HS.30DEDAU

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class the previous
day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull ____ the
promise she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had
C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh, honey, please
don't make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern for the social
prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is
B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 1
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are
D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______
1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task
of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the
historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team will be sent
out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost
a guarantee of a good job upon graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard
anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of work per
week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be full-time, (24) ____
part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.

Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility needed by
some individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and people who have out-of-
work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only option. Others work in part-time jobs
because they are unable to find full-time positions - and working part-time is better for them than not
working at all. In some situations, part-time employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an
hourly basis, but most employers do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid
holidays to their part-time employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific industries
that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____ the factors before
deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the USA in
1935. A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North America and
A B C
half in Canada.
D
correct answer to each of the questions.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close
relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the
US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and
their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US
supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come
forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political
interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar.
They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature, films and television. Many Americans
have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system are
based on Britain’s, and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the
Atlantic. In Britain, some people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy
of its current power. The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was
Prime Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and Mademoiselle. It's
the message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and accessory designs, on shopping
bags and totes, in advertisements and on price tags.
A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in Vogue this month,
may not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the pervasiveness of ecological themes in the
images and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is also somewhat paradoxical. The fashion industry,
whose driving philosophy involves encouraging consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is
now trying to push itself to the forefront of efforts to conserve and preserve.
The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations in designer
collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which the environmental
advantages of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy dangled from the ceiling at a
Paris fashion show; a carpet of grass covered a runway in New York; models marched along in T-shirts or
carrying signs all bearing slogans like ''Clean Up or Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental
Protection Agents.

The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where ''clothes with
conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and sportswear company based
in New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the individual's outlook toward saving the
environment'' through educational tags. This summer, the first wave of what Bonjour executives said
would be 50 million fashion items a year are to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from
how to save water to how to reduce pollutants.
Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise environmental
awareness, with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear. There is some skepticism.
Professor Ewen says the new environmental symbolism should be viewed as part of an overall change in
America's economy, from one built on industrial production of hard goods to one based on ''pure
representation”. “Going back to fashion, the environment has become a commercial cliche separated from
real concerns. What can be attached to this year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental
sanity.''
Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The green movement in the fashion world
B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.
C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.
D. Going green is the new big thing.
Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much of an irony?
A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.
B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.
C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.
D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry.
Question 40: The word “wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green fashion?
A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.
B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.
C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.
D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.
B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the garments.
C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.
D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.
Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.
Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.
A. You must have told her the truth.
B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.
-----THE END-----
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. confide B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. particular B. electrify C. fashionable D. geneticist
Question 4: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Some English words have the same pronunciation _______ they are spelled differently, for
example, dear and deer.
A. unless B. even though C. even if D. since
Question 6: WHO's objective is ___________ by all people of the highest possible level of health.
A. attainment B. approach C. advance D. acquisition
Question 7: In 1791, Pierre-Charles L' Enfant ________ plan for the new capital city at Washington.
A. had submitted B. has submitted C. was submitting D. submitted
Question 8: He did not want __________ his fears and insecurity to anyone.
A. to expose B. to be exposed C. to have exposed D. exposing
Question 9: My brother and his friend, Duong and Son, aged 15 and 16, ___________ won the first and
the third prize in the contest "Nation’s Brain.”
A. each B. respectively C. one by one D. every
Question 10: "You _____________ be thirsty! You've just drunk a lot of water.”
A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. can't D. mustn't
Question 11: The man was innocent; it was a case of mistaken ______________ .
A. identically B. identified C. identity D. identification
Question 12: This book is an __________ of a series lectures given last year.
A. expense B. extension C. addition D. expansion
Question 13: Culture shock is a feeling of confusion and anxiety that someone experiences ________
with a very different culture, especially a different country.
A. as they leave a place and go to another B. while visiting or leaving a place
C. visiting or going to live in a place D. when they visit or go to live in a place
Question 14: The police officer said two of the victims were known gang members; the other was an
innocent __________ .
A. bystander B. stander by C. standing-by D. by-standing
Question 15: This clock is always slow; I put it ___________ ten minutes every morning.
A. back B. up C. forward D. ahead
Question 16: If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job years
ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 17: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. 0
Question 18: Now that the scandal is in the ______, the Minister will have to resign.
A. string B. offing C. swing D. spring
Question 19: A strong wind spread the flames, __________?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - "Hi. You must be new here." - “_____________“
A. Yes, this is my first day on the job. B. Yes, am you surprised?
C. No, I’m very old here. D. Are you new here, too?
Question 21: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “ ___________ “
A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way. D. You are wrong. It's not here. .
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The architect was let down that his new city plan had been turned down.
A. disappointed B. satisfied C. emotional D. optimistic
Question 23: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer games will
do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a reform B. inflation C. an improvement D. a decline
Question 25: When people are angry, they seldom act in a rational way.
A. impolite B. dissatisfied C. unreasonable D. inconsiderate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 26: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
Question 27: In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being great delicacies to eat.
A B C D
Question 28: Although Mark had been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know how to prepare
A B
French foods in the traditional manner.
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Each year thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For
many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (29) ________ a strange
school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One (30)
_____________ these problems is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher
suited to their language requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher
provides the student with information about (31) ______________activities that are available locally, and
takes them on trips. Students get “Between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to
join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn how to use
the language in everyday (32) ______________. Homestay programs usually last for up to four weeks.
Although costs are higher than of regular language schools, students can feel (33) ___________ that they
will be receiving top - class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.
Question 29: A. attending B. going C. studying D. learning
Question 30: A. requirement B. answer C. argument D. reaction
Question 31: A. what B. where C. how D. why
Question 32: A. positions B. chances C. situations D. occasions
Question 33: A. confidence B. confidential C. confidently D. confident
Myriad occupational schools in the central coastal city of Da Nang have received just a small
number of applications over the past few years. “Last year we only had 142 new students, but the number
of new enrollees is 50 this school year,” Truong Van Hung, rector of the Duc Tri Da Nang Vocational
College, said, adding the school has set a target of recruiting 1,200 students for the 2014-2015 academic
year. “Closing the school is just a matter of time,” he said.
Similarly, the Viet A Vocational School in Hai Chau District in Da Nang has not recruited any
new enrollee for over one year given the absence of job opportunities for its graduates. “We do not want
to enroll because we cannot help students land jobs after they graduate,” a leader of Viet A said. “We will

only admit new students when we can have a partnership with companies who can employ our students
after they finish their studies.”
Elsewhere, vocational schools in the southern province of Dong Nai are ‘frozen’. The Dong
Nai Information Technology-Telecommunications Vocational School in the academic year of 2013-2014
enrolled only 82 students compared with a target of 1,000; the Nhon Trach Industrial Engineering
Vocational School only had 200 out of its goal of 600 students for the school year; the 26-3 Vocational
School received 150 students while they set a target of 250; and the South-Eastern Electromechanical
Vocational School only recruited 300 out of the 500 students they planned to admit.
The situation means that equipment for training programs at those schools has been left unused
and covered with rust. Local experts have commented that if the lack of students persists, vocational
schools are at high risk of being closed, sooner or later.
(Source: https://tuoitrenews.vn/)
A. Vocational schools in Vietnam struggling to survive.
B. Several principals failing to manage local schools.
C. Students turning their back at tertiary education.
D. More and more teenagers choosing to work.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, what was the attitude of the headmaster of the Duc Tri Da Nang
Vocational College?
A. He regretted not making any effort.
B. He was upset at his own incompetence.
C. He lamented the tragic plight of his school.
D. He was pleased to be able to change schools.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. companies B. students C. studies D. jobs
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the reason for the vocational schools in the southern
province of Dong Nai being ‘frozen’?
A. Because their invested money cannot return.
B. Because they do not have enough students.
C. Because they cannot pay a debt from the land rent.
D. Because the government has suddenly changed the policy.
Question 38: The word “persists” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. withstands B. sustains C. insists D. continues
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and programmes is
increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2
million people over the age of two with disabilities, making up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population.

Of those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58 per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living
in poverty. Most live in rural areas and many are victims of Agent Orange.
Minister Dung said in the past, the State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid much care to
people with disabilities. Vietnam ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of People with
Disabilities in 2014. In March this year, the country ratified the International Labour Organisation’s
Convention 159 about jobs for people with disabilities. It strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment to
ensuring the disabled would not be discriminated against at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading work on
affairs related to people with disabilities . The National Assembly later ratified the amended Law on
Labour with many adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that every year, millions of disabled
people receive an allowance from the State and all provinces and cities had rehabilitation centres.
Attending the event, Truong Thi Mai, head of the Party Central Committee’s Commission for Mass
Mobilisation, said besides the achievements, Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still
limited in demand for people with disabilities and many life below the poverty line depending heavily on
their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the meaning of
supportive work to people with disabilities. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion (US$735.4 million) from
the State budget was allocated to provinces and cities to implement policies for people with disabilities,
according to the Ministry of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs.
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme “White stick for
Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white sticks to visually impaired
people across the country. Training to use the device will also be provided. Minister of Planning and
Investment Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen to disabled people’s demands and wishes and
put them into its policies. Deputy chairwoman of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam
has committed to developing socio-economy, taking care of social equality and improving social
management ability.
(Source: https://vietnamnews.vn/)
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visually impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 40: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian
C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies towards the
disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 43: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
Question 44: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment have in mind
when launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident.
B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind.
D. Improving the overall image of the government.
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare has only gained recognition in recent years.
B. The handicapped are annually supported by the government financially and physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
B. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
C. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
D. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
Question 47: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He brought a wet blanket to the party.
B. He was wet through when going home from the party.
C. He made people at the party wet through.
D. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party.
Question 48: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive of Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: He thought he must have made a mistake somewhere. He went through his calculations
again.
A. Thinking he had made a mistake somewhere, he would go through his calculations again.
B. Thinking he must have made a mistake somewhere, he went through his calculations again.
C. He went through his calculations again before he went thought of making mistake somewhere.
D. He thought to have made a mistake somewhere and had gone through his calculations again.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive B. electronic C. ecology D. individual
Question 3: A. features B. inserts C. reveals D. destroys
Question 4: A. access B. championship C. laborer D. democratic
questions.
Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.
A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a
Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with families.
A. that B. which C. what D. whose
Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an individual
from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably
Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood looking for her car.
A. Unable to remember where she was parking B. Unable to remember where she has parked
C. Forgetting where to park D. Not remembering where she had parked
Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.
A. about B. to C. with D. of
Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.
A. would succeed B. would not have succeeded
C. would not succeed D. could have not succeeded
Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.
A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because
Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ to the health service.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of women into the workforce,
the transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least important.
A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable
Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's good to have a
proper ______________ sometimes.
A. head-to-head B. heart-to-head C. heart-to-heart D. head-to-heart
Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8 pm.
A. prime B. leading C. main D. major
Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at home today.
A. works – is working B. works – works
C. is working – works D. is working – is working
Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that would mean _______ the
house at 6.00.
A. to leave B. having left
C. leaving D. having to be leaving
Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of people all over the world.
A. is thought to have originated B. is thought to have been originated
C. thought to have originated D. thought to have originated
Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"
Mary: " ______________ "
A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles. B. Three times a week, but sometimes twice.
C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7. D. Not much, only a couple of hours every day.
Question 21: John: "___________"
Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."
A. How is your class this term?
B. How many students in your class can speak English?
C. What are you going to do this term?
D. What is the problem with your English students?
Question 22: She said to me that she had just read an interesting book which had a new approach
Shakespeare. A B C D
Question 23: From bones found in the United States, we have learned that many animals which existed no
A B C
longer in the world once made their homes there.
D
Question 24: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertisings and commercials trying to persuade the
A B C
public to buy their products.
D
Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer games will
do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage. They think
weddings are money-consuming and nonsensical.
A. do away with B. pay no attention to
C. ignore D. put an end
Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from understanding
and keeping our customs and traditions.
A. no worry about B. feel like
C. get involved in D. are unconcerned about
Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not related to
traditional values and the status.
A. conservational B. progressive C. modern D. economic
An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth. The
astronaut is able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather challenging as the
water droplets will (29)__________ around. The astronaut will also have to make to do with sponge baths.
There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which includes
beverages and food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximum of three main meals a day. The
meal varies each day until the sixth day. On that day, the menu is (31)_____________ and the astronaut
eats the meals he had on the first day. The food (32) ________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be
dehydrated, in natural form for fresh. Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed
pouches. It takes only thirty minutes to cook a delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space
mission. (33)_________, astronauts have to eat slowly and carefully or the food will float away.
Question 29: A. dive B. fall C. float D. fly
Question 30: A. board B. move C. air D. business
Question 31: A. repetition B. repeatedly C. repeating D. repeated
Question 32: A. what B. that C. whose D. 0
Question 33: A. However B. Moreover C. Instead D. In contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 34 to 38.
Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or magnitude of the
quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake zones, and so the worse the
damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and maybe an
entire city.
We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur. Until
recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing that quakes
can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says
earthquakes do follow a pattern—pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague,
Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is
true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about
every 22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment
to record activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake hit again, it was years off schedule. At
first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault,
two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two
“slips’—places where the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to
track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake does happen in
Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have
advance warning.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)
Question 34: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.
B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.
C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.
D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.
Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means ___________.
A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.
B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger zones.
C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to predict.
D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.
Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern
Question 37: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.
B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.
C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.
D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.
Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.
A. Japan and the United States B. Tokai and San Andreas
C. Parkfield and Kato D. California and Tokyo
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to
the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In
addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have
succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes
and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior
invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing
and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around,
abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone
part way back. They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases
such as whales and dugongs. Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with
their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine
habits of their remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe
air, having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles
went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air.
However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles
still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived
before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and
Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of
all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or
in water, especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian
contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they
surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by
measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects __________.
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by __________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”
A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him. B. He offered to post the letter for me.
C. He said I should post the letter myself. D. I wanted him to post the letter for me.
Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.
A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.
B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.
C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.
D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices
Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except silver, copper
and gold.
A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal as conductors
of heat and electricity.
B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.
C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum.
D. Silver, copper and gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and electricity.
Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.
A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.
B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.
C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.
D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.
Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any solutions.
A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.
B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.
C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.
D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions too.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. hostile B. hotel C. hourglass D. honest
Question 2: A. chocolate B. difference C. identity D. vegetable
Question 3: A. meet B. free C. prefer D. repeat
Question 4: A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. roughed
questions.
Question 5: Would you care for __________________ cup of tea?
A. other B. more C. one other D. one more
Question 6: John, you know what I feel for you and I’ve told you enough times, _______________?
A. don’t you B. don’t I C. doesn’t he D. haven’t I

