.
Question 47: The number of unemployed people doubled between 2005 and 2009.
A. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2005 compared to 2009.
B. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2009 than in 2005.
C. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2005 compared to 2009.
D. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2009 as in 2005.
Question 48: There are over fifty ethnic groups but we all use Vietnamese as the official
language.
A. Although there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official
language.
B. Despite there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official
language.
C. However, there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official
language.
D. In spite of using Vietnamese as the official language, there are over fifty ethnic
groups.
Question 49: It was midnight. The noise upstairs stopped.
A. The noise upstairs stopped before midnight.
B. The noise upstairs didn’t stop even it was midnight.
C. The noise upstairs wouldn't stop unless it were midnight.
D. It was not until midnight that the noise upstairs stopped.
Question 50: Tomorrow you don’t go to school. I will inform your parents about that.
A. Whenever you don’t go to school tomorrow, I will inform your parents about that.
B. Though you don’t go to school tomorrow, I will inform your parents about that.
C. You don't go to school tomorrow, but I will inform your parents about that.
D. If you don't go to school tomorrow, I will inform your parents about that.
-----THE END-----
34 2023
Question 1: A. because B. nurse C. horse D. purpose
Question 2: A. passed B. realized C. touched D. wished
Question 3: A. stress-free B. workout C. upgrade D. darkroom
Question
4: A. coordination B. discrimination C. interpersonal D. environmental
questions.
Question 5: Jane's eyes burned and her shoulders ached. She _______ at the computer for
five straight hours. Finally, she took a break.
A. had sat B. has been sitting C. had been sitting D. has sat
Question 6: If the weather is fine this weekend, we _______ to see our grandparents.
A. were going B. will go C. would do D. went
Question 7: The hospital had _________ given her up for dead, but she eventually recovered.
A. virtually B. merely C. totally D. intensively
Question 8: __________, noise pollution adversely affects the human being, leading to
irritation, loss of concentration, and loss of hearing.
A. Often neglected B. Often it was neglected
C. Often neglecting D. Often people neglected
Question 9: Different _________ have not only their own distinct worldview but also their
own way of working and preferred methods of communication.
A. generators B. generate C. generations D. generation
Question 10: Some must have taken my keys. I clearly remember ______ them by the
window and now they are nowhere to be seen.
A. to be leaving B. to have left C. to leave D. leaving
Question 11: His rudeness when we first met didn't dispose me very kindly __________ him.
A. with B. to C. for D. in
Question 12: We must find a better way to ________ of plastics because they cause serious
environmental problems.
A. deposit B. dispose C. discard D. dump
Question 13: A new study by University College London shows that teenage girls are twice
as likely as to be depressed _______ social media as boys.
A. as a result B. thanks to C. despite D. due to
Question 14: Some studies have suggested a link between certain types of __________
sweetener and cancer.
A. fake B. artificial C. wrong D. false
Question 15: Mr John is held in high ______ for his dedication to the school.
A. respect B. esteem C. homage D. honor
Question 16: I still remember the _______ afternoons that we spent at the beach when I was
a child.
A. long fantastic summer B. fantastic summer long
C. fantastic long summer D. summer fantastic long
Question 17: The Great Pyramid of Giza is ______ biggest and _______ oldest one among
the three pyramids forming the Giza Pyramid Complex.
A. 0/0 B. a/the C. the/the D. 0/the
Question 18: An 18-year-old girl, of no fixed _____, was charged with robbery in connection
with the incident.
A. abode B. accommodation C. dwellings D. lodgings
Question 19: We have just bought __________.
A. an old wooden thick table B. a thick old wooden table
C. a thick wooden old table D. a wooden thick old table
Question 20: People usually look through travel brochures to decide on their holiday
destinations.
A. scan B. skim C. spot D. swallow
Question 21: He sank into deep despair when he lost his job.
A. became very enjoyable B. became very unhappy
C. was delighted D. burst into tears
Question 22: She waved her hand about, ostentatiously displaying her large diamond ring.
A. expensively B. showily C. enormously D. humbly
Question 23: You’ll really have to work hard if you want to make the grade as a journalist.
A. succeed B. fail C. win D. fulfill
Acupuncture is a Chinese method of treating illnesses by inserting needles into certain
points of the body. The idea is that this restores the natural balance of energy, (24) ________
is disturbed when a person is ill. The origins of this therapy have been traced back over five
thousand years, but it only began to be accepted in the West in the 1970s.
In 1971, James Reston, a well-known journalist from the New York Times, was
visiting China when he developed appendicitis. He was operated (25) _____________ in a
hospital in Peking, where the doctors used acupuncture to relieve his pain. Reston was
surprised at how (26) _____________ it was, and wrote about it in an article for the
newspaper.
Soon afterwards, Chairman Mao Tse-tung invited a group of distinguished Western
doctors over to China to witness for themselves that (27) ________ worked. They were
accompanied by television crews, and soon viewers in the West were watching operations
being carried out on patients with acupuncture needles sticking out of them. The patients felt
no pain.
The Western experts were a little embarrassed at what they saw, because they had
(28)_______ ridiculed the idea that patients could be treated with needles. But now they were
forced to admit that it actually worked, and acupuncture became a popular form of therapy.
(Source: https://www.encyclopedia.com)
Question 24: A. which B. that C. where D. what
Question 25: A. at B. over C. in D. on
Question 26: A. practical B. effective C. influential D. used
Question 27: A. acupuncturist B. acupuncture C. puncture D. acupoint
Question 28: A. previously B. before C. early D. anciently
Question 29: Many different kinds of food are sold today have artificial flavoring added
to them.
A B C D
Question 30: Under no circumstances we should do anything that will benefit ourselves but
at the
A B C
same time harm the interests of others.
D
Question 31: Sparking pools of water lay trapped among the rocks as the tide retreated.
A B C D
Bali, the fabled "Island of the Gods", has been enchanting visitors for centuries with
its rich cultural traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes
and cool mountain lakes down through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure
waters, every square inch of Bali offers a fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2.7 million souls whose artistry and piety are
recognized throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology.
Tantric Buddhism and homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali's inhabitants, and
so deeply woven into the fabric of their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the
material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island's fascinating culture will have plenty of
opportunities, as colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with regularity of
sunrise. Most hotels offer nightly dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist
audiences but none the less exquisite. The hill town of Ubud, the island's premier arts center,
also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby stone-cutter's village of Batubulan is
famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find Bali a treasure house of
handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and craftsmen, and
their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they
regard their universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and
intricately designed jewelry in gold and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout
the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of options. Nature walks, horseback riding,
diving, surfing, even bunny jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn/books)
Question 32: The topic of the given passage is ____________.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali
C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for recreation
Question 33: The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of Bali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 34: The word "their" in the second paragraph refers to ____.
A. 2.7 million souls B. Bali's inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 35: Which of the following might be a synonym of the word "exquisite" in the third
paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 36: You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT __________ .
A. horseback riding B. nature walks
C. water rafting D. parachute jumping
Astronomers have for the first time definitively ID’d the birth of a specific heavy
element during a neutron-star smashup. They found strontium. And it showed up in the
wavelengths of light — or spectra — making up this collision’s afterglow.
Scientists had assumed that a collision by two super-dense objects, such as neutron
stars, would trigger a chain of nuclear reactions. They’re known as the r-process. In such an
environment, the nuclei of atoms could rapidly gobble up neutrons. Afterward, those nuclei
would become transformed in a process known as radioactive decay. The r-process was seen
as a way to transform old, smaller elements into newer, bigger ones. About half of all
elements heavier than iron were thought to be made in the r-process. Finding strontium in the
recent collision at last offered the most direct evidence yet that neutron-star collisions really
do trigger the r-process.
Physicists had long predicted that silver, gold and many other elements more massive
than iron formed this way. But scientists weren’t sure where those r-process reactions took
place. After all, no one had directly seen the r-process underway in a celestial event. Or they
didn’t until the merger of two neutron stars in 2017. Scientists quickly analyzed light given
off by that cataclysm. In it, they found evidence of the birth of a hodgepodge of heavy
elements. All would seem to have come from the r-process.
The researchers were examining mostly very heavy elements — ones whose complex
atomic structures can generate millions of spectral features. And all of those features were not
yet fully known, Watson points out. This made it extremely difficult to tease apart which
elements were present, he says.
Strontium, however, is relatively light compared to other r-process elements. And its
simple atomic structure creates a few strong and well-known spectral clues. So Watson and
his colleagues expanded their analysis to consider it. In doing so, they turned up the clear
"fingerprint" of strontium. It emerged in light collected by the Very Large Telescope in Chile
within a few days of the neutron-star collision. Seeing strontium in the afterglow wasn’t all
that unexpected, says Brian Metzger. He’s an astrophysicist at Columbia University in New
York City and not involved in the new work. Strontium, he notes, “does tell us something
interesting” about the elements formed during the neutron-star collision.
(Source: https://www.sciencenewsforstudents.org/)
A. Gravitational waves linked to neutron star collision.
B. A nearby neutron star crash could cause calamity on Earth.
C. Neutron-star collision shakes space and time.
D. Heavy element identified from a neutron-star collision.
A. collision B. afterglow C. smashup D. strontium
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the r-process?
A. R-process happens before the radioactive decay process.
B. R-process reactions are similar to thermonuclear weapon explosions.
C. R-process is a set of nuclear reactions initiated by neuron-star collision.
D. It is responsible for the creation of approximately half of the atomic nuclei heavier
than iron.
Question 40: The word “hodgepodge” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _______.
A. selection B. jumble C. assemblage D. medley
Question 41: The word “tease” in paragraph 4 can be replaced by _______.
A. tell B. tear C. taunt D. move
A. Gold fell from the sky as either the tears or the sweat of the sun god Inti.
B. Scientists couldn’t pinpoint precisely which elements were in the resultant mix.
C. S-process and r-process are the predominant mechanisms for the production of heavy
elements.
D. Researchers focused on the light elements when observing the crash’s aftermath.
A. Spotted strontium supports the idea that neutron-star mergers create many elements
heavier than iron.
B. Scientists have detected a new element for the periodic table in the aftermath of a
neutron star crash.
C. A neutron-rich environment generates lighter r-process elements than a neutron-free
one.
D. A pair of black holes is more productive than that of neutron stars in creating gold.
Question 44: "Your application must be submitted before the end of the month," said the
secretary to applicants.
A. The secretary told the applicants not to submit their applications before the end of the
month.
B. The secretary said that the application had to be submitted before the end of the
month.
C. The secretary asked that the applicants submit their applications before the end of the
month.
D. The secretary reminded the applicants to submit their applications before the end of
the month.
Question 45: Governments should take measures to protect wildlife, or more and more
animals will become endangered.
A. The sooner governments take measures to protect wildlife, the fewer animals will
become endangered.
B. Because more governments take measures to protect wildlife, fewer animals will
become endangered.
C. The more measures governments take to protect wildlife, the fewer animals will
become endangered.
D. Governments take measures to protect wildlife, so that fewer animals will become
endangered.
Question 46: It was wrong of you not to show any concern for her mom's health.
A. You should show concern for her mom's health.
B. You should have shown concern for her mom's health.
C. It was wrong that you showed concern for her mom's health.
D. You shouldn't have shown any concern for her mom's health.
Question 47: - A: “Have you ever done any volunteer work?”
- B: “___________”
A. I'm doing a part-time job to support my student life.
B. You see, earning money is difficult these days.
C. Sure. When I was a student, I helped in the hospital.
D. I have been trying to work with all my heart.
Question 48: - A: “Are you attending the conference on gender equality this week?”
- B: “___________________”
A. I don't think I will be able to come. B. Did you say that?
C. Well, things are different now. D. That's the way life is.

Question 49: After Harry had packed his luggage, he loaded it into the car and set off for the
airport.
A. Having packed his luggage, Harry loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
B. Only after Harry had packed his luggage, he loaded it into the car and set off for the
airport.
C. No sooner had Harry packed his luggage when he loaded it into the car and set off for
the airport.
D. Not until Harry had packed his luggage did he load it into the car and set off for the
airport.
Question 50: Trees should be planted everywhere possible. Trees absorb carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas.
A. Trees, which should be planted everywhere possible, absorb carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas.
B. Trees should be planted everywhere possible as they absorb carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas.
C. Trees should be planted everywhere possible to be able to absorb carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas.
D. Trees should be planted everywhere possible where they absorb carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas.
-----THE END-----
35 2023
Question 1: A. academic B. apply C. apology D. achieve
Question 2: A. impresses B. abolishes C. influences D. heightens
Question 3: A. muscle B. listen C. disease D. pretty
Question 4: A. biomass B. addicted C. distinguished D. efficient
questions.
Question 5: They are always ____________ about how smart their children are.
A. praising B. boasting C. complimenting D. congratulating
Question 6: Charles had very little interest in the museum: he gave each exhibit no more than
a(n) _____ glance.
A. transient B. cursory C. ephemeral D. temporary
Question 7: People often use the natural world as inspiration to design and invent new
______.
A. producers B. productivities C. productions D. products
Question 8: In the U.S, children can choose their own partners even if their parents object
______ their choice.
A. to B. for C. against D. with
Question 9: Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a
______.
A. delay B. brake C. halt D. cease
Question 10: If one wants to take part in volunteer organizations such as Green Summer
Camp, Green Saturday Movement, Blood Donor, he/she will have to ______ an application
form.
A. fill in B. find out C. log on D. send off
Question 11: Southern Spain's Costa del Sol, ______ from Nerja in the east to Manilva in the
west, is one of the most fascinating tourist areas in the world.
A. stretches B. being stretched C. stretched D. stretching
Question 12: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tides will be higher.
A. will be B. will have been C. is being D. is
Question 13: I have visited ______ Portugal but I have never been to ______ Netherlands.
A. the – the B. Ø – the C. a – the D. a - a
Question 14: ______ irritating they are, you shouldn't lose temper with small children.
A. No matter how much B. As much as
C. However D. Although
Question 15: If I weren't afraid of travelling by air, I ______ to go to American by ship,
which took me much longer time.
A. I hadn't had B. I wouldn't have had
C. I shouldn't have had D. I wouldn't have
Question 16: ______ is over your head is just an exaggeration because you have well
prepared for it over the years.
A. This entrance exam B. What this entrance exam
C. That this entrance exam D. It is this entrance exam
Question 17: It was ______ silent inside the old, abandoned house.
A. extremely B. hardly C. perfectly D. totally
Question 18: I don't like networking events - spending hours trying to ______ small talk with
strangers just isn't my cup of tea.
A. make B. take C. have D. do
Question 19: Most students in this class don’t know that Peter will repeat a class,
__________?
A. won’t he B. will he C. do they D. don’t they
Question 20: Sometimes, in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative.
A. make the last decision B. make important changes
C. raise the first idea D. sacrifice for others
Question 21: The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed
basing on rice - the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.
A. banner B. logo C. motto D. slogan
Question 22: The best hope of avoiding a downmarket tabloid TV future lies in the pressure
currently being put on the networks to clean up their act.
A. expensive B. famous C. poor quality D. uncreative
Question 23: Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control their
spending online.
A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by
Question 24: - A: “Well, Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie have just decided to divorce! Don't
you know?”
- B: “__________________.”
A. I couldn't agree more. B. Oh, thanks!
C. Really? Are you kidding? D. No, not right now.
Question 25: - Stranger: “Could you show me how to get to the nearest train station from
here?”
- Lan: “_____________.”
A. I'm not certain but its maybe at the end of the street.
B. I totally agree with you.
C. Sorry, I never know you.
D. I'm busy. now.
or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
The idea of going overseas to study can be daunting, with visions of baffling
languages or nights spent in isolation while you are gradually forgotten by your friends and
family. (26) ______ the benefits of studying abroad - such as broadening your mind,
improving your career prospects and making friends from all over the world - can make
digging out your passport really rewarding.
“Studying abroad is an eye-opening experience,” says Anna Boyd, event manager at
The Student World. “Being (27) ______ in another culture, understanding differences and
spotting similarities, living on a beach or in the mountains, (28) ______ will have an impact
on every student.”
Overseas study comes in many shapes and sizes. It might be a single semester abroad
via an Erasmus programme, for example. Or you might elect to follow a full three-or four-year
degree programme. Whatever your ambition, the key is starting early. Some countries require
specific combinations of A-levels from UK students, Germany looks for four A-levels
including maths or science and one modern foreign language, for instance, while others, such
as the US, value extracurricular activities. Starting our research well ahead (29) ______ time
can help you make the right choices. "Getting involved in sports, arts and music is also worth
considering, as well as gaining experience through volunteering and work placements," says
Boyd. In fact, applying to study abroad could even work to your advantage, for example, you
might encounter lower (30) ______ requirements.
(Adapted from https://wwwindependent.caukistudent/study-abroad)
Question 26: A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Thereby
Question 27: A. immersed B. interested C. resided D. taken
Question 28: A. where B. why C. which D. that
Question 29: A. on B. off C. in D. of
Question 30: A. entry B. entrance C. enter D. entered
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or II to indicate the answer to each
of the questions.
Having a hobby that you enjoy - whether that’s crocheting a sweater for your beastie’s
new baby, hitting the slopes to enjoy some fresh powder, or practicing pirouettes in ballet
class - has all sorts of well-documented benefits, from lower levels of stress to an increased
sense of belonging and purpose. Clearly, hobbies can make a serious impact on your quality
of life. But they can also improve your work performance. According to licensed professional
counselor Rebecca Weiler, when you’re engaged and fulfilled in your life outside of work
like you are when you’re pursuing meaningful hobbies, that happiness spills over. It can
make you more focused and enthusiastic when you’re on the job.
And depending on the hobby, the skills you gain as a result of your leisurely pursuits
can also make you better at your job and make you a more appealing candidate for potential
employers. “For example, someone who performs in an improvisational group as a hobby
could be attractive to an employer because they can think quickly on their feet and may also
be more comfortable presenting in front of a group of people,” Weiler says.
So, having a hobby that you love can do good things for your life and your job. But what
if you don’t actually have a hobby you enjoy? You’re not alone. According to Weiler, trying to
find meaningful hobbies is one of the primary reasons her clients - especially young people -
seek counseling. Clearly, there are plenty of people out there who don’t have, or don’t know
how to find, a hobby. But that doesn’t mean they can’t find one. It doesn’t matter if you’re 25 or
85 years old - it’s not too late to hop on board the hobby train!
(Source: https://www.themuse.com/)
A. It’s good for your life and career to find a hobby you love.
B. Hobbies are essentially different from your jobs.
C. How to succeed in your hobby outside of work.
D. Not just your job, your hobbies also define who you are.
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, what is NOT mentioned as a rewarding hobby by
the author?
A. Give your expecting friend a baby-sized sweater with your needlework skill.
B. Partake in some athletic recreational activities like the winter sport of skiing.
C. Making a pie or baking a batch of cookies for your family on the weekend.
D. Polish the technique of spinning while poised on the toe of shoe with the other leg
bent.
Question 33: The word “improvisational” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. casual B. rehearsed C. temporary D. extempore
A. skills B. candidates C. employers D. clients
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what kind of people requires counseling?
A. People who have no problems but want self-discovery and self-improvement.
B. People who live a boring life with no mentionable hobbies or interests.
C. People who have experienced a stressful or traumatic life event.
D. People with mental health problems need a supportive environment.
of the question.
Though gambling is typically associated with casino games, strategic sports betting is
rapidly gaining in popularity – and that's a whole other ball game, Prof. Dannon explains.
"Sports gamblers seem to believe themselves the cleverest of all gamblers. They think that
with experience and knowledge – such as player's statistics, manager's habits, weather
conditions, and stadium capacity – they can predict the outcome of a game better than the
average person."
But in a study published in the journal Psychopathology, Prof. Dannon and Dr. Ronen
Huberfeld of the Beer Yaakov Mental Health Center determined that neither betting
experience nor knowledge of the arcane details of the game is connected to successful betting
outcomes. Indeed, he says, the two most successful gamblers in their study had no prior
experience in gambling or knowledge of the sport in question. This should inform how
psychologists approach sports gamblers, who need to be treated using different methods than
their casino-addicted counterparts.
For their study, the researchers focused on the field of soccer betting, one of the most
popular and growing forms of sports gambling. They recruited three groups of participants,
including 53 professional sports gamblers, 34 soccer fans who were knowledgeable about the
sport but had never gambled, and finally, 78 non-gamblers with no prior knowledge of soccer
at all. All participants were asked to place bets on the final scores of the 16 second-round
matches of the Champion's League, organized by the Union of European Football
Associations. This model mimics how gamblers actually put their money on the games,
where they need to bet on exact scores to win.
Although those who had prior knowledge of soccer were expected to have a higher
success rate, the researchers discovered that, in fact, their success rate was no better than
those of the other two groups. Interestingly, the two participants with the most successful
record, correctly betting on seven out of the 16 games each, hailed from the group with no
prior understanding of the sport.
This doesn't indicate that there is an advantage to inexperience, says Prof. Dannon –
many others in the third group were unable to predict any of the results correctly. But the
outcome exposes the myth of knowledge as a powerful betting advantage. The sense of
control that encourages sports gamblers in their betting is just an illusion.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/)
A. No predictor of success. B. The future of sport gambling
C. Regret is a gambler’s curse. D. How to top in elite sports?
Question 37: The word “strategic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. tactical B. critical C. random D. sensible
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what element can help sports gamblers win their
bet?
A. Real-time digital wagering has created betting opportunities that don’t rely on the
score.
B. Their inexperience coupling with ignorance could easily bring a lucky or miraculous
result.
C. The trick is that the prediction made on the first hunch is always better than the
second thought.
D. There is no actual connection between winning a bet and any concrete betting pattern.
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph refers to _____.
A. fans B. gamblers C. scores D. games
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, who are NOT in the lineup as the research subjects?
A. Ardent non-gambler football lover. B. Accomplished sports plungers.
C. Skillful sports psychologists. D. Inexperienced newcomers.
Question 41: The word “hailed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. honored B. saluted C. came D. approached
A. Legalization of sports gambling could lead to increased sports viewing.
B. The total value of the sports betting market is hard to estimate due to the lack of
consistency.
C. For decades, sports gambling tended to be a static and underhanded experience.
D. Knowledge of the game cannot serve as a decisive advantage in sports gambling.
Question 43: More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side
effects such as
A B C
pain, anxiety or shortness of breath.
D
Question 44: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well
as provide
A B C
opportunities for its members.
D
Question 45: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore.
A B C D
Question 46: I have never read a better book about cultural diversity than this book.
A. This book is a good book about cultural diversity I have ever read.
B. This is the best book about cultural diversity I have ever read.
C. This book is as good as the one about cultural diversity I have ever read,
D. The book about cultural diversity I have ever read isn't better than this one.
Question 47: "You'd better not waste your time, Tommy," Mum said.
A. Mum urged Tommy to waste time.
B. Mum advised Tommy not to waste your time.
C. Mum advised Tommy not to waste his time.
D. Mum advised Tommy not to waste her time.
Question 48: If I had known about their wedding plan earlier, I would have been able to
make time to attend the reception party.
A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the
reception party.
B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend
the reception party.
C. I don't know their wedding plan earlier so I can't make time to attend the reception
party.
D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the reception party.

Question 49: We don't have to wash the dishes any more. We have just bought a new
dishwasher.
A. It is not necessary for us to wash the dishes, even when we have bought a new
dishwasher.
B. No longer do we have to wash the dishes because we have just bought a new
dishwasher.
C. The new dishwasher we have just bought needs doing the washing-up.
D. With the help of the new dishwasher, we won't have to do the washing-up very often.
Question 50: I had ability of learning many foreign languages. My mother herself recognized
it.
A. I had ability of learning many foreign languages though my mother herself
recognized it.
B. It was my mother who recognized my ability of learning many foreign languages.
C. I had ability of learning many foreign languages unless my mother herself recognized
it.
D. It was my mother's ability of learning many foreign languages that she herself
recognized.
-----THE END-----
36 2023
Question 1: A. established B. destroyed C. encouraged D. remembered
Question 2: A. savour B. devour C. favour D. flavour
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 3: A. ailment B. process C. velcro D. address
Question 4: A. dominant B. introduce C. faraway D. dishwasher
questions.
Question 5: After standing in the sun for more than an hour, two of the people in the queue
______ out and they __________ to after some women threw water in their faces.
A. turned/went B. put/threw
C. came/turned D. passed - came
Question 6: We expect Linh _____ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes.
A. to come B. not to come C. not coming D. coming
Question 7: Befriending can offer volunteers the opportunity to provide support and
friendship to a person who may be going _____ a difficult period.
A. up B. on C. off D. through
Question 8: _____ noodles are a precooked and usually dried block invented by Japanese.
A. Instantaneous B. Instance C. Instant D. Instantly
Question 9: Christmas Eve is _____ best time for Japanese youngsters to go out for _____
special, romantic evening.
A. a-a B. the-a C. the-the D. a-the
Question 10: Though _____ many centuries ago, the palace remains practically intact.
A. building B. to build C. built D. people built
Question 11: I didn't know you were asleep. Otherwise, I _____ so much noise when I came
in.
A. didn't make B. wouldn't have made
C. won‘t make D. don't make
Question 12: The little girl started crying. She _____ her doll, and no one was able to find it
for her.
A. has lost B. had lost C. was losing D. was lost
Question 13: The house was empty when I arrived. They __________.
A. must have gone to bed B. should have gone to bed
C. would have gone to bed D. need have gone to bed
Question 14: If the bride's father _____ the car for the wrong time, she _____ at the Church
by now.
A. hadn’t booked/would have been B. didn’t book/would have been
C. hadn’t booked/would be D. hadn’t booked/had been
Question 15: John will never buy you a drink - he's far too _________.
A. tight-fisted B. pig-headed C. highly-strung D. easy-going
Question 16: Study much harder ________.
A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam
C. or you won't pass the exam D. and you pass the exam
Question 17: The _____ polluted atmosphere in some industrial regions is called "smog".
A. widely B. largely C. fully D. heavily
Question 18: They are conducting a wide _____ of surveys throughout Vietnam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 19: The more polite you appear to be, __________ your partner will be.
A. the happiest B. the happier
C. the most happily D. the more happily
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 20: She was so happy when he got down on bended knee and popped the
question.
A. asked her out B. asked her to be on a date
C. asked her to give him some money D. asked her to marry him
Question 21: An organization for Educational Development co-operated with our school to
establish free English classes for the poor in the area.
A. put away B. put off C. set off D. set up
Question 22: The major shortcoming of ASEAN as an organization is the inability to go
through many declarations, agreements, and instruments that they have proliferated over the
years.
A. advantage B. benefit C. drawback D. success
Question 23: Most of the Imperial Citadel of Thang Long was demolished in the early 20th
century.
A. rebuilt B. pulled down C. put up D. pulled up
Question 24: - Son: “I've been awarded a scholarship to Harvard University.”
- Mum: “_________________________.”
A. Just kidding! B. It's up to you.
C. Good job! D. Same to you. Thanks!
Question 25: - Lam: “I'm really fed up with work at the moment. I need a break.”
- Linh: “__________________________.”
A. Why shouldn't you take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or
Amsterdam?
B. I would advise you to take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or
Amsterdam.
C. Why don't you take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or Amsterdam?

