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ĐỀ MINH HỌA 2022-TA (P1)

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class
the previous day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by
salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the
United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull
____ the promise she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had
C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh,
honey, please don't make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern
for the social prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is
B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are
D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in
_______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an

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Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite
well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was
assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the
world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed
scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business
trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful
weather, the historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team
will be sent out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that
admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one
heard anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of
work per week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be
full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.
Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility
needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and
people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only
option. Others work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions - and
working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some situations, part-time
employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers
do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their part-
time employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific
industries that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____
the factors before deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your
specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but

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Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among


Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it
is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the
USA in 1935. A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North
America and
A B C
half in Canada.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all
close relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between
1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again
in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other
country, and their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II,
Britain and the US supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is
usually the first country to come forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the
union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared
political interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two
countries are very similar. They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature,
films and television. Many Americans have British ancestors, or relatives still living in
Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s, and there are many
Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people
are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power.
The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime
Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special
relationship between Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.

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C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.


D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and
Mademoiselle. It's the message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and
accessory designs, on shopping bags and totes, in advertisements and on price tags.
A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in
Vogue this month, may not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the
pervasiveness of ecological themes in the images and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is
also somewhat paradoxical. The fashion industry, whose driving philosophy involves
encouraging consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is now trying to push itself to
the forefront of efforts to conserve and preserve.
The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations
in designer collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which
the environmental advantages of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy
dangled from the ceiling at a Paris fashion show; a carpet of grass covered a runway in New
York; models marched along in T-shirts or carrying signs all bearing slogans like ''Clean Up
or Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental Protection Agents.
The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where
''clothes with conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and
sportswear company based in New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the
individual's outlook toward saving the environment'' through educational tags. This summer,
the first wave of what Bonjour executives said would be 50 million fashion items a year are
to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from how to save water to how to
reduce pollutants.
Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise
environmental awareness, with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear.
There is some skepticism. Professor Ewen says the new environmental symbolism should be
viewed as part of an overall change in America's economy, from one built on industrial
production of hard goods to one based on ''pure representation”. “Going back to fashion, the
environment has become a commercial cliche separated from real concerns. What can be
attached to this year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental sanity.''
Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The green movement in the fashion world
B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.
C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.
D. Going green is the new big thing.
Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much
of an irony?
A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.
B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.
C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.
D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry.
Question 40: The word “wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant

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Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green fashion?
A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.
B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.
C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.
D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.
B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the
garments.
C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.
D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.
Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.
Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.

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A. You must have told her the truth.


B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 2 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. confide B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. particular B. electrify C. fashionable D. geneticist
Question 4: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Some English words have the same pronunciation _______ they are spelled
differently, for example, dear and deer.
A. unless B. even though C. even if D. since
Question 6: WHO's objective is ___________ by all people of the highest possible level of
health.
A. attainment B. approach C. advance D. acquisition
Question 7: In 1791, Pierre-Charles L' Enfant ________ plan for the new capital city at
Washington.
A. had submitted B. has submitted C. was submitting D. submitted
Question 8: He did not want __________ his fears and insecurity to anyone.
A. to expose B. to be exposed C. to have exposed D. exposing
Question 9: My brother and his friend, Duong and Son, aged 15 and 16, ___________ won
the first and the third prize in the contest "Nation’s Brain.”
A. each B. respectively C. one by one D. every
Question 10: "You _____________ be thirsty! You've just drunk a lot of water.”
A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. can't D. mustn't
Question 11: The man was innocent; it was a case of mistaken ______________ .
A. identically B. identified C. identity D. identification
Question 12: This book is an __________ of a series lectures given last year.
A. expense B. extension C. addition D. expansion
Question 13: Culture shock is a feeling of confusion and anxiety that someone experiences
________ with a very different culture, especially a different country.
A. as they leave a place and go to another B. while visiting or leaving a place
C. visiting or going to live in a place D. when they visit or go to live in a place
Question 14: The police officer said two of the victims were known gang members; the other
was an innocent __________ .
A. bystander B. stander by C. standing-by D. by-standing
Question 15: This clock is always slow; I put it ___________ ten minutes every morning.
A. back B. up C. forward D. ahead
Question 16: If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a
better job years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 17: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. 0

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Question 18: Now that the scandal is in the ______, the Minister will have to resign.
A. string B. offing C. swing D. spring
Question 19: A strong wind spread the flames, __________?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - "Hi. You must be new here." - “_____________“
A. Yes, this is my first day on the job. B. Yes, am you surprised?
C. No, I’m very old here. D. Are you new here, too?
Question 21: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “ ___________ “
A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way. D. You are wrong. It's not here. .
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The architect was let down that his new city plan had been turned down.
A. disappointed B. satisfied C. emotional D. optimistic
Question 23: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a reform B. inflation C. an improvement D. a decline
Question 25: When people are angry, they seldom act in a rational way.
A. impolite B. dissatisfied C. unreasonable D. inconsiderate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be
settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
Question 27: In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being great delicacies to
eat.
A B C D
Question 28: Although Mark had been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know how to
prepare
A B
French foods in the traditional manner.
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each year thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of
English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves
(29) ________ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living
in an unfamiliar culture. One (30) _____________ these problems is the Homestay method.
With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and
interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student with
information about (31) ______________activities that are available locally, and takes them

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on trips. Students get “Between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected
to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore
learn how to use the language in everyday (32) ______________. Homestay programs
usually last for up to four weeks. Although costs are higher than of regular language schools,
students can feel (33) ___________ that they will be receiving top - class language teaching
in a safe and pleasant environment.
Question 29: A. attending B. going C. studying D. learning
Question 30: A. requirement B. answer C. argument D. reaction
Question 31: A. what B. where C. how D. why
Question 32: A. positions B. chances C. situations D. occasions
Question 33: A. confidence B. confidential C. confidently D. confident
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Myriad occupational schools in the central coastal city of Da Nang have received just
a small number of applications over the past few years. “Last year we only had 142 new
students, but the number of new enrollees is 50 this school year,” Truong Van Hung, rector of
the Duc Tri Da Nang Vocational College, said, adding the school has set a target of recruiting
1,200 students for the 2014-2015 academic year. “Closing the school is just a matter of time,”
he said.
Similarly, the Viet A Vocational School in Hai Chau District in Da Nang has not
recruited any new enrollee for over one year given the absence of job opportunities for its
graduates. “We do not want to enroll because we cannot help students land jobs after they
graduate,” a leader of Viet A said. “We will only admit new students when we can have a
partnership with companies who can employ our students after they finish their studies.”
Elsewhere, vocational schools in the southern province of Dong Nai are ‘frozen’.
The Dong Nai Information Technology-Telecommunications Vocational School in the
academic year of 2013-2014 enrolled only 82 students compared with a target of 1,000; the
Nhon Trach Industrial Engineering Vocational School only had 200 out of its goal of 600
students for the school year; the 26-3 Vocational School received 150 students while they set
a target of 250; and the South-Eastern Electromechanical Vocational School only recruited
300 out of the 500 students they planned to admit.
The situation means that equipment for training programs at those schools has been
left unused and covered with rust. Local experts have commented that if the lack of
students persists, vocational schools are at high risk of being closed, sooner or later.
(Source: https://tuoitrenews.vn/)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vocational schools in Vietnam struggling to survive.
B. Several principals failing to manage local schools.
C. Students turning their back at tertiary education.
D. More and more teenagers choosing to work.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, what was the attitude of the headmaster of the Duc
Tri Da Nang Vocational College?
A. He regretted not making any effort.
B. He was upset at his own incompetence.
C. He lamented the tragic plight of his school.
D. He was pleased to be able to change schools.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. companies B. students C. studies D. jobs
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the reason for the vocational schools in the
southern province of Dong Nai being ‘frozen’?

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A. Because their invested money cannot return.


B. Because they do not have enough students.
C. Because they cannot pay a debt from the land rent.
D. Because the government has suddenly changed the policy.
Question 38: The word “persists” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. withstands B. sustains C. insists D. continues
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and
programmes is increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc
Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2 million people over the age of two with disabilities, making
up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population. Of those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58
per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living in poverty. Most live in rural
areas and many are victims of Agent Orange.
Minister Dung said in the past, the State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid
much care to people with disabilities. Vietnam ratified the United Nations Convention on the
Rights of People with Disabilities in 2014. In March this year, the country ratified the
International Labour Organisation’s Convention 159 about jobs for people with
disabilities. It strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment to ensuring the disabled would not
be discriminated against at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading
work on affairs related to people with disabilities . The National Assembly later ratified the
amended Law on Labour with many adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that
every year, millions of disabled people receive an allowance from the State and all provinces
and cities had rehabilitation centres. Attending the event, Truong Thi Mai, head of the Party
Central Committee’s Commission for Mass Mobilisation, said besides the achievements,
Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still limited in demand for people with
disabilities and many life below the poverty line depending heavily on their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the
meaning of supportive work to people with disabilities. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion
(US$735.4 million) from the State budget was allocated to provinces and cities
to implement policies for people with disabilities, according to the Ministry of Labour,
Invalids and Social Affairs.
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme
“White stick for Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white
sticks to visually impaired people across the country. Training to use the device will also be
provided. Minister of Planning and Investment Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen
to disabled people’s demands and wishes and put them into its policies. Deputy chairwoman
of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam has committed to developing socio-
economy, taking care of social equality and improving social management ability.
(Source: https://vietnamnews.vn/)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visually impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 40: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian
C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

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A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention


Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies
towards the disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 43: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
Question 44: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment
have in mind when launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident.
B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind.
D. Improving the overall image of the government.
Question 45: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare has only gained recognition in recent
years.
B. The handicapped are annually supported by the government financially and
physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
B. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
C. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
D. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
Question 47: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He brought a wet blanket to the party.
B. He was wet through when going home from the party.
C. He made people at the party wet through.
D. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party.
Question 48: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive of Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: He thought he must have made a mistake somewhere. He went through his
calculations again.
A. Thinking he had made a mistake somewhere, he would go through his calculations
again.

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B. Thinking he must have made a mistake somewhere, he went through his calculations
again.
C. He went through his calculations again before he went thought of making mistake
somewhere.
D. He thought to have made a mistake somewhere and had gone through his calculations
again.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 3 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive B. electronic C. ecology D. individual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. features B. inserts C. reveals D. destroys
Question 4: A. access B. championship C. laborer D. democratic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.
A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a
Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with
families.
A. that B. which C. what D. whose
Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an
individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably
Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood
looking for her car.
A. Unable to remember where she was parking B. Unable to remember where she
has parked
C. Forgetting where to park D. Not remembering where she had parked
Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.
A. about B. to C. with D. of
Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.
A. would succeed B. would not have succeeded
C. would not succeed D. could have not succeeded
Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.
A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because
Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ to the
health service.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of women into
the workforce, the transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least
important.
A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable
Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's good
to have a proper ______________ sometimes.
A. head-to-head B. heart-to-head C. heart-to-heart D. head-to-heart
Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8
pm.

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A. prime B. leading C. main D. major


Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at home
today.
A. works – is working B. works – works
C. is working – works D. is working – is working
Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that would mean
_______ the house at 6.00.
A. to leave B. having left
C. leaving D. having to be leaving
Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of people all
over the world.
A. is thought to have originated B. is thought to have been originated
C. thought to have originated D. thought to have originated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"
Mary: " ______________ "
A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles. B. Three times a week, but sometimes
twice.
C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7. D. Not much, only a couple of
hours every day.
Question 21: John: "___________"
Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."
A. How is your class this term?
B. How many students in your class can speak English?
C. What are you going to do this term?
D. What is the problem with your English students?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She said to me that she had just read an interesting book which had a new
approach Shakespeare. A B C D
Question 23: From bones found in the United States, we have learned that many animals
which existed no
A B C
longer in the world once made their homes there.
D
Question 24: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertisings and commercials trying to
persuade the
A B C
public to buy their products.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage.
They think weddings are money-consuming and nonsensical.
A. do away with B. pay no attention to

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C. ignore D. put an end


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from
understanding and keeping our customs and traditions.
A. no worry about B. feel like
C. get involved in D. are unconcerned about
Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not
related to traditional values and the status.
A. conservational B. progressive C. modern D. economic
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth.
The astronaut is able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather
challenging as the water droplets will (29)__________ around. The astronaut will also have
to make to do with sponge baths.
There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which
includes beverages and food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximum of three
main meals a day. The meal varies each day until the sixth day. On that day, the menu is
(31)_____________ and the astronaut eats the meals he had on the first day. The food (32)
________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be dehydrated, in natural form for fresh.
Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed pouches. It takes only thirty
minutes to cook a delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space mission.
(33)_________, astronauts have to eat slowly and carefully or the food will float away.
Question 29: A. dive B. fall C. float D. fly
Question 30: A. board B. move C. air D. business
Question 31: A. repetition B. repeatedly C. repeating D. repeated
Question 32: A. what B. that C. whose D. 0
Question 33: A. However B. Moreover C. Instead D. In contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or
magnitude of the quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake
zones, and so the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and
the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire city.
We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will
occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is
now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University
of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a pattern—pressure builds in a zone
and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments
indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based
on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake
hit again, it was years off schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled
deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something.
Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places where the plates
widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.

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We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great
earthquake does happen in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists
think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)
Question 34: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.
B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.
C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.
D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.
Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means
___________.
A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.
B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger
zones.
C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to
predict.
D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.
Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern
Question 37: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.
B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.
C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.
D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.
Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.
A. Japan and the United States B. Tokai and San Andreas
C. Parkfield and Kato D. California and Tokyo
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in
evolutionary history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out
onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater
with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions,
snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and
various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land,
none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life,
including breathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land
animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned
to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates
might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales
(including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the
manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their
remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air,
having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation.
Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the
water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water
than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.

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There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor
which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys
quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear
to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can
tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found.
Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with
fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like
dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring
the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
__________.
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the
water least completely?
A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing
to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”
A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him. B. He offered to post the letter for
me.
C. He said I should post the letter myself. D. I wanted him to post the letter for me.
Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.
A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.
B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.
C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.
D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices

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Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except
silver, copper and gold.
A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal as
conductors of heat and electricity.
B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.
C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum.
D. Silver, copper and gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and
electricity.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.
A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.
B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.
C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.
D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.
Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any
solutions.
A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.
B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.
C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.
D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions
too.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 4 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hostile B. hotel C. hourglass D. honest
Question 2: A. chocolate B. difference C. identity D. vegetable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. meet B. free C. prefer D. repeat
Question 4: A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. roughed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Would you care for __________________ cup of tea?
A. other B. more C. one other D. one more
Question 6: John, you know what I feel for you and I’ve told you enough times,
_______________?
A. don’t you B. don’t I C. doesn’t he D. haven’t I
Question 7: To become a good teacher, you have to have such a lot of ________ when
you’re dealing with kids.
A. patient B. patience C. patients D. impatience
Question 8: I think our guests will ________________.
A. be here shortly B. shortly be here C. here be shortly D. here shortly be
Question 9: We have much to ____________ today, so please concentrate.
A. discuss B. discuss about C. discuss over D. discuss with
Question 10: __________________ Tom’s opposition, we would have agreed to the
contract.
A. But for B. If hadn’t it been for C. If it hadn’t had D. Hadn’t it been for
Question 11: _______________, the woman was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired though she is B. She being tired C. Despite being tired D. Though
was tired
Question 12: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, the student left the
classroom.
A. Having been turned off B. Turning off
C. To have turned off D. Having turned off
Question 13: The entire staff was thrown off _______ when the news of the takeover was
announced.
A. stable B. balance C. composure D. disarray
Question 14: Micelle looked really sunburnt. She must have been _______________ in the
sun for long.
A. screening B. wading C. swimming D. bathing
Question 15: When his parents are away for wok, his oldest brother _________.
A. is in the same boat B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. knocks it off
Question 16: I made it quite clear that I had no ________________ of selling the portrait.
A. aim B. intention C. meaning D. purpose
Question 17: By the end of this year, they _____________ on that bridge for more than a
decade.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. have work

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Question 18: Most educators today consider computer literacy _________ a necessary
addition to the basic scholastic requirements.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. be
Question 19: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “What’s the best place to have lunch?”
-: “_________________.”
A. I’ll have a soup, please B. There’s a great restaurant at the street corner
C. I usually eat lunch at twelve there D. Twelve would be convenient for us
Question 21: “I’ve got an earache in this ear. I couldn’t sleep last night because it was so
painful.”
-: “___________”
A. Let me check your temperature…. Yes, it’s higher than normal.
B. Drink lots of water and come back if you don’t feel better.
C. Let me have a look …… ah …. Yes, it’s very red in there.
D. Well, you should take this medicine twice a day. It’s good for a sore throat.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The fire was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to
learn more about
A B C
ancient civilizations.
D
Question 23: Perhaps the most distinctive features of insects and undoubtedly one of the
most important
A B
reasons for their success is their quite well-developed sensory system.
C D
Question 24: Unless the money is returned, we shall shortly be contacting
our lawful department.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: He said he had never come across such a pleasing painting.
A. run into B. bump into C. cross his path D. hook up
Question 26: John was in the news during the latter part of the Watergate scandal.
A. former B. second C. eventual D. end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them
before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 28: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you
can reach a conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

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While many behaviors and practices associated with going green are designed to save
money, there are certain ways in which green living can actually be moderately to very
expensive. Much of the technology associated with green (29) ___________provides benefits
to the environment but often at a much higher cost than their traditional counterparts. For
instance, the use of solar panels can potentially save you money on your energy bills, but they
can (30) ______________ thousands of dollars to install. Energy-efficient appliances are
designed to use less electricity and water but they often come with a high price tag.
Going green can also potentially have a negative effect on the environment. (31)
______________, the development of alternative fuels is an innovation in the green
movement in an effort to reduce reliance on (32) ___________ natural resources. While these
fuels are intended to reduce the toxic emissions caused by the burning of traditional gasoline,
they may have unintentionally caused the opposite effect. One of these alternative fuels, E85,
actually gives (33) ___________ more ozone into the atmosphere than traditional fuel. While
ozone is a natural part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere, if it becomes concentrated in the
lower atmosphere, it can potentially increase air pollution in areas where smog is a concern,
which can in turn impact the health of those living in these areas.
Question 29: A. living B. lives C. live D. lively
Question 30: A. spend B. take C. cost D. charge
Question 31: A. Such as B. However C. In addition D. For example
Question 32: A. advanced B. alternative C. nonstop D. nonrenewable
Question 33: A. out B. away C. off D. in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
May 1 is marked as International Labour Day, also referred as May Day. The day
celebrates labourers and the working class. Labour Day is an annual public holiday in many
countries. It is also referred as International Workers’ Day or just Worker’s Day.
During industrialization in beginning of the 19th Century, the industrialists used to exploit the
labour class and made them work up to 15 hours a day. The workers in the U.S. rose against
this exploitation and demanded paid leaves, proper wages and breaks for the workforce. The
eight-hour day labour movement advocated eight hours for work, eight hours for recreation,
and eight hours for rest. The Labour Day annually celebrates the achievements of the
workers.
The day has different story for different places. May 1 was chosen to be International
Workers’ Day to commemorate the 1886 Haymarket affair in Chicago. In that year, on May
1, there was a general strike for the eight-hour workday. On May 4, the police acted to
disperse a public assembly in support of the strike when an unidentified person threw a bomb.
The police responded by firing on the workers. The event lead to several deaths. The incident
is remembered as the Haymarket affair, or the Haymarket massacre. The place in Haymarket
Square where the incident happened was designated a Chicago Landmark in 1992.
Labour Day or May Day has been a focal point of protests by various socialist and
communist groups and is an important holiday in communist countries like China, North
Korea, Cuba and the former Soviet Union countries. In India, the first Labour day or May
Day was celebrated in the year 1923. It was the Labour Kisan Party who had organised the
May Day celebrations in Chennai (then Madras).
Question 34: What is main topic of the passage?
A. The birth of the day dedicated to workers. B. Holidays that fall on Mondays.
C. Why and how Labour Day is celebrated. D. The rights of working class.
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. workforce B. Labour Day C. public holiday D. working class
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what is the origin of May Day being described?

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A. Labour Day dates back to the late 1900s when the heavy industries were blooming.
B. Worker’s Day beginning was linked with the advent of class consciousness.
C. Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States.
D. Worker’s Day concept has been brewing since the dawn of capitalism.
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT correct about the incident of
Haymarket?
A. Many people were killed when the police intervened by random gunfire.
B. The Haymarket tragedy inspired generations of rightist activists.
C. The Haymarket riot happened in the late 1800s in Chicago.
D. A bomb was thrown by an individual never positively identified.
Question 38: The word “focal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. permanent B. leading C. basic D. central
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
The World Health Organization on Wednesday declared the rapidly spreading
coronavirus outbreak a pandemic. Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus said that
“We expect to see the number of cases, the number of deaths, and the number of affected
countries climb even higher.”
WHO officials had said earlier they were hesitant to call the outbreak a pandemic in case it
led governments and individuals to give up the fight. On Wednesday, they stressed that
fundamental public health interventions can still limit the spread of the virus and drive down
cases even where it was transmitting widely, as the work of authorities and communities in
China, Singapore, and South Korea has shown.
The virus, which probably originated in bats but passed to people via an as yet
unrecognized intermediary animal species, is believed to have started infecting people in
Wuhan, China, in late November or early December. Since then the virus has raced around
the globe. South Korea, which has reported nearly 8,000 cases, also appears poised to bring
its outbreak under control with aggressive measures and widespread testing. But other
countries have struggled to follow the leads of China and South Korea — a reality that has
frustrated WHO officials who have exhorted the world to do everything possible to end
transmission of the virus. Tedros used the fact that 90% of the cumulative cases have been
reported in just four countries as evidence that the rest of the world still had time to prevent
an explosion of cases with action.
WHO officials also stressed that countries should be implementing a strategic
combination two types of measures. One involves trying to detect and stop known chains of
transmission by isolating cases and following and potentially quarantining their contacts. The
other involves community-level steps like social distancing and comes into play when the
virus is spreading more broadly and transmission chains can’t be tracked. Mike Ryan, the
head of the WHO’s emergency program, said that the public health interventions might not
have straightforward effect, but to slow the spread of the virus. People with severe cases can
require long periods of critical care and strain the resources of hospitals. He said he was
worried about “the case load, the demand on the health workers, the dangers that come with
fatigue, and potentially shortages of personal protective equipment.”
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Some contracted with coronavirus get very ill but most don’t.
B. What scientists still don’t know about coronavirus patients.
C. What governors are doing to tackle spreading coronavirus.
D. The WHO declares the coronavirus outbreak a pandemic.
Question 40: The word “pandemic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. epidemic B. ebullition C. epizootic D. endemic

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Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.


A. outbreak B. spread C. fight D. virus
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT mentioned about the virus and its state
of spreading?
A. The WHO suggested that all countries can still change the course of this pandemic.
B. The current spreading virus is the second coronavirus to reach pandemic levels.
C. Coronavirus primitively circulates among animals but somehow spreads to human.
D. China is the assumed country of virus origin and where the disease hits the hardest.
Question 43: The word “poised” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. composed B. confident C. excited D. ready
Question 44: According to paragraph 4, what is the objective of the measures mapped out by
the WHO?
A. To buy time for the invention of vaccines. B. To stop the virus sharply in its
tracks.
C. To avoid an overwhelmed health system. D. To achieve the point of zero
transmission.
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The WHO acknowledged that the virus will likely spread to all countries on the
globe.
B. Local factors related to healthcare systems have no effect on the course of the
disease.
C. Countries used to an authoritarian government is most suitable to contain the virus.
D. The pandemic is an opportunity to see the backfire of an expensive healthcare
system.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Will you give this to Tony when you see him, please?”, he said to me.
A. He asked me if I would give that to Tony when I saw him.
B. He asked me whether I could give that to Tony when he saw me.
C. He asked me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
D. He begged me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
Question 47: All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
A. No matter how their score in the competition is, all the children will receive a prize.
B. Each children will receive a prize no matter what their score is in the competition.
C. Each children will receive a prize no matter how much their score in the competition
is.
D. All the children will receive a prize whatever their score in the competition.
Question 48: What a pity! They missed the football match on TV yesterday.
A. They wish they attended the football match on TV yesterday.
B. They wish they had come the football match on TV yesterday.
C. If only they hadn’t missed the football match on TV yesterday.
D. If only they would attend the football match on TV yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school. Do you know him?
A. Do you know him, Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school?
B. Do you know Mr. Watson, is a strict teacher in our school?
C. Do you know Mr. Watson, a strict teacher in our school?
D. Do you know a strict teacher in our school is Mr. Watson?
Question 50: Many people start plant-based diets. They want to improve their health.

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A. Many people start plant-based diets because they want to improve their health.
B. Many people start plant-based diets although they want to improve their health.
C. Many people start plant-based diets, so they want to improve their health.
D. Many people start plant-based diets, but they want to improve their health.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 5 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. defend B. deny C. repeat D. borrow
Question 2: A. quality B. cinema C. importance D. reference
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. health B. wealth C. breathe D. dealt
Question 4: A. plays B. travels C. seems D. thinks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Your brother is living in HCM city, ___________?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. isn’t she D. does he
Question 6: My neighbor offered ____________ us to the airport.
A. taking B. take C. to taking D. to take
Question 7: My mother says that we__________ the party in the garden if the weather is
good.
A. would have B. would have had C. will have D. will be having
Question 8: Who ___________ over the company when the manager retires?
A. took B. will take C. take D. was taking
Question 9: Everyone in the company knew that he had revealed the confidential information
,_____ nobody dared to report it.
A. so B. but C. and D. for
Question 10: It won’t be safe to use these stairs __________ .
A. before they repair them B. after they will repair them
C. when they repaired them D. until they have them repaired
Question 11: The topic is very interesting and I'd like to continue it but we're all __________
time.
A. on B. out of C. off D. up
Question 12: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution __________ health
problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is
seriously caused
Question 13: We were banned from entering this area for _____________ reasons.
A. secure B. security C. securely D. securities
Question 14: Daddy, how can I ___________ so little money? Please send me some more
money.
A. get through B. get over C. get by on D. get by
Question 15: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young men stood up and
_______ room for her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 16: There's a shortage of cheap accommodation in this city of five million
__________.
A. citizens B. dwellers C. inhabitants D. residents
Question 17: Farmers ___________ into big cities to find work when the harvest time is up.

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A. migrate B. emigrate C. immigrate D. stuff


Question 18: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the ______of death.
A. scary B. fear C. dream D. threat
Question 19: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.”
- “_____________”
A. Do you really like it, sir? B. Here you are, sir.
C. But you don’t need it, sir D. Yes, sure. Thank you.
Question 21: - “I’m sorry, I’m late.” - “____________”
A. You are welcome
B. No, I don’t mind
C. All right. The early bird catches the worm!
D. No worries. Better late than never.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Athletics were his favourite sport when he was young.
A B C D
Question 23: When I was a little girl, I used to play hide-and-seek, making toys
and draw pictures.
A B C D
Question 24: The treatment for people addictive to tranquillizers includes training in stress
management
A B C
and relaxation techniques.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Physical barriers can be a range of things, such as speech impairments which
affect the ability of a person to communicate.
A. talk B. skill C. dialogue D. language
Question 26: When Tom revealed that Peter was secretly planning to quit his job, he upset
the apple cart for Peter, who wanted nobody to know of his plans.
A. ruined carefully laid plans B. caused trouble
C. spoil secretly laid plans D. object to the plan
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Passing this important English test was such a boost to my confidence.
A. inefficiency B. disability C. untruth D. uncertainty
Question 28. Being self-reliant means that you are able to do or decide things by yourself,
rather than depending on other people for help.
A. decisive B. selfish C. reliable D. dependent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Father's Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother's Day
(29)________ honors mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and
paternal bonds; it highlights the (30)___________ of fathers in society. Many countries

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celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also celebrated widely on other days.
Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of male parenting.
Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (31)
________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in 1909,
she told her pastor that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she
initially suggested June 5, her father's birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to
prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first
celebration was in Spokane, Washington at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association)
on June 19, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional day (32) ________ year.
In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a
party celebrating male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (33)
_______, schools help children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the
celebration.
Question 29: A. which B. when C. who D. where
Question 30: A. conquest B. impact C. influence D. effect
Question 31: A. realized B. raised C. took D. made
Question 32: A. another B. other C. any D. every
Question 33: A. Besides B. In contrast C. However D. Then
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once
you are in the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard
to slow down. But relaxation is essential for a healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the
bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation
and give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor
performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual.
Some people are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for
managerial responsibilities. Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When
exposed to stress in whatever form, we react both chemically and physically. In fact we make
choice between “fight” or “flight”, and in more primitive days the choice made the difference
between life or death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but however
little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through
continued exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high
blood pressure and heart disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove
stress from our lives (and it would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find
ways to deal with it.
Question 34: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because
__________.
A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
B. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
C. they are travelling fast all the time
D. they are becoming busier their work
Question 35: According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his
_______.
A. not fearing stress B. high sense of responsibility
C. knowing the art of relaxation D. having control over performance
Question 36: Which of the following statements is true?
A. We can find some ways to avoid stress

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B. Stress is always harmful to people


C. It’s easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work
D. Different people can withstand different amounts of stress
Question 37: In paragraph 3, “such a reaction” refers back to__________.
A. making a choice between “fight” or “flight”
B. reaction to stress both chemically and physically
C. responding to crises quickly
D. losing heart at the signs of difficulties
Question 38. In the last sentence of the passage, “do so” refers to _________.
A. expose ourselves to stress B. find ways to deal with stress
C. remove stress from our lives D. establish links between diseases and stress
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
The Socialist Republic of Vietnam has stood out as one such example of how to
effectively respond to the pandemic. Vietnam, which shares a border with China and is about
1,200 miles from where the outbreak was first reported in Wuhan, has overcome steep odds
in the global fight against COVID-19. As of April 6, the Vietnamese government has
reported 245 confirmed cases with 95 recoveries and no fatalities.
The country’s response to the outbreak has received international recognition,
including from the World Health Organization and World Economic Forum, for its
comprehensive, low-cost model of disease prevention. WHO representative in Vietnam, Dr.
Ki Dong Park, attests the government “has always been proactive and prepared for necessary
actions”.
The Communist Party of Vietnam has strengthened its anti-pandemic measures by
implementing nationwide social distancing rules, such as banning outside gatherings of more
than two people while keeping a distance of 6.5 feet, and temporary shutdowns of “non-
essential” businesses, including restaurants, entertainment centers and tourist sites.
Supermarkets and other essential services remain open, but are instructed to safeguard
customers’ health by checking their temperatures before entering the building and providing
them with hand sanitizers. In addition, the government has warned against panic buying and
has taken action against businesses engaged in price gouging. To ensure social security for
affected workers, Vietnam has approved a 111.55 million dollar financial support package
that includes covering all costs for workers in quarantine or are recovering from the disease.
Unlike the U.S. capitalist class and the Trump administration, the Vietnamese
government took early measures to combat the current coronavirus epidemic. Officials began
preparing strategies to combat the outbreak immediately after the first cases emerged in
China.
On February 1, Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc signed Decision No.173.QD-TTG,
categorizing the virus as a Class A contagious disease “that can transmit very rapidly and
spread widely with high mortality rates.” This declaration of a national emergency came after
the sixth case of coronavirus in the country was reported. In contrast, the Trump
administration only declared a national emergency over the global pandemic on March 13,
when there were at least 1,920 confirmed cases across 46 states.
(Adapted from https://vietnaminsider.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vietnam and the U.S in the campaign to combat the pandemic.
B. Why has no one in Vietnam died of COVID 19?
C. How does the pandemic affect Vietnam’s society?
D. The international recognition for Vietnam’s response to COVID 19.

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Question 40: Vietnam’s reaction to the epidemic was acknowledged as a ____________ by


the WHO and WEF.
A. comprehensible and economical model of disease prevention
B. perfect and expensive model of disease prevention
C. complete and inexpensive example of disease prevention
D. incomplete and luxurious example of disease prevention
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure to the pandemic in
Vietnam?
A. prohibiting outside gatherings
B. keeping a distance of 6.5 feet
C. closing unnecessary businesses permanently
D. warning inhabitants against panic buying
Question 42: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. supermarkets’ B. customers’ C. governments’ D. essential services’
Question 43: The word “gouging” in the fourth paragraph most probably means
____________.
A. rising B. reducing C. stabilizing D. remaining
Question 44: The word “contagious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. dangerous B. fatal C. hazardous D. infectious
Question 45: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Vietnam implemented the measures to push back the outbreak after the first cases
emerged in China.
B. The Trump administration declared a national emergency over the global pandemic
earlier than the Vietnamese government did.
C. Vietnam has become the country that combats the epidemic most effectively.
D. The strategies to deal with the disease of Vietnam and the U.S are familiar.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 47: “Please don't tell anyone what happened," he said to me.
A. He said to me please don't tell anyone what happened.
B. He told me didn't tell anyone what had happened.
C. He said me not to tell anyone what happened.
D. He told me not to tell anyone what had happened.
Question 48: China is the country with the largest population.
A. China is larger than any other country.
B. China has more population than any other country.
C. China is as crowded as other countries.
D. Other countries are more crowded than China.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He was an incompetent director. The company lost a lot of money.
A. If he were an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t lose a lot of money.
B. If it hadn’t been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a
lot of money.