Question 7: To become a good teacher, you have to have such a lot of ________ when you’re dealing
with kids.
A. patient B. patience C. patients D. impatience
Question 8: I think our guests will ________________.
A. be here shortly B. shortly be here C. here be shortly D. here shortly be
Question 9: We have much to ____________ today, so please concentrate.
A. discuss B. discuss about C. discuss over D. discuss with
Question 10: __________________ Tom’s opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.
A. But for B. If hadn’t it been for C. If it hadn’t had D. Hadn’t it been for
Question 11: _______________, the woman was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired though she is B. She being tired C. Despite being tired D. Though was tired
Question 12: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, the student left the classroom.
A. Having been turned off B. Turning off
C. To have turned off D. Having turned off
Question 13: The entire staff was thrown off _______ when the news of the takeover was announced.
A. stable B. balance C. composure D. disarray
Question 14: Micelle looked really sunburnt. She must have been _______________ in the sun for long.
A. screening B. wading C. swimming D. bathing
Question 15: When his parents are away for wok, his oldest brother _________.
A. is in the same boat B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. knocks it off
Question 16: I made it quite clear that I had no ________________ of selling the portrait.
A. aim B. intention C. meaning D. purpose
Question 17: By the end of this year, they _____________ on that bridge for more than a decade.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. have work
Question 18: Most educators today consider computer literacy _________ a necessary addition to the
basic scholastic requirements.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. be
Question 19: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 20: “What’s the best place to have lunch?”
-: “_________________.”
A. I’ll have a soup, please B. There’s a great restaurant at the street corner
C. I usually eat lunch at twelve there D. Twelve would be convenient for us
Question 21: “I’ve got an earache in this ear. I couldn’t sleep last night because it was so painful.”
-: “___________”
A. Let me check your temperature…. Yes, it’s higher than normal.
B. Drink lots of water and come back if you don’t feel better.
C. Let me have a look …… ah …. Yes, it’s very red in there.
D. Well, you should take this medicine twice a day. It’s good for a sore throat.
Question 22: The fire was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about
A B C
ancient civilizations.
D
Question 23: Perhaps the most distinctive features of insects and undoubtedly one of the most important
A B
reasons for their success is their quite well-developed sensory system.
C D
Question 24: Unless the money is returned, we shall shortly be contacting our lawful department.
A B C D
Question 25: He said he had never come across such a pleasing painting.
A. run into B. bump into C. cross his path D. hook up
Question 26: John was in the news during the latter part of the Watergate scandal.
A. former B. second C. eventual D. end
Question 27: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 28: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you can reach a
conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
While many behaviors and practices associated with going green are designed to save money,
there are certain ways in which green living can actually be moderately to very expensive. Much of the
technology associated with green (29) ___________provides benefits to the environment but often at a
much higher cost than their traditional counterparts. For instance, the use of solar panels can potentially
save you money on your energy bills, but they can (30) ______________ thousands of dollars to install.
Energy-efficient appliances are designed to use less electricity and water but they often come with a high
price tag.
Going green can also potentially have a negative effect on the environment. (31) ______________,
the development of alternative fuels is an innovation in the green movement in an effort to reduce reliance
on (32) ___________ natural resources. While these fuels are intended to reduce the toxic emissions
caused by the burning of traditional gasoline, they may have unintentionally caused the opposite effect.
One of these alternative fuels, E85, actually gives (33) ___________ more ozone into the atmosphere than
traditional fuel. While ozone is a natural part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere, if it becomes concentrated
in the lower atmosphere, it can potentially increase air pollution in areas where smog is a concern, which
can in turn impact the health of those living in these areas.
Question 29: A. living B. lives C. live D. lively
Question 30: A. spend B. take C. cost D. charge
Question 31: A. Such as B. However C. In addition D. For example
Question 32: A. advanced B. alternative C. nonstop D. nonrenewable
Question 33: A. out B. away C. off D. in
May 1 is marked as International Labour Day, also referred as May Day. The day celebrates
labourers and the working class. Labour Day is an annual public holiday in many countries. It is also
referred as International Workers’ Day or just Worker’s Day.
During industrialization in beginning of the 19th Century, the industrialists used to exploit the labour class
and made them work up to 15 hours a day. The workers in the U.S. rose against this exploitation and
demanded paid leaves, proper wages and breaks for the workforce. The eight-hour day labour movement
advocated eight hours for work, eight hours for recreation, and eight hours for rest. The Labour Day
annually celebrates the achievements of the workers.
The day has different story for different places. May 1 was chosen to be International Workers’
Day to commemorate the 1886 Haymarket affair in Chicago. In that year, on May 1, there was a general
strike for the eight-hour workday. On May 4, the police acted to disperse a public assembly in support of
the strike when an unidentified person threw a bomb. The police responded by firing on the workers. The
event lead to several deaths. The incident is remembered as the Haymarket affair, or the Haymarket
massacre. The place in Haymarket Square where the incident happened was designated a Chicago
Landmark in 1992.
Labour Day or May Day has been a focal point of protests by various socialist and communist
groups and is an important holiday in communist countries like China, North Korea, Cuba and the former
Soviet Union countries. In India, the first Labour day or May Day was celebrated in the year 1923. It was
the Labour Kisan Party who had organised the May Day celebrations in Chennai (then Madras).
Question 34: What is main topic of the passage?
A. The birth of the day dedicated to workers. B. Holidays that fall on Mondays.
C. Why and how Labour Day is celebrated. D. The rights of working class.
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. workforce B. Labour Day C. public holiday D. working class
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what is the origin of May Day being described?
A. Labour Day dates back to the late 1900s when the heavy industries were blooming.
B. Worker’s Day beginning was linked with the advent of class consciousness.
C. Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States.
D. Worker’s Day concept has been brewing since the dawn of capitalism.
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT correct about the incident of Haymarket?
A. Many people were killed when the police intervened by random gunfire.
B. The Haymarket tragedy inspired generations of rightist activists.
C. The Haymarket riot happened in the late 1800s in Chicago.
D. A bomb was thrown by an individual never positively identified.
Question 38: The word “focal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. permanent B. leading C. basic D. central
The World Health Organization on Wednesday declared the rapidly spreading coronavirus
outbreak a pandemic. Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus said that “We expect to see the
number of cases, the number of deaths, and the number of affected countries climb even higher.”
WHO officials had said earlier they were hesitant to call the outbreak a pandemic in case it led
governments and individuals to give up the fight. On Wednesday, they stressed that fundamental public
health interventions can still limit the spread of the virus and drive down cases even where it was
transmitting widely, as the work of authorities and communities in China, Singapore, and South Korea has
shown.
The virus, which probably originated in bats but passed to people via an as yet unrecognized
intermediary animal species, is believed to have started infecting people in Wuhan, China, in late
November or early December. Since then the virus has raced around the globe. South Korea, which has
reported nearly 8,000 cases, also appears poised to bring its outbreak under control with aggressive
measures and widespread testing. But other countries have struggled to follow the leads of China and
South Korea — a reality that has frustrated WHO officials who have exhorted the world to do everything
possible to end transmission of the virus. Tedros used the fact that 90% of the cumulative cases have been
reported in just four countries as evidence that the rest of the world still had time to prevent an explosion
of cases with action.
WHO officials also stressed that countries should be implementing a strategic combination two
types of measures. One involves trying to detect and stop known chains of transmission by isolating cases
and following and potentially quarantining their contacts. The other involves community-level steps like
social distancing and comes into play when the virus is spreading more broadly and transmission chains
can’t be tracked. Mike Ryan, the head of the WHO’s emergency program, said that the public health
interventions might not have straightforward effect, but to slow the spread of the virus. People with severe
cases can require long periods of critical care and strain the resources of hospitals. He said he was worried
about “the case load, the demand on the health workers, the dangers that come with fatigue, and
potentially shortages of personal protective equipment.”
A. Some contracted with coronavirus get very ill but most don’t.
B. What scientists still don’t know about coronavirus patients.
C. What governors are doing to tackle spreading coronavirus.
D. The WHO declares the coronavirus outbreak a pandemic.
Question 40: The word “pandemic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. epidemic B. ebullition C. epizootic D. endemic
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. outbreak B. spread C. fight D. virus
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT mentioned about the virus and its state of
spreading?
A. The WHO suggested that all countries can still change the course of this pandemic.
B. The current spreading virus is the second coronavirus to reach pandemic levels.
C. Coronavirus primitively circulates among animals but somehow spreads to human.
D. China is the assumed country of virus origin and where the disease hits the hardest.
Question 43: The word “poised” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. composed B. confident C. excited D. ready
Question 44: According to paragraph 4, what is the objective of the measures mapped out by the WHO?
A. To buy time for the invention of vaccines. B. To stop the virus sharply in its tracks.
C. To avoid an overwhelmed health system. D. To achieve the point of zero transmission.
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The WHO acknowledged that the virus will likely spread to all countries on the globe.
B. Local factors related to healthcare systems have no effect on the course of the disease.
C. Countries used to an authoritarian government is most suitable to contain the virus.
D. The pandemic is an opportunity to see the backfire of an expensive healthcare system.
Question 46: “Will you give this to Tony when you see him, please?”, he said to me.
A. He asked me if I would give that to Tony when I saw him.
B. He asked me whether I could give that to Tony when he saw me.
C. He asked me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
D. He begged me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
Question 47: All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
A. No matter how their score in the competition is, all the children will receive a prize.
B. Each children will receive a prize no matter what their score is in the competition.
C. Each children will receive a prize no matter how much their score in the competition is.
D. All the children will receive a prize whatever their score in the competition.
Question 48: What a pity! They missed the football match on TV yesterday.
A. They wish they attended the football match on TV yesterday.
B. They wish they had come the football match on TV yesterday.
C. If only they hadn’t missed the football match on TV yesterday.
D. If only they would attend the football match on TV yesterday.
Question 49: Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school. Do you know him?
A. Do you know him, Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school?
B. Do you know Mr. Watson, is a strict teacher in our school?
C. Do you know Mr. Watson, a strict teacher in our school?
D. Do you know a strict teacher in our school is Mr. Watson?
Question 50: Many people start plant-based diets. They want to improve their health.
A. Many people start plant-based diets because they want to improve their health.
B. Many people start plant-based diets although they want to improve their health.
C. Many people start plant-based diets, so they want to improve their health.
D. Many people start plant-based diets, but they want to improve their health.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. defend B. deny C. repeat D. borrow
Question 2: A. quality B. cinema C. importance D. reference
Question 3: A. health B. wealth C. breathe D. dealt
Question 4: A. plays B. travels C. seems D. thinks
questions.
Question 5: Your brother is living in HCM city, ___________?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. isn’t she D. does he
Question 6: My neighbor offered ____________ us to the airport.
A. taking B. take C. to taking D. to take
Question 7: My mother says that we__________ the party in the garden if the weather is good.
A. would have B. would have had C. will have D. will be having
Question 8: Who ___________ over the company when the manager retires?
A. took B. will take C. take D. was taking
Question 9: Everyone in the company knew that he had revealed the confidential information ,_____
nobody dared to report it.
A. so B. but C. and D. for
Question 10: It won’t be safe to use these stairs __________ .
A. before they repair them B. after they will repair them
C. when they repaired them D. until they have them repaired
Question 11: The topic is very interesting and I'd like to continue it but we're all __________ time.
A. on B. out of C. off D. up
Question 12: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution __________ health problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is seriously caused
Question 13: We were banned from entering this area for _____________ reasons.
A. secure B. security C. securely D. securities
Question 14: Daddy, how can I ___________ so little money? Please send me some more money.
A. get through B. get over C. get by on D. get by
Question 15: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young men stood up and _______
room for her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 16: There's a shortage of cheap accommodation in this city of five million __________.
A. citizens B. dwellers C. inhabitants D. residents
Question 17: Farmers ___________ into big cities to find work when the harvest time is up.
A. migrate B. emigrate C. immigrate D. stuff
Question 18: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the ______of death.
A. scary B. fear C. dream D. threat
Question 19: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 20: - “Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.”
- “_____________”
A. Do you really like it, sir? B. Here you are, sir.
C. But you don’t need it, sir D. Yes, sure. Thank you.
Question 21: - “I’m sorry, I’m late.” - “____________”
A. You are welcome
B. No, I don’t mind
C. All right. The early bird catches the worm!
D. No worries. Better late than never.
Question 22: Athletics were his favourite sport when he was young.
A B C D
Question 23: When I was a little girl, I used to play hide-and-seek, making toys and draw pictures.
A B C D
Question 24: The treatment for people addictive to tranquillizers includes training in stress management
A B C
and relaxation techniques.
D
Question 25: Physical barriers can be a range of things, such as speech impairments which affect the
ability of a person to communicate.
A. talk B. skill C. dialogue D. language
Question 26: When Tom revealed that Peter was secretly planning to quit his job, he upset the apple cart
for Peter, who wanted nobody to know of his plans.
A. ruined carefully laid plans B. caused trouble
C. spoil secretly laid plans D. object to the plan
Question 27: Passing this important English test was such a boost to my confidence.
A. inefficiency B. disability C. untruth D. uncertainty
Question 28. Being self-reliant means that you are able to do or decide things by yourself, rather than
depending on other people for help.
A. decisive B. selfish C. reliable D. dependent
Father's Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother's Day (29)________ honors
mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and paternal bonds; it highlights the
(30)___________ of fathers in society. Many countries celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is
also celebrated widely on other days. Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the
celebration of male parenting. Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single
parent who (31) ________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in
1909, she told her pastor that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she initially
suggested June 5, her father's birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to prepare their sermons, and
the celebration was deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first celebration was in Spokane,
Washington at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association) on June 19, 1910. Since then it has
become a traditional day (32) ________ year.
In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a party celebrating
male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (33) _______, schools help children
prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the celebration.
Question 29: A. which B. when C. who D. where