D. You're highly recommended taking next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris
or Amsterdam.
or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Cultural beliefs differ as to whether directness or indirectness is considered positive.
In the mainstream American culture, the ideal (26) __________ of communication includes
being direct rather than indirect (“ideal" here means that the culture values this style,
although not everyone speaks directly). There are several expressions in English (27)
__________ emphasize the importance of being direct: “Get to the point! Don't beat around
the bush! Let's get down to business!" These sayings all indicate the importance of dealing
directly with issues rather than (28) __________ them. One way to determine whether a
culture favors a direct or indirect style in communication is to find out how the people in that
culture express disagreement or how they say, “No”. In Japan, there are at least fifteen ways
of saying “No”, without actually saying the word. Similarly, in Japan, it would be (29)
_______ rude to say directly “I disagree with you” or “You're wrong”.
Many Americans believe that "honesty is the best policy" and their communication
style reflects this. Honesty and directness in communication are strongly related. It is not a
(30) ________, then, to find out that cultural groups misjudge each other based on different
beliefs about directness and honesty in communication.
(Source: https://www.mobt3ath.com/uplode/book/book)
Question 26: A. word B. shape C. form D. phrase
Question 27: A. that B. what C. whether D. when
Question 28: A. deciding B. supporting C. observing D. avoiding
Question 29: A. recommended B. considered C. accepted D. expressed
Question 30: A. surprise B. connection C. passage D. system
of the questions.
According to The Official Guide to the Quidditch World Cup – produced by the
International Confederation of Wizards Quidditch Committee (ICWQC) and available
through all reputable wizarding bookstores for what many feel is the ridiculously overpriced
sum of thirty nine Galleons – the tournament has been held every four years since 1473. As
with so much else about the wizarding world’s most important sporting competition,
many query the accuracy of this statement.
As only European teams competed during the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries, purists
prefer to date the Quidditch World Cup’s inception from the seventeenth century when it
became open to all continents. There is also heated debate about the accuracy of some
historical accounts of tournaments. A substantial amount of all post-game analysis centres on
whether magical interference took place and whether it made, or ought to have made, the
final result moot.
The ICWQC has the unlucky job of regulating this contentious and anarchic
competition. The rulebook concerning both on- and off-pitch magic is alleged to stretch to
nineteen volumes and to include such rules as “no dragon is to be introduced into the stadium
for any purpose including, but not limited to, team mascot, coach or cup warmer” and
“modification of any part of the referee’s body, whether or not he or she has requested such
modification, will lead to a lifetime ban from the tournament and possibly imprisonment.”
A source of vehement disagreements, a security risk for all who attend it and a
frequent focus for unrest and protest, the Quidditch World Cup is simultaneously the most
exhilarating sporting event on Earth and a logistical nightmare for the host nation.
(Source: https://www.wizardingworld.com/)
A. The Quidditch World Cup. B. The least infamous tournament.
C. Magical or not is depending on you. D. The history that never existed.
Question 32: The word “query” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quiz B. inquire C. object D. question
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, what does most of the after-game discussion mainly
concern?
A. The effect of illegal magic devices on the well-being of players.
B. The debate, dispute, or uncertainty concerning the fair play issues.
C. The influence of magic usage on the outcomes of the game.
D. The conflict between supporters of each team in case of misunderstanding.
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT mentioned about the Quidditch
guidebook?
A. It maintains that dragon the mythical creature is excluded from the competition area.
B. No match will commence in the event of extreme natural or magical weather.
C. It forbids any kind of alterations on the umpire’s body under any circumstances.
D. There currently exist nineteen tomes in the series of ICWQC rulebook.
A. risk B. event C. source D. nation
of the questions.
Australia has a well-organized and well-structured education system. The education
starts at the age of five or six, but it may differ by a narrow margin between states. It starts
with the preschool education which is not compulsory and can be offered within a school or
separately. The primary and secondary school encompasses the compulsory education for
Australians. There are a large number of primary and high school across the country with
most of them being public schools. It is estimated that public schools amount to 60% of
scholars as opposed to 40% in private settings. All these education providers must be licensed
by the government and must fulfill certain requirements including infrastructure and teaching.
Universities, on the other hand, are mainly public institutions.
The Australian education system has established a standard curriculum so all scholars
will be given the same quality of education. Despite there may be some states at which this
curriculum is modified a bit, but the change is not that significant. The actual curriculum set
out in Australia education system is based on important abilities one must have in his life:
Literacy, Numeracy, Information and communication technology, Critical and creative
thinking, personal and social capability, ethical understanding, intercultural understanding.
Vocational and Technical schools prepare students that want to skip the university and
want to move directly to the job market. Actually, here it stands the difference between
universities and colleges: the Vocational and Technical Schools are more oriented in teaching
practical skills while university courses are mainly theory-based to lead students to different
academic careers. There are hundreds of other schools out there that provide technical and
further education (TAFE) and vocational education and training (VET). These schools offer
short courses, certificates I through IV, diplomas, and advanced diplomas. They focus on
training their students in a particular vocation or just to help their students get out into the
workplace. These schools offer a wide variety of courses and qualifications attained by these
courses can lead to different career pathways to follow afterward.
Australian higher education modernity and reputation relies on a huge number of
educational providers including universities and different training organizations. Currently,
there are 43 universities across the country. The vast majority of universities are public
except two private universities. The world-class teaching offered is surely undisputed. Seven
Australian universities are traditionally found at the top 100 best universities in the world
which is a sufficient indicator to highlight their quality.
Besides universities, more than 5,000 training organizations are registered and
accredited. Actual figures show that the number of enrolled students is around 3.8 million
with international students sharing more than half a million. There are also 3 self-accrediting
higher education institutions. Furthermore, dozens of smaller schools do not grant any
degrees or have an accreditation – these are private schools that focus on theology, business,
information technology, natural therapies, hospitality, health, law, and accounting.
(Source: http://www.studying-in-australia.org/)
A. The levels of education in Australia.
B. The Australian education system.
C. The curriculum of schools in Australia.
D. The position of Australian schools in the world.
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is TRUE about education in
Australia?
A. Children must start school when they are five years old.
B. Pre-school education is not optional for Australian children.
C. There are more students attending public schools than private schools.
D. Every education provider can start up their school without any requirements.
Question 38: What is the curriculum of the Australian education system based on?
A. It focuses on necessary skills that students must be prepared for in their life.
B. It is based on essential abilities like reading, writing and numbers.
C. It concentrates on knowledge and technology for students.
D. It depends on the quality of education that the schools provide.
Question 39: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refer to _________.
A. these schools B. short courses C. diplomas D. advanced diplomas
Question 40: The word “reputation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. obscurity B. renown C. difference D. stability
Question 41: The word “undisputed” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by __________.
A. questionable B. doubtful C. undeniable D. unacknowledged
A. Australia is an ideal place for not only Australian students but also international ones
to study.
B. There are more and more international students choosing Australian universities to
attend.
C. Because of the fame in the world, more universities and training organizations are
established each year.
D. Students in Australia prefer Vocational and Technical schools to others.
Question 43: Human infants born with about 270 bones, some of which fuse together as their
body
A B C
develops.
D
Question 44: The man, together with his family, were invited to the Clambake last night.
A B C D
Question 45: Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-
looking these days.
A B C D
Question 46: Pho (rice noodles) is believed to be the most typical food in Viet Nam.
A. It is believed that Pho (rice noodles) is the most typical food in Viet Nam.
B. A more typical food than Pho (rice noodles) is believed in Viet Nam.
C. I believe that Viet Nam has the most typical food like Pho (rice noodles).
D. No food in Viet Nam is less typical than Pho (rice noodles).
Question 47: "I’ll take the children to the park," said the husband to his wife.
A. The husband asked the wife to take the children to the park.
B. The husband offered to take the children to the park.
C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park.
D. The husband requested to take the children to the park.
Question 48: Nancy failed to understand what the story was about until she saw the film
based on it.
A. Nancy doesn't understand what the story is about.
B. Not until she saw the film based on it did Nancy understand what the story was about.
C. It was until she saw the film based on it that Nancy understood what the story was
about.
D. Nancy went to see the film before she read the story.
Question 49: We had a good goalkeeper. We didn’t lose the final match.
A. We had a good goalkeeper, so we lost the final match.
B. If it hadn't been for the good goalkeeper, we would have lost the final match.
C. We didn't lose the final match unless we had a good goalkeeper.
D. We lost the match even if we had a good goalkeeper.
Question 50: Enormous efforts have been made. People want to find a cure for this disease.
A. Enormous efforts have been made; however, people want to find a cure for this
disease.
B. Enormous efforts have been made, so people want to find a cure for this disease.
C. Although enormous efforts have been made, people want to find a cure for this
disease.
D. Enormous efforts have been made to find a cure for this disease.
-----THE END-----
37 2023
Question 1: A. dream B. mean C. peace D. steady
Question 2: A. developed B. introduced C. influenced D. raised
Question 3: A. donate B. bulky C. public D. obvious
Question 4: A. imperial B. emission C. distinctive D. breathtaking
questions.
Question 5: Most people will receive______ benefits when sharing the housework in their
family.
A. enormously B. enormity C. enormous D. enormousness
Question 6: My mother said that she would rather ______ to Hoi An than Nha Trang.
A. to travel B. travelling C. not to travel D. travel
Question 7: A lot of generous businessmen have ______ valuable contributions to helping
needy people.
A. done B. taken C. made D. given
Question 8: Whenever I set out for ______ examination, I always try to avoid crossing
______ path of ______ woman.
A. an - the - a B. an - a - the C. an - the - the D. the - the - a
Question 9: Most of the air pollution results __________ the burning of fossil fuels, motor
vehicles, factories, aircraft and rockets.
A. in B. to C. on D. from
Question 10: I have a______ on a classmate who is very near and dear to me.
A. crush B. desire C. flame D. passion
Question 11: I was encouraged to ______ for the grandest prize in the dancing competition.
A. try B. strive C. reach D. achieve
Question 12: Children with cognitive impairments may have ______ in learning basic skills
like reading, writing, or problem solving.
A. problem B. troubled C. difficulty D. challenge
Question 13: It is no use ______ a girl that she doesn't need to lose any weight.
A. convince B. convincing C. to convince D. to convincing
Question 14: ______ in all parts of the state, pines are the most common trees in Georgia.
A. Found B. Finding C. To find D. Having found
Question 15: If the primary candidates __________ more on the issue, the results of the
election would have been quite different.
A. have focused B. had focused C. focused D. were focused
Question 16: When I met Walters about two years before his death he didn’t seem satisfied.
He _____ no major book since he settled in Uganda.
A. has published B. could have published
C. published D. had published
Question 17: You should stop working too hard __________ you'll get sick.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
Question 18: I don't have time to argue with this self - _____ women.
A. controlled B. dominated C. opinionated D. liked
Question 19: Sophie has got no major problems living in the new city, __________?
A. hasn’t she B. has she C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 20: Gary doesn't always see eye to eye with his father, and this is where the
honesty shows through.
A. agree with B. be opposed to C. look up to D. take after
Question 21: Journalists can make mistakes, so don't believe everything you read in the
press.
A. publications B. news bulletins
C. reference books D. newspapers and magazines
Question 22: If you live in an extended family, you'll have great joy and get support of other
members.
A. close family B. traditional family C. nuclear family D. large family
Question 23: In Thailand, it's against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught,
you can be fined up to 2000 Baht.
A. evil B. illegal C. immoral D. legal
Question 24. - Pha: “From my point of view, all family members should share the chores
equally.”
- Tam: “____________________.”
A. It's a breathtaking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you're right. D. There's no doubt about it.
Question 25: - Jane: “How do I sign up for the psychology course?”
- Phili: “________________.”
A. You need to fill in the online application form first.
B. It's not yours.
C. The course was full.
D. Your deadline is May 15.
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Despite these drawbacks, (26) __________ the retirement age is still considered by
policymakers as one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam, But
these are only temporary solutions. Complementary long-term solutions such as increasing
labor productivity must also be examined.
As Vietnam has specialized in manufacturing with its competitive advantage of a cheap
labor force in the global supply chain, (27) __________ higher education should be reoriented
to focus more on vocational training rather than university degrees. The Vietnamese
government has already taken action by simplifying the entrance exam to university.
Previously, Vietnam's national entrance exam was very difficult and only a limited number of
the most talented citizens managed to enter universities.
However, as living standards in Vietnam improve and more families can afford to send
their children to university, universities have become more commercialized and entering
university is no longer a rare achievement. The low quality of Vietnamese universities also
means the majority of graduating students are unable to find an appropriate job. By simplifying
entrance exams to deemphasize university degrees, the government has encouraged students to
opt for vocational training. (28)_______, 2016 saw a remarkable decrease in the number of
students applying (29) ______ university. Another supplementary policy is to have productivity-
based rather than seniority-based salaries, (30) _______ are common in Asian countries. This
would address public concern about aged seniors doing less work for more pay than younger
employees. Companies and government agencies would employ and appreciate the young while
benefiting from the experience of the old. But this issue feeds the Communist regime's dilemma
between adhering to Communist principles and integrating into the capitalist culture of
productivity for profits.
(Adapted from http://www.eastasiaforuntorg/2017/01/25/)
Question 26: A. raising B. rising C. plant D. feed
Question 27: A. nationally B. nationality C. national D. nation
Question 28: A. However B. As a result C. But D. Otherwise
Question 29: A. in B. with C. for D. at
Question 30: A. what B. why C. that D. which
of the question.
A report from the United Nations given at the conference unveils how worrying the
pollution caused by plastic utensils, especially plastic bags, is becoming. In a single minute,
the world consumes one million plastic bottles; in a year, the world consumes five billion
single-use plastic bags, according to Vietnamplus. The scary fact is that such plastic bottles
and bags are not properly treated, as each year, the world discharges 300 million tons of
plastic waste, accounting for some 10% of all solid waste, putting the environment and
human health under tenterhooks, according to the news site.
The conference also drew attention to another fact: “For a plastic bag that can be used
for five minutes, it takes five seconds to produce, one second to discard, but 500 to 1,000
years to become totally decomposed,” says Vietnamplus.
In another message given by the UN General Secretary and delivered at the
conference, it is reported that since more than eight million tons of plastic bags end up in the
oceans each year, “microplastics in the seas now outnumber stars in our galaxy.” “If present
trends continue, by 2050 our oceans will have more plastic than fish,” Dan Tri reports,
quoting Caitlin Wiesen, country director of the UN Development Programme in Vietnam.
These above-mentioned fearful facts, however, are not merely global issues, but
domestic problems as well, according to local media. Many local news outlets, when relating
data from the conference, point out that white pollution – a term used to indicate the
overwhelming discharge of plastic bags into the environment – is even getting worse in
Vietnam than elsewhere.
(Source: https://english.thesaigontimes.vn)
A. White pollution is getting worse and worse.
B. White pollution – a new type of pollution.
C. The facts about plastic bags are scarier than what we can see.
D. The problems caused by white pollution are increasing.
Question 32: The word “tenterhooks” in the first paragraph mostly means
_______________.
A. The feeling of happiness to know the good results.
B. The possibility of harm or death to someone.
C. Worry or nervousness about something that is going to happen.
D. A statement about what you think will happen in the future.
Question 33: The following are the facts about white pollution, EXCEPT ___________.
A. Five billion is the number of single-use plastic bags consumed by the world population
in one year.
B. Plastic waste makes up about one tenth of the solid waste on the Earth.
C. It is as effortless to decay plastic bags as to manufacture them.
D. Every year over eight million tons of plastic bags are littered in the oceans.
Question 34: What does the phrase “present trends” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Microplastics in the seas now are much more than the stars in the sky.
B. Million tons of plastics bags are discharged into the oceans.
C. It takes 500 to 1,000 years to decompose the whole plastic bags.
D. There are more plastic bags in the oceans than fish.
Question 35: What does the author imply in the last paragraph?
A. White pollution in Vietnam is almost out of control.
B. Vietnamese should solve this environmental problem themselves.
C. The state of plastic pollution in Vietnam is becoming the worst in the world.
D. To reduce pollution, every country in the world has to join hands together.
of the question.
More often than not, you can't just "order up a job" by responding to an online posting
and have it delivered in one or two days as if you were buying whatever your heart desires on
Amazon. Even as employers are hiring at a higher rate than they have in the last several
years, it can often take months to work your way through the job search process. If you are a
new graduate yet to receive a job offer, if you recently moved to a new locale with your
spouse or partner or if you are unemployed for any other reason, you may find success in
your job search by spending time volunteering at a nonprofit organization.
Both the nonprofit and for-profit worlds need people with many of the same talents.
The best volunteer jobs for you to consider are ones where the experience you acquire will be
applicable in the "for-pay" position you want to attain. It's often the case that once you
display your passion for the organization and its mission, and have demonstrated your
abilities, you'll earn strong consideration when a paying position opens up that can benefit
from your talents. Even if you don't have a path to employment at the place you volunteer, by
highlighting your volunteer experience on your resume, you can demonstrate that you haven't
been wasting your time away staying at home watching the grass grow.
There are a few strategies you might adopt when considering at which organization
you'll want to volunteer. You'll probably want to make a priority of volunteering to do what
you've already done, or want to do, in the for-profit sector. Alternatively, however, it might
make sense to volunteer to do something where you can turn an area of professional
weakness into a new strength. Remember, as well, that nonprofit organizations maintain
strong relationships with their corporate sponsors, and you might look for a volunteer
position that would enable you to be that nexus point between the two. And, especially if you
are recently out of school, you should look for positions that let you learn about an
occupation, a field of interest or an industry.
As you try to determine what you want to volunteer to do, and where you want to do
it, make three lists: your marketable skills, the roles you seek and the kinds of charitable
organizations you would want to support. For example, perhaps your skills cluster around
accounting, marketing or event planning. Think about how these might come in handy for
organizations that need financial help figuring out how to brand the organization to attract
other volunteers or donors or run anything from charitable golf tournaments to gala dinners.
(Source: https://money.usnews.com/)
Question 36: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain why volunteer work is always beneficial to volunteers.
B. To advise unemployed people to do voluntary work.
C. To prove that people can have a good job via doing volunteer work.
D. To describe the procedure to have a profit job.
Question 37: According to the first passage, the following should spend time volunteering at
a nonprofit organization, EXCEPT _____________.
A. employers B. emigrants C. the jobless D. new graduates
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 2, what should the volunteers pay attention to when
searching for an unpaid job?
A. They should not mention what voluntary jobs they have done in the resume.
B. They should merely display their abilities when doing the for-pay jobs.
C. The best type of volunteer work should be relevant to the one they want to get wages.
D. The employers may think you have been wasting time doing nonprofit jobs.
Question 39: The word “priority” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. precedence B. unimportance C. demonstration D. preference
Question 40: What does the phrase “the two” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. volunteer jobs and for-profit jobs
B. volunteer jobs and their organizations
C. unpaid jobs and corporate sponsors
D. nonprofit organizations and corporate sponsors
Question 41: What can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Doing the voluntary work that you’re not good at is not a good idea.
B. Volunteering is a perfect time to change your weak points into the new good ones.
C. Keeping contacts with corporate sponsors will help you to have a good-paid job in
the future.
D. It’s ideal for graduates to choose the positions similar to the jobs they have learnt.
Question 42: The phrase “marketable skills” in the last paragraph mostly means
__________.
A. the practical skills you can learn from selling things at the markets.
B. the technical skills for a particular job.
C. the useful skills that make an employer want to give you a job.
D. the skills you have been taught at schools.
Question 43: Alternative therapies often dismiss by orthodox medicine because they are
sometimes
A B
administered by people with no formal medical training.
C D
Question 44: The painting was so beautiful that I stood there admired it for a long time.
A B C D
Question 45: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A B C D
Question 46: There are more superstitious beliefs in Eastern countries than in Western ones.
A. Western countries don't have fewer superstitious beliefs than Eastern ones.
B. Eastern countries have more superstitious beliefs than Western ones.
C. Eastern and Western countries have many more superstitious beliefs.
D. More superstitious beliefs exist in Western countries than in Eastern ones.
Question 47: "You've broken my CD player, Sam," said Jenny.
A. Jenny charges Sam with having broken her CD player.
B. Jenny charged Sam with having broken my CD player.
C. Jenny blamed Sam for having broken her CD player.
D. Jenny blamed Sam for having broken my CD player,
Question 48: When the class was over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
A. As long as the class finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
B. No sooner was the class over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
C. As soon as the class had finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
D. If the class was over, the students would run out, scream and shout.

Question 49: Hans told us about his investment in the company. He did it on his arrival at the
meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the
meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investment in the company when Hans arrived at
the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investment in the
company.
Question 50: You criticized your son before his friends left. It was wrong of you to do that.
A. If you had criticized your son after his friends had left, he wouldn't be so upset now.
B. Your son must have been embarrassed when you criticized him in front of his friend.
C. You should have delayed criticizing your son until after his friends had gone.
D. You must be careful not to embarrass your son when he is with his friends.
-----THE END-----
38 2023
Question 1: A. August B. gerund C. purpose D. suggest
Question 2: A. solutions B. hospitals C. families D. projects
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 3: A. patient B. release C. martyr D. hopeless
Question 4: A. infectious B. privacy C. principle D. charity
questions.
Question 5: We take _____ in doing the washing-up, cleaning the floor and watering the
flowers.
A. turn B. actions C. measures D. turns
Question 6: Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine and _____ in China for
thousands of years.
A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using
Question 7: Most of the students in that special school are making good progress, but
Michael is a _____ case.
A. hopefully B. hopeless C. hopeful D. hopelessly
Question 8: In India, in the old days, _____ girl’s family used to give _____ boy's family a
gift like money or jewelry.
A. a-a B. a-the C. the-a D. the-the
Question 9: After graduating from university, I want to ______ my father's footsteps.
A. follow in B. succeed in C. go after D. keep up
Question 10: I don't know what to say to break the _____ with someone I've just met at the
party.
A. air B. ice C. leg D. rule
Question 11: The director informed that no candidate ______ all the criteria for the
administrative position.
A. completed B. fulfilled C. achieved D. suited
Question 12: After the visit to that special school, we __________ friends with some
students with reading disabilities.
A. acquainted B. had C. made D. realized
Question 13: The archaeological excavation __________ to the discovery of the ancient city
lasted several years.
A. led B. leading C. to lead D. being led
Question 14: If Mr. David __________ at the meeting, he would make a speech.
A. were B. had been C. was D. has been
Question 15: Australia is the greenest country in the world ________ the people are
environmentally friendly.
A. because B. therefore C. however D. yet
Question 16: I wanted to say goodbye to Jerry, but he __________.
A. was already left B. already left
C. had already been leaving D. had already left
Question 17: Since moving to another country, some people decide to follow the customs of
the new country, while _____ prefer to keep their own customs.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 18: I have a _____ schedule this semester - classes from Monday to Friday, 7 AM
to 7 PM!
A. consuming B. grueling C. ungodly D. tight
Question 19: __________ for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap
restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked
C. Walking D. Walked
Question 20: Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in
which humans live in harmony with nature.
A. coexist peacefully with B. fall in love with
C. agree with D. cooperate with
Question 21: We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high
economic growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 22: Then the strangest thing happens - Will and Marcus strike up an unusual
friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain
Question 23: A cost-effective way to fight crime is that instead of making punishments more
severe, the authorities should increase the odds that lawbreakers will be apprehended and
punished quickly.
A. economical B. practical C. profitable D. worthless
Question 24: - Hai: “I've seen John at the workshop on communication skills.”
- Phong: “__________________.”
A. I see. I'll call him.
B. The workshop was very useful.
C. That can't be John because he's in Paris now.
D. No, I don't think so.
Question 25: - John: “Last year, we went to one of those resorts where everything – food and
drink - was free.”
- Thomas: “____________________.”
A. Wow! I didn't realize you were such snobs!
B. Really? I prefer to go somewhere a bit quieter.
C. It sounds great. I've never been on an all-inclusive holiday.
D. If you want all your meals and drinks included, you can stay on an all-inclusive basis.
Sir Isaac Newton, the English scientist and mathematician, was one of the most
important figures of the 17th century scientific revolution. One of his greatest achievements
was the (26) _____ of the three laws of motion, which are still used today. But he also had a
very unusual personality. Some people would say he was actually insane.
His father died before he was born, and his mother soon remarried. The young Isaac
hated his stepfather so much that he once (27) ____________ to burn his house down - when
his stepfather and mother were still inside! Fortunately he did not, and he went on to graduate
from Cambridge without being thrown into prison.
Isaac's first published work was a theory of light and color. When another scientist
wrote a paper criticizing this theory, Isaac flew into an uncontrollable rage. The scientist (28)
_____________ for the criticism was a man called Robert Hooke. He was head of the Royal
Society, and one of the most respected scientists in the country. (29)______________, this
made no difference to Isaac, who refused to speak to him for over a year.
The simple fact was that Isaac found it impossible to have a calm discussion with
anyone. As soon as someone said something that he disagreed with, he would lose his (30)
____________. For this reason he lived a large part of his life isolated from other scientists. It
is unlikely that many of them complained.
(Source: https://www.biography.com/scientist/isaac-newton)
Question 26: A. discovery B. research C. findings D. inventions
Question 27: A. shouted B. frightened C. threatened D. warned
Question 28: A. responsible B. reasonable C. guilty D. attributable
Question 29: A. Although B. However C. Despite D. What is more
Question 30: A. anger B. mood C. character D. temper
to each of the questions.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should
drink this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should
be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean
out your kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines
work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our
food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t
drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder
to eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some
people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes
the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light
yellow, you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably
need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier.
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 32: According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the
body, EXCEPT ___________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Question 34: The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
______________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
to each of the question.
Grandparents are becoming the forgotten generation, with youngsters now too busy to
listen to their stories from the olden days.
A study of 1,000 five to 18 year-olds reveals just 21 per cent will visit their older
relatives to hear about how their lives were different in the past; such as where they worked,
how it was living in the war, and how they met the love of their life. More than half of youths
have no idea what job their grandparent did before retirement – admitting they’d never
thought to ask. Sadly, one in 10 admitted they are simply not interested in their
grandmother’s or grandad’s previous job or talents and interests, and a quarter only turn up to
see them for pocket money. But 23 per cent claim the reason they don’t know anything about
their older relatives is because they don’t really get the chance to talk properly.
Geoff Bates, spokesman for McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational Generation campaign,
said: “We know this generation have lived full lives with heroic tales to tell and so much to
offer, but how many of us have actually thought to ask these questions of our older family
members? We want to shout about the amazing feats retirees have achieved in their lifetime
and put the spotlight on the wonderfully colorful lives of today’s older people. We are calling
on parents and children to talk to their grandparents, to find out what they have done in their
lives – and continue to do, and tell us all about it so we can give them the credit they
deserve.”
Researchers found that although 65 per cent of youngsters do see their grandparents
every single week, 37 per cent claim this is only because their parents want them to. And
while 39 per cent talk to their grandparents on the phone, Facebook or Skype at least once a
week – 16 per cent once a day – conversation is rarely focused on what they are doing or
have done in the past. Four in 10 kids have no idea what their grandparents proudest
achievements are, while 30 per cent don’t know if they have any special skills or talents. And
42 per cent don’t spend any time talking about their grandparent’s history – and are therefore
clueless about what their grandmother or grandad was like when they were younger. Perhaps
due to this lack of communication and respect, just six per cent of children say they look up
to their grandparents as a role model and inspiration. However, grandchildren are agreed
their grandparents are both loving and friendly, while 43 per cent think they’re funny – with
23 per cent admitting they often have more fun with their elderly relatives than their parents.
(Source: https://www.independent.co.uk)
A. Grandparents are outdated people in their families.
B. Young people now do not concern much about their grandparents.
C. Grandparents are not interested in telling stories about their life in the past any more.
D. Young people are too busy to take care of their grandparents.
Question 37: According to the study in paragraph 2, which information is NOT true?
A. Merely over one fifth of people in the survey keep asking about the bygone time of
their grandparents.
B. Over 50% of the young don’t know about their older relatives’ professions before
superannuation.
C. Most of youths visit their grandparents to ask for money.
D. Nearly a quarter of young people don’t have proper opportunities to converse with
their older relatives.
Question 38: The word “feats” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. accomplishments B. failures C. difficulties D. differences
A. parents B. children C. colorful lives D. grandparents
Question 40: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational
Generation campaign _____________.
A. encourages people to ask more questions about their grandparents’ jobs.
B. would like to honour the retirees with their remarkable achievements and experienced
life.
C. hopes to give recognition to the older family members.
D. intends to retell the heroic tales of the older generation and find out what they have done
in the past.
Question 41. According to the last paragraph, the proportion of the young voluntarily visiting
their older family members every week is __________.
A. 37% B. 65% C. 28% D. 39%
Question 42: The author implied in the last paragraph that ____________.
A. youngsters nowadays are too indifferent to their grandparents’ lives in the former
times.
B. more youths use modern technology to keep in touch with their older generation.
C. grandchildren do not have much time to care for their elderly relatives’ special skills
and talents.
D. lack of communication and respect is the main reason why youngsters are not
interested in what their grandparents have done in the past.
Question 43: It is essential that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in
order to assure a successful cure. A B C D
Question 44: Having deciding on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant
information
A B C
for it.
D
Question 45: The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.
A B C D
Question 46: Tet holiday is the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival that he's ever
attended.
A. Tet holiday is more interesting than the Vietnamese traditional festival that he’s ever
attended.
B. He has never attended a more interesting Vietnamese traditional festival than Tet
holiday.
C. He has attended many interesting Vietnamese traditional festivals including Tet
holiday.
D. Tet holiday is one of the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festivals he's ever
attended.
Question 47: “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I
got home!” the woman told her son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the
key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she
saw the keys on the table.
C. The Woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the
key on the table.
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing
that she saw the keys on the table.
Question 48: Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly.
D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.
Question 49: You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you are by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
Question 50: As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show.
B. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided that you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you.
D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it.
-----THE END-----
39 2023
Question 1: A. emblem B. member C. regret D. theme
Question 2: A. definitions B. documents C. combs D. doors
Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 3: A. pursue B. enroll C. legend D. export
Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. compassion D. submarine
questions.
Question 5: To Hoa, her father is the greatest person in the world and he always sets a good
_______ for her.
A. role B. behavior C. example D. action
Question 6: Food and drinks which strongly______ the body can cause stress.
A. boost B. motivate C. encourage D. stimulate
Question 7: They were so _________ about joining the local volunteer group that they
couldn’t sleep last night.
A. excite B. excitement C. exciting D. excited
Question 8: In Japan, ______ most important holiday of ______ season is New Year’s Day,
which comes one week after Christmas.
A. the - the B. ∅ - the C. the - ∅ D. the - a
Question 9: The travel industry should work with local councils and government agencies to
agree ____________ realistic standards for planning and development in tourist areas.
A. upon B. with C. at D. for
Question 10: In Viet Nam, you shouldn't ________ at somebody's house on the first day of
the New Year unless you have been invited by the house owner.
A. show up B. get up C. put up D. go up
Question 11: The Convention for the Rights of Persons with Disabilities came into _______
on 3rd May 2008.
A. action B. force C. truth D. reality
Question 12: I_______ for the information about the differences between further education
and higher education all this morning.
A. had searched B. have been searched
C. have been searching D. have searched
Question 13: ______ interested in Curling, I would try to learn more about this sport.
A. Were I B. If I am C. Should I D. I was
Question 14: After seeing the film Memoir of a Geisha, ____________.
A. the book was read by many people B. the book made many people want to read it
C. many people wanted to read the book D. the reading of the book interested
people
Question 15: I won't buy that car because it has too much __________ on it.
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
Question 16: _____ is wiping out many kinds of plants and animals.
A. Defoliation B. Deforestation C. Deformation D. Degradation
Question 17: __________ Jim was waiting for Sam outside the cinema, he realized that the
street was funnily crowded.
A. So B. While C. Unless D. Even though
Question 18: She's been ______ gymnastics since she was 5 years old.
A. doing B. going C. playing D. practicing
Question 19: _________ demand for the product, we decided to invest much money in
manufacturing goods.
A. Satisfying B. Having satisfied
C. To satisfy D. Having been satisfied
Question 20: After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1989, the 13th National Congress of
the Communist Party of Viet Nam adopted a resolution to have 'more friends and fewer
enemies'.
A. breakdown B. breakthrough C. break-in D. outbreak
Question 21: Local people have cut down the forests to make way for farming.
A. allow farming to take place B. lose way in farming
C. have a way of farming D. give way to farming
Question 22: We greatly respect my teacher for all of the best things that she brought to us.
A. look up to B. look forwards C. look for D. look down on
Question 23: During the Great Depression, many people suddenly found
themselves jobless after a night.
A. unemployed B. redundant C. unoccupied D. supplementary
Question 24: - Nam: “As women live longer than men, should they retire later?”
- Lan: “___________________.”
A. When women are retired, they want to enjoy life.
B. When men are retired, they still want to continue working.
C. The government is still discussing the retirement age.
D. I don't think so. Physically, they are weaker and they need to retire earlier.
Question 25: - Thuy: “Don't forget to finish your homework before class.”
- Ngan: “_________________.”
A. Do it later.
B. Not much.
C. It's quite difficult.
D. Thank you for reminding me.
All living things require energy to do the work necessary for survival and
reproduction. But what is energy? Energy is simply the ability to do work, (26) ____ work is
done when a force moves an object. Let's consider your own needs for a moment. You need
energy to turn on and turn off your computer. You need energy to (27) ____ of bed in the
morning. And, yes, you need energy to reproduce. So where does energy come from and how
do we use it? On Earth, energy ultimately comes from the sun. Plants use the sun's energy to
make sugar. Organisms, in turn, use sugar as a (28) ____ of energy to do work.