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C. If he had been an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of
money.
D. Had it been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of
money.
Question 50: Spring hasn’t come. We can’t see the blooming flowers.
A. Only when spring has come can we see the blooming flowers.
B. Only when spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
C. Only after spring has come we can see the blooming flowers
D. Only if spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 6 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. admit B. reply C. cancel D. discuss
Question 2: A. information B. comparative C. economic D. independence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. control B. unfold C. record D. hold
Question 4: A. hopes B. changes C. cakes D. hates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: You have to leave early, ___________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. have you D. do you
Question 6: Barney stopped ____________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 7: We ____________ for three hours straight! Where’s the bus?
A. have been waiting B. had been waiting C. has been waiting D. has
waited
Question 8: ______________ some assistance with your essay, feel free to ring me up.
A. Were you to need B. Had you needed
C. Should you need D. Will you need
Question 9: Kate Bouman is ______ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take
_______ first ever image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 10: Mathematics, ____ by many students as a difficult subject, is actually very
fascinating.
A. which are considered B. considered
C. considering D. to be considered
Question 11: My father’s company, which has its base _______ Ho Chi Minh city, plans to
set up an office in Quang Binh.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 12: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be ______________.
A. reduced B. deducted C. deduced D. distracted
Question 13: Although his first book was a roaring success, his later ones never really
__________.
A. took in B. took on C. took up D. took off
Question 14: _______________, she was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Because the woman was tired B. When the woman was tired
C. Despite tired D. Tired though the woman was
Question 15: It is important that Mike ___________ a training course if he wants to
participate in scuba-diving.
A. make B. hold C. take D. has
Question 16: One of the _________ related to weddings is that the bride should wear
something blue.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. superstitions

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Question 17: The Hurricane laid ___________ to the entire village and left the villagers
homeless.
A. waste B. rubbish C. garbage D. trash
Question 18: Indonesia got off to a ____________ start with a goal in the first half, but
Vietnam still won the match in the end.
A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking
Question 19: We couldn’t find the hotel _________ we used google map.
A. so B. but C. and D. if
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tony and Steve are friends. They have just finished dinner in a restaurant.
- Tony: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
- Steve: “ _________________”
A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. It’s nothing
C. No, it is on me. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 21: Stark goes to the bank for a money change.
- Stark: “Do you have a change for a 100-dollar note, please?”
- Bank clerk: “___________”
A. What kind of money do you want? B. How much money do you want?
C. How do you want your money? D. How many notes do you want?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Jonas, along with his friend Joseph, are travelling to Portland next week .
A B C D
Question 23: In the 1980s, actress Sarah Bernhardt made an important attribution to the role
of Lady
A
Macbeth when she displayed an overt sensuality that has been stressed by her twentieth-
century successors.
B C D
Question 24: How does the organization address the problems identified and found out the
best
A B C
solution to them.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by
surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise
Question 26: When I came across him in front of the office, he was conspicuous as usual
with a big yellow bow tie.
A. easily seen B. popular C. unnoticeable D. open
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Some research has shown that acupuncture might help with the alleviation of
headaches and migraines.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Question 28: If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green
fingers.

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A. make plants grow well B. bad at doing the gardening


C. lack skills in gardening D. don’t have a good head for gardening
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Like high schools, American colleges are sometimes criticized for discarding required
courses and offering too (29)____________ electives. In the mid-1980s, the Association of
American Colleges issued a report that called for teaching a body of common knowledge to
all college students. A similar report, “Involvement in Learning,” issued by the National
Institute of Education, concluded that the college curriculum had become “excessively work-
related”. The report also (30) __________ that college education may no longer be
developing in students “the shared values and knowledge” that traditionally bind Americans
together.
These reports coincided with a trend away from the liberal arts. (31)____________,
students were choosing major fields designed to prepare them for specific jobs. In 1992, 51
percent of the bachelor’s degrees were conferred in the fields of business and management,
communications, computer and sciences, education, engineering, and health sciences.
This trend raises questions (32)___________ apply to the educational philosophy of
all industrialized countries. In an age of technological breakthroughs and highly specialized
disciplines, is there still a need for the generalist with a broad background and well-
developed abilities to reason and communicate? And if the answer to that question is yes,
should society take steps to encourage its colleges and universities to produce more such
generalists? Like their (33) ____________ in other countries, American educators continue to
debate these questions.
(Adapted from http://usa.usembassy.de/etexts/factover/ch6.htm)
Question 29: A. a lot of B. many C. lots of D. a great many
Question 30: A. threatened B. urged C. warned D. expected
Question 31: A. alternatively B. consequently C. additionally D. frequently
Question 32: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Question 33: A. friends B. supporters C. counterparts D. opponents
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Australia is suffering from one of its worst fire seasons in history, with more than two
dozen people killed, thousands of homes destroyed, and millions of acres burned so far.
Unfortunately, fires like this, exacerbated by the effects of climate change, will
likely rage again, but Australia’s government can take steps to minimize their destruction.
With warming temperatures, Australia will face longer fire seasons. To reduce future
damage, governments at all levels must act. Areas of focus should include enhancing early
warning systems and fire prediction capabilities; launching public awareness campaigns on
the dangers posed by climate-fueled bushfires and necessary prevention measures;
conducting more controlled burns; and developing more stringent building codes that address
climate risk.
At the state and local levels, communities need to professionalize their firefighting
capabilities. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local
leaders about the changing characteristics of bushfires. And, once this fire season subsides,
states should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting redevelopment
of particularly fire-prone areas.
(Adapted from https://www.cfr.org/)
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Australia’s measures to reduce the forest fires’ damage
B. The harmful effects of the Australia’s forest fires

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C. The causes of forest fires in Australia


D. How Australia reconstructs the forests
Question 35: The word “rage” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stop B. spread C. change D. maintain
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT the solution taken by
the Australia’s government?
A. improving early warning systems and fire prediction capabilities
B. raising public awareness of the dangers of bushfires and essential prevention
measures
C. limiting the number of controlled burns
D. developing more stringent building codes to address climate risk.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________________.
A. local levels B. communities
C. firefighting capabilities D. local leaders
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 3, what should the states do to decrease the effects
of the fires after this fire season?
A. They should professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
B. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders.
C. They should take steps to minimize their destruction.
D. They should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting
redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest
victims. While they have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of
COVID-19 - at least to date – the crisis is having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All
children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected, in particular by the socio-
economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures that may inadvertently do more
harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the impact will be lifelong.
Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally. They are
expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest
neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis:
infection with the virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop
transmission of the virus and end the pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of
delayed implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children
could fall into extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386
million children already in extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed
countrywide school closures, affecting more than 1.5 billion children and youth. The
potential losses that may accrue in learning for today’s young generation, and for the
development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of countries
have introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the
share is only 30 percent. Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young people were
already digitally excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children
witnessing or suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those
living in unsanitary and crowded conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at
considerable risk. Children’s reliance on online platforms for distance learning has also
increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content and online predators.

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(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/


Question 39: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 41: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the
pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful
to children.
C. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year.
D. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the
pandemic.
Question 43: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 44: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the
pandemic_______________.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
B. children have more risks than adults.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. most children don’t want to learn online.
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on
children, EXCEPT _____________.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 47: “I was just getting into the shower when the phone rang." he said to me.
A. He said to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
B. He told me he had just been getting into the shower when the phone had rung.
C. He said to me that he had just been getting into the shower when the phone rang.
D. He told to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
Question 48: Though my bag may be cheaper than Lucas’s, it is bigger and more attractive.
A. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not so big and attractive as
mine.
B. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not bigger and attractive than
mine.
C. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not as big and attractive as
mine.

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D. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not bigger or more attractive
than mine.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week.
A. Were Collin good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week.
B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week.
C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week.
D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week.
Question 50: She decided to move to the city. She didn’t bring any money with her.
A. No money with her did she decide to move to the city.
B. Not money did she bring with her, she decided to move to the city.
C. Not a penny did she bring with her when she decided to move to the city.
D. Not a penny she brought with her did she decide to move to the city.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 7 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mental B. dental C. canal D. nasal
Question 2: A. television B. informative C. employee D. responsible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. book B. foot C. moon D. wood
Question 4: A. hatred B. naked C. hacked D. sacred
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: You are very unhappy with the service, _________?
A. aren’t you B. are you C. won’t you D. have you
Question 6: His parents suggested _____________ a break from studying.
A. having B. him to have C. he have D. that he had
Question 7: By the time my brother went to bed last night, he _____________ his homework
A. has already finished B. will have already finished
C. had already finished D. were already finishing
Question 8: Had they listened to their parents’ advice, they _____________ happier now.
A. would be B. am C. will be D. would have been
Question 9: It’s believed that __________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of
damage to our environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 10: I am not a selfish man ___________ in the past of my girlfriend.
A. interested B. interesting C. who interests D. to interest
Question 11: My brother is a very industrious student who spent the past few months doing
research ________ the library.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: I would like to take this opportunity to _________ my gratitude for your
ongoing support.
A. extend B. expand C. enlarge D. broaden
Question 13: My petrol tank was empty so I pulled into a garage to ____________.
A. fill up B. top up C. speed up D. blow up
Question 14: Mary has applied for a lot of jobs recently, which suggests ___________ her
present job.
A. that she not be altogether satisfied with B. that she’s not altogether satisfied with
C. she doesn’t altogether satisfy D. that she not altogether satisfy
Question 15: On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she __________ into tears.
A. burst B. break C. run D. set
Question 16: She was very ____________, and brought me at least fifteen pairs of shoes to
try on.
A. obliged B. obliging C. obligated D. obligatory
Question 17: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into___________.
A. influence B. impact C. effect D. affect
Question 18: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ____________.
A. head B. hairs C. eyes D. mouth
Question 19: ____________ John’s being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “What a gorgeous make-up style you have got, Jane!”
- “___________________.”
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A. I am afraid not. B. You are telling a joke.


C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don’t like your sayings
Question 21: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
- “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Not only the students but also the teacher feel that the
school should offer computer classes.
A B C D
Question 23: My friend decided to change his life by moving abroad and set up his
new company.
A B C D
Question 24: Look out! The frightening horse may injure you, so you’d better not play near
it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: This national event not only helps enhance city’s reputation but also brings
happiness and fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 26: Who knows how many different chemicals there are in our water, mixing and
forming all kinds of deadly compounds.
A. important B. ghostly C. avoidable D. fatal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their
employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 28: During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincidence with a dramatic rise in
the popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out
of business.
A. like hot cakes B. like a streak of lightning
C. like you need a hole in the head D. like a cat on a hot tin roof
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There have never been so (29)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(30)__________ —pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. (31)________ an
earthquake hit again, it was years of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists
drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found
something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places
(32)_______ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great

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earthquake does (33)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some
scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 29: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 30: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 31: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 32: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 33: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-
in-ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban
or suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily
interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have
a neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban
areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in
their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they
would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 34: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural
areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 36: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 37: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________.
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 38: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer
time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
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D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
While the debate regarding how much screen time is appropriate for children rages on
among educators, psychologists, and parents, it’s another emerging technology in the form of
artificial intelligence and machine learning that is beginning to alter education tools and
institutions and changing what the future might look like in education. It is expected that
artificial intelligence in U.S. education will grow by 47.5% from 2017-2021 according to the
Artificial Intelligence Market in the US Education Sector report. Even though most experts
believe the critical presence of teachers is irreplaceable, there will be many changes to a
teacher’s job and to educational best practices.
AI has already been applied to education primarily in some tools that help develop
skills and testing systems. As AI educational solutions continue to mature, the hope is that
AI can help fill needs gaps in learning and teaching and allow schools and teachers to do
more than ever before. AI can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks to
allow teachers the time and freedom to provide understanding and adaptability—uniquely
human capabilities where machines would struggle. By leveraging the best attributes of
machines and teachers, the vision for AI in education is one where they work together for the
best outcome for students. Since the students of today will need to work in a future where AI
is the reality, it’s important that our educational institutions expose students to and use the
technology.
Artificial intelligence tools can help make global classrooms available to all including
those who speak different languages or who might have visual or hearing impairments.
Presentation Translator is a free plug-in for PowerPoint that creates subtitles in real time for
what the teacher is saying. This also opens up possibilities for students who might not be able
to attend school due to illness or who require learning at a different level or on a particular
subject that isn’t available in their own school. AI can help break down silos between
schools and between traditional grade levels.
(Adapted from https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
A. The roles of teachers in the time of technology
B. Is AI appropriate for students using in classrooms?
C. How AI is used in education
D. What AI tools are used in the classrooms
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. AI B. education C. some tools D. testing systems
Question 41: The word “mature” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. improve B. replace C. change D. decrease
Question 42: According to paragraph 2, what can AI do to help teachers in the classrooms?
A. It can work to give the best outcome for students.
B. It can urge the students to get familiar to the technology before working in the future.
C. It can help teachers to control the class more effectively.
D. It can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks.
Question 43: The following are the benefits of Presentation Translator mentioned in
paragraph 3, EXCEPT ___________.
A. creating subtitles in real time for what is being said in the lessons
B. giving chance for the students to follow the lessons without attending school because
of sickness
C. allowing students to learn the particular subject unavailable at their own school
D. providing opportunities for students to learn different languages
Question 44: The phrase “break down” in the last paragraph most probably means
__________.
A. maintain B. stop C. develop D. implement
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The blind and the deaf are able to join the class with the help of AI tools.
B. The use of AI in education in the United States will reach the peak in the near future.
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C. Experts believe that teachers will lose their presence in classroom by AI.
D. Students can work together to have good results of the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Diana is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. Diana is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
B. I have never met a more intelligent woman than Diana.
C. Diana is more intelligent than any women I ever met.
D. This is the first time I have met such an intelligent woman as Diana.
Question 47: “Why were you absent from the class yesterday?” The teacher said to Andrew.
A. The teacher wondered why Andrew has been absent from the class the day before.
B. The teacher told Andrew why had he been absent from the class the previous day.
C. The teacher wanted to know why Andrew was absent from the class the previous day.
D. The teacher asked Andrew why he had been absent from the class the day before.
Question 48: It’s almost impossible for us to get them to agree on anything.
A. We can’t have got them to agree on anything.
B. We can’t get them to agree on anything.
C. We mustn’t get them to agree on anything.
D. We needn’t have got them to agree on anything.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can choose your favorite university. Make sure that it is suitable for your
ability.
A. You can’t choose your favorite university if it is suitable for your ability.
B. You can’t choose your favorite university in case it is suitable for your ability.
C. You can choose your favorite university unless it is suitable for your ability.
D. You can choose your favorite university provided it is suitable for your ability.
Question 50: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 8 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. angry B. climate C. upset D. footprint
Question 2: A. vulnerable B. psychologist C. society D. responsible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. breath B. health C. heart D. head
Question 4: A. motivated B. flooded C. wicked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I am not a good husband, __________?
A. am I B. aren’t I C. are I D. isn’t I
Question 6: They claim that advertising encourages _________ three times higher than the
average consumption.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. purchase D. to purchasing

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Question 7: He has just said that my piano playing ___________ on since he last
_________me play.
A. had really come/ heard B. had really come/ had heard
C. has really come/ heard D. has really come/ had heard
Question 8: If I _________ rich, I ___________ the shoes we saw at the shopping mall
yesterday.
A. were/would buy B. had been/would have bought
C. were/would have bought D. had been/would buy
Question 9: He politely asked me to pass _______ salt and ________pepper.
A. a/the B. the/a C. the/0 D. 0/0
Question 10: Boys! Put away all the toys ___________ at the bottom of the wardrobe.
A. which lied B. lay C. lying D. that are lain
Question 11: I saw some boys swimming _________ the river this afternoon.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: The government decided to close the frontiers off with a view to ________ the
disease.
A. containing B. holding C. including D. comprising
Question 13: There was an accident on the highway, ___________ traffic.
A. putting off B. holding off on C. holding up D. holding over
Question 14: He will drop you a line _____________.
A. providing he settled down in his new house B. as soon as he has settled down in
his new house
C. when he settled down in his new house D. till he settles down in his new house
Question 15: The teacher ___________ an example of Tom to the class for cheating in the
exam.
A. set B. followed C. made D. gave
Question 16: The doctor warned us not to let other family members share towels because the
infection is highly____________.
A. contagion B. contagious C. contagiously D. contagions
Question 17: Thanks to __________ provision, many women who wish to work are capable
of doing so.
A. childbearing B. childrearing C. childcare D. child-centred
Question 18: The poor mother was forced to have her baby adopted, __________herself.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 19: He shouldn’t have hurt her feelings, ___________.
A. any way you slice it B. be that as it may
C. with the best will in the world D. never mind that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two colleagues are talking with each other:
A: “Your day was just like mine.”
B: “_______________.”
A. So was I. B. It is sure.
C. Of course it was. We work together! D. We have to work for 30 years!
Question 21: A: “Sometimes I wish I was back to school.”
B: “__________________________.”
A. Me, too. School was fun. B. I thought school was hard.
C. Me, too. I couldn’t wait to graduate. D. Life is hard.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Playing cards is most commonly used for playing card games as well as for
fortune-telling.
A B C D
Question 23: Every morning, we make our bed, eating breakfast, feed the dog
and do exercise.
A B C D
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Question 24: My boss is the person who is so bored a man that no one wants to work
with him.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Although Mr. Anderson is very rich, in fact he is a millionaire, he lives in a
small house in the suburbs.
A. resides B. relaxes C. experiments D. employs
Question 26: In twenty years’ time, the food supplies will be so scarce for some countries
that people will start immigrating in huge numbers.
A. in short supply B. in large number
C. abundant and nutritious D. nourishing but limited
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no
one heard anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 28: The country’s infrastructure is in poor condition and needs to be upgraded.
A. improved B. repaired C. examined D. deteriorated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each family forms its own set of values and decides what is most important to them.
Discipline also varies among families. Families have different ways of dealing with different
issues. In some families, one or both parents make all the decisions with no
(29)________from the children, while other families may encourage input from all family
members before decisions are made. Perhaps you know of a family (30)_______ there is
equal decision making among family members.
There is no one family style for everyone. A family’s style develops based on each
family’s individual situation and the values they care about. (31)_______, your family may
be laid-back, while another family is very active and hurried. Many different ways of living
together can work. What makes a family strong is not just (32)__________ of people in it,
whether its members are related, or their pace of life; people caring for one another and
sharing their lives is what really matters.
Many families also share faiths such as religious activities with one another. As a
Scout, part of your duty is to do your best to make your family strong and help your family
thrive. By doing this, you are helping to lay the (33)__________ for a stronger community
and society.
Question 29: A. import B. export C. output D. input
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 31: A. For instance B. Such as C. In other words D. Furthermore
Question 32: A. a number B. most C. the number D. amount
Question 33: A. base B. background C. ground D. groundwork
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
When it comes to discussing AI and the future of work we exhale in relief when
someone says machines will have a hard time replacing us. This statement is backed by the
argument that most AI systems are ‘narrow’. AI systems only do one thing but do it really
well, for example, predicting what you want to watch on Netflix. If you ask the same system
to make you a cup of coffee or drive your car, you’re likely to be disappointed.
But what happens when the AI system can perform the most significant tasks that a
job entails? One interesting example we found came from the fashion industry, where a
company had implemented two AI systems to produce novel designs. Together, they did all
work and the human’s role was only to surveil the work.
Research published earlier this year coined the term ‘Shadow Learning’. As explained
in the Harvard Business Review article titled ‘Learning to work with intelligent machines’,
the researcher studied the challenges new surgeons faced when learning robotic surgery
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skills. Previously, they learned how to perform surgery by working alongside expert
surgeons, but now they’re forced to watch over the surgeon’s shoulder as, thanks to robotics,
individuals can handle entire surgeries with one pair of hands. The term, however, does not
mean that you learn by shadowing someone. The phrase refers to students who gained
experience with robotic tools by taking it upon themselves to acquire new skills outside of the
curriculum.
If we look beyond the current discussion of AI and the future of work – which
usually revolves around the number of jobs that will be impacted by AI – we can focus on
how to create inspiring new ways to work with machines.
(Source: https://www.ericsson.com/)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. AI and the future of work. B. Finding the sweet spot of trust.
C. Overreliance on AI systems. D. Ensure that work remains meaningful.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, why should we not worry about AI snatching away
our jobs?
A. Because creating something new and unique is an ability exclusive to humans.
B. Because nothing can replace the caring and empathy that a live person can extend.
C. Because AI can take over certain tasks, but possibly not entire multidisciplinary roles.
D. Because AI cannot proactively find and start new tasks without some sort of prompt.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. designs B. systems C. tasks D. students
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem for surgical apprentices in the
time of AI universality?
A. Offer of exposure to new technologies would be used as recruiting strategy.
B. There would be fewer hands-on learning opportunities for the students.
C. Ability to work individually, however brilliantly, would not give a competitive edge.
D. The students could advance only by upstaging other people around them.
Question 38: The word “revolves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. spins B. worries C. muses D. pivots
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Stephen Cameron, Vietnam’s patient number 91, has recovered from COVID-19 and
is returning home today (July 12th). The symbol of Vietnam’s pandemic success, as referred
to by Reuters (the ABC news), will be accompanied by a team of doctors during the flight to
London.
The 43-year-old Scot, arriving in Vietnam in early March, was tested positive for
COVID-19 only three days after his first flight for Vietnam Airlines, following a visit to a bar
in Ho Chi Minh City that became a coronavirus outbreak. Cameron’s illness and the highly
publicized efforts of Vietnam’s doctors to save him became a symbol in Vietnam of the
country’s successful fight against the virus, as reported by Reuters.
The ABC news recognized Vietnam’s huge efforts to save the man, who had
been critically ill and spent 65 days on life support. Doctors said at one point they considered
a lung transplant as the man’s lungs were 90% damaged and non-functional. With the vast
majority of Vietnam’s COVID-19 patients already recovered, the news of a potential first
death prompted a national outpouring of support, with dozens of people coming forward as
potential lung donors.
However, like a miracle, after he woke from a coma at the end of May, there were
small signs of improvement – a thumbs-up sign for an attentive doctor, a trip on to the
balcony to catch some sunshine and a video of him holding a Motherwell football club scarf
aloft. Every little progress was closely followed by the media and attracted great attention.
“The patient’s recovery has been like a very long flight” – Dr. Tran Thanh Linh, the
deputy head of the ICU ward at Cho Ray Hospital, said during a meeting between hospital
officials, the British Consulate and Vietnam Airlines representatives just before Cameron’s
discharge – the Washing Post reported. “All of the health workers are overwhelmed with joy
to see him fully recovered and being discharged from the hospital today.”

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The UK’s Daily Mail quoted Mr Cameron: “I’m overwhelmed by the generosity of
the Vietnamese people, the dedication and professionalism of the doctors and nurses working
at Cho Ray Hospital. I’m going home with a happy heart because I’m going home, but it is
sad that I’m leaving so many people here that I’m friends with”.
Vietnam has reported 370 coronavirus cases with no local transmitted infection for
nearly three months. All recent cases are people who were infected abroad and had been
under compulsory quarantine upon their arrival in Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://vietnamtimes.org.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Patient 91: “Miracle” Flight Heading Home
B. The COVID-19 British Pilot –A Great Man
C. The Progress of Vietnam’s Medicine in COVID-19
D. Patient 91: The Pride of Vietnamese Doctors
Question 40: The word “accompanied” in the first paragraph most probably means
________.
A. gone through with B. warmly welcomed C. out of control D. under the
care of
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the 43-year-old Scot B. his first flight C. a bar D. Ho Chi Minh city
Question 42: The word “critically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. extremely important B. seriously C. censoriously D. essentially
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the Patient
91?
A. This is the first Stephen Cameron’s flight to Vietnam as a pilot for Vietnam Airlines.
B. His lungs got over nine tenths of functions and need transplanting.
C. More than ten people all over the country volunteer to donate their lung for the
British pilot.
D. A lot of people closely followed his every little improvement after a coma.
Question 44: As mentioned in Cameron’s quotation on the UK’s Daily Mail, how does he
feel when leaving Vietnam for home?
A. devoted B. nostalgic C. heart-breaking D. providential
Question 45: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. The plane getting patient 91 home became a symbol of Vietnam’s success in fighting
against COVID-19.
B. The pilot’s recovery made people in all over the world joyful.
C. The 43-year-old Scot feels quite lucky to be treated in Vietnam.
D. There are still new cases tested positive for COVID-19 in Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Jane is less orderly than her roommate.
A. Jane’s roommate is less orderly than she is. B. Jane is not as orderly as her
roommate.
C. Jane’s roommate is not as orderly as she is. D. Jane is more orderly than her
roommate.
Question 47: I’m sure this isn’t the type of house that Tom is looking for.
A. This can’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
B. This mustn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
C. This shouldn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
D. This can’t have been the type of house that Tom is looking for.
Question 48: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
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Question 49: Covid-19 is highly contagious. Over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
A. So contagious Covid-19 is that over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
B. Such is the contagious disease that Covid-19 had infected over eight million people
worldwide.
C. Only when over eight million people have been infected worldwide is Covid-19 so
contagious.
D. Covid-19 is so contagious a disease that it has infected over eight million people
worldwide.
Question 50: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 9 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thinks B. seems C. plays D. sends
Question 2: A. blind B. kind C. right D. chilly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. usual B. pretty C. canal D. listen
Question 4: A. marriage B. supportive C. musical D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Your father won’t let you go out with me anymore, _________?
A. is he B. will he C. can he D. won’t he
Question 6: Believe me! There will be ______ few problems with that car as it’s quite new.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: We spent our long holiday ___________ the sea last summer.
A. by B. in C. at D. on
Question 8: She denied ________ in the exam.
A. to cheat B. cheating C. being cheated D. having cheat
Question 9: If I _______ you earlier, you could be my husband now.
A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met
Question 10: There __________ many changes in my village since they built a new bridge.
A. has been B. are C. had been D. have been
Question 11: ___________ applying for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. Although B. In spite of C. Because D. Because of
Question 12: He won’t get married _____________.
A. when he has a distinguished career B. as soon as he had had a distinguished
career
C. until he had a distinguished career D. till he has a distinguished career
Question 13: The people ________ the virus must be isolated to prevent its spread.
A. who were caught B. catching C. caught D. catch
Question 14: According to some sources of ________information, his father will be elected
to be the headmaster next year.
A. reliant B. reliability C. rely D. reliable
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Question 15: When he _________ from Jimmy as head of department last year, he had to
deal with many financial problems.
A. took on B. took over C. took up D. took in
Question 16: I ____________ the impression that he was lying to all of us.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
Question 17: According to the __________of this game, you mustn’t touch the ball with both
hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 18: Regardless of the law, there are practices that __________against women and
in favor of men
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. differentiate D. dissociate
Question 19: His mother had a _________ when his teacher said that he had played truant
many times.
A. bee B. cow C. buffalo D. deer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The impact of increased urbanization has been harmful to the environment and
has led to the growth of greenhouse gas emissions
A. detrimental B. beneficial C. advantageous D. favorable
Question 21: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5
years. Likewise, that in school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because trees can prevent land erosion, afforestation projects should be
launched steadily.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. forestation D. deforestation
Question 23: The reality is the economy is hitting the ceiling and the growth rate must slow.
A. is reaching the highest limit B. is becoming extremely angry
C. is reaching the smallest level D. is keeping calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: David and Anna are talking about joining a club.
- Anna: “How about this advertisement? Are you interested in acting?”
- David: “_________________.”
A. You’re joking. I hate standing in front of people. B. Yes, I’d love to. I like the
poster the most.
C. Oh no. I’m not a liar. I’m an honest person. D. Never mind. Let’s go to the
cinema tonight.
Question 25: Jack and Jill are going to school together.
- Jack: “________________”
- Jill: “Relax. It doesn’t start until quarter past seven. It’s only five past.”
A. Where are you going? B. I’m anxious about the exam.
C. We are going to be late. D. Sorry. I forgot your address.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
As the Covid-19 pandemic is becoming more complicated, resulting in a (26)
__________school break for all students in Vietnam, many schools turn to the e-learning
method as a sensible alternative. Vietnam Posts and Telecommunications Group (VNPT) is
providing educational institutes in (27) ______ areas with its E-Learning platform at no cost
until the end of the academic year 2019-2020. Teachers can access this platform to transform
their current lesson plans into the electronic version. They can also monitor students’ learning
process, check attendance, and have learners sit exams. (28)__________, parents can access
the website to check their children’s learning process as well. Additionally, VioEdu by FPT
Group is one prominent online learning product (29) _______ makes use of AI to offer
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subscribers more than 500 exciting video lessons, along with a large quantity of exercises,
online tests. It aims at making the learning and evaluation process more convenient for both
teachers and students with features to assign tasks, mark them, and prepare a corresponding
academic report. One week after the product allows free (30)_________, students in all 63
provinces of Vietnam eagerly sign up for an account and nearly 8,000 school are now using it
to deliver lessons to their learners.
Question 26: A. lengthy B. prolonging C. durable D. extending
Question 27: A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. a good many
Question 28: A. In addition B. While C. In the meantime D. However
Question 29: A. whose B. which C. what D. where
Question 30: A. description B. subscription C. transcription D. prescription
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Marine ecotourism focuses specifically on activities that take place on the coast or in
the ocean. It includes activities like eco-friendly boating, dolphin and whale watching,
snorkeling, scuba diving and fishing, but in a sustainable way and with an emphasis on
education.
One of the most popular forms of marine ecotourism is whale watching. Whales are
worth more alive than dead these days, after decades — maybe even centuries — of whaling.
While commercial whaling is banned in most countries, Japan, Norway and Iceland have
continued the practice through finding loopholes or just rebelling against the international
law. A recent National Geographic article discussed the fact that the Japanese, for example,
are eating much less whale meat than in the past. They’re also spending a lot more time
whale watching.
Mexico is another example of this. The shark watching revenue in the Gulf of
California region represents more than half the value from shark fisheries in the country.
Ecotourism has become a much-needed source of employment in the Gulf of California (and
other coastal regions) because of warming ocean temperatures, extreme weather events that
are taking place more often than they have in the past, and declining fish stocks. In
Newfoundland, Canada’s main sealing province, over 1.3 million people participated in
whale watching. That contributed to nearly $20 million to the local economy and is seen as a
possible alternative to the sealing economy.
Ecotourism Australia says that “ecotourism has rocketed from an unknown entity to
global phenomenon in the last 30 years and nature-based tourism already makes up 75
percent of the international tourism market.” It’s an example of knowing better and doing
better, and can make a positive impact on conservation efforts on the coast and in the ocean.
(Source: https://www.renewableenergymagazine.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Whaling and sealing – gruesome tradition.
B. Ecotourism collapse threatens the wildlife.
C. Helping the environment through ecotourism.
D. From personal gratification to public satisfaction.
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. Marine ecotourism B. Eco-friendly boating
C. Sustainable way D. Tourism market
Question 33: According to the passage, marine ecotourism has achieved its goal of
_________
A. helping people value the ecosystem and changing behaviors for a better cause.
B. reminding people of their history of creating havoc in and around the oceans.
C. stopping overtourism by selecting the travelers based on environmental criteria.
D. providing tourists with an adventurous experience of visiting fascinating places.
Question 34: The word “rocketed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. plunged B. risen C. soared D. passed
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the situation of marine ecotourism?
A. Japanese marine ecotourism cannot fix what has been broken.
B. Marine ecotourism has already succeeded in making things better.
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C. Many travelers still prefer the traditional tourism to ecotourism.


D. Marine tourism is the only one that has not emerged from obscurity.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Whether you’re put off by student loans, you need a break from education, or you’re
keen on starting work straight after school – going to university isn’t the right choice for
everyone. And you might be surprised at the career prospects available to those without a
degree. If you’re considering not going to university, here are a few options of what you
could do next.
If you’ve just finished school and you don’t have any work experience, traineeships
and internships are a great way to prepare yourself for your future career. Traineeships
usually last from six weeks to six months, and are offered exclusively to 16-23 year olds. Not
only do they provide essential work preparation training, they’re also the perfect opportunity
to gain the practical skills and experience needed to move onto an apprenticeship or job.
While internships are similar to traineeships, they are available to people of all ages – and
usually focus more on providing practical work experience, rather than guided training and
work preparation.
School leaver programmes are becoming a popular choice for A-level students who
aren’t interested in university, but still want the learning and training that’s involved with
further education. These programmes are designed to give school leavers the chance to earn a
qualification whilst working part-time or full-time (and earning a wage). The exact structure
of a school leaver programmes will largely depend on the company you work for. School
leaver programmes could last anything from three to seven years, and are most common in
industries like accountancy, finance, retail, engineering, and IT. .
If you’re keen to start work straight away, an entry-level job could be well within your reach.
And you may be surprised at what kinds of jobs are available. Whether you want to start a
career in education, you’re interested in breaking into the marketing industry, or you’re
passionate about IT – you don’t always need extensive experience or qualifications to start a
career in your preferred sector. And with many employers providing on-the-job training for
new recruits, you’ll be able to learn a range of key skills to help you progress within the
industry.
(Adapted from https://www.reed.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Different Paths after School B. University is Still the Best Choice
C. The Benefits of Not Going to University D. How to choose the Correct Job
Question 37: The word “prospects” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. benefits B. chances C. incomes D. disadvantages
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT provided by
traineeships?
A. work preparation B. practical skills C. work experience D. degrees
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. traineeships B. internships C. practical skills D. people of all ages
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what benefit do people receive from school leaver
programmes?
A. They are able to learn the knowledge about their job while working to get their
salary.
B. They can receive the training directly from the company they work for.
C. They are capable of doing many different kinds of jobs at the same time.
D. They can learn about the most common industries when being a student at school.
Question 41: The phrase “breaking into” in the last paragraph most probably means
____________.
A. running B. stopping C. taking part in D. keeping on
Question 42: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Internships bring more benefits to people than traineeships.