Question 30: A. conquest B. impact C. influence D. effect
Question 31: A. realized B. raised C. took D. made
Question 32: A. another B. other C. any D. every
Question 33: A. Besides B. In contrast C. However D. Then
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once you are in
the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard to slow down. But
relaxation is essential for a healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the bad thing it
is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation and give purpose to life.
It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual. Some people
are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for managerial responsibilities.
Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When exposed to stress in whatever form, we
react both chemically and physically. In fact we make choice between “fight” or “flight”, and in more
primitive days the choice made the difference between life or death. The crises we meet today are not
likely to be so extreme, but however little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a
reaction lasts long, through continued exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious
conditions as high blood pressure and heart disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot
remove stress from our lives (and it would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find ways to
deal with it.
Question 34: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because __________.
A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
B. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
C. they are travelling fast all the time
D. they are becoming busier their work
Question 35: According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his _______.
A. not fearing stress B. high sense of responsibility
C. knowing the art of relaxation D. having control over performance
Question 36: Which of the following statements is true?
A. We can find some ways to avoid stress
B. Stress is always harmful to people
C. It’s easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work
D. Different people can withstand different amounts of stress
Question 37: In paragraph 3, “such a reaction” refers back to__________.
A. making a choice between “fight” or “flight”
B. reaction to stress both chemically and physically
C. responding to crises quickly
D. losing heart at the signs of difficulties
Question 38. In the last sentence of the passage, “do so” refers to _________.
A. expose ourselves to stress B. find ways to deal with stress
C. remove stress from our lives D. establish links between diseases and stress
The Socialist Republic of Vietnam has stood out as one such example of how to effectively
respond to the pandemic. Vietnam, which shares a border with China and is about 1,200 miles from where
the outbreak was first reported in Wuhan, has overcome steep odds in the global fight against COVID-19.
As of April 6, the Vietnamese government has reported 245 confirmed cases with 95 recoveries and no
fatalities.
The country’s response to the outbreak has received international recognition, including from the
World Health Organization and World Economic Forum, for its comprehensive, low-cost model of
disease prevention. WHO representative in Vietnam, Dr. Ki Dong Park, attests the government “has
always been proactive and prepared for necessary actions”.
The Communist Party of Vietnam has strengthened its anti-pandemic measures by implementing
nationwide social distancing rules, such as banning outside gatherings of more than two people while
keeping a distance of 6.5 feet, and temporary shutdowns of “non-essential” businesses, including
restaurants, entertainment centers and tourist sites.
Supermarkets and other essential services remain open, but are instructed to safeguard customers’
health by checking their temperatures before entering the building and providing them with hand
sanitizers. In addition, the government has warned against panic buying and has taken action against
businesses engaged in price gouging. To ensure social security for affected workers, Vietnam has
approved a 111.55 million dollar financial support package that includes covering all costs for workers in
quarantine or are recovering from the disease.
Unlike the U.S. capitalist class and the Trump administration, the Vietnamese government took
early measures to combat the current coronavirus epidemic. Officials began preparing strategies to combat
the outbreak immediately after the first cases emerged in China.
On February 1, Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc signed Decision No.173.QD-TTG,
categorizing the virus as a Class A contagious disease “that can transmit very rapidly and spread widely
with high mortality rates.” This declaration of a national emergency came after the sixth case of
coronavirus in the country was reported. In contrast, the Trump administration only declared a national
emergency over the global pandemic on March 13, when there were at least 1,920 confirmed cases across
46 states.
(Adapted from https://vietnaminsider.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vietnam and the U.S in the campaign to combat the pandemic.
B. Why has no one in Vietnam died of COVID 19?
C. How does the pandemic affect Vietnam’s society?
D. The international recognition for Vietnam’s response to COVID 19.
Question 40: Vietnam’s reaction to the epidemic was acknowledged as a ____________ by the WHO and
WEF.
A. comprehensible and economical model of disease prevention
B. perfect and expensive model of disease prevention
C. complete and inexpensive example of disease prevention
D. incomplete and luxurious example of disease prevention
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure to the pandemic in Vietnam?
A. prohibiting outside gatherings
B. keeping a distance of 6.5 feet
C. closing unnecessary businesses permanently
D. warning inhabitants against panic buying
Question 42: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. supermarkets’ B. customers’ C. governments’ D. essential services’
Question 43: The word “gouging” in the fourth paragraph most probably means ____________.
A. rising B. reducing C. stabilizing D. remaining
Question 44: The word “contagious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. dangerous B. fatal C. hazardous D. infectious
Question 45: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Vietnam implemented the measures to push back the outbreak after the first cases emerged in China.
B. The Trump administration declared a national emergency over the global pandemic earlier than the
Vietnamese government did.
C. Vietnam has become the country that combats the epidemic most effectively.
D. The strategies to deal with the disease of Vietnam and the U.S are familiar.
Question 46: You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 47: “Please don't tell anyone what happened," he said to me.
A. He said to me please don't tell anyone what happened.
B. He told me didn't tell anyone what had happened.
C. He said me not to tell anyone what happened.
D. He told me not to tell anyone what had happened.
Question 48: China is the country with the largest population.
A. China is larger than any other country.
B. China has more population than any other country.
C. China is as crowded as other countries.
D. Other countries are more crowded than China.
Question 49: He was an incompetent director. The company lost a lot of money.
A. If he were an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t lose a lot of money.
B. If it hadn’t been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
C. If he had been an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
D. Had it been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
Question 50: Spring hasn’t come. We can’t see the blooming flowers.
A. Only when spring has come can we see the blooming flowers.
B. Only when spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
C. Only after spring has come we can see the blooming flowers
D. Only if spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. admit B. reply C. cancel D. discuss
Question 2: A. information B. comparative C. economic D. independence
Question 3: A. control B. unfold C. record D. hold
Question 4: A. hopes B. changes C. cakes D. hates
questions.
Question 5: You have to leave early, ___________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. have you D. do you
Question 6: Barney stopped ____________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 7: We ____________ for three hours straight! Where’s the bus?
A. have been waiting B. had been waiting C. has been waiting D. has waited
Question 8: ______________ some assistance with your essay, feel free to ring me up.
A. Were you to need B. Had you needed
C. Should you need D. Will you need
Question 9: Kate Bouman is ______ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take _______ first
ever image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 10: Mathematics, ____ by many students as a difficult subject, is actually very fascinating.
A. which are considered B. considered
C. considering D. to be considered
Question 11: My father’s company, which has its base _______ Ho Chi Minh city, plans to set up an
office in Quang Binh.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 12: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be ______________.
A. reduced B. deducted C. deduced D. distracted
Question 13: Although his first book was a roaring success, his later ones never really __________.
A. took in B. took on C. took up D. took off
Question 14: _______________, she was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Because the woman was tired B. When the woman was tired
C. Despite tired D. Tired though the woman was
Question 15: It is important that Mike ___________ a training course if he wants to participate in scuba-
diving.
A. make B. hold C. take D. has
Question 16: One of the _________ related to weddings is that the bride should wear something blue.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. superstitions
Question 17: The Hurricane laid ___________ to the entire village and left the villagers homeless.
A. waste B. rubbish C. garbage D. trash
Question 18: Indonesia got off to a ____________ start with a goal in the first half, but Vietnam still won
the match in the end.
A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking
Question 19: We couldn’t find the hotel _________ we used google map.
A. so B. but C. and D. if
Question 20: Tony and Steve are friends. They have just finished dinner in a restaurant.
- Tony: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
- Steve: “ _________________”
A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. It’s nothing
C. No, it is on me. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 21: Stark goes to the bank for a money change.
- Stark: “Do you have a change for a 100-dollar note, please?”
- Bank clerk: “___________”
A. What kind of money do you want? B. How much money do you want?
C. How do you want your money? D. How many notes do you want?
Question 22: Jonas, along with his friend Joseph, are travelling to Portland next week .
A B C D
Question 23: In the 1980s, actress Sarah Bernhardt made an important attribution to the role of Lady
A
Macbeth when she displayed an overt sensuality that has been stressed by her twentieth-century successors.
B C D
Question 24: How does the organization address the problems identified and found out the best
A B C
solution to them.
D
Question 25: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise
Question 26: When I came across him in front of the office, he was conspicuous as usual with a big
yellow bow tie.
A. easily seen B. popular C. unnoticeable D. open
Question 27: Some research has shown that acupuncture might help with the alleviation of headaches
and migraines.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Question 28: If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green fingers.
A. make plants grow well B. bad at doing the gardening
C. lack skills in gardening D. don’t have a good head for gardening
Like high schools, American colleges are sometimes criticized for discarding required courses and
offering too (29)____________ electives. In the mid-1980s, the Association of American Colleges issued
a report that called for teaching a body of common knowledge to all college students. A similar report,
“Involvement in Learning,” issued by the National Institute of Education, concluded that the college
curriculum had become “excessively work-related”. The report also (30) __________ that college
education may no longer be developing in students “the shared values and knowledge” that traditionally
bind Americans together.

These reports coincided with a trend away from the liberal arts. (31)____________, students were
choosing major fields designed to prepare them for specific jobs. In 1992, 51 percent of the bachelor’s
degrees were conferred in the fields of business and management, communications, computer and
sciences, education, engineering, and health sciences.
This trend raises questions (32)___________ apply to the educational philosophy of all
industrialized countries. In an age of technological breakthroughs and highly specialized disciplines, is
there still a need for the generalist with a broad background and well-developed abilities to reason and
communicate? And if the answer to that question is yes, should society take steps to encourage its colleges
and universities to produce more such generalists? Like their (33) ____________ in other countries,
American educators continue to debate these questions.
(Adapted from http://usa.usembassy.de/etexts/factover/ch6.htm)
Question 29: A. a lot of B. many C. lots of D. a great many
Question 30: A. threatened B. urged C. warned D. expected
Question 31: A. alternatively B. consequently C. additionally D. frequently
Question 32: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Question 33: A. friends B. supporters C. counterparts D. opponents
Australia is suffering from one of its worst fire seasons in history, with more than two dozen
people killed, thousands of homes destroyed, and millions of acres burned so far. Unfortunately, fires like
this, exacerbated by the effects of climate change, will likely rage again, but Australia’s government can
take steps to minimize their destruction.
With warming temperatures, Australia will face longer fire seasons. To reduce future damage,
governments at all levels must act. Areas of focus should include enhancing early warning systems and
fire prediction capabilities; launching public awareness campaigns on the dangers posed by climate-fueled
bushfires and necessary prevention measures; conducting more controlled burns; and developing more
stringent building codes that address climate risk.
At the state and local levels, communities need to professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders about the changing
characteristics of bushfires. And, once this fire season subsides, states should oversee how and where
rebuilding occurs, including restricting redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
(Adapted from https://www.cfr.org/)
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Australia’s measures to reduce the forest fires’ damage
B. The harmful effects of the Australia’s forest fires
C. The causes of forest fires in Australia
D. How Australia reconstructs the forests
Question 35: The word “rage” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stop B. spread C. change D. maintain
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT the solution taken by the
Australia’s government?
A. improving early warning systems and fire prediction capabilities
B. raising public awareness of the dangers of bushfires and essential prevention measures
C. limiting the number of controlled burns
D. developing more stringent building codes to address climate risk.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________________.
A. local levels B. communities
C. firefighting capabilities D. local leaders
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 3, what should the states do to decrease the effects of the fires
after this fire season?
A. They should professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
B. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders.
C. They should take steps to minimize their destruction.
D. They should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting redevelopment of
particularly fire-prone areas.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest victims. While
they have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of COVID-19 - at least to date – the
crisis is having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are
being affected, in particular by the socio-economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures
that may inadvertently do more harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the
impact will be lifelong. Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally.
They are expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest
neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis: infection with the
virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop transmission of the virus and end
the pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of delayed implementation of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children could fall
into extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386 million children already
in extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed countrywide school closures, affecting more than
1.5 billion children and youth. The potential losses that may accrue in learning for today’s young
generation, and for the development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of
countries have introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the
share is only 30 percent. Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young people were already
digitally excluded.

Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children witnessing or
suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those living in unsanitary and
crowded conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at considerable risk. Children’s reliance
on online platforms for distance learning has also increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content
and online predators.
(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/
Question 39: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 41: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful to children.
C. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year.
D. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the pandemic.
Question 43: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 44: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the pandemic_______________.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
B. children have more risks than adults.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. most children don’t want to learn online.
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on children,
EXCEPT _____________.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Question 46: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 47: “I was just getting into the shower when the phone rang." he said to me.
A. He said to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
B. He told me he had just been getting into the shower when the phone had rung.
C. He said to me that he had just been getting into the shower when the phone rang.
D. He told to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
Question 48: Though my bag may be cheaper than Lucas’s, it is bigger and more attractive.
A. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not so big and attractive as mine.
B. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not bigger and attractive than mine.
C. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not as big and attractive as mine.
D. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not bigger or more attractive than mine.
Question 49: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week.
A. Were Collin good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week.
B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week.
C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week.
D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week.
Question 50: She decided to move to the city. She didn’t bring any money with her.
A. No money with her did she decide to move to the city.
B. Not money did she bring with her, she decided to move to the city.
C. Not a penny did she bring with her when she decided to move to the city.
D. Not a penny she brought with her did she decide to move to the city.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. mental B. dental C. canal D. nasal
Question 2: A. television B. informative C. employee D. responsible
Question 3: A. book B. foot C. moon D. wood
Question 4: A. hatred B. naked C. hacked D. sacred
questions.
Question 5: You are very unhappy with the service, _________?
A. aren’t you B. are you C. won’t you D. have you
Question 6: His parents suggested _____________ a break from studying.
A. having B. him to have C. he have D. that he had
Question 7: By the time my brother went to bed last night, he _____________ his homework
A. has already finished B. will have already finished
C. had already finished D. were already finishing
Question 8: Had they listened to their parents’ advice, they _____________ happier now.
A. would be B. am C. will be D. would have been
Question 9: It’s believed that __________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of damage to our
environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 10: I am not a selfish man ___________ in the past of my girlfriend.
A. interested B. interesting C. who interests D. to interest
Question 11: My brother is a very industrious student who spent the past few months doing research
________ the library.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: I would like to take this opportunity to _________ my gratitude for your ongoing support.
A. extend B. expand C. enlarge D. broaden
Question 13: My petrol tank was empty so I pulled into a garage to ____________.
A. fill up B. top up C. speed up D. blow up
Question 14: Mary has applied for a lot of jobs recently, which suggests ___________ her present job.
A. that she not be altogether satisfied with B. that she’s not altogether satisfied with
C. she doesn’t altogether satisfy D. that she not altogether satisfy
Question 15: On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she __________ into tears.
A. burst B. break C. run D. set
Question 16: She was very ____________, and brought me at least fifteen pairs of shoes to try on.
A. obliged B. obliging C. obligated D. obligatory
Question 17: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into___________.
A. influence B. impact C. effect D. affect
Question 18: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ____________.
A. head B. hairs C. eyes D. mouth
Question 19: ____________ John’s being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Question 20: - “What a gorgeous make-up style you have got, Jane!”
- “___________________.”
A. I am afraid not. B. You are telling a joke.
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don’t like your sayings
Question 21: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
- “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.

Question 22: Not only the students but also the teacher feel that the school should offer computer classes.
A B C D
Question 23: My friend decided to change his life by moving abroad and set up his new company.
A B C D
Question 24: Look out! The frightening horse may injure you, so you’d better not play near it.
A B C D
Question 25: This national event not only helps enhance city’s reputation but also brings happiness and
fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 26: Who knows how many different chemicals there are in our water, mixing and forming all
kinds of deadly compounds.
A. important B. ghostly C. avoidable D. fatal
Question 27: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 28: During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincidence with a dramatic rise in the
popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business.
A. like hot cakes B. like a streak of lightning
C. like you need a hole in the head D. like a cat on a hot tin roof
There have never been so (29)___________ people living in cities in quake zones because the
worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and
maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will
occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing
that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun
Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a (30)__________ —pressure builds in a zone and must be released.
But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it
breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about
every 22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up
equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. (31)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years
of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the
bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show
there were two “slips’—places (32)_______ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the
quakes occurred.