Plants use energy from sunlight to make sugar and oxygen from carbon dioxide and
water. The process by which carbon dioxide and water are (29) ____ to sugar and oxygen
using sunlight is referred to as photosynthesis. This is an endergonic reaction, meaning
energy is required by the reaction. Specifically, energy is required to put the carbon dioxide
and the water molecules together to form sugar. Sun (30) ____ the energy needed to drive
photosynthesis, and some of the energy used to make the sugar is stored in the sugar
molecule.
Question 26: A. which B. that C. why D. where
Question 27: A. get out B. get up C. wake out D. wake up
Question 28: A. degree B. scale C. source D. format
Question 29: A. purchased B. converted C. exchanged D. removed
Question 30: A. absorbs B. transfers C. consumes D. provides
Women often complain that the men in their lives are not romantic enough. But men
sometimes have trouble expressing their feelings, often resorting to cheesy Hallmark cards or
pricey bejeweled baubles to do the job for them. But there is a far better way to be romantic
and it doesn’t involve spending a fortune or even opening your mouth.
In the days before courting consisted of hanging out and getting drinks, courting was
a formal and dignified endeavor. Symbols were used to express feelings and thoughts
deemed too special for mere words. During the Victorian Era, a whole romantic language
developed around the giving and receiving of flowers. Everything from the type and size of
the flower to the way it was held or presented conveyed layers of meaning and communicated
a gentleman’s feelings and intentions. Each bouquet contained a secret message for a lady to
eagerly interpret and endlessly dissect.
These days giving flowers has become a somewhat ho-hum cliché. Resurrecting this
Victorian tradition will infuse the gesture with new life and romance and bring back some of
the subtly, mystery, and fun of courtship. Your lady will swoon that you put far more thought
into your selection of flowers than grabbing a bouquet out of the case at Wal-Mart. You’ll
come off as a real gentleman and a hopeless romantic. It can become an amazing tradition
you’ll both enjoy. Seriously, women eat this stuff up.
Of course, even women nowadays have forgotten the meanings of flowers. So buy your
lady a flower dictionary. And keep a copy for yourself (it’s important that you both use the
same reference, as the meanings were never set in stone and can sometimes vary from book to
book). Then, each time you present her with a bouquet, she can search the volume to find what
secret messages you have embedded in the flowers.
(Source: www.artofmanliness.com)
Question 31: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To complain that men are not romantic enough.
B. To prove that men are not as romantic as women.
C. To suggest ways for men to be more romantic.
D. To explain what is called “romance”.
Question 32: The word “dignified” in paragraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. serious B. trivial C. unimportant D. slight
Question 33: Which of the following does NOT express a secret message for the female
receiver during the Victorian Era?
A. The kind of flowers B. The size of flowers
C. The way flowers are wrapped D. The colors of the flowers
Question 34: As mentioned in the third paragraph, it’s so moving if a man ____________.
A. takes a bouquet available
B. thinks of the flowers carefully before choosing.
C. enjoys giving flowers to a woman.
D. gives his woman something to eat.
Question 35: What does the word “her” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. your lady B. women C. yourself D. a flower dictionary

Plastic bags are used by everybody. From a vegetable vendor to a designer store,
everyone seems to use them. Even though they are one of the modern conveniences that we
seem to be unable to do without, they are responsible for causing pollution, killing wildlife,
and using up the precious resources of the Earth. But, most of us are blissfully unaware of
the repercussions that are occurring and will take place in the future because of the plastic
bags.
Every once in a while, the government passes out an order banning store owners from
providing plastic bags to customers for carrying their purchases, with little lasting effect.
Plastic bags are very popular with both retailers as well as consumers because they are cheap,
strong, lightweight, functional, as well as a hygienic means of carrying food as well as other
goods. About a hundred billion plastic bags are used every year in the U.S. alone. And then,
when one considers the huge economies and populations of India, China, Europe, and other
parts of the world, the numbers can be staggering. The problem is further exacerbated by the
developed countries shipping off their plastic waste to developing countries like India.
Once they are used, most bags go into landfills. Each year, more and more bags are
ending up littering the environment. Once they become litter, plastic bags find their way into
our waterways, parks, beaches, and streets. And, if they are burned, they infuse the air with
toxic fumes. About 100,000 animals, such as dolphins, turtles, whales, penguins are killed
every year due to these bags. Many animals ingest plastic bags, mistaking them for food, and
therefore, die. And worse, the ingested plastic bag remains intact even after the death and
decomposition of the animal. Thus, it lies around in the landscape where another victim may
ingest it. One of the worst environmental effects is that they are non-biodegradable. The
decomposition takes about 400 years. No one will live so long to witness the decomposition
of plastic! Thus, save the environment for the future generations as well as animals.
Petroleum products are diminishing and getting more expensive by the day, since we
have used this non-renewable resource increasingly. And to make plastic, about 60-100
million barrels of oil are needed every year around the world. Surely, this precious resource
should not be wasted on producing plastic bags, should it? Petroleum is vital for our modern
way of life. It is necessary for our energy requirements - for our factories, transportation,
heating, lighting, and so on. Without viable alternative sources of energy yet on the horizon,
if the supply of petroleum were to be turned off, it would lead to practically the entire world
grinding to a halt.
So, what can be done? A tote bag can make a good substitute for carrying groceries
and the shopping. You can keep the bag with the cashier, and then put your purchases
into it instead of the usual plastic bag. Recycling the bags you already have is another good
idea. These can come into use for various purposes, like holding your garbage, instead of
purchasing new ones. While governments may be working out ways to lessen the impact of
plastic bags on the environment; however, each of us should shoulder some of the
responsibility for this problem, which ultimately harms us. Plastics are not only non-
biodegradable, but are one of the major pollutants of the sea. For a clean and green
environment, try to use alternatives to plastic whenever and wherever possible. Cut down
your use of plastic, and do your bit to save our planet.
(Source: https://helpsavenature.com/)
A. Plastic pollution - Problems and solutions.
B. Harmful effects of plastic bags on the environment.
C. Plastic pollution - What should we do?
D. Plastic bags - New threat for the environment.
Question 37: What is the synonym of the word “repercussions” in the first paragraph?
A. situation B. interference C. contamination D. consequence
Question 38: According to the second paragraph, what is NOT true about the reality of
plastic bags?
A. The more population a country has, the more complicated the plastic pollution is.
B. Plastic bags are often used because of their convenience.
C. Importing plastic waste from developed countries makes the problem more
sophisticated.
D. The governments do not prohibit the use of plastic bags at the stores.
Question 39: The following are the negative effects of plastic bags on the
environment, EXCEPT ________.
A. They make water, soil and air polluted.
B. Marine animals may die because of eating plastic bags.
C. It takes plastic bags a very long time to be biodegraded.
D. People do not live long enough to check whether plastic bags are decomposed or not.
Question 40: The word “intact” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. undamaged B. broken C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 41: What does the word “it” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the cashier B. the bag C. the shopping D. a good substitute
Question 42: What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Plastic bags should be limited as much as possible to save the Earth from their
harmful impacts.
B. Each individual should reuse their plastic bags to save money for other purchases.
C. The governments should cooperate with every citizen in cleaning the plastic bags in
the polluted oceans.
D. It is easier to keep the environment clean at first than to save it after it is polluted.
Question 43: These companies were accused on having released a large amount of carbon
dioxide into the atmosphere. A B C D
Question 44. Annoying by the receptionist's behavior, they decided not to stay in that hotel.
A B C D
Question 45: He acknowledges that sometime art simply holds up a mirror to the society it
is born from.
A B C D
Question 46: I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Question 47: I’ve never seen such a nice bouquet of wedding flowers.
A. This bouquet of wedding flowers is the nicest that I’ve ever made.
B. This is the nicest bouquet of wedding flowers that I’ve ever seen.
C. I have never seen the nicest bouquet of wedding flowers so far.
D. Nothing I’ve seen is nicer than this bouquet of wedding flowers.
Question 48: "I don't think Janet will win this time" said Tony.
A. Tony wondered if Janet would win this time.
B. Tony believed that Janet would win that time.
C. Tony doubted whether Janet would win that time.
D. Tony suggested that Janet should try to win that time.
Question 49: Marie prepared her homework carefully. She could answer all the questions
and got good marks.
A. Although she prepared her homework carefully, Marie could not answer all the
questions and got good marks.
B. Having prepared her homework carefully, Marie could answer all the questions and
got good marks.
C. If she had prepared her homework carefully, Marie could have answered all the
questions and got good marks.
D. It was because of her careful preparation for the homework, Marie couldn't answer all
the questions and got good marks.
Question 50: The plane will leave on time. The weather may be nice or not.
A. The plane will leave on time regardless of the weather.
B. The plane will leave on time only if the weather were good.
C. The flight will be cancelled due to the fact that the weather is not nice.
D. The plane won't leave if the weather is bad.
-----THE END-----
40 2023
Question 1: A. nourish B. flourish C. courageous D. courage
Question 2: A. tickled B. published C. produced D. replaced
Question 3: A. transcript B. preserve C. training D. royal
Question 4: A. meaningful B. portable C. interact D. handkerchief
Question 5: He took one of ______ books at _____ random.
A. 0/0 B. the/0 C. 0/the D. 0/a
Question 6: I _______the book about artificial intelligence by tomorrow, then you can
borrow it.
A. will finish B. will be finishing C. will have finished D. finish
Question 7: The government ordered the military ______ robots to access remote areas that
are dangerous to the lives of militants.
A. to designing B. design C. to design D. design
Question 8: A nature reserve _____ from a natural park usually in being smaller and having
its sole purpose as the protection of nature.
A. differing B. different C. differs D. that differs
Question 9: It is unquestionable that the incorporation of artificial intelligence in computer
revolution has brought _____ greater impacts into people's lives.
A. in B. out C. over D. about
Question 10: It is important to keep ourselves clean______ germs can cause infections in
parts of our body.
A. although B. unless C. while D. because
Question 11: In The Sociology of Science, ________ a classic, Robert Merton discusses
cultural, economic and social forces that contributed to the development of modern science.
A. now considering B. now considered C. which considers D. which
considered
Question 12: If his family had not been so poor that he did several part-time jobs when he
was at university, ______now.
A. he would not be so experienced B. he will not be so experienced
C. he would not have been so experienced D. he would be so experienced
Question 13: It is recommended that proper actions_______ to protect wildlife and wild
places.
A. to be taken B. be taken C. to be done D. be done
Question 14: When I told my family I wanted to be a professional musician, I faced a
______ of criticism from my parents, who strongly disapproved of the idea.
A. barrage B. barricade C. blast D. attack
Question 15: When my daughter was a baby, I noticed that she developed a ______ liking
for classical music, and when she was six I signed her up for violin classes.
A. special B. particular C. specific D. dominant
Question 16: I _____ an instant dislike to Sam from the moment we were introduced. Within
five minutes, he was talking about his ____dislike of foreigners - without knowing that my
own parents were immigrants from Argentina.
A. had/ extreme B. kept/total C. took/deep D. made/instant
Question 17: Randy Fisher, president of the software company NewTech, is facing _______
of fraud by its chief financial officer, Brian King, who has openly accused Fisher of hiding
millions of dollars of profit in off-shore bank accounts in order to avoid paying taxes.
A. blames B. criticism C. acclaimation D. accusations
Question 18: I hate it when people ______assumptions about me based on my skin color.
A. make B. do C. give D. take
Question 19: __________, he will have worked there for 10 years.
A. While his contract with the company is expiring
B. By the time his contract with the company expires
C. As soon as his contract with the company had expired
D. Before his contract with the company will expire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 20: Learning can be see as something that takes place on an ongoing basis from our
daily
A B
interactions with others and with the world around us.
C D
Question 21: Her ambition and dogged determination ensures that she rose to the top of her
profession.
A B C D
Question 22: My mother couldn't bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our
plates.
A B C D
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Accumulations of sand can be formed by the action of waves on coastal
beaches.
A. Acquisition B. Requirement C. Inquiry D. Acknowledgement
Question 24: My Mum said I had to do all the ironing as a punishment, but I am hoping she
will let me off.
A. punish me B. promise me C. commend me D. forgive me
Question 25: The river has been polluted with toxic waste from local factories.
A. strengthened B. purified C. urbanized D. harmonized
Question 26: Don’t get angry with such a thing. It’s only a storm in a teacup.
A. serious problem B. trivial thing
C. commercial tension D. financial issue
Question 27: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party.
- Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?”
- Linda: “__________________”
A. Why not? B. Yes, I'd love to.
C. I don’t think so. D. No, I‘d love to.
Question 28. Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach.
- Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?”
- Tom: “________________.”
A. Sure. Have a good time there. B. Yes, I think.
C. Could you buy me something? D. Yes, it does.
Question 29: When we asked the Minister about the strike, he declined to comment.
A. On asking us about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
B. When asked about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
C. We declined to comment when the Minister asked us about the strike.
D. Declining to comment, the Minister asked us about the strike.
Question 30: The man with red hair may have caused it.
A. It may have been caused by the man whose his hair was red.
B. The man whose red hair may have caused it.
C. It may have caused by the man whose hair was red.
D. It may have been caused by the man whose hair was red.
Question 31: Every page of this book is full of excitement so once you have opened it you
cannot put it down.
A. Every page of this book is so exciting that once you have opened it you cannot put it
down.
B. Every page of this book is so exciting that it's hard to open it again after putting it
down.
C. Every page book is full of excitement so once you have opened it you can put it
down.
D. Every page of this book is full of excitement, so not until you have opened it can you
notput it down.
Question 32: We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the
threats of cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about
the threats of cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about
the threats of cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of
cybercrime less.
Question 33: My brother was so rude to my friends last night. I now regret it.
A. I wish my brother wouldn’t be so rude to my friends last night.
B. My brother regrets having been so rude to my friends last night.
C. I wish my brother hadn’t been so rude to my friends last night.
D. My brother would have been so rude to my friends last night if I regretted it now.
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A scientist said robots will be more intelligent than humans by 2029. The scientist's
name is Ray Kurzweil. He works for Google as Director of Engineering. He is one of the
world’s leading experts on (34) __________ intelligence (A.l). Mr Kurzweil believes
computers will be able to learn from experiences, just like humans. He also thinks they will
be able to tell jokes and stories, and even flirt. Kurzweil‘s 2029 prediction is a lot sooner than
many people thought. The scientist said that in 1999, many A.I. experts said it would be
hundreds of years (35) __________ a computer was more intelligent than a human. He said
that it would not be long before computer (36) ______ is one billion times more powerful
than the human brain.
Mr Kurzweil joked that many years ago, people thought he was a little crazy for
predicting computers would be as intelligent as humans. His thinking has stayed the same but
everyone else has changed the way they think. He said: “My views are not radical anymore.
I've actually stayed (37)________. It's the rest of the world that's changing its view.” He
highlighted examples of high-tech things we use, see or read about every day. These things
make us believe that computers have intelligence. He said people think differently now:
"Because the public has seen things like Siri (the iPhone’s voice-recognition technology) (38)
__________ you talk to a computer, they've seen the Google self-driving cars."
(Source: https://breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 34: A. artificial B. false C. handmade D. fake
Question 35: A. while B. after C. then D. before
Question 36: A. intelligent B. intelligently C. intelligence D. intelligences
Question 37: A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant
Question 38: A. which B. where C. whom D. what
The world needs to do more to prepare for the impact of a rapidly aging population,
the UN has warned - particularly in developing countries. Within 10 years the number of
people aged over 60 will pass one billion, a report by the UN Population Fund said. The
demographic shift will present huge challenges to countries' welfare, pension and healthcare
systems. The UN agency also said more had to be done to tackle "abuse, neglect and
violence against older persons".
The number of older people worldwide is growing faster than any other age group.
The report, Ageing in the 21st Century: A Celebration and a Challenge, estimates that one in
nine people around the world is older than 60. The elderly population is expected to swell by
200 million in the next decade to surpass one billion, and reach two billion by 2050. This
rising proportion of older people is a consequence of success - improved nutrition, sanitation,
healthcare, education and economic well-being are contributing factors, the report says.
But the UN and a charity that also contributed to the report, Help Age International,
say the aging population is being widely mismanaged. "In many developing countries with
large populations of young people, the challenge is that governments have not put policies
and practices in place to support their current older populations or made enough preparations
for 2050," the agencies said in a joint statement.
(Source: www.ieltsbuddy.com)
A. The influence of the rise in the aged population.
B. The quick increase of the elderly people.
C. The countries with high percentage of the aged.
D. The challenges caused by the aging population.
Question 40: The word “abuse” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
_____________.
A. care B. protection C. insult D. praise
Question 41: The number of the elderly rises because of the following
reasons, EXCEPT ________.
A. sanitation B. medical care
C. economic well-being D. finance
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE about older people?
A. Of all age groups, the elderly have the fastest growth.
B. More aged people will reduce the pressure on countries’ welfare, pension and
healthcare systems.
C. There will be 200 million older people in 2050.
D. The aging population is managed properly.
Question 43: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. governments’ B. policies C. practices D. older populations
Nowadays, most people realize that it’s risky to use credit card numbers online.
However, from time to time, we all use passwords and government ID numbers on the
Internet. We think we are safe, but that may not be true! A new kind of attack is being used
by dishonest people to steal IDs and credit card numbers from innocent websurfers. This new
kind of attack is called “phishing.”
Phishing sounds the same as the word “fishing,” and it implies that a thief is trying
to lure people into giving away valuable information. Like real fishermen, phishers use bait
in the form of great online deals or services. For example, phishers might use fake emails and
false websites to con people into revealing credit card numbers, account usernames, and
passwords. They imitate well-known banks, online sellers, and credit card companies.
Successful phishers may convince as many as five percent of the people they contact to
respond and give away their personal financial information.
Is this really a big problem? Actually, tricking five percent of the online population is
huge! Currently, more than 350 million people have access to the Internet, and seventy-five
percent of those Internet users live in the wealthiest countries on Earth. It has been estimated
that phishers send more than three billion spam messages each year. Even by tricking only
five percent of the people, phishers can make a lot of money.
Since there is so much money to make through this kind of scam, it has caught the
interest of more than just small-time crooks. Recently, police tracked down members of an
organized phishing group in Eastern Europe, who had stolen hundreds of thousands of dollars
from people online. The group created official-looking email messages requesting people to
update their personal information at an international bank’s website. However, the link to the
bank in the message actually sent people to the phishers’ fake websites. To make matters
worse, further investigation revealed that this group had connections to a major crime gang
in Russia.
How can innocent people protect themselves? Above all, they have to learn to
recognize email that has been sent by a phisher. Always be wary of any email with urgent
requests for personal financial information. Phishers typically write upsetting or exciting, but
fake, statements in their emails so that people will reply right away. Also, messages from
phishers will not address recipients by name because they really don’t know who the
recipients are yet. On the other hand, valid messages from your bank or other companies you
normally deal with will typically include your name.
Question 44: Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. A new type of internet attack.
B. Passwords and government ID numbers on the Internet.
C. Innocent websurfers and online risks.
D. Valuable information shared on the internet.
Question 45: The word “lure” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. avert B. obviate C. forestall D. entice
Question 46: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to_______?
A. credit card numbers, account usernames, and passwords
B. people
C. fake emails and false websites
D. phishers
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, why are only 5% of online users tricked a big
problem?
A. Because these 5% of internet users are the wealthiest people among the online
population.
B. Because the number of the online population is myriad and three fourths of them live
in rich nations.
C. Because the number of scam messages sent to these users is more than three billion.
D. Because the personal information these people are tricked is financial.
Question 48: As mentioned in paragraph 4, the trick used by phishers in Eastern Europe is
________.
A. creating fake international bank’s website to deceive police’s investigation
B. requesting users to update information through official-looking email messages
C. connecting people’s personal information to a major crime gang in Russia
D. interesting many small-time crooks to organize a phishing group
Question 49: What suggestion is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
A. Keep calm and be careful with urgent financial messages without your name.
B. You shouldn’t answer any message related to your personal financial information.
C. Ask your bank or company if you receive any upsetting or exciting emails.
D. Be cautious with any email without the name of the sender.
A. Phishers mostly steal the personal information of the wealthiest people.
B. It’s not easy to track down phishers since their websites are false.
C. Recognizing the differences between true and fake messages will help innocent
people protect their information.
D. Successful phishers may steal people’s personal information from false international
banks, online sellers and credit card companies.
-----THE END-----
41 2023
Question 1: A. creates B. faces C. strikes D. cigarettes
Question 2: A. gorgeous B. cordial C. accord D. crossword
Question 3: A. blackmail B. require C. review D. explore
Question 4: A. volunteer B. referee C. recommend D. spiritual
questions.
Question 5: Over the last century, there __________ many significant changes in the way we
live.
A. are B. were C. had been D. have been
Question 6: ____ colleges and universities are the main institutions that provide ____ tertiary
education.
A. Ø – Ø B. The – Ø C. The – the D. Ø – the
Question 7: We are aware that, __________ , the situation will get worse.
A. unless dealing with carefully B. if dealt not carefully with
C. if not carefully dealt with D. if not carefully dealing with
Question 8: Some colors disappear quickly in the sea but blue light bounces back or is
reflected, to the surface. This makes the sea look blue. ______ , a stormy sky will make the
sea look grey.
A. Therefore B. Hence C. Consequently D. However
Question 9: Although many people use the word "milk" to __________ to cows’milk, it also
applies to milk from any animal, including human milk and goat’s milk.
A. refer B. prefer C. mention D. address
Question 10: __________ becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are
C. Are giant pandas D. The giant panda is
Question 11: To come __________ somebody means to meet him/her by chance.
A. into B. across C. between D. up
Question 12: They appeared __________ pessimistic about their chances of winning.
A. surprisingly B. advisedly C. firmly D. repeatedly
Question 13: Your basic needs are the things you __________ to live a normal life.
A. must B. had C. must have D. must have had
Question 14: ____ to rent a flat, we set about contacting all the accommodation agencies in
the city.
A. Deciding B. Having decided C. To decide D. Decided
Question 15: The responsibility of the __________ is to know how to discover, cure, and
rehabilitate the health both of the individuals and the community.
A. physics B. physicist C. physicality D. physician
Question 16: Dr. Johnson is a very __________ man in our neighborhood.
A. impossible B. unlike C. unpopular D. disliked
Question 17: I found it very stressful living in the centre of town, so I was pleased when we
moved to a quiet residential area in the __________ .
A. edge B. suburbs C. estate D. outskirts
Question 18: I had no idea that you and he were on such intimate __________. I thought you
were only casual acquaintances.
A. spans B. periods C. terms D. semesters
Question 19: James read that book, __________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 20: The building had originally been a manor house and must have looked
beautiful in its heyday.
A. the beginning stage B. period of trial
C. a phase of depression D. a time of great success
Question 21: Certain parts of town were restricted to residential use, while others were
set aside for industrial or commercial development.
A. kept for a special purpose B. used for building factories
C. reserved for the future D. changed for the better
Question 22: He's really out of shape, so he'd better start exercising. Otherwise, he won't be
able to join us on the hiking trip next month.
A. out of work B. unhealthy and stressed
C. physically fit D. always joyful
Question 23: Many new medicines today eradicate diseases before they become too
widespread.
A. wipe out B. get rid of C. speed up D. find out
THE RISE OF OLDER CITIES
Many older cities are having modern makeovers and they are being given a new (24)
______ . Sometimes the impetus for this type of change comes from the need to provide new
facilities for particular events being held in the city - a sporting event, or something similar.
On other occasions the change just seems to take place almost naturally.
Take Birmingham, for instance, (25) __________ it was previously an unfashionable
place to live, it has now become trendy, and this change has been brought about largely by
the new-look architecture that can be found everywhere in the city. The old shopping centre
has been knocked down and completely rebuilt, and new shopping malls are (26) ________
to attract shoppers with the high quality of their services and goods. The area located around
the canal, once hidden away and surrounded by decaying factories was often used as a
rubbish tip, but it has now become a trendy place made up of modern offices, bars, sought-
after apartments and restaurants. To (27) __________ up, Birmingham has become the place
to be. Even in what was formerly the poorest part of the city an old factory has been
converted into a lively complex of studios, galleries and coffee bars. With its theatres,
museums and football teams Birmingham is (28) ____ worth visiting and has something for
everyone.
Question 24: A. look B. view C. panorama D. sight
Question 25: A. Even B. Since C. As D. Although
Question 26: A. competing B. competitive C. competition D. competitor
Question 27: A. end B. sum C. finish D. break
Question 28: A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. well
Question 29: Since they would study in the same primary school, they have known each
other.
A B C D
Question 30: The first time that Gertrude went skiing, she bruised one of her legs and
broke another.
A B C D
Question 31: That the patient's condition had worsened so quickly surprising the doctor.
A B C D
When we think of the renewable energy transition, we often have in mind dark blue
photovoltaic rectangles carpeting the landscape or large three-blade horizontal axis wind
turbines marching along mountain ridges or into the sea. We think about grid reliability and
consumer cost per kilowatt-hour, or we think about the climate change apocalypse that we
will impose on future generations if we fail to act swiftly enough. All of these elements are
important from technical and policy perspectives, but there is something missing that will be
key to success if we are to meet the goals that we have set for ourselves. We must recognize
the importance of human culture to the realization of change.
It is a lack of imagination that has brought us to the brink, and it will be an influx of
imagination that can possibly pull us back from it. If we are going to succeed in reducing
carbon emissions, we must make the solutions more visible, inspire the general public, and
get people excited about the renewable energy transition.
This is the mission of the Land Art Generator Initiative (LAGI), a nonprofit that
works with cities around the world on civic art installations that also function as renewable
energy infrastructures. These generous works of art give back more than just beauty and
return more than just kilowatt hours on their capital investment. LAGI design competitions
have changed the way that cities and developers manage the integration of public art and
creative placemaking into the master planning process for new developments. Competitions
for Dubai/Abu Dhabi (2010), New York City (2012), Copenhagen (2014), Glasgow (2015),
Santa Monica (2016), Willimantic (2017), and Melbourne (2018) have brought in over 1,000
designs from 60+ countries.
(Source: https://www.archdaily.com/)
A. When aesthetics meets practicality. B. A pioneer in sustainability and energy.
C. Future scenarios for renewables. D. Green energy mitigating climate change.
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, which is the consideration that the constructors fail
to notice?
A. The price for sustainable energy. B. Future unwanted consequences.
C. The projects’ impact on humans. D. The resilience of electric line.
Question 34: The word “influx” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. invasion B. swamp C. downpour D. entrance
A. change B. brink C. success D. imagination
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, which area is NOT mentioned as the participants of
the design contest?
A. Copenhagen B. Buenos Aires. C. Santa Monica D. Glasgow
Question 37: "Stop smoking or you'll be ill", the doctor told me.
A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 38: He didn't hurry, so he missed the plane.
A. If he hurried, he wouldn't miss the plane.
B. If he had hurried, he wouldn't have caught the plane.
C. If he had hurried, he could have caught the plane.
D. He didn't miss the plane because he was hurried.
Question 39: No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.
A. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.
B. As soon as James started working, he realized that his decision had not been a good
one.
C. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one.
D. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.
Question 40: - Nam: "Guess what! I won that photo competition!"
- Nick: “____”
- Nam: "No! First prize is a camera, I'll get it next week!"
A. Sound lovely B. Yes, spot on C. You're kidding D. What a pity
Question 41: - “How about some chocolate?”
- “__________”
A. Yes. Why not chocolate now? B. Thank you for your attention.
C. It's OK. Chocolate is good. D. No, thanks. I'm on a diet.
By mid-century, there will likely be 9 billion people on the planet, consuming ever
more resources and leading ever more technologically complex lives. What will our cities be
like? How much will artificial intelligence advance? Will global
warming trigger catastrophic changes, or will we be able to engineer our way out of the
climate change crisis?
Making predictions is, by nature, a dicey business, but to celebrate the 40th
anniversary of Smithsonian magazine Big Think asked top minds from a variety of fields to
weigh in on what the future holds 40 years from now. The result is our latest special series,
Life in 2050. Demographic changes in world population and population growth will certainly
be dramatic. Rockefeller University mathematical biologist Joel Cohen says it's likely that by
2050 the majority of the people in the world will live in urban areas, and will have a
significantly higher average age than people today. Cities theorist Richard Florida thinks
urbanization trends will reinvent the education system of the United States, making our
economy less real estate driven and erasing the divisions between home and work.
Large migrations from developing countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, Bangladesh,
Mexico, and countries in the Middle East could disrupt western governments and harm the
unity of France, Germany, Spain, the Netherlands, Poland, and the United Kingdom under the
umbrella of the European Union.
And rapidly advancing technology will continue ever more rapidly. According to Bill
Mitchell, the late director of MIT's Smart Cities research group, cities of the future won't look
like "some sort of science-fiction fantasy" or "Star Trek" but it's likely that "discreet,
unobtrusive" technological advances and information overlays, i.e. virtual reality and
augmented reality, will change how we live in significant ways. Self-driving cars will make
the roads safer, drive more efficiently, and provide faster transports. A larger version of
driverless cars—driverless trucks—may make long-haul drivers obsolete.
Meanwhile, the Internet will continue to radically transform media, destroying the
traditional model of what a news organization is, says author and former New York Times
Public Editor, Daniel Okrent, who believes the most common kinds of news organizations in
the future will be "individuals and small alliances of individuals" reporting and publishing on
niche topics.
(Source: https://bigthink.com)
A. The population in the future B. The advanced artificial intelligence
C. The life in 2050 D. Global warming and its impacts
Question 43: The word “trigger” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
_____________.
A. cause B. prevent C. encourage D. promote
Question 44: Which of the following predictions in paragraph 2 is NOT true?
A. The world population will grow considerably.
B. The humans will have a longer life span.
C. Urbanization trends will increase the separation between home and workplace.
D. More and more inhabitants choose urban areas to live.
Question 45: The word “disrupt” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______________.
A. settle B. establish C. disturb D. replace
Question 46: According to paragraph 4, the following countries are damaged by the
migrations, EXCEPT ____________.
A. the countries in the Middle East B. Germany
C. the United Kingdom D. the Netherlands
Question 47: What is the problem caused by advanced technology for future humans in
paragraph 4?
A. It makes people likely to live in virtual reality.
B. It will be unsafe for people to drive their cars on the roads.
C. Long - haul drivers may become unemployed.
D. People’s lives will be getting worse.
Question 48: What does the word “who” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. Daniel Okrent B. New York Times C. author D. traditional model
Question 49: The region's average rainfall is high. Few streams and rivers can be seen there.
A. Because of the region's high average rainfall, few streams and rivers can be seen
there.
B. The region's average rainfall is so high that few streams and rivers can be seen there.
C. If the region's average rainfall were high, more streams and rivers could be seen
there.
D. In spite of the region's high average rainfall, few streams and rivers can be seen there.
Question 50: Boys and girls can't be real friends. Tara's grandmother thinks so.
A. Tara's grandmother finds it impossible for boys and girls to be real friends.
B. Tara's grandmother makes it impossible for boys and girls to be real friends.
C. Tara's grandmother finds it possible for boys and girls to be real friends.
D. Tara's grandmother makes it possible for boys and girls to be real friends.
-----THE END-----
42 2023
Question 1: A. weighs B. coughs C. ploughs D. soughs
Question 2: A. nation B. national C. nationality D. nationally
Question 3: A. intellect B. insecure C. visitor D. slavery
Question 4: A. combustion B. achievement C. ambitious D. dominant

questions.
Question 5: ____ Internet is offering human beings a wide range of benefits and some
drawbacks as well.
A. The B. Ø C. A D. An
Question 6: Last year, my father __________ , but now after a bad cough, he has given it up.
A. was always smoking B. always smokes
C. always smoked D. had always smoked
Question 7: John admitted ____ a lot of compulsory courses in his higher education
curriculum.
A. to skip B. to have skipped
C. to be skipping D. to having skipped
Question 8: If my time-management skills had been better, I ______________ from serious
stress when I was in university.
A. wouldn't suffer B. hadn't suffered
C. will not suffer D. wouldn't have suffered
Question 9: An individual has not started living until he can rise above the narrow confines
of his _____________ concerns to the broader concerns of all humanity.
A. individual B. individualistic C. individualism D. individualize
Question 10: One of the main drawbacks of office work is that people can be easily inflicted
________ back pains.
A. from B. with C. by D. on
Question 11: In a relationship if you are giving and getting nothing back in _______, stop
giving so much, and spend time being. Give to yourself, be who you are.
A. fact B. the end C. addition D. return
Question 12: As you grow older, you will discover that you have two hands - one for helping
yourself, ______________ for helping others.
A. another B. other C. two D. the other
Question 13: In the United States, there has risen a demand that guns __________ from the
public.
A. are banned B. ban C. be banned D. banned
Question 14: She thinks very _____ of him although he behaves badly to her.
A. openly B. kindly C. highly D. widely
Question 15: Alex dreams of going on tour – he’s just waiting for his big ________ to get his
foot in the door of the music industry.
A. deal B. break C. cake D. cheese
Question 16: When someone is down on their _____, friends are not easy to find.
A. mood B. luck C. fortune D. merit
Question 17: The widened _________ will help keep traffic flowing during rush hours.
A. entryway B. runway C. freeway D. pathway
Question 18: We all thought that Doug was _________ to be an artist, so we were very
surprised when he became a trader on Wall Street.
A. likely B. about C. bound D. due
Question 19: Have you seen that __________ invention?
A. fantastic new Italian B. new fantastic Italian
C. new Italian fantastic D. Italian new fantastic
Question 20: ln 1921, accompanied by her two daughters, Marie Curie made
a triumphant journey to the United States to raise funds for research on radium.
A. sorrowful B. difficult C. adventurous D. victorious
Question 21: Although the general manager is officially in charge, everyone knows his
deputy is really in the driving seat.
A. out of control B. on duty
C. abusing of power D. in control of a situation