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B. School leavers may have to spend from three to seven years on training before being
employed.
C. New employees may make a progress in their job thanks to the training when being
recruited.
D. You have to prepare quite carefully before running the business by yourself.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Due to his obesity, my father is advised to avoid eating fatty
foods, having more vegetables
A B C
and drink water.
D
Question 44: My school where I used to study is a very permissible school
because students are allowed
A B C
to do whatever they want.
D
Question 45: In the pool near my flat is little silvery fish darting around.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t work too much” said David’s sister.
A. David’s sister required him not to work too much.
B. David’s sister advised him not to work too much.
C. David’s sister promised not to force him to work too much.
D. David’s sister ordered him not to work too much.
Question 47: You are not allowed to wear casual clothes to school.
A. You needn’t wear casual clothes to school.
B. You mustn’t wear casual clothes to school.
C. You can’t wear casual clothes to school.
D. You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to school.
Question 48: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey.
A. They were so exhausted that they could continue the journey.
B. Such were their exhaustion that they could hardly continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. So exhausted were they that they could hardly continue the journey.
Question 50: It was raining. That’s the only reason I didn’t take the children to the beach.
A. If it hadn’t been raining, I would take the children to the beach.
B. But for it raining, I would have taken the children to the beach.
C. It was raining; otherwise I would have taken the children to the beach.
D. Hadn’t it been for the rain, I would have taken the children to the beach.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 10 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. agree B. import C. prepare D. demand
Question 2: A. urbanize B. develop C. variety D. proposal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. play B. train C. nation D. urban
Question 4: A. looked B. booked C. naked D. cooked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Just think, in ___________three months, you will be 18. Why are you always
behaving like a child?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 6: Her father bought her _________ when he went on holiday in Singapore last
week.
A. a beautiful wooden yellow scarf B. a scarf wooden beautiful yellow
C. a yellow beautiful scarf wooden D. a beautiful yellow wooden scarf
Question 7: I _________ them yesterday to check when they____________, but I couldn’t
contact them.
A. was ringing/arrived B. rang/were arriving C. rang/arrived D. rang/had
arrived
Question 8: “It’s ____________ to know that you all are safe and sound”, said he.
A. comfort B. comfortable C. comforting D. comfortably
Question 9: Taking his behaviors into consideration, I guess you and he have been friends
for a long time, so he is familiar ___________ you.
A. to B. with C. for D. towards
Question 10: If you __________him in his office, please tell him to call me back.
A. see B. saw C. had seen D. have seen
Question 11: The man _______________ is my best friend’s father.
A. who I lent the money from B. whom I lent to the money
C. I lent the money D. whose money I lent
Question 12: You don’t think that she is suitable for this position, ________?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. do you D. don’t you
Question 13: ___________ she was late for the interview, she didn’t get the job.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 14: I asked for his help but he refused _____________ me a hand.
A. to giving B. to give C. giving D. give
Question 15: The investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services
___________ promise for the economic development of this city.
A. make B. keep C. break D. hold
Question 16: I can’t believe_____________. Are you telling me a lie?
A. what I am hearing B. that I am hearing
C. what I am hearing from D. that I am hearing from
Question 17: We regret to inform you that the trip was cancelled through ___________ of
interest.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. deficiency D. lack
Question 18: The weather forecast has reported that the snowstorm is ________ to reach the
coast the next morning.
A. expected B. predicted C. anticipated D. foretold
Question 19: They spent a lot of money on doing a _____________ to find out what our
customers think of their local bus service.
A. research B. experiment C. campaign D. survey
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I’m sorry but the manager and accountant have been on business since last
Monday and he
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A B C
won’t return until tomorrow.
D
Question 21: He finds it annoyed at the way she is trying to take over the whole meeting.
A B C D
Question 22: This school has become heavily reliable on government support, so it
can’t have autonomy
A B C
in determining its curriculum.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically
developed countries (MEDCs).
A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded
Question 24: Too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion,
vulnerability and marginalization.
A. struggle for B. struggle against C. dealt with D. struggle to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I really like him, but I’m confused. He seems to blow hot and cold - one
minute he likes me, and the next, he’s ignoring me!
A. changeable B. ambivalent C. loyal D. constant
Question 26: Your dress is really beautiful, Cindy! You look very awesome in it.
A. terrible B. terrific C. enjoyable D. pleasant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A group of researchers and experts in America and Australia listed 12 countries
affecting (27)_________ to the ocean by the year 2018 and Southeast Asia area has up to 5
representatives: Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. China ranks the
first with (28) _________ 8.8 million plastic wastes, and Vietnam ranks the fourth with 1.8
million. It is really alarming that the developing countries are main causes of environmental
pollution in 10 recent years. A terrible fact probably occurring by 2050 is that the ocean (29)
________much more wastes than sea creatures if the plastic wastes situation is still
continuing, according to the United Nations report. (30)________, the unexpected fact is that
it takes only 5 seconds to produce a plastic bag, 1 second to throw, but up to 500 or even
1000 years to decompose.
A reason for water pollution in Vietnam is that many companies and enterprises
cannot manage rubbish and then pour wastes into rivers and streams, (31)________ the
government cannot control at all.
Question 27: A. deeply B. considerately C. significantly D. largely
Question 28: A. mostly B. almost C. most D. most of
Question 29: A. consists B. comprises C. includes D. contains
Question 30: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Whereas
Question 31: A. where B. that C. which D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 32 to 38
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive
skills, and emotional skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these
skills. Even if your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these
skills is much more effective than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care.
Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem
quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age,
and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development.

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Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child
development. If you do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never
learn. One infamous example of this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a
dark room with extremely little human contact until she was rescued at age 13. She was never
able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So, teaching your
children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional
skills are important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have
sympathy and compassion for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and
lows that come with life. If your child does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be
able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive
choices when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when
they are babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is
very important. In a family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful
in developing a child’s skills with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to
foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something very helpful for
family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain
way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to understand
how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their
feelings and move forward.
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child’s Skill Development
Question 33: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
______________.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 34: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _____________.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 35: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to
adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 37: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following
exchanges.
Question 39: - Mike: “How lovely the present is!”
- Jane: “____________”
A. It’s lucky you love it. B. I think so.
C. Yes, it’s lovely. D. No. I don’t like it.
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Question 40: - Sue: “Historic events are always hard to remember. Do you think so?”
- Harry: “_______”
A. I think it’s good. B. I am not intelligent.
C. I don’t think it will happen. D. I can’t agree with you more.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 41: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realized how much her family
meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realized how much her family meant to her did she leave home to
start an independent life.
B. To realize how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an
independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realized how much
her family meant to her.
D. Only after Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realize how much
her family meant to her.
Question 42: Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights. More people are flying
for weekend trips to scenic cities.
A. If many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people will be flying
for weekend trips to scenic cities.
B. Although many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are
flying for weekend trips to scenic cities.
C. As many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
D. Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, or more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It’s impossible for you to meet the boss right now because he is out.
A. You can’t have met the boss right now because he is out.
B. You can’t be met the boss right now because he is out.
C. The boss can’t be met right now because he is out.
D. Meeting the boss right now is possible unless he is out.
Question 44: My boss asked me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the bus?”
A. My boss asked me why I was late and if did I miss the bus.
B. My boss asked me why was I late and did I miss the bus.
C. My boss asked me why you were late and if you missed the bus.
D. My boss asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the bus.
Question 45: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
The sound of music has changed as society has changed over the years, thus the
change in the sound of music is really a reflection of our cultural evolution. In the beginning
humans made music that closely mimicked the sounds they heard around them in nature in
terms of tones and repetitions.
In Indigenous cultures, music played a role in ceremonies and traditions. Traditional
instruments were played, and lyrics were often strongly linked to nature. The sounds of music
reflected this close association that indigenous cultures had with the land and its wildlife.
Over time, modern society has lost this connection. This is reflected in the changing sound of
the music and in the changing lyrics of songs that are sung. With time, more musical
instruments were developed and played together, which resulted in more sophisticated and

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complex sounds being produced. The beats, rhythms, tempo and lyrics of songs all changed
along with the change in cultures.
Although some indigenous cultures such as many of the African tribes, Native
American tribes, South American ethnic people, and Australian aborigines still retain the
playing of their indigenous music, there have been influences from the western world
incorporated into some of the music. Features of the sound of music have changed over the
decades. The sound has definitely gotten louder. The pace and rhythm in many cases have
become faster, possibly reflecting the fast pace of the modern world that we live in today.
However the feature of music bounciness (how spiky and energetic the music feels) has
become less today when compared with the music of the1980s. Techno and reggae music are
typical examples of what is known as bouncy music.
The sound of music has become more complex over history mainly due to the
increased migration of people and their exposure to new elements. Today much of music has
sounds with elements from more than one region. The increasing tendency for music artists to
collaborate today is another reason we see more complexity and diversity in how music
sounds.
(Adapted from https://sonicspace.org/)
Question 46: Which of the following could serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Why People Changed the Sound of Music?
B. Music: Now and Then
C. The Role of Music in Indigenous Cultures
D. Nature and Music
Question 47: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. musical instruments
B. developing and playing many musical instruments together
C. the changing sound of the music
D. the changing lyrics of songs
Question 48: The word “retain” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. preserve B. reduce C. exchange D. combine
Question 49: According to the passage, the following features of music have increased over
years, EXCEPT __________.
A. the sound volume B. the pace and rhythm
C. the connection to nature D. the sound’s complexity and diversity
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Western music has more influence on indigenous music than others.
B. The fast pace of life has caused the loss of connection to nature.
C. Almost every feature of music sounds changed when the cultures altered.
D. Modern music sounds contain different regional elements due to the collaboration of
music artists.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 11 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mistake B. village C. client D. picture
Question 2: A. finds B. stays C. brings D. smarts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. network B. interest C. decide D. mountain
Question 4: A. condition B. generate C. encourage D. remember

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Winning an incredible prize from the state lottery was a turning point in my life,
which I have never imagined before.
A. unbelievable B. unpopular C. unacceptable D. unclear
Question 6: I really wanted to get my homework done early today, but my favorite TV show
proved to be a serious distraction.
A. attention B. interruption C. depression D. combination
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: It’s pretty tough to find a job when you don’t have any previous experience.
A. difficult B. normal C. simple D. common
Question 8: The future of the project is up in the air as the management has failed to
finalize the budget.
A. undecided B. certain C. distant D. particular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Marry and John are talking about drinking water at night.
- Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night “
- John: “___________. This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart
health.”
A. You can say it again B. I have no idea
C. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 10: Linda is talking to Brown after knowing the results. Linda passed her test with
flying colours.
- Brown: “Sincere congratulations on your hard-earned success.”
- Linda: “________________”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you.
C. Make yourself at home. D. There’s no doubt about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Question 11: Although the child was scolded by his parents at home, he did not display any
__________ change at school.
A. noticeable B. notify C. notice D. notification
Question 12: I couldn’t have a nice conversation with him because his girlfriend kept on
_____________ when we were talking to each other.
A. turning up B. taking off C. breaking up D. cutting in
Question 13: Nobody understood what was going on, ____________?
A. didn’t they B. did them C. did they D. do them
Question 14: Because the little boy would not stop playing with matches, it was
___________ that he would burn himself.
A. inevitable B. incompatible C. intractable D. incomparable
Question 15: ____________ my mother knew of my hatred for green beans, she still made
me eat them when I was a child.
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Because of
Question 16: He has lost weight since he _____________ eating chocolate bars.
A. was stopping B. stopped C. would stop D. will stop
Question 17: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he
had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind
Question 18: It is hard to _____________ the difference between the two versions of this
phone.
A. make B. hold C. tell D. keep
Question 19: If a doctor does not abide _______________ the laws of his profession, he may
lose the right to practice medicine.
A. at B. to C. on D. by
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Question 20: We’ll give a reward to anyone _____________ the police with information
about the missing child.
A. to provide B. providing C. provided D. provides
Question 21: When I researched into the singer Rihanna’s hometown of Saint Michael
Parish, I learned that her _____________ was Barbadian.
A. citizenship B. partnership C. nationality D. ethnicity
Question 22: Between his son and his daughter, his daughter is ______________ better
athlete.
A. the B. an C. ∅ D. a
Question 23: The dolphin injured itself while struggling ____________ out of the
fisherman’s net.
A. to get B. getting C. to getting D. get
Question 24: ______wants to marry too early.
A. Neither the man nor the woman B. Whether the man or the woman
C. Both the man and the woman D. Not only the man but also the women
Question 25: You ___________ take this course if you know English grammar well.
A. don’t need take B. won’t need to take C. needn’t to take D. won’t need
take
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We usually walk to work but sometimes takes a cab when it is raining.
A B C D
Question 27: This book contains stories which are moving, enjoyable, and surprise.
A B C D
Question 28: No matter how hard he has tried to learn English, he is rubbishy at it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 29: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 30: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 31: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 33: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
There have never been so (34)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(35)__________ - pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may
support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the
San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to
record activity to look for warning signs. (36)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years
of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they
reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes
reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’ - places (37)_____ the plates widened—before
the fault line broke and the quakes occurred. We are learning more about these destructive
events every day. In the future we may be able to track earthquakes and design an early-
warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (38)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles
southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance
warning.
Question 34: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 35: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 36: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 38: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
What is the difference between friendship and love? This question has always been in
the minds of people for centuries. Though a definite answer cannot be given for this question,
one can come across some differences between the two.
When love can be termed as a sacrifice, friendship can be termed as a trust. Love is a
feeling that is uncontrollable, and a feeling which one has for another individual. On the other
hand, friendship is quite different from love in this aspect.
Love is a feeling between two individuals, and most of the time when they say “She/
he is my one and only” and in this case only two individuals are involved. But there are times
people may fall in love with more than one individual, but it is considered morally wrong
when you already have a partner or a boy/girlfriend. On the contrary, friendship involves
more individuals without any guilty feelings involved. One can have many friends, but most
of the time an individual can only have one person to love. You can love your family and
that’s another topic for discussion.
In love, there is great attachment for the other. Most of the time an individual gets
strong feeling of hurt if his loved one is in pain or hurt. This attachment may not be strong in
friendship. Regarding the emotions, individuals in love will experience a faster heartbeat
when they meet their loved one. This is not so when friends meet. There is no way that one
will lie awake and think of his friends for a whole night, but lovers will have sleepless nights,
and dream about their lovers. The lovers even sleep and wake up with the thoughts of his or
her lover.
Another difference that can be seen is that in love, some physical element is also
involved between individuals. On the other hand, there is no such physical element involved
in friendship.
(Adapted from http://www.differencebetween.net/)
Question 39: Which can be the title of the passage?
A. Love or Friendship
B. Distinction between Love and Friendship
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C. Should We Love Our Friends?


D. The Connection between Love and Friendship
Question 40: According to the passage, what is TRUE about friendship?
A. People often sacrifice for their friends.
B. The feeling of friendship is uncontrollable.
C. People can have more than one friend at the same time.
D. Not all people trust their friends.
Question 41: The word “guilty” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ashamed B. criminal C. regretful D. unacceptable
Question 42: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. a faster heartbeat B. the emotions
C. their loved one D. strong feeling of hurt
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about love and friendship mentioned in the
passage?
A. People always have a greater attachment for the one they love.
B. Lovers often involve physical element which doesn’t happen in friendship.
C. People are blameworthy if they have many loved ones simultaneously.
D. People may have a sleepless night to think of their friends.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to
their pupils, particularly older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread
that generation gap even wider, as young people become conversant with mobile digital
devices, games and social media that didn’t exist when their teachers were growing up.
Teachers now face pupils using devices and online systems that they don’t use themselves,
and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more prevalent than ever, but
teachers can bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media
and mobile devices in teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against
it at parent-teacher evenings, without realizing that preventing teenagers from using social
media like this, or messaging apps such as Snapchat and Instagram, is nearly impossible.
Online social media and network gaming are now such an integral part of teenage behavior
that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of young people is likely to
widen the generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists
within the staffroom, too. A teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards
the end of their working life will not have grown up with digital technology, whereas
teaching staff in their 20s and 30s could well be “digital natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you
think you’ve caught up, kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how
young people are using social networks that are, in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older
generation to understand. The key factor to consider is that today’s school students now take
for granted that a lot of their communication with their peers will be online, and
predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people expect their
educational experience to be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of
devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers
C. What Causes Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 46: The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
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Question 47: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?


A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of
teenagers.
Question 48: The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because
______________.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the
younger.
Question 49: The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means
_________.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the
generation gap between teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the
young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones
and mobile devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 12 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cleaned B. opened C. learned D. leaned
Question 2: A. purpose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. conserve B. concern C. confirm D. conquer
Question 4: A. horizon B. additive C. interview D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: It was ___________ most beautiful morning, so we decided to make for Sam
Son beach.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 6: Although travelling by air is quite expensive, its beauty consists _______ its
speed and ease.
A. in B. of C. for D. at
Question 7: The dogs and their ____________ owners stood waiting to see who would be
crowned winner of the pet show.
A. respected B. respectable C. respectful D. respective
Question 8: Ask a friend to recommend a doctor or, ____________that, ask for a list in your
local library.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. according to

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Question 9: We can’t rely on Peter because he always looks for any excuse he can
__________ work.
A. to blow off B. put off C. set back D. call off
Question 10: His latest movie has won high praise from the critics but I don’t think it’s
_______ good.
A. much B. such C. too D. that
Question 11: The reason is ________, he estimated how much the population of London
would increase in the next 100 years.
A. why when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
B. that Bazalgette designed the tunnels
C. what Bazalgette designed the tunnels
D. that when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
Question 12: Nobody thought that he could achieve success, _______________?
A. could he B. didn’t they C. did they D. couldn’t he
Question 13: I didn’t even have time to complete all homework assignments, ____________
hang out with my friends.
A. now that B. in case C. instead of D. let alone
Question 14: If I _____________ younger, I ________ in the contest held last week.
A. were/would participate B. had been/would have participated
C. were/would have participated D. had been /would participate
Question 15: The woman wasn’t sure where she __________the rare illness since no one
else in her family had the disease.
A. contracted B. distracted C. extracted D. attracted
Question 16: Apart from entertaining, art may be used as a _____________for propaganda.
A. means B. vehicle C. method D. way
Question 17: Because I can’t handle all my customer orders by telephone, I need to hire an
engineer to ____________ an app for order processing.
A. deduce B. define C. devise D. deduct
Question 18: If you feel like you are catching a cold, try to nip it in the ___________ so that
it does not cause you to miss work.
A. bush B. bulk C. bud D. bunch
Question 19: Harry went for a picnic with her friends after she ____________ her work.
A. has finished B. would have finished C. had finished D. will finish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 20: My father was given a delicious Spanish white wine by a friend of him who had
just returned from Spain. A B C D
Question 21: Over a half of all accidents happens in the home because people aren’t aware
of potential dangers. A B C D
Question 22: I find it difficult to understand the full importance of this statement, so I ask my
brother for his help. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: I need an assistant - I’m very busy with work.
A. am up to my eyes B. am up to my ears C. have my hands full D. am up
to my neck
Question 24: Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about
the currency because of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he
commanded his officers to release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 26: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next
generation solve the global warming problem.
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A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem


C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27: Leon and Drake are talking about drinking water.
- Leon: “As far as I know, drinking warm water is really good for our health”
- Drake “ ________________ because warm water helps to get rid of harmful toxins from
your body and also works to prevent skin issues like acne.”
A. You must say that again B. I’d say the exact opposite.
C. I have to side with you on this one D. That’s not always true.
Question 28: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
– “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Stella said to me: “My company was established in 2000”.
A. Stella told to me that her company was established in 2000.
B. Stella told me that her company had been established in 2000.
C. Stella said me that her company was established in 2000.
D. Stella said her company was established in 2000.
Question 30: I’m pretty sure the burglar got in through the kitchen window.
A. The burglar must be got in through the kitchen window.
B. The burglar should have got in through the kitchen window.
C. The burglar must have got in through the kitchen window.
D. The burglar could have got in through the kitchen window.
Question 31: As students get closer to their exams, they become more nervous.
A. The closer students get to their exams, the more nervous they become.
B. The closer students get to their exams, they become more nervous.
C. The students get closer to their exams, the nervous they become more.
D. The students get to their exams closer, the nervous they become more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
C. Not only some websites are really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable
sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him
because she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal to his girlfriend’s trust, she would have
broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t
have broken up with him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

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Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial
City of Hue has long been a (34)____________attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm
of Vietnam. The Imperial City of Hue was actually a walled fortress and palace belonged to
the ancient city of Hue (35)__________ was a capital city of the Nguyen Dynasty for 140
years date back from 1805 until 1945.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6
meters and 21 meters thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by
cannons, artilleries and ammunitions. (36)________the fortress was built solely by soil, only
to be replaced by bricks afterward. Surrounding the city is the complicated canal system
served not only as a protection but also as a waterway with nearly seven kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates (37) _______to the Imperial City of Hue,
which can be divided into two main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and
The Forbidden City. The former served to protect the important palaces inside while the
(38)_________was where the emperor and the royal family stayed as well as the court’s
workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures including majestic palaces,
tombs and museums stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing attraction right in
the heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 34: A. must-have B. must-read C. must-see D. must-do
Question 35: A. what B. where C. that D. who
Question 36: A. At first B. At least C. At most D. At that
Question 37: A. lead B. leading C. led D. having led
Question 38: A. later B. late C. lately D. latter
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-
in-ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban
or suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily
interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have
a neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban
areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in
their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they
would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural
areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 41: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
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A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys


B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 42: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________. A.
experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 43: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer
time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant
culture takes things from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange
is different from cultural appropriation. Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been
shared between different cultures throughout history. These ‘borrowings’ aren’t the same as
cultural appropriation, because they don’t involve power. When dominant groups take from
an oppressed group, we’re dealing with appropriation, not cultural exchange. Cultural
appropriation is also very different from assimilation. ‘Assimilation’ describes what happens
when minority cultures are forced to adopt features from a dominant culture in order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that’s experiencing oppression, it’s often a result of
colonization, where a dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people.
When the dominant group continues to steal aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues
the economic oppression and disadvantage of that culture. In Australia, there are cases where
white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander artworks for
use on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to make money from the non-
dominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for
aspects of a culture that they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two
groups. For example, Kylie Jenner was credited with starting an ‘edgy’ new hair trend, while
black actress Zendaya faced criticism for wearing her hair the same way. What’s interesting
about this, is that Zendaya’s natural hair was seen as a negative. But Kylie Jenner, a person
with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something that wasn’t hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese
geisha or the Arab sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween.
When people from dominant cultures ‘dress up’ like this, it reduces something of cultural
significance to a costume just so that the dominant group can have ‘a bit of fun’. It also keeps
these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it’s encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being
invited to an Indian wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is
not cultural appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/)
Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange. B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation. D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange,
cultural appropriation and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
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B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal


footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority
ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 47: The word “ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 48: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 49: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another
culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behavior and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 50: The word “cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 13 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. loves B. likes C. hates D. makes
Question 2: A. device B. derive C. delete D. decent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. oceanic B. physician C. determine D. objective
Question 4: A. comment B. commerce C. commit D. common
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: She died of liver cancer on _________ Tuesday after _________18-month battle
against it.
A. a – an B. no article – a C. a – a D. no article - no article
Question 6: We hope the problem can be ___________ by getting the two sides together to
discuss it.
A. cleared out B. cleared up C. cleared off D. cleared away
Question 7: I have to complete all homework assignments, _______________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t I C. do I D. have I
Question 8: There are many doubts about the quality of the school. ______________, some
families are enrolling their children to it.
A. As yet B. Even so C. Even as D. As if
Question 9: As a teacher, I am always eager to find ways to ________ a love of learning in
my students.
A. institute B. inscribe C. instill D. inspect
Question 10: When his father passed away, he received an _________ amount of money
from his estate.
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A. appreciative B. appreciation C. appreciate D. appreciable


Question 11: If the plane tickets _____________ a little cheaper, my parents ____________
coming to visit me last month.
A. were/would consider B. had been/would consider
C. were/would have considered D. had been/would have considered
Question 12: Her story ____________ really moved me a lot.
A. of what had happened throughout her life B. of which had happened throughout
her life
C. what had happened throughout her life D. had happened throughout her life
Question 13: The working conditions in their factories ________ dramatically during the last
few months.
A. improved B. have improved C. was improved D. have been improved
Question 14: Teachers at this school are encouraged to ___________ themselves of the full
range of educational facilities.
A. accord B. avert C. avail D. apply
Question 15: My husband seemed indifferent _______ the food on his plate and ate it
without comment.
A. for B. at C. to D. from
Question 16: Supporters at the event ___________ students from a local school, as well as
their parents.
A. being included B. having included C. included D. including
Question 17: Mutual understanding is very important because it allows all parties ________
to learn about one another.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. involve
Question 18: My aunt has a parking ________ which allows her to park on the street outside
her house.
A. allowance B. permission C. permit D. acceptance
Question 19: She doesn’t have time for idle talk, so you should cut to the ____ and tell her
what you want.
A. point B. chase C. race D. side
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It gave my brother a kick to see his own play on television.
A. thrust B. threat C. thrill D. thread
Question 21: We had a quarrel about money, but we decided to clear the air by sitting
together and discussing things frankly.
A. make a terrible mess at trivial things
B. explain everything that someone had understood
C. remove all dirty and untidy things
D. get rid of all doubts and negative feelings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Rapid economic growth is the most concrete evidence of the overall success of
South-South cooperation in Asia.
A. abnormal B. discrete C. conscious D. abstract
Question 23: My boss is convinced that we will find a satisfactory solution to the problem.
A. irrational B. reasonable C. affordable D. irrelevant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Brian and Robert are discussing the topic of nutrition.
- Brian: “People should eat five daily portions of fruit and vegetables, as far as I’m
concerned.”
- Robert “ ________________ since fruit and vegetables are packed with essential vitamins,
minerals, and fiber”
A. I shouldn’t agree with you more B. That’s just what I am thinking.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. I must take issue with you on that.
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Question 25: Maria is thanking Daniel for giving her a lift home.
Maria: “Thanks for taking me to my house.”
Daniel: “You’re welcome. ________________ now that I have a car.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. There’s a first time for everything
C. There’s no doubt about it D. It’s the least I could do
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Succeeding in getting a steady job, you need to take advantage of opportunities
and follow your dreams. A B C D
Question 27: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people’s
attitudes to
A B C
the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 28: I know beyond a shade of a doubt that she will decide to stand as a candidate in
the local
A B C
election.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous
day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 31: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father has many new clothes. However, he always wears his old coat.
A. However old his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
B. As old as his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
C. However many new clothes he has, my father always wears his old coat.
D. Many clothes as he has worn, my father always wears his old coat.
Question 33: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost
all matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with
an unacceptable result.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
How can solar cells become (34)__________ enough to be commercially viable?

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There are, of course, a huge range of ongoing efforts to address this problem. Among
the most recent approaches to this problem comes from a team of physicists and engineers at
MIT (35)_____ is using computer modeling and advanced chip-manufacturing techniques.
In December of 2008, researchers from the Research Laboratory of Electronics, and
the departments of materials science and engineering and physics applied an antireflection
coating to the front of ultrathin silicon films, plus a novel combination of multi-layered
reflective coatings and a tightly spaced array of lines to the backs of the films. The result is
photovoltaic cells with as much as 50 (36)______ more electrical output.
The carefully designed layers deposited on the back of the cell cause light to (37)
_________ around longer inside the silicon layer, giving it more time to deposit its energy
and produce an electric current.
The work has attracted interest from industry for (38) _______ranging from
generating remote off-grid electricity to dedicated clean power.
(Source: https://engineering.mit.edu/)
Question 34: A. cost-efficient B. cost-benefit C. cost-conscious D. cost-free
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. that D. what
Question 36: A. percentage B. percent C. proportion D. rate
Question 37: A. burst B. reflect C. bounce D. pour
Question 38: A. applications B. appliances C. applicants D. applicability
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found
that chit-chat actually has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we
realized our most meaningful interactions are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s
when we’re greeting administrative staff, or the friendly gabbing before a meeting,” said
Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers
surveyed 151 full-time employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After
controlling for participants’ baseline engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about
levels of small talk throughout the day, and asked respondents to rate their emotions, work
productivity, and overall engagement.
“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was
lower than what it is for an extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social
emotions and contributed to employees feeling connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to
explain what small talk is not. It is not long-winded ranting about an ineffective supervisor. It
is not a sensitive discussion about someone’s personal life. “It is surface level. It is ‘Weather
looks great this weekend, any plans?’ Surface level is what gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and
foster inclusiveness. “Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small
talk, which can create a barrier for new employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of
greater awareness about diversity and inclusion, small talk can be an asset to a company. It
can be a road to more inclusion by helping socialize and embed employees into the
organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socializing. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossip-
mongers.
Question 40: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 41: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the
passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 42: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
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A. “Can you believe all of this rain we’ve been having?”


B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?”
D. “You look like you could really use a cup of coffee.”
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
In a paper published in Science Advances, an international team of researchers have
examined traits of marine megafauna species to better understand the potential ecological
consequences of their extinction under different future scenarios.
Defined as the largest animals in the oceans, with a body mass that exceeds 45kg,
examples include sharks, whales, seals and sea turtles. These species serve key roles in
ecosystems, including the consumption of large amounts of biomass, transporting nutrients
across habitats, connecting ocean ecosystems, and physically modifying habitats. Traits, such
as how large they are, what they eat, and how far they move, determine species’ ecological
functions. As a result, measuring the diversity of traits allows scientists to quantify the
contributions of marine megafauna to ecosystems and assess the potential consequences of
their extinction.
The team of researchers – led by Swansea University’s Dr Catalina Pimiento – first
compiled a species-level trait dataset for all known marine megafauna to understand the
extent of ecological functions they perform in marine systems. Then, after simulating future
extinction scenarios and quantifying the potential impact of species loss on functional
diversity, they introduced a new index (FUSE) to inform conservation priorities.
The results showed a diverse range of functional traits held by marine megafauna, as
well as how the current extinction crisis might affect their functional diversity. If current
trajectories are maintained, in the next 100 years we could lose, on average, 18% of marine
megafauna species, which will translate in the loss of 11% of the extent of ecological
functions. Nevertheless, if all currently threatened species were to go extinct, we could lose
40% of species and 48% of the extent of ecological functions. Sharks are predicted to be the
most affected, with losses of functional richness far beyond those expected under random
extinctions.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serve as the title of the passage?
A. How marine megafauna species’ extinction affects the ecology
B. The consequences of trait examination of marine megafauna species
C. What should be examined in the research in marine megafauna species?
D. The causes of marine megafauna species’ extinction
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the main roles of the largest
animals in the oceans, EXCEPT _______________.
A. consuming large amounts of biomass B. transporting nutrients across habitats
C. associating ocean ecosystems D. mentally modifying habitats
Question 46: The word “determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
______________.
A. affect B. establish C. describe D. cover
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________.
A. researchers B. ecological functions
C. marine systems D. future extinction scenarios
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what proportion of ecological functions could we
lose if all currently threatened species became extinct?
A. nearly one fifth B. more than one tenth C. two fifths D. nearly a half
Question 49: The word “translate” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___________.
A. interpret B. increase C. cause D. require
Question 50: As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The animals weighing about 45kg are classified as the largest ones in the ocean.