We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to
track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (33)_______
in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have
advance warning.
Question 29: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 30: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 31: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 32: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 33: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-in-ten say
they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or suburban areas to say
they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily interact with their neighbors more than
their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the case in
suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a neighbor they
would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a neighbor they
would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that they have lived in their
community for less than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys.
Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in their community for six or more years and 47% of those who
have done so for one to five years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters
to say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than those in
cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity. Suburbanites are
somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their neighbors are the same social
class as they are, while relatively few across community types say all or most of their neighbors share
their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 34: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas wouldn’t have
enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 36: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 37: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________.
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 38: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and suburban
counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
While the debate regarding how much screen time is appropriate for children rages on among
educators, psychologists, and parents, it’s another emerging technology in the form of artificial
intelligence and machine learning that is beginning to alter education tools and institutions and changing
what the future might look like in education. It is expected that artificial intelligence in U.S. education will
grow by 47.5% from 2017-2021 according to the Artificial Intelligence Market in the US Education
Sector report. Even though most experts believe the critical presence of teachers is irreplaceable, there
will be many changes to a teacher’s job and to educational best practices.
AI has already been applied to education primarily in some tools that help develop skills and
testing systems. As AI educational solutions continue to mature, the hope is that AI can help fill needs
gaps in learning and teaching and allow schools and teachers to do more than ever before. AI can drive
efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks to allow teachers the time and freedom to provide
understanding and adaptability—uniquely human capabilities where machines would struggle. By
leveraging the best attributes of machines and teachers, the vision for AI in education is one where they
work together for the best outcome for students. Since the students of today will need to work in a future
where AI is the reality, it’s important that our educational institutions expose students to and use the
technology.
Artificial intelligence tools can help make global classrooms available to all including those who
speak different languages or who might have visual or hearing impairments. Presentation Translator is a
free plug-in for PowerPoint that creates subtitles in real time for what the teacher is saying. This also
opens up possibilities for students who might not be able to attend school due to illness or who require
learning at a different level or on a particular subject that isn’t available in their own school. AI can help
break down silos between schools and between traditional grade levels.
(Adapted from https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
A. The roles of teachers in the time of technology
B. Is AI appropriate for students using in classrooms?
C. How AI is used in education
D. What AI tools are used in the classrooms
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. AI B. education C. some tools D. testing systems
Question 41: The word “mature” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. improve B. replace C. change D. decrease
Question 42: According to paragraph 2, what can AI do to help teachers in the classrooms?
A. It can work to give the best outcome for students.
B. It can urge the students to get familiar to the technology before working in the future.
C. It can help teachers to control the class more effectively.
D. It can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks.
Question 43: The following are the benefits of Presentation Translator mentioned in paragraph 3,
EXCEPT ___________.
A. creating subtitles in real time for what is being said in the lessons
B. giving chance for the students to follow the lessons without attending school because of sickness
C. allowing students to learn the particular subject unavailable at their own school
D. providing opportunities for students to learn different languages
Question 44: The phrase “break down” in the last paragraph most probably means __________.
A. maintain B. stop C. develop D. implement
A. The blind and the deaf are able to join the class with the help of AI tools.
B. The use of AI in education in the United States will reach the peak in the near future.
C. Experts believe that teachers will lose their presence in classroom by AI.
D. Students can work together to have good results of the job.
Question 46: Diana is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. Diana is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
B. I have never met a more intelligent woman than Diana.
C. Diana is more intelligent than any women I ever met.
D. This is the first time I have met such an intelligent woman as Diana.
Question 47: “Why were you absent from the class yesterday?” The teacher said to Andrew.
A. The teacher wondered why Andrew has been absent from the class the day before.
B. The teacher told Andrew why had he been absent from the class the previous day.
C. The teacher wanted to know why Andrew was absent from the class the previous day.
D. The teacher asked Andrew why he had been absent from the class the day before.
Question 48: It’s almost impossible for us to get them to agree on anything.
A. We can’t have got them to agree on anything.
B. We can’t get them to agree on anything.
C. We mustn’t get them to agree on anything.
D. We needn’t have got them to agree on anything.
Question 49: You can choose your favorite university. Make sure that it is suitable for your ability.
A. You can’t choose your favorite university if it is suitable for your ability.
B. You can’t choose your favorite university in case it is suitable for your ability.
C. You can choose your favorite university unless it is suitable for your ability.
D. You can choose your favorite university provided it is suitable for your ability.
Question 50: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. angry B. climate C. upset D. footprint
Question 2: A. vulnerable B. psychologist C. society D. responsible
Question 3: A. breath B. health C. heart D. head
Question 4: A. motivated B. flooded C. wicked D. looked
questions.
Question 5: I am not a good husband, __________?
A. am I B. aren’t I C. are I D. isn’t I
Question 6: They claim that advertising encourages _________ three times higher than the average
consumption.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. purchase D. to purchasing
Question 7: He has just said that my piano playing ___________ on since he last _________me play.
A. had really come/ heard B. had really come/ had heard
C. has really come/ heard D. has really come/ had heard
Question 8: If I _________ rich, I ___________ the shoes we saw at the shopping mall yesterday.
A. were/would buy B. had been/would have bought
C. were/would have bought D. had been/would buy
Question 9: He politely asked me to pass _______ salt and ________pepper.
A. a/the B. the/a C. the/0 D. 0/0
Question 10: Boys! Put away all the toys ___________ at the bottom of the wardrobe.
A. which lied B. lay C. lying D. that are lain
Question 11: I saw some boys swimming _________ the river this afternoon.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: The government decided to close the frontiers off with a view to ________ the disease.
A. containing B. holding C. including D. comprising
Question 13: There was an accident on the highway, ___________ traffic.
A. putting off B. holding off on C. holding up D. holding over
Question 14: He will drop you a line _____________.
A. providing he settled down in his new house B. as soon as he has settled down in his new house
C. when he settled down in his new house D. till he settles down in his new house
Question 15: The teacher ___________ an example of Tom to the class for cheating in the exam.
A. set B. followed C. made D. gave
Question 16: The doctor warned us not to let other family members share towels because the infection is
highly____________.
A. contagion B. contagious C. contagiously D. contagions
Question 17: Thanks to __________ provision, many women who wish to work are capable of doing so.
A. childbearing B. childrearing C. childcare D. child-centred
Question 18: The poor mother was forced to have her baby adopted, __________herself.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 19: He shouldn’t have hurt her feelings, ___________.
A. any way you slice it B. be that as it may
C. with the best will in the world D. never mind that
Question 20: Two colleagues are talking with each other:
A: “Your day was just like mine.”
B: “_______________.”
A. So was I. B. It is sure.
C. Of course it was. We work together! D. We have to work for 30 years!
Question 21: A: “Sometimes I wish I was back to school.”
B: “__________________________.”
A. Me, too. School was fun. B. I thought school was hard.
C. Me, too. I couldn’t wait to graduate. D. Life is hard.
Question 22: Playing cards is most commonly used for playing card games as well as for fortune-telling.
A B C D
Question 23: Every morning, we make our bed, eating breakfast, feed the dog and do exercise.
A B C D
Question 24: My boss is the person who is so bored a man that no one wants to work with him.
A B C D
Question 25: Although Mr. Anderson is very rich, in fact he is a millionaire, he lives in a small house in
the suburbs.
A. resides B. relaxes C. experiments D. employs
Question 26: In twenty years’ time, the food supplies will be so scarce for some countries that people
will start immigrating in huge numbers.
A. in short supply B. in large number
C. abundant and nutritious D. nourishing but limited
Question 27: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no one heard
anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 28: The country’s infrastructure is in poor condition and needs to be upgraded.
A. improved B. repaired C. examined D. deteriorated
Each family forms its own set of values and decides what is most important to them. Discipline
also varies among families. Families have different ways of dealing with different issues. In some
families, one or both parents make all the decisions with no (29)________from the children, while other
families may encourage input from all family members before decisions are made. Perhaps you know of a
family (30)_______ there is equal decision making among family members.
There is no one family style for everyone. A family’s style develops based on each family’s
individual situation and the values they care about. (31)_______, your family may be laid-back, while
another family is very active and hurried. Many different ways of living together can work. What makes a
family strong is not just (32)__________ of people in it, whether its members are related, or their pace of
life; people caring for one another and sharing their lives is what really matters.
Many families also share faiths such as religious activities with one another. As a Scout, part of
your duty is to do your best to make your family strong and help your family thrive. By doing this, you are
helping to lay the (33)__________ for a stronger community and society.
Question 29: A. import B. export C. output D. input
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 31: A. For instance B. Such as C. In other words D. Furthermore
Question 32: A. a number B. most C. the number D. amount
Question 33: A. base B. background C. ground D. groundwork
When it comes to discussing AI and the future of work we exhale in relief when someone says
machines will have a hard time replacing us. This statement is backed by the argument that most AI
systems are ‘narrow’. AI systems only do one thing but do it really well, for example, predicting what you
want to watch on Netflix. If you ask the same system to make you a cup of coffee or drive your car, you’re
likely to be disappointed.
But what happens when the AI system can perform the most significant tasks that a job entails?
One interesting example we found came from the fashion industry, where a company had implemented

two AI systems to produce novel designs. Together, they did all work and the human’s role was only to
surveil the work.
Research published earlier this year coined the term ‘Shadow Learning’. As explained in the
Harvard Business Review article titled ‘Learning to work with intelligent machines’, the researcher
studied the challenges new surgeons faced when learning robotic surgery skills. Previously, they learned
how to perform surgery by working alongside expert surgeons, but now they’re forced to watch over the
surgeon’s shoulder as, thanks to robotics, individuals can handle entire surgeries with one pair of hands.
The term, however, does not mean that you learn by shadowing someone. The phrase refers to students
who gained experience with robotic tools by taking it upon themselves to acquire new skills outside of the
curriculum.
If we look beyond the current discussion of AI and the future of work – which usually revolves
around the number of jobs that will be impacted by AI – we can focus on how to create inspiring new
ways to work with machines.
(Source: https://www.ericsson.com/)
A. AI and the future of work. B. Finding the sweet spot of trust.
C. Overreliance on AI systems. D. Ensure that work remains meaningful.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, why should we not worry about AI snatching away our jobs?
A. Because creating something new and unique is an ability exclusive to humans.
B. Because nothing can replace the caring and empathy that a live person can extend.
C. Because AI can take over certain tasks, but possibly not entire multidisciplinary roles.
D. Because AI cannot proactively find and start new tasks without some sort of prompt.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. designs B. systems C. tasks D. students
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem for surgical apprentices in the time of AI
universality?
A. Offer of exposure to new technologies would be used as recruiting strategy.
B. There would be fewer hands-on learning opportunities for the students.
C. Ability to work individually, however brilliantly, would not give a competitive edge.
D. The students could advance only by upstaging other people around them.
Question 38: The word “revolves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. spins B. worries C. muses D. pivots
Stephen Cameron, Vietnam’s patient number 91, has recovered from COVID-19 and is returning
home today (July 12th). The symbol of Vietnam’s pandemic success, as referred to by Reuters (the ABC
news), will be accompanied by a team of doctors during the flight to London.
The 43-year-old Scot, arriving in Vietnam in early March, was tested positive for COVID-19 only
three days after his first flight for Vietnam Airlines, following a visit to a bar in Ho Chi Minh City that
became a coronavirus outbreak. Cameron’s illness and the highly publicized efforts of Vietnam’s doctors
to save him became a symbol in Vietnam of the country’s successful fight against the virus, as reported by
Reuters.
The ABC news recognized Vietnam’s huge efforts to save the man, who had been critically ill and
spent 65 days on life support. Doctors said at one point they considered a lung transplant as the man’s
lungs were 90% damaged and non-functional. With the vast majority of Vietnam’s COVID-19 patients
already recovered, the news of a potential first death prompted a national outpouring of support, with
dozens of people coming forward as potential lung donors.
However, like a miracle, after he woke from a coma at the end of May, there were small signs of
improvement – a thumbs-up sign for an attentive doctor, a trip on to the balcony to catch some sunshine
and a video of him holding a Motherwell football club scarf aloft. Every little progress was closely
followed by the media and attracted great attention.
“The patient’s recovery has been like a very long flight” – Dr. Tran Thanh Linh, the deputy head
of the ICU ward at Cho Ray Hospital, said during a meeting between hospital officials, the British
Consulate and Vietnam Airlines representatives just before Cameron’s discharge – the Washing Post
reported. “All of the health workers are overwhelmed with joy to see him fully recovered and being
discharged from the hospital today.”
The UK’s Daily Mail quoted Mr Cameron: “I’m overwhelmed by the generosity of the Vietnamese
people, the dedication and professionalism of the doctors and nurses working at Cho Ray Hospital. I’m
going home with a happy heart because I’m going home, but it is sad that I’m leaving so many people
here that I’m friends with”.
Vietnam has reported 370 coronavirus cases with no local transmitted infection for nearly three
months. All recent cases are people who were infected abroad and had been under compulsory quarantine
upon their arrival in Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://vietnamtimes.org.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Patient 91: “Miracle” Flight Heading Home
B. The COVID-19 British Pilot –A Great Man
C. The Progress of Vietnam’s Medicine in COVID-19
D. Patient 91: The Pride of Vietnamese Doctors
Question 40: The word “accompanied” in the first paragraph most probably means ________.
A. gone through with B. warmly welcomed C. out of control D. under the care of
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the 43-year-old Scot B. his first flight C. a bar D. Ho Chi Minh city
Question 42: The word “critically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. extremely important B. seriously C. censoriously D. essentially
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the Patient 91?
A. This is the first Stephen Cameron’s flight to Vietnam as a pilot for Vietnam Airlines.
B. His lungs got over nine tenths of functions and need transplanting.
C. More than ten people all over the country volunteer to donate their lung for the British pilot.
D. A lot of people closely followed his every little improvement after a coma.
Question 44: As mentioned in Cameron’s quotation on the UK’s Daily Mail, how does he feel when
leaving Vietnam for home?
A. devoted B. nostalgic C. heart-breaking D. providential
Question 45: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. The plane getting patient 91 home became a symbol of Vietnam’s success in fighting against COVID-19.
B. The pilot’s recovery made people in all over the world joyful.
C. The 43-year-old Scot feels quite lucky to be treated in Vietnam.
D. There are still new cases tested positive for COVID-19 in Vietnam.
Question 46: Jane is less orderly than her roommate.
A. Jane’s roommate is less orderly than she is. B. Jane is not as orderly as her roommate.
C. Jane’s roommate is not as orderly as she is. D. Jane is more orderly than her roommate.
Question 47: I’m sure this isn’t the type of house that Tom is looking for.
A. This can’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
B. This mustn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
C. This shouldn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
D. This can’t have been the type of house that Tom is looking for.
Question 48: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 49: Covid-19 is highly contagious. Over eight million people have been infected worldwide.
A. So contagious Covid-19 is that over eight million people have been infected worldwide.
B. Such is the contagious disease that Covid-19 had infected over eight million people worldwide.
C. Only when over eight million people have been infected worldwide is Covid-19 so contagious.
D. Covid-19 is so contagious a disease that it has infected over eight million people worldwide.
Question 50: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. thinks B. seems C. plays D. sends
Question 2: A. blind B. kind C. right D. chilly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. usual B. pretty C. canal D. listen
Question 4: A. marriage B. supportive C. musical D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 5: Your father won’t let you go out with me anymore, _________?
A. is he B. will he C. can he D. won’t he
Question 6: Believe me! There will be ______ few problems with that car as it’s quite new.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: We spent our long holiday ___________ the sea last summer.
A. by B. in C. at D. on
Question 8: She denied ________ in the exam.
A. to cheat B. cheating C. being cheated D. having cheat
Question 9: If I _______ you earlier, you could be my husband now.
A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met
Question 10: There __________ many changes in my village since they built a new bridge.
A. has been B. are C. had been D. have been
Question 11: ___________ applying for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. Although B. In spite of C. Because D. Because of
Question 12: He won’t get married _____________.
A. when he has a distinguished career B. as soon as he had had a distinguished career
C. until he had a distinguished career D. till he has a distinguished career
Question 13: The people ________ the virus must be isolated to prevent its spread.
A. who were caught B. catching C. caught D. catch
Question 14: According to some sources of ________information, his father will be elected to be the
headmaster next year.
A. reliant B. reliability C. rely D. reliable
Question 15: When he _________ from Jimmy as head of department last year, he had to deal with many
financial problems.
A. took on B. took over C. took up D. took in
Question 16: I ____________ the impression that he was lying to all of us.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
Question 17: According to the __________of this game, you mustn’t touch the ball with both hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 18: Regardless of the law, there are practices that __________against women and in favor of
men
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. differentiate D. dissociate
Question 19: His mother had a _________ when his teacher said that he had played truant many times.
A. bee B. cow C. buffalo D. deer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 20: The impact of increased urbanization has been harmful to the environment and has led to
the growth of greenhouse gas emissions
A. detrimental B. beneficial C. advantageous D. favorable
Question 21: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5 years. Likewise,
that in school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because trees can prevent land erosion, afforestation projects should be launched steadily.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. forestation D. deforestation
Question 23: The reality is the economy is hitting the ceiling and the growth rate must slow.
A. is reaching the highest limit B. is becoming extremely angry
C. is reaching the smallest level D. is keeping calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 24: David and Anna are talking about joining a club.
- Anna: “How about this advertisement? Are you interested in acting?”
- David: “_________________.”
A. You’re joking. I hate standing in front of people. B. Yes, I’d love to. I like the poster the most.
C. Oh no. I’m not a liar. I’m an honest person. D. Never mind. Let’s go to the cinema tonight.
Question 25: Jack and Jill are going to school together.
- Jack: “________________”
- Jill: “Relax. It doesn’t start until quarter past seven. It’s only five past.”
A. Where are you going? B. I’m anxious about the exam.
C. We are going to be late. D. Sorry. I forgot your address.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
As the Covid-19 pandemic is becoming more complicated, resulting in a (26) __________school
break for all students in Vietnam, many schools turn to the e-learning method as a sensible alternative.
Vietnam Posts and Telecommunications Group (VNPT) is providing educational institutes in (27) ______
areas with its E-Learning platform at no cost until the end of the academic year 2019-2020. Teachers can
access this platform to transform their current lesson plans into the electronic version. They can also
monitor students’ learning process, check attendance, and have learners sit exams. (28)__________,
parents can access the website to check their children’s learning process as well. Additionally, VioEdu by
FPT Group is one prominent online learning product (29) _______ makes use of AI to offer subscribers
more than 500 exciting video lessons, along with a large quantity of exercises, online tests. It aims at
making the learning and evaluation process more convenient for both teachers and students with features
to assign tasks, mark them, and prepare a corresponding academic report. One week after the product
allows free (30)_________, students in all 63 provinces of Vietnam eagerly sign up for an account and
nearly 8,000 school are now using it to deliver lessons to their learners.
Question 26: A. lengthy B. prolonging C. durable D. extending
Question 27: A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. a good many
Question 28: A. In addition B. While C. In the meantime D. However
Question 29: A. whose B. which C. what D. where
Question 30: A. description B. subscription C. transcription D. prescription
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Marine ecotourism focuses specifically on activities that take place on the coast or in the ocean. It
includes activities like eco-friendly boating, dolphin and whale watching, snorkeling, scuba diving and
fishing, but in a sustainable way and with an emphasis on education.
One of the most popular forms of marine ecotourism is whale watching. Whales are worth more
alive than dead these days, after decades — maybe even centuries — of whaling. While commercial
whaling is banned in most countries, Japan, Norway and Iceland have continued the practice through
finding loopholes or just rebelling against the international law. A recent National Geographic article
discussed the fact that the Japanese, for example, are eating much less whale meat than in the past.
They’re also spending a lot more time whale watching.
Mexico is another example of this. The shark watching revenue in the Gulf of California region
represents more than half the value from shark fisheries in the country. Ecotourism has become a much-
needed source of employment in the Gulf of California (and other coastal regions) because of warming
ocean temperatures, extreme weather events that are taking place more often than they have in the past,
and declining fish stocks. In Newfoundland, Canada’s main sealing province, over 1.3 million people
participated in whale watching. That contributed to nearly $20 million to the local economy and is seen as
a possible alternative to the sealing economy.
Ecotourism Australia says that “ecotourism has rocketed from an unknown entity to global
phenomenon in the last 30 years and nature-based tourism already makes up 75 percent of the
international tourism market.” It’s an example of knowing better and doing better, and can make a positive
impact on conservation efforts on the coast and in the ocean.
(Source: https://www.renewableenergymagazine.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Whaling and sealing – gruesome tradition.
B. Ecotourism collapse threatens the wildlife.
C. Helping the environment through ecotourism.
D. From personal gratification to public satisfaction.
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. Marine ecotourism B. Eco-friendly boating
C. Sustainable way D. Tourism market
Question 33: According to the passage, marine ecotourism has achieved its goal of _________
A. helping people value the ecosystem and changing behaviors for a better cause.
B. reminding people of their history of creating havoc in and around the oceans.
C. stopping overtourism by selecting the travelers based on environmental criteria.
D. providing tourists with an adventurous experience of visiting fascinating places.
Question 34: The word “rocketed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. plunged B. risen C. soared D. passed
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the situation of marine ecotourism?
A. Japanese marine ecotourism cannot fix what has been broken.
B. Marine ecotourism has already succeeded in making things better.
C. Many travelers still prefer the traditional tourism to ecotourism.
D. Marine tourism is the only one that has not emerged from obscurity.
Whether you’re put off by student loans, you need a break from education, or you’re keen on
starting work straight after school – going to university isn’t the right choice for everyone. And you might
be surprised at the career prospects available to those without a degree. If you’re considering not going to
university, here are a few options of what you could do next.
If you’ve just finished school and you don’t have any work experience, traineeships and
internships are a great way to prepare yourself for your future career. Traineeships usually last from six
weeks to six months, and are offered exclusively to 16-23 year olds. Not only do they provide essential
work preparation training, they’re also the perfect opportunity to gain the practical skills and experience
needed to move onto an apprenticeship or job. While internships are similar to traineeships, they are
available to people of all ages – and usually focus more on providing practical work experience, rather
than guided training and work preparation.
School leaver programmes are becoming a popular choice for A-level students who aren’t
interested in university, but still want the learning and training that’s involved with further education.
These programmes are designed to give school leavers the chance to earn a qualification whilst working
part-time or full-time (and earning a wage). The exact structure of a school leaver programmes will
largely depend on the company you work for. School leaver programmes could last anything from three to
seven years, and are most common in industries like accountancy, finance, retail, engineering, and IT. .
If you’re keen to start work straight away, an entry-level job could be well within your reach. And you
may be surprised at what kinds of jobs are available. Whether you want to start a career in education,
you’re interested in breaking into the marketing industry, or you’re passionate about IT – you don’t
always need extensive experience or qualifications to start a career in your preferred sector. And with
many employers providing on-the-job training for new recruits, you’ll be able to learn a range of key skills
to help you progress within the industry.
(Adapted from https://www.reed.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Different Paths after School B. University is Still the Best Choice
C. The Benefits of Not Going to University D. How to choose the Correct Job
Question 37: The word “prospects” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefits B. chances C. incomes D. disadvantages
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT provided by traineeships?
A. work preparation B. practical skills C. work experience D. degrees
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. traineeships B. internships C. practical skills D. people of all ages
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what benefit do people receive from school leaver programmes?
A. They are able to learn the knowledge about their job while working to get their salary.
B. They can receive the training directly from the company they work for.
C. They are capable of doing many different kinds of jobs at the same time.
D. They can learn about the most common industries when being a student at school.
Question 41: The phrase “breaking into” in the last paragraph most probably means ____________.
A. running B. stopping C. taking part in D. keeping on
Question 42: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Internships bring more benefits to people than traineeships.
B. School leavers may have to spend from three to seven years on training before being employed.
C. New employees may make a progress in their job thanks to the training when being recruited.
D. You have to prepare quite carefully before running the business by yourself.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 43: Due to his obesity, my father is advised to avoid eating fatty foods, having more vegetables
A B C
and drink water.
D
Question 44: My school where I used to study is a very permissible school because students are allowed
A B C
to do whatever they want.
D
Question 45: In the pool near my flat is little silvery fish darting around.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t work too much” said David’s sister.
A. David’s sister required him not to work too much.
B. David’s sister advised him not to work too much.
C. David’s sister promised not to force him to work too much.
D. David’s sister ordered him not to work too much.
Question 47: You are not allowed to wear casual clothes to school.
A. You needn’t wear casual clothes to school.
B. You mustn’t wear casual clothes to school.
C. You can’t wear casual clothes to school.
D. You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to school.
Question 48: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey.
A. They were so exhausted that they could continue the journey.
B. Such were their exhaustion that they could hardly continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. So exhausted were they that they could hardly continue the journey.
Question 50: It was raining. That’s the only reason I didn’t take the children to the beach.
A. If it hadn’t been raining, I would take the children to the beach.
B. But for it raining, I would have taken the children to the beach.
C. It was raining; otherwise I would have taken the children to the beach.
D. Hadn’t it been for the rain, I would have taken the children to the beach.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. agree B. import C. prepare D. demand
Question 2: A. urbanize B. develop C. variety D. proposal
Question 3: A. play B. train C. nation D. urban
Question 4: A. looked B. booked C. naked D. cooked
questions.
Question 5: Just think, in ___________three months, you will be 18. Why are you always behaving like a
child?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 6: Her father bought her _________ when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.
A. a beautiful wooden yellow scarf B. a scarf wooden beautiful yellow
C. a yellow beautiful scarf wooden D. a beautiful yellow wooden scarf
Question 7: I _________ them yesterday to check when they____________, but I couldn’t contact them.
A. was ringing/arrived B. rang/were arriving C. rang/arrived D. rang/had arrived
Question 8: “It’s ____________ to know that you all are safe and sound”, said he.
A. comfort B. comfortable C. comforting D. comfortably
Question 9: Taking his behaviors into consideration, I guess you and he have been friends for a long time,
so he is familiar ___________ you.
A. to B. with C. for D. towards
Question 10: If you __________him in his office, please tell him to call me back.
A. see B. saw C. had seen D. have seen
Question 11: The man _______________ is my best friend’s father.
A. who I lent the money from B. whom I lent to the money
C. I lent the money D. whose money I lent
Question 12: You don’t think that she is suitable for this position, ________?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. do you D. don’t you
Question 13: ___________ she was late for the interview, she didn’t get the job.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 14: I asked for his help but he refused _____________ me a hand.
A. to giving B. to give C. giving D. give
Question 15: The investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services ___________
promise for the economic development of this city.
A. make B. keep C. break D. hold
Question 16: I can’t believe_____________. Are you telling me a lie?
A. what I am hearing B. that I am hearing
C. what I am hearing from D. that I am hearing from
Question 17: We regret to inform you that the trip was cancelled through ___________ of interest.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. deficiency D. lack
Question 18: The weather forecast has reported that the snowstorm is ________ to reach the coast the
next morning.
A. expected B. predicted C. anticipated D. foretold
Question 19: They spent a lot of money on doing a _____________ to find out what our customers think
of their local bus service.
A. research B. experiment C. campaign D. survey
Question 20: I’m sorry but the manager and accountant have been on business since last Monday and he
A B C
won’t return until tomorrow.
D
Question 21: He finds it annoyed at the way she is trying to take over the whole meeting.
A B C D
Question 22: This school has become heavily reliable on government support, so it can’t have autonomy
A B C
in determining its curriculum.
D
Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically developed countries
(MEDCs).
A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded
Question 24: Too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion, vulnerability and
marginalization.
A. struggle for B. struggle against C. dealt with D. struggle to