Question 22: The matches went on till as late as 10 p.m. on Saturday and even then the A
division final had to be carried over to the next day.
A. brought forward B. put out C. moved out D. put off
Question 23: Urbanization is the triumph of the unnatural over the natural, the grid over the
organic.
A. failure B. effort C. power D. side
STREET PAPERS
The problem of homelessness is an international one. In the capital cities of the world,
the sight of people begging on the streets is becoming increasingly rare. But all over the
world, homeless people are taking the future into their own (24) _____________. By selling
"street papers" they no longer need to beg for a (25) ____________.
The concept of the street paper is simple. It is sold by homeless and ex-homeless
people (26)________ buy it at a fixed price of 30p and sell it to the public for 70p, keeping
40p for themselves. If they have no money, then they can get the first ten copies on (27)
_____________ and pay for them later. Every paper seller receives training and is given a
special identity badge.
The paper itself contains articles of general and social interest, film and book reviews,
cartoons and the occasional celebrity interview. Advertising and sales provide most of the
income, and all profits go (28) ______________ into helping homeless people.
Question 24: A. heads B. shoulders C. mouths D. hands
Question 25: A. living B. life C. lively D. live
Question 26: A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
Question 27: A. cash B. cheque C. credit D. card
Question 28: A. forward B. out C. through D. back
Question 29: Though the police tried their best to catch the thief, he was escaped.
A B C D
Question 30: I'm sorry to inform that he can have done very well, but he was lazy.
A B C D
Question 31: The lesions caused by the activity of the scolytid create an entry site
for secondary infection
A B C
by bacterium and fungi.
D
In the near term, the goal of keeping AI’s impact on society beneficial motivates
research in many areas, from economics and law to technical topics such as verification,
validity, security and control. Whereas it may be little more than a minor nuisance if your
laptop crashes or gets hacked, it becomes all the more important that an AI system does what
you want it to do if it controls your car, your airplane, your pacemaker, your automated
trading system or your power grid. Another short-term challenge is preventing a devastating
arms race in lethal autonomous weapons.
In the long term, an important question is what will happen if the quest for strong AI
succeeds and an AI system becomes better than humans at all cognitive tasks. Such a system
could potentially undergo recursive self-improvement, triggering an intelligence explosion
leaving human intellect far behind. By inventing revolutionary new technologies, such a
superintelligence might help us eradicate war, disease, and poverty, and so the creation of
strong AI might be the biggest event in human history. Some experts have expressed concern,
though, that it might also be the last, unless we learn to align the goals of the AI with ours
before it becomes superintelligent.
There are some who question whether strong AI will ever be achieved, and others
who insist that the creation of superintelligent AI is guaranteed to be beneficial. At FLI we
recognize both of these possibilities, but also recognize the potential for an artificial
intelligence system to intentionally or unintentionally cause great harm. We believe research
today will help us better prepare for and prevent such potentially negative consequences in
the future, thus enjoying the benefits of AI while avoiding pitfalls.
(Source: https://www.beyondteaching.com/)
A. Transcending complacency on superintelligent machines.
B. No time like the present for AI safety work.
C. The importance of researching AI safety.
D. Challenges to ensuring the safety of AI systems.
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, what is NOT mentioned as a potential benefit of AI?
A. Facilitating the identification system. B. Managing the electricity in homes.
C. Controlling vehicles and gadgets. D. Curing life-threatening diseases.
Question 34: The word “recursive” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. repeated C. impossible D. monotonous
A. event B. human C. history D. poverty
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, which information is incorrect about the future of
AI?
A. We cannot deny the likelihood of AI turning on its creator – the human.
B. The emergence of superintelligence will yield valuable benefits for humans.
C. One of the focus of AI systems nowadays should be preparation and preventive
measures.
D. The probability of malicious artificial intelligence is an unexpected zero.
Question 37: Meaningful silence is always better than meaningless words.
A. Meaningless words are not so good as meaningful silence.
B. Meaningful silence is the best among meaningful words.
C. Silence is always less meaningful than words are.
D. Words are always meaningless, and so is silence.
Question 38: "It's the funniest show I've ever seen," Susan said.
A. Susan said that it was the funniest show she had ever seen.
B. Susan said that she's never seen such a funny show before.
C. Susan said no other shows in the world were as funny as this one.
D. Susan said that this was one of the funniest shows of all time.
Question 39: It was wrong of you to scare your brother like that.
A. You must not scare your brother like that.
B. You ought not to have scared your brother like that.
C. You should have scared your brother like that.
D. You should not scare your brother like that.
Question 40: Two graduates are talking with each other.
- Student A: “Then, are you working or taking a postgraduate course?”
- Student B: “________.”
A. I think I should earn a living myself rather than live on my parents.
B. I'm for working and getting experience before going into further study.
C. I think taking a postgraduate course when unemployed will really do.
D. I guess, taking a course is better than doing nothing.
Question 41: - A: “What do you think about time management skill?”
- B: “_____________.”
A. It's time to go. B. I quite agree with you.
C. It is an important life skill. D. I can't help thinking about it.

People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This
represents one of the crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant
challenge. Longer lives must be planned for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and
lead to many other issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and
communities to provide resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global
Burden of Disease, a study conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very
large increase in age-related chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will
be a significant challenge for all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and
longevity. In more developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has
resulted in current levels being below the population replacement rate of two live births per
woman. Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the past 20 years has been
the pace of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total
fertility rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship
between the official retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the
latter part of the 20th century, many of the more developed nations lowered the official age at
which people become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general
economic conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the
recent trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between
official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging
developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed
reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the
age at which workers are eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for
bolstering economic security for older people has been to increase the contributions by
workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial
instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and
supplemental occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations
within a family coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the
‘beanpole family,’ a vertical extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the
number of living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people within
each generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s
will have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their
grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-grandmothers. There is
no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging
population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 43: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by
the aging in the society, EXCEPT ___________.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Question 44: What can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. The birthrate in developed countries is less than that in developing nations.
B. The increase in the death rate led to the shortage of laborers in developed countries.
C. The fertility of the world population is not enough to substitute for the elderly.
D. The improvement in medical care is one of the reasons for falling fertility.
Question 45: What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Question 46: The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age
social insurance programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive a pension.
B. The encouragement of the elderly to contribute more in the economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 48: The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. illustrated B. demonstrated C. proved D. recognized
Question 49: Disabled people can contribute to our community. Non-disabled people can
also contribute to our community.
A. Either disabled people or non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
B. Both disabled people and non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
C. Only disabled people not non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
D. Neither disabled people nor non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
Question 50: More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English. They recognize
the importance of the language.
A. As more and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, they recognize the
importance of the language.
B. Seeing the importance of English, more and more Vietnamese youngsters are
studying the language.
C. More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, but they recognize the
D. More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, or they recognize the
-----THE END-----
43 2023
Question 1: A. plays B. says C. stays D. days
Question 2: A. advertiser B. advertising C. advertisement D. advertise
Question 3: A. nature B. canal C. occur D. record
Question 4: A. conservative B. flexibility C. refugee D. population
questions.
Question 5: He plagued me ___________ stupid questions all through lunch.
A. for B. at C. with D. on
Question 6: Mrs Florida felt that her marriage had become __________ prison.
A. a B. the C. Ø D. an
Question 7: - "Which CD did you get Marcus in the end?"
- "I got him the one ____ said he really wanted to hear."
A. that B. who he C. whose D. which he
Question 8: To get their message across, animal activists are even willing to ______ the use
of violence.
A. make use of B. take advantage of
C. resort to D. make allowance for
Question 9: Peter says that they__________ the party in the garden if the weather_______
good.
A. would have/was B. will have/is C. would have/is D. have/is
Question 10: People believe that many anonymous poetic satires and letters were attributed
to this mythical ____________.
A. personnel B. personality C. personage D. personalize
Question 11: Nutritionists report that diets that are high in saturated fat clog up our arteries,
_________ reducing the blood flow to our hearts and brains.
A. thereby B. so C. therefore D. as a result
Question 12: “I will marry you when I __________ up”, my little son said to Jimmy.
A. grow B. grew C. have grown D. will grow
Question 13: The Hawaiian alphabet, introduced by missionaries in the 1820's, __________
and only seven consonants.
A. consists of five vowels B. that consists of five vowels
C. consisting of five vowels D. the five vowels of which consist of
Question 14: There are fascinating and _____________ stories of everyday life and insights
into how different people live
A. thought-provoking B. thought-bound C. thought-controlled D. thought-
executing
Question 15: Many others certainly don't see it that way and are adamant that the late
politician was largely to blame for having a(n) ______________ for the vision but scant
regard for the detail.
A. eye B. ear C. nose D. tongue
Question 16: People also need to _____the same warnings in mind if they use mobile phones
and email.
A. take B. put C. bear D. have
Question 17: Running can make your heart work __________ harder than just walking.
A. vigorously B. significantly C. generally D. possibly
Question 18: Many people__________ the advanced learning of some children who take
music lessons to other personality traits, such as motivation and persistence, which are
required in all types of learning.
A. distinguish B. accredit C. criticize D. appraise
Question 19: Don't distract me while I'm working, __________?
A. won’t you B. aren’t I C. do you D. will you
Question 20: No matter how the connection between language and music is parsed, what is
apparent is that our sense of music, even our love for it, is as deeply rooted in our biology and
in our brains as language is.
A. related B. separated C. detached D. construed
Question 21: A rumor is floating about that the businessman is getting ready to waste
millions again in a futile attempt to become governor, but that's relevant only to the coyotes
who will take his money.
A. concealing B. circulating C. obscuring D. covering

Question 22: Successful desert plants are resilient to scorching summers and frigid winters,
drought, and high-salt conditions.
A. rigid B. flexible C. tough D. sturdy
Question 23: But some of the weird writing calls that composer to mind, especially in the
more reflective moments of the second movement.
A. recalls that composer B. forgets that composer
C. reminds that composer D. distracts that composer
Tattooing has been around for thousands of years. The act of making a permanent
design or mark on the body was originally thought to (24) ______________ magical
protection against disease and misfortune. Later, it was used to show a person's social status.
The Romans, for example, used to tattoo slaves and criminals.
With the arrival of Christianity in Europe, tattooing was forbidden. It virtually died
out for hundreds of years, until European explorers came into (25) ________ with American
Indians and Polynesians in the 17th and 18th centuries. Sailors would return from long
voyages, decorated with large and elaborate designs. Many of these sailors later joined
circuses, and earned a living by showing their tattoos to the public.
Nowadays, tattooing is neither as unusual, nor as popular as it once was. Tattoo
parlors do exist, but most people are unwilling to go (26) ____________ the rather painful
procedure. On the other hand, temporary tattoos are becoming increasingly common. The
design, (27)_______lasts for three to six weeks, is painted painlessly onto the skin.
Other people still prefer the (28) _________, permanent techniques, of course. The
world record for the most-tattooed person is held by Tom Leppard from Scotland. His
leopard-skin design covers 99.2% of his body surface!
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/art/tattoo)
Question 24: A. prove B. do C. make D. provide
Question 25: A. touch B. contact C. meeting D. communication
Question 26: A. under B. along C. through D. with
Question 27: A. what B. which C. that D. whom
Question 28: A. original B. originate C. originality D. origin
Question 29: In South Korea, the national government has been
built English immersion schools all over the country. A B C D
Question 30: In the United States, the burning of fossil fuels making electricity is the largest
source of
A B C
heat-trapping pollution.
D
Question 31: Raw chemical litter is being pumped into the sea, from where it pollutes our
beaches.
A B C D
Though the conservation movement had European roots, many observers maintain
that the United States has emerged as the world's leader in environmentalism.
The transcendentalism of the early 1800s and its celebration of the natural world
arrived just in time to be trampled underfoot by the ravages of the Industrial Revolution. As
forests disappeared under the ax of reckless timber barons, coal became a popular source of
energy. Unfettered use of coal in homes and factories resulted in horrific air pollution in cities
like London, Philadelphia, and Paris.
In the 1850s, a carnival huckster named George Gale heard about an immense
California redwood that was over 600 years old when Jesus was born. Upon seeing the
magnificent tree, nicknamed The Mother of the Forest, Gale hired men to cut the tree down
so that its bark could be displayed in his sideshow. The reaction to Gale's stunt, however, was
swift and ugly: "To our mind, it seems a cruel idea, a perfect desecration, to cut down such a
splendid tree ... what in the world could have possessed any mortal to embark in such a
speculation with this mountain of wood?," wrote one editor.
The growing realization that human industry was obliterating irreplaceable wilderness
-- and endangering human health -- resulted in the earliest efforts at managing natural
resources. In 1872, Yellowstone National Park was created, the first of what became one of
America's best ideas: a network of national parks that were strictly off-limits to exploitation.
(Source: https://www.thoughtco.com)
A. The green movement and the industrial revolution.
B. Unimaginable callousness towards nature.
C. The fragility of our environment in the hands of humans.
D. Industrialization happened at a bad time.
Question 33: The word “ravages” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. appearance B. impression C. destruction D. flow
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what made George Gale want to destroy such a holy
tree?
A. The desire to preserve the tree beauty in his own way.
B. His instant and gratuitous self-gratification.
C. Profit from selling its wood.
D. His indifference and unbelief towards Jesus.
A. the tree B. carnival huckster C. bark D. stunt
Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what was the earliest milestone of green history in
the USA?
A. Understanding the importance of protecting natural resources.
B. The idea of Earth Day celebration.
C. The establishment of the oldest national park in the world.
D. The introduction of transcendentalism movement in the 1800s.
Urbanization degrades the environment, according to conventional wisdom. This view
has led many developing countries to limit rural - urban migration and curb urban expansion.
But this view is incorrect. There are a number of reasons urbanization can be good for the
environment, if managed properly.
First, urbanization brings higher productivity because of its positive externalities and
economies of scale. Asian urban productivity is more than 5.5 times that of rural areas. The
same output can be produced using fewer resources with urban agglomeration than without.
In this sense, urbanization reduces the ecological footprint. The service sector requires
urbanization because it needs a concentration of clients. As services generally pollute less
than manufacturing, this aspect of urbanization is also beneficial to the environment.
Second, for any given population, the high urban density is benign for the
environment. The urban economics literature shows that compactness is a key determinant of
energy use. High density can make public transport more viable and reduce the length of
trips. Urban living encourages walking and cycling rather than driving. Third, environment-
friendly infrastructure and public services such as piped water, sanitation, and waste
management are much easier and more economical to construct, maintain, and operate in an
urban setting. Urbanization allows more people to have access to environment-friendly
facilities and services at affordable prices.
Fourth, urbanization drives innovation, including green technologies. In the long term,
environment-friendly equipment, machines, vehicles, and utilities will determine the future of
the green economy. Green innovations in Asia's cities will be supported by the region's vast
market as the billions of people who will be buying energy-efficient products will create
opportunities and incentives for entrepreneurs to invest in developing such products. Finally,
the higher standard of living associated with urbanization provides people with better food,
education, housing, and health care. Urban growth generates revenues that fund infrastructure
projects, reducing congestion and improving public health. Urbanization fosters a pro-
environment stance among property owners and the middle class, which is crucial for the
introduction and enforcement of environmental laws and regulations.
Of course, urbanization also comes with costs. Millions of people are migrating to
Asian cities and companies are locating there to employ them. Urban sprawl and industrial
activities, such as power generation, transportation, construction, garbage and waste disposal,
harm the environment. An assessment of the impact of urbanization on the environment must
balance its benign and adverse effects.
(Source: https://www.asiapathways-adbi.org/)
A. Urban sprawl brings challenges.
B. Five things to do in the age of urbanization.
C. Urbanization might actually do some good.
D. Driving force behind urbanization.
Question 38: The word “footprint” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. area B. damage C. mark D. limit
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, through which can the optimization of power be
achieved?
A. High-powered public transport.
B. The awareness of commuters
C. Interconnected relationships of townspeople
D. The proximity of places in cities.
Question 40: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. gentle B. harmful C. considerate D. overwhelming
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, why is the promotion of an environmentally friendly
attitude necessary?
A. So that the government will not need a forceful means of regulation
B. It is conducive to the later intervention of legal rules.
C. Urbanization cannot proceed further without the consideration for nature.
D. Due to the conscience of the affluent
A. The service industry does more harm than good.
B. The term urbanization refers to when the lifestyle that is common in a city becomes
prevalent
C. Visionary technologies can ensure environmentally sustainable development.
D. The detrimental effects of urbanization on the environment cannot be reversed.
Question 43: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. migrants B. Asian cities C. costs D. clients
Question 44: "You mustn't forget to put a stamp on," said the clerk.
A. The clerk told me that I mustn't put a stamp on.
B. The clerk reminded me to put a stamp on.
C. I told the clerk that I mustn't put a stamp on.
D. I told the clerk not to forget to put a stamp on.
Question 45: I have never been as relaxed as my sister when talking to our father.
A. My sister has always been more relaxed than me when she talks to our father.
B. I have never tried to be relaxed when talking to our father but my sister has.
C. My sister has always been less relaxed than me when talking to our father.
D. Both my sister and I are equally relaxed when we talk to our father.
Question 46: I guess Mary was very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
A. Mary should have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
B. Mary may have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
C. Mary must have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
D. Mary could have been disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
Question 47: - A: “____________.” - B: “That's a good idea.”
A. Why not take a trip to the Citadel in Hue this summer holiday?
B. What happened to the Citadel in Hue after the storm?
C. Have you heard about the Citadel in Hue?
D. How can we book a tour to the Citadel in Hue this summer holiday?
Question 48: - A: “Jenny is always late for appointments.” - B: “Yes. ________________”
A. But she is having an appointment.
B. But she will never be appointed to the position.
C. And the appointment is never late, too.
D. And she always knows how to make an excuse.
Question 49: ASEAN is an international organization. It consists of 10 countries located in
Southeast Asia.
A. ASEAN is an international organization, so it consists of 10 countries located in
Southeast Asia.
B. An international organization which consists of 10 countries located in Southeast
Asia is called ASEAN.
C. ASEAN is an international organization, consisting of 10 countries located in
Southeast Asia.
D. ASEAN is an international organization having consisted of 10 countries located in
Southeast Asia.
Question 50: A hurricane is defined as a tropical storm. In this storm, winds attain speeds
greater than 120 kilometers per hour.
A. A hurricane in which winds attain speeds greater than 120 kilometers per hour is
defined as a tropical storm.
B. A hurricane is defined as a tropical storm in which winds attain speeds greater than
120 kilometers per hour.
C. Defined as a cyclone, winds in a tropical storm often attain speeds greater than 120
kilometers per hour.
D. Because a hurricane is defined as a tropical storm, its winds attain speeds greater than
120 kilometers per hour.
-----THE END-----
44 2023
Question 1: A. envelopes B. communicates C. headaches D. judges
Question 2: A. geyser B. honeymoon C. journey D. money
Question 3: A. workforce B. career C. downside D. battle
Question 4: A. assessment B. measurable C. description D. effective
questions.
Question 5: People believe that habitual learners are more likely to put themselves _______
new and challenging social situations throughout life.
A. at B. by C. of D. into
Question 6: We can only give you ______ approximate number of refugees crossing the
border at the moment.
Question 7: The existence of such a centre is expected to help ASEAN members facilitate
assistance to any country __________ by a disaster.
A. hit B. to hit C. hits D. hitting
Question 8: After __________ the train, we managed to find our seats and then relax on the
long trip ahead.
A. boarding B. having board C. we have boarded D. had boarded
Question 9: Unless you ____________ your heart, you might spend the rest of your life
wishing you had.
A. followed B. follow C. had followed D. following
Question 10: Winning the cup in 1998 was just a ___________ in the pan – they haven’t
won the match since then.
A. blaze B. flame C. light D. flash
Question 11: It is estimated by some linguists that this total is actually in the region of
around 1.8 billion, due to the English language being taught in many Asian schools,
__________ being something of a lingual Francesca of the world.
A. because of B. so as to C. as well as D. so long as
Question 12: He'll give you a call as soon as he ____________.
A. will arrive B. arrives C. is arriving D. is going to arrive
Question 13: There is a lot of traffic so we are trying to find an ______ route.
A. alternate B. alternative C. alternation D. alternated
Question 14: We take it rather as a time for reflection and _________ realism about how far
the nation has progressed on the path towards freedom and democracy, and how much farther
we still have to go.
A. clear-sighted B. short-sighted C. long-sighted D. far-sighted
Question 15: You won’t pile on the ___________ if you eat one of our tasty snacks
whenever you’re feeling hungry.
A. pounds B. weights C. kilograms D. scales
Question 16: In recent years, China has ____________ the lead in global warming pollution,
producing about 28 percent of all CO2 emissions.
A. put B. taken C. given D. done
Question 17: The United States, China and India are now competing for political influence in
ASEAN, and France, a leading European country, does not want to be ___________.
A. left out B. put off C. thought of D. led on
Question 18: Don’t ___ in my presentation with your comments like that. It is so annoying
and rude.
A. take B. chip C. but D. cut
Question 19: Mrs Carter feels happy _____ her daughter has made good progress in her
studies recently.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 20: Understanding the need for change is essential for the ability to
successfully cope with these challenges.
A. get rid of B. deal with C. go down D. keep up with
Question 21: He stressed that the idea of the event is to grab the public's attention with their
favorite acts, rather than to give them a diverse arts festival.
A. distract B. evaluate C. change D. attract
Question 22: The best hope of avoiding a down-market tabloid TV future lies in the
pressure currently being put on the networks to clean up their act.
A. expensive B. cheap C. inferior D. economical
Question 23: Danny put the cat among the pigeons by suggesting that the company might
have to make some redundancies.
A. made other people disappointed B. made other people nervous
C. made a lot of people satisfied D. made a lot of people worried
BRITPOP
In the early to mid-1990s Britpop artists, influenced by British guitar sounds of the
1960s and 70s, wrote about topics that were considered purely British and relevant to their
generation. The music style with its (24) __________ songs was considered as a reaction
against the grunge music that was arriving from the States and, in fact, it did not have a huge
commercial success in the USA.
Britpop bands included Suede, Pulp, Blur and Oasis but it was the (25) __________
two that really dominated the market. In 1994 Blur released their album Parklife (26) ______
had a strong retro feel from the 70s and Oasis released Definitely Maybe, again with a retro
feel reminiscent of John Lennon.
The two bands were often seen (27) __________ rivals and this was exaggerated by
the media who emphasized their differences in origins and class: Oasis from the north of
England, Blur from the south. This culminated in both bands releasing singles on the same
day in 1985, with Blur's single Country House reaching number one in the charts and
Oasis's Roll With It number two. Oasis, however, went on to have greater commercial
success, particularly with the album (What's the story) Morning Glory? (1985) which sold
412 million (28) __________ in the UK.
Question 24: A. caught B. catchy C. catcher D. catch-up
Question 25: A. latest B. later C. latter D. late
Question 26: A. what B. where C. when D. which
Question 27: A. as B. like C. but D. if
Question 28: A. versions B. copies C. editions D. episodes
the following questions
Question 29: The Department of Foreign Languages are not located in the
new building opposite the old one. A B C D
Question 30: Urban legends are funny, surprising or scary stories that told again and again,
often by
A B
people saying that they happen to ‘a friend of a friend’.
C D
Question 31: His ambition and doggy determination ensured that he rose to the top of
his profession.
A B C D
In today's fast-paced industry, learning will most likely involve seeking new skills in
ways that challenge the norm. But thankfully, there is a promise for such lifelong learning
online - a promise that will save you time and money while helping you earn more of both.
Provided you have access to a decent computer and the Internet, the barrier to getting
started is probably lower than it ever has been. And with those things in place, it is a matter
of finding the content you wish to learn. So, to help others who may be looking to maximize
their own learning efforts, I have listed some quick tips below.
First, set achievable goals. When you start learning, it is a good idea to set goals about
what you want to learn or what you might do with your newly acquired knowledge. It might
be landing that new job, building a tangible product, or impressing your current management.
The goals may vary in size and complexity, but do revisit these goals throughout your
learning process. Within a couple of weeks ask yourself, "Am I getting closer to my goal?" or
"Am I learning the skills necessary to reach my goals?" If you are not, then you may need to
look elsewhere.
Second, learn with others. By yourself, learning anything has a high propensity to
become frustrating. Try teaming up with friends or colleagues. They can often be your best
resource for maintaining motivation while you learn.
Third, make it a habit. Online habits often include scrolling through social media or
watching videos on YouTube. If you have the downtime for such activities, then you could
spend that downtime learning something. And why not learn something? If you do, then you
will have plenty more to talk about on social media anyways. So, make learning your new
online habit by making a commitment to learning something new each day.
Question 32: What does the word "both" in Paragraph 1 refer to?
A. Time and money B. Lifelong and online learning
C. New skills and ways D. Industry and technology
Question 33: According to the passage, what are the basic condition for learning online?
A. A smartphone and a 4-G sim card B. A computer and the Internet
C. A goal and learning efforts D. A content and the wish to learn
Question 34: According to the passage, what is the first step of learning online?
A. Buying a computer and having it checked every two weeks.
B. Landing a new job and building a tangible product.
C. Setting practical goals and checking them regularly.
D. Varying your goals in size as well as complexity.
Question 35: What is the word "commitment" in the last paragraph closest in meaning to?
A. a rule B. a chance C. a need D. a situation
A. Tips for lifelong learning B. Advantages of the Internet
C. Changes of technology D. Effects of social media
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in
evolutionary history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out
onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater
with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions,
snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and
various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land,
none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life,
including breathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land
animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned
to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates
might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales
(including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the
manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their
remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air,
having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation.
Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the
water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water
than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor
which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys
quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear
to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoises. You might wonder how we can
tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found.
Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with
fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like
dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring
the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 37: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidence of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the
water least completely?
A. whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 39: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 40: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing
to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Question 43: It can be inferred from the last passage that _____________.
A. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and
marine species.
B. turtles’ ancestors and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily.
C. it’s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found.
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have similar appearances to dolphins.
Question 44: Tome denied breaking the teacher's laptop.
A. "No, I refuse to break the teacher's laptop."
B. "No, I didn't intend to break the teacher's laptop."
C. "It is not I who broke the teacher's laptop."
D. The teacher's laptop was not what I wanted to break."
Question 45: No other student in his class is as successful as Pat.
A. Pat succeeded in beating all other students in his class.
B. Pat is the most successful student in his class.
C. His class is less successful than Pat is
D. The more successful his class is, the more success Pat gets.
Question 46: To let Harold join our new project was silly as he knows little about our
company.
A. Harold couldn’t have joined our new project with such poor knowledge about our
company.
B. Harold must have known so little about our company that he wasn’t let to join our
new project.
C. We shouldn’t have allowed Harold to join our new project as he doesn’t know much
about our company.
D. We would have joined the new project with Harold provided that he knew much about
our company.
Question 47: - Hoa: “_______________________”
- Jeny: “It's plausible and it can bring about big changes.”
A. How about launching a project on recycling waste?
B. What do you think about the project on recycling?
C. I couldn't have put the project better myself.
D. Could you help me with the project on recycling?