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B. Measuring the extinction of marine megafauna allows scientists to know the


consequences to ecosystems.
C. The species guessed to be the most affected by random extinction are sharks.
D. The researchers now have known all the extent of ecological functions of marine
megafauna.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 14 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. creative B. threaten C. breadwinner D. heavy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. industry B. register C. optimist D. courageous
Question 4: A. complain B. borrow C. listen D. injure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: The campaign is trying to get ___________ message across that parental
education plays an important role in ___________ development of a child.
A. no article-the B. a - no article C. the-the D. a-the
Question 6: My parents could hardly afford a house in the city, so we had to settle
____________ the second best in my hometown.
A. down B. into C. for D. in
Question 7: She thought somebody had broken into her house last night, ____________?
A. hadn’t they B. had they C. didn’t she D. did she
Question 8: She expects _________ compensation for all direct expenses _________ out of
the accident.
A. to be received-arising B. to receive-arising C. to be received-
arisen D. to receive-arisen
Question 9: His laziness caused the company to perform badly last quarter. ___________,
his attitude toward the boss has put his job in jeopardy.
A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In addition to
Question 10: Governments need to provide a viable _________ to car travel in order to
reduce pollution in the country.
A. alternation B. alternative C. alternate D. alternating
Question 11: She’d rather you ____________ anyone that she’d lost her job as a hotel
manager.
A. won’t tell B. wouldn’t have told C. didn’t tell D. don’t tell
Question 12: We have just launched our annual campaign to improve the ____ of women’s
health issues.
A. credential B. profile C. portrait D. background
Question 13: He won’t return home ____________________ given to him this morning.
A. until he had finished all the assignments B. until he has finished all the
assignments
C. till he finishes all the assignments D. as soon as he has finished all the
assignments
Question 14: Jack has an amazingly _____________ memory and can easily recall the
capitals of three hundred different countries in the world.
A. attentive B. reactive C. tentative D. retentive
Question 15: Providing a vaccine against the pandemic virus is a __________ issue.
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A. scorching B. sweltering C. sizzling D. burning


Question 16: Research needs _____________ the impact of play on the rest of the child’s
life.
A. to study B. to studying C. studying D. to be studied
Question 17: He talked about his incredible experience of being _____ space, looking down
on the Earth.
A. on B. above C. in D. at
Question 18: Students _____________ cheating in any exam will be disqualified from all
their exams.
A. who found B. founded C. found D. having founded
Question 19: It __________ my mind that it’s my friend’s birthday tomorrow and I haven’t
got her a present yet.
A. bore B. kept C. crossed D. bent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: If you have a food allergy, you should avoid any of the ingredients that
can trigger an attack.
A. set up B. set apart C. set back D. set off
Question 21: She gave up her job as a secretary last year and teaching is her bread and
butter right now.
A. likelihood B. livelihood C. selfhood D. manhood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There are specific areas within the festival where children under ten years old
are not allowed.
A. peculiar B. ambiguous C. particular D. delicate
Question 23: By setting up a camera system to monitor his property, the homeowner hoped
he would catch trespassers or thieves.
A. supervise B. revise C. overlook D. oversee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Fred and Jerry are discussing the time they arrive at the airport.
- Fred: “We should arrive at the airport two hours before flight within the country.”
- Jerry: “______________. Traffic congestion is getting worse.”
A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. You took the words right out of my mouth
C. Mind your own business
D. I see your point, but I can’t completely agree with your solution
Question 25: Jack is asking Justine about the destination for his summer vacation.
- Jack: “Have you picked your next summer destination? Italy?”
- Justine: “ ______________. I’m going to Thailand.”
A. It’s up to you B. It’s on me
C. Not even close D. Not a moment too soon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Recent research in the field has concentrated on academic support rather
than integrated into
A B C
the wider social world of the university.
D
Question 27: She’s one of the most consistent student in her class, despite the
many disadvantages she
A B C D
has experienced in her life.
Question 28: Although she has fought a long battle against cancer, she always tries to keep a
positive
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A B C
lookout on life.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: How long have you been living in Viet Nam?”, said Fiona to me.
A. Fiona told me that I had been living in Viet Nam for a long time.
B. Fiona asked me how long had I been living in Viet Nam.
C. Fiona asked me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
D. Fiona told me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
Question 30: I’m annoyed that Charles forgot to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
A. Charles didn’t have to forget to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
B. Charles must have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
C. Charles should have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
D. Charles might have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
Question 31: As more people come to the relief camp, our work will probably get more
difficult.
A. The more people come to the relief camp, the more difficult our work will probably
get.
B. More and more people come to the relief camp, more and more difficult our work
will probably get.
C. The more people come to the relief camp, the difficult our work will probably get
more.
D. Our work will probably get less difficult if there are more people come to the relief
camp.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Question 33: The process of global warming continues at its present rate. The polar bears
will ultimately disappear.
A. But for the process of global warming continues at its present rate, the polar bears
will ultimately disappear.
B. Should the process of global warming continue at its present rate, the polar bears will
ultimately disappear.
C. Were not the process of global warming to continue at its present rate, the polar bears
wouldn’t ultimately disappear.
D. As long as the process of global warming didn’t continue at its present rate, the polar
bears wouldn’t ultimately disappear.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Financial independence is one of the many markers used to designate the crossover
from childhood into young adulthood, and it’s a (34)_________ most Americans (64%) think
young adults should reach by the time they are 22 years old, according to a new Pew
Research Center study. But that’s not the reality for most young adults who’ve achieved this
age.
The share of young adults who could be considered “financially independent” from
their parents by their early 20s – an assessment based on their annual income – has gone
down somewhat in recent decades. Looking more broadly at young adults aged 18 to 29, the
share who are financially independent has been (35)__________stable in recent decades.
Overall, young men are more likely than young women to be financially independent, but this
gender gap has diminished significantly.

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The new survey findings underscore the extent to which many young adults are
financially reliant on their parents. (36) ________ young adults who have received financial
help from their parents say at least some of it was for recurring expenses. Six-in-ten say the
money went toward household expenses such as groceries or bills, and significant shares used
it to pay their tuition, rent, or mortgage. Beyond financial independence, the pace with
(37)_________ young adults are reaching other markers of adulthood has slowed
significantly over the past several decades. Today’s young adults are staying in school longer
and are marrying and establishing their own households later than previous generations.
(38)_________, a growing share is living in their parents’ homes well into their 20s and even
early 30s. Some of these changes are linked to economic challenges, while others may
represent a realignment of goals and priorities.
(Source: https://www.pewsocialtrends.org)
Question 34: A. springboard B. milepost C. breadwinner D. milestones
Question
35: A. comparatively B. approximately C. considerably D. significantly
Question 36: A. Almost B. Mostly C. Most D. Most of
Question 37: A. where B. that C. which D. who
Question 38: A. In addition B. In contrast C. In short D. Instead
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Two-thirds of people in the world will be living in cities by 2050 and the boom will
be concentrated in India, China and Nigeria, according to United Nations estimates released
on Wednesday. The world’s rural population will peak in a few years then decline by 2050,
according to the report by the UN’s population division.
Tokyo is currently the world’s largest city with 37 million people, followed by Delhi
with 29 million, Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and São Paulo, each with around
22 million inhabitants. Cairo, Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million
inhabitants. However, Delhi will overtake Tokyo in top spot by around 2028, the report said.
At about the same time, India is expected to surpass China as the country with the world’s
largest total population.
Around 55% of the world population lives in urban areas today, increasing to 68% by
2050. India, China and Nigeria will account for more than a third of that expansion. There
will also be more megacities. In 1990, there were just 10 megacities, classed as places with
populations of 10 million or more. There are now 33 megacities and by 2030, 43 megacities
are projected, mostly in developing countries.
However, a few cities in Japan and South Korea – for example, Nagasaki and Busan –
have experienced population decline since 2000. Several cities in Eastern Europe, such as in
Poland, Romania, Russia and Ukraine, have lost population since the turn of the century.
However, urbanization could be seen as positive, said John Wilmoth, director of the
population division. “The increasing concentration of people in cities provides a way of more
economically providing services,” he said. “We find that urban populations have better access
to health care and education.” The concentration of population may also help to minimize our
environmental impact on the planet, he said, and help cities design policies and practices to
prepare for the influx.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 39: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The population of cities in the future
B. The new increasing trend of rural population
C. The cities with the largest number of population
D. The future of populations in developing countries
Question 40: The word “overtake” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overdue B. outstrip C. keep up with D. come along
Question 41: The phrase “that expansion” in paragraph 3 refers to the increase of
__________.
A. urban population B. world population C. urban areas D. rural areas

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Question 42 : According to the passage, some cities of the following countries have seen the
downward trend in population, EXCEPT __________.
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Russia D. India
Question 43: According to John Wilmoth, more people living in urban areas may reduce
__________.
A. the quality of health care and education
B. the people’s influence on the Earth’s environment
C. the results of cities’ policies and practices
D. the population of the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The earliest recorded festivities in honor of a new year’s arrival date back some 4,000
years to ancient Babylon. For the Babylonians, the first new moon following the vernal
equinox heralded the start of a new year. Throughout antiquity, civilizations around the world
developed increasingly sophisticated calendars. In Egypt, for instance, the year began with
the annual flooding of the Nile, which coincided with the rising of the star Sirius. The first
day of the Chinese new year, meanwhile, occurred with the second new moon after the
winter solstice.
The early Roman calendar consisted of 10 months and 304 days. Over the centuries,
the calendar fell out of sync with the sun, and in 46 B.C. the emperor Julius Caesar decided to
solve the problem by consulting with the most prominent astronomers and mathematicians of
his time. He introduced the Julian calendar, which closely resembles the more
modern one that most countries around the world use today.
In many countries, New Year’s celebrations begin on the evening of December 31—New
Year’s Eve—and continue into the early hours of January 1. In Spain and several other
Spanish-speaking countries, people bolt down a dozen grapes-symbolizing their hopes for the
months ahead-right before midnight. In many parts of the world, traditional New Year’s
dishes feature legumes, which are thought to resemble coins and herald future financial
success; examples include lentils in Italy and black-eyed peas in the southern United States.
Because pigs represent progress and prosperity in some cultures, pork appears on the New
Year’s Eve table in Cuba, Austria, Hungary, Portugal and other countries. Ring-shaped cakes
and pastries, a sign that the year has come full circle, round out the feast in the Netherlands,
Mexico, Greece and elsewhere. In Sweden and Norway, meanwhile, rice pudding with an
almond hidden inside is served on New Year’s Eve; it is said that whoever finds the nut can
expect 12 months of good fortune.
Other customs that are common worldwide include watching fireworks and singing
songs to welcome the new year, including the ever-popular “Auld Lang Syne” in many
English-speaking countries. The practice of making resolutions for the new year is thought to
have first caught on among the ancient Babylonians, who made promises in order to earn
the favor of the gods and start the year off on the right foot.
(Source: https://www.history.com/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How January 1st becomes special. B. Best destinations to celebrate New Year.
C. New Year’s gatherings. D. New Year’s celebrations.
Question 45: The word “occurred” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. happened B. befell C. take place D. surfaced
Question 46: The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. astronomer B. calendar C. sun D. emperor
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, revelers often enjoy specific meals and snacks
during New Year because ________.
A. they are thought to bestow good luck for the coming year.
B. each represents the history and evolution of each country.
C. people want to enjoy their favorite foods in this special holiday.
D. they are on discount, thus cheaper, at this time of the year.
Question 48: The word “favor” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. permission C. partiality D. goodwill
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Question 49: According to the passage, which is NOT mentioned as a common tradition
during New Year?
A. Watching fireworks displays. B. Eating special New Year’s foods.
C. Dropping a giant ball from the sky. D. Making resolutions for the next year.
Question 50: Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Civilizations over the world have celebrated the start of a year for at least 4 millennia.
B. The New Year’s Day served an important political purpose for the ancient
Babylonians.
C. Nations across the world typically pinned the first day of a year to an astronomical
event.
D. To realign the Roman calendar with the sun, Julius Caesar introduced his Julian
calendar.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 15 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
Biên soạn: Cô Trang 2022
Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pleased B. laughed C. brushed D. liked
Question 2: A. divorce B. reliant C. promise D. idiot
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. deceive B. debate C. decade D. dessert
Question 4: A. recommend B. necessary C. represent D. university
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: My sister is working in _________ call center and getting paid by ________
hour.
A. a-no article B. the-an C. the-no article D. a-the
Question 6: I had told her that I would help her repair her light, but she __________ asking
me about it all the time.
A. kept on B. carried on C. kept at D. stuck to
Question 7: Neither of your parents speaks a foreign language, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 8: When I saw the book on the bookshelf, I knew it was exactly what I __________
for.
A. have been looking B. was looking C. had been looking D. looked
Question 9: Strict regulations regarding the number of hours workers must work _________
improvements in efficiency at the factory
A. in lieu of B. in the interests of C. in regard to D. in harmony with
Question 10: Researchers are conducting a ___________ study of health problems of people
living in urban and rural areas.
A. comparability B. comparison C. comparable D. comparative
Question 11: The city’s housing authority is in discussion with Marry, ____________ land
most of the village is built.
A. in which B. on whose C. in whose D. on where
Question 12: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ___________of physiotherapy
after she broke her leg in an accident.
A. stage B. chapter C. course D. episode
Question 13: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, the worker __________ in a critical
condition in hospital last night.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t have been
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Question 14: Governments have already taken drastic measures to ____________ minerals
and natural resources for our next generations.
A. handle B. remain C. husband D. shoulder
Question 15: In an interview, smart presentation and high level of fluency can ___________
the balance in your favour.
A. keep B. bear C. strike D. tip
Question 16: I couldn’t watch my favorite channel due to the noise made from the next
room, so I paused for a moment and then continued ___________.
A. to watch B. having watched C. watching D. to watching
Question 17: My family used to live and work _________ a farm, so I have quite a good
knowledge of farming.
A. on B. above C. in D. for
Question 18: The issue ________ at the conference was an extremely complicated one.
A. discussing B. to be discussed C. discussed D. having discussed
Question 19: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a
copy of her CV on the ____________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they
have finished eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 21: The retailer said that their profits would be lower than those in the previous
year, due largely to an increase in clothing promotions.
A. brochures B. advancements C. encouragements D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Recent economic conditions have intensified the pressure on industry to raise
prices.
A. heightened B. exaggerated C. varied D. diminished
Question 23: She used to smoke two packets of cigarettes a day, but then she deciced to stop
smoking and quit cold turkey.
A. suddenly and completely B. abruptly and thoroughly
C. calmly and regretfully D. gradually and partially
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.”
- Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on
grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that
Question 25: Tung is asking Tram about her favorite drink.
- Tung: “Do you want green tea or milk tea?”
- Tram: “______________.”
A. It’s up to me B. I really hate green tea
C. Oh, either. It doesn’t matter D. Mind your own business
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Locating in a tranquil setting, this hotel is ideally situated for the beach
and nearby fishing
A B C D
village of Fuenigirolia.
Question 27: The advantages of travelling by public transport is that
it’s convenient and cheap.
A B C D
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Question 28: While it was not formally announced, there was an intimacy from the
public that he would
A B C
win the election.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: “You’d better spent the weekend revising for your exam.”, said my mother to
me.
A. My mother scolded me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
B. My mother advised me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
C. My mother suggested me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
D. My mother obliged me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
Question 30: In most developed countries, it is not necessary for people to boil water before
they drink it.
A. In most developed countries, people ought to boil water before they drink it.
B. In most developed countries, people don’t need to boil water before they drink it.
C. In most developed countries, people should have boiled water before they drink it.
D. In most developed countries, people mustn’t boil water before they drink it.
Question 31: It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass.
A. Manufacturing new glass is more expensive than producing recycled glass.
B. Producing recycled glass is less expensive than manufacturing new glass.
C. Manufacturing new glass is as expensive as producing recycled glass.
D. Manufacturing new glass is less expensive than producing recycled glass.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The weather conditions became so dangerous. People were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
A. So dangerous were the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
B. Such dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
C. So dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
D. The weather conditions became such dangerous that people were evacuated to safer
parts of the city.
Question 33: She is the winner of the beauty pageant. That is the only reason people pay
attention to her.
A. Were she the winner of the beauty pageant, people would pay attention to her.
B. Should she be the winner of the beauty pageant, people will pay attention to her.
C. If it hadn’t been for the fact that she was the winner of the beauty pageant, people
wouldn’t have paid attention to her
D. If it weren’t for the fact that she is the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t
pay attention to her.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
URBANIZATION
Especially for those coming from rural areas, urban areas can create an overall better
quality of life in several ways. When urban areas become (34)_________ cities and towns,
they become a society of culture that can facilitate financial and educational growth.
With industrialization comes the creation of jobs. Usually making a shift from an
agricultural economy, industrialization paves the way for modern industries and will need
more people to perform various jobs. Rural jobs such as farming and mining may be
(35)_________, while urban employment opportunities - such as healthcare, business, and
education - will need a considerable amount of people with a variety of skills to fill many
jobs.
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Modern technology provides for better city infrastructure. With modernization, cities
can adapt to cultural needs and provide support systems for future development.
(36)_________, modernization can make for a more sustainable city layout, with better
housing/businesses, market centers, and public transit systems. For example, in advanced
cities, mobile technology can assist large businesses in advanced mobility hubs for vehicles,
(37)_________ significantly reduces the amount of traffic in growing cities.
The very presence of the Internet and IoT technology can expand communication to
nearly any corner of the globe, and has the capability to efficiently run (38)_________ and
lighting for a whole city. These are just a few illustrations of how technology and
modernization can provide efficient solutions to many facets of life, facilitating a better
standard of living.
(Source: https://www.flashparking.com)
Question 34: A. bustling B. secluded C. adventurous D. shallow
Question 35: A. labor-intensity B. labor-intensively C. labor-
intension D. labor-intensive
Question 36: A. Subsequently B. Additionally C. Previously D. Differently
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. which
Question 38: A. utilities B. practicalities C. benefits D. possibilities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Flirting is a fundamental fixture in the sexual behavior repertoire, a time-honored way
of signaling interest and attraction. It is a kind of silent language spoken by men and women
around the world. The ways people communicate interest are so deeply rooted in human
nature that the signals are automatically understood by all: from ways of glancing to
movements such as licking one’s lips, to meet nature’s most basic command—find a good
mate and multiply.
Flirting is not a trivial activity; it requires many skills: intellect, body language,
creativity, empathy. At its best, flirting can be high art, whether the flirter is vying for a soul
mate, manipulating a potential customer, or just being playful.
The process of flirting allows the signaling of interest to another in small increments,
which is especially appealing to a partner. Flirting is driven by emotions and instinct rather
than logical thought. Yet the gestures and movements used in flirting also provide reliable
clues to a person’s biological and psychological health.
Flirting has many parallels in the animal world, seen in the behavioral displays many
animals engage in to signal not only their availability but their suitability. For example,
penguins search for small pebbles to deliver to their partner of interest. Seahorses lock their
tails together for a romantic swim. Bower birds use leaves, grass, and twigs to construct
elaborate nests.
Across the animal kingdom, such actions are closely tied to seasonal reproductive
readiness and signal reproductive fitness by one creature to another. Among humans, the
repertoire of flirting behaviors can be deployed at will and the exact meaning of any gesture
is usually a matter of interpretation.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 39: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Flirting B. Charisma C. Nonverbal cues D. Romantic feelings
Question 40: The word “vying” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. seeking B. challenging C. competing D. clashing
Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. nests’ B. pebbles’ C. penguins’ D. seahorses’
Question 42: According to the passage, what can be suggested about the flirting of animals?
A. Animal courtship varies tremendously between species.
B. Birds prefer subtle movements to lavish displays.
C. Aquatic animals do not flirt due to their breeding habits.
D. Animals cannot feel the excitement of flirting like humans.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The behavior of flirting is not restricted to humans.
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B. Humans generally flirt with thinly veiled innuendoes.


C. All humans are equipped with the language of flirtation.
D. There is profound information transmitted in flirting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp
upward demand, reinforcing its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal
wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations
in an effort to contain it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries
has been the closure of all schools. The sudden adjustments of educational processes and
altered dynamics between all involved parties - schools, teachers, students and parents – are
challenging familiar routines and threatening crucial public objectives. Accordingly, the
World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to support policymakers worldwide
in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to modern technologies.
EdTech’s practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing.
Previously considered an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional
schooling systems, it is now essential for preserving a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already
benefitted during the COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools
smoothly mastered the sudden transition to homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for
students and parents. Their early investment in equipment and software and in coaching of
educational staff has allowed them to continue their operations with minimal interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in
the classrooms. However, its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its
sustainable profitability. “So far only 2 to 3% of the 5 trillion USD spent globally on
education is digital. This, combined with EdTech’s sudden vital role during COVID-19 and
the significant differences seen up to now in its geographical investments, intensify the
previously unseized global growth opportunities”, says Dr. Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at
Credit Suisse Asset Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/)
Question 44: What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 45: The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _____________.
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden
adjustments of educational processes, EXCEPT __________.
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 47: What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’ C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 48: The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 49: According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education
interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Investors are uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
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-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
16 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. handed B. naked C. looked D. flooded
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. paddle B. cautious C. preface D. extend
Question 4: A. relevant B. survival C. potential D. tuition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 6: Our rule is that all the volunteers must ________ and must have a clean criminal
record.
A. employ B. be employed
C. have employed D. have been employed
Question 7: What I lack __________ my life is an attentive boyfriend who always stands by
me through thick and thin.
A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 8: You are advised to avoid __________ to the confidential information of the
company if you don’t want to have trouble.
A. access B. accessing C. to access D. to accessing
Question 9: __________ that 5,00 famous doctors from around the world were invited to
attend.
A. It was at the conference B. It was the conference
C. It was in the conference D. It was on the conference
Question 10: To everyone’s surprise, __________ lion is a member of the cat family.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: I got caught in the traffic, __________ I would have been here sooner.
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
Question 12: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 13: By the time John read her letter, she __________ the city.
A. will have left B. had left
C. will have been left D. had been leaving
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of
wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: Mary looks sad because she's just __________ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. broken out C. broken off D. broken into
Question 16: Tom really made a ______ when he was young. He bought a new car and a
new house.
A. bomb B. money C. will D. bundles
Question 17: There has been a(n) __________ of interest in networking websites in many
parts of the world in the last ten years.
A. outbreak B. breakthrough C. explosion D. advent
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Question 18: Laura's suggestion was turned down because it lacked convincing experimental
______.
A. help B. assistance C. aid D. support
Question 19: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had
said, but I didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Going to a highly prestigious university is a mixed blessing because I’ll have
to study far harder and can be under much pressure.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both the pros and cons
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 21: It is the fifth largest supermarket chain in Vietnam where rigorous standards in
the food industry are applied.
A. thorough B. careful C. adverse D. strict
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The strict regulations governing the sale of weapons will come into force next
week and everyone must comply with them.
A. wear on B. wear away C. wear off D. wear out
Question 23: The fact that our team scored up to twenty points in the competition was
a fair achievement.
A. unjust B. poor C. partial D. unequal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Chi is enjoying her moment in the USA and she is talking to Tram on the
phone.
- Chi: “Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.”
- Tram: “__________. We all have many problems, pressures and tragedies to deal with.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. I'm afraid, I can't agree with you
Question 25: - Minh: "It's true that she's going to leave the company." - Huong:
“__________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We need to conduct a feasible study to check whether this alternative method
can be
A B
suitable for development.
C D
Question 27: Laura decided to play safe and allow an extra ten minutes to leave the scene of
the accident. A B C D
Question 28: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people's
attitudes
A B C
towards the disabled are quite good.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous
day.
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B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 31: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources
of information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
C. Not only are some websites really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable
sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him
because she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal of his girlfriend’s trust, she would have
broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t
have broken up with him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
A hundred million tourists from China travel to all corners of the world every year. In
2013 alone, Chinese travellers spent over 100 billion dollars abroad. A booming economy
and a growing Chinese middle class allow more people to travel than ever before. Western
countries have been preparing for the mass influx of Chinese tourists for some time. They are
also making it easier for Chinese travellers to feel at home when on holiday.
France, (34) __________, has started hiring police officers from China to protect tourists
in Paris and other cities. Other countries, including the United States and Great Britain, are
not (35) __________ visas for Chinese travellers anymore. Chinese credit cards are
becoming more and more accepted in Europe and elsewhere. Hotels, airports and shopping
malls around the world have been hiring Mandarin speakers.
Shopping is the main reason for Chinese citizens to travel abroad. China is becoming the
biggest market for luxury goods. Louis Viton bags and Rolex watches are only two items (36)
__________ Chinese are fond of, and they will do anything and go anywhere to get them.
Luxury items are bought as status symbols. Many Chinese buy them abroad because there are
high taxes on (37) __________ goods inside China.
However, Chinese citizens also go to other countries for sports and leisure
(38)__________. Canada, for example, wants to help Chinese tourists during the winter
months by hiring Chinese skiing instructors. They also go on extended tours of Europe and
the US and enjoy a new culture that is different from what they experience at home.
Question 34: A. in contrast B. for instance C. in general D. after all
Question 35: A. demanding B. ordering C. requesting D. offering
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Question 36: A. who B. when C. whose D. that


Question 37: A. every B. many C. such D. each
Question 38: A. incidents B. pursuits C. actions D. duties
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has upended family life around the
world. School closures, working remotely, physical distancing — it’s a lot for parents to
navigate. Robert Jenkins, UNICEF’s Global Chief of Education, offers some tips to help keep
children’s education on track while they’re staying home.
First, plan a routine together. Try to establish a routine that factors in age-appropriate
education programmes that can be followed online, on the television or through the radio.
Also, factor in playtime and time for reading. Use everyday activities as learning
opportunities for your children. Although establishing a routine and structure is critically
important for children and young people, in these times you may notice your children need
some level of flexibility. If your child seems restless and agitated when you’re trying to
follow an online learning programme with them, flip to a more active option. Do not forget
that planning and doing house chores together safely is great for the development of fine and
gross motor functions.
Next, have open conversations. Encourage your children to ask questions and express
their feelings with you. Remember that your child may have different reactions to stress, so
be patient and understanding. Start by inviting your child to talk about the issue. Find out
how much they already know and follow their lead. Discuss good hygiene practices. You can
use everyday moments to reinforce the importance of things like regular and thorough
handwashing. Make sure you are in a safe environment and allow your child to talk freely.
Drawing, stories and other activities may help to open a discussion.
Last, protect children online. Digital platforms provide an opportunity for children to
keep learning, take part in play and keep in touch with their friends. But increased access
online brings heightened risks for children’s safety, protection and privacy. Discuss the
internet with your children so that they know how it works, what they need to be aware of,
and what appropriate behavior looks like on the platforms they use, such as video calls.
(Adapted from https://www.unicef.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following questions does the passage answer?
A. How can parents maintain their children’s education in the pandemic?
B. What should parents do to help their children reduce stress?
C. How does the pandemic affect children’s education?
D. What are the new ways to learn in the COVID-19 pandemic?
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what does Robert Jenkins suggest that parents
should do?
A. Separating learning online from doing everyday activities.
B. Letting their children free in their leisure time.
C. Not involving their children in doing domestic chores.
D. Planning a flexible routine that is suitable for the age of their children.
Question 41: The word “agitated” in paragraph 2 most probably means __________.
A. excited and enjoyable B. anxious and nervous
C. tired and bored D. relaxed and comfortable
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the ways to have open
conversations with children, EXCEPT __________.
A. Stimulate children to ask questions and express their emotions
B. Realizing the current understanding level of children
C. Talking in a secure environment
D. Reacting in different ways to children’s stress
Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. internet B. privacy C. safety D. risk
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

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A new study shows that urbanization shifts this seasonal cue in nuanced ways, with
cities in cold climates triggering earlier spring plant growth and cities in warm climates
delaying it. The study also found that the urban heat island effect, the phenomenon in which
cities are warmer than their surroundings, is not the only culprit behind the shift, suggesting
that other aspects of urbanization, such as pollution, changes in humidity and fertilizer runoff,
may also influence plants' seasonal patterns.
Researchers analyzed millions of observations of 136 plant species across the U.S. and
Europe to study how regional temperature and the local density of people—a proxy for
urbanization—affect when plants sprout leaves and blossoms. Their results revealed a
complex story: Separately, warmer temperatures and higher population density each spurred
earlier springs. A 3.6-degree Fahrenheit increase in temperature bumped up plants'
production of leaves and flowers by about five and six days, respectively. A fourfold increase
in human population density advanced flowering and leaf production dates by about three
days. But the team found that when these two factors worked together, local temperature had
an outsized influence.
In cold regions — areas with an average November-to-May temperature of about 18
degrees—plants produced leaves and flowers about 20 days earlier in locations with about
26,000 people per square mile, compared with equally frigid wildland. When an area's
average November-to-May temperature jumped to 68, however, leaves and flowers appeared
four and six days later, respectively, in locations with about 26,000 people per square mile,
compared with equally balmy wildland. In New York, for example, plants are likely
sprouting leaves about 9.5 days earlier and blossoms eight days earlier than uninhabited
regions with the same temperature. Jacksonville, in contrast, is likely pushing leaf production
later by about one day and flowers by about half a day, with leaves appearing two days later
and flowers a day later in Houston.
Even after accounting for urban heat islands, the team's models revealed cities
significantly affect plants' springtime growth. "Not only are there other things going on, but
they actually matter quite a lot," said study co-author Brian Stucky, Florida Museum research
scientist. Plants may not be the only organisms affected by seasonal shifts, he added.
"Seasons are such a big part of our lives. We define our world around seasonal things. Those
rhythms are what we think of as the normal way the world works."
(Source: https://phys.org/)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Fauna and flora reply to human influences.
B. Embracing the urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization may hold the key to plant survival.
D. Urbanization delays spring plant growth.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. subtle B. trivial C. obvious D. refined
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. warm climate B. spring plant C. seasonal cue D. plant growth
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, what will rising temperature combined with
increased crowdedness cause?
A. The plants that are supposed to be summer species will bloom in springtime.
B. The stimulating effect prompted by temperature increase will be immense.
C. The two forces will cancel each other and deliver a normal spring outcome.
D. The fruits will ripen before the appearance of leaves due to early blossom.
Question 48: The word “proxy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. guide B. proof C. demonstration D. representative
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what can be generalized from different pairs of
comparison cases?
A. One is the place where residents use the Celsius scale while the other favors
Fahrenheit.
B. Both investigated areas are selected due to their typicality for research purposes.
C. One is a populous region while the other is desolate with the same weather settings.
D. Both places have immigrants traveling from countries with opposite climates.
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Question 50: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Human activities within urban environments only affect the biogeochemical cycles.
B. One key area for future temperature research is climate change in suburbs and exurbs.
C. The frigid areas from November to May boast an average temperature of 18 degrees
Celsius.
D. Pollution is one of the aspects of urbanization leading to disrupted plant growth.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
17 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Aurora and Linda are reacting to the BLACKPINK member Lisa and her solo
debut.
- Aurora: “I think Lisa showed her great sense of patriotism through her debut.”
- Linda: “___________. She included some elements of her Thai heritage in some of her
outfits.”
A. I don't think so either B. You’re absolutely right
C. That’s not the same thing at all D. Neither do I
Question 6: Giang is showing his appreciation for Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “________________________.”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 7: During the 19th century, Britain became the world's first modern ___________
society.
A. urbanize B. urbanized C. urbanization D. urban
Question 8: You have hurt her feelings. You should have put yourself in her __________ to
understand the reason for her reaction.
A. boots B. sandals C. shoes D. sneakers
Question 9: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the
United States.
A. To found B. Having been found
C. Founded D. Founding
Question 10: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before we have finished our work B. as soon as we have finished our work
C. after we had finished our work D. when we finished our work
Question 11: In the past, the __________ exam was very difficult and only a small minority
of candidates got through.
A. national B. mock C. final D. entrance

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Question 12: If we continue to use our natural resources at this alarming rate, they will
__________ by the end of the century.
A. run out B. use up C. go off D. bring back
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a handbag on her birthday last week.
A. new nice big yellow B. big nice yellow new
C. nice big new yellow D. nice yellow big new
Question 14: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to _____ their
own culture.
A. maintain B. reserve C. conserve D. preserve
Question 15: Many domestic flights have been cancelled __________ adverse weather
conditions.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: We had some friends to dinner last night, __________?
A. hadn’t we B. had we C. didn’t we D. did we
Question 17: Valentine’s Day, __________ in many countries, is the time when lovers
express their affection with greetings and gifts.
A. is celebrated B. celebrates C. celebrated D. was celebrated
Question 18: I have to take on more extra work so that I could __________ ends meet with a
big family.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: My youngest sister always dreams __________ becoming an English teacher.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
Question 20: The boy __________ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried
Question 21: The more I know her, __________ I admire her.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The reason why his teacher asked him to repeat the question was that he
wasn’t attending during the lesson.
A. joining B. presenting C. noticing D. appearing
Question 23: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic
measures in this country.
A. untreated B. uninsured C. untested D. uncontrolled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I was fairly positive about the fact that I’d heard it before because it’s quite
familiar to me.
A. negative B. pessimistic C. hopeless D. uncertain
Question 25: The government took a range of measures to reduce poverty in the area, but
they just drew a blank.
A. had a consequence B. got a result
C. gained an advantage D. took a chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19
outbreak. Our global SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution
Working Group, which (26) __________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their
possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27)
__________ shared these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global
collaboration allows scientists to better track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends
that all countries increase the sequencing of the COVID-19 virus where possible and share
data to help one (28) __________ monitor and respond to the evolving pandemic.