Question 25: I really like him, but I’m confused. He seems to blow hot and cold - one minute he likes
me, and the next, he’s ignoring me!
A. changeable B. ambivalent C. loyal D. constant
Question 26: Your dress is really beautiful, Cindy! You look very awesome in it.
A. terrible B. terrific C. enjoyable D. pleasant
A group of researchers and experts in America and Australia listed 12 countries affecting
(27)_________ to the ocean by the year 2018 and Southeast Asia area has up to 5 representatives:
Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. China ranks the first with (28) _________
8.8 million plastic wastes, and Vietnam ranks the fourth with 1.8 million. It is really alarming that the
developing countries are main causes of environmental pollution in 10 recent years. A terrible fact
probably occurring by 2050 is that the ocean (29) ________much more wastes than sea creatures if the
plastic wastes situation is still continuing, according to the United Nations report. (30)________, the
unexpected fact is that it takes only 5 seconds to produce a plastic bag, 1 second to throw, but up to 500 or
even 1000 years to decompose.
A reason for water pollution in Vietnam is that many companies and enterprises cannot manage
rubbish and then pour wastes into rivers and streams, (31)________ the government cannot control at all.
Question 27: A. deeply B. considerately C. significantly D. largely
Question 28: A. mostly B. almost C. most D. most of
Question 29: A. consists B. comprises C. includes D. contains
Question 30: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Whereas
Question 31: A. where B. that C. which D. what
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive skills, and
emotional skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these skills. Even if
your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these skills is much more effective
than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care. Your child will learn how to sit up, walk,
run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to
be fine-tuned at a very young age, and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential
for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child development. If you
do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never learn. One infamous example of
this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a dark room with extremely little human contact
until she was rescued at age 13. She was never able to develop language fluency because it was never
taught to her. So, teaching your children language skills from a young age is also essential to child
development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills are
important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy and compassion
for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that come with life. If your child
does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack
emotional skills, it could lead to destructive choices when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when they are
babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is very important. In a
family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful in developing a child’s skills
with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to foundational building blocks, while your child is
very young, something very helpful for family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a
child is feeling a certain way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to
understand how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their
feelings and move forward.
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child’s Skill Development
Question 33: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______________.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 34: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _____________.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 35: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 37: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 39: - Mike: “How lovely the present is!”
- Jane: “____________”
A. It’s lucky you love it. B. I think so.
C. Yes, it’s lovely. D. No. I don’t like it.
Question 40: - Sue: “Historic events are always hard to remember. Do you think so?”
- Harry: “_______”
A. I think it’s good. B. I am not intelligent.
C. I don’t think it will happen. D. I can’t agree with you more.
Question 41: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realized how much her family meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realized how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life.
B. To realize how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent
life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realized how much her family
meant to her.
D. Only after Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realize how much her family
meant to her.
Question 42: Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights. More people are flying for weekend
trips to scenic cities.
A. If many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people will be flying for weekend
B. Although many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for weekend
C. As many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
D. Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, or more people are flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It’s impossible for you to meet the boss right now because he is out.
A. You can’t have met the boss right now because he is out.
B. You can’t be met the boss right now because he is out.
C. The boss can’t be met right now because he is out.
D. Meeting the boss right now is possible unless he is out.
Question 44: My boss asked me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the bus?”
A. My boss asked me why I was late and if did I miss the bus.
B. My boss asked me why was I late and did I miss the bus.
C. My boss asked me why you were late and if you missed the bus.
D. My boss asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the bus.
Question 45: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
The sound of music has changed as society has changed over the years, thus the change in the
sound of music is really a reflection of our cultural evolution. In the beginning humans made music that
closely mimicked the sounds they heard around them in nature in terms of tones and repetitions.
In Indigenous cultures, music played a role in ceremonies and traditions. Traditional instruments
were played, and lyrics were often strongly linked to nature. The sounds of music reflected this close
association that indigenous cultures had with the land and its wildlife. Over time, modern society has lost
this connection. This is reflected in the changing sound of the music and in the changing lyrics of songs
that are sung. With time, more musical instruments were developed and played together, which resulted in
more sophisticated and complex sounds being produced. The beats, rhythms, tempo and lyrics of songs all
changed along with the change in cultures.
Although some indigenous cultures such as many of the African tribes, Native American tribes,
South American ethnic people, and Australian aborigines still retain the playing of their indigenous
music, there have been influences from the western world incorporated into some of the music. Features
of the sound of music have changed over the decades. The sound has definitely gotten louder. The pace
and rhythm in many cases have become faster, possibly reflecting the fast pace of the modern world that
we live in today. However the feature of music bounciness (how spiky and energetic the music feels) has
become less today when compared with the music of the1980s. Techno and reggae music are typical
examples of what is known as bouncy music.
The sound of music has become more complex over history mainly due to the increased migration
of people and their exposure to new elements. Today much of music has sounds with elements from more
than one region. The increasing tendency for music artists to collaborate today is another reason we see
more complexity and diversity in how music sounds.
(Adapted from https://sonicspace.org/)
Question 46: Which of the following could serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Why People Changed the Sound of Music?
B. Music: Now and Then
C. The Role of Music in Indigenous Cultures
D. Nature and Music
Question 47: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. musical instruments
B. developing and playing many musical instruments together
C. the changing sound of the music
D. the changing lyrics of songs
Question 48: The word “retain” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. preserve B. reduce C. exchange D. combine
Question 49: According to the passage, the following features of music have increased over years,
EXCEPT __________.
A. the sound volume B. the pace and rhythm
C. the connection to nature D. the sound’s complexity and diversity
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Western music has more influence on indigenous music than others.
B. The fast pace of life has caused the loss of connection to nature.
C. Almost every feature of music sounds changed when the cultures altered.
D. Modern music sounds contain different regional elements due to the collaboration of music artists.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. mistake B. village C. client D. picture
Question 2: A. finds B. stays C. brings D. smarts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. network B. interest C. decide D. mountain
Question 4: A. condition B. generate C. encourage D. remember
Question 5: Winning an incredible prize from the state lottery was a turning point in my life, which I
have never imagined before.
A. unbelievable B. unpopular C. unacceptable D. unclear
Question 6: I really wanted to get my homework done early today, but my favorite TV show proved to be
a serious distraction.
A. attention B. interruption C. depression D. combination
Question 7: It’s pretty tough to find a job when you don’t have any previous experience.
A. difficult B. normal C. simple D. common
Question 8: The future of the project is up in the air as the management has failed to finalize the budget.
A. undecided B. certain C. distant D. particular
Question 9: Marry and John are talking about drinking water at night.
- Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night “
- John: “___________. This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart health.”
A. You can say it again B. I have no idea
C. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 10: Linda is talking to Brown after knowing the results. Linda passed her test with flying
colours.