Question 48: - Lan: “Will you be able to finish the report in three days?”
- Minh: “_________________________”
A. I don't hope that B. I will have great difficulty.
C. I'm afraid not D. Wow! What can I do?
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy.
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: Beethoven's first teacher was his father. He often pulled Beethoven out of bed
to practice until morning.
A. As Beethoven's father often pulled him out of bed to practice until morning, he
became Beethoven's first teacher.
B. Beethoven's first teacher was his father who used to pull him out of bed to practice
until morning.
C. To be Beethoven's first teacher, Beethoven's father used to pull him out of bed to practice
until morning.
D. Being his first teacher, Beethoven's father had to pull Beethoven out of bed to practice
until morning.
-----THE END-----
45 2023
Question 1: A. weighed B. coughed C. used D. laughed
Question 2: A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease
Question 3: A. achieve B. unite C. curious D. unique
Question 4: A. relationship B. arrangement C. challenging D. eliminate
questions.
Question 5: The historical building seems to have been ______ construction for quite some
time.
A. in B. under C. on D. below
Question 6: The two nations came into _____ conflict over air pollution. The two
governments solved the dispute peacefully.
A. some B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 7: When Tommy started to learn French, he had a difficult time ______ the words
correctly.
A. pronounce B. pronunciation C. pronouncing D. to pronounce
Question 8: ______ about the exam results, she rushed home to tell her family the good
news.
A. Exciting B. Excited C. To excite D. Having excited
Question 9: Only if I had known the difference ________ the more expensive car.
A. would I bought B. would I have bought
C. would I buy D. I would have bought

Question 10: Although she had never met him before, she could fall into a ___________with
him easily.
A. conversation B. speech C. dialogue D. conservation
Question 11: He was well-prepared for the interview; ________; he couldn’t help
stammering before the exam
A. therefore B. on the other hand C. what’s worse D. nevertheless
Question 12: I have been saving money because I _____ buy a computer.
A. shall B. will C. am going to D. would
Question 13: Unfortunately, Tom’s illness turned out to be extremely _____ so he was kept
in isolation.
A. infectious B. infection C. infect D. infectiously
Question 14: If Bill loses his job, at least they have Mary’s income to _______on.
A. fall behind B. fall for C. fall back D. fall under
Question 15: In Korea, all men have to __________ military service for a period of time in
their lives.
A. do B. make C. have D. take
Question 16: Global warming is damaging the environment ______, governments are trying
to reduce this warning.
A. Consequently B. Unequivocally C. Evidently D. Indisputably
Question 17: I have never been to South America before and I can’t speak _____ of Spanish.
A. people B. a word C. words D. sentences
Question 18: She gave me her_______________ that she would pay me back immediately.
A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance
Question 19: You have to collect the children from school at 3 o’clock, __________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. shall we D. will you
Question 20: The new system for assessing claims is expected to come into operation early
next month.
A. finish working B. start working
C. continue working D. postpone working
Question 21: Now that Jack has a new car, he no longer takes the commuter train to work
every day.
A. Because B. Because of C. As a result D. Nonetheless
Question 22: Before the group of doctors would give their opinion they wanted
to confer with each other.
A. conceal B. confirm C. confess D. confide
Question 23: I can’t write that kind of letter unless I’m in the right frame of mind.
A. high spirits B. good mood C. bad mood D. low spirits
The (24) _________ over vending machines in schools is not new. For a long time,
regional governments and public schools have been deliberating on whether or not it is a
good idea to have vending machines in schools. In America, (25) __________, only one state
has banned these machines in its public schools. Around the country, however, most state
schools have different rules about how many and how often vending machines should be
accessible to students. Although some people believe that having these drink and snack
machines in schools is a good idea, others (26) _________ that there are many disadvantages,
too.
Doctors and other health workers, for instance, suggest that the main disadvantage of
having vending machines in schools is based on health and (27) ________. They cite
statistics that show school – aged children have poorly balanced diets, often due to eating too
much fast food. If vending machines are introduced to schools, children will have yet another
option for eating unhealthy foods. In a survey of vending machines sales across the country,
it was found that sweet drinks like colas and sugary snacks like candy bars were the biggest
sellers. Sugary foods and drinks commonly cause obesity in consumers. Opponents of
vending machines in schools worry that we are teaching children to be obese.
(28)__________ the problem of childhood obesity, it is plausible to say that children’s health
problems will only get worse if vending machines are followed in schools.
(Source: Academic Pathways)
Question 24: A. argument B. debate C. quarrel D. row
Question 25: A. for example B. however C. instead D. thus
Question 26: A. intend B. content C. contend D. extend
Question 27: A. nutritious B. nutrition C. nutritional D. nutritionist
Question 28: A. Providing B. Assuming C. Supposing D. Considering
Question 29: Over 20 years went by but I never forgot the time we first met each other.
A B C D
Question 30: It's believed that young kids should have taught to make peace rather than war.
A B C D
Question 31: By 2050, the population in this area is expected to double what of 2002.
A B C D
The great debate, “Is cheerleading a sport?” It’s the topic that will get any cheerleader
fired up and ready to defend their side. The definition of sport from the Oxford Dictionary is
“An activity involving physical exertion and skill in which an individual or team competes
against another or others for entertainment.” Cheer has a competitive nature and it takes both
mental and physical ability to succeed. Hollywood has made the “cheerleading character”
into a fantasy where all the boys are after them, they’re dumb and they parade around in short
skirts. Of course you should never trust the appearance of movies because it’s Hollywood and
not reality.
First off, cheerleading has a purpose. The purpose is to encourage positivity and
entertain at athletic games and events. Without cheerleaders the “circle of energy” in a game
would be non-existent. It’s a sporting event tradition that has lasted for over 100 years.
Also cheerleaders do train for what they do. Just as a football player would,
cheerleaders train too. How else do you think the girls get thrown in the air and come down
safely? Cheerleaders have to lift weights and do cardio just as any other athlete would.
Stunting is the most exciting, entertaining, and dangerous part of cheerleading. Most injuries
from cheer end up being concussions, broken bones, stitches, and not to mention the
endless bruises. It ranks 1st in the catastrophic sports injuries for women and 2nd in all
sports combined next to football.
I believe every sport should have support from others because the athletes care and
are passionate about what they do. Cheerleading has its challenges and rewards like every
other sport and I believe it’s time for cheerleaders to be recognized for their hard work.
(Source: https://theeyrie.org/)
Question 32: The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. The gendered politics of sport. B. Why cheerleading is a sport.
C. Catastrophic cheerleading injuries. D. The masculine aspect of cheerleading.
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, in what sense is cheerleading considered a sport?
A. Competitive cheerleading is a spiritually and corporeally demanding sport.
B. Cheerleading’s primary purpose is to compete in skills, and supporting athletic teams
comes second.
C. Cheerleading has outstanding aestheticism to make up for its lack of athleticism.
D. It is governed by rules that explicitly define the time, space, and purpose of the
contest.
A. Cheerleading B. Game C. Football D. Positivity
Question 35: The word “bruises” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. laceration B. scratch C. trauma D. contusion
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what activity is NOT included in cheerleading
training?
A. Stunting and tumbling. B. Dumbbell exercise.
C. Powerlifting exercise. D. Cardiorespiratory
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen?
You're not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising
ways that technology intersects with teen friendships—and the results show that 57 percent of
teens have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of
those digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend
55 percent of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual
time with their friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of
communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day —27 percent of teens instant
message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7
percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication —
almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen method of communication with their
closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new
friends (and maintaining friendships) in the gaming world—89 percent play with friends they
know, and 54 percent play with online-only friends. Whether they're close with their
teammates or not, online gamers say that playing makes them feel "more connected" to
friends they know, or gamers they've never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage
identity - 62 percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when
connecting with a new friend (although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best
method of contact). Despite the negative consequences - 21 percent of teenage users feel
worse about their lives because of posts they see on social media - teens also have found
support and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received
support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay
connected with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study
reveals that girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all
teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on social media."
(Source: https://www.realsimple.com/)
A. Social media affects friendship too much.
B. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
C. The difference in making new friends between girls and boys.
D. Social media connects friendship.
Question 38: The word “digital” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 39: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their
friends?
A. 25% B. 55% C. 27% D. 23%
Question 40: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _______________.
A. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online.
B. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made.
C. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain the relationship with friends.
D. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships.
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_____________.
A. friends B. online gamers C. their teammates D. online-only friends
A. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
B. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
C. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in
their lives.
D. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face
challenges in their lives.
Question 43: What is the synonym of the word “breakup” in the last paragraph?
A. termination B. divorce C. commencing D. popularity
Question 44: Steve said to Mike, “Don’t touch the electric wires. It might be deadly.”
A. Steve warned Mike about not touching the electric wires as it might be deadly.
B. Steve warned Mike against touching the wires as it might have been deadly.
C. Steve warned that Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.
D. Steve warned Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly
Question 45: However much effort he puts in to it, I’m sure he’ll never make a success of the
business.
A. Unless he’s willing to make more of an effort, the business is never likely to be a
success.
B. No matter how hard he tries, it’s clear that he won’t ever turn that business into a
going concern.
C. He’s a failure as a businessman even though he is extremely hard-working.
D. The success of the business will be obviously depend upon the amount of hard work
he puts into it.
Question 46: It wasn’t necessary for you to go to the doctor to have a check-up because you
just had your check-up last week.
A. You couldn’t have gone to the doctor to have a check-up because you just had your
check-up last week.
B. You can’t have gone to the doctor to have a check-up because you just had your
check-up last week.
C. You needn’t have gone to the doctor to have a check-up because you just had your
check-up last week.
D. You shouldn’t have gone to the doctor to have a check-up because you just had your
check-up last week.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges
Question 47: A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport.
- Officer: “Welcome. Can I see your ticket, please?”
- Client: “________”
A. Yes, here you are. B. Can you tell me how to get to gate A22?
C. Thank you for all your help. D. Can I have a seat near the emergency exit?
Question 48: Two friends are talking with each other about a musical concert.
- A: “Hey, there is a musical concert in the park. Do you want to go seeing the band play?”
- B: “________.”
A. How long ago did the band start playing at our park?
B. I am done with my homework; I can go.
C. Oh, I like all kinds of music as long as it is not Hard Rock.
D. My favorite is Rock and Roll music.
Question 49: As we go far to the north, we are less likely to meet high temperature.
A. The farther north we go, the less likely we are to meet high temperature.
B. The further north we go, the less likely we are to meet high temperature.
C. The farther we go to the north, the more likely we are to meet high temperature.
D. Both A and B are correct.
Question 50: At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements.
They make it one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
A. At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements which
makes it one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
B. At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements making
it one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
C. At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements that
making it one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
D. At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements made it
one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
-----THE END-----
46 2023
Question 1: A. terrified B. influenced C. averaged D. accompanied
Question 2: A. identify B. final C. applicant D. decide
Question 3: A. enroll B. promote C. require D. danger
Question 4: A. optimistic B. diversity C. environment D. assimilate
questions.
Question 5: It is a policy in our school that you should turn __________ your student's card
when you leave the college.
A. out B. in C. down D. into
Question 6: By training additional staff, management could significantly ease
_____________ burden on its over-worked personnel.
Question 7: At the start of the 21st century, Liverpool still takes pride in its achievements,
____ it one of the most exciting places to visit in the UK.
A. that makes B. made C. making D. to make
Question 8: My worst exam moment happened when I was caught ____ by my mum after a
history exam.
A. cheat B. cheating C. to cheat D. cheated
Question 9: If you both __________ furniture for a new house, it's important to speak your
mind and make a joint decision.
A. chose B. could choose C. choose D. may choose
Question 10: Don't trust him. He is just a wolf in sheep's ________________.
A. clothing B. clothes C. cloth D. skin
Question 11: My responsibilities there included __________ serving customers as well as
shelf-filling and answering the phone.
A. Ø B. such C. like D. as
Question 12: Don't put the laptop away – I ____ using it yet.
A. don't finish B. haven't finished C. didn't finish D. won't finish
Question 13: If you are really convinced that what you have to do is ____, it would be easier
to say no to things that you are not responsible.
A. essential B. essentially C. essences D. essentialist
Question 14: Many technological innovations, such as the telephone, ____ the result of
sudden bursts of inspiration, in fact were preceded by many inconclusive efforts.
A. whose appearance B. that appear to be C. and appear to be D. are
appearing
Question 15: Regarding what food to avoid before taking an important examination,
homophones and the shape of your food comes into __________ .
A. action B. fact C. reality D. play
Question 16: Students are restrained from eating bananas prior to an exam for ____ of failing
'like sliding on a banana skin'.
A. cheer B. fear C. scare D. anger
Question 17: Do you find it easier to___________ what's happening when you watch a film
in English?
A. see through B. work out C. make up D. get round
Question 18: There is no longer the ___________ use of animals to test products. Only some
are used.
A. extensive B. intensive C. tentative D. expansive
Question 19: You will not know who your true friend is __________.
A. as soon as you had trouble and needed help
B. until you have trouble and need help
C. when you were having trouble and needing help
D. after you had had trouble and needed help
Question 20: A person who suffers from stage fright is easily intimidated by a large
audience.
A. inspired B. applauded C. frightened D. expelled
Question 21: Educators are complaining that students rely on social media so much that they
lose the ability to think critically.
A. insist on B. appear on C. depend on D. decide on
Question 22: If a friend is usually very smart but suddenly doesn't understand a simple joke,
you might say he is thick.
A. slow to learn new things B. clever at telling jokes
C. quick to understand everything D. not interested in funny stories
Question 23: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. began to dislike it
Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in
densely (24)________ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of
economic development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society.
However, it also (25) __________ various problems for local authorities and town planners
in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries.
When too many people cram into a small area, the urban infrastructure can't be
effective. There will be a (26) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This
will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization
is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has
little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation.
Their children only manage to get a basic education. Hence, the struggle for (27) ________ is
their first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is
improved, can they seek (28) ________ other high values in their life.
Question 24: A. popular B. crowded C. populated D. numerous
Question 25: A. poses B. offers C. leads D. imposes
Question 26: A. appearance B. plenty C. loss D. lack
Question 27: A. survive B. survival C. survivor D. survived
Question 28: A. about B. for C. with D. on
Question 29: The Angkor complex represented the entire range of Khmer art from the 9th to the
14th century.
A B C D
Question 30: Special attention needs for the development of ecotourism and local people
should also
A B
involve themselves in the protection of the property.
C D
Question 31: Contrary to that the papers claim, they are not going to reconstruct
the ancient houses.
A B C D
Optimists have plenty to be happy about. In other words, if you can convince yourself
that things will get better, the odds of it happening will improve - because you keep on
playing the game. In this light, optimism “is a habitual way of explaining your setbacks to
yourself”, reports Martin Seligman, the psychology professor and author of Learned
Optimism. The research shows that when times get tough, optimists do better than pessimists
- they succeed better at work, respond better to stress, suffer fewer depressive episodes, and
achieve more personal goals.
Studies also show that belief can help with the financial pinch. Chad Wallens, a social
forecaster at the Henley Centre who surveyed middle-class Britons’ beliefs about income, has
found that “the people who feel wealthiest, and those who feel poorest, actually have almost
the same amount of money at their disposal. Their attitudes and behaviour patterns, however,
are different from one another.”
Optimists have something else to be cheerful about - in general, they are more robust.
For example, a study of 660 volunteers by the Yale University psychologist Dr. Becca Levy
found that thinking positively adds an average of seven years to your life. Other American
research claims to have identified a physical mechanism behind this. A Harvard Medical
School study of 670 men found that optimists have significantly better lung function. The
lead author, Dr. Rosalind Wright, believes that attitude somehow strengthens the immune
system. “Preliminary studies on heart patients suggest that, by changing a per¬son’s outlook,
you can improve their mortality risk,” she says.
Few studies have tried to ascertain the proportion of optimists in the world. But a
1995 nationwide survey conducted by the American magazine Adweek found that about half
the population counted themselves as optimists, with women slightly more apt than men (53
per cent versus 48 per cent) to see the sunny side.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
A. The benefits of sanguine thoughts.
B. The influences of proper attitudes.
C. The successful life of optimists.
D. The comparison between optimism and pessimism.
Question 33: What does the word “they” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. pessimists B. times
C. psychology professor and author D. optimists
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about
optimism?
A. Optimists are superior in dealing with troubles than pessimists.
B. The differences between positive and negative people are attitudes and behavior, not
income.
C. Positive outlook may aggravate people’s mortality risk.
D. Females are proved to be more optimistic than men.
Question 35: The word “robust” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. feeble B. vigorous C. delicate D. shaky

Question 36: As mentioned in the passage, who found that optimists have a longer life
expectancy than negative counterparts?
A. Martin Seligman B. Chad Wallens
C. Dr. Becca Levy D. Dr. Rosalind Wright
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when
they grow up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law.
However, old-fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present
challenging questions for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all
know what these stereotypes are: A “feminine” girl should be insecure, accommodating and a
little illogical in her thinking. A “masculine” boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive,
and competitive. How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the
researchers David and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D.C., boys
and girls are often treated differently in the classroom. They found out that when boys speak,
teachers usually offer constructive comments, when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on
the behavior. It’s more important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
example, few people would give pink baby clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later,
many of us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and
construction sets. There’s nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain
activities are deemed appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J.
Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the National Resource Center for Girls, Inc., this kind of
practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
“The fact is,” says Nicholson, “that society functions as a kind of sorting machine
regarding gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six
percent of boys earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven
percent of boys but only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work”. If we are
serious about educating a generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate
such stereotypes as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming
aware of the messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome
these incorrect ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and
support their children, and encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society’s fixed
ideas about differences of sext are.
(Source: https://en.islcollective.com)
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 38: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American
University of Washington, D.C found that ______________.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys’ behavior and girls’ manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong,
unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 39: What does the word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout
childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures
and construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 40: The word “deemed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender
stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they
should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. It’s beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally
quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at home but also at schools.
Question 42: The word “counteract” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
______________.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
A. Parents are able to help reduce the influence of gender stereotypes on their children.
B. Teachers and parents have to join hands to encourage children’s confidence in social
activities.
C. Society functions often categorize jobs regardless of genders.
D. The problems males and females get when they are adults may originate from gender
stereotypes.
Question 44: “Why don't you stay in and watch a romantic movie this afternoon?” said he.
A. He said let's stay in and watch a romantic movie this afternoon.
B. He suggests staying in to watch a romantic movie that afternoon.
C. He persuaded that staying in and watching a romantic movie will compensate for that
boring afternoon.
D. He said If he were me, he would stay in and watch a romantic movie that afternoon.
Question 45: Probably no man had more effect on the daily lives of most people in the
United State than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
A. Probably Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production, had more effect on the
daily lives of most people in the United State than any other man.
B. Probably many men had no effect on the daily lives of most people in the United
State rather than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
C. Probably no man in the United States had as many effects on the daily lives of most
people
As Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
D. Probably Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production, had the most effect on the
daily lives of most people in the United State.
Question 46: I am sure he said something terrible to her because of her red eyes.
A. He may have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes.
B. He could have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes.
C. He should have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red
eyes.
D. He must have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes.
Question 47: - Mai: “We'd better take a taxi rather than a coach as we go in a group”.
- Tom: “____.”
A. You took the words right out of my mouth
B. I'm along with you on that one
C. It is on the tip of my tongue
D. It does make a difference to me
Question 48: - Tom: “Who's going to win the contest?”
- Jerry: “__________ .”
A. It might be a good idea to bet B. Your guess is as good as mine
C. I've set my heart on winning it D. There's nothing you don't know about beauty
Question 49: He is likely to go to the capital. He would like to find a steady job.
A. He is likely to go to the capital in order that he likes a steady job.
B. He is likely to go to the capital in view of finding a steady job.
C. He is likely to go to the capital with a view to finding a steady job.
D. He is likely to go to the capital considering a steady job.
Question 50: The reasons for his resignation were a complete mystery to some people.
A. The reason why he was resigned had been a complete mystery to some people.
B. Some people might find it confused to understand his reasons for resignation.
C. Some people were completely mystified by the reasons for his resignation.
D. Some people were curious about his reasons for his resignation and they considered it
a mystery.
-----THE END-----
47 2023
Question 1: A. cymbal B. cybercrime C. psychology D. stereotype
Question 2: A. apprentice B. atmosphere C. acquire D. admission
Question 3: A. evolve B. protect C. argue D. resist
Question 4: A. profession B. consequence C. substantial D. objective
questions.
Question 5: The battery life of this laptop does not go _____________ three hours. I have to
charge the battery again after that.
A. over B. by C. beyond D. off
Question 6: Environmental campaigners argue that cheap short-haul flights have caused
___________ massive increase at carbon emissions over the past few years.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 7: The extinction of dinosaurs is believed ____ by a giant meteor crashing into the
Earth.
A. to cause B. to be caused
C. to have been caused D. to have caused
Question 8: Without the increasing congestion on our roads recently, scientists __________
new forms of transport.
A. would develop B. wouldn't develop
C. wouldn't have been developed D. will have developed
Question 9: It was a complete surprise to discover that teenagers themselves saw heated
arguments ____.
A. if they had arguments with their parents
B. as if their parents are trying to get closer to them
C. as when they didn't want to be closer to their parents
D. as something that brought them closer to their parents
Question 10: Finally, after 10 years in prison, Tom found himself as free as a(n) __________
.
A. bee B. ant C. bird D. eagle

Question 11: _____________ some members' objections, I think we must go ahead with the
plan.
A. Be that as it may B. Now that C. Notwithstanding D. Providing
Question 12: Many girls want to go to the pub only a minority ______ to watch TV at home
now.
A. want B. wants C. is wanting D. to want
Question 13: These women were viewed with __________ and they had to work twice as
hard to be accepted by their male colleagues.
A. suspicious B. suspicion C. suspect D. suspiciously
Question 14: You must mix the right _______ of soap and water if you want to blow bubbles
that last longer.
A. percentage B. proportion C. propensity D. majority
Question 15: When you are in the desert, you have to keep your eyes __________ for snakes
that may be hidden in the sand.
A. unblinking B. wide C. peeled D. sharp
Question 16: People often avoid eating squash, pumpkin, melon and peanuts before their
exams because they suppose that it is a _______.
A. no-go B. so so C. way out D. bright side
Question 17: ______ her interest in children, teaching seems the right job for her.
A. Given B. Taken C. Considered D. Accounted
Question 18: The Estonia, which was well designed and carefully maintained, carried the
proper number of lifeboats. Moreover, it had been __________ inspected before the day of its
fatal voyage.
A. thoroughly B. considerably C. largely D. totally
Question 19: You often play sports, __________?
A. won’t you B. don’t you C. didn’t you D. haven’t you
Question 20: In 1903 the members of the governing board of the University of Washington
in Seattle engaged a firm of landscape architects to advise them on an appropriate layout for
the university grounds.
A. trained B. hired C. described D. evaluated
Question 21: We can only give you the approximate number of refugees crossing the border
at the moment.
A. a sort of B. a bit of C. a variety of D. a deluge of
Question 22: The water workers' claim for a 10 percent pay rise has been under
consideration by the Government.
A. neglected B. concentrated C. suspected D. bethought
Question 23: Joe's been walking with a spring in his step ever since he found out he was
getting a promotion.
A. a happy and excited mood B. a joyful and energetic mood
C. a worried and depressed moon D. a bad and sorrow mood
The annual mortality burden in the UK from exposure to outdoor air pollution is
equivalent to around 40,000 deaths. To this can be (24) __________ further impacts from
exposure to indoor air pollutants such as radon and second-hand smoke.
The health problems resulting from exposure to air pollution also have a (25)
__________ cost to society and business, our health services, and people who suffer from
illness and premature death. In the UK, these costs add up to more than £20 billion every
year.
Vulnerable people are prisoners of air pollution, having to stay indoors and limit their
(26) __________ when pollution levels are high. This is not only unjust; it carries a cost to

these individuals and the community from missed work and school, from more health
problems (27) __________ lack of exercise, and from social isolation.
Taking action will reduce pain, suffering and demands on the National Health Service
(NHS), while (28) __________ people back to work, learning, and active life. The value of
these benefits far exceeds the cost of reducing emissions.
Question 24: A. afforded B. calculated C. contributed D. added
Question 25: A. expensive B. great C. high D. average
Question 26: A. activity B. motion C. vocation D. doing
Question 27: A. resulting in B. regardless of C. just as D. due to
Question 28: A. making B. getting C. forcing D. turning
Question 29: Any property that a bankrupt person may still have is usually divided among
the various
A B
people for whom money is owed.
C D
Question 30: Basing on the clues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few
days after the murder. A B C D
Question 31. There was a live debate about the Middle East, then they moved to a vote.
A B C D
There are already many, many people who have passed the landmark age of 100. In
fact, there are now so many healthy, elderly people that there's a new term for them: the
wellderly. These are people over the age of 80 who have no diseases such as high blood
pressure, heart disease or diabetes and have never taken medicines for these conditions.
There have been many scientific studies of communities where a healthy old age is
typical. These include places like Calabria in southern Italy and the island of Okinawa in
Japan.
The small village of Molochio in Calabria has about 2,000 inhabitants. And of these
there are at least eight centenarians. When researchers ask people like this the secret of their
long life, the answer is almost always to do with diet and is almost always the same: 'I eat a
lot of fruit and vegetables.' 'A little bit, but of everything.’ ‘No smoking, no drinking.’
While in the past scientists have looked at things such as diet and lifestyle for an
explanation of long life, these days they are investigating genetics. One such researcher is
Eric Topol, who says, "There must be genes that explain why these individuals are protected
from the aging process."
The new research into long life looks at groups of people who have a genetic
connection. For example, one group of interest lives in Ecuador. In one area of the country
there are a number of people with the same genetic condition. It's called Laron syndrome.
The condition means that they don't grow to more than about one, but it also seems to give
them protection against cancer and diabetes. As a result, they live longer than other people in
their families. Meanwhile, on the Hawaiian island of Oahu, there's another group of long-
lived men, Japanese-Americans. They have a similar gene to the Laron syndrome group.
Back in Calabria, scientists are trying to work out exactly how much of the longevity
is due to genetics and how much to the environment. By checking public records going back
to the 19th century, researchers have reconstructed the family trees of 202 nonagenarians and
centenarians. They concluded that there were genetic factors involved.
Question 32: Diabetes, heart disease and high blood pressure __________ .
A. are common illnesses in elderly people
B. teach scientists a lot about old age and long life
C. are never found among a group of people in Ecuador
D. have been scientifically proved to be the signs of aging
Question 33: What do some people from Calabria and Okinawa have in common?
A. They suffer from diabetes. B. They have an unusual genetic illness.
C. They live long and healthy lives. D. They originated from the same ancestors.
Question 34: According to the article, __________ .
A. scientists are investigating people who are 120 years old
B. scientific advances mean we will all live to at least 100 years
C. scientists have found genes that might influence how long we live
D. scientists have concluded environment is the decisive factor in longevity
Question 35: Laron syndrome is interesting to scientists because ______________.
A. it might help people with growth problems
B. it shows that there is a genetic reason for old age
C. there are different versions of the syndrome
D. it is related to taking the investigation into some family trees
Question 36: Healthy elderly people ______________________.
A. often say that their diet is the most important thing
B. don't usually know what the secret to a long life is
C. give many different reasons for their old age
D. agree that their genes protect them from aging
There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or
completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.
The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a
past position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do
not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what
results you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the
best, the worst or just average in your position.
The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible,
provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved
the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing
productivity, by what percentage did you increase it?
Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It
tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what
you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career
summary. A good one is brief - three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person
reviewing your application want to read further.
Many resumes list ‘hard’ job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or
‘soft’, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as
important as your technical skills.
All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which
you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current
job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand
how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will
not be a mind reader.
If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a
resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your
ability: you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch
the truth or lie.
(Source: www.ielts-mentor.com)
A. The way how to write a resume for a job application.
B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job.
C. The common way to make an impression in a job interview.
D. The necessary skills for job application.
Question 38: The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
________________.
A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing