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WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework
to identify, monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like
surveillance, research on variants of concern, and (29) __________ of the impact on
diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework will serve as a guide for
manufacturers and countries on changes (30) __________ may be needed for COVID-19
vaccines.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. prediction B. expectation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. which B. when C. whom D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The main idea behind ecotourism is to educate tourists about conservation efforts and
research developments in fragile natural areas, while also offering travelers a chance to
experience those areas firsthand. Unfortunately, when those fragile areas start to receive a lot
of traffic from tourists, it can negatively impact their ecosystems.
Tourism inevitably leads to development – even in ecotourism efforts. When natural
areas become popular in the travel industry, they usually become the site of hotels,
excavations and other tourist industry activities. These activities sometimes displace
indigenous groups and local people from their homelands, which not only damages the
integrity of those local communities, but prevents its members from benefiting from the
economic benefits of a growing tourism industry.
On top of ecotourism’s potential impacts on locals, the industry can also take a toll on
surrounding wildlife. It’s ironic, given that ecotourism aims to educate ecotourists and
promote the conservation of natural habitats, but, for some species, the increased presence of
humans may by default negatively impact their natural behaviors. Increased foot traffic can
also affect soil quality and plant life in general, damaging the area’s overall ecosystem.
Finally, not all travel organizations that market themselves as ecotourist programs are
actually environmentally friendly. These organizations know ecotourism is growing in
popularity and may take advantage of that fact by parading as ecotouristic when in reality
they ignore eco-friendly practices. For that reason, it’s important that would-be ecotourists do
their homework before giving an organization their business.
(Adapted from https://traveltips.usatoday.com/)
Question 31: What does the author mainly discuss in the passage?
A. Drawbacks of ecotourism B. Benefits of ecotourism on local areas
C. Ecotourism: A new trend for tourists D. The ways to develop potential
ecotourism
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. homelands
B. tourist industry activities
C. displacing indigenous groups and local people from their homelands
D. natural areas become popular in the travel industry
Question 33: According increase in the employment rate of the local people to the passage,
what is the major goal of ecotourism?
A. to increase the employment rate of the local people
B. to stimulate the preservation of natural habitats
C. to enhance tourists’ knowledge about the beauty of surrounding wildlife
D. to diminish the foot traffic affecting the soil quality
Question 34: Which of the following negative impacts of ecotourism is NOT mentioned in
the passage?
A. Some indigenous groups and local inhabitants may not receive the economic benefits
of ecotourism.
B. The increase in the number of vehicles will make pollution worse.
C. Some travel organizations do not actually provide environmentally friendly tours.
D. The surrounding wildlife may be influenced by the frequent presence of humans.
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Question 35. What does the author mean when suggesting that ecotourists should “do their
homework”?
A. Ecotourists should attend some courses about ecotourism.
B. Ecotourists should finish their school work before the journey.
C. Ecotourists should take advantage of the trips to understand more about their school
lessons.
D. Ecotourists should find out information about ecotourism and the travel organization
before travelling.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The administrative room, which serves as the department headquarters, is noisy like a
market. Health workers from all over the country are present. People dispersed to various
corners where we carefully put on our personal protective equipment (PPE). After putting on
the PPE, we slowly entered the danger zone, where the patients were waiting. The ward with
the most seriously ill patients is the red zone, which is completely isolated since it is the most
dangerous. Next is the transition area called the yellow zone, and finally the medical staff's
safe base, the briefing room, dubbed the green zone. When going from green to red we must
wear the PPE, and when leaving the red zone we must remove the PPE and carefully disinfect
it from head to toe before entering the green zone.
We finally entered the ward. With the PPE on, every movement became very difficult,
the goggles became foggy, and even breathing was difficult. Every one of the patients was
suffering from shortness of breath, coupled with anxiety and panic from witnessing other
patients in the room get worse and occasionally pass away. We had to practice speaking and
breathing gently to avoid creating strong air flows through our masks, which makes it easy to
spread the infection. Nurses struggle to perform venipuncture. Normally very dexterous at
drawing blood, here they sometimes need two or three attempts since having to wear multiple
pairs of gloves hinder their ability to feel with their fingers. It is also difficult for doctors to
examine the patients since they cannot use stethoscopes and must be very brief when asking
patients questions. Instead, by observing whether patients breathe gently, with difficulty or
abnormally, and noting their facial expressions, sweat, skin color, we can assess the progress
of the disease.
As the day went by, severe patients were treated and less severe patients were
recovering, and so we finally felt reassured despite being drenched in sweat. Just as it was
time for us to return to the green zone to write up medical records, there was a commotion
from the room next door. A patient's condition was worsening. All the medical staff in the
room rushed in for emergency treatment. After a few minutes the patient's heartbeat returned,
and the ventilator was reattached for the patient to resume breathing. My colleagues were
covered in sweat as if they had just showered.
(Source: https://e.vnexpress.net/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Life in a Covid-19 field hospital.
B. A doctor’s perspective on COVID-19.
C. Dynamics between patients and doctors.
D. A day battle inside a Covid hospital.
Question 37: The word “dispersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scattered B. disunited C. disbanded D. sprinkled
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a challenge for the
medics?
A. tight protective equipment B. some uncooperative patients
C. the restrictions on speaking D. the looming risk of infection
Question 39: The word “dexterous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quick B. graceful C. brilliant D. adroit
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. nurses B. doctors C. patients D. colleagues
Question 41: Which is NOT true about the hospital in this story?
A. Speaking too much or with force is discouraged to avoid the risk of infection.
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B. Only until very late at night could the health workers return to the safe area.
C. Observation skills become crucial for the doctors in this difficult time.
D. Movements between the green and red zones are carefully regulated.
Question 42: Where would the author and his colleagues most possibly go right next?
A. The blue zone B. The red zone C. The yellow zone D. The green zone
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Mike doesn't feel well today. He can't go out with his friends.
A. If Mike felt well today, he could go out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he can go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn't have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can't go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no
exception whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the
exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take
the job.
C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to
take the job.
Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night.
C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at
night.
Question 47: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 49: Marry was on a real height after easily winning the competition because
A B
she really didn't expect to win.
C D
Question 50: Economics in my classes at Sul Ross University were very difficult for me to
A B C
Learn and understand.
D
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
18 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: He is a highly intelligent person, __________?
A. wasn’t he B. isn’t he C. has he D. was he
Question 6: My mother bought a __________ lunch box for me yesterday.
A. blue new plastic B. new plastic blue C. new blue plastic D. blue new
plastic
Question 7: This expensive car __________ me lots of trouble ever since I got it.
A. has been given B. gave C. has given D. gives
Question 8: __________ nutritious your breakfast is, the healthier you feel during the day.
A. Most of B. More C. Most D. The more
Question 9: __________ poverty and faced problems in pursuing her career, Marry finally
realized the importance of perseverance and bravery.
A. Have experienced B. Having experienced
C. To experience D. Having been experienced
Question 10: The conventional dessert was topped __________ whipped cream and pieces of
fruit.
A. by B. on C. for D. with
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: You must have a guarantor in order to get __________ visa to enter the
country.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 13: Before __________, we had gone home.
A. raining B. having rained C. rained D. it rained
Question 14: According to a new research, The Air Force is the number one ranked
__________ in this area.
A. employer B. employee C. employment D. employ
Question 15: Marry was born in Korea but ______ in Los Angeles and quickly became
Americanized.
A. grew up B. brought up C. turned up D. came up
Question 16: Government has already ____ all reasonable precautions to limit the spread of
coronavirus.
A. taken B. done C. made D. carried
Question 17: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a
copy of her CV on the __________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 18: My vegetarian diet seems to be __________ because I've lost five pounds since
I started this diet.
A. operating B. working C. performing D. driving
Question 19: Ho Chi Minh president raised six urgent issues that government needed to
solve immediately to ease the food __________ in 1945.
A. lack B. deficiencies C. inadequacies D. shortages
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Laura would like to be financially secure by age 50, so she is working hard to
earn a lot of money.
A. safe B. stable C. confident D. protected
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Question 21: He didn’t realize his ambition of becoming a dancer because he lost a leg in a
motorcycle accident.
A. recognize B. achieve C. identify D. succeed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I like modern art to a certain degree, but I don't like the really experimental
stuff.
A. unsure B. unlimited C. unchanged D. uncertain
Question 23: Some doctors in this hospital came under suspicion of unethical behavior
towards their patients.
A. betrayed people’s trust B. found not guilty
C. received people’s approval D. considered to be dishonest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Question 25: Thanh and Hung are talking about a businesswoman.
- Thanh: “Mrs Phuong Hang is an exceptionally talented businesswoman to make such an
enormous fortune”
- Hung: “__________. Very few women can achieve great success like her.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. I’m afraid I can’t side with you on this one D. There’re no doubtful about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: The boy collided with the car is making recovery from operation.
A B C D
Question 27: It’s reported that the number of cars which is stolen every year has risen.
A B C D
Question 28: I wonder if I can pay for the car by instalments because I really want it but I
don’t have
A B C
money.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the most enjoyable wedding party I have ever attended.
A. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I have never attended a more enjoyable wedding party than this one.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party like this.
Question 30: "It's you who broke my vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her
vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It wasn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may not have worried about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t have worried about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t have worried about these trivial things.
D. You can’t have worried about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
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A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost
all matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with
an unacceptable result.
Question 33: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Exploration has changed a lot over time. In the past, only adventurers who were willing
to take (34) __________ were considered explorers. In contrast, anyone can be an explorer
today thanks to modern technology.
In the past, when explorers traveled the world, people back home had to wait for months
to hear about their adventures. Explorers kept (35) __________ and wrote letters about their
experiences. They would only be able to tell (36)__________what they saw after they
returned. By the end of the nineteenth century, explorers were also able to take photos in the
same way (37)__________ they do today. However, they were unable to see the photos right
away. It often took a long time for them to get photos printed.
(38) __________, today’s explorers can travel around the globe and can send back live,
real-time images. Thanks to high-tech devices and the Internet, anyone can interact with
them. When a discovery is made, we can see photos on social media and read blog posts the
same day. We may not be there, but we still take part in the adventure.
(Adapted from Thomas Fast, 2017)
Question 34: A. dangers B. possibilities C. risks D. chances
Question 35: A. magazines B. journals C. history D. publication
Question 36: A. another B. other C. the others D. others
Question 37: A. what B. where C. that D. when
Question 38: A. In the same way B. On one hand C. By
comparison D. Similarly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
When I surveyed over 5,000 middle grade students for my book, kids were already
reminding me of the technology gap between them and their parents. They claimed that
parents “didn’t have a clue” as to what they were experiencing on screens. While generation
gap is often characteristic of adolescence in any generation, it is even wider because of
rapidly changing technology.
Even the guidelines I prescribed six years ago would be impossible to implement for this
generation of tablets, cellphones and notebooks that travel in children’s backpacks. Setting
and enforcing guidelines early for children is helpful. Taking technology away at bedtime is
still possible and at least allows them a good night’s rest. Cautioning your children about not
sharing real names, addresses or phone numbers in chatrooms or for any emails protects them
somewhat. Making sure your hardworking home is balanced by non-screen family fun can be
enormous protection. Beware of over-consequencing and over-punishing for small problems.
We don’t want your children to think of their parents as enemies in a battle of wills.
Tell your children how wise and experienced you are and how much you love them at
least five times a week. They need to know they can count on you in this complex, fast-
moving world even if they know more about technology than you do. Like every generation,
your children will grow up and hopefully find responsible directions for their own lives.
Technology skills are valued in the work force and technology is here to stay. Learning as
much about it as possible will help you stay tuned-in to what your children aren’t saying.
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(Source: https://www.wdtimes.com/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Technology - a great challenge to parents. B. Negative aspects of technology.
C. Kids don’t want to talk about their lives. D. Technology facilitates
communication.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. characteristic B. middle grade student
C. generation gap D. technology gap
Question 41: According to the passage, what shouldn’t the parents do in order to regulate the
children’s use of technology?
A. Confiscating the technology when bedtime comes.
B. Preserving time for activities beyond screens and technology.
C. Warning kids against oversharing on social media.
D. Demanding kids to share with the parents all their passwords.
Question 42: The word “tuned-in” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. oblivious B. alien C. sensitive D. helpful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE about the technology in this day and age?
A. Guidelines for technological parental control are still the same.
B. People can’t live successfully without technical skills.
C. Technology has made community activities more crucial than ever.
D. The detrimental effects of technology are holding it back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
If we really care about nature, then surely conservation has to be practical; it needs to
work. Everything we hear on the news seems to say the opposite: nature continues to go
down the tube; extinction rates are increasing; new threats like climate change are emerging;
and beautiful places are being destroyed before our eyes. All this is true; and yet…
If things are getting worse, it is obvious that conservation is failing. Well, no. In 2006,
scientists at BirdLife International showed that conservation action had prevented 16 bird
species from going extinct during the 1994-2004 time period. In 2014, scientists from the
Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust found that sustained conservation action from 1988 to
2012 resulted in eight species being down-listed to lower categories of threat on the IUCN
Red List of Threatened Species. In a pivotal study in 2015, a group of researchers from the
IUCN Species Survival Commission found that without conservation action that took place
between 1996 and 2008, the status of the world’s ungulates (deer, antelopes, cattle and their
relatives) would have been nearly eight times worse than was actually observed. In 2017,
researchers were able to quantify how conservation investments made between 1996 and
2008 reduced biodiversity loss in 109 countries by 29% per country on average.
Once again, this suggests that although too little was spent on conservation, it had a
significant level of success. As a result, decision-makers are now in a position, for the first
time, to forecast what the positive impacts of any increase in conservation spending are likely
to be in relation to different scenarios of human development pressure, and then compare
these forecasts to their policy targets.
There is one clear conclusion from these and similar studies: conservation does work,
but we do not do anywhere close to enough of it. The threats to nature are certainly growing
and this means that we have to spend more on conservation just to stand still. On the other
hand, if some of the commitments made by the world’s governments are actually acted upon,
such as the 2010 Aichi Biodiversity Targets and the 2015 Sustainable Development Goals,
then the number of resources to be allocated to conservation is set to increase. Let’s hope
that this will indeed be the case.
(Source: https://www.synchronicityearth.org/)
Question 44: Which question is the passage most possibly the answer to?
A. What exactly do conservationists need to do?
B. Why do we conserve nature in the first place?
C. Does conservation actually work?
D. What is and isn’t conservation?
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Question 45: The word “emerging” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.


A. proceeding B. waning C. popping D. arising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a successful effort in
conservation?
A. Many bird species were brought back from the brink of extinction.
B. Situation of the ungulates has become better.
C. Eight species are now less at risk of extinction.
D. The decline in biological diversity in many countries slowed down.
Question 47: The word “quantify” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________.
A. evaluate B. rate C. determine D. judge
Question 48: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. establishing new conservation goals B. support from the governments
C. the amount of resources D. more investment in conservation
Question 49: According to the passage, the overall situation is getting worse, __________.
A. and could turn even worse within the next decade.
B. despite some small local successes in conservation.
C. but not as fast as if we were doing no conservation at all.
D. yet many people still think that we are making progress.
Question 50. Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. There is increasing evidence that conservation is actually working.
B. There are many different views on how to achieve conservation.
C. Governments will need to do more to reach the necessary level of success.
D. Dears and antelopes are the species belonging to the ungulates group.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
19 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Many people are deeply unhappy about the way the government has handled this
matter, ______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: The basic design of the car is very similar __________ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8: __________ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive B. Most expensive
C. The more expensive D. The most expensive
Question 9: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good
Question 10: I will tell David you are looking for him when I __________ him tomorrow.
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A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing


Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: It was made of a __________ material.
A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic
C. green strange metallic D. green metallic strange
Question 13: __________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.
A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of
wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: I know you don’t like Jack’s idea, but just __________ with him for a while.
A. get out B. get along C. play along D. play out
Question 16: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had
said, but I didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 17: If you have any information that is __________ to the investigation, you
should call the police.
A. substantial B. material C. identical D. rational
Question 18: The hospital hit the __________ and became the center of a media storm when
a number of suspicious deaths occurred.
A. books B. ceiling C. buffers D. headlines
Question 19: The judge has decided to __________ his decision until a later date because
there wasn’t enough evidence.
A. preserve B. reserve C. maintain D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It is an independent voluntary organization which aims to provide assistance to
people in need.
A. necessity B. hardship C. obstacle D. requirement
Question 21: Manufacturing plants which produce large amounts of carbon dioxide
should closely monitor the emission.
A. nearly B. exactly C. carefully D. strongly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: That visitors throw garbage into the ocean shows how shallow their
commitment to the environment really is.
A. deep B. serious C. attentive D. significant
Question 23: She demonstrated a clear determination to win because she didn’t throw in the
towel just because she had lost one game.
A. admit that she has been defeated B. stop trying to win
C. have the chance to succeed D. do her best to achieve victory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Ronaldo and Messi are meeting at an outdoor cafe serving drinks.
- Messi: “Which drink do you want, coke or water?”
- Ronaldo: “__________ because it’s better for our health than coke.”
A. Either will do B. I’d prefer a glass of water
C. I don’t like both of them D. No thanks, I’ve just had some
Question 25: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
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Question 26: He introduced himself to me and asked if I’d like him to visit once in awhile on
his rounds. A B C D
Question 27: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A B C D
Question 28: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally
treated regardless of her age, sex, or nationality. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party a long time ago.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 30: "It's me who broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her
vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may worry about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.
A. If she doesn’t live so far away, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
B. He wishes she lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.
C. If only she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.
D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his
work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his
work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have promoted to chief
executive.
D. But for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief
executive.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The (34) __________ girl who fell off a 12th floor apartment in Hanoi and was saved by
a truck driver last Sunday was discharged from hospital Friday morning. Hoang Hai Duc,
head of pediatric orthopedics at the National Children’s Hospital, said a dislocated hip has
been fixed and the child would have a (35) __________ after two or three weeks to see if her
hips have regained their full function. "This is truly too big a joy for our family," the girl’s
mother said. The three-year-old dislocated (36) __________ falling 50 m from the balcony in
an apartment complex on Nguyen Huy Tuong Street. She fortunately survived after Nguyen
Ngoc Manh, a 31-year-old truck driver (37) __________ had parked nearby, clambered up a
corrugated roof and caught the falling child. Manh, who slightly injured his arms in the
ordeal, said the (38) __________ has turned his life upside down. His story was picked up by
the national and international media, turning him into a celebrity overnight. Many called him
a hero to his discomfort. "I don’t see myself as a hero; I just want to do good," he had said at
the time.
Question 34: A. a little B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. checkup B. breakup C. outbreak D. breakthrough
Question 36: A. when B. before C. after D. while
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Question 37: A. which B. what C. whose D. that


Question 38: A. occasion B. incident C. accident D. situation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The 21st century has become another important century for inventions and discoveries.
We are only in the 2nd decade of this century currently but we have already witnessed many
big innovations that have drastically changed our way of living. Bluetooth technology,
broadband internet, artificial heart, genetic engineering, virtual reality, 3D printing are some
to name a few. These inventions are changing the way we live, do our things and
communicate with the others. Even though some of these developments are in the early stage
of innovation, they have a more sophisticated and promising future. Social media is one of
the most important aspects that has affected each person in this modern time.
According to Heidi Cohen, Social Media are the platforms that enable the interactive
web by engaging users to participate in, comment on and create content as means of
communicating with their social graph, other users and the public. The power of social media
has changed most of the things in our daily life. Social media has revolutionized and
completely changed the way we send and receive information. It is more interactive, can be
done in realtime and uses a wide number of media like text, audio, video, pictures, graphics
and more. With these sites, sending and receiving messages offline and in realtime, audio and
video chatting, sharing pictures, video and text, going “Live” to many audiences, meeting old
friends and making new has revolutionized our way of establishing connections with others.
There are also the negative sides of the innovation of social media and their usage.
Increase in cyber-crime, invasion of privacy, security threats etc. is some of the issues
associated with social networks. But at the same time social networks are working themselves
to cope with the increasing problems that arise with the improper use of it. With more and
more sophistication and versatility of use, social media have undoubtedly proved to be
a boon to connectivity and social interaction between people in this age of communication
and information technology.
(Adapted from https://arjungelal.wordpress.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following could serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Social Media – One of the Greatest Inventions of the 21st Century
B. How Positive Social Media Changes Our Lives?
C. Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Media
D. Important Inventions in Modern Society
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. information B. the way C. social media D. the power
Question 41: The following are benefits brought by social media mentioned in paragraph
2, EXCEPT __________.
A. connecting people all over the world
B. keeping contact with others via various ways
C. helping people exchange information in a more interactive way
D. increasing the private invasion of users
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE?
A. The new inventions remain the way we interact with each other.
B. It’s unlikely for people to process documents on social media.
C. Using social media improperly will increase the problems for users.
D. People nowadays send and receive more online messages than normal.
Question 43: The word “boon” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefit B. drawback C. challenge D. advance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Six the Musical tells the stories of King Henry VIII's six wives through a collection of
pop songs as they compare lives to see who suffered the most and who should therefore lead
their girl group. The songs are catchy, fun, and exciting, and they are genuinely great pop
tunes. The singing performances from the Australian actresses were amazing, and all
of them were technically very skilled.
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It originated as a college student's concept album and it is clear even in performance that
it is not designed to exist as anything more than that. The dialogue is clumsy and tonally
confused. It gives the audience proverbial whiplash by sounding like a Hi-5 concert one
moment to hammy, beginner improv-style dialogue the next, before snapping to blunt, and
pretty overt, British jokes about sex and adultery.
Six tries to emulate Hamilton's success by using modern musical elements and basing
the story on a 'woke' and empowering retelling of history. But, as a revision on Henry VIII's
wives, it just regurgitates a bunch of facts that the audience already knows and sets it to the
song. In performance most of the characters are portrayed as strong, independent women, and
they pull it off well by anchoring their music in modern-day pop feminists. But the squabbles
between the wives play into the stereotype that women are catty and bitch about each other
behind their backs. The entire musical is steeped in the idea that these women are only
notable because of their relationship with King Henry VIII. Only in the last song of the show
do the women finally reject Henry VIII and come to support and appreciate each other. Six
didn't have to be like that. It could have been about the women supporting each other from
the start.
And that is my other problem with Six. It tries to sell itself as a musical when it really
isn’t. Most of the actresses cannot act or dance, they can only sing, and the choreography
they are working with is very static compared to the likes of West Side Story, Moulin Rouge
or most other musicals. At the same time, the set and lighting design are barely used and don't
add much to their performances.
(Source: https://www.arc.unsw.edu.au/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Feminism in the musical genre. B. Reviewing Six the musical.
C. The fame of a new musical. D. A failed copy of Hamilton.
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Henry VIII's wives B. pop tunes C. performances D. actresses
Question 46: The phrase “steeped in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imbued with B. connected with C. soaked in D. implanted in
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem with Six the musical?
A. It tries to follow in the footsteps of the legendary historical musical – Hamilton.
B. The musical fails to provide a new perspective as a revision on Henry VIII's wives.
C. The characters can’t portray the pop stars they are modelled after.
D. The cast of Six the musical all consists of female performers.
Question 48: The word “static” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stable B. steady C. unvarying D. orderly
Question 49: The author’s criticism about the musical is based on the rationale that
__________.
A. a rendition of history should not stray too far from the original version.
B. historical stories should not be told with adulterous humor and sass.
C. a musical should combine acting, dancing, singing and set design together.
D. in Broadway, women’s stories don’t count unless they are about suffering.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is mentioned about Six the musical?
A. Six the musical is nothing more than a concept album.
B. Six the musical’s songs belong on the Billboard Hot 100.
C. Six the musical is a celebration of 16th-century girl power.
D. Six the musical has a witty, clever, and powerful dialogue.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
20 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial
disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or
marbles __________ mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their
teachers will become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious
jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained
to deal with difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take
place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware
of what their tour guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________
another job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided
to quit her new job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter
Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of
food poisoning in the countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University
because it has a high reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are
arranged to __________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the
__________ of running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the
__________ because of the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
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Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the
hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the
inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local
store, so you can buy them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was
deemed too sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken
into the art gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time
management skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor
weather conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for
the construction
A B C D
of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that
you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert for two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
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Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my
mother to me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be
punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be
punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities.
A. The school ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have
sympathy for me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for
me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for
me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s
burgeoning population, Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a
deterioration in environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural
production starting in the 1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the
1960s through the 1900s, yields of rice and wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the
continent’s population increased by 60 per cent, grain prices fell, the average Asian
consumed nearly a third more calories, and the poverty rate was cut in half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green
revolution. There are two competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is high-
tech, with a heavy emphasis on continuing work of breeding better crops, but with modern
genetic techniques. Scientists can now identify and manipulate a huge variety of plant genes,
for traits like disease (38) __________ and drought tolerance. That is going to make farming
more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus
has intermittently closed classrooms and campuses over the past year. But despite the
disruption, the widespread shift to online learning has given learners and education providers
a glimpse of the future.
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For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology
training provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a
professor of business education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of
the pandemic. For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest
accomplishment was being able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students
to sit hundreds of exams under supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to
graduate. “Inevitably, after the pandemic, some of this will move back offline,” he predicts,
“but I think we will see a much more significant role for online teaching, online assessment,
online socializing and online libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA,
says Paul. “For learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused,
you're going to pay attention and not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a
question at any time,” he says. “You can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn
from each other and the subject matter can be tailored to your understanding.” Paul believes,
“If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still important that you can have a cup of coffee
with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in class. But I don’t think things will
return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually
Question 41: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?
A. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic?
A. Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these
founded on long-held myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly
interconnected and interdependent world, proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that
gives you the opportunity to engage with the world in a more immediate and meaningful
way—whether in your neighborhood or thousands of miles away—while better preparing you
to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect
with others. Being able to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible
gift. Bilinguals have the unique opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in
their personal and professional lives. Knowing the language makes you a local no matter
where you are, opening up your world literally and figuratively. You will be shaped by
communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of strangers. You will build lifelong
friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of learning languages for
many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your
monolingual peers. They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no
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matter your sector or skill level—and the demand for bilingual professionals is rising
exponentially. In fact, between 2010 and 2015, the number of U.S. job postings
specifically geared toward bilingual candidates more than doubled. Employers are seeking
professionals who can communicate seamlessly with customers in new and expanding
overseas markets, as well as serve and sell to a large foreign-born population here at home.
With more than 60 million U.S. residents who speak a language other than English at home,
you don’t need to get on a plane to put your language skills to work. As an added incentive,
in many instances, language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased salaries.
Whatever your career aspiration—with language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the
crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another
language, EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want
to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international
customers in their nation and abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means
_______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the
tallest
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
21 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Question 2: A. begged B. canned C. booked D. buttoned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. erode B. involve C. reduce D. product
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Question 4: A. discussion B. assistant C. character D. expensive


Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: There is no use persuading her to join us because her parents_______ her to
return home after the last game _________ over.
A. had told/was B. have told/is C. told/had been D. tell/has been
Question 6: If anyone ________, tell them I'm not at home.
A. call B. calls C. called D. should call
Question 7: All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability.
A. searched B. vetted C. investigated D. scrutinized
Question 8: They knew that it was just not feasible ______ such a small firm to compete
with the big boys.
A. in B. at C. for D. about
Question 9: If we lose the case we may be _______________ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 10: _________ is someone who can reduce spending without hurting morale.
A. What is needed B. What needs C. Being needed D. That needs
Question 11: We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but
it _____ the whole time we were there.
A. poured with rain B. rained dogs and cats
C. dropped in the bucket D. made hay while the sun shined
Question 12: She made as if ____________ but then stopped.
A. to speak B. speaking C. spoken D. speak
Question 13: ____________ the ability to delay normal cognitive decline as we age, there
are significant social benefits to lifelong learning.
A. Aside from B. In addition C. Moreover D. Furthermore
Question 14: _________ massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up
recovery from medical problems.
A. a B. the C. 0 D. some
Question 15. Since the situation was so bad, she should _________ care of much earlier.
A. have taken B. have been taken C. be taken D. take
Question 16: The committee is _______ of well-known mountaineers.
A. contained B. comprised C. included D. consisted
Question 17: It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the __________ staff
every 6 months to clean up the air conditioners.
A. maintaining B. maintain C. maintainable D. maintenance
Question 18: He made all sorts of beautiful plans for his tour without taking into
consideration the possibility ________ an entry visa.
A. of refusing B. of being refused C. of refusal of D. to be refused
Question 19: You have never had any liking for cats, ________ ?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: While Tom Spinkler was travelling along Wagon Wheel Road in Big Cypress
Swamp in South Florida, he came across a young snake.
A. run up B. run down C. run into D. run out
Question 21: The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment
with scanty resources.
A. ordinary B. limited C. abundant D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Question 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It is natural for young people to be critical of their parents at times and to blame them
for most of the (24) __________ between them. They have always complained, more or less
justly, that their parents are old-fashioned, possessive and dominant; that they do not trust
their children to deal with obstacles; (25) ___________ they talk too much about certain
problems and that they have no sense of humor, at least in parent-child relationships. I think it
is true that parents often (26) _________ their teenage children and also forget how they
themselves felt when young.
Young people often irritate their parents with their choices in clothes and hairstyles, in
entertainers and music. This is not their motive. They feel cut off from the adult world into
which they have not yet been accepted. (27)_________they create a culture and society of
their own. Then, if it turns out that their music or entertainers or vocabulary or clothes or
hairstyles irritate their parents, this gives them additional enjoyment. They feel they are
superior, at least in a small way, and that they are leaders in style and taste.
If you plan to control your life, co-operation can be part of that plan. You can charm
others, especially parents, into doing things the ways you want. You can impress others with
your sense of responsibility and (28) _________, so that they will give you the authority to
do what you want to do.
(Source: https://www.woyaosouti.com/topic/107813763)
Question 24: A. misunderstandings B. debates C. conflict D. understanding
Question 25: A. that B. which C. who D. why
Question 26: A. overestimate B. underestimate C. impose D. dominate
Question 27: A. However B. Besides C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 28: A. initiation B. initiate C. initiative D. initial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: It was reported that a policeman was badly injured in the explosion.
A B C D
Question 30: The Principal demanded that the heaters repair immediately. Winter is coming!
A B C D
Question 31: The accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
So far, COVID-19 has caused the deaths of more than 3 million people worldwide, and
that number could be significantly higher given how challenging it is to track every COVID-
19 death. Despite this, it would make sense to assume that the natural world, at least, is
getting a bit of a break. A world in which humans are traveling far less should offer major
environmental benefits. But is wildlife really benefitting from the pandemic?
One major and predominately positive benefit of the pandemic for wildlife is less human
travel. Due to the significant reduction in journeys, fewer people are hitting and injuring or
killing wildlife on roadways. In addition, fewer ships are traveling through the world’s
waterways and oceans for shipping, fishing, aquaculture, and tourism purposes. A reduction
in water travel and activity could reduce the risk of ships striking and injuring or killing
marine animals. It may also reduce the marine disruption that occurs due to noise pollution
from ships, fishing sonar, and recreational boats. Birds might also be benefitting from the
sharp decline in air travel, which may have vastly reduced the risk of bird strikes. People are
also reporting seeing wildlife in unexpected places, such as in large cities and commercial
harbors. The increased number of animals in urban environments is likely due to reductions
in human presence, air and water pollution levels, and noise pollution.
However, some studies have also found that the pandemic may actually be causing harm
to wildlife. In one study, researchers found that reduced human disturbance relating to
lockdown has benefitted invasive alien species by interrupting the actions that people were
taking to control them. The authors also claim that pandemic restrictions have reduced the
work of conservation and law enforcement organizations that care for wildlife and protected
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areas. Some experts also worry that economic hardship in low income countries may lead to
an increase in natural resource exploitation, such as unlicensed logging and the illegal
wildlife market, as people run out of ways to earn a living.
(Adapted from https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The Advantages of COVID – 19 for Natural Environment
B. The Influence of COVID – 19 on Economics and on Wildlife: Which is Greater?
C. The Potential Impact of the COVID – 19 Pandemic on Wildlife
D. COVID – 19: Good or Bad?
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as the benefits of COVID –
19 for the wildlife?
A. Fewer terrestrial and marine animals are damaged by people’s transport.
B. The number of birds increases because fewer people travel by plane.
C. There are more animals in urban places owing to the cleaner natural environment.
D. Marine disruption relating to noise pollution happens more frequently.
Question 34: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. people B. invasive alien species
C. researchers D. studies
Question 35: The word “hardship” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. difficulty B. challenge C. recovery D. cooperation
Question 36: The author stated in the passage that pandemic restrictions __________.
A. limited conservationists from preserving the wildlife and their habitat.
B. increased deforestation and overexploitation.
C. resulted in the disappearance of invasive alien species.
D. caused the reduction in animals’ presence in urban environments.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their
jobs due to the economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever
seen people who have just endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost,
and this is easy to understand. But other people focus on what they did not lose, and they start
thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or
other people. The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations.
Sometimes a situation may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can
influence our own moods by the way you think about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a
devastating storm. One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold
dear has been destroyed. They cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things
and start over again. Their normal life seems to have been completely lost. In contrast, a
second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their families are unharmed and safe.
This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to figure
out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing a very
normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be
better off. They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful
at the time. This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets
through life without having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the
steps you can take to remedy the situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this,
you will be laying the foundation for a better tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain
today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help
you through many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you
are more likely to fix it if you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to

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seek help when you need it. The advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional
may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every
problem, it can certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 37: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.
B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.
C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful.
D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists.
Question 38: The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage
Question 39: What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. all of the people
C. the first family D. the second family
Question 40: It can be inferred from the third paragraph that ______________.
A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.
B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems
are.
C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists.
D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations.
Question 41: The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _____________.
A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. Paying attention to the solutions to the setback is better than focusing on the damage
it causes.
D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations
today.
Question 43: According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have
troubles?
A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary.
C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: He should have listened to your advice.
A. It was essential that he listen to your advice but he didn't.
B. It was likely that he could have listened to your advice.
C. I was guess he might have taken your advice.
D. He needn’t have listened to your advice.
Question 45: Tom said: "I have already had breakfast, so I am not hungry."
A. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
B. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
C. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
D. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
Question 46: As John became more successful, he had less time for his family.
A. The less time John had for his family, the more successful he became.
B. The more successful John became, the less time he had for his family.
C. More and more successful John achieved caused him to have less time for his family.
D. The more successful John achieved, the less time he had for his family.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: Two classmates are talking to each other.
– Student 1: "How can volunteers benefit from their work?"
– Student 2: “__________________.”
A. They earn a lot of money. B. They can live better than others.
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C. They feel happy themselves. D. They don't have any worries.