- Brown: “Sincere congratulations on your hard-earned success.”
- Linda: “________________”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you.
C. Make yourself at home. D. There’s no doubt about it
questions.
Question 11: Although the child was scolded by his parents at home, he did not display any __________
change at school.
A. noticeable B. notify C. notice D. notification
Question 12: I couldn’t have a nice conversation with him because his girlfriend kept on _____________
when we were talking to each other.
A. turning up B. taking off C. breaking up D. cutting in
Question 13: Nobody understood what was going on, ____________?
A. didn’t they B. did them C. did they D. do them
Question 14: Because the little boy would not stop playing with matches, it was ___________ that he
would burn himself.
A. inevitable B. incompatible C. intractable D. incomparable
Question 15: ____________ my mother knew of my hatred for green beans, she still made me eat them
when I was a child.
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Because of
Question 16: He has lost weight since he _____________ eating chocolate bars.
A. was stopping B. stopped C. would stop D. will stop
Question 17: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind
Question 18: It is hard to _____________ the difference between the two versions of this phone.
A. make B. hold C. tell D. keep
Question 19: If a doctor does not abide _______________ the laws of his profession, he may lose the
right to practice medicine.
A. at B. to C. on D. by
Question 20: We’ll give a reward to anyone _____________ the police with information about the
missing child.
A. to provide B. providing C. provided D. provides
Question 21: When I researched into the singer Rihanna’s hometown of Saint Michael Parish, I learned
that her _____________ was Barbadian.
A. citizenship B. partnership C. nationality D. ethnicity
C. ∅
Question 22: Between his son and his daughter, his daughter is ______________ better athlete.
A. the B. an D. a
Question 23: The dolphin injured itself while struggling ____________ out of the fisherman’s net.
A. to get B. getting C. to getting D. get
Question 24: ______wants to marry too early.
A. Neither the man nor the woman B. Whether the man or the woman
C. Both the man and the woman D. Not only the man but also the women
Question 25: You ___________ take this course if you know English grammar well.
A. don’t need take B. won’t need to take C. needn’t to take D. won’t need take
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We usually walk to work but sometimes takes a cab when it is raining.
A B C D
Question 27: This book contains stories which are moving, enjoyable, and surprise.
A B C D
Question 28: No matter how hard he has tried to learn English, he is rubbishy at it.
A B C D
Question 29: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 30: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 31: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Question 32: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 33: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

There have never been so (34)___________ people living in cities in quake zones because the
worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and
maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will
occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing
that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun
Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a (35)__________ - pressure builds in a zone and must be released.
But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it
breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may
support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas
Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for
warning signs. (36)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years of schedule. At first the event seemed
random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and
found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’ - places (37)_____
the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred. We are learning more about
these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to track earthquakes and design an early-
warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (38)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of
Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 34: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 35: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 36: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 38: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
What is the difference between friendship and love? This question has always been in the minds of
people for centuries. Though a definite answer cannot be given for this question, one can come across
some differences between the two.
When love can be termed as a sacrifice, friendship can be termed as a trust. Love is a feeling that is
uncontrollable, and a feeling which one has for another individual. On the other hand, friendship is quite
different from love in this aspect.
Love is a feeling between two individuals, and most of the time when they say “She/ he is my one
and only” and in this case only two individuals are involved. But there are times people may fall in love
with more than one individual, but it is considered morally wrong when you already have a partner or a
boy/girlfriend. On the contrary, friendship involves more individuals without any guilty feelings involved.
One can have many friends, but most of the time an individual can only have one person to love. You can
love your family and that’s another topic for discussion.
In love, there is great attachment for the other. Most of the time an individual gets strong feeling of
hurt if his loved one is in pain or hurt. This attachment may not be strong in friendship. Regarding the
emotions, individuals in love will experience a faster heartbeat when they meet their loved one. This is
not so when friends meet. There is no way that one will lie awake and think of his friends for a whole
night, but lovers will have sleepless nights, and dream about their lovers. The lovers even sleep and wake
up with the thoughts of his or her lover.
Another difference that can be seen is that in love, some physical element is also involved between
individuals. On the other hand, there is no such physical element involved in friendship.
(Adapted from http://www.differencebetween.net/)
Question 39: Which can be the title of the passage?
A. Love or Friendship
B. Distinction between Love and Friendship
C. Should We Love Our Friends?
D. The Connection between Love and Friendship
Question 40: According to the passage, what is TRUE about friendship?
A. People often sacrifice for their friends.
B. The feeling of friendship is uncontrollable.
C. People can have more than one friend at the same time.
D. Not all people trust their friends.
Question 41: The word “guilty” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ashamed B. criminal C. regretful D. unacceptable
Question 42: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. a faster heartbeat B. the emotions
C. their loved one D. strong feeling of hurt
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about love and friendship mentioned in the passage?
A. People always have a greater attachment for the one they love.
B. Lovers often involve physical element which doesn’t happen in friendship.
C. People are blameworthy if they have many loved ones simultaneously.
D. People may have a sleepless night to think of their friends.
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to their pupils,
particularly older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread that generation gap even
wider, as young people become conversant with mobile digital devices, games and social media that
didn’t exist when their teachers were growing up. Teachers now face pupils using devices and online
systems that they don’t use themselves, and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more
prevalent than ever, but teachers can bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate
technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media and mobile
devices in teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against it at parent-teacher
evenings, without realizing that preventing teenagers from using social media like this, or messaging apps
such as Snapchat and Instagram, is nearly impossible. Online social media and network gaming are now
such an integral part of teenage behavior that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of
young people is likely to widen the generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists within the
staffroom, too. A teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards the end of their working
life will not have grown up with digital technology, whereas teaching staff in their 20s and 30s could well
be “digital natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you think you’ve
caught up, kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how young people are using social
networks that are, in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older generation to understand. The key factor to
consider is that today’s school students now take for granted that a lot of their communication with their
peers will be online, and predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people
expect their educational experience to be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of
devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers
C. What Causes Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 46: The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of teenagers.
Question 48: The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because ______________.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the younger.
Question 49: The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means _________.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the generation gap
between teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones and mobile
devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
-----THE END-----

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs
Question 1: A. cleaned B. opened C. learned D. leaned
Question 2: A. purpose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
Question 3: A. conserve B. concern C. confirm D. conquer
Question 4: A. horizon B. additive C. interview D. continent
Question 5: It was ___________ most beautiful morning, so we decided to make for Sam Son beach.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 6: Although travelling by air is quite expensive, its beauty consists _______ its speed and ease.
A. in B. of C. for D. at
Question 7: The dogs and their ____________ owners stood waiting to see who would be crowned
winner of the pet show.
A. respected B. respectable C. respectful D. respective
Question 8: Ask a friend to recommend a doctor or, ____________that, ask for a list in your local library.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. according to
Question 9: We can’t rely on Peter because he always looks for any excuse he can __________ work.
A. to blow off B. put off C. set back D. call off
Question 10: His latest movie has won high praise from the critics but I don’t think it’s _______ good.
A. much B. such C. too D. that
Question 11: The reason is ________, he estimated how much the population of London would increase
in the next 100 years.
A. why when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
B. that Bazalgette designed the tunnels
C. what Bazalgette designed the tunnels
D. that when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
Question 12: Nobody thought that he could achieve success, _______________?
A. could he B. didn’t they C. did they D. couldn’t he
Question 13: I didn’t even have time to complete all homework assignments, ____________ hang out
with my friends.
A. now that B. in case C. instead of D. let alone
Question 14: If I _____________ younger, I ________ in the contest held last week.
A. were/would participate B. had been/would have participated
C. were/would have participated D. had been /would participate
Question 15: The woman wasn’t sure where she __________the rare illness since no one else in her
family had the disease.
A. contracted B. distracted C. extracted D. attracted
Question 16: Apart from entertaining, art may be used as a _____________for propaganda.
A. means B. vehicle C. method D. way
Question 17: Because I can’t handle all my customer orders by telephone, I need to hire an engineer to
____________ an app for order processing.
A. deduce B. define C. devise D. deduct
Question 18: If you feel like you are catching a cold, try to nip it in the ___________ so that it does not
cause you to miss work.
A. bush B. bulk C. bud D. bunch
Question 19: Harry went for a picnic with her friends after she ____________ her work.
A. has finished B. would have finished C. had finished D. will finish
Question 20: My father was given a delicious Spanish white wine by a friend of him who had just returned
from Spain. A B C D
Question 21: Over a half of all accidents happens in the home because people aren’t aware of potential
dangers. A B C D
Question 22: I find it difficult to understand the full importance of this statement, so I ask my brother for
his help. A B C D
Question 23: I need an assistant - I’m very busy with work.
A. am up to my eyes B. am up to my ears C. have my hands full D. am up to my neck
Question 24: Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about the currency
because of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
Question 25: When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he commanded his
officers to release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 26: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next generation solve the
global warming problem.
A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem
Question 27: Leon and Drake are talking about drinking water.
- Leon: “As far as I know, drinking warm water is really good for our health”
- Drake “ ________________ because warm water helps to get rid of harmful toxins from your body and
also works to prevent skin issues like acne.”
A. You must say that again B. I’d say the exact opposite.
C. I have to side with you on this one D. That’s not always true.
Question 28: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
– “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Question 29: Stella said to me: “My company was established in 2000”.
A. Stella told to me that her company was established in 2000.
B. Stella told me that her company had been established in 2000.
C. Stella said me that her company was established in 2000.
D. Stella said her company was established in 2000.
Question 30: I’m pretty sure the burglar got in through the kitchen window.
A. The burglar must be got in through the kitchen window.
B. The burglar should have got in through the kitchen window.
C. The burglar must have got in through the kitchen window.
D. The burglar could have got in through the kitchen window.
Question 31: As students get closer to their exams, they become more nervous.
A. The closer students get to their exams, the more nervous they become.
B. The closer students get to their exams, they become more nervous.
C. The students get closer to their exams, the nervous they become more.
D. The students get to their exams closer, the nervous they become more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of information.
C. Not only some websites are really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him because she
couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal to his girlfriend’s trust, she would have broken up with
him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up
with him.
Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial City of Hue
has long been a (34)____________attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm of Vietnam. The Imperial

City of Hue was actually a walled fortress and palace belonged to the ancient city of Hue (35)__________
was a capital city of the Nguyen Dynasty for 140 years date back from 1805 until 1945.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6 meters and
21 meters thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by cannons, artilleries and
ammunitions. (36)________the fortress was built solely by soil, only to be replaced by bricks afterward.
Surrounding the city is the complicated canal system served not only as a protection but also as a
waterway with nearly seven kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates (37) _______to the Imperial City of Hue, which can be
divided into two main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and The Forbidden City. The
former served to protect the important palaces inside while the (38)_________was where the emperor and
the royal family stayed as well as the court’s workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures
including majestic palaces, tombs and museums stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing
attraction right in the heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 34: A. must-have B. must-read C. must-see D. must-do
Question 35: A. what B. where C. that D. who
Question 36: A. At first B. At least C. At most D. At that
Question 37: A. lead B. leading C. led D. having led
Question 38: A. later B. late C. lately D. latter
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-in-ten say
they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or suburban areas to say
they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily interact with their neighbors more than
their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the case in
suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a neighbor they
would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a neighbor they
would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that they have lived in their
community for less than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys.
Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in their community for six or more years and 47% of those who
have done so for one to five years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters
to say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than those in
cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity. Suburbanites are
somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their neighbors are the same social
class as they are, while relatively few across community types say all or most of their neighbors share
their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas wouldn’t have
enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 41: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 42: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________. A. experience their
race or ethnicity at the same time
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 43: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and suburban
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant culture takes
things from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange is different from cultural
appropriation. Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been shared between different cultures
throughout history. These ‘borrowings’ aren’t the same as cultural appropriation, because they don’t
involve power. When dominant groups take from an oppressed group, we’re dealing with appropriation,
not cultural exchange. Cultural appropriation is also very different from assimilation. ‘Assimilation’
describes what happens when minority cultures are forced to adopt features from a dominant culture in
order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that’s experiencing oppression, it’s often a result of colonization, where
a dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people. When the dominant group continues
to steal aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues the economic oppression and disadvantage of
that culture. In Australia, there are cases where white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and
Torres Strait Islander artworks for use on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to
make money from the non-dominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for aspects of a
culture that they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two groups. For example, Kylie
Jenner was credited with starting an ‘edgy’ new hair trend, while black actress Zendaya faced criticism for
wearing her hair the same way. What’s interesting about this, is that Zendaya’s natural hair was seen as a
negative. But Kylie Jenner, a person with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something
that wasn’t hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese geisha or the
Arab sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween. When people from dominant
cultures ‘dress up’ like this, it reduces something of cultural significance to a costume just so that the
dominant group can have ‘a bit of fun’. It also keeps these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it’s encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being invited to an
Indian wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is not cultural
appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/)
Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange. B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation. D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange, cultural
appropriation and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 47: The word “ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 48: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 49: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behavior and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 50: The word “cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. loves B. likes C. hates D. makes
Question 2: A. device B. derive C. delete D. decent
Question 3: A. oceanic B. physician C. determine D. objective
Question 4: A. comment B. commerce C. commit D. common
Question 5: She died of liver cancer on _________ Tuesday after _________18-month battle against it.
A. a – an B. no article – a C. a – a D. no article - no article
Question 6: We hope the problem can be ___________ by getting the two sides together to discuss it.
A. cleared out B. cleared up C. cleared off D. cleared away
Question 7: I have to complete all homework assignments, _______________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t I C. do I D. have I
Question 8: There are many doubts about the quality of the school. ______________, some families are
enrolling their children to it.
A. As yet B. Even so C. Even as D. As if
Question 9: As a teacher, I am always eager to find ways to ________ a love of learning in my students.
A. institute B. inscribe C. instill D. inspect
Question 10: When his father passed away, he received an _________ amount of money from his estate.
A. appreciative B. appreciation C. appreciate D. appreciable
Question 11: If the plane tickets _____________ a little cheaper, my parents ____________ coming to
visit me last month.
A. were/would consider B. had been/would consider
C. were/would have considered D. had been/would have considered
Question 12: Her story ____________ really moved me a lot.
A. of what had happened throughout her life B. of which had happened throughout her life
C. what had happened throughout her life D. had happened throughout her life
Question 13: The working conditions in their factories ________ dramatically during the last few months.
A. improved B. have improved C. was improved D. have been improved
Question 14: Teachers at this school are encouraged to ___________ themselves of the full range of
educational facilities.
A. accord B. avert C. avail D. apply
Question 15: My husband seemed indifferent _______ the food on his plate and ate it without comment.
A. for B. at C. to D. from
Question 16: Supporters at the event ___________ students from a local school, as well as their parents.
A. being included B. having included C. included D. including
Question 17: Mutual understanding is very important because it allows all parties ________ to learn
about one another.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. involve
Question 18: My aunt has a parking ________ which allows her to park on the street outside her house.
A. allowance B. permission C. permit D. acceptance
Question 19: She doesn’t have time for idle talk, so you should cut to the ____ and tell her what you
want.
A. point B. chase C. race D. side
Question 20: It gave my brother a kick to see his own play on television.
A. thrust B. threat C. thrill D. thread
Question 21: We had a quarrel about money, but we decided to clear the air by sitting together and
discussing things frankly.
A. make a terrible mess at trivial things
B. explain everything that someone had understood
C. remove all dirty and untidy things
D. get rid of all doubts and negative feelings
Question 22: Rapid economic growth is the most concrete evidence of the overall success of South-South
cooperation in Asia.
A. abnormal B. discrete C. conscious D. abstract
Question 23: My boss is convinced that we will find a satisfactory solution to the problem.
A. irrational B. reasonable C. affordable D. irrelevant
Question 24: Brian and Robert are discussing the topic of nutrition.
- Brian: “People should eat five daily portions of fruit and vegetables, as far as I’m concerned.”
- Robert “ ________________ since fruit and vegetables are packed with essential vitamins, minerals, and
fiber”
A. I shouldn’t agree with you more B. That’s just what I am thinking.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. I must take issue with you on that.
Question 25: Maria is thanking Daniel for giving her a lift home.
Maria: “Thanks for taking me to my house.”
Daniel: “You’re welcome. ________________ now that I have a car.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. There’s a first time for everything
C. There’s no doubt about it D. It’s the least I could do
Question 26: Succeeding in getting a steady job, you need to take advantage of opportunities and follow
your dreams. A B C D
Question 27: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people’s attitudes to
A B C
the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 28: I know beyond a shade of a doubt that she will decide to stand as a candidate in the local
A B C
election.
D
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 31: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 32: My father has many new clothes. However, he always wears his old coat.
A. However old his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
B. As old as his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
C. However many new clothes he has, my father always wears his old coat.
D. Many clothes as he has worn, my father always wears his old coat.
Question 33: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an unacceptable
result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost all matches
with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an
How can solar cells become (34)__________ enough to be commercially viable?
There are, of course, a huge range of ongoing efforts to address this problem. Among the most
recent approaches to this problem comes from a team of physicists and engineers at MIT (35)_____ is
using computer modeling and advanced chip-manufacturing techniques.