Question 39: The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
______________.
A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important
A. organization money B. information C. productivity D. percentage
Question 41: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their
resumes?
A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements
C. previous positions D. future objective
Question 42: Why did the author mention that applicants should write a good brief career
summary?
A. To make the employers interested in what they want.
B. To make the interviewers more curious about you.
C. Because the employers do not care for what you want to achieve.
D. Because it can provide their specific skills in their positions.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ________________.
A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position.
B. you should be modest about what you can do.
C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in
the CV.
D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible.
Question 44: “You're always working so hard, why don't you let your hair down?”, said he.
A. He said that I had been working so hard that I looked unkempt.
B. He said that it was time for me to relax and enjoy myself.
C. He asked me to throw a party to celebrate my achievement.
D. He told me not to just work and work but I needed to do my hair then.
Question 45: The photographs of Mars taken by satellite are much clearer than those taken
from the Earth.
A. The photographs of Mars taken from the Earth are clearer than those taken by
satellite.
B. The photographs of Mars taken from the Earth are not as clear as those taken by
satellite.
C. The photographs of Mars taken from the Earth are fader than those taken by satellite.
D. The photographs of the earth are not as clear as those of Mars.
Question 46: I guess the man with red hair may have caused it.
A. It may have been caused by the man whose his hair was red.
B. The man whose red hair may have caused it.
C. It may have caused by the man whose hair was red.
D. It may have been caused by the man whose hair was red.
Question 47: - Tom: “Would you like to watch a water puppet show with me?”
- Jerry: “__________ .”
A. It might be a good idea to bet.
B. Do you think I would.
C. I'm afraid I can't as I have a lot of homework.
D. There's nothing you don't know about water puppet.
Question 48: - “Why did she leave me for him? I've done everything for her.”
- “__________”
A. Man. There's no use crying over spilt milk.
B. Let's party tonight. You look so anxious.
C. It serves you right.
D. No worries. It’s not a pity.
Question 49: Mary was trying to swim in the sea alone. She should never have been allowed
to do so.
A. When Mary left to swim in the sea alone, she said she knew what she was doing.
B. It would probably be wrong to let Mary swim in the sea on her own.
C. No one could have stopped Mary from trying to swim in the sea by herself.
D. Someone ought to have stopped Mary from attempting to swim in the sea on her own.
Question 50: It started to rain. We ran as fast as we could to the shelter.
A. Although it started to rain, we ran as fast as we could to the shelter.
B. It started to rain but we ran as fast as we could to the shelter.
C. It started to rain, at which point we ran as fast as we could to the shelter.
D. Unless it started to rain, we ran as fast as we could to the shelter.
-----THE END-----
48 2023
Question 1: A. creature B. creative C. creamy D. crease
Question 2: A. chooses B. houses C. rises D. horses
Question 3: A. advent B. adverb C. adventure D. advocate
Question 4: A. comparable B. comparative C. compass D. company
questions.
Question 5: On their way to the station they were caught _____ the rain and before long were
wet ______.
A. under/from B. in/with C. in/through D. during/out
Question 6: I still keep wondering if I was doing the right thing when I asked my father for
__________ permission to leave school.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 7: She has told me I should stay till she ______________ a replacement. Well, last
time it took two weeks.
A. found B. finds C. has found D. will find
Question 8: One of the men was lying on the ground after ___________ down by a piece of
rock.
A. being knocked B. knocking C. having been knock D. having knocked
Question 9: Intellectuals think that if we _____________daily on tolerance and racism, we
will end up killing one another.
A. won’t lecture B. are not lectured C. don’t lecture D. won’t have lectured
Question 10: What I strongly object to is the very principle ______ on one another.
A. to get the boys themselves inform B. of getting the boys themselves to inform
C. of getting the boys themselves inform D. to get the boys themselves informing
Question 11: “Fantastic sale. Everything must be sold ______________ of the price.”
A. in spite B. regardless C. in case D. on account
Question 12: The recreation plan______ they disagreed would require the construction of
two new dams.
A. which B. about which C. on whom D. whom
Question 13: The judge said that there was no doubt about the outcome of the trial. The man
was a _______ criminal.
A. self-centered B. self-confessed C. self-conscious D. self-contained
Question 14: The boy was punished for playing __________ from his physics lessons.
A. truant B. runaway C. absent D. joyride
Question 15: People didn't believe his ______ that he had stolen the money in order to give it
to charity.
A. explanatory B. explanation C. explain D. explainable
Question 16: The students in the nursing department are ____________ female.
A. restrictively B. predominantly C. arbitrarily D. spontaneously
Question 17: Factory workers have threatened __________ action if their demands are not
met in the next two days.
A. business B. working C. industrial D. manufacturing
Question 18: It’s said that the government has made no _______ in the fight against
inflation; indeed, the situation has worsened recently.
A. triumph B. effect C. avail D. headway
Question 19: My sister and I share the housework. We take turns ______ the dishes and
clean the house.
A. wash up B. wash over C. wash away D. wash through
Question 20: The Ministry of Defense has been holding up the decision to withdraw from
the military action for the past several months.
A. carrying off B. putting off C. playing down D. giving up
Question 21: Bill Gates is famous for his generosity. He donated a large part of his
possessions to charities.
A. hospitality B. kindness C. greediness D. wealthiness
Question 22: Renewable resources, such as solar, wind, tidal energy, etc., are the resources
that can be replenished over time naturally.
A. depleted B. restored C. replaced D. substituted
Question 23: John's decision to drop out of university to go to a vocational school drove his
mother up the wall. She thought that it was really a stupid decision.
A. made his mother pleased B. made his mother angry
C. made his mother worried D. made his mother ashamed
Asia is very rich in cultures, races and languages. Indians and most people in (24)
____ South Asian countries commonly speak more than one language daily, as a matter of
routine. Their highly diverse expat, diaspora and migrant communities provide them not only
with global access, but also with global sources of income.
India and other South Asian countries are (25) ____ the largest recipients of monthly
transfers from their diaspora workers. Due to their religious, ethnic and social diversity, more
than 30 million Indians access and transfer (26) ____ from countries as various as Saudi
Arabia, the UAE, Malaysia, Singapore, the US, Canada, the UK and Australia.
Regional languages and minority religions have (27) ____ themselves as global
community networks. This is as much true for the Tamils in Malaysia as for the Sikhs in
Canada. Such connections provide them with (28) ____ to education and jobs, partly through
professional visa arrangements, and despite the limitations and constraints of our current
times. These communities have created their own formats, many of which have become
international actors, such the Global Tamil Forum and the World Sikh Organization.
Question 24: A. neighboring B. neighborhood C. neighbor D. neighbored
Question 25: A. in B. of C. between D. among
Question 26: A. remittances B. salary C. payment D. taxes
Question 27: A. considered B. regarded C. established D. formed
Question 28: A. access B. limitation C. routes D. solutions
Question 29: It is necessary that the use of public transport is encouraged to reduce traffic
jams and air pollution. A B C D
Question 30: People who spend too much time on the Internet run the risk of
getting addiction to it.
A B C D
Question 31: She didn’t get a high mark because she had made the classical mistake of
forgetting to put
A B C
the “s” on the verb in the third person singular.
D
Called the ‘Red Planet,’ Mars is roughly half the size of Earth, and one of our closest
neighboring planets. Though Mars is the most Earth-like of any other planet, the two are still
worlds apart. Living on Mars has been the stuff of science fiction for decades. However, can
humans really live on Mars? Will it ever be possible or safe? NASA (the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration) hopes to find out. NASA researchers on Earth are
conducting several experiments together with the International Space Station (ISS) to study
the health and safety issues that may tell us if life on Mars is possible.
Food and oxygen would be the main necessities for travelers living extended periods
on Mars. The need to grow plants, which provide both food and oxygen, would be a key. But
the decreased gravity and low atmospheric pressure environment of the planet will stress the
plants and make them hard to grow. However, space station crews are growing plants in
controlled environments in two of the station’s greenhouses. They take care of the plants,
photograph them, and collect samples to be sent back to Earth. Researchers then use the data
to develop new techniques that will make it possible to grow plants successfully in space.
Another concern for space travelers is the health hazards posed by the effect of space
radiation on humans. A spacecraft traveling to Mars would be exposed to large amounts of
radiation. Since human exposure to such intense radiation would mean certain death, the
spacecraft used for such travel would have to protect the humans on the inside of the craft
from exposure. Researchers are using special machines inside the crew areas of the
International Space Station to carefully watch radiation levels. NASA scientists, who have
maintained radiation data since the beginning of human space flight, continue to learn about
the dangers it poses. Researchers use the station to test materials that could be used in making
a spacecraft that could successfully travel to Mars.
Will it ever be safe for humans to live on Mars? It is still too early to say. But thanks
to the dedicated researchers of NASA and the results of ISS experiments, we are getting
closer to knowing every day.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Intermediate Tests” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
A. The potential of Mars. B. Life on Mars.
C. The experiments on Mars. D. The pressure on Mars.
A. space station crews B. plants
C. environments D. station’s greenhouses
Question 34: As mentioned in paragraph 2, why can’t people grow plants successfully in
space?
A. Because there is a lack of food and oxygen on Mars.
B. Because there aren’t enough station’s greenhouses to control the environment.
C. Because of the reduced gravity and low atmospheric pressure environment.
D. Because of the shortage of new techniques.
Question 35: The word “hazards” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. dangers B. problems C. diseases D. symptoms
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the demand for
manufacturing spacecrafts travelling to Mars?
A. They must contain special machines inside to watch radiation levels.
B. They have to be made from special materials which are light and safe for travelling.
C. They have to maintain radiation data from the beginning of human space flight
inside.
D. They have to protect travelers from radiation exposure effectively.
Belgium is a very old country, with a fascinating mixture of old customs and modern
laws. Belgium weddings may be performed as a civil ceremony or as a religious ceremony.
Traditionally, when a couple in Belgium wishes to announce their marriage, the
wedding invitations are printed on two sheets of paper, one from the bride’s family and one
sheet from the groom’s family. These wedding invitations symbolize the union of the two
families and the partnership of the new union.
An ancient Belgium custom that is designed to unite the two families calls for the
bride to stop as she walks up the aisle and to hand her mother a single flower. The two then
embrace. Then, during the recessional, the bride and groom walk to the groom’s mother and
the new bride hands her new mother-in-law a single flower and the two of them embrace,
symbolizing the bride’s acceptance of her new mother.
One of the most important and enduring traditions of the Belgium wedding is for the
bride to carry a specially embroidered handkerchief that has her name embroidered on it.
After the wedding this handkerchief is framed and hung on the wall in a place of honor.
When the next female member of the bride’s family is to be wed, the handkerchief is
removed from its frame, the new bride’s name is embroidered onto it, and it is passed down.
The wedding handkerchief is passed from generation to generation, and is considered an
important family heirloom.
During the wedding mass, the bride and the groom are enthroned in two large chairs
placed near the altar, symbolizing that on this day and in this place they are the king and the
queen. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the groom slips the wedding ring onto the third
finger of his bride’s left hand. The ring, being an endless circle, symbolizes never-ending
love, and the third finger of the left hand is believed to hold the vein that travels to the heart,
symbolizing love. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the bride and groom share their first
kiss as husband and wife. The kiss is considered a symbolic act of sharing each other’s spirit
as the couple each breaths in a portion of their new mate’s soul.
The bridesmaids traditionally take up a collection of coins and as the bride and groom
exit the church, the bridesmaids toss the coins to the poor outside the church. Giving gifts of
money to the poor helps to insure prosperity for the new bride and groom.
Following the wedding the bride and groom are off on their honeymoon. In ancient
times the honeymoon, which was celebrated by the drinking of mead, or honey wine, would
last 28 days, one complete cycle of the moon. This was to make sure that the bride’s family
did not try to steal their daughter back from her new husband.
(Source: http://www.best-country.com/)
A. Belgium’s wedding customs and traditions.
B. The bride’s and groom’s traditional activities on their wedding day.
C. The differences between an ancient wedding and a modern one in Belgium.
D. Belgium’s wedding ceremony.
Question 38: What does the word “them” in the third paragraph refer to?
A. the bride and her mother B. the bride and the groom
C. the bride and her mother-in-law D. the groom and his mother-in-law
Question 39: The following is true about Belgium’s wedding, EXCEPT ____________.
A. The weddings in Belgium are not only a civil event but also a religious one.
B. The wedding invitations are the symbol of both the bride’s and the groom’s families.
C. Each mother of the couple is given a single flower at their children’s wedding.
D. The bride often hugs her mother-in-law before embracing her mother.
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that the wedding handkerchief
___________.
A. is prepared for the bride by her mother before the wedding.
B. is highly appreciated in the home of Belgian people.
C. is only replaced by another person in their house.
D. is embroidered on most important occasions in Belgium.
Question 41: The word “heirloom” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. inheritance B. dowry C. representation D. pride
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is CORRECT about the wedding ring?
A. It is worn onto the third finger of the bride’s right hand.
B. The groom wears the ring for his mate at the beginning of the ceremony.
C. The ring represents the boundless love of the couple.
D. The ring is presented by the queen and the king of their country.
Question 43: The author mentioned honeymoon in the past in the last paragraph as a period
that ______.
A. the bride and the groom live far from each other.
B. lasts for a fortnight after the wedding.
C. protects the new bride from her family’s effort to take her back.
D. the new couple serves the guests honey wine.
Question 44: The diagram shows it is hotter in summer than in winter in the northern
hemisphere.
A. As can be seen from the diagram, the weather of the northern hemisphere is hotter in
summer than that in winter.
B. According to the diagram, in the northern hemisphere is colder in winter than in
summer.
C. The diagram illustrates the trend of the climate in the northern hemisphere is that
summer is cooler than winter.
D. As we can see from the diagram, the climate of the northern hemisphere is hotter in
summer more than in winter.
Question 45: "I'm sorry I forgot your birthday," he told me.
A. He complained that I forgot his birthday. B. He refused to go to my birthday
party.
C. He begged me to forget my birthday. D. He apologized for forgetting my
birthday.
Question 46: I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John.
A. John may be very surprised to receive my letter.
B. John might have been very surprised to receive my letter.
C. John must be very surprised to receive my letter.
D. John must have been very surprised to receive my letter.
Question 47: Nam and Nga are talking with each other about artificial intelligence.
- Nam: “I think that the rapid development of artificial intelligence would pose a threat to
humankind. What do you think?”
- Nga: “_________________. Human beings are very smart. They create artificial
intelligence and would know how to keep it under control.”
A. I totally agree with you B. No. I don't think so
C. What on earth you are talking about D. You can't say it again
Question 48: Binh is inviting Nam to join the football club.
- Binh: “I know you are very good at playing football. Would you like to join our club?”
- Nam: “__________ ”
A. Yes. I am very busy. B. Yeah. Good idea. I'd love to.
C. What a good friend you are! D. What do you think?
Question 49: Fast-food restaurants attract children. They offer toys and a party atmosphere.
A. If fast-food restaurants offer toys and a party atmosphere, they will attract children.

B. Whenever fast-food restaurants offer toys and a party atmosphere, they attract
children.
C. To attract children to their restaurants, fast-food restaurants offer toys and a party
atmosphere.
D. By attracting children, fast-food restaurants offer toys and a party atmosphere.
Question 50: Smoking is unhealthy. It also costs governments billions of dollars in health-
care costs.
A. Not only is smoking unhealthy but it also costs governments billions of dollars in
health-care costs.
B. Whereas smoking is unhealthy, it costs governments billions of dollars in health-care
costs.
C. If smoking is unhealthy, it will cost governments billions of dollars in health-care
costs.
D. Smoking is so unhealthy that it costs governments billions of dollars in health-care
costs.
-----THE END-----
49 2023
Question 1: A. evolve B. protection C. robot D. operate
Question 2: A. naked B. looked C. booked D. mocked
Question 3: A. identity B. emergency C. advertising D. accessible
Question 4: A. upmarket B. relative C. cultural D. rational
questions.
Question 5: Two young men were arrested on suspicion of setting fire ____________a
police van.
A. in B. on C. with D. to
Question 6: Many centuries ago at Karnak, in ancient Egypt, on ______ east bank of the Nile
______ great temple arose.
A. Ø/some B. an/Ø C. the/the D. the/a
Question 7: When he ________ an essay in on time for once, his professor __________ him
a look of surprise.
A. handed/ would hand B. handed/gave
C. was handing/gave D. had handed/gave
Question 8: After __________ her an email, I waited for her reply patiently.
A. had sent B. sending C. having sent D. having been sent
Question 9: If the Moon _______ one orbit around the earth and one complete revolution on
its axis at the same rate, we sometimes _____________ the other side of it.
A. doesn’t complete/ will see B. didn’t complete/would see
C. hadn’t completed/would have seen D. doesn’t complete/see
Question 10: As the students who had taken the university entrance exam were waiting for
the results_________, they seemed_________ more and more nervous.
A. having been announced / to have got B. to be announced / to be getting
C. announced / to get D. to be announced / to get
Question 11: Mary wants to be a career woman; she doesn’t want to be a housewife,
__________ does she want to be a mother.
A. nor B. neither C. either D. none
Question 12: Since, at that time, his name ________ secret, we all addressed him “Uncle
Roy”.
A. has been kept B. was keeping
C. must have been kept D. had to be kept
Question 13: They live in a/an_____________ house which stands itself in a field.
A. attached B. detached C. detaching D. semi-detached
Question 14: The house possesses __________ grounds with gardens, tennis- courts and an
orchard.
A. extension B. extended C. extensive D. extensively
Question 15: Could you give me a rough_______ of what the decoration job might cost?
A. estimate B. correlation C. account D. value
Question 16: Even if that laptop is the most expensive in the store, it doesn’t _________
mean that it is the best.
A. severely B. valuably C. doubtfully D. necessarily
Question 17: The army claimed that during the invasion there was no _________ of life.
A. death B. loss C. killing D. disappearance
Question 18: I really have to _________ my brains to remember the answers to even the
simplest questions.
A. search B. look C. stretch D. rack
Question 19: We like to live in the countryside __________ we want to be close to nature.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 20: The floor was so rotten that it almost gave way under his weight.
A. collapsed B. crumpled C. deflate D. languished
Question 21: It is an ideal opportunity to make yourself memorable with employers for the
right reasons by asking sensible questions.
A. theoretical B. silly C. practical D. burning
Question 22: Urbanization has resulted in massive problems besides the benefits.
A. major B. serious C. few D. minor
Question 23: One of the best ways to understand what a job is like, is to do it. Work
experience is a great way to get a feel for what a job is all about.
A. to have an understanding about B. to touch with one's own hands
C. not to have the faintest idea about D. to do something on purpose
According to research conducted in the US, adult learners are the fastest-growing
segment of the population (24) ____ lifelong learning. The reason behind this trend is the fact
that many professionals are beginning to realize that to remain competitive in the ever-
changing world of business they need to stay current and (25) ____.
The markets and the economy are changing at a fast pace, and this means that anyone
interested (26) ____ career development needs to be able to keep up. This is especially
important since recent graduates will constantly (27) ____ your position as they will be more
up-to-date with the changes in the industry.
And it's not as simple as learning a few computer skills here and there. For
professionals across all industries to remain current they should closely follow trends and
seek to provide depth in their industry knowledge. (28) ____, according to Scott Brinker, a
marketing expert, marketers should have started learning to the program since the turn of the
decade.
Question 24: A. pursuing B. capturing C. chasing D. grabbing
Question 25: A. modern B. downgraded C. updated D. civilized
Question 26: A. on B. with C. of D. in
Question 27: A. protect B. threaten C. prevent D. avoid
Question 28: A. Of course B. For example C. Actually D. Eventually
Question 29: I have never had much of a/an ability for languages, unfortunately.
A B C D
Question 30: My mother was coming across a ring that she had lost months ago when she
was cleaning the attic. A B C D
Question 31: The letter he received this morning said that his application had rejected.
A B C D
Volunteering has been acknowledged as part of the wider health policy, with the NHS
five-year plan identifying a need to encourage community volunteering. It also has an
important role to play in tackling social exclusion, through projects such as lunch clubs for
older people, assisted gardening schemes, or young play leaders.
Volunteering can help to provide people with ways out of poverty, by giving them
new skills, confidence and aiding social integration. This is of particular value to those who
are most excluded from the labour market, such as recent migrants or people with disabilities.
But while the benefits of volunteering are clear, there is worrying evidence that the people
who could benefit most from giving their time are precisely those least likely to be involved.
There are many reasons for people not to volunteer. For older people, the barriers can
include poor health, poverty, lack of skills, poor transport links, or having caring
responsibilities, such as looking after grandchildren. Younger people can be deterred by
feeling they don’t have the time to volunteer, or not knowing anyone else who
volunteers. Many of them also think volunteering is just for older people with time on their
hands. Volunteering has an image problem – particularly with men and younger people.
More should be done to promote the value of volunteering to the particular needs of
different groups. There is evidence on why people choose to volunteer, and we need to make
better use of that information. For instance, a recent survey showed that 95% of young
people, aged 13-24, hoped to develop new skills through volunteering, compared to just 32%
of volunteers aged over 55. Almost three quarters of young people were keen to gain
qualifications through volunteering compared to just 13% of those over 55. Over three
quarters of disabled volunteers were keen to develop new skills and nearly two thirds hoped
to improve their health and wellbeing through volunteering.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
A. Why are not many people interested in being a volunteer?
B. Who gets more benefits from volunteer work?
C. What are volunteer activities?
D. How many people take part in volunteer work?
Question 33: The following are provided to help people out of poverty through
volunteering, EXCEPT ___________.
A. new skills B. confidence
C. aid social integration D. labour market
Question 34: The word “deterred” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. encouraged B. discouraged C. motivated D. bothered
Question 35: What does the phrase “many of them” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. volunteers B. grandchildren C. younger people D. older people
A. The people who could get themost advantages from volunteering are also the ones
participating most enthusiastically in this activity.
B. Wealth is one of the reasons preventing the old from doing volunteer work.
C. Not only most of the young from 13 to 24 years old but also the disabled volunteers
hope to get new skills through volunteering.
D. People over 55 years old are keener on gaining qualifications through volunteer work
than learning a new skill.
Facebook users spend an average of more than 15 hours a month on social networking
sites. While there are plenty who caution against such intensive use — and there are a
number of studies detailing the harm Facebook could potentially cause — there also are lots
of reports extolling the site's virtues. As the social media giant prepares for its upcoming
initial public offering, here are some ways Facebook just might be good for you.
Spending time on Facebook can help people relax, slow down their heart rate and
decrease stress levels, according to researchers from the Massachusetts Institute of
Technology and the University of Milan. In a study published earlier this year, researchers
studied 30 students and found that a natural high was sparked when they were on the social
media network that led to relaxed heart rates and lower levels of stress and tension. In the
study, the students were monitored in three situations: looking at panoramic landscapes,
performing complicated mathematical equations and using Facebook. While the first situation
was the most relaxing to students and the math problems were the most stressful, the time on
Facebook uncovered high levels of attractiveness and arousal. The findings support the
researchers' hypothesis that Facebook's success, as well as that of other social media
networks, correlates to the specific positive mental and physical state users experience.
While many may argue that social media networks only distract employees, research
shows the opposite may be true. Research from Keas.com found that a 10-minute Facebook
break makes employees happier, healthier and more productive. The study examined workers
in three groups: one that was allowed no breaks, one that was allowed to do anything but use
the Internet and one that was allowed 10 minutes to use the Internet and Facebook. The
Facebook group was found to be 16 percent more productive than the group that was not
allowed to use the Internet and nearly 40 percent more productive than the group that was
allowed no breaks. "Short and unobtrusive breaks, such as a quick surf on the Internet,
enables the mind to rest itself, leading to a higher net total concentration for a day's work, and
as a result, increased productivity," said Brent Coker of the department of management and
marketing at the University of Melbourne in Australia.
Facebook is also in the business of matchmaking. Research shows that nearly 60
percent of singles will friend someone new on Facebook after meeting them in person. If they
like what they see, 25 percent are likely to contact their new love interest via Facebook. Once
the courting is over, nearly 40 percent of those social networking adults will update their
relationship status on Facebook, with just 24 percent telling their friends first. Facebook use
between couples will continue through the dating process, the research shows. Throughout
the day, 79 percent of couples said they send partners Facebook messages or chat on the
social network. In addition, more than 60 percent would post romantic messages on their
significant other’s Facebook wall. When the relationship ends, more than half of those
surveyed immediately update their status to single, which automatically sends out a
notification to their friend list to start the dating cycle over again.
(Source: https://www.businessnewsdaily.com/)
A. The benefits that Facebook might bring you.
B. The disadvantages that Facebook causes in modern life.
C. The classes are most influenced by Facebook.
D. The functions that are used most on Facebook.
Question 38: The word “sparked” in the second paragraph probably means ____________.
A. produced B. reduced C. prevented D. controlled
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, what do the scientists discover in their study?
A. Spending too much time on Facebook may increase levels of pressure and heart
disease.
B. Students often suffer from stress when they are working with something related to
mathematics.
C. Facebook can make its users more optimistic and aroused.
D. The success of Facebook may motivate the development of other social networks.
Question 40: The word “one” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. the study B. a group C. the Internet D. a research
Question 41: Why does Facebook motivate the productivity of employees?
A. Because the Internet distracts users to take breaks out of work.
B. Because it helps people refresh their mind and then enhance the concentration on
work.
C. Because employees are happy with what they read on Facebook.
D. Because they are allowed to relax after hard work.
Question 42: The word “courting” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. dating B. marriage C. divorce D. making acquaintance
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT correct about the impact of Facebook on users’
relationships?
A. More than half of single people tend to make new friends on Facebook after face-to-
face contact.
B. Married people often use Facebook to keep in touch with their spouses.
C. Not many people change the relationship status to single after their breakdown.
D. Adults are more likely to update their relationship status on Facebook than to tell
their friends about that.
Question 44: Governments should take measures to protect wildlife, or more and more
animals will become endangered.
A. The sooner governments take measures to protect wildlife, the fewer animals will
become endangered.
B. The more governments take measures to protect wildlife, the fewer animals will
become endangered.
C. The more measures governments take to protect wildlife, the fewer animals will
become endangered.
D. Governments take measures to protect wildlife, so that fewer animals will become
endangered.
Question 45: "Good luck in your new job. It will work out well for you," said his mother.
A. His mother wished him good luck and said his new job would work out well for him.
B. His mother wanted him to get good luck in his new job as it would work out well for
him.
C. His mother wondered whether he got luck in his job or it would work out well for
him.
D. His mother ascertained that his new job would work out well for him and bring him
luck.
Question 46: People cannot have computers solve problems in which the rules do not
currently exist.
A. Problems in which rules do not currently exist cannot be solved by computers.
B. People cannot solve computers problems in which rules do not currently exist.
C. Problems in which rules do not currently exist have to be solved by computers.
D. People have to solve problems in which rules do not currently exist by computers.
Question 47: - Linda: “Go to the party on Sunday?”
- John: “______________________.”
A. You bet B. Lucky you
C. I prefer cuisine to speech D. You know the party well
Question 48: - Minh: “It's true that she's going to leave the company.”
- Huong: “_______________________________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge

Question 49: I deeply regret having spoken to her so severely yesterday. She was badly hurt.
A. If only I could apologize to her for having spoken to her so severely yesterday.
B. I wish I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday.
C. She must have been badly hurt because I had spoken to her so severely yesterday.
D. If I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday, she wouldn’t be badly hurt.
Question 50: The whole point of education is to give students the knowledge to be who they
want to be. This quote should be posted in schools for kids to see and live by.
A. That the whole point of education is to give students the knowledge to be who they
want to be is a quote that should be posted in schools for kids to see and live by.
B. It's the whole point of education that gives students the knowledge to be who they
want to be, which is a quote that should be posted in schools for kids to see and live by.
C. Because whole point of education is to give students the knowledge to be who they
want to be, this is a quote that should be posted in schools for kids to see and live by.
D. Not only is the whole point of education to give students the knowledge to be who
they want to be, but also a quote that should be posted in schools for kids to see and live by.
-----THE END-----
50 2023
Question 1: A. laughter B. caution C. applause D. autumn
Question 2: A. changes B. durables C. privileges D. marches
Question 3: A. compulsory B. secondary C. separate D. fee-paying
Question 4: A. general B. popular C. interrupt D. dedicate
questions.
Question 5: I can make ____________ a bed in the spare room if you’d like to stay the night.
A. up B. out C. for D. make over
Question 6: It was with _______ greatest difficulty that Brian had persuaded him to join____
Browns.
A. the/Ø B. the/the C. Ø/the D. Ø/Ø
Question 7: Nobody visits the office on Sunday, which means that by the time the first
workers _______ the burglary, the burglars may have left the country with the documents.
A. discovered B. have discovered C. had discovered D. discover
Question 8: The man the police caught yesterday __________ bomb attack was also accused
________ in many other crimes previously.
A. prepare/to be involved B. to prepare/with having been involved
C. preparing /of having been involved D. preparing /of having involved
Question 9: If she had asked us, we___________ how to fix it, or we ________ at least.
A. knew, tried B. would know, would try
C. know, try D. would have known, would have tried
Question 10: James didn’t take ___________ to your suggestion that she was mean with
money.
A. kindly B. pleasantly C. cheerfully D. agreeably
Question 11: - “Can you come with me to Huong’s party next weekend?”
- “I can’t as I’m busy with my work. ____________, my mother is ill.”
A. Even so B. After all C. All the same D. On top of that
Question 12: The origin of April Fool’s Day, the first day of April, is uncertain, but it
_________ to arrival of spring in late March, when nature _________to “fool” humanity with
changes in weather.
A. has been related – has said B. may be related – is said
C. ought to relate – has been said D. relates – is saying
Question 13: The new arrivals may just be an adornment, with little structural importance for
the ecosystem. But to Wilkinson, this sounds like _____________ at straws.
A. clutching B. torching C. punching D. plunging
Question 14: Smoking not only cuts your lifespan by affecting your internal organs, but it
also ages you on the outside by causing ____ damage.
A. skin B. skinner C. skinny D. skinning
Question 15: - “How did you know that he was lying?”
- “It was just a ________ feeling.”
A. faint B. gut C. slight D. vain
Question 16: How birds manage to ___________ travel between distant locations is one
aspect that has fascinated observers for centuries.
A. unerringly B. incorrectly C. successfully D. precisely
Question 17: She __________ her hands in horror at his suggestion that she should marry
him.
A. broke up B. threw up C. brought up D. woke up
Question 18: He had been lied to and _________in the back by people that he thought were
his friends.
A. knew B. stabbed C. gripped D. tabbed
Question 19: Life here is so good, __________?
A. was it B. has it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 20: Dark clouds began to spread out across the sky, so we rushed to the house as fast
as possible.
A. shrink B. diminish C. lessen D. extend
Question 21: If two people in a romantic relationship are lovey-dovey, they show their love
for each other in public by touching each other and saying loving things.
A. lovesick B. romantic C. demonstrative D. affectionate
Question 22: Developments in technology mean we can now do banking transactions at our
leisure.
A. comfortably B. inconveniently C. freely D. independently
Question 23: He is very stubborn but flattery usually works like a charm on him.
A. is completely successful in B. takes effect
C. turned out to be a disaster D. has no effect on
The growing popularity of video games, online gaming and videos make children
inactive in their daily routine. The time (24) __________ has been spent watching online
videos and games can be better utilized by doing some physical activities. Here, parents can
become role models in their children’s life. The parents should not make them addicted to the
techie-gadgets and be active in their lifestyle so that their kids can also become physically
(25) _________ and active.
The best way to become physically fit is to be active in sports and games. The
importance of sports in our life is crucial. It not only makes a body physically fit and active
but also contributes (26) ________ the mental growth and development. Active participation
in sports and games can have many benefits in students’ life. It gives a student a chance to
enhance their physical and social skills. It offers a child a change from the monotony of a

daily routine. It keeps the stress and anxiety away. However, a proper balance has to be
maintained between a child’s maturity, skills and interests.
Nowadays, sports and games are taken to be a good career option as well. It plays a
pivotal role in shaping a child’s interest in his profession. Sports and games also help in
character building and provide strength and energy. Sport is a form of competitive physical
activity (27) ________ by a person via an organized or casual participation. Sports and games
not only involve the development of skills but it also stimulates competitive behavior among
students. It builds up confidence in the minds of the students. It not only strengthens the
physical growth rather it also contributes towards mental growth. (28) _______, it plays an
important role in a student’s life.
(Adapted from https://www.budingstar.com)
Question 24: A. when B. where C. which D. what
Question 25: A. sound B. strength C. mature D. smart
Question 26: A. in B. on C. into D. towards
Question 27: A. performing B. performed C. to perform D. to be performed
Question 28: A. Hence B. Finally C. Furthermore D. In contrast
Question 29: Basing on the clues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few
days after the murder. A B C D
Question 30: His wife insisted that he stopped sitting around and start to look for a new job.
A B C D
Question 31: Leisure activities are necessary for personal development and also
to maintain good health.
A B C D
Anthropogenic global warming is a theory explaining today's long-term increase in
the average temperature of Earth's atmosphere as an effect of human industry and agriculture.
Since the latter half of the 20th century, growing banks of data and improved climate
models have convinced most climate scientists that rising trends in greenhouse gas emissions
are directly responsible for a rising trend in atmospheric temperature. The source of these
emissions vary, consisting of a mix of gases that include methane and carbon dioxide. While
some sources - such as volcanoes - are natural, their overall emissions compared
with those produced by human industries, transport, and livestock have been regarded as
insignificant over recent centuries.
Greenhouse gases are made of molecules that absorb electromagnetic radiation, such
as the light reflecting from the planet's surface, and re-emit it as heat. These gases include
methane, carbon dioxide, water, and nitrous oxide. Despite making up only a small
percentage of the atmosphere's mix of gases they are very important. If we had no naturally
occurring greenhouse gases in the atmosphere at all, the average global temperature on Earth
would be a much lower -18 degrees instead of the roughly 15 degrees Celsius we have
enjoyed most of human history.
Carbon dioxide levels have steadily risen over the past two centuries, thanks largely to
the burning of fossil fuels for electricity general, transportation, and smelting. Current levels
are approximately 415 parts per million (ppm), up from pre-industrial levels of around 280
ppm. Models vary in their predictions of further temperature increases, and depend heavily
on future trends in greenhouse gas emissions. Conservative estimates by the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change predict an even chance of 4 degrees Celsius rise
by the end of the century if current emissions trends continue.
(Source: https://www.sciencealert.com/)
Question 32: Where is the passage possibly taken from?
A. An official business letter. B. A brochure for ecotourism.
C. An environmental magazine. D. A questionnaire at the mall.
Question 33: The word “livestock” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. beast B. animal C. cattle D. poultry
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what would happen if the Earth were bereft of
natural greenhouse gases?
A. The Earth’s temperature would be too cold for the habitation of any living things.
B. The sunny weather would be a permanent setting for the Earth.
C. Most of the Earth’s surface would crack due to the scorching heat.
D. No noticeable changes in the climate would arise.
Question 35: The word “those” in paragraph refers to _______.
A. levels B. models C. sources D. emissions
Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what are the CO2 - producing fossil fuels utilized
for?
A. Fossil fuels, as the main energy source, generate a significant share of electricity.
B. The oil and natural gas industry supply a massive number of jobs.
C. Coals provide the right amount of heat for extracting metal from its ore.
D. Petroleum and other derivatives power various means of transport.
Every summer, when the results of the university entrance exam come out, many
newspaper stories are published about students who are top-scorers across the country. Most
portray students as hard-working, studious, smart and, generally, from low-income families.
They are often considered heroes or heroines by their families, communes, villages and
communities. And they symbolize the efforts made to lift them, and their relatives, out of
poverty. The students are often too poor to attend any extra-classes, which makes their
achievements more illustrious and more newsworthy. While everyone should applaud the
students for their admirable efforts, putting too much emphasis on success generates some
difficult questions.
If other students look up to them as models, of course, it's great. However, in a way, it
contributes to society's attitude that getting into university is the only way to succeed. For
those who fail, their lives are over. It should be noted that about 1.3 million high school
students take part in the annual university entrance exams and only about 300,000 of them
pass. What's about the hundreds of thousands who fail? Should we demand more stories
about those who fail the exam but succeed in life or about those who quit university
education at some level and do something else unconventional?
"I personally think that it's not about you scoring top in an entrance exam or getting
even into Harvard. It's about what you do for the rest of your life," said Tran Nguyen Le Van,
29. He is the founder of a website, vexere.com, that passengers can use to book bus tickets
online and receive tickets via SMS. His business also arranges online tickets via mobile
phones and email. Van dropped out of his MBA at the Thunderbird School of Global
Management in Arizona in the United States. His story has caught the attention of many
newspapers and he believes more coverage should be given to the youngsters who can be role
models in the start-up community. Getting into university, even with honours, is just the
beginning. "We applaud them and their efforts and obviously that can give them the
motivation to do better in life. However, success requires more than just scores," Van said.
Van once told a newspaper that his inspiration also came from among the world's most
famous drop-outs, such as Mark Zuckerberg of Facebook or Bill Gates who also dropped out
of Harvard University.
Alarming statistics about unemployment continue to plague us. As many as 162,000
people with some kind of degree cannot find work, according to Labour Ministry's statistics
this month. An emphasis on getting into university does not inspire students who want to try
alternative options. At the same time, the Ministry of Education and Training is still
pondering on how to reform our exam system, which emphasises theories, but offers little to
develop critical thinking or practice. Vu Thi Phuong Anh, former head of the Centre for
Education Testing and Quality Assessment at Viet Nam National University in HCM City
said the media should also monitor student successes after graduation. She agreed there were
many success stories about young people, but added that it was imbalanced if students taking
unconventional paths were not also encouraged.