Question 48: Ryan finds a new job in New York and is about to move there. He doesn't want
his friendship with Adriana to drift apart.
- Adriana: “Don't forget to drop me a line when you settle down."
- Ryan: “________________.”
A. Oh, that's great! But I'm going to miss you. B. I look forward to hearing from
you soon.
C. Trust me. I won't. I'll keep you posted. D. All right! Good luck!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We live in a world. Immediate and easy access to information is a standard
expectation there.
A. Immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is a standard
expectation.
B. Immediate and easy access to information is expected to be standardized in the world
we live in.
C. People living in this world expect that immediate and easy access to information is a
standard.
D. It is expected that immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is
a standard.
Question 50: Urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen. Therefore,
our cities have to adapt.
A. Our cities have to adapt if urban population grows and the effects of climate change
worsen.
B. As the urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen, our cities
have to adapt.
C. Our cities are always adaptive to urban population growth and the effects of climate
change.
D. Urban population growth and effects of climate changes are worsening, which make
our cities more adaptive.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
22 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. arranged B. aged C. changed D. managed
Question 2: A. elongated B. integrate C. economy D. reliable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. volunteer B. theory C. physical D. principle
Question 4: A. burden B. childcare C. wisely D. esteem
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Thanks to lifelong learning, people's level of awareness ____________
significantly.
A. has improved B. have improved
C. has been improving D. have been improved
Question 6: A generation gap or generational gap, is a difference __________ opinions
between one generation and another regarding beliefs, politics, or values.
A. in B. between C. of D. among
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Question 7: A new TV show has sparked ________ by showing the positive side of dropping
out of college.
A. controversy B. argument C. contention D. debate
Question 8: Singapore is a __________ example of a smart city, and is constantly evolving
its "city brain, "a backbone of technologies is used to help control pollution, monitor traffic,
allocate parking, communicate with citizens.
A. lead B. leading C. led D. leader
Question 9: Despite the tough _______ in the sector, our little store managed to break
_________ its first year in operation.
A. contest/level B. competition/equal
C. competition/even D. opposition/equal
Question 10: Under this high-pressure and competitive environment, it is ____ a balanced
lifestyle.
A. difficult for people to achieve B. difficult to achieve for people
C. for people to achieve difficult D. for difficult people to achieve
Question 11: This ticket ____ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B. grants C. entitles D. credits
Question 12: __________ as it was at such a time, his work attracted much attention.
A. Being published B. Published C. Publishing D. To be published
Question 13: It can be argued that the future of human life on the planet rests on __________
smooth transition to cities that are more efficient and less wasteful.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 14: I wish you __________ throw rubbish out of the car window.
A. won't B. wouldn't C. didn't D. couldn't
Question 15: Sarah’s friends all had brothers and sisters but she was a (n) _____ child.
A. singular B. individual C. single D. only
Question 16: The greatest happiness of life is the conviction that we are loved; loved for
ourselves, or rather, loved __________ of ourselves.
A. regardless B. in spite C. in case D. instead
Question 17: Being independent is a mixture of many things from teaching yourself new
things to __________ on an adventure all on your own.
A. to embark B. embark C. embarking D. embarked
Question 18: Ian has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared
for him.
A. lending B. taking C. putting D. heading
Question 19: __________ for about 4 weeks, we now can perform most of the tasks
confidently.
A. Being trained B. Training
C. Having train D. Having been trained
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: That was so serious a matter that I had no choice but to call in the police.
A. ask the police to come and help B. phone to say where we are
C. ask the police to come to a particular place D. order the police by phone
Question 21: An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.
A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: My father was as poor as a church mouse growing up, so his sole focus was
to give his kids every opportunity in life that he missed out on.
A. looked like a million dollars B. was born with a silver spoon in his mouth
C. was short of cash D. was very poor
Question 23: Social media which prove to be an efficient means of communication have
helped narrow the gap between faraway people.
A. inadequate B. ineffective C. incapable D. impotent

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The first thing that is included in the "living together” (24) ______ is the expected
good relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. Lots of
people think that everyone should share the housework (25) ________, but in many homes
parents do most of it. To certain minds, many families can't share the housework whereas
they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework equally is not very possible because of the
families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and parents must do things
together. For this they can establish a housework planning.
(26)_________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more
responsible. He will think that he has an important role in his family. According to
researchers, teenagers should share the housework because (27) ______ will help them when
they have to establish their own family in the future. Too many teenagers and young adults
leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate basic housework to
teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework in
their new grown-up life.
It can be (28) ________ concluded that many parents don't really prepare their
children for future, because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents
get them responsible, teens will be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)
Question 24: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 25: A. equal B. equalize C. equality D. equally
Question 26: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 27: A. which B. what C. that D. who
Question 28: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: Everything that parents do will be very likely to transfer to their
children through the learning process. A B C D
Question 30: It was the shop near my school that I bought these shirts and accessories.
A B C D
Question 31: It is said that these good life skills will make young
people become more confidential.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Exactly 50 years ago, humanity stepped foot on the surface of the Moon for the first
time. It was a miracle, and one made so powerful because it was so very unlikely. It was
hailed as an incredible success. But the chance of failure was such that authorities had to
prepare for the possibility of losing the astronauts. Those preparations offer a humbling
insight into how risky that mission was, and how high the stakes were. Probably the most
potent document from those preparations is the speech that would have been used to hail the
bravery of the astronauts as they were left to their death on the Moon.
It was written to announce to the world that the astronauts had been lost, and that the
Moon mission was a failure. After it was read, the two astronauts would be given a ceremony
something like the burial at sea, but one entirely without precedent. The document was
hidden for many years – unused, it was "quietly tucked away into the record" after the
astronauts returned home, as the National Archive that now holds it notes. But over time it
became public, after being revealed by the man who wrote it, and is now available for the
public to read.
It was prepared in the case that the astronauts and their moon lander failed to get back
to the main craft that was floating around in the Moon's orbit ready to bring them home, and
contained Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin's colleague Michael Collins. In that case, it was
most likely that those pioneering explorers would not lose their lives in a single spectacular
moment. Instead, they would most likely be stranded, stuck 250,000 miles from Earth with
no way of getting back home. "If they couldn't get back safely, they'd have to be abandoned
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on the moon, left to die there," speechwriter William Safire said in 1999. "The men would
either have to starve to death or commit suicide."
In the end, and despite some very anxious moments, the crew would explore the lunar
surface and come back down safely. That meant that, instead of announcing their loss, Nixon
could instead share in the astronaut's success. In one of the most famous moments of the
mission, he spoke to them in a phone call that was beamed around the world. He recognised
the triumph of their achievement, and wished them safety for their return.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The successful landing on the Moon surface.
B. The anxiety for losing the astronauts on the flight to the Moon.
C. The preparations for an incredible success of the astronauts.
D. The speech prepared for the Moon landing failure.
Question 33: The phrase “tucked away” in paragraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. stored B. discarded C. removed D. opened
Question 34: What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
B. Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
C. Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin
D. Neil Armstrong and Michael Collins
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The writer of the speech made it possible for the public.
B. There was an astronaut on the main craft when the others landed on the Moon.
C. If the astronauts had failed to get back to the main craft, they would have died of hunger
or suicide.
D. The burial ceremony intended to give the astronauts has ever been celebrated some
times before.
Question 36: What did Nixon do after the crew landed safely?
A. He expressed his anxiety and wished them to return safely.
B. He made a call and appreciated their success.
C. He made a speech to share the achievement with other countries in the world.
D. He congratulated them and hailed their bravery.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of
Svalbard, with scientists blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses
were found on the Arctic islands this summer by researchers from the Norwegian Polar
Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once in 40 years of
monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project
leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how
climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be
warming quicker than any other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this
year. The milder temperatures in the region led to unusually heavy rainfall in December,
leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This meant the reindeer could not
dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures,
the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food
is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach problems.
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the
youngest and weakest are often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is
natural because there were so many calves last year. But the large number we see now is due
to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard
reindeer earlier this year. Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted
plant species, currently kept in check by the animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic
ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
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Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two
decades, a report by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year.
The report said food security was partly to blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer
summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases spread by flies and parasites.
The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7oC since 1900, more than three
times the global average increase of about 1oC. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s
“Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was
flooded following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 37: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 38: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 39: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 40: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 41: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer
C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs?
A. After over 2 months of investigation, reindeer populations were reported to decrease
because of the increase of unwanted plant species.
B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades.
C. Besides the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality.
D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7oC since 1990.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that ______________ .
A. Arctic reindeer play the most important role in the Arctic ecosystems.
B. the Arctic ecosystems are altering worse because of the global warming.
C. the clearest effect of climate change is the limit of the food chain in nature.
D. the harsh weather in Arctic islands only damages the newborn calves.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 45: “Sometimes, I think I'm overly independent. I hate asking for help." She said.
A. She said sometimes she thought she was overly independent as she hated asking for
help.
B. Sometimes, she said she hated asking for help to be thought of as being overly
independent.
C. She said sometimes, she was thought to be overly independent as she hated asking for
help.
D. Sometimes, as she said, she hated being asked for help and thought she was overly
independent.
Question 46: Elephants have the same importance now as they did in the past.
A. Elephants now are the most important. B. Elephants have never been so
important.
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C. Elephants are as important as ever. D. Elephants are as important as they will.


Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: Two parents are talking with each other about their teenage daughter:
- The husband: “________________.”
- The wife: "Though she was told not to, she spent all the money."
A. Are you going out with her? B. Have you read her school report?
C. Why are you so angry? D. Thanks god, she's doing very well at school.
Question 48: Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for:
- Manager: “____________.”
- Claudia: “I work hard and I enjoy working with other people.”
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this
position?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Could you reply this e-mail? Please confirm your attendance at the meeting!
A. I wonder whether you have the ability to confirm your attendance at the meeting.
B. If I were you I would reply this e-mail to confirm my attendance at the meeting.
C. Do you mind replying this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting?
D. You'd better reply this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting soon.
Question 50: Sunbathing is still a popular activity. People do it even though they know it can
cause cancer.
A. No matter what people know that sunbathing can cause cancer, it is still a popular
activity.
B. Because sunbathing is still a popular activity, it can cause cancer.
C. Sunbathing is still a popular activity as long as it can cause cancer.
D. Unless it can cause cancer, sunbathing is still a popular activity.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
23 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. graduate B. mandatory C. explode D. persuade
Question 2: A. chooses B. clothes C. encourages D. boxes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. abundant B. admission C. demolish D. dynasty
Question 4: A. abroad B. dweller C. degree D. intact
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: With 1960 islands in different sizes and an unbelievable smooth sea surface, Ha
Long Bay __________ its name to one of the worthiest places in the world to visit.
A. writes B. wrote C. will write D. has written
Question 6: Lifelong learning can also help _______ some of the weaknesses of the
education system.
A. amend B. repair C. mend D. adjust
Question 7: Teachers’ _________ would rise an average of $1000 under the proposal.
A. pensions B. salaries C. wages D. incomes
Question 8: She drinks a lot less now, to ____________ benefit of her health as a whole.
A. a B. an C. 0 D. the
Question 9: _______ the institution type, in the United States, students typically earn credits
for courses they take and these credits count towards the completion of a program.
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A. According to B. In regard to C. Thanks to D. Regardless of


Question 10: Electronic devices are becoming ________ common in educational
environment.
A. increase B. increasing C. increasingly D. increased
Question 11: I hope you _______ the point of everything your mother and I do for you.
A. annoy B. have C. see D. take
Question 12: Those in ____ of banning laptops in classrooms like to demonstrate how
handwritten notes lead to better learning compared to notes taken on a computer.
A. search B. need C. view D. favor
Question 13: Teachers can tell their students to use mobile apps like "PIAZZA” to access
course materials and also to post questions about specific subjects, all _______ can be done
in the classroom or outside the classroom.
A. this B. what C. which D. how
Question 14: The Heritage Education for Sustainable Development project aims ____
strengthening the linkage between culture and education for sustainable development.
A. to B. for C. at D. by
Question 15: ____________, the bird may abandon the nest, leaving the chicks to die.
A. If the birds are disturbed B. If disturbed
C. If you disturbed the bird D. Should the birds be disturbed
Question 16: Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve
through hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. certification C. license D. degree
Question 17: __________ with the internet, which is a system of linked computer networks,
the worldwide web was invented by British computer scientist Tim Berners-Lee.
A. Not to confuse B. Not to be confused
C. To be not confused D. Confused not to be
Question 18: It's time for us __________ in efficiency and renewable energy, rebuild our
cities, towns, municipalities and states.
A. to invest B. invest C. investing D. invested
Question 19: People think he will not win the competition, __________?
A. do they B. will he C. don’t they D. won’t he
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Western cultures are often more informal, where business leaders often refer to
each other by first names. In countries like Japan, this is frowned upon as it indicates
disrespect.
A. hated by B. disapproved of C. agreed on D. kept away from
Question 21: Notwithstanding some members' objections, I think we must go ahead with
the plan.
A. Similarly B. Despite C. Along with D. Otherwise
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: For eliminating pollution, one can switch to alternative and renewable energy
sources like bio fuels instead of depending on non-renewable fossil fuels that only help in
polluting our planet.
A. change for the better B. substitute for the unavailable
C. make no change at all D. find a replacement for
Question 23: Scientists believe that it is possible for waves to reach the heights described
when they come into contact with strong ocean currents.
A. touch B. enter C. meet D. avoid
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The "greenhouse effect" is the warming that happens when certain gases in Earth's
atmosphere (24) ________ heat. These gases let in light but keep heat from escaping, like the
glass walls of a greenhouse. First, sunlight shines onto the Earth's surface, (25) ______ it is
absorbed and then radiates back into the atmosphere as heat. In the atmosphere, “greenhouse
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gases trap some of this heat, and the (26) ________ escapes into space. The more greenhouse
gases are in the atmosphere, the more heat gets trapped.
Scientists have known about the greenhouse effect since 1824, when Joseph Fourier
calculated that the Earth would be much colder if it had no atmosphere. This greenhouse
effect is what keeps the Earth's climate (27) _________. Without it, the Earth's surface would
be an average of about 60 degrees Fahrenheit cooler. Scientists often use the term "climate
change" instead of global warming. This is because as the Earth's average temperature
climbs, winds and ocean currents move heat around the globe in ways that can cool some
areas, warm others, and change the amount of rain and snow falling. (28)_________, the
climate changes differently in different areas.
(Source: https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent)
Question 24: A. seize B. capture C. trap D. grasp
Question 25: A. which B. where C. that D. what
Question 26: A. rest B. other C. latter D. remain
Question 27: A. lively B. alive C. livable D. living
Question 28: A. However B. In addition C. On the contrary D. As a result
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: At the moment, students in England, Wales and Northern Ireland are
required to pay for
A B
both their tuition fees and life expenses.
C D
Question 30: If you look at the environment around us, you can see that there is a number of
issues
A B C
that come to our attention.
D
Question 31. If you care about protecting nature and having a positive impact,
you should make sure
A B C
that your travels have done sustainably.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Many of us worry about the effects of television on family life. We think that we
spend too much time watching television and that it takes us away from more important
activities, such as reading, exercising and talking to family and friends. But is this really true?
Studies have shown that people in the United States do spend a lot of time in front of
their television sets. About 98% of American homes have at least one TV set, and in the
average home the TV is on more than six hours a day. But how much attention do people
actually pay to the programs? And do people who watch TV really spend less time on other
free-time activities? Recently some researchers in New York City tried to find the answers to
these questions by conducting a telephone survey. They phoned more than a thousand people
all over the United States and asked them questions about how they spend their free time.
No one was surprised to find out that watching TV is the most popular free-time
activity in the United States. More than 70% of those asked said that they watch TV every
day or almost every day. The second most popular activity that they mentioned was reading
the newspaper. Listening to music at home was third, talking on the phone to friends and
relatives was fourth and doing some form of exercise was fifth.
But the researchers discovered an interesting fact about Americans' TV habits.
According to this survey, although most people turn the TV on every day, they do not
actually watch it very much. Six out of ten people said that when the TV is on, they seldom
pay attention to it. During a typical television program, they may eat dinner, do housework,
read a newspaper or magazine, talk to their children or even read to them. The TV may be on,
but it is just background music.
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The researchers therefore concluded that television does not take Americans away
from more important activities. It doesn't keep them from doing other free-time activities. In
fact, when they compared people who frequently watch TV and those who seldom watch TV,
they found that there were no great differences in their other activities. The frequent watchers
read to their children and talk to their families just as much as the others.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah
Feingold)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Do people prefer watching TV to other free-time activities?
B. The TV is on but who’s watching?
C. Is TV always bad?
D. What are people’s TV habits?
Question 33: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT ____________.
A. Almost all American households own one or more TV sets.
B. Reading newspapers ranks second in popularity, just after watching TV.
C. American people have their TV on for more than a quarter of a day.
D. About a third of those asked spent more time on other free-time activities.
Question 34: The word “conducting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
____________.
A. organizing B. preparing C. asking D. reviewing
Question 35: What did the researchers find about Americans’ TV habits in their survey?
A. TV distracts most people from doing other activities.
B. People who seldom watch TV spend more time on children than frequent watchers.
C. 60% of frequent watchers often do others things while the TV is on.
D. Infrequent watchers do a more variety of activities than others.
Question 36: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. free-time activities B. Americans
C. the researchers D. frequent watchers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
A generation gap in the workplace can make workers both young and old feel inferior,
as well as hamper productivity and teamwork. Differences between generations can be seen
in work ethics, habits and communication styles. Younger workers might fear not being taken
seriously by their older colleagues, while older workers might fear that their experience is not
valued but replaced by workers with knowledge of more current technology. However,
members of each generation can close the gap between them if they're willing to meet one
another halfway.
Older workers can show respect to the younger set by asking for their opinions and
recognizing their contributions to the workplace as valid, or complimenting them on a job
well done. Younger workers can show their elders respect by asking for advice on how to
manage a situation with work, based on the older worker's many years of experience. It's
important for both entry- and senior-level workers to see each other as equals, regardless of
the type of position in which they work. No one wants to feel inferior or irrelevant just
because of their age. Rather, a generation gap at work can be a learning opportunity.
Workers can also put themselves in their colleagues' shoes to determine what might
be bothering them about their generational age difference. If a person is much older than
another, perhaps it is bitterness about fewer job opportunities, or fear that a younger worker
might seem more relevant and edge him out of his job. If workers open their minds to
understand where co-workers are coming from, it can help ease any tension between them
and appreciate each other's work contributions.
If age seems to be a problem for someone at the workplace, it can be helpful to do the
very opposite of what a co-worker might expect from someone of a different age set due
to stereotypes. For example, if a worker is considerably younger such as right out of college,
she can share researched information to indicate that she knows what she's doing, or show
curiosity instead of upset to indicate emotional maturity if the person makes a disparaging

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remark about her youth. Older workers can maintain an enthusiastic attitude about work
instead of showing boredom or bitterness from past experiences.
Workers can, moreover, directly address the concern of age differences at work with
the colleague at odds with them by asking the person for constructive advice on how to
handle the issue. For example, older workers who are unfamiliar with new software that
younger colleagues understand might acknowledge to them that they did the same tasks
differently in years past but show interest in learning the program to keep up with modern
technology. Learning to speak their technological language can make them feel more
connected. Likewise, a younger worker can admit to being green on the work scene, but eager
to gain experience by learning from senior colleagues.
(Source: http://work.chron.com/)
Question 37: What is the purpose of writer in the passage?
A. To describe the status of generation gap in the workplace.
B. To suggest the solutions to bridge the generation gap between the older and younger
workers.
C. To determine which generation will have more influence on the workforce.
D. To show the differences between the older and younger at their work.
Question 38: Each generation should respect the other generation at work to
_____________.
A. affirm their ability or personal experience they contribute to work.
B. express the recognition of the other’s position in the workplace.
C. make the other feel that they are necessary or useful in the workplace.
D. treat the other equally at work.
Question 39: What does the writer mean by stating “put themselves in their colleagues'
shoes” in paragraph 3?
A. Workers should try on their colleagues’ shoes to master the difference of their
generation.
B. Workers should buy their colleagues’ shoes not to bother them about generational age
differences.
C. Workers should determine the differences between their generational ages so that
they can understand their colleagues’ situations.
D. Workers should imagine that they are in their colleagues’ situation to understand and
sympathy the difficulties they meet.
Question 40: The word “him” in paragraph 3 refers to ____________.
A. an older worker B. a younger worker C. a colleague D. a person
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word “stereotypes” in paragraph 4?
A. achievements B. failures C. prejudices D. jealousness
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are measures to overcome the
generation gap, EXCEPT _____________.
A. Keeping an open mind B. Doing the opposite
C. Requesting feedback D. Appreciating the opportunity
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that _______________.
A. The younger and older workers should meet one another on the way to reduce the
generation gap in the workplace.
B. The main principle to bridge the generation gap is to balance the experience and
technology.
C. Positive attitude will help to decrease the conflicts between the older and younger.
D. The competitive environment in the workplace might make the generation gap wider.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: Ecotourism can support conservation and environmental management if
properly carried out.
A. As ecotourism is properly carried out, it can support conservation and environmental
management.
B. In order for ecotourism to support conservation and environment management, it is
properly carried out.
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C. Only when properly carried out can ecotourism support conservation and
environmental management.
D. Supporting conservation and environmental management, ecotourism is properly
carried out.
Question 45: "Which cities have the worst waste problem?" the student asked the teacher.
A. The student asked the teacher for which cities had the worst waste problem.
B. The student asked the teacher to tell him which cities had the worst waste problem.
C. The student asked the teacher which cities had the worst waste problem.
D. The student asked the teacher which cities had had the worst waste problem.
Question 46: My brother quickly adapted to his new job at the bank.
A. My brother was used to adapting to new jobs at the bank quickly.
B. My brother's new job at the bank was easy for him to adapt to.
C. My brother quickly got used to his new job at the bank.
D. My brother was able to do his new job at the bank easily.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: – "What are the major tourist attractions in your city?"
– “______________.”
A. Half of the city has been rebuilt.
B. The more you know about my city, the more you like it.
C. We have a lot of historic buildings and ruins.
D. You should go on a city tour by bus.
Question 48: A: “Can you concentrate on other things when you are listening to music?”
B: “_____________________________.”
A. I prefer to work in a quite area.
B. I'm keen on listening to dance music.
C. I often share my favorite albums with friends.
D. I don't think music can help with this.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities. Among them are coaching
children and youth.
A. Coaching children and youth are the most common activities included in a wide
range of volunteer working activities.
B. Coaching children and youth are included in a wide range of activities of volunteer
work.
C. Including a wide range of activities, volunteer work involves coaching children and
youth.
D. Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities, among which are coaching children
and youth.
Question 50: The company director decided to raise the workers' wages. He did not want them
to leave.
A. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages, so they did not leave.
B. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages though he wanted them to
leave.
C. The workers did not want to leave since the company director decided to raise their
wages.
D. Not wanting the workers to leave, the company director decided to raise their wages.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
24 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. report B. perform C. according D. word
Question 2: A. eliminated B. forced C. worked D. missed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. dismiss B. destroy C. discount D. district
Question 4: A. remember B. memorize C. dedicate D. clarify
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Why should we wait any longer? We’ve been told to act once we ______ the
governor’s permission.
A. received B. will have received
C. have received D. will receive
Question 6: Don’t forget to ring me up if _________ any changes in the timetable.
A. they are B. it will be C. there will be D. there are
Question 7: Of 30 countries inspected for airline safety, only 17 received a _________bill of
health.
A. clear B. clean C. pure D. dirty
Question 8: Solar power is _________ to become the world's largest source of electricity by
2050.
A. estimated B. antedated C. anticipated D. awaited
Question 9: The contract includes a 35-cent per hour increase in night shift ____________
pay.
A. difference B. different C. differential D. differentiate
Question 10: Tom is always blowing his trumpet that he is a qualified electrician, but the
truth is quite _______.
A. or else B. instead C. though D. otherwise
Question 11: Be present _______ the hall _______ time and then I will present you
______him.
A. with/on/to B. at/in/to C. to/on/with D. at/on/with
Question 12: To solve the problems of pollution, it is important to identify the __________
of it.
A. reasons B. purpose C. causes D. facts
Question 13: The company was strongly criticized for _______ large amounts of waste into
the river.
A. dumping B. having dumped C. being dumped D. having been dumped
Question 14: The judge declared he was immune ____________ prosecution.
A. to B. from C. about D. at
Question 15: Most young people want to ____ an independent life without being influenced
by anyone.
A. lay B. put C. lead D. bring
Question 16: _________ to withdraw from the tournament surprised us all.
A. What the champion decided B. That the champion decided
C. The champion decided D. That the champion's decision
Question 17: __________ car is responsible for causing a lot of damage to our environment.
A. A B. An C. The D. 0
Question 18: _____ a cry whenever you have a feeling that you are in danger so that
everyone could hear you and come to help immediately.
A. Send B. Give C. Make D. Lend
Question 19. We are happy today because today is a __________ day.
A. memorable training long B. long memorable training
C. memorable long training D. training memorable long
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 20: Simon earned the respect of his friends when he determined to complete such a
challenging task while others had already given up.
A. dropped by B. dropped out C. dropped in D. dropped off
Question 21: Because of his disease, the doctor advised him to abstain from alcohol and
meat. However, he seems not to follow this advice.
A. continue B. desist C. increase D. undermine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When I was young and idealistic I believed it was possible to change the
world.
A. applicable B. energetic C. practical D. thoughtless
Question 23: There is a (n) world of difference between love and marriage. While love
belongs to emotion, marriage means a lot of bonds and responsibilities.
A. striking similarity B. sharp contrast
C. general equivalence D. clear distinction
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling people about global warming and
its causes, most people have (24) _______to realize how severe the problem is. Coming
climate changes could alter as much as one third of plant and animal habitats by the end of
the 22nd century. These changes could in (25) ____ cause widespread extinctions among
plant and animal species around the globe.
Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger (26) _______ they face
the combined threats of warming oceans and rising sea levels. As habitats change, many
animals will come under intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass
(27) ____ of at least some animals are certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that
many animals will simply not be able to move fast enough.
Such dire predictions may sound alarmist, but they are based on the rather moderate
estimate that the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will double by 2100. Many
scientists believe, however, that this figure is actually very conservative, and they claim that a
tripling is far more realistic. If they are (28) ____, the effects on nature will be even more
dramatic.
(Source: https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2017/climate)
Question 24: A. hence B. yet C. however D. therefore
Question 25: A. turn B. order C. result D. line
Question 26: A. although B. providing C. since D. therefore
Question 27: A. migrations B. onslaught C. emigration D. extinctions
Question 28: A. precise B. true C. exact D. correct
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: As emissions increase, it trap more heat in the atmosphere, leading to a period
of
A B C
unprecedented warming.
D
Question 30: Thanks to artificial intelligence, the phone's voice-
recognition system converts the sound
A B C
into numerous data.
D
Question 31: One of the most famous and respectable learners of the country is said to have
found this school. A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Long gone but not forgotten are those carefree student days of shared showers,
derelict rental properties and parties where the booze always ran out before midnight. Being a
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student was quite a privilege in the good old days when local authorities and the
government footed the bill and there was almost certainly a job at the end of it.
In the early 1960s, only 4% of school leavers went to university, rising to around 14%
by the end of the 1970s. Nowadays, more than 40% of young people start undergraduate
degrees – but it comes at a cost. Today’s students leave with debts of £40,000 and upwards to
pay back over their working lives.
So how has the student experience changed over the years? Parents looking back on
their university lives are amazed at the luxuries their sons and daughters enjoy, such as en
suite bathrooms, flatscreen TVs and leather sofas. Student accommodation has improved but
rents have soared and taken up a bigger whack of the living cost loans, leaving today’s
undergraduates little better off than their parents.
They still party and have a good time, but students are working harder and more
consistently, their parents believe. Partly, it is the move away from “big bang” finals to
continuous assessment, they say, but also the pressure to get that all-important 2:1 or above
degree classification. One-third of students were awarded firsts or 2:1s in 1970. Last year it
was over two-thirds: 70%.
Today’s students are more career-orientated and under pressure to take on
extracurricular activities, more responsibilities and work experience to compete in the
graduate jobs market. Meeting people, making friends for life and discovering new interests:
these are the things that have not changed for students who are following the same route to
independence as their parents.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 32: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences in students’ and their parents’ thoughts.
B. How universities have changed.
C. The number of undergraduate students over the years.
D. The student experience – then and now.
Question 33: The phrase “footed the bill” in the first paragraph mostly means
______________.
A. paid the cost B. lent the money
C. offered scholarships D. built the facilities
Question 34: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There are more and more high-school graduates attending universities.
B. The life of today’s undergraduates is nearly the same as their parents.
C. Today’s graduates are easier to get a job after university than their parents.
D. Modern students have to work hard after graduating to pay the loans for their studies.
Question 35: What does the word “they” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. students B. today’s undergraduates
C. parents D. friends
Question 36: The following adjectives are true about today’s students in comparison with
their parents, EXCEPT _________.
A. more career-orientated B. more privileged
C. more responsible D. more hard-working
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
If you’ve done any traveling at all, you’re likely quite aware that customs and
etiquette differ from one culture to another: what may be perfectly innocuous in one place
may be hideously offensive in another, and vice-versa. Granted, even if you haven’t traveled
at all, you’re probably aware of the fact that certain types of behavior aren’t exactly
acceptable in other countries: belching at the table may be a sign of gratitude in some places,
but in most areas of North America and Europe, such a display will earn you a fair bit of ire.
Whether you plan on traveling to any of the places listed below or just doing business with a
foreign client, it’s important to educate yourself on the standards of politesse and etiquette
beforehand—the last thing you want to do is offend someone with any ignorant, boorish
behavior. Here’s how to be polite in different countries.

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When dealing with Japanese clients, be sure to dress fairly conservatively, and make
sure that you bow lower than they do upon meeting them. Accept gifts with both hands and
open them later, not in front of the giver, and never blow your nose at the dining table. Avoid
asking and answering direct questions: it’s better to imply rather than ask, and to answer with
vagueness during conversations.
In Mexico, when meeting others, women should initiate handshakes with men, but all
people should avoid making too much eye contact; that can be seen as aggressive and
belligerent behavior. If sharing a meal with others, keep your elbows off the table and try to
avoid burping at all costs. Keep your hands off your hips, and make sure you never make the
“okay” sign with your hand: it’s vulgar.
In Kenya, when greeting someone older or of a higher status than yourself, grip their
right wrist with your left hand while shaking it; it’s a sign of respect and deference. Do ask
questions about their health, family, business etc. before getting to major topics, as skipping
these niceties is seen as impolite. If sharing meals, do not begin eating until the eldest male
has been served and starts to eat.
Turning down an alcoholic drink is considered terribly offensive in Russia, so it’s a
good idea to fortify yourself with some greasy food before heading out for a meal with
Russian or Ukrainian clients. Don’t smile at strangers or they’ll think you’re deranged, and
when paying for items, place your money on the counter rather than trying to hand it directly
to the cashier.
(Adapted from https://www.lifehack.org/)
Question 37: Which of the following could be served as the best title of the passage?
A. Behavior to be a courteous person in distinct nations.
B. Different customs you should know when travelling abroad.
C. Different meanings of the same behavior in many countries.
D. Avoiding offensive behavior in different countries.
Question 38: The word “innocuous” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. wonderful B. acceptable C. impolite D. harmless
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following behavior should be avoided
when sharing meals with others?
A. Try to not burp at the table in North America and Europe.
B. Never blow your nose at a Japanese dinner.
C. Don’t keep your elbows off the table in Mexico.
D. Never eat before the eldest Kenyan man begins his meal.
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. their right wrist B. your left hand
C. a higher status D. a sign of respect and deference
Question 41: The word “fortify” in the last paragraph mostly means _____________.
A. debilitate B. enervate C. invigorate D. enfeeble
Question 42: According to the last paragraph, what behavior is often seen in Russia?
A. turning down an alcohol drink
B. smiling at strangers
C. asking direct questions
D. avoiding handing money directly to the cashier
Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Europeans are stricter than people in other countries.
B. Understanding clients’ customs is an important criterion in doing business.
C. Dinning etiquette is the most important one to know about other countries.
D. Observing and imitating behavior of the eldest is a wise choice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: You should not have come to class late.
A. I'd rather you didn't come to class late.
B. I would like you not to be late for class.
C. I'd sooner you hadn't come to class late.
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D. I would prefer that you come to class on time.