In December of 2008, researchers from the Research Laboratory of Electronics, and the
departments of materials science and engineering and physics applied an antireflection coating to the front
of ultrathin silicon films, plus a novel combination of multi-layered reflective coatings and a tightly
spaced array of lines to the backs of the films. The result is photovoltaic cells with as much as 50
(36)______ more electrical output.
The carefully designed layers deposited on the back of the cell cause light to (37) _________
around longer inside the silicon layer, giving it more time to deposit its energy and produce an electric
current.
The work has attracted interest from industry for (38) _______ranging from generating remote off-
grid electricity to dedicated clean power.
(Source: https://engineering.mit.edu/)
Question 34: A. cost-efficient B. cost-benefit C. cost-conscious D. cost-free
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. that D. what
Question 36: A. percentage B. percent C. proportion D. rate
Question 37: A. burst B. reflect C. bounce D. pour
Question 38: A. applications B. appliances C. applicants D. applicability
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found that chit-chat
actually has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we realized our most
meaningful interactions are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s when we’re greeting
administrative staff, or the friendly gabbing before a meeting,” said Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers
University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers surveyed 151 full-
time employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After controlling for participants’
baseline engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about levels of small talk throughout the day,
and asked respondents to rate their emotions, work productivity, and overall engagement.
“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was lower than what
it is for an extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social emotions and contributed to
employees feeling connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to explain what small talk is not. It is not
long-winded ranting about an ineffective supervisor. It is not a sensitive discussion about someone’s
personal life. “It is surface level. It is ‘Weather looks great this weekend, any plans?’ Surface level is what
gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and foster
inclusiveness. “Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small talk, which can create
a barrier for new employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of greater awareness about diversity
and inclusion, small talk can be an asset to a company. It can be a road to more inclusion by helping
socialize and embed employees into the organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/)
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socializing. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossip-mongers.
Question 40: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 41: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 42: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
A. “Can you believe all of this rain we’ve been having?”
B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?”
D. “You look like you could really use a cup of coffee.”
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
In a paper published in Science Advances, an international team of researchers have examined
traits of marine megafauna species to better understand the potential ecological consequences of their
extinction under different future scenarios.
Defined as the largest animals in the oceans, with a body mass that exceeds 45kg, examples
include sharks, whales, seals and sea turtles. These species serve key roles in ecosystems, including the
consumption of large amounts of biomass, transporting nutrients across habitats, connecting ocean
ecosystems, and physically modifying habitats. Traits, such as how large they are, what they eat, and how
far they move, determine species’ ecological functions. As a result, measuring the diversity of traits
allows scientists to quantify the contributions of marine megafauna to ecosystems and assess the potential
consequences of their extinction.
The team of researchers – led by Swansea University’s Dr Catalina Pimiento – first compiled a
species-level trait dataset for all known marine megafauna to understand the extent of ecological functions
they perform in marine systems. Then, after simulating future extinction scenarios and quantifying the
potential impact of species loss on functional diversity, they introduced a new index (FUSE) to inform
conservation priorities.
The results showed a diverse range of functional traits held by marine megafauna, as well as how
the current extinction crisis might affect their functional diversity. If current trajectories are maintained, in
the next 100 years we could lose, on average, 18% of marine megafauna species, which will translate in
the loss of 11% of the extent of ecological functions. Nevertheless, if all currently threatened species were
to go extinct, we could lose 40% of species and 48% of the extent of ecological functions. Sharks are
predicted to be the most affected, with losses of functional richness far beyond those expected under
random extinctions.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serve as the title of the passage?
A. How marine megafauna species’ extinction affects the ecology
B. The consequences of trait examination of marine megafauna species
C. What should be examined in the research in marine megafauna species?
D. The causes of marine megafauna species’ extinction
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the main roles of the largest animals in the
oceans, EXCEPT _______________.
A. consuming large amounts of biomass B. transporting nutrients across habitats
C. associating ocean ecosystems D. mentally modifying habitats
Question 46: The word “determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. affect B. establish C. describe D. cover
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________.
A. researchers B. ecological functions
C. marine systems D. future extinction scenarios
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what proportion of ecological functions could we lose if all
currently threatened species became extinct?
A. nearly one fifth B. more than one tenth C. two fifths D. nearly a half
Question 49: The word “translate” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___________.
A. interpret B. increase C. cause D. require
Question 50: As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The animals weighing about 45kg are classified as the largest ones in the ocean.
B. Measuring the extinction of marine megafauna allows scientists to know the consequences to
ecosystems.
C. The species guessed to be the most affected by random extinction are sharks.
D. The researchers now have known all the extent of ecological functions of marine megafauna.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. creative B. threaten C. breadwinner D. heavy
Question 3: A. industry B. register C. optimist D. courageous
Question 4: A. complain B. borrow C. listen D. injure
Question 5: The campaign is trying to get ___________ message across that parental education plays an
important role in ___________ development of a child.
A. no article-the B. a - no article C. the-the D. a-the
Question 6: My parents could hardly afford a house in the city, so we had to settle ____________ the
second best in my hometown.
A. down B. into C. for D. in
Question 7: She thought somebody had broken into her house last night, ____________?
A. hadn’t they B. had they C. didn’t she D. did she
Question 8: She expects _________ compensation for all direct expenses _________ out of the accident.
A. to be received-arising B. to receive-arising C. to be received- arisen D. to receive-arisen
Question 9: His laziness caused the company to perform badly last quarter. ___________, his attitude
toward the boss has put his job in jeopardy.
A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In addition to
Question 10: Governments need to provide a viable _________ to car travel in order to reduce pollution
in the country.
A. alternation B. alternative C. alternate D. alternating
Question 11: She’d rather you ____________ anyone that she’d lost her job as a hotel manager.
A. won’t tell B. wouldn’t have told C. didn’t tell D. don’t tell
Question 12: We have just launched our annual campaign to improve the ____ of women’s health issues.
A. credential B. profile C. portrait D. background
Question 13: He won’t return home ____________________ given to him this morning.
A. until he had finished all the assignments B. until he has finished all the assignments
C. till he finishes all the assignments D. as soon as he has finished all the assignments
Question 14: Jack has an amazingly _____________ memory and can easily recall the capitals of three
hundred different countries in the world.
A. attentive B. reactive C. tentative D. retentive
Question 15: Providing a vaccine against the pandemic virus is a __________ issue.
A. scorching B. sweltering C. sizzling D. burning
Question 16: Research needs _____________ the impact of play on the rest of the child’s life.
A. to study B. to studying C. studying D. to be studied
Question 17: He talked about his incredible experience of being _____ space, looking down on the Earth.
A. on B. above C. in D. at
Question 18: Students _____________ cheating in any exam will be disqualified from all their exams.
A. who found B. founded C. found D. having founded
Question 19: It __________ my mind that it’s my friend’s birthday tomorrow and I haven’t got her a
present yet.
A. bore B. kept C. crossed D. bent
Question 20: If you have a food allergy, you should avoid any of the ingredients that can trigger an
attack.
A. set up B. set apart C. set back D. set off
Question 21: She gave up her job as a secretary last year and teaching is her bread and butter right now.
A. likelihood B. livelihood C. selfhood D. manhood
Question 22: There are specific areas within the festival where children under ten years old are not
allowed.
A. peculiar B. ambiguous C. particular D. delicate
Question 23: By setting up a camera system to monitor his property, the homeowner hoped he would
catch trespassers or thieves.
A. supervise B. revise C. overlook D. oversee
Question 24: Fred and Jerry are discussing the time they arrive at the airport.
- Fred: “We should arrive at the airport two hours before flight within the country.”
- Jerry: “______________. Traffic congestion is getting worse.”
A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. You took the words right out of my mouth
C. Mind your own business
D. I see your point, but I can’t completely agree with your solution
Question 25: Jack is asking Justine about the destination for his summer vacation.
- Jack: “Have you picked your next summer destination? Italy?”
- Justine: “ ______________. I’m going to Thailand.”
A. It’s up to you B. It’s on me
C. Not even close D. Not a moment too soon
on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Recent research in the field has concentrated on academic support rather than integrated into
A B C
the wider social world of the university.
D
Question 27: She’s one of the most consistent student in her class, despite the many disadvantages she
A B C D
has experienced in her life.
Question 28: Although she has fought a long battle against cancer, she always tries to keep a positive
A B C
lookout on life.
D
Question 29: How long have you been living in Viet Nam?”, said Fiona to me.
A. Fiona told me that I had been living in Viet Nam for a long time.
B. Fiona asked me how long had I been living in Viet Nam.
C. Fiona asked me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
D. Fiona told me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
Question 30: I’m annoyed that Charles forgot to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
A. Charles didn’t have to forget to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
B. Charles must have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
C. Charles should have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
D. Charles might have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
Question 31: As more people come to the relief camp, our work will probably get more difficult.
A. The more people come to the relief camp, the more difficult our work will probably get.
B. More and more people come to the relief camp, more and more difficult our work will probably get.
C. The more people come to the relief camp, the difficult our work will probably get more.
D. Our work will probably get less difficult if there are more people come to the relief camp.
Question 32: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Question 33: The process of global warming continues at its present rate. The polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
A. But for the process of global warming continues at its present rate, the polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
B. Should the process of global warming continue at its present rate, the polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
C. Were not the process of global warming to continue at its present rate, the polar bears wouldn’t
ultimately disappear.
D. As long as the process of global warming didn’t continue at its present rate, the polar bears wouldn’t
ultimately disappear.
Financial independence is one of the many markers used to designate the crossover from childhood
into young adulthood, and it’s a (34)_________ most Americans (64%) think young adults should reach
by the time they are 22 years old, according to a new Pew Research Center study. But that’s not the reality
for most young adults who’ve achieved this age.
The share of young adults who could be considered “financially independent” from their parents
by their early 20s – an assessment based on their annual income – has gone down somewhat in recent
decades. Looking more broadly at young adults aged 18 to 29, the share who are financially independent
has been (35)__________stable in recent decades. Overall, young men are more likely than young women
to be financially independent, but this gender gap has diminished significantly.
The new survey findings underscore the extent to which many young adults are financially reliant
on their parents. (36) ________ young adults who have received financial help from their parents say at
least some of it was for recurring expenses. Six-in-ten say the money went toward household expenses
such as groceries or bills, and significant shares used it to pay their tuition, rent, or mortgage. Beyond
financial independence, the pace with (37)_________ young adults are reaching other markers of
adulthood has slowed significantly over the past several decades. Today’s young adults are staying in
school longer and are marrying and establishing their own households later than previous generations.
(38)_________, a growing share is living in their parents’ homes well into their 20s and even early 30s.
Some of these changes are linked to economic challenges, while others may represent a realignment of
goals and priorities.
(Source: https://www.pewsocialtrends.org)
Question 34: A. springboard B. milepost C. breadwinner D. milestones
Question 35: A. comparatively B. approximately C. considerably D. significantly
Question 36: A. Almost B. Mostly C. Most D. Most of
Question 37: A. where B. that C. which D. who
Question 38: A. In addition B. In contrast C. In short D. Instead
Two-thirds of people in the world will be living in cities by 2050 and the boom will be
concentrated in India, China and Nigeria, according to United Nations estimates released on Wednesday.
The world’s rural population will peak in a few years then decline by 2050, according to the report by the
UN’s population division.
Tokyo is currently the world’s largest city with 37 million people, followed by Delhi with 29
million, Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and São Paulo, each with around 22 million
inhabitants. Cairo, Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million inhabitants. However, Delhi
will overtake Tokyo in top spot by around 2028, the report said. At about the same time, India is expected
to surpass China as the country with the world’s largest total population.
Around 55% of the world population lives in urban areas today, increasing to 68% by 2050. India,
China and Nigeria will account for more than a third of that expansion. There will also be more
megacities. In 1990, there were just 10 megacities, classed as places with populations of 10 million or
more. There are now 33 megacities and by 2030, 43 megacities are projected, mostly in developing
countries.
However, a few cities in Japan and South Korea – for example, Nagasaki and Busan – have
experienced population decline since 2000. Several cities in Eastern Europe, such as in Poland, Romania,
Russia and Ukraine, have lost population since the turn of the century. However, urbanization could be
seen as positive, said John Wilmoth, director of the population division. “The increasing concentration of
people in cities provides a way of more economically providing services,” he said. “We find that urban
populations have better access to health care and education.” The concentration of population may also
help to minimize our environmental impact on the planet, he said, and help cities design policies and
practices to prepare for the influx.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 39: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The population of cities in the future
B. The new increasing trend of rural population
C. The cities with the largest number of population
D. The future of populations in developing countries
Question 40: The word “overtake” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overdue B. outstrip C. keep up with D. come along
Question 41: The phrase “that expansion” in paragraph 3 refers to the increase of __________.
A. urban population B. world population C. urban areas D. rural areas
Question 42 : According to the passage, some cities of the following countries have seen the downward
trend in population, EXCEPT __________.
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Russia D. India
Question 43: According to John Wilmoth, more people living in urban areas may reduce __________.
A. the quality of health care and education
B. the people’s influence on the Earth’s environment
C. the results of cities’ policies and practices
D. the population of the whole country
The earliest recorded festivities in honor of a new year’s arrival date back some 4,000 years to
ancient Babylon. For the Babylonians, the first new moon following the vernal equinox heralded the start
of a new year. Throughout antiquity, civilizations around the world developed increasingly sophisticated
calendars. In Egypt, for instance, the year began with the annual flooding of the Nile, which coincided
with the rising of the star Sirius. The first day of the Chinese new year, meanwhile, occurred with the
second new moon after the winter solstice.
The early Roman calendar consisted of 10 months and 304 days. Over the centuries, the calendar
fell out of sync with the sun, and in 46 B.C. the emperor Julius Caesar decided to solve the problem by
consulting with the most prominent astronomers and mathematicians of his time. He introduced the Julian
calendar, which closely resembles the more modern one that most countries around the world use today.
In many countries, New Year’s celebrations begin on the evening of December 31—New Year’s Eve—
and continue into the early hours of January 1. In Spain and several other Spanish-speaking countries,
people bolt down a dozen grapes-symbolizing their hopes for the months ahead-right before midnight. In
many parts of the world, traditional New Year’s dishes feature legumes, which are thought to resemble
coins and herald future financial success; examples include lentils in Italy and black-eyed peas in the
southern United States. Because pigs represent progress and prosperity in some cultures, pork appears on
the New Year’s Eve table in Cuba, Austria, Hungary, Portugal and other countries. Ring-shaped cakes and
pastries, a sign that the year has come full circle, round out the feast in the Netherlands, Mexico, Greece
and elsewhere. In Sweden and Norway, meanwhile, rice pudding with an almond hidden inside is served
on New Year’s Eve; it is said that whoever finds the nut can expect 12 months of good fortune.
Other customs that are common worldwide include watching fireworks and singing songs to
welcome the new year, including the ever-popular “Auld Lang Syne” in many English-speaking countries.
The practice of making resolutions for the new year is thought to have first caught on among the ancient
Babylonians, who made promises in order to earn the favor of the gods and start the year off on the right
foot.
(Source: https://www.history.com/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How January 1st becomes special. B. Best destinations to celebrate New Year.
C. New Year’s gatherings. D. New Year’s celebrations.
Question 45: The word “occurred” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. happened B. befell C. take place D. surfaced
Question 46: The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. astronomer B. calendar C. sun D. emperor
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, revelers often enjoy specific meals and snacks during New Year
because ________.
A. they are thought to bestow good luck for the coming year.
B. each represents the history and evolution of each country.
C. people want to enjoy their favorite foods in this special holiday.
D. they are on discount, thus cheaper, at this time of the year.
Question 48: The word “favor” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. permission C. partiality D. goodwill
Question 49: According to the passage, which is NOT mentioned as a common tradition during New
Year?
A. Watching fireworks displays. B. Eating special New Year’s foods.
C. Dropping a giant ball from the sky. D. Making resolutions for the next year.
Question 50: Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Civilizations over the world have celebrated the start of a year for at least 4 millennia.
B. The New Year’s Day served an important political purpose for the ancient Babylonians.
C. Nations across the world typically pinned the first day of a year to an astronomical event.
D. To realign the Roman calendar with the sun, Julius Caesar introduced his Julian calendar.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. pleased B. laughed C. brushed D. liked
Question 2: A. divorce B. reliant C. promise D. idiot
Question 3: A. deceive B. debate C. decade D. dessert
Question 4: A. recommend B. necessary C. represent D. university
Question 5: My sister is working in _________ call center and getting paid by ________ hour.
A. a-no article B. the-an C. the-no article D. a-the
Question 6: I had told her that I would help her repair her light, but she __________ asking me about it
all the time.
A. kept on B. carried on C. kept at D. stuck to
Question 7: Neither of your parents speaks a foreign language, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 8: When I saw the book on the bookshelf, I knew it was exactly what I __________ for.
A. have been looking B. was looking C. had been looking D. looked
Question 9: Strict regulations regarding the number of hours workers must work _________
improvements in efficiency at the factory
A. in lieu of B. in the interests of C. in regard to D. in harmony with
Question 10: Researchers are conducting a ___________ study of health problems of people living in
urban and rural areas.
A. comparability B. comparison C. comparable D. comparative
Question 11: The city’s housing authority is in discussion with Marry, ____________ land most of the
village is built.
A. in which B. on whose C. in whose D. on where
Question 12: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ___________of physiotherapy after she broke
her leg in an accident.
A. stage B. chapter C. course D. episode
Question 13: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, the worker __________ in a critical condition in
hospital last night.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 14: Governments have already taken drastic measures to ____________ minerals and natural
resources for our next generations.
A. handle B. remain C. husband D. shoulder
Question 15: In an interview, smart presentation and high level of fluency can ___________ the balance
in your favour.
A. keep B. bear C. strike D. tip
Question 16: I couldn’t watch my favorite channel due to the noise made from the next room, so I paused
for a moment and then continued ___________.
A. to watch B. having watched C. watching D. to watching
Question 17: My family used to live and work _________ a farm, so I have quite a good knowledge of
farming.
A. on B. above C. in D. for
Question 18: The issue ________ at the conference was an extremely complicated one.
A. discussing B. to be discussed C. discussed D. having discussed
Question 19: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her CV
on the ____________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 20: Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they have finished
eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 21: The retailer said that their profits would be lower than those in the previous year, due
largely to an increase in clothing promotions.
A. brochures B. advancements C. encouragements D. advertisements