Viet Nam is, more than ever, in desperate need of those who think outside the box.
Time for us to recognise talent, no matter where it comes from or how.
(Source: http://vietnamnews.vn)
Question 37: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Many students consider universities as their only way after school.
B. A good model of being successful in the real-life out of school.
C. Not many students are successful after graduating from university.
D. University is not the only way to success.
Question 38: What is NOT stated in the passage about the top-scorers in the entrance exam?
A. The majority of them are poor but intelligent and eager to learn.
B. They are hoped to find a way to better their families’ lives.
C. Their success is more glorious because they attend more classes than others.
D. The students are admired for their great efforts.
Question 39: The word “unconventional” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
____________.
A. common B. unusual C. well-known D. infamous
Question 40: The author described Tran Nguyen Le Van in the third passage as
___________.
A. a good example to achieve success although he didn’t finish his education.
B. a businessman who gains money by selling mobile phones online.
C. a founder whose website was inspired by social networks like Facebook.
D. a top-scorer who books online tickets and confirms through messages.
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________________.
A. honours B. role-models C. the youngsters D. newspapers
Question 42: The word “plague” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. conflict B. afflict C. remind D. bother
A. It’s high time for the young to change their ways of thinking about success.
B. High scores are the first step to attain achievements in the future.
C. Failing the entrance exam will not determine that these students are doing
unconventional things.
D. The most concerning thing for each student is unemployment.
Question 44: Warm-blooded animals have metabolic rates about five to ten times higher than
those of similarly sized cold-blooded ones.
A. Cold-blooded animals have lower metabolic rates than warm-blooded ones which
have a similar size.
B. Cold-blooded animals are about five to ten times as small as warm-blooded ones.
C. Cold-blooded animals’ metabolic rates are about five to ten times as low as those of
warm-blooded ones.
D. With similarly sized animals, the metabolic rates of cold-blooded animals are about
five to ten times lower than those of warm-blooded ones.
Question 45: He said: “I haven’t met her since she left school.”
A. He said that he hadn’t met her since he had left school.
B. He said that he hadn’t met her since he left school.
C. He said that he hadn’t met her since she left school.
D. He said that he hadn’t met her since she had left school.
Question 46: You are not tactful; that is why you are always offending other people.
A. You must have offended other people because you are not tactful.
B. If you were tactful, you wouldn’t satisfy other people.
C. I wish you were tactful so that you don’t offend other people.
D. You should have been tactful so that you didn’t offend other people.

Question 47: Ba and Lan are talking about the development of robots.
- Ba: “Do you think that robots can do all the housework for people in the future?”
- Lan: “____”
A. Sorry, I can't.
B. I am happy that you like robots.
C. Why not? Robots have been used in helping people with the housework now.
D. What for? There have been quite a few robots around here.
Question 48: It's late in the evening and two sisters have just come home.
- Jenny: “I'm starving, and there's nothing in the kitchen.”
- Jane: “____”
A. So am I. I'm so thirsty for a glass of cold water.
B. Have you finished the housework before going out?
C. Don't you think we should start cleaning the cupboard?
D. Why don't we try that new restaurant on the corner?
Question 49: New York is described as the world's cultural centre. It is situated on the bank
of the Hudson river.
A. As long as New York is described as the world's cultural centre, it is situated on the
bank of the Hudson river.
B. In spite of the fact that it is situated on the bank of the Hudson river, New York is
described as the world's cultural centre.
C. Because it is situated on the bank of the Hudsonriver, New York is described as the
world's cultural centre.
D. New York, which is situated on the bank of the Hudson river, is described as the
world's cultural centre.
Question 50: I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office nearly
10 kilometers away
A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the head office
nearly 10 kilometers away.
B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office
C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office
D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office
-----THE END-----
51 2023
Question 1: A. brought B. ought C. thought D. though
Question 2: A. flooded B. learned C. implanted D. improved
Question 3: A. relics B. rely C. reply D. release
Question 4: A. ferocious B. adventure C. history D. achievement
questions.

Question 5: She was not ________ little girl he had known, but she was not yet ________
woman either.
A. a/the B. the/a C. a/a D. the/the
Question 6: If Tom _______ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job
years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 7: Those students who ___________ the exam are going to take another one held
in August.
A. have failed B. failed C. had failed D. were failing
Question 8. She had butterflies in her stomach _________ having prepared carefully for the
interview.
A. although B. due to C. despite D. because
Question 9: The main focus _________ interest at the opening ceremony /ˈser.ɪ.mə.ni/ was
the attendance of some celebrities.
A. on B. at C. of D. toward
Question 10: ______________ depends on your gentle persuasion.
A. That he agreed to help you B. That he agrees to help you
C. Whether he agrees to help you D. Whether he agreed to help you
Question 11: Once _____________ off by the teacher, the class filed out of the room in
silence.
A. being told B. have been told C. told D. having told
Question 12: He was not at all interested in what was going on around him, but insisted
_________ back to his country on the first sight.
A. to be sent B. on sending him C. to send him D. on being sent
Question 13: It was reported that three top athletes have been ________ from the
championship after positive drug tests.
A. qualification B. unqualified C. disqualified D. qualitatively
Question 14: In the second game, her opponent hurt her leg. Hence, that she became the
champion was a/an ________ conclusion.
A. foregone B. rash C. amicable D. unpredictable
Question 15: His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________ from the team for the
next match.
A. expulsion B. dismissal C. rejection D. exclusion
Question 16: Although her boss gives quite obvious a hint of dismissing Nancy for her
incompetence, she is still __________ ignorant of the fact that she is about to face up to a
gloomy scenario of unemployment.
A. jubilantly B. ecstatically C. blissfully D. decorously
Question 17: He never stops smoking; one cigarette after another. I’m afraid he’s become a
__________ smoker.
A. chain B. cord C. line D. rope
Question 18: We regret that it is impossible to meet the ______ date for the goods you
recently ordered from us.
A. arrival B. delivery C. carriage D. transport
Question 19: __________, he will go out with his friends.
A. When Tony finished his project B. When Tony finishes his project
C. When Tony had finished his project D. When Tony was finishing his project
Question 20: I can’t get on well with my boss because of his authoritative manner that at
times is almost arrogant.
A. struck up B. stuck up C. drunk up D. sprung up
Question 21: Her passport seemed legitimate, but on closer inspection, it was found to have
been altered.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 22: The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t credible at all. Nobody in the classroom
believed in the far-fetched story he told.
A. reliable B. predictable C. knowledgeable D. unbelievable
Question 23: We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients
tomorrow.
A. work in a haste B. work slowly
C. work as fast as possible D. work strenuously
The string family is the largest section of the orchestra. The four main stringed
instruments look similar but are all different sizes. Each can be played by plucking the strings
with the fingers or with a bow, which is pulled (24) ____ across the instrument's four strings.
The VIOLIN is the smallest of the string instruments and can play the highest (25)
____. The violin often plays the melody - this is the tune you will be humming after you
leave a performance. The VIOLA is slightly larger than the violin. Because it is bigger, it can
play lower notes. (26) ____ the viola is only a little bit bigger than the violin, it can be hard to
tell them apart. The viola plays many beautiful melodies just like the violin.
The CELLO is (27) ________ the violin and the viola. It is so large that the cellist
must sit on a chair holding the cello between his or her knees in order to play. The cello often
plays accompaniment parts.
Because it is the largest of the stringed instruments, the DOUBLE BASS plays the
lowest notes. This instrument is so large that the bass players have to stand up or sit on tall
stools to play it. The bass often plays (28) ____ parts with the cello.
Question 24: A. now and then B. back and forth C. again and again D. high
and low
Question 25: A. notes B. noting C. notable D. noted
Question 26: A. Although B. However C. Whereas D. Since
Question 27: A. much larger than B. the largest between C. as large
as D. the larger of
Question
28: A. companion B. companionship C. accompany D. accompaniment
Question 29: From time memorial, cities have been the central gathering places of human
life, from where
A B C D
the great ideas and movements of the world have sprouted.
Question 30: Daisy is on a diet, so she just usually has a sandwich for lunch.
A B C D
Question 31: This morning one customer phoned to complain that she still hadn't been
received the book
A B
she had ordered several weeks ago.
C D
As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their
actual products or services, there is an intrinsic advantage to those organizations who use
designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most competitive of markets. Those that
don’t, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their
customer’s expectations of them. Make no mistake, in our high-paced and digitally connected
economies, the experience gap is driving markets, fast.
For example, take Instagram and Twitter. These brands filled the demand for a whole
new human experience that did not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled
that. They were pioneers, and there were no established players to unseat. But we are also

seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries. New entrants are coming in and taking the
space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open.
Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers
a better experience than the incumbents. Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400. He says
banking has already become quite complicated and he wanted to make a change. His neobank
is working to solve customers' problems more holistically. Bell said, “It’s significantly harder
work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better
relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services.”
Think about that for a moment. Do you notice how better experiences, lead to better
relationships, which is then the stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump
straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer connection and the necessary
foundation of trust first.
(Source: https://which-50.com/)
A. The importance of experience to competitive advantage.
B. Businesses are unwilling to disrupt themselves.
C. A far-reaching cultural transformation.
D. Knowledge drives behavior, loyalty, satisfaction.
Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. brands B. customers C. economies D. markets
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is true about Instagram and Twitter in the
stated instance?
A. Their reputation famously preceded even the 4th Industrial Revolution.
B. They are the one and only companies providing such revolutionary services.
C. They were the trailblazers for the experience-oriented marketing strategy.
D. Prior to their advent, there were already several competitors in the field.
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what is the attitude of Robert Bell towards the
customers?
A. He sees them as modern slaves to consumerism.
B. He maintains a healthy relationship of giving and taking.
C. He displays worship in its purest form towards them.
D. He views them as the golden goose for his business.
Question 36: What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things.
B. A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time.
C. An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling.
D. An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal.
The Trump campaign ran on bringing jobs back to American shores, although
mechanization has been the biggest reason for manufacturing jobs’ disappearance. Similar
losses have led to populist movements in several other countries. But instead of a pro-job
growth future, economists across the board predict further losses as AI, robotics, and other
technologies continue to be ushered in. What is up for debate is how quickly this is likely to
occur.
Now, an expert at the Wharton School of Business at the University of Pennsylvania
is ringing the alarm bells. According to Art Bilger, venture capitalist and board member at the
business school, all the developed nations on earth will see job loss rates of up to 47% within
the next 25 years, according to a recent Oxford study. “No government is prepared,” The
Economist reports. These include blue and white collar jobs. So far, the loss has been
restricted to the blue collar variety, particularly in manufacturing.
To combat “structural unemployment” and the terrible blow, it is bound to deal with
the American people, Bilger has formed a nonprofit called Working Nation, whose mission it
is to warn the public and to help make plans to safeguard them from this worrisome trend.
Not only is the entire concept of employment about to change in a dramatic fashion, but the

trend is also irreversible. The venture capitalist called on corporations, academia,
government, and nonprofits to cooperate in modernizing our workforce.
To be clear, mechanization has always cost us jobs. The mechanical loom, for
instance, put weavers out of business. But it also created jobs. Mechanics had to keep the
machines going, machinists had to make parts for them, and workers had to attend to them,
and so on. A lot of times those in one profession could pivot to another. At the beginning of
the 20th century, for instance, automobiles were putting blacksmiths out of business. Who
needed horseshoes anymore? But they soon became mechanics. And who was better suited?
Not so with this new trend. Unemployment today is significant in most developed
nations and it’s only going to get worse. By 2034, just a few decades, mid-level jobs will be
by and large obsolete. So far the benefits have only gone to the ultra-wealthy, the top 1%.
This coming technological revolution is set to wipe out what looks to be the entire middle
class. Not only will computers be able to perform tasks more cheaply than people, but they’ll
also be more efficient too.
Accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and financial analysts beware:
your jobs are not safe. According to The Economist, computers will be able to analyze and
compare reams of data to make financial decisions or medical ones. There will be less of a
chance of fraud or misdiagnosis, and the process will be more efficient. Not only are these
folks in trouble, but such a trend is also likely to freeze salaries for those who remain
employed, while income gaps only increase in size. You can imagine what this will do to
politics and social stability.
(Source: https://bigthink.com/)
A. Many jobs will disappear in the future.
B. AI will replace the workers’ positions in almost jobs.
C. Manufacturing jobs are predicted to be the first ones to disappear.
D. Changing jobs is not a new trend in the future.
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that “blue and white collar jobs” are related
to _______.
A. people whose uniforms’colors are blue and white.
B. people who are distinguished by the colors of their collars.
C. people who do physical work in industry and who work in an office.
D. people (mainly women) who do low-paid jobs, for example in offices and restaurants.
Question 39: The word “irreversible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. impermanent B. remediable C. reparable D. unalterable
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about jobs in the
future?
A. AI, robots and technologies continuously used will put more labourers out of their
jobs.
B. Every country has applied many policies to prepare for the massive loss of jobs in the
next 25 years.
C. Many different organizations are called to cooperate in renovating the workforce.
D. Working Nation is an organization founded to warn the public and make plans to
save people from job loss.
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the advantage of mechanization?
A. Although mechanization drives people out of work, it also creates more jobs.
B. People can change their jobs to be more suitable with society.
C. People will no longer need the useless like horseshoes.
D. Workers will spend less time on manufacturing with the help of machines.
Question 42: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by __________.
A. outdated B. modern C. fashionable D. adventurous
A. people B. tasks
C. computers D. the entire middle class
Question 44: Jupiter is the biggest than all the other planets in the solar system.
A. No other planets in the solar system is as big as Jupiter.
B. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.
C. All other planets in the solar system are not so big that Jupiter.
D. Among the planets in the solar system, Jupiter is the biggest of all.
Question 45: My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not ask him for help."
A. My friend advised me not to ask him for help.
B. My friend told me to ask him for help.
C. My friend prohibited me from asking him for help.
D. My friend suggested not asking him for help.
Question 46: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Question 47: Two students, Joe and James are chatting about time.
- Joe: “The weekend goes so quickly.”
- James: “I know. __________ ”
A. I love watching TV all Saturdays and Sundays. B. I can't believe that it's Monday
tomorrow.
C. I have English lessons on Tuesdays and Fridays. D. How about going out for a
meal this weekend?
Question 48: Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for.
- Manager: “__________ ”
- Claudia: “I work hard and I enjoy working with other people.”
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this
position?
Question 49: The burglar was trying to break into the shop. He was caught by the night guard
when doing so.
A. By the time the night guard caught him, the burglar had broken into the shop.
B. While trying to break into the shop, the burglar was caught by the night guard.
C. Having tried to break into the shop, the burglar was caught by the night guard.
D. Having seen the burglar breaking into the shop, the night guard caught him.
Question 50: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
-----THE END-----
52 2023
Question 1: A. great B. bread C. break D. steak
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked

Question 3: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Question 4: A. investigate B. investment C. indicate D. immediate
questions.
Question 5: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. Ø
Question 6: Students are not allowed to handle these chemicals unless they _________ under
the supervision of a teacher.
A. are B. were C. have been D. had been
Question 7: Mr. Brown ________ reading the letter when the telephone on his desk rang.
A. has just finished B. had just finished
C. just finished D. was just finishing
Question 8: Mysteriously, the light came on, __________ no one was near the switch.
A. however B. although C. because D. hence
Question 9: An independent adviser has been brought in __________ between the two sides
involved in the conflict.
A. to conciliate B. conciliating C. conciliate D. being conciliated
Question 10: _______________ remains mysterious.
A. That the actor killed himself B. What the actor killed himself
C. Why the actor killed himself D. Whether the actor kills himself
Question 11: As _____________ about this change of schedule earlier, I arrived at the
meeting late.
A. not being informed B. not having informed
C. not informed D. had not been informed
Question 12: Nobody believed him although he managed to convince them _____ his
innocence.
A. on B. in C. of D. at
Question 13: As a young actress, Linda tried to resist the ____________ to move to
Hollywood.
A. tempt B. tempting C. temptation D. temptingly
Question 14: The movement's major _____ has included not only legal, economic, and
political gains but also has changed the ways in which people live, dress, dream of their
future and make a living.
A. achievement B. civilization C. status D. power
Question 15: He felt a sense of incredulity, anger and pain at the _________ made against
him.
A. judgment B. improvement C. progress D. accusation
Question 16: They has ______________ denied responsibility, but it agreed to the settlement
to avoid the expense of lengthy litigation.
A. continually B. consistently C. hesitantly D. reluctantly
Question 17: Kerry was delighted with her gifts from the Rotarians and thanked all of them
for ____________ her day.
A. making B. taking C. giving D. having
Question 18: One of the country's legendary tenor saxophone players, his name might not
________ for those who are not in tune with Jazz in India, but he deserves to be remembered.
A. hit it off B. ring a bell
C. hand in his notice D. fit the bill
Question 19: The prize __________ to Xuan yesterday.
A. awards B. has awarded C. was awarded D. was awarding
Question 20: The Beatles split up in 1970 and its members followed their individual careers.
A. separated from B. emerged from C. broke up D. divided into

Question 21: I only applied for this business with a view to accumulating first-hand
experience.
A. attaining B. gaining C. penetrating D. accomplishing
Question 22: It's only quite recently that the long-lasting and devastating effects of such
chemicals on wildlife have come to light.
A. durable B. effective C. transient D. flexible
Question 23: - John: “I think we have done enough work today. I’m feeling tired now”.
- Alice: “Let’s call it a day and hit the hay!”
A. stay awake B. go to sleep C. take a bath D. eat something
The tradition of gift giving is a worldwide (24)_______ that is said to have been
around since the beginning of human beings. Over time, different cultures have developed
their own gift giving customs and traditions.
In France, the gift of wine for the hostess of a dinner party is not an appropriate gift as
the hostess would prefer to choose the vintage for the night. In Sweden, a bottle of wine or
flowers is an appropriate gift for the hostess. In Viet Nam, a gift of whisky is appropriate for
the host, and some fruit or small gifts for the hostess, children or elders of the home. Besides,
gifts should never be wrapped in black paper because this color is unlucky and associated with
funerals in this country. Gifts (25)______ symbolize cutting such as scissors, knives and other
sharp objects should be avoided because they mean the cutting of the relationship. Also, in
some countries you should not open the gift in front of the giver and in (26)__________ it
would be an insult if you did not open the gift.
Beyond the gift itself, give careful consideration to the manner in which it is presented.
Different cultures have different customs regarding how a gift should be offered - using only
your right hand or using both hands, (27)_____. Others have strong traditions related to the
appropriate way to accept a gift. In Singapore, for instance, it is the standard to graciously
refuse a gift several times before finally accepting it. The recipient would never unwrap a gift
in front of the giver for fear of appearing greedy.
Understanding these traditions and customs, as well as taking time to choose an
appropriate gift, will help you to avoid any awkwardness or (28)__________ as you seek to
build a better cross-cultural relationship.
(Source: http://www.giftypedia.com/International_Gift_Customs)
Question 24: A. exercise B. practice C. work D. task
Question 25: A. what B. that C. where D. who
Question 26: A. others B. other C. the others D. the other
Question 27: A. yet B. instead C. though D. for example
Question
28: A. embarrassment B. embarrass C. embarrassing D. embarrassed
Question 29: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be
settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
Question 30: It's often not that you meet someone who you're instantly attracted to.
A B C D
Question 31: Police are investigating how £20 million illegally transferred out of
the trust's bank account. A B C D
In the early 1800s, less than 3% of the world's population lived in cities; today, more
than half of the global population is urban and by 2050, the proportion will rise to three quarters.
There are thousands of small and medium-sized cities along with more than 30 megacities and
sprawling, networked metropolitan areas with 15 million residents or more. Yet despite these
massive transformations in how people live and interact, our international affairs are still largely
dictated by nation states, not cities.
Cities are beginning to flex their muscles on the international stage. They are already
displacing nation states as the central nodes of the global economy, generating close to 80% of
global GDP. Cities like New York and Tokyo are bigger in GDP terms than many G-20
countries. Metropolitan regions and special economic zones are linking global cities through
transnational supply chains. A growing number of mega-regions, such as those linking cities in
Mexico and the U.S., transcend borders. In the process, cities are collectively forging common
regional plans, trading partnerships, and infrastructure corridors.
The spectacular rise of cities did not happen by accident. Cities channel creativity,
connect human capital, and when well governed, they drive growth. That many cities and their
residents are rolling up their sleeves and getting things done - where nations have failed - are
grounds for optimism. In the future, we hope that it is our proximate, accountable, and
empowered city leaders who will define our fates.
A. History of cities all over the world B. Types of cities in the world
C. Contributions of cities to the world D. The not-to-distant future of cities
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true according to the writer?
A. Humanity transitioned from a rural to a primarily urban species at breathtaking speed.
B. Cities are the dominant form of human civilization in the 21st century.
C. There is a tendency for cities to connect to form large urban regions.
D. People should not be too optimistic about the future of cities.
Question 34: The phrase "flex their muscles" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
__________ .
A. show their strength B. change their attitudes
C. leave their side D. find their ways
Question 35: Would the following sentence best be placed at the end of which paragraph?
“This is neither fair nor rational.”
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 36: The word "they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________ .
A. plans B. partnerships C. cities D. residents
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It’s a special, dark place completely
different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions
of kinds of animals, insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a
rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don’t know it’s raining. The trees
grow so closely together that rain doesn’t always reach the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth’s surface, about six percent. They
are found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in
South America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square
kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in
Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands.
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the
“lungs of our planet” because it produces twenty percent of the world’s oxygen. One fifth of
the world’s fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the
world’s species of animals, plants, and insects live in the Earth’s rainforests. Eighty percent of
the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn,
potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the
drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of
these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from
rainforests, it’s surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or
6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to
make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with
losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems
worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for
the world.
Question 37: What is the author’s purpose in the passage?
A. To provide factual information about tropical rainforests for readers.
B. To prove that rainforests are indispensable in our lives.
C. To explain why people have destroyed a large area of tropical rainforests.
D. To prevent people from damaging tropical rainforests.
Question 38: The word “humid” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
_____________.
A. dry B. moist C. cloudy D. overwhelmed
Question 39: Why don’t people know it’s raining in the rainforests?
A. Because the trees grow very tall there.
B. Because they are the habitats of millions of flora and fauna.
C. Because the branches are too dense for the rain to touch the ground.
D. Because it hardly rains in the rainforests.
Question 40: The following are the facts about rainforests, EXCEPT ___________.
A. The only places to see rainforests are in tropical zones.
B. The rainforest in Western Africa ranks second after the Amazon in South America in
the covered area.
C. Rainforests account for about one sixth of the Earth’s surface.
D. There’s a considerable variety of plants and animals in the rainforests.
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to ______________.
A. plants
B. the drugs
C. rainforests
D. pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar
Question 42: The word “countless” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. trivial B. meaningless C. numberless D. derisive
Question 43: What can be inferred from the last passage?
A. People are not aware of the significance of the rainforests.
B. The consequences of deforestation are greater than what people can imagine.
C. The more rainforests are destroyed, the harder people’s life will become.
D. People’s economic benefits are more important than environmental problems.
Question 44: It's such a pity my mother can't attend my birthday party.
A. If only my mother could attend my birthday party.
B. If only my mother had attended my birthday party.
C. I am very sorry that my mother didn't attend my birthday party.
D. I wonder why my mother can't attend my birthday party.
Question 45: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Question 46: We have some minutes to spare so you don't have to be hurried.
A. There is no need for you to be hurried as we have time to spare.
B. You should be hurried as we have no time to spare.
C. It is necessary for you not to be hurried as we have time to spare.
D. You must not be hurried as we have plenty of time to spare.
Question 47: Shirley is at the information desk of the airport.
- Attendant: “Hello. Can I see your passport?”
- “__________ ”
A. Here you are. I don't have a ticket because I booked online.
B. There you are. Why don't you come over here?
C. Here I am. Sorry. I've got stuck in the traffic for so long.
D. Here it is. You can see it clearly from this angle.
Question 48: Two students are talking with each other about their student life.
- Student A: “Do you prefer to live on campus or in a rent apartment?”
- Student B: “__________ .”
A. I'm thinking of renting an apartment for more freedom.
B. Actually, it's not good living with someone you don't really like.
C. Living on the campus helps you socialize with many other students.
D. It's not easy to find an apartment for sale at reasonable price.
Question 49: Tourism allows us to do more than just learn facts about various locations. It
allows us to immerse ourselves in the cultures and lifestyles of others.
A. Because tourism allows us to do more than just learn facts about various locations, it
allows us to immerse ourselves in the cultures and lifestyles of others.
B. If tourism allows us to do more than just learn facts about various locations, it will
allow us to immerse ourselves into the cultures and lifestyles of others.
C. Not only does tourism allow us to do more than just learn facts about various
locations, it also allows us to immerse ourselves into the cultures and lifestyles of others.
D. When tourism allows us to do more than just learn facts about various locations, it
allows us to immerse ourselves into the cultures and lifestyles of others.
Question 50: Michael Faraday was employed by the Royal Institution. There, he investigated
the connections between electricity, magnetism and motion.
A. Michael Faraday was employed by the Royal Institution, where he investigated the
connections between electricity, magnetism and motion.
B. When Michael Faraday was employed by the Royal Institution, he investigated the
connections between electricity, magnetism and motion.
C. The Royal Institution employed Michael Faraday to investigate the connections
between electricity, magnetism and motion.
D. After he investigated the connections between electricity, magnetism and motion,
Michael Faraday was employed by the Royal Institution.
-----THE END-----
53 2023
Question 1: A. clothes B. clothe C. cloth D. clothing
Question 2: A. leaned B. learned C. opened D. listened
Question 3: A. mental B. canal C. central D. rental
Question 4: A. television B. documentary C. secondary D. category
questions.