Question 45: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night.
A. You shouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
B. You left the windows open last night due to your carelessness.
C. If you hadn’t been careless, you wouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
D. You can’t have left the windows open last night because you were careless.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn’t like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
B. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn’t like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
D. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47. - Hung: "I have thought of a way to save energy around the house!"
- Teacher: "________________!"
A. Best wishes B. My dear C. Well done D. That's very well
Question 48. - A: “______________”
- B: “You have to obtain the high school diploma.”
A. What is the requirement to enter this university?
B. When do we finish high school?
C. I can't wait to obtain the high school diploma.
D. I am trying my best to win a place at university.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He was very tired. He agreed to play tennis.
A. Tired as though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
B. Tired though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
C. Tired, he agreed to play tennis.
D. So tired was he that he agreed to play tennis.
Question 50: Tina does not want to become a lawyer. She wants to become a counselor.
A. It is a lawyer, not a counselor that Tina wants to become.
B. It is Tina who wants to become a counselor not a lawyer.
C. It is Tina who wants to become a lawyer not a counselor.
D. It is a counselor, not a lawyer that Tina wants to become.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
25 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. absence B. arrive C. absorb D. apologize
Question 2: A. dogged B. crooked C. naked D. backed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. approach B. panda C. income D. current
Question 4: A. confidence B. celebrate C. effective D. handicapped
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: All of the plants now raised on farms _______ from plants that ______ wild.
A. had been developed – once were grown B. have been developed – once grew
C. have been developed – have grown D. had been developed – once grew

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Question 6: We _______ more time with our children before they left for university. We
were too busy with our jobs to think about that.
A. wish we spent B. were supposed to be spending
C. would like to have spent D. regret that we didn’t spend
Question 7: Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save _____ so she said
that she had left it willingly.
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame
Question 8: The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the
last minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment
Question 9: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the _____ of anyone walking down
the street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 10: No matter how busy I may be, I shall be there tonight come what_______.
A. may B. might C. can D. could
Question 11: Organizations may qualify for exemption from income tax if they _______
exclusively as charities.
A. operated B. operate C. had operated D. are operated
Question 12: I used to be nervous when my father asked me to give him my school
_________.
A. diploma B. certificate C. report D. background
Question 13: Simon Lake drew the inspiration __________ La submarine of undersea travel
and exploration from Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
A. at B. by C. for D. of
Question 14: Parents should start teaching them how to manage more complicated duties
__________ children graduate from toddlerhood and move toward preschool.
A. yet B. when C. and D. so
Question 15: Ecotourism is any type of tourism to relatively _______ natural areas for the
enjoyment of natural, cultural and historical features.
A. disturbed B. disturb C. undisturbed D. disturbance
Question 16: Different activities should be carried out to raise _________ awareness of our
people about ecotourism.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 17: __________ perform a function that requires water to perform that function,
you had better give that water to the body in advance of the event.
A. Any time you want to B. Unless you want to C. What you want
to D. You want to
Question 18: There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the
moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 19: The older Ms. Lucy is, __________ she becomes.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive
C. the more attractive D. more attractive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: In the 1960s, the World Health Organization (WHO) began a campaign to get
rid of the mosquitoes that transmit the disease malaria.
A. minimize B. develop C. eradicate D. appreciate
Question 21: A father will be his child's role model. He will be the example for his child of
what husbands and fathers are like.
A. someone that others admire and follow B. someone that others share interest with
C. someone that others love and live with D. someone that others are fond of with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it
comes to finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.
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A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty


Question 23: Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the
wedding before you've even been invited to it?
A. doing things in the wrong order B. do things in the right order
C. knowing the ropes D. upsetting the apple cart
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People differ (24) ____
opinions, race, nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so
much more, yet at the very basic we are all human species. Ideally, all people feel (25) ____
and joy despite the differences. Today, the changes in time and technology have made it
extremely impossible for any group of people to live without interacting with others outside
their group. Often people of different cultural and geographical (26) ____ meet in
international conferences, education exchange programs, sports, etc.
Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences
has been with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their rights (27)
_________ individual greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to lack
of understanding. Unfortunately, some of these occurrences are visible even today,
perpetuated by people who little understand the importance of the (28)__________of our
diversity.
(Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com)
Question 24: A. from B. by C. in D. with
Question 25: A. pain B. pained C. painful D. painless
Question 26: A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D. surroundings
Question 27: A. because of B. thanks to C. despite D. as a result
Question 28: A. specialty B. uniqueness C. identity D. sustainability
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: The innovators behind objects like the cellphone or the helicopter took
inspiration from
A B C
work like "Star Trek" and “War of the Worlds”.
D
Question 30: How many people know that the Brooklyn Bridge, built in 1883, were the
world's first
A B C
suspension bridge?
D
Question 31: It is said that the accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The best explainer videos are realized by great background score. When was the last
time you watched a silent movie? Never? Not for a while? A long while? Even if you
remember watching one, it would still have had a background score, or you’ve accidentally
pressed the mute button!
The importance of background music and sound effects for your explainer video,
therefore, cannot be overstated. You may not need a full blown orchestra or classy jazz tones
to create the mood, but whether going for a subtle effect, a professional demonstration or
simply trying to attract customers, music is a must. Explainer videos have the emotional
quotient working for them and music is just going to add more to make the viewers relate to
the pain points you are highlighting in your video. Imagine if your favorite video game has
no background music or sound effects to back the amazing graphics? Would you play it with
the same feel and excitement? Nah! Same is the case with your explainer videos. They need
to and should have apt sound effects to make them worth your viewer’s time.

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While the focus of explainer videos production is more on passing the desired
information and explaining technical and complex procedures easily, it doesn’t mean you’ll
be distracting your viewers with the background music. The sound effects and music is not
going to take the message away from your explainer, it’s just going to enhance it and turn it
more watchable and share-able. Even if your video doesn’t require a background score, it
must include some sound effects or else it would be not so good an experience for those who
choose to watch it.
(Source: https://www.b2w.tv/)
Question 32: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The importance of background music and sound effects.
B. The influence of silence and background music on memory.
C. Inside the booming business of background music.
D. How to choose the background music for your explainer videos?
Question 33: The word “score” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ______.
A. grove B. mark C. instrument D. music
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is the main purpose for using background
music?
A. Sound helps build and sustain relationships between films and viewers.
B. Background music can control how the audience should react to a scene.
C. Background music can influence both everyone’s mood and choices.
D. A musical atmosphere can actually motivate people to do risky things.
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. score B. video C. sound D. background
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what is the fundamental and typical use of explainer
videos?
A. It is used to distill wide-ranging and complex ideas into a viewer-friendly package.
B. Businesses use them to quickly introduce themselves and their importance.
C. It is designed as a means to stimulate both auditory and visual senses.
D. It helps the customers with their daily life problems with scientific information.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications
and business, Mandarin, Hindi, English, Spanish and Russian amongst others, are placing
small languages spoken in remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people
speak languages such as Liki, Taushiro and Dumi as their children shift away from the
language of their ancestors towards languages which promise education, success and the
chance of a better life. While to many parents, this may appear a reasonable choice, giving
their offspring the opportunity to achieve the sort of prosperity they see on television, the
children themselves often lose touch with their roots. However, in many places the more
reasonable option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a local and a national
language, is being promoted. This gives hope that many endangered languages will survive,
allowing people to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture.
While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a minority language,
national governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an economically
unproductive language, especially in times of budget constraints. It is generally accepted that
national languages unite and help to create wealth while minority regional languages divide.
Furthermore, governments have a duty to ensure that young people can fulfill their full
potential, meaning that state education must provide them with the ability to speak and work
in their national language and so equip them to participate responsibly in national affairs.
People whose language competence does not extend beyond the use of a regional tongue have
limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a sentimental attachment to
their local language, their government’s position should be one of benign neglect,
allowing people to speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance.
Many PhD students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their
language skills, with the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to
communicate with speakers of the language they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on
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the quality of their research. At the same time, they have to struggle against the frequently
expressed opinion that minority languages serve no useful purpose and should be allowed to
die a natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a unique body of
knowledge and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that
language extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are
part of an impending global catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable.
(Adapted from Complete Advanced by Guy Brook – Hart and Simon Haines)
Question 37: Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage?
A. The threat to minority languages in different parts of the world.
B. The domination of business languages all over the world.
C. The shift from regional to national languages in many countries.
D. The benefits of national languages in the modern world.
Question 38: According to the first paragraph, why do many parents consider the change
towards national languages a reasonable choice?
A. Because not many people nowadays are familiar with the language of their ancestors.
B. Because children now can learn to speak both a local and a national language.
C. Because their children may have a chance to achieve education, success and better
living condition.
D. Because their children may help to combine their links to local tradition with access
to wider world culture.
Question 39: What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. the more reasonable option
B. the place where children can use bilingualism
C. the opportunity to achieve prosperity
D. the promotion of bilingualism
Question 40: The word “constraints” in the second language is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. investments B. restrictions C. crises D. depressions
Question 41: What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many
PhD students mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. These students are unable to persuade people to use the language they are learning.
B. Their qualified research is unlikely to complete.
C. They will have many difficulties in understanding these languages.
D. They have to become interpreters and translators of these languages themselves.
Question 42: The word “facets” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
_____________.
A. aspects B. problems C. procedures D. products
Question 43: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Local languages can’t unite and create as much wealth as national languages.
B. State education is obligatory to ensure young people to speak and work in their regional
languages.
C. Lack of language skills causes a negative effect on the quality of PhD students’
research.
D. Each citizen has the right to decide whether they want to speak a minority language
or not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: "Please don't leave until I come back", Sarah said.
A. Sarah suggested not leaving until she comes back.
B. Sarah asked us to leave until she came back.
C. Sarah told us not to leave until she came back.
D. Sarah offered to leave until she came back.
Question 45: The weather has been terrible recently. I am very depressed now.
A. If the weather had not been terrible lately, I wouldn't be so depressed now.
B. If the weather hasn't been terrible recently, I won't be so depressed now.
C. If the weather hadn't been terrible recently, I wouldn't have been so depressed now.
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D. If the weather had been more terrible recently, I would be depressed now.
Question 46: I eat a lot. I cannot keep fit.
A. I eat more and more and become fitter and fitter.
B. The less I eat, the fitter I become.
C. The more I eat, the less fit I become.
D. I become fit not only because I eat a lot.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: - “I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer.”
- “_____________________.”
A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'.
B. I do, but I don't have enough time for studying.
C. That's great. You have been coming of age.
D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?
Question 48. - Phúc: “I am offered the job at Vietravel.”
- Thomas: “_______________.”
A. Good Heavens! B. Congratulations!
C. Good luck! D. Never mind, better luck next time!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We came in the room. Our boss was sitting in the front desk.
A. We came in the room, our boss was sitting in the front desk.
B. When we came in the room, our boss had been sitting in the front desk.
C. When we came in the room, in the front desk was sitting our boss.
D. Hardly had we come in the room when our boss sat in the front desk.
Question 50: Sara's classmates said that she littered on the school yard. She denied it.
A. Sara denied having littered on the school yard.
B. Sara denied her friends' littering on the school yard.
C. Having littered on the school yard, Sara's classmates denied it.
D. As Sara denied it, her classmates said that she littered on the school yard.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
26 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty
Question 2: A. booths B. months C. mouths D. paths
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. rechargeable B. continuous C. appreciate D. academic
Question 4: A. thesis B. vital C. tension D. champagne
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The late 1800s and early 1900s ____ excitement over a wide array of inventions
and developments.
A. brought B. have brought C. had brought D. would bring
Question 6: ________ the Australian gold mining company ________ more care with the
storage of cyanide, the catastrophe could have been prevented.
A. Has – taken B. Had – taken C. Would – take D. Should – take

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Question 7: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations


become more important, and as conventional tourism is forced to ____ tougher
environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Question 8: Gender __________ is not only a fundamental human right, but a necessary
foundation for a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world.
A. equity B. unity C. equality D. identity
Question 9: When children have a strong, positive relationship with their parents, they are
____ to succeed in school.
A. most likely B. more likely C. the likelier D. the more likely
Question 10: Students can only use technological devices to complete their work ____
investment on notebooks and books.
A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case
Question 11: The advantages of the new method really ____ the disadvantages.
A. outperform B. outdo C. outweigh D. outgrow
Question 12: Jimmy always takes the _____ by the horns at every chance in order to become
a famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 13: A smart city is an urban area that uses different types of electronic data
collection sensors to supply information which __________ assets and resources efficiently.
A. used to manage B. is used to managing
C. is used to manage D. is using to manage
Question 14: It is the classical Athenians who can probably lay claim __________ the
invention of commercial advertising as we know it today.
A. to B. for C. of D. with
Question 15: The storm did a lot of ______ to our village. All the crops were drastically
destroyed and many houses were washed away.
A. injury B. hardship C. harm D. damage
Question 16: My aunt gave me a(n) ______ bag on my 24th birthday.
A. expensive small brown Chanel leather B. small brown expensive leather Chanel
C. expensive small brown leather Chanel D. small expensive brown leather Chanel
Question 17: Cultural diversity expands choices, nurtures _______ variety of skills, human
values and worldviews and provides wisdom from the past to inform the future.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 18: Our bodies are supported by the skeletal system, which consists of 206 bones
______ tendons, ligaments and cartilage.
A. that connect to B. that are connected by
C. which connects to D. which is connected by
Question 19: He gave up work because of ill health, __________ ?
A. wasn’t he B. is he C. didn’t he D. does he
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A lot of adults pay lip service to the idea that it is important to listen to
teenagers' ideas, but they tend to listen and then forget.
A. empty promise B. solemn promise C. broken promise D. early promise
Question 21: Students will find all academic assignments via the class blog their teachers
create to post assignments.
A. by means of B. in terms of C. by the way D. in search of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The manager needs an assistant that he can count on to take care of problems
in his absence.
A. discredit B. disrespect C. dislike D. distrust
Question 23: If it had not been for the couch's decision to strike while the iron is hot, the
team would not have won the game so easily.
A. take advantage of an opportunity B. miss the boat
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C. face the music D. put others first


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that
Londoners use their cell phones the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let
calls be answered by voice mail (a recorded message) and then they check for messages later.
If the English do answer a call on the street, they seem to dislike talking with others around.
They tend to move away from a crowded sidewalk and seek out a place (24) ________ they
cannot be heard, such as the far side of a subway entrance or even the edge of a street. They
seem to feel that the danger of the traffic is (25) ___________ to the risk of having their
conversation be overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser has called "clustering." At a
busy time of day on the streets of London, you may find small crowds of cell phone users
grouped together, each one talking into a cell phone. Even when it is raining—as it is often in
London—people still prefer not to hold their conversations where others could hear. They
talk (26) _____________ their umbrellas or in a doorway.
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is
not considered polite to use a phone in a restaurant, (27) ______________, though it might be
acceptable in the more informal setting of a café. One special custom that has developed in
cafés seems unique to Paris. Young women often place their cell phones on the table beside
them to signal that they are expecting someone. When the friend arrives, the phone is (28)
_____________. In fact, the French are generally very disapproving of phone use in public
and are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 24: A. which B. when C. where D. what
Question 25: A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential
Question 26: A. on B. under C. in D. after
Question 27: A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance
Question 28: A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: The reasons why lack of water causes the body to become stressed and
diseased, as well
A B
as very simple methods to ensure your own vibrant health, are all explained in details.
C D
Question 30: Volunteer work, understood in its traditional meaning, as unpaid
activity oriented to help
A B
others and to improve society, have existed throughout the history of humanity.
C D
Question 31: Vinton G. Cerf founded the InterNetworking Group in 1972 and this has been
since
A B
recognized as the birth-year of the Internet.
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
No matter how much you’ve trained, performance anxiety before or during a
competition may occur, hindering the results of your match.
While you can tell yourself to stay calm prior to a competition, managing
performance anxiety may not be as simple as. Research has shown that strategies such as
meditation and guided imagery are great places to start; both require your brain to rehearse
what you will do during your competition. Your imagination holds much more power than
you may expect, helping you focus on how to beat your opponent, instead of other factors
that contribute to your anxiety. Adequate preparation also plays a large role.

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To master the mental game, it takes time. Starting one month before your competition,
consider sitting in solitude in a comfortable position for 15 minutes each day. Focus first on
breathing in and out deeply. Then, begin to imagine competition situations and visualize
yourself in a fight with your competitor. Be mindful of your anxiety and return your focus to
breathing if you feel yourself tense up. Sometimes, you may find yourself thinking self-
deprecating or negative thoughts, at which point you should consciously replace any negative
self-talk with positive self-talk. During these visualizations, also be sure to think about your
posture and form and create cues — mental and verbal — that will help you review and
correct your technique.
Pre-competition jitters are completely normal and it’s important to acknowledge that.
Accepting that this excitement and/or nervousness is normal will help your body also
understand that what you are experiencing is not fear, but perhaps part of your adrenaline
response to competition. With more experience, mindful visualization and mental/physical
preparation can help you manage and overcome performance anxiety.
(Source: https://blog.perfectmind.com/)
Question 32: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Overcoming performance anxiety before a competition.
B. Songs Olympians listen to before competition.
C. How to pray before, during, and after competition.
D. Anxiety before a competition can lead to insomnia.
Question 33: The word “hindering” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. frustrating B. crippling C. arresting D. hampering
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a contributing factor for
victory?
A. Imagination B. Preparation
C. Anxiety D. Anxiety management
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what step is NOT included in the mindful
visualization technique?
A. Maintain a daily habit of 15-minute sitting alone for a month before the contest day.
B. Visualize interconnected dots in your minds while reciting the secret mantra.
C. Simulate several possible interactions between yourself and your opponents.
D. Steer is clear of pessimistic thoughts and substitutes them with optimistic ones.
Question 36: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. The fact that your fear for the competition is a kind of inexplicable phobia.
B. The fact that feeling anxious before a competition is nothing unusual.
C. The fact that hardly anyone will understand your aversion to contest.
D. The fact that introspection is not an effective pre-test calming practice.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Coral reefs are some of the most diverse ecosystems in the world, housing tens of
thousands of marine species. With their hardened surfaces, corals are sometimes mistaken as
being rocks. And, because they are attached, “taking root” to the seafloor, they are often
mistaken for plants. However, unlike rocks, corals are alive. And unlike plants, corals do not
make their own food. Corals are in fact animals. Appearing as solitary forms in the fossil
record more than 400 million years ago, corals are extremely ancient animals that evolved
into modern reef-building forms over the last 25 million years.
Coral reefs are the largest structures on earth of biological origin. Coral reefs are
unique and complex systems. Rivaling old growth forests in longevity of their ecological
communities, well-developed reefs reflect thousands of years of history.
Corals are ancient animals related to jellyfish and anemones. The branch or mound
that we often call “a coral” is actually made up of thousands of tiny animals called polyps. A
coral polyp is an invertebrate that can be no bigger than a pinhead to up to 30 centimeters (1
foot) in diameter. The polyps extend their tentacles at night to sting and ingest tiny organisms
called plankton and other small creatures. Each polyp has a saclike body and a mouth that is
encircled by stinging tentacles. The polyp uses calcium carbonate (limestone) from seawater

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to build a hard, cup-shaped skeleton. This skeleton protects the soft, delicate body of the
polyp.
Reefs only occur in shallow areas that are reachable by sunlight because of the
relationship between coral and algae. Various types of microscopic algae, known
as Symbiodinium, live inside of the coral, providing them with food and helping them to grow
faster.
There are over 2,500 kinds (species) of corals. About 1,000 are the hard corals that
build coral reefs. Other corals are soft corals. Soft corals have skeletons that are flexible and
can bend with the water. The three main types of coral reefs are fringing reefs, barrier reefs,
and coral atolls. The most common type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows
seaward directly from the shore. They form borders along the shoreline and surrounding
islands. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk
entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape, with
an open lagoon in the center. Any reef that is called a barrier reef gets its name because its
presence protects the shallow waters along the shore from the open sea. That protection
promotes the survival of many types of sea plant and animal life.
(Adapted from http://justfunfacts.com)
Question 37: Which of the following could best reflect the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To prove that coral reefs are animals.
B. To provide the facts about coral reefs.
C. To explain that coral reefs are the most diverse ecosystems in the ocean.
D. To distinguish coral reefs from other animals.
Question 38: The word “solitary” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
____________.
A. single B. private C. general D. typical
Question 39: The word “rivaling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. differing from B. comparing with C. relating to D. changing from
Question 40: According to the passage, the following are true about coral
reefs, EXCEPT _______.
A. Coral reefs are mistaken for rocks and plants because of their hardened surface and
“roots”.
B. Polyps are the composition of corals.
C. The skeleton of a polyp is created from calcium carbonate in seawater.
D. Corals absorb food in the sunlight using their tentacles.
Question 41: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. coral atolls B. barrier reefs C. fringing reefs D. the shores
Question 42: As mentioned in the last paragraph, why a reef is called a barrier reef?
A. As it keeps developing from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level.
B. Because its skeleton is flexible enough to defend many marine organisms.
C. Since it saves the low waters along the coastline from the open sea.
D. Because it is one kind of 1,000 hard corals that protect the shoreline.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that coral reefs ______________.
A. evolved from a kind of plant on the Earth.
B. are the biggest structures that have ever lived on the Earth.
C. are the origin of many marine plants and animals.
D. appeared on the Earth hundreds of million years ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: It is against the school rules to cheat in the test.
A. You don't have to cheat in the test. B. You must cheat in the test.
C. You must not cheat in the test. D. You have to cheat in the test.
Question 45: "You should open up and tell our teacher about your situation", said Maria to
Victor.
A. Maria advised Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
B. Maria forbid Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
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C. Maria forced Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
D. Maria allowed Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
Question 46: The professor is a more efficient financial adviser than the expert.
A. The professor gives advice on finance less efficiently than the expert.
B. The expert is a less efficient financial adviser than the professor.
C. The professor gives advice on finance not as efficiently as the expert.
D. The expert gives financial advice more efficiently than the professor.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: – "Do you get along well with your brothers?"
– “______________”
A. He's not living with us, he's living in the town.
B. We have never got into a fight but sometimes in a quarrel.
C. He likes swimming, and I like reading when free.
D. Mom and Dad always help us with our school work.
Question 48: - A: "Doctor, can you give me some suggestions on how to stay healthy?"
- B: “___________________.”
A. Well, first of all, you need to make sure that you eat the right foods.
B. It is very confusing to know what to eat.
C. As long as you don't overdo it, a glass of wine a day should be OK.
D. If you smoke, you need to stop.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His parents don't like some of his friends. His friends wear too flashy clothes.
A. His parents don't like some of his friends despite their too flashy clothes.
B. His parents don't like some of his friends because of their too flashy clothes.
C. His parents don't like some of his friends but for their flashy clothes.
D. His parents don't like some of his friends without their too flashy clothes.
Question 50: Inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem. Instead, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
A. Instead of trying to solve a problem, inventors' and engineers' initial ideas are to try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
B. Rarely do inventors' and engineers' initial ideas solve a problem rather than try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
C. Because inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
D. Even though inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
27 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. interaction B. initiative C. hospitality D. activity
Question 2: A. invites B. comes C. arrives D. loves
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cartoon B. answer C. open D. paper
Question 4: A. certificate B. knowledgeable C. prosperity D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
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Question 5: Unfortunately, many of the travel experiences we take part in _______ into
consideration how it affects our planet and the well-being of people.
A. does not take B. do not take C. is not taken D. are not taken
Question 6: If he had not spent his youth not learning anything, he __________ himself for
his lack of knowledge now.
A. will not blame B. would not blame
C. would not have blamed D. would blame
Question 7: Research suggested that people can ________ recall events that never happened.
A. vividly B. clearly C. obviously D. certainly
Question 8: ____________ , the driver couldn’t make out the road signs.
A. There is a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
B. There being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
C. It was a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
D. It being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
Question 9: If you don't have anything __________ to say, it's better to say nothing.
A. construct B. construction C. constructive D. constructor
Question 10: Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk
_______in heavy traffic during rush hour.
A. holding up B. being held up C. to be held up D. to hold up
Question 11: Global warming will result _____ crop failures and famines.
A. with B. from C. for D. in
Question 12: There are both advantages and disadvantages of living in families with three or
four generations, also known as __________ families.
A. single-parent B. extended C. nuclear D. crowded
Question 13: ______ I got to the dentist last week, I had to sit in the waiting room for over
one hour.
A. When B. Once C. While D. Since
Question 14: He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) _____ of
danger.
A. omen B. premonition C. foreboding D. prediction
Question 15: When I agreed to help, I didn't know what I was __________ myself in for.
A. laying B. putting C. letting D. bringing
Question 16: Friends will come and go in your life, but more important than __________ is
your friends' acceptance of you for who you are.
A. how long do your friendships last B. how long your friendships will last
C. how long your friendships last D. how long will your friendships last
Question 17: _______ Spring festival season in Vietnam starts with the Lunar New Year and
closes with the celebration honoring the mythical founding fathers, ______ Hung Kings, on
_____ tenth day of _______ third lunar month.
A. The/the/the/the B. 0/0/the/the
C. The/0/0/the D. The/the/0/0
Question 18: I'm not suggesting ________ that she meant to cause any trouble.
A. for one minute B. for sure
C. for sales D. for a laugh
Question 19: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, __________?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I took a course at the employment bureau to learn how to organize my résumé
to best show off my experience and qualifications.
A. enhance B. promote C. boast D. achieve
Question 21: In their senseless killing of innocent people, the terrorists have shown their
lack of respect for human life.
A. had B. earned C. gained D. commanded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 22: On the whole, further education still plays an important role in the
development of any country.
A. Generally B. Specifically C. Essentially D. Surprisingly
Question 23: It's not beyond the realm of possibility that some schools may have to cut sport
altogether.
A. possible B. impossible C. unlikely D. certain
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An A level is an Advanced level GCE qualification. This exam is (24) __________
taken after two years of A level study, following the O level/IGCSE exams. Students can take
any number of A level exams; in the UK, most college students take three or four A level
exams for their final two years of study. The (25) __________ of A levels to be taken will
often depend on the qualifications that the university chosen requires. A level results can
open doors to undergraduate studies at some of the best higher educational institutions in the
world, and to a wide range of professional and vocational courses (26) _______ can help
build skills for an exciting and rewarding career. In many countries round the world, some
schools follow the GCE syllabus to prepare their pupils for taking A level exams. Students at
these schools should enquire at their school about how they can register and sit (27) ____ the
exams. Students who do not attend a school that follows the GCE syllabus can still take A
level exams and can register as a private individual with the British Council.
In order to register for an A level exam one will need to complete an entry form
which will become available at the British Council offices. Forms usually become (28)
__________ for January examinations in early August of the preceding year. For May/June
examinations, they are available in early December of the preceding year.
(Source: https://qualifications.pearson.com)
Question 24: A. normally B. popularly C. largely D. noticeably
Question 25: A. sum B. number C. amount D. quantity
Question 26: A. what B. that C. when D. who
Question 27: A. at B. in C. for D. into
Question 28: A. availability B. avail C. availably D. available
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: According to the results of a survey which conducted by a USA
magazine, there isn't
A B C
really a generation gap.
D
Question 30: The best way to get ready for an interview is to take the time to review the most
common
A B C
interview questions you will mostly likely be asked.
D
Question 31: Down did an apple fall when he was passing under the tree.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
New research shows that long-term changes in diseases in ocean
species coincide with decades of widespread environmental change. The paper, "Increases
and decreases in marine disease reports in an era of global change," was published Oct. 9 in
Proceedings of the Royal Society B.
Understanding oceanic trends is important for evaluating today's threats to marine
systems, and disease is an important sentinel of change, according to senior author Drew
Harvell, professor of marine biology at Cornell University. "Disease increases and decreases
can both be bad news," said lead author Allison Tracy, who studied with Harvell. "The long-
term changes in disease that we see here may result from anthropogenic pressure on plants
and animals in the ocean." The researchers examined marine infectious disease reports from
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1970 to 2013, which transcend short-term fluctuations and regional variation. They examined
records of corals, urchins, mammals, decapods, fish, mollusks, sharks, rays, seagrass and
turtles.
For corals and urchins, reports of infectious disease increased over the 44-year period.
In the Caribbean, increasing coral disease reports correlated with warming events. It is widely
known that coral bleaching increases with warming, but Harvell said they have established a
long-term connection between warming and coral disease. "We've finally linked a coral killer
like infectious disease to repeated warming bouts over four decades of change," she said.
"Our study shows that infectious disease reports are associated with warm temperature
anomalies in corals on a multi-decadal scale." These results improve understanding of how
changing environments alter species interactions, and they provide a solid baseline for health
of marine life in the period studied.
(Source: https://www.myvetcandy.com/)
Question 32. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Infectious disease in marine life linked to ocean warming.
B. Ocean pollution and diseases resulted from aquaculture.
C. Health threats from polluted coastal waters.
D. What to know about flesh-eating bacteria infections.
Question 33: The word “coincide” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. agree B. coexist C. differ D. concur
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what role does marine disease play in the oceanic
analysis?
A. It reflects the progress in the study of human immunology.
B. It deals with the task of monitoring vector-borne threats.
C. It serves as an indicator of the presence of oceanic changes.
D. It induces changes in fungal communities under the water.
Question 35: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. reports B. researchers C. animals D. fluctuations
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what can be concluded from the Allison Tracy’s
investigation?
A. Water sources might soon become poisonous to ocean life and the humans.
B. Rising global temperatures are spreading disease at an unprecedented level.
C. Oceans have absorbed more than 90% of the warming effects of climate change.
D. No level of conservation in the future will be enough to override the warming
impacts.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
To quote CREST founder Dr. Martha Honey, we earnestly believe that ecotourism is
“simply a better way to travel.” Here’s a look at how this transformational approach to travel
benefits conservation, increases cross-cultural understanding, and ultimately turns travelers
into environmental advocates:
To see how ecotourism benefits nature and wildlife, let’s look at endangered species
such as African Elephants. Ivory from Elephant tusks is worth $1500 a pound on the black
market, which has led to a dramatic increase in poaching. But Elephants are worth 76 times
more alive than dead. When you consider the revenue from wildlife photography tours,
luxury safari camps, and other ecotourism offerings, a single Elephant is worth $1.3 million
over the course of its lifetime! Ecotourism offers a long-term alternative to exploitation,
generating sustainable revenue and ensuring the better overall health of the ecosystem.
Nature reserves and national parks help prevent deforestation and pollution, while
also protecting the habitat of endemic species. The revenue that ecotourism provides can help
replace profits from exploitative practices such as mining or slash ‘n’ burn agriculture. It can
also help ensure the long-term financial viability of the area. Naturalist guides also help
travelers understand the value of a pristine ecosystem, and teach them about the importance
of conservation. This ultimately helps to create a more mindful and conscious legion of
travelers.