Question 22: Recent economic conditions have intensified the pressure on industry to raise prices.
A. heightened B. exaggerated C. varied D. diminished
Question 23: She used to smoke two packets of cigarettes a day, but then she deciced to stop smoking and
quit cold turkey.
A. suddenly and completely B. abruptly and thoroughly
C. calmly and regretfully D. gradually and partially
Question 24: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.”
- Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that
Question 25: Tung is asking Tram about her favorite drink.
- Tung: “Do you want green tea or milk tea?”
- Tram: “______________.”
A. It’s up to me B. I really hate green tea
C. Oh, either. It doesn’t matter D. Mind your own business
Question 26: Locating in a tranquil setting, this hotel is ideally situated for the beach and nearby fishing
A B C D
village of Fuenigirolia.
Question 27: The advantages of travelling by public transport is that it’s convenient and cheap.
A B C D
Question 28: While it was not formally announced, there was an intimacy from the public that he would
A B C
win the election.
D
Question 29: “You’d better spent the weekend revising for your exam.”, said my mother to me.
A. My mother scolded me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
B. My mother advised me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
C. My mother suggested me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
D. My mother obliged me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
Question 30: In most developed countries, it is not necessary for people to boil water before they drink it.
A. In most developed countries, people ought to boil water before they drink it.
B. In most developed countries, people don’t need to boil water before they drink it.
C. In most developed countries, people should have boiled water before they drink it.
D. In most developed countries, people mustn’t boil water before they drink it.
Question 31: It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass.
A. Manufacturing new glass is more expensive than producing recycled glass.
B. Producing recycled glass is less expensive than manufacturing new glass.
C. Manufacturing new glass is as expensive as producing recycled glass.
D. Manufacturing new glass is less expensive than producing recycled glass.
Question 32: The weather conditions became so dangerous. People were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
A. So dangerous were the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
B. Such dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
C. So dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
D. The weather conditions became such dangerous that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
Question 33: She is the winner of the beauty pageant. That is the only reason people pay attention to her.
A. Were she the winner of the beauty pageant, people would pay attention to her.
B. Should she be the winner of the beauty pageant, people will pay attention to her.
C. If it hadn’t been for the fact that she was the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t have
paid attention to her
D. If it weren’t for the fact that she is the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t pay attention
to her.
URBANIZATION
Especially for those coming from rural areas, urban areas can create an overall better quality of life
in several ways. When urban areas become (34)_________ cities and towns, they become a society of
culture that can facilitate financial and educational growth.
With industrialization comes the creation of jobs. Usually making a shift from an agricultural
economy, industrialization paves the way for modern industries and will need more people to perform
various jobs. Rural jobs such as farming and mining may be (35)_________, while urban employment
opportunities - such as healthcare, business, and education - will need a considerable amount of people
with a variety of skills to fill many jobs.
Modern technology provides for better city infrastructure. With modernization, cities can adapt to
cultural needs and provide support systems for future development. (36)_________, modernization can
make for a more sustainable city layout, with better housing/businesses, market centers, and public transit
systems. For example, in advanced cities, mobile technology can assist large businesses in advanced
mobility hubs for vehicles, (37)_________ significantly reduces the amount of traffic in growing cities.
The very presence of the Internet and IoT technology can expand communication to nearly any
corner of the globe, and has the capability to efficiently run (38)_________ and lighting for a whole city.
These are just a few illustrations of how technology and modernization can provide efficient solutions to
many facets of life, facilitating a better standard of living.
(Source: https://www.flashparking.com)
Question 34: A. bustling B. secluded C. adventurous D. shallow
Question 35: A. labor-intensity B. labor-intensively C. labor-intension D. labor-intensive
Question 36: A. Subsequently B. Additionally C. Previously D. Differently
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. which
Question 38: A. utilities B. practicalities C. benefits D. possibilities
the questions from 39 to 43
Flirting is a fundamental fixture in the sexual behavior repertoire, a time-honored way of signaling
interest and attraction. It is a kind of silent language spoken by men and women around the world. The
ways people communicate interest are so deeply rooted in human nature that the signals are automatically
understood by all: from ways of glancing to movements such as licking one’s lips, to meet nature’s most
basic command—find a good mate and multiply.
Flirting is not a trivial activity; it requires many skills: intellect, body language, creativity,
empathy. At its best, flirting can be high art, whether the flirter is vying for a soul mate, manipulating a
potential customer, or just being playful.
The process of flirting allows the signaling of interest to another in small increments, which is
especially appealing to a partner. Flirting is driven by emotions and instinct rather than logical thought.
Yet the gestures and movements used in flirting also provide reliable clues to a person’s biological and
psychological health.
Flirting has many parallels in the animal world, seen in the behavioral displays many animals
engage in to signal not only their availability but their suitability. For example, penguins search for small
pebbles to deliver to their partner of interest. Seahorses lock their tails together for a romantic swim.
Bower birds use leaves, grass, and twigs to construct elaborate nests.
Across the animal kingdom, such actions are closely tied to seasonal reproductive readiness and
signal reproductive fitness by one creature to another. Among humans, the repertoire of flirting behaviors
can be deployed at will and the exact meaning of any gesture is usually a matter of interpretation.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 39: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Flirting B. Charisma C. Nonverbal cues D. Romantic feelings
Question 40: The word “vying” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. seeking B. challenging C. competing D. clashing
Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. nests’ B. pebbles’ C. penguins’ D. seahorses’
Question 42: According to the passage, what can be suggested about the flirting of animals?
A. Animal courtship varies tremendously between species.
B. Birds prefer subtle movements to lavish displays.
C. Aquatic animals do not flirt due to their breeding habits.
D. Animals cannot feel the excitement of flirting like humans.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The behavior of flirting is not restricted to humans.
B. Humans generally flirt with thinly veiled innuendoes.
C. All humans are equipped with the language of flirtation.
D. There is profound information transmitted in flirting.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp upward demand,
reinforcing its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations in an effort
to contain it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries has been the closure of all
schools. The sudden adjustments of educational processes and altered dynamics between all involved
parties - schools, teachers, students and parents – are challenging familiar routines and threatening crucial
public objectives. Accordingly, the World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to support
policymakers worldwide in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to modern
technologies.
EdTech’s practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing. Previously
considered an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional schooling systems, it is now
essential for preserving a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already benefitted during
the COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools smoothly mastered the sudden
transition to homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for students and parents. Their early
investment in equipment and software and in coaching of educational staff has allowed them to continue
their operations with minimal interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in the
classrooms. However, its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its sustainable
profitability. “So far only 2 to 3% of the 5 trillion USD spent globally on education is digital. This,
combined with EdTech’s sudden vital role during COVID-19 and the significant differences seen up to
now in its geographical investments, intensify the previously unseized global growth opportunities”, says
Dr. Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at Credit Suisse Asset Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/)
Question 44: What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 45: The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _____________.
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden adjustments of
educational processes, EXCEPT __________.
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 47: What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’ C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 48: The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 49: According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education
interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Investors are uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. handed B. naked C. looked D. flooded
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Question 3: A. paddle B. cautious C. preface D. extend
Question 4: A. relevant B. survival C. potential D. tuition
Question 5: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 6: Our rule is that all the volunteers must ________ and must have a clean criminal record.
A. employ B. be employed
C. have employed D. have been employed
Question 7: What I lack __________ my life is an attentive boyfriend who always stands by me through
thick and thin.
A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 8: You are advised to avoid __________ to the confidential information of the company if you
don’t want to have trouble.
A. access B. accessing C. to access D. to accessing
Question 9: __________ that 5,00 famous doctors from around the world were invited to attend.
A. It was at the conference B. It was the conference
C. It was in the conference D. It was on the conference
Question 10: To everyone’s surprise, __________ lion is a member of the cat family.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: I got caught in the traffic, __________ I would have been here sooner.
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
Question 12: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 13: By the time John read her letter, she __________ the city.
A. will have left B. had left
C. will have been left D. had been leaving
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: Mary looks sad because she's just __________ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. broken out C. broken off D. broken into
Question 16: Tom really made a ______ when he was young. He bought a new car and a new house.
A. bomb B. money C. will D. bundles
Question 17: There has been a(n) __________ of interest in networking websites in many parts of the
world in the last ten years.
A. outbreak B. breakthrough C. explosion D. advent
Question 18: Laura's suggestion was turned down because it lacked convincing experimental ______.
A. help B. assistance C. aid D. support
Question 19: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I didn't
__________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 20: Going to a highly prestigious university is a mixed blessing because I’ll have to study far
harder and can be under much pressure.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both the pros and cons
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 21: It is the fifth largest supermarket chain in Vietnam where rigorous standards in the food
industry are applied.
A. thorough B. careful C. adverse D. strict
Question 22: The strict regulations governing the sale of weapons will come into force next week and
everyone must comply with them.
A. wear on B. wear away C. wear off D. wear out
Question 23: The fact that our team scored up to twenty points in the competition was a fair achievement.
A. unjust B. poor C. partial D. unequal

Question 24: Chi is enjoying her moment in the USA and she is talking to Tram on the phone.
- Chi: “Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.”
- Tram: “__________. We all have many problems, pressures and tragedies to deal with.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. I'm afraid, I can't agree with you
Question 25: - Minh: "It's true that she's going to leave the company." - Huong: “__________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge
Question 26: We need to conduct a feasible study to check whether this alternative method can be
A B
suitable for development.
C D
Question 27: Laura decided to play safe and allow an extra ten minutes to leave the scene of the accident.
A B C D
Question 28: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people's attitudes
A B C
towards the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 31: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of information.

C. Not only are some websites really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him because she
couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal of his girlfriend’s trust, she would have broken up with
him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up
with him.
A hundred million tourists from China travel to all corners of the world every year. In 2013 alone,
Chinese travellers spent over 100 billion dollars abroad. A booming economy and a growing Chinese
middle class allow more people to travel than ever before. Western countries have been preparing for the
mass influx of Chinese tourists for some time. They are also making it easier for Chinese travellers to feel
at home when on holiday.
France, (34) __________, has started hiring police officers from China to protect tourists in Paris
and other cities. Other countries, including the United States and Great Britain, are not (35) __________
visas for Chinese travellers anymore. Chinese credit cards are becoming more and more accepted in
Europe and elsewhere. Hotels, airports and shopping malls around the world have been hiring Mandarin
speakers.
Shopping is the main reason for Chinese citizens to travel abroad. China is becoming the biggest
market for luxury goods. Louis Viton bags and Rolex watches are only two items (36) __________
Chinese are fond of, and they will do anything and go anywhere to get them. Luxury items are bought as
status symbols. Many Chinese buy them abroad because there are high taxes on (37) __________ goods
inside China.
However, Chinese citizens also go to other countries for sports and leisure (38)__________.
Canada, for example, wants to help Chinese tourists during the winter months by hiring Chinese skiing
instructors. They also go on extended tours of Europe and the US and enjoy a new culture that is different
from what they experience at home.
Question 34: A. in contrast B. for instance C. in general D. after all
Question 35: A. demanding B. ordering C. requesting D. offering
Question 36: A. who B. when C. whose D. that
Question 37: A. every B. many C. such D. each
Question 38: A. incidents B. pursuits C. actions D. duties

The coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has upended family life around the world. School
closures, working remotely, physical distancing — it’s a lot for parents to navigate. Robert Jenkins,
UNICEF’s Global Chief of Education, offers some tips to help keep children’s education on track while
they’re staying home.
First, plan a routine together. Try to establish a routine that factors in age-appropriate education
programmes that can be followed online, on the television or through the radio. Also, factor in playtime
and time for reading. Use everyday activities as learning opportunities for your children. Although
establishing a routine and structure is critically important for children and young people, in these times
you may notice your children need some level of flexibility. If your child seems restless and agitated
when you’re trying to follow an online learning programme with them, flip to a more active option. Do
not forget that planning and doing house chores together safely is great for the development of fine and
gross motor functions.
Next, have open conversations. Encourage your children to ask questions and express their
feelings with you. Remember that your child may have different reactions to stress, so be patient and
understanding. Start by inviting your child to talk about the issue. Find out how much they already know
and follow their lead. Discuss good hygiene practices. You can use everyday moments to reinforce the
importance of things like regular and thorough handwashing. Make sure you are in a safe environment and
allow your child to talk freely. Drawing, stories and other activities may help to open a discussion.
Last, protect children online. Digital platforms provide an opportunity for children to keep
learning, take part in play and keep in touch with their friends. But increased access online brings
heightened risks for children’s safety, protection and privacy. Discuss the internet with your children so
that they know how it works, what they need to be aware of, and what appropriate behavior looks like on
the platforms they use, such as video calls.
(Adapted from https://www.unicef.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following questions does the passage answer?
A. How can parents maintain their children’s education in the pandemic?
B. What should parents do