Question 5: In Southern Asia, only 74 girls were enrolled in primary school for every 100
boys in 1990. By 2012, _______ enrolment ratios were the same for girls as for boys.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. any
Question 6: To my mind housework is boring and __________ it takes a lot of time with a
hardly visible result.
A. besides B. then C. yet D. so
Question 7: Some children consider that their parents __________ these old-fashioned ideas
about making beds in the morning, washing the dishes after every meal and so on.
A. are having B. will have C. have D. are going to have
Question 8: It is almost impossible __________ our life without electronic appliances which
make the housework better and faster.
A. to imagine B. imagine C. to imagining D. imagining
Question 9: Provided you use a freezer wisely, it can help to make significant savings on
your _____ budget.
A. housing B. household C. houseful D. house
Question 10: Some young artists don't have the chance _________ to the music industry and
most importantly there is no platform for them to showcase their real talents.
A. to exposing B. to expose C. to be exposed D. be exposed
Question 11: They've spent a lot of money on _______ and they're beginning to see the
results.
A. advertise B. advertising C. advertisement D. advertised
Question 12: _____________ in most Asian countries is different from that of Western
countries.
A. The concept of love and marriage B. As the concept of love and marriage
C. The concept of love and marriage that D. Because the concept of love and
marriage
Question 13: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of __________
devices.
A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming C. labor-saving D. pollution-
free
Question 14: Worldwide commercial exploitation of animals for food and other products has
seriously __________ the number of endangered species.
A. reduced B. minimized C. demolished D. eliminated
Question 15: V-pop's style __________ by the intersection of domestic and Western media
in the lives of many young Vietnamese.
A. is influenced B. influencing C. has influenced D. are influenced
Question 16: After moving to India, Alice __________ to do something different and started
teaching blind children in the age group of two to five years.
A. has decided B. decided C. decides D. will decide
Question 17: Glass containers can be used __________ storing food or other items.
A. for B. to C. of D. into
Question 18: If I were you, I __________ products made from recycled materials.
A. could select B. will select C. would select D. might select
Question 19: __________ you love English, the better you can learn it.
A. Most B. Most of C. The more D. More
Question 20: I highly appreciate Mr. Harrison's practical advice on minimizing
deforestation.
A. supportive B. realistic C. constructive D. decent
Question 21: The fall in the number of deaths from heart disease is generally attributed
to improvements in diet.
A. due to B. contributing to C. responsible for D. thanks to

Question 22: I am just a cog in the machine in this organization as my contribution to it is
still minor.
A. negligible B. pivotal
C. of little importance D. of complete indifference
Question 23: What ruins our presentation on the mitosis process is that Natasha and Jackie
are not on the same wavelength about how to deal with it.
A. not familiar-thinking B. not like-minded
C. not same-minded D. not though-sharing
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or,
have you felt like people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it easier
to connect with people (24) __________ are closer to your age than those who are older or
younger than you. You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings.
There are (25) ________ six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation,
Silent Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. Each
generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. (26)________, the Greatest
Generation (born 1901-1924) is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to
institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000) are (27) __________ by their dependence on
technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no
wonder that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each
other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that
exist between (28) ________ from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
(Source: https://study.com/academy)
Question 24: A. who B. whom C. which D. what
Question
25: A. approximately B. apparently C. contemporarily D. currently
Question 26: A. Such as B. For example C. Accordingly D. However
Question
27: A. characterize B. characterized C. characteristic D. characteristically
Question 28: A. members B. individuals C. persons D. human beings
Question 29: One by one the old buildings in the city have been destroyed and replaced with
A B C
modern tower blocks.
D
Question 30: The more difficult part of running a business is keeping up-to-date with the
A B C
client's needs and desires.
D
Question 31: The lecturer said that he would attend a conference on how to
develop renewable energy
A B C
technology next day.
D
Expanding the planet's protected natural areas to safeguard vanishing forests and other
ecosystems, and the species they protect, is unlikely to be effective on its own as human
encroachment into reserves grows, scientists warned Tuesday. A study by Cambridge
University researchers, which looked at thousands of conservation areas in more than 150
countries, found that, on average, protected designation is not reducing human encroachment
in vulnerable areas. Both chronic underfunding of efforts to protect the land, and a lack of

engagement with local communities that live there are hurting conservation efforts, they
found.
Creating protected areas is "a type of intervention that we know can work, we know is
absolutely essential for conserving biodiversity, at a time in this world's history where it has
never been under higher pressure," said lead author Jonas Geldmann. "But despite that we are
seeing that some of our protected areas are not managing to mitigate or stop that increasing
pressure," said Geldmann, of the University of Cambridge Conservation Research Institute.
One-sixth of the globe now falls within protected areas, the study noted. Those
include national parks, nature reserves and wilderness areas, according to the International
Union for Conservation of Nature's World Database on Protected Areas. Such protected areas
are vital for preserving diverse ecosystems, and helping to curb climate change by conserving
carbon-sequestering forests and other vegetation. The United Nations Environment Program
estimates protected areas hold 15% of the carbon stored on land.
"Protected areas are one of the most important things that we can do to stem the loss
of biodiversity and to help solve the climate crisis," said Andrew Wetzler, managing director
of the U.S.-based Natural Resources Defense Council's nature program. "The destruction of
natural habitat is the single biggest driver of extinction."
(Source: https://www.voanews.com/)
A. Protected status is not enough to guard threatened nature.
B. Destruction of nature is as dangerous as climate change.
C. Damaged and threatened national natural landmarks.
D. Conservation status and history of threatened species.
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, what is mentioned as one of the problems for nature
conservation?
A. Unauthorized access of motor vehicles.
B. Widespread abandonment of the area.
C. Continually insufficient financial provision.
D. Post-fire invasion of pyrophytes species.
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. time B. history C. intervention D. biodiversity
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, how much land do the total preserved zones in the
world account for?
A. Above 60% of the terrain area. B. Nearly 17% of the earth’s surface.
C. Approximately 15% of the globe. D. One-sixteenth of the hydrosphere.
Question 36: The word “stem” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. stalk B. restrict C. spring D. originate
For hundreds of years, giving flowers has been a social means of communication. In
the United States, flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special
occasions or as a heartfelt gift between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in
most countries around the world. However, the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in
China, teachers are given flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in
China. They are also quite popularly used for weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not
considered a pleasant gift among Asian cultures. The people believe that like a plant confined
by a pot, the gift symbolizes a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single
flower or an unwrapped bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians
celebrate a holiday known as Woman’s Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or
tulips. When there is a funeral or other occasion where someone wishes to express sympathy,
carnations, lilies or roses are given in circular configurations, which signify the transition of
birth, life and death to rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is commonly yellow. For
joyous occasions, arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of flowers.

In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and
encourage fertility. The Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to
someone’s home in Great Britain, it is tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are
acceptable except white lilies, which are usually seen at funerals. Not unlike the United
States, red roses are a symbol of love. Flowers are generally gifted in odd numbered
increments regardless of the occasion. However, the Brits also have superstitions regarding
the number 13, so the number is avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during
Christmas. Egyptians are much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and
weddings. While certain flowers may have significant meanings for some, flowers in Las
Vegas and across the United States flowers are an acceptable gift for any reason desired.
(Source: http://www.flowersofthefieldlv.com/ )
Question 37: What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
B. The different meanings of flowers in different cultures.
C. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
D. The kinds of flowers people often give others in different cultures.
Question 38: What does the word “They” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Students B. Teachers C. Flowers D. Peonies
Question 39: Why should not you give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. Because the Asians prefer to be given flowers.
B. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize a binding and limitation in Asia.
D. Because the Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.
Question 40: According to the passage, the following flowers are given at Woman’s Day in
Russia, EXCEPT __________.
A. red roses B. hyacinths C. tulips D. yellow roses
Question 41: What could the word “fertility” in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. fecundity B. good spirit C. happiness D. loyalty
Question 42: The word “superstitions” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. deep-seated belief B. unfounded belief C. religious belief D. traditional
belief
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that _______________.
A. People can give flowers to the Americanson in any occasion.
B. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
C. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.
D. At funerals in any cultures, flowers are gifted in circular configurations.
Question 44: Every student is required to write an essay on music.
A. Every student might write an essay on music.
B. Every student must write an essay on music.
C. They require every student write an essay on music.
D. Every student should write an essay on music.
Question 45: "Do homework now or I'll cut your pocket money!" shouted the mum to her
son.
A. The mum threatened to cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
B. The mum said that she would cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
C. The mum told her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do homework.
D. The mum informed her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do
homework.
Question 46: She wasn't wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn't been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn't have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she were wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn't be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn't have been injured.
Question 47: - “I do believe the computer acts as a teacher or tutor, providing material,
guiding a student how to learn it.”
- “_____________________.”
A. I can't agree more. B. I'm not sure whether it's possible.
C. I'm not sure it's the best idea. D. My feelings on the issue are so-so.
Question 48: - “It goes without saying that parents should not treat boys and girls differently at
home.”
- “_________________.”
A. I am under the impression that it's true. B. We are of one mind on the issue.
C. This argument must not hold water. D. Yes. I disagree with you.
Question 49: We almost gave up hope. At that time, the rescue party arrived.
A. Only after the rescue party arrived did we give up hope.
B. It was not until the rescue party arrived that we gave up hope.
C. We were on the verge of giving up hope when the rescue party arrived.
D. Had the rescue party not arrived, we wouldn't have given up hope.
Question 50: Sam has a new job title and he gets a higher salary now. This means, she has
been promoted.
A. Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now, which means she has been
promoted.
B. Sam has been promoted because she has a new job title to get a higher salary now.
C. Getting a higher salary after having a new job title had made Sam promoted.
D. Having been promoted, Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now.
-----THE END-----
54 2023
Question 1: A. imitate B. tsunami C. ripple D. evidence
Question 2: A. used B. stopped C. learned D. laughed
Question 3: A. inspire B. fabric C. spacesuit D. email
Question 4: A. charity B. processor C. computer D. benefit
questions.
Question 5: I ___________ him once or twice in town.
A. have seen B. see C. had seen D. saw
Question 6: I am writing in connection with the volunteer opportunities __________ on 10
November.
A. appeared B. were appearing C. appearing D. to appear
Question 7: ________ a game I used to play with my father when I was small.
A. Dominoes is B. Dominoes are C. The dominoes is D. Domino is
Question 8: The company was dealt a ________ blow when its chief designer deserted to
another firm.
A. killing B. mortal C. homicidal D. suicidal
Question 9: The government has __________ new proposals to tackle the problem of
increasing crime.
A. brought over B. brought through C. brought round D. brought forward
Question 10: It's absolutely vital that your son ___________ a rest and _____ hard.
A. takes/doesn’t study B. take/not study
C. takes/studies D. should take/study
Question 11: The organizers said that if it continued ______, they might have to cancel the
outdoor concert.
A. to rain B. raining C. to raining D. rain
Question 12: I remember you have told me that I am your best friend, _________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. aren’t I D. all are correct
Question 13: Now that she is trained, she hopes to earn her living as a ________ in an office.
A. staff B. personnel C. typewriter D. clerk
Question 14: My wife would much rather have our baby at home than in _____ hospital.
A. the B. a C. Ø D. an
Question 15: In 2002 in the UK, there were __________ 350 community recycling initiatives
linked to the Community Recycling Network.
A. approximate B. approximation C. approximately D. approximated
Question 16: My mother told me to give him a sniff of smelling _____ to bring him around.
A. salt B. salts C. a little salt D. the salt
Question 17: When one door closes another door opens; but we often look so long and so
regretfully upon the closed door _______ we do not see the ones which open for us.
A. that B. who C. which D. what
Question 18: Martin is called the teacher's pet by his classmates because he is taken under
his teacher's __________ .
A. hands B. arms C. wings D. legs
Question 19: Her aunt gave her a __________ handbag on her birthday last week.
A. beautiful red Korean B. red Korean beautiful
C. beautiful Korean red D. Korean red beautiful
Question 20: After months lying in bed because of a serious disease, now she looks so
shabby, which is really different from her being animate before.
A. alive B. tired C. exhausted D. active
Question 21: We’re missing the boat on improving relationship with our partners because
you were late for the meeting which made them really angry. It is you who have to take the
responsibility for this.
A. having a field day B. making hay while the sun shines
C. being laughed out of court D. closing the door
Question 22: One journalist has commented, "Ordering a frozen embryo is a little more
emotionally complicated than ordering a home-delivered pizza - but not so
different logistically".
A. in theory B. in practice C. in fact D. in deed
Question 23: I heard it through the grapevine that they were enemies and had never been on
good terms.
A. gave it the low-down B. put it in the picture
C. heard it straight from the horse’s mouth D. kept it in the loop
Glaciers are melting, sea levels are rising, and cloud forests are dying. More
alarmingly, wildlife is scrambling to keep (24) ____. It's becoming clear that humans have
caused most of the past century's warming by (25) ____ heat-trapping gases as we power our
modern lives. Called greenhouse gases, their levels are higher now than in the last 650,000
years.
We call the result global warming, but it is causing a set of changes to the Earth's
climate, or long-term weather patterns, whichvary from place to place. As the Earth spins
each day, the new heat swirls with it, (26) ____ up moisture over the oceans, rising here,
settling there. It's changing the rhythms of climate that all living things have come to rely
upon.
What will we do to slow this warming? How will we cope (27) ____ the changes
we've already set into (28) ____? While we struggle to figure it all out, the face of the Earth
as we know it-coasts, forests, farms and snow-capped mountains-hangs in the balance.
Question 24: A. space B. pace C. rhythms D. step
Question 25: A. relieving B. publishing C. releasing D. unraveling
Question 26: A. pick B. to pick C. picking D. picks
Question 27: A. with B. on C. at D. to
Question 28: A. fluctuation B. direction C. movement D. motion
Question 29: He was arrested because he answered to the description of the wanting man.
A B C D
Question 30: My history teacher said that Belize became fully independent of Britain in
1981.
A B C D
Question 31: If I didn’t wake up early to catch the first bus today, I wouldn’t have to go to
bed
A B C
at 9: 00 pm last night.
D
People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and children stay healthy
while playing with others. However, playing sports can have negative effects on children. It
may produce feelings of poor self-esteem or aggressive behavior in some children. According
to research on kids and sports, 40 million kids play sports in the US. Of these, 18 million say
they have been yelled at or called names while playing sports. This leaves many children
with a bad impression of sports. They think sports are just too aggressive.
Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, are the main cause of
too much aggression in children’s sports. They believe children copy aggressive adult
behavior. This behavior is then further reinforced through both positive and negative
feedback. Parents and coaches are powerful teachers because children usually look up to
them. Often these adults behave aggressively themselves, sending children the message that
winning is everything. At children’s sporting events, parents may yell insults at other players
or cheer when their child behaves aggressively. As well, children may be taught that hurting
other players is acceptable, or they may be pushed to continue playing even when they are
injured. In addition, the media makes violence seem exciting. Children watch adult sports
games and see violent behavior replayed over and over on television.
As a society, we really need to face up to this problem and do something about it.
Parents and coaches should act as better examples for children. They also need to teach
children better values. They should teach children to enjoy themselves whether they win or
not. It is not necessary to knock yourself out to enjoy sports. Winning is not everything. In
addition, children should not be allowed to continue to play when they are injured. Sending a
child with an injury into a game gives the child the message that health is not as important as
winning. If we make some basic changes, children might learn to enjoy sports again.
A. Children should be discouraged to play sports when they are too young.
B. Playing sports is not always beneficial to children’s health.
C. The negative impacts sports bring children outweigh its positive effects.
D. Playing sports may make children more violent.
Question 33: The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. playing sports
B. millions of kids playing sports in the US
C. being yelled or called names while playing sports
D. aggressive behavior
Question 34: The word “reinforced” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. strengthened B. deteriorated C. reduced D. prevented
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, the following are the reasons of children’s
aggression, EXCEPT __________.
A. parents and coaches are too aggressive to win.
B. children are likely trained that it’s appropriate to commit a foul against an opponent.
C. violent manners are repeated many times on television.
D. children shout at their opponents as playing.
Question 36: What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Relishing themselves should be children’s principal purpose when playing sports.
B. Aggressive behavior is indispensable in playing sports.
C. Children are inevitable to hurt or yell at other players when playing sports.
D. Being injured in sports is not acceptable.
From time immemorial, cities have been the central gathering places of human life,
from where the great ideas and movements of the world have sprouted. In this country, the
beginnings of our independence fomented with the Boston Tea Party, while Philadelphia
served as the home of the Constitutional Convention. The seeds of economic and financial
power were sowed on the streets of New York City. Around the world, the great thinkers of
the Renaissance assembled in Florence, the impressionist painters flocked to Paris, and the
industrial revolution sparked in Birmingham England.
Hundreds of years later, great ideas and innovations are still sprouting in cities – but
this time accompanied by a growth in urbanized life over the last several decades never
before seen. For the first time in history, more people are living in cities than rural areas.
And, this way of living is only going to continue: by 2050, the urban share of global
population is projected to surpass 66 percent (up from 30 percent in 1950). This trend to
urbanization is even more dramatic beyond the borders of the United States. Take Nigeria's
capital, Lagos, which had a population of approximately 7.2 million in 2000, and is expected
to rise to 24 million by 2030. And, eight times more Nigerians live in cities today than in
1975. Moreover, the metro areas of Tokyo, New York and Mexico City were the only metro
areas in 1975 with at least 10 million people. Today, that list would include 31 such
megacities – with 10 more to join by 2030 – all of which are outside the United States.
Cities are undergoing what Brookings Institution author Bruce Katz terms the
"metropolitan revolution." Financial capitals New York and London are transforming into
major world tech hubs as new and innovative companies emerge within these cities. And, this
shift is not exclusive to New York or London, as many cities are undergoing similar
transformations driven by this global trend toward urbanization. This wave of urban growth
stems, in large part, from the mass adoption of the internet and interconnected technologies.
Interestingly, many sociologists predicted years ago that the advent of such interconnectivity
would enable people to live and work anywhere. But the practical result has been the
opposite.
Indeed, in this new 21st century economy, innovative workers seek one another to
collaborate in building and developing new knowledge-based industries that are increasingly
disrupting and dominating a rapidly evolving global economy. Bright, curious minds in the
sciences and technology demand proximity in order to be more productive, more creative and
further stimulated. This need for collaboration has propelled millennials to move to urban
areas in droves. But once they get there, they desire new open physical environments – such
as incubators and shared work places – to enhance their collaborative efforts. Beyond work, a
growing single population – one that now outnumbers married people in the United States –
seeks out other singles amid the myriad activities and diverse nightlife that only cities offer.
(Adapted from https://www.usnews.com/)
A. The increasing number of city dwellers and its challenges.
B. The movement of villagers to cities due to the urbanization.
C. The influence of innovations on urbanized life.
D. Urbanization and its potential.
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, which country was mentioned when the author
stated “in this country”?
A. England B. Italy C. France D. The United States
Question 39: The word “sparked” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
____________.
A. completed B. succeeded C. changed D. initiated
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true about the urban population?
A. In the past, more people lived in the countryside than in cities.
B. As predicted, the number of urban inhabitants in 1950 was nearly a half of that in the
next 100 years.
C. The rate of urbanization in the United States is greater than the proportion in any
other place in the world.
D. More and more megacities are set up beyond the United States.
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, what is the main reason for the increase in
urbanization?
A. There are many new and innovative companies appearing in financial capitals.
B. Many cities are influenced by global urbanization.
C. The internet and interconnected technologies are widely applied.
D. People are likely to live and work wherever they want.
Question 42: The following are the changes in the new 21st century
economy, EXCEPT __________.
A. Co-workers have to be advanced to work together in building and improving new
industries.
B. Intelligent scientists require similar counterparts to work more effectively.
C. People rush to urban areas to find open physical environments to improve their
ability.
D. Single population often finds their life partners through activities at nights provided
only in cities.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. City dwellers tend to be more and more creative and innovative.
B. Cities now are too crowded to live in.
C. The drawbacks urbanization causes are greater than its benefits.
D. Urbanization is one of the reasons for the increasing number of singles at cities.
Question 44: Pop culture often reflects what our society thinks about friends.
A. Often reflecting what our society thinks about friends is pop culture.
B. Our society or friends are reflected in the pop culture we follow.
C. Reflecting what our society thinks about friends is often pop culture.
D. What our society thinks about friends is often reflected in pop culture.
Question 45: We employed a market researcher to find out what people really want from a
cable TV system.
A. We got a market researcher found out what people really want from a cable TV
system.
B. We had a market researcher to find out what people really want from a cable TV
system.
C. A market researcher was hired to find out what people really want from a cable TV
system.
D. We got a market researcher to find out what people really want from a cable TV
system.
Question 46: Longer life spans also increase the prevalence of generation gaps.
A. The longer life spans are, the more prevalent generations gaps become.
B. When life spans are increased, the prevalence of generation gaps increases.
C. No longer do the life spans increase the prevalence of generation gaps.
D. Only when life spans increase does the prevalence of generation gaps increase.
Question 47: Two students are talking with each other about the weekend picnic.
- Student 1: “Can you come with us?”
- Student 2: “________________________.”
A. Whether my parents will let me or not is the question.
B. The teacher is asking us to submit the paper next week.
C. The weather is so nice for a picnic.
D. Well, I thought it was yesterday.
Question 48: Two students are talking with each other.
- Student A: “Do you believe that your parents should be your friends?”
- Student B: “__________________________.”
A. Actually, parents are now my best friends.
B. Indeed, parents are giving us best advices.
C. Sometimes, parents are too busy to take care of you.
D. My parents take very good care of me and my sister.
Question 49: Plants grow old as surely as do animals. However, a generally accepted
definition of age in plants has not yet been realized.
A. Plants grow old as surely as do animals, and a generally accepted definition of age in
plants has not yet been realized.
B. Although plants grow old as surely as do animals, a generally accepted definition of
age in plants has not yet been realized.
C. Plants grow old as surely as do animals, so a generally accepted definition of age in
plants has not yet been realized.
D. For plants to grow old as surely as do animals, a generally accepted definition of age
in plants has not yet been realized.
Question 50: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had they finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.
-----THE END-----
55 2023
Question 1: A. primary B. hike C. linguistics D. divide
Question 2: A. promises B. realizes C. devises D. socializes
Question 3: A. indoor B. damage C. despite D. canal
Question 4: A. generous B. extensive C. resources D. eternal
questions.

Question 5: The kids ____ to get up this morning. It ____ and it was cold, and their bed was
so warm.
A. don't want / is raining B. didn’t want / rained
C. weren't wanting / rained D. didn't want / was raining
Question 6: Almost 50 per cent of cancer _______ are treated successfully.
A. sufferers B. patients C. victims D. invalids
Question 7: I don't know why you insist __________ blaming me __________ all my
troubles.
A. on / for B. in / for C. at / on D. over / for
Question 8: The fifth generation computers, with artificial intelligence, ________ and
perfected now.
A. developed B. have developed
C. are being developed D. will have been developed
Question 9: These trainers are the _______ article. Those others are just cheap imported
copies.
A. real B. existent C. authentic D. genuine
Question 10: A love marriage, however, does not necessarily __________ much sharing of
interests and responsibilities.
A. take over B. result in C. hold on D. keep to
Question 11: __________ of the brothers wants to give in. Both are as stubborn as a mule.
A. None B. Either C. Neither D. Each
Question 12: The bridge will be completed at the end of next year, two years _________.
A. hence B. thus C. consequently D. therefore
Question 13: We bought both sofas from _______ big furniture warehouse that's just off the
motorway.
A. some B. the C. a D. Ø
Question 14: It is __________ that you are cordially /ˈkɔː.di.ə.li/ invited to attend.
A. at our annual wine-tasting evening B. on our annual wine-tasting evening
C. in our annual wine-tasting evening D. our annual wine-tasting evening
Question 15: ___________ are that they'll be late anyway, so we’d better wait for them for
another moment.
A. Opportunities B. Chances C. Fortunes D. Lucks
Question 16: When my parents traveled to Singapore, they bought me a _______ piano on my
birthday.
A. precious grand ancient wooden B. wooden grand ancient precious
C. precious ancient grand wooden D. ancient grand precious wooden
Question 17: Strangely, no one believed us when we told them we'd been visited by a
creature from Mars, __________?
A. didn’t we B. did we C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 18: Urbanization has resulted in _____________ problems besides the benefits.
A. vary B. various C. variety D. variability
Question 19: __________ the book again and again, I finally understood what the author
meant.
A. Have been reading B. Have been read C. Have read D. Having read
Question 20: She must have gotten up on the wrong side of the bed; normally she is very
friendly, but she seems to be screaming at everyone today.
A. have a bad day from the moment it begins B. was in a bad mood
C. felt irritable D. all are correct
Question 21: The changing physical landscape reflected the shift to an urbanized society.
Railroad terminals, factories, skyscrapers, apartment houses, streetcars, electric engines,
department stores, and the increased pace of life were all signs of an emerging urban
America.
A. position B. resource C. change D. returns

Question 22: Rather than assuming responsibility for explaining corporate losses, the
CEO passed the buck to his CFO to explain the downturn.
A. denied responsibilities
B. shifted the responsibility for something to someone else
C. made someone responsible for a problem that you should deal with
D. shouldered the blame
Question 23: It is believed that conflicts between parents and children can be resolved by
means of heart-to-heart talks.
A. harmony B. disagreements C. differences D. similarities
At present, single-parent families ought to be of great focus, be recognized and supported
as they are a growing family form and should not be an afterthought in family, economic and
labor market policies. Single parent families should be (24) ___________ considered and
addressed in all family policy discussions and decisions. (25)_______________, home-care cash
allowances, which are paid to a parent who abstains from employment to take care for her child
at home, can have significant consequences encouraging lower levels of female employment
among single-parent families, (26)____________ in turn results in higher childhood poverty. In
this regard, work-life balance policies and workplace practices also need to
(27)_________________ a single-parent perspective, for example, the impact of non-standard
work hours when childcare is not available.
The provision of educational and skill-building opportunities and affordable quality day
care become even more urgent in families with single parents. Such families should have a
higher priority and subsidized access to childcare facilities. Governmental agencies should be
established (28)___________ child support payment from non-resident parents in case of
conflicts, disagreements or delayed payments, e.g., after a divorce or separation.
Question 24: A. implicitly B. clearly C. indirectly D. completely
Question 25: A. For instance B. However C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 26: A. who B. whose C. which D. that
Question 27: A. take responsible for B. take in hand
C. take no notice of D. take account of
Question 28: A. to facilitate B. facilitating C. facilitated D. facilitate
Question 29: The survey shows that today's generation of young people generally get
along well with
A B
their parents and appreciate the way they're being risen.
C D
Question 30: His parents asked him to buy books which he found them useful
and necessary for his
A B C
study.
D
Question 31: Neither the clerks nor the department manager are being considered for
promotion this time. A B C D
There are many different metaphors used to describe culture. My favorite one is the
iceberg. I think, it demonstrates so vividly what can happen to us if we believe only in the
visible and ignore or underestimate the invisible part. The hidden part of our culture is that
part which we know instinctively because we absorbed it from childhood on. It's handed
down to us from generation to generation. We could also say, it's the "thinking" and "feeling"
part of culture: habits, assumptions, attitudes, desires, values, tastes, etc.
Now, if we are in a new culture, our customary evaluations and interpretations are
likely not to be on target because we see everything through our own cultural glasses.
Imagine yourself in a new city trying to get around with a map from your own hometown. It
wouldn't take long for you to get lost and completely frustrated! When we experience an
encounter in the new culture that puzzles us, the most common reaction is to judge it through
our own cultural glasses.
I want to propose an alternate approach to our initial gut reaction. Instead of
immediately and instinctively judging a situation through our own glasses, we might first just
pause and notice what is happening and then realize that this is a cultural learning situation.
Remember the iceberg metaphor! The new culture becomes your mirror that shows you a
hidden part of your own culture. What an opportunity for personal growth and new insight!
You can compare two different approaches, that of the new culture and of your own culture.
This gives you a choice. Now you can decide what fits best for you or even take the best from
both sides.
(Source: https://english-magazine.org/)
A. The simplicity of culture. B. The personal definition of culture.
C. Culture as a socializing tool. D. The open surface of culture.
Question 33: The word “vividly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. vaguely C. boringly D. warmly
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is the most common reaction when
experiencing cultural differences?
A. People accept the cultural distinction with modern open-mindedness.
B. People imitate the behaviors and patterns of the observed local citizens.
C. People use a map and ask around for more information.
D. People continue to apply their own cultural norms to the newly met situations.
A. map B. culture C. reaction D. encounter
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what is the advice for people facing unfamiliar
cultural events?
A. Making friends with local people helps people familiarize themselves with the culture
better.
B. It’s advisable to learn about a culture before travelling to exotic places.
C. It’s a real win-win situation to combine the knowledge from different cultures.
D. Sometimes it is wise to judge from your own cultural lens and sometime it isn’t.
From smartphones and tablets to apps and social media, society is ambushed from all
sides with technology. Naturally, all generations embrace it differently, with younger “digital
natives” generally being more connected, more switched-on and more tech literate than older
age groups.
According to Pew Research, 92% of Millennials (born 1981–1996) own smartphones,
compared with 85% of Gen Xers (born 1965–1980) and 67% of Baby Boomers (born 1946–
1964). In terms of tech behavior, older generations tend to use their phones mostly for
making calls, whereas for younger generations, a phone is their digital window to the world.
Phones are used for social media, going online, texting, emailing, playing games, listening to
music, and recording and watching videos.
The daily media consumption of different generations also vastly differs. Gen Z and
Millennials favor streaming and online services, with 46% of teens saying they use Netflix
compared to 31% of those aged over 16. Furthermore, 16-24s spend 30% of
their downtime watching TV or video, compared to 40% of time spent on these activities by
the average UK adult. Boomers spend a whopping 344 minutes a day watching regular TV,
significantly more than any other age group.
Size also matters more depending on your decade of birth. Younger generations prefer
smaller screens sizes, opting for a smartphone as their go-to tech, while Generation X and
technology newbies - the Boomers, are going bigger, owning more desktops and tablets.
Always in the front of the queue for the hottest tech, younger generations see technology as
an integral part of their existence, and since few Millennials and Gen Z can remember a time
without social media, they’re more fearless and carefree when it comes to technology. So
much so, that a LivePerson report revealed 65% of Millennials and Gen Z interact more with
each other online than they do in the real world.
Fundamentally, these behaviors and preferred technologies combine to create a
technological generation gap, where employees, shaped by their personal experiences,
demonstrate different levels of ability and willingness to adopt new tech. Constantly chasing
the next update or device, switched on Millennials and Gen Z are quick to lap up the latest
apps, games, and platforms, while Gen X and Boomers are generally slower
to embrace technology - both at home and in the workplace.
(Source: https://info.templafy.com/)
A. Bridging the technological generation gap.
B. Decoding the ethical generational gap.
C. The technological generation gap in family life.
D. What is the technological generation gap?
A. window B. media C. society D. technology
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, what is the technological characteristic of
Millennials?
A. They are hesitant when discussing technology.
B. They are dependent on smartphones for almost every activity.
C. They are optimistic about technology’s benefits to society.
D. They are ignorant to the older ones’ advice about technology.
Question 40: The word “downtime” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. spare time B. inactivity C. suspension D. stay
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, which statement is correct about different
generations and their gap?
A. Boomers are willing to queue overnight for a state-of-the-art mobile gadgets.
B. Millennials and Gen Z are more accustomed to face-to-face than messaging.
C. iPhones and other mobile devices are a necessary part of life for young people.
D. Younger generations prefer bigger technological devices over portable ones.
Question 42: The word “embrace” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. reject B. include C. cuddle D. adopt
A. There's a huge disparity in attitudes towards technology among different age groups.
B. The difference in digital literacy and ability between generations is negligible.
C. Generation gap issues in work life can result in workplace tensions and hinder team
collaboration.
D. Catering for the diverse digital habits and capabilities of individual students is
essential.
Question 44: It wasn’t her who you saw in her office last Friday because she she's been out
of town for two weeks.
A. You needn’t have seen her in her office last Friday because she’s been out of town for
two weeks.
B. You shouldn’t have seen her in her office last Friday; she's been out of town for two
weeks.
C. You can’t have seen her in her office last Friday; she's been out of town for two
weeks.
D. You mustn’t have seen her in her office last Friday; she's been out of town for two
weeks.
Question 45: “Everyone treated me unfairly”, said she.
A. She maintains to have been treated unfairly.
B. She maintains to be treating unfairly.
C. She maintains that she had been treated unfairly.
D. She maintains she was treated unfairly.
Question 46: He was working abroad, so he couldn’t willingly help us with the project.
A. If he hadn’t worked abroad, he would willingly have helped with us the project.
B. If it hadn’t been for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have
helped us with the project.
C. Hadn’t he been working abroad, he would willingly have helped us with the project.
D. Without working abroad, he could willingly help us with the project.
Question 47: - X: “Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Y: “_________________________________.”
A. As a matter of fact, I don't mind it at all.
B. I do. I've been excited about it now.
C. However. My parents and I are going to take
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Question 48: - X: “What's the problem, Harry?”
- Y: “__________ .”
A. No problem
B. No trouble at all
C. Thank you for asking me about it
D. I can't remember where I left my glasses
Question 49: Mariah sings well. She writes good songs, too.
A. Mariah can either sing well or write good songs.
B. Mariah can neither sing well or write good songs.
C. Not only does Mariah sing well but she also writes good songs.
D. Not only does Mariah sing well but she write good songs as well.
Question 50: How about having these exercises finished before playing games?
A. I suggest you play games before finishing these exercises.
B. I suggest these exercises finish before we play games.
C. Let's play games before having these exercises finished.
D. I suggest playing games after having these exercises finished.
-----THE END-----


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