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When managed properly, ecotourism can offer locals alternative revenue streams. In
wildlife-rich countries such as Rwanda, former poachers are often employed as guides or
trackers, capitalizing on their knowledge of the animals and their habitat. In Costa Rica,
unemployment has fallen to less than 10% since the country started building its ecotourism
infrastructure in the 1970s. Involving local communities in tourism management
empowers them by ensuring that more revenue is reinvested locally. Ecotourism also offers
indigenous peoples an opportunity to remain on ancestral land, conserve it, and preserve
traditional culture.
Sure, being a responsible traveler takes a greater level of commitment to being
conscious and mindful of the impact we have on the destinations we visit. But ecotourism
also offers us incredible, transformative experiences, allowing us to develop closer personal
relationships to the nature, wildlife, and local people we encounter during our adventures.
Learning about ecotourism can permanently change your understanding of mankind’s role in
our planetary ecosystem. And once you’ve had that sort of travel experience, you’ll never
want to travel the traditional way again.
(Source: https://www.ith.org.za/what-is-eco-tourism/)
Question 37: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The benefits of ecotourism.
B. Making the most of ecotourism.
C. An introduction to ecotourism.
D. Encourage conservation or adding to exploitation?
Question 38: The word “revenue” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. reward B. benefit C. profit D. interest
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, in what direction can ethical tourism help the
society?
A. Green tourism maintains the balance between animals and humans.
B. Ecotourism provides financial support for local communities.
C. Sustainable tourism yields substantial environmental benefits.
D. Ecotourism encourages open dialogue about deforestation.
Question 40: The word “pristine” in paragraph 3 most likely means _______.
A. natural B. untouched C. beautiful D. dirty
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. species B. relationships C. poachers D. locals
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, why did the author claim that people will prefer
ecotourism over normal one?
A. Because it is such an awakening and mind-expanding experience.
B. Because the author is a trend-setting writer who believes in his words’ influence.
C. Because anything with a green label on it is all the craze now.
D. Because the standard of ecotourism service is more satisfying than other types.
Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Ecotourism is seasonal in nature, therefore a vulnerable industry.
B. The current sustainable tourism service is just greenwashing.
C. Ecotourism is a win-win experience, both for nature and the people.
D. Responsible travel is a unique opportunity for business.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: She said, "John, I'll show you around my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip around her city with John.
B. She planned to show John around her city.
C. She promised to show John around her city.
D. She organized a trip around her city for John.
Question 45: People say that Vietnamese students are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
A. Vietnamese students are said not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.
B. Vietnamese students say they are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
C. People do not like Vietnamese students to be well-prepared for their future jobs
D. People, as well as Vietnamese students, are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
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Question 46: Unlike traditional learning, the e-learning is flexible for the students as well as
for the teachers.
A. The e-learning is more flexible for the students and the teachers than traditional
learning.
B. The students' e-learning is more flexible than the teachers' traditional learning.
C. The e-learning for the students is more flexible than traditional learning for the
teachers.
D. The students use more flexible e-learning than traditional learning used by the
teachers.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: - Nick: "What about stopping by a fishing village for lunch?”
- Linh: “_______________.’
A. It's isn't really worth seeing. B. Thanks, that's really useful.
C. That sounds fantastic! D. You've done a very good job.
Question 48: - "Will you please show me how to operate the new machine?
- “_______________.”
A. Sure. It's a piece of cake. B. Is it like a piece of cake?
C. Of course it's no easy work. D. No, I won't.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey
A. They were so exhausted that they could hardly continue the journey.
B. They were hardly exhausted but they could not continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. They could continue the journey as they were hardly exhausted.
Question 50: Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us. She had already seen the movie.
A. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us, so she had already seen it.
B. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us as she had already seen it.
C. As Karen had already seen the movie, Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema.
D. Karen had already seen the movie, then she didn’t want to go the cinema.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
28 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 2: A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. social B. common C. verbal D. polite
Question 4: A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The majority of the students _______ home for their holidays for the past few
weeks.
A. has gone B. had gone C. goes D. have gone
Question 6: My sister often reads _______ fashion pages in _______ newspapers to keep up
with __________ latest styles.
A. Ø/the/the B. the/the/the C. Ø/Ø/the D. the/Ø/the
Question 7: Mrs Townsend was left ___________ all the arrangements for the outing by
herself.
A. to make B. making C. having made D. to making
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Question 8: “If I ________ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55
minutes determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could
solve the problem in less than five minutes." - Albert Einstein
A. have an hour to solve a problem B. had an hour solving a problem
C. had had an hour to solve a problem D. had an hour to solve a problem
Question 9: I’m sorry but I assure you that I had no intention ____________ offending you.
A. in B. of C. to D. for
Question 10: As a devoted and respectable woman, she makes a large donation to a
_____________ cause every year.
A. worthless B. worthy C. worthwhile D. worth
Question 11: __________ you have thought about where you are at now and where you want
to be, you can work on getting to know your skills, interests and values.
A. As B. Although C. Unless D. Once
Question 12: When we went to Egypt he knew __________ no Arabic, but within six months
he had become extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. virtually D. scarcely
Question 13: In ______________, I must acknowledge that we were guilty of errors of
judgment.
A. retrospect B. review C. experience D. hindsight
Question 14: Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______________ on
the table regarding their long-term plans.
A. cards B. hands C. feet D. papers
Question 15: "Anyone who stops learning is old, ________. Anyone who keeps learning
stays young." - Henry Ford
A. either at twenty or eighty B. neither at twenty or eighty
C. neither at twenty nor eighty D. whether at twenty or eighty
Question 16: He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _____ for
heights.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
Question 17: The ________________ of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday.
A. survey B. inspection C. appraisal D. review
Question 18: One moment you say you love me, the next moment you are dating another girl,
______?
A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. won’t you D. do you
Question 19: Ms. Hoa is a __________ girl who always smiles with everyone friendly.
A. beautiful tall young B. young beautiful tall
C. young tall beautiful D. tall young beautiful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: If the rain doesn't let up soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
A. brighten B. stop C. clear D. darken
Question 21: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had
no alternative but to expel her.
A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster
C. punish her severely D. beat her violently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It is an ideal opportunity to make yourself memorable with employers for the
right reasons by asking sensible questions.
A. theoretical B. silly C. practical D. burning
Question 23: Steve was very happy in his job until he fell out with his boss. After that, it
was difficult for them to work together.
A. made up with B. made for C. made out D. made off
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

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A little while ago, the European Parliament recommended a list of 8 key


competencies which they believe all (24) ____ institutions should provide their students with,
to promote lifelong learning. These key competencies consist of knowledge, skills, and
attitudes which are central to the development of (25) ____ children, young people and
eventually adults.
Finland isn't the first country to recognize the value of ‘lifelong learning’ but Finland
is the first country to base their teaching curriculum (26) ____ the eight key competencies.
Instead of focusing on classic academic subjects, like. History or English, Finnish schools
will now structure lessons around broader, crosscutting and interdisciplinary "topics".
Speaking on why Finland decided to make this shift towards lifelong learning. Pasi
Sahlberg. Visiting Professor at the Graduate School of Education Harvard University, said:
“educators in Finland think, quite correctly, that schools should teach what young people
need in their lives ... (27) ______ Finnish youth need more than before are more integrated
knowledge and skills about real world issues”.
As Professor Sahlberg explains the key competencies don't focus on knowledge
acquisition and test score results, (28) ____ on developing skills for longer term learning,
with an emphasis on social and emotional development.
(Source: https://www.mindmeister.com/blog/8-lesson-plans-promote-lifelong-learning/)
Question 24: A. educate B. educating C. education D. educational
Question 25: A. good-rounding B. well-rounding C. good-rounded D. well-
rounded
Question 26: A. in B. for C. over D. round
Question 27: A. that B. it C. what D. which
Question 28: A. rather B. instead C. but D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: If students are going to an open day they should be familiarized themselves
with a
A B
Range of courses in that institution.
C D
Question 30: Employers offer pension or a salary for the workers in exchange for the
worker's work or labor. A B C D
Question 31: Many people suppose that the more popular television programmes become,
the
A B C
more badly they seem.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes
the types of encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships,
as was time spent enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance
of making a “casual friend,” as opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent
when people spent approximately 43 hours together within three weeks of the meeting. He
further found that casual friends evolve into friends at some point between 57 hours after
three weeks, and 164 hours over three months. Hall's research also demonstrated, however,
that when it comes to time spent developing friendships, quality is more important than
quantity. And when it comes to conversation, topics matter. When it comes to building
quality relationships, the duration of conversation is not as important as the content.
Meaningful conversation is the key to bonding with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through
catching up and joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider
the inane topics that often come up when you are trapped in an elevator with an
acquaintance. Discussing the weather or speculating on how many stops you will make
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before finally reaching the lobby does not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere proximity. Hall
found that obligatory time spent together, such as in a classroom or workplace, does not
promote closeness. Friendships require an efficient use of time together. Someone who
remembers the details of your life and asks questions about your family, your job, your latest
vacation, etc., is much more likely on his or her way to becoming someone you consider a
friend, as opposed to an acquaintance.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 32: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The priceless gift of time B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances. D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 33: The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate B. friend C. acquaintance D. Jeffrey
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of
Jeffrey A. Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen
relationships.
Question 35: The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly B. small C. regular D. normal
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street.
B. Travelling with your friend on holiday.
C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor.
D. Discussing with a classmate for the class project.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Although television was first regarded by many as “radio with pictures,” public
reaction to the arrival of TV was strikingly different from that afforded the advent of radio.
Radio in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of
cultural significance. The public quickly adjusted to radio broadcasting and either enjoyed its
many programs or turned them off. Television, however, prompted a tendency to criticize and
evaluate rather than a simple on-off response.
One aspect of early television that can never be recaptured is the combined sense of
astonishment and glamour that greeted the medium during its infancy. At the midpoint of the
20th century, the public was properly agog about being able to see and hear actual events
that were happening across town or hundreds of miles away. Relatively few people had sets
in their homes, but popular fascination with TV was so pronounced that crowds would gather
on the sidewalks in front of stores that displayed a working television set or two. The same
thing happened in the typical tavern, where a set behind the bar virtually guaranteed a full
house. Sports events that might attract a crowd of 30,000 or 40,000 suddenly, with the
addition of TV cameras, had audiences numbering in the millions. By the end of television’s
first decade, it was widely believed to have a greater influence on American culture than
parents, schools, churches, and government-institutions that had been until then the dominant
influences on popular conduct. All were superseded by this one cultural juggernaut.
The 1950s was a time of remarkable achievement in television, but this was not the
case for the entire medium. American viewers old enough to remember TV in the ’50s may
fondly recall the shows of Sid Caesar, Jackie Gleason, Milton Berle, and Lucille Ball, but
such high-quality programs were the exception; most of television during its formative years
could be aptly described, as it was by one Broadway playwright, as “amateurs playing at
home movies.” The underlying problem was not a shortage of talented writers, producers, and
performers; there were plenty, but they were already busily involved on the Broadway stage
and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures. Consequently, television drew chiefly on a
talent pool of individuals who had not achieved success in the more popular media and on the
young and inexperienced who were years from reaching their potential. Nevertheless, the new
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medium ultimately proved so fascinating a technical novelty that in the early stages of its
development the quality of its content seemed almost not to matter.
Fortunately, the dearth of talent was short-lived. Although it would take at least
another decade before areas such as news and sports coverage approached their potential,
more than enough excellence in the categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s to
deserve the attention of discriminating viewers. They are the most fondly remembered of the
Golden Age genres for both emotional and intellectual reasons. Live TV drama was, in
essence, the legitimate theatre’s contribution to the new medium; such shows were regarded
as “prestige” events and were afforded respect accordingly. The comedies of the era are
remembered for the same reason that comedy itself endures: human suffering and the ever-
elusive pursuit of happiness render laughter a necessary palliative, and people therefore have
a particular fondness for those who amuse them.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/)
Question 37: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Television development in comparison with radio
B. Sports events on television
C. High-quality programs enjoyed by American
D. Television in the United States
Question 38: The phrase “agog about” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by _____.
A. looking forward to B. interested in
C. involved in D. keen on
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why would the public gather on the sidewalks in
front of stores?
A. They had no work B. They had a sense of astonishment
C. Because of their fascination with TV D. They went to the tavern together
Question 40: Which of the following does the word “aptly” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. at a slow speed; not quickly
B. in a way that is suitable or appropriate in the circumstances
C. happening in a short time or without delay
D. the whole of; as much as
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, why is television described as “amateurs playing at
home movies”?
A. Writers, producers, and performers don’t have enough money to invest in television.
B. There are no high-quality programs.
C. Because talented writers, producers, and performers are busy with Broadway stage
and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures.
D. There are no talented writers, producers, and performers.
Question 42: The word “dearth” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lack B. plenty C. absence D. empty
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE according to the paragraph?
A. Television in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a
medium of cultural significance.
B. Few people had TV sets at home but they all enjoyed watching programs especially
sports on TV.
C. Television could draw chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had achieved
success in the more popular media.
D. The categories of comedy and drama that emerged in the 1950s were not good
enough to attract viewers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: He broke up with her but now he thinks that was a mistake.
A. He feels pity that he had broken up with her.
B. He wishes not to have broken her up.
C. He regrets having broken up with her.
D. He was mistaken about breaking up with her.
Question 45: "Let's tell Dad about our problem” said Carol to Tony.
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A. Carol ordered Tony to tell Dad about their problem.


B. Carol suggested telling Dad about their problem.
C. Carol forbid Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
D. Carol allowed Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
Question 46: People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.
D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: A student is talking with his professor about his missing the midterm test.
Complete the exchanges with the best answer:
- Student: "What can I do to make up for the missing midterm test, professor?"
- Professor: “______________________.”
A. Don't mention it. It's my pleasure to do this.
B. Thank you very much for accepting the invitation.
C. You are supposed to write a chapter review.
D. I agree to some extent with this statement.
Question 48: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The average lifespan is 79 years. However, the poorest men in this city have a
life expectancy of 54 years.
A. If the average lifespan is 79 years, the poorest men in this city have a life expectancy
of 54 years.
B. The average life expectancy of 79 years is higher than that of the poorest men in this
city.
C. The poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years, much lower than the
average lifespan.
D. The average life expectancy is 25 years higher than the poorest men in this city.
Question 50: Sam has a new job title and she gets a higher salary now. This means, she has
been promoted.
A. Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now, which means she has been
promoted.
B. Sam has been promoted because she has a new job title to get a higher salary now.
C. Getting a higher salary after having a new job title had made Sam promoted.
D. Having been promoted, Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
29 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. breath B. path C. wither D. breakthrough
Question 2: A. reads B. meets C. stops D. drops
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 3: A. comment B. common C. commence D. compass


Question 4: A. compliment B. argument C. nursery D. requirement
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She was sitting on the grass, out of breath. She ______. She shouldn't have run
so long.
A. was running B. had run home C. had been running D. ran
Question 6: If____________, those areas will not be available to future generations any
longer.
A. those areas were damaged or destroyed B. are damaged or destroyed
C. damaged or destroyed D. they damage or destroy
Question 7: His aggressive style contrasts __________ with that of his low-key predecessor.
A. thoroughly B. sharply C. fully D. coolly
Question 8: The company had to _______ reparation to those who suffered ill health as a
result of chemical pollution.
A. take B. do C. make D. pay
Question 9: Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like
health, food, safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.
A. communication B. communicative C. communicator D. communicating
Question 10: A good way to show your responsibility and commitment to your family is to
do your chores without complaining or___________.
A. asking B. ask C. being asked D. to be asked
Question 11: According to some researchers, the emphasis in education in the next few years
would be __________ the development of student's computer skills.
A. to B. at C. on D. with
Question 12: I hope you won’t take _________ if I tell you the truth.
A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence
Question 13: Just water these plants twice a week, and ____________ the ones in the
bedroom.
A. likewise B. otherwise C. nonetheless D. unless
Question 14: Crops are often completely destroyed by _________ of locusts.
A. bands B. troupes C. swarms D. flocks
Question 15: They failed to ___________ the necessary precautions to avoid infection.
A. take B. lead C. do D. conduct
Question 16: The more satisfied employees are, ______________ to the company.
A. the more likely they will remain loyal B. the more loyal they will remain likely
C. the more they will likely remain loyal D. the likely they will remain more loyal
Question 17: _______lunch in Spain is _____ bit different from what we're used to in _____
America.
A. The/a/0 B. 0/a/0 C. 0/0/0 D. A/a/the
Question 18: The victims of the disaster finally decided not to choose __________ of the
two plans of receiving relief supplies from the government.
A. both B. either C. not D. neither
Question 19: __________ to wake him up, I turned off the radio.
A. Not wanting B. Not wanted
C. Not to want D. Not have been wanted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It was Giovanni Luppis, an officer in the army of the Austrian empire, who
first came up with the idea of a self-propelled anti-ship weapon.
A. suggested B. discovered C. propose D. revealed
Question 21: If he so much as harms a hair on her head, I won't be responsible for my
actions.
A. hurts her B. flirts her C. dates her D. beats her
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 22: Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals
such as tigers, rhinoceros, bears and even primates.
A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law
C. introducing a law D. imposing a law
Question 23: His lawyer thought he had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no
further evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. advised of appealing D. charged of fraud
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In
my culture, usually, if a woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (24)_______,
in the first few days of school, I found it strange that so many women were talking to me and
I was under the impression that some women on my dormitory floor were interested in me.
To (25) _____ their politeness, I would buy them flowers or offer small gifts, as is done in
my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that these same women now seemed (26)
_______ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to leave her alone. Eventually
I talked to the residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong, and he explained
to me the way men and women usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear that
(27) _____ was wrong with me, but rather with the way I was interpreting my conversations
with women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in the USA, I still
made many good female friends afterwards (28) _______I still maintain contact.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 24: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 25: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 26: A. uncomfortable B. comfort C. comfortably D. comfortable
Question 27: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 28: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: Everyone can take an important role by always doing their best to help their
families flourish.
A B C D
Question 30: The liver has many functions, which includes detoxifying of harmful
chemicals,
A B
breakdown of drugs, filtering of blood, secretion of bile and production of blood-
clotting proteins.
C D
Question 31: Not only men and women do have many differences, but they also have many
similarities.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
How might volunteering contribute to lower blood pressure? Performing volunteer
work could increase physical activity among people who aren’t otherwise very active, says
lead study author Rodlescia Sneed, a doctoral candidate in social and health psychology at
Carnegie Mellon University. It may also reduce stress. “Many people find volunteer work to
be helpful with respect to stress reduction, and we know that stress is very strongly linked to
health outcomes,” she says.
As with any activity thought to improve health, researchers are trying to identify the
specific characteristics of volunteering that provide the greatest benefit. For example, how
much time would you need to put into volunteer work to lower your blood pressure or live
longer? In the Carnegie Mellon study, 200 hours of volunteering per year correlated to lower
blood pressure. Other studies have found a health benefit from as little as 100 hours of
volunteering a year. Which types of volunteer activities improve health the most? No one
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really knows. Sneed speculates that mentally stimulating activities, like tutoring or reading,
might be helpful for maintaining memory and thinking skills, while “activities that promote
physical activity would be helpful with respect to cardiovascular health, but no studies have
really explored this.”
One key for deriving health benefits from volunteering is to do it for the right reasons.
A 2012 study in the journal Health Psychology found that participants who volunteered with
some regularity lived longer, but only if their intentions were truly altruistic. In other words,
they had to be volunteering to help others—not to make themselves feel better.
The Greek philosopher Aristotle once surmised that the essence of life is “To serve
others and do good.” If recent research is any indication, serving others might also be the
essence of good health.
(Source: https://www.health.harvard.edu/)
Question 32: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Global volunteer experience. B. Volunteer opportunities for teenagers.
C. The benefits of volunteering. D. Voluntary work with children
Question 33: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Physical activity B. Blood pressure C. Doctoral candidate D. Volunteer
work
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what information about volunteers has NOT been
supported by researchers?
A. 100 hours of voluntary activities are enough for a certain health benefit, but a low
blood pressure level requires double that amount.
B. Only 100 hours of volunteering per annum are needed to reap a health benefit.
C. 200 hours of voluntary activities should be spent annually to influence the level of
blood pressure.
D. Mentally demanding works enhance intellectual capacity while physical ones benefit
the heart and blood flow.
Question 35: The word “altruistic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. egoistic B. philanthropic C. liberal D. magnanimous
Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what is the lesson from one of the greatest
intellectual figures in history?
A. Opportunities to serve others result in a stronger sense of purpose and meaning in
life.
B. Without the freedom of forgiveness, you’ll end up serving for the wrong reasons.
C. We should take advantage of the generous help of others without giving in return.
D. Only a small minority of people use their lives to serve others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than
men might be due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers
have suggested.
Recent figures show about 65% of those living with dementia in the UK are women,
with a similar statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading
cause of death for women in England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of
dementia, but the most common form. While one explanation is that dementia risk increases
with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men, new research suggests there
might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within neurons and linked
to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.
The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los
Angeles by researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-
reviewed, used scans from a method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them
to look at the way clumps of a protein called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and
178 women without cognitive problems, as well as 101 men and 60 women with mild
cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Cognitively
normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.

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From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show
similar signals relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based
on that we kind of try to reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is
presenting the research, told the Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.”
The team says the results suggest these maps look different in women and men, suggesting
tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female brain.
Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer-reviewed – added
weight to the idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect
dementia risk. Research by scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of
genes and genetic variants appear to be linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological
sex or the other. While the actual importance of these factors has yet to be unpicked, and the
study only looked at white participants, the team says it underscores that there could be a
genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women, and the way it
develops.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 37: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The differences between the male and female brain and the condition for
Alzheimer’s.
B. Research shines a light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.
C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women
D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.
Question 38: The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions
Question 39: As mentioned in paragraph 3, positron emission tomography is a method to
__________.
A. distinguish between the amount of tau in normal people and that in those with
cognitive problems.
B. diagnose who are easier to get Alzheimer’s disease.
C. observe the increase of a protein called tau in the brains of subjects.
D. review whether people with cognitive problems have a protein called tau or not.
Question 40: What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems
B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems
C. cognitively normal older people’s
D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.
B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from
Alzheimer’s.
C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.
D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.
Question 42: The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated
Question 43: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ____________.
A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.
B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been
scientifically illuminated.
C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.
D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: “What happens to what we throw away?", Mary wonders.
A. Mary wonders what happens to what we throw away.
B. Mary wondered what happened to what we threw away.
C. Mary wondered what has happened to what we threw away.
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D. Mary wonders what happened to what we threw away.


Question 45: Dr. Mercer decided not to accept the research grant at Harvard because he is
going to take six months off to spend more time with his family.
A. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to
take six months off to spend more time with his family.
B. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to take
six months off to spend more time with his family.
C. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he had not been
going to take six months off to spend more time with his family.
D. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he had not been going to
take six months off to spend more time with his family.
Question 46: Textbooks can't provide students with the latest information as a mobile device
can.
A. Textbooks do not provide students with information later than can a mobile device.
B. The information provided by textbooks is not later than that provided by a mobile
device.
C. Textbooks can't provide students with as new information as a mobile device can.
D. The information provided by textbooks is newer than that provided by a mobile
device.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47. – “I am sorry. I've spoilt the cake.”
- “__________”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, definitely
C. That's alright. Don't worry. D. I'd rather not do it
Question 48: - A: “I need to stop eating such unhealthy foods.”
- B: “___________________.”
A. That sounds delicious and nutritious.
B. I know what you mean. I've started eating better myself.
C. I mainly eat baked chicken, because there's not a lot of fat.
D. Are you sure that's how you want me to make it?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Technology allows for remote working. This expands women's options.
A. Technology allows for remote working, which expands women's options.
B. That technology allows for remote working will expand women's options.
C. Because technology allows for remote working, it expands women's options.
D. Allowing for remote working, technology expands women's options.
Question 50: She teaches children with special needs. Many of them have severe learning
difficulties.
A. She teaches children with special needs and whoever has severe learning difficulties.
B. She teaches children with special needs and severe learning difficulties.
C. She teaches children with severe learning difficulties and with special needs.
D. She teaches children with special needs, many of whom have severe learning
difficulties.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
30 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. promote B. voluntarily C. solidarity D. bronchitis
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Question 2: A. obliged B. graduated C. attended D. wretched


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. advice B. apply C. career D. lifelong
Question 4: A. demonstrate B. paperwork C. probation D. dealership
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he __________ five
different schools because his parents moved frequently.
A. attended B. was attending
C. had attended D. has been attending
Question 6: If computers become as smart as humans, ____________?
A. would they do our jobs better than we can B. will they do our jobs better than we
can
C. would they do our jobs better than we could D. will they do our jobs better than
we could
Question 7: Most people are interested in __________ about famous celebrities, which is
why tabloid magazines still exist.
A. juicy chatter B. juicy gossip C. gossip freely D. juicy talk
Question 8: There’s no need for you to try to _____ an argument with him. You need to calm
down or your relationship will get worse.
A. win B. beat C. defeat D. gain
Question 9: Lifelong learning involves the use of both formal and informal learning
opportunities throughout people's lives in order to foster the __________ development.
A. continuing B. continuous C. continual D. continued
Question 10: She couldn't resist _______ at him in those clothes
A. to laugh B. laugh C. laughing D. laughed
Question 11: He harbors a deep resentment ___________ his parents for his miserable
childhood.
A. on B. from C. for D. against
Question 12: We are raising funds for people with visual __________ in the city.
A. breakages B. failures C. impairments D. damages
Question 13: The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _____,
they do free home deliveries.
A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead
Question 14: On being told about her sack, ________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked
C. Mary's face turned pale D. her boss changed his attitude
Question 15: He did his work ____________ because he did not like the culture of this
company.
A. reluctantly B. willingly C. inefficiently D. successfully
Question 16: It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age,
____?
A. isn't it B. is it C. doesn't he D. does he
Question 17: The government is trying its best to narrow the gap between ____ rich and
____ poor
A. the / a B. a / the C. the / the D. a / a
Question 18: The government has given the _____ light to our tree – planting project, so we
can go ahead and start organizing things.
A. blue B. green C. red D. white
Question 19: Vietnam has become __________ to foreign tourists.
A. the more and more attractive B. most and most attractive
C. the most and most attractive D. more and more attractive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 20: The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and
health.
A. blare B. flask C. stark D. spark
Question 21: To keep up with new developments and technology, modern people need to
implement lifelong learning all the time.
A. come up with B. get on with C. face up with D. catch up with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: The rapid development of artificial intelligence can replace many people in
their jobs and make many people unemployed.
A. have a job working for a company or another person
B. not have a job that provides money
C. have enough skills and abilities for someone to employ you
D. have enough skills and abilities
Question 23: My teacher required us to present our report of the survey's result in black and
white in order for her to see our points easily.
A. clearly B. ambiguously C. thoroughly D. obviously
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The next time you are watching a film and you see one of the characters jumping out
of a plane, falling off a horse, or being blown through a window - spare a (24) ________ for
the stunt artist. Lots of people think that stunt artists are just "extras" who play small,
unimportant parts in films and television. Nothing could be further from the truth. A stunt
artist must combine the skills of an actor with the physical abilities of a first - (25)
_____________ athlete. He or she must be extremely fit, and highly trained in a number of
activities like scuba-diving, horse riding, martial arts or parachuting.
It is not easy to get started in a career as a stunt performer. Film and television
producers look for experience and proven ability, as it is unlikely that they will take on a
complete newcomer. However, because of the (26) ____________ of their profession, stunt
artists tend to retire early. This means that new performers must be employed, or there will be
no one to take (27) ______________ when the present generation quits.
Even when a stunt artist becomes well-known, the work is not regular. It may
sometimes be necessary to travel to the other side of the world for a job which involves long
hours and great physical danger. It is not a glamorous occupation either. Unlike the famous
actors for (28) ____________ they sometimes risk their lives, few stunt artists are recognized
in the street by adoring fans.
(Source: https://matthewtoffolo.com/category/cinematography/page/2/)
Question 24: A. coin B. sympathy C. minute D. thought
Question 25: A. gold B. class C. national D. level
Question 26: A. feature B. nature C. aspect D. type
Question 27: A. over B. in C. up D. out
Question 28: A. who B. whom C. them D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held
on the campus
A B C
of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956.
D
Question 30: A recent report in Neurology noted that while cognitive activity can't change
the biology
A B
of Alzheimer's, learning activities can help delay symptoms, preserve people's quality of life.
C D
Question 31: Many nations protect endangered species by forbidding hunting, to restrict land
A B C
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development and creating preserves.


D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not
the disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew
Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger
and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller
percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not
see them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of
disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of
technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in
their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The
answer is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less
emotionally charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the
younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the
musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation
generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the
older generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s
with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all
generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for
others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in the generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 33: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant
Question 34: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t
cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder
generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 35: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 36: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the
young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better
technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for
others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

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Sixty percent of working Americans today say they’ve left a job, or considered
leaving a job, because they didn’t like their direct supervisor, according to a survey from
human resource consulting firm Randstad US. Though leaving a job may seem like the best
solution for retiring a bad boss, that doesn’t mean that it’s always the best plan for your
career. In fact, if you’re in a situation where you love your job and the opportunities it
presents, then leaving your role because of a difficult boss may not be the best idea. Pollak
and Monster.com career expert Vicki Salemi broke down three ways you can deal with a bad
boss without quitting a job you love.
Pollak says that in many cases, a difficult relationship with your boss is often due to
differing personalities and habits. One way to mend this relationship, she says, is to closely
study your boss’s behavior so that you can meet their expectations. “Become the world’s
leading expert on your boss or your manager,” says Pollak, who is also the author of the book
“The Remix: How to Lead and Succeed in the Multigenerational Workforce.” “How does this
person like to communicate? If she hates long emails, stop sending long emails. If she doesn’t
like it when you drop by her office but reacts better when you schedule an appointment, then
learn to always schedule appointments instead of dropping in. If she is not a morning person,
don’t ask for things in the morning. If this person is really detail-oriented, then triple check
your documents before handing them in.” Salemi agrees. She says that if you have a boss
who’s critical or a micromanager, often the best way to deal with them is to be proactive in
meeting their needs. “It’s kind of like you’re managing them without making it seem like
you’re managing them,” she says.
When dealing with a difficult boss, Pollak says one of the best ways to figure out how
to successfully work under their leadership is to talk to other people who you know have been
in a similar situation. “Other people can be a resource, whether it’s a mentor, someone at a
different company, a coach or people who have worked for this person in the past,” she says.
“Treat it as a positive and say, ‘I really want to be successful working with X. What
recommendations do you have?’” However, she emphasizes, you should never talk about the
situation in a negative way, or say you don’t like working for your boss. Instead, discuss
about the situation in a way that shows your willingness to adapt to make the relationship
work.
If talking to other colleagues isn’t helpful, then Pollak says one of your last options
should be to talk directly to your boss. Consider your approach carefully. Instead of saying,
“We’re not getting along. What should we do?”, say something to the effect of, “I’d really
like to make sure that I’m serving your needs. I’d like to make sure that I’m communicating
in a way that’s effective for you and I want to make sure that I’m being as productive as
possible. Is there anything I can do differently?” This way, she says, you’re approaching the
situation by asking how you can help, instead of emphasizing a problem.
(Adapted from https://www.cnbc.com/)
Question 37: Which best serves as the main idea of the passage?
A. How to get on well with your strict boss.
B. Is it a good idea to quit the job you love?
C. How to make the best plan for your career.
D. Three ways to become a boss of the job you love.
Question 38: The phrase “dropping in” in the second paragraph mostly means __________.
A. paying a formal visit to a place B. paying an informal visit to a person
C. having an arrangement before D. leaving before saying goodbye
Question 39: What does the phrase “this person” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. a mentor B. someone at a different company
C. a coach D. your boss
Question 40: What should you have to pay attention to if you want to ask for others’ advice
about your boss?
A. your feeling B. your attitude C. your situation D. your relationship
Question 41: The word “productive” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
_____________.
A. useful B. destructive C. harsh D. critical
Question 42: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
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A. Always check your documents carefully before giving them to a detailed-oriented


boss.
B. Don’t talk about your situation negatively.
C. Never show your enthusiasm for work when talking to your boss.
D. Don’t mention the problem between you and your boss.
Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Not every boss appreciates your willingness to adapt their behavior.
B. Finding help whenever suffering a bad boss is the best solution.
C. A proactive person will not face a strict boss.
D. Your positive attitude will help you know how to deal with your difficult boss.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: “My father doesn’t work in the factory anymore” Bella told us.
A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.
B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory anymore.
C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory
D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.
Question 45: He visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years.
B. He was in London for three years.
C. He didn’t visit London three years ago.
D. He has been in London for three years.
Question 46: If someone understands this theory, they are cleverer than I am.
A. There is someone who is cleverer than I am as he understands this theory
B. Some people who understand this theory are cleverer than I am
C. No one who is cleverer than I am understands this theory.
D. Anyone who understands this theory is cleverer than I am.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: Two friends meet on the first day at school. Complete the conversation.
- A: “Hey John. I didn't know you were coming to this school.”
- B: “__________ . It's good to see you.”
A. Oh, nice to meet you B. Yeah, what a coincidence
C. That's life D. Every now and then
Question 48: Joanna is inviting Sally to go out with her.
- Joanna: “Well, would you like to come out for dinner? Let's go somewhere this evening.”
- Sally: “__________ .”
A. Really? I'd love to. B. How do you feel about it?
C. Shall we go out tonight? D. I love going out.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Ann can't use her office this week. The painters are working there.
A. Ann is not working at her office because the painters are working there.
B. Ann can't use her office this week because her office is being painted.
C. The painters who are working at Ann's office ask her out during the week.
D. The painters are using Ann's office this week as they are working there.
Question 50: So many animals are now in danger of extinction. Then, a list of them is kept in
a Red Book.
A. To keep many animals from danger of extinction, a list has been made in a Red Book.
B. So many animals are now in danger of extinction that a list of them is kept in a Red
Book
C. So many animals are now in danger of extinction so that a list of them is kept in a
Red Book.
D. So many animals are now in danger of extinction as to keep a list of them in a Red
Book.
-----THE END-----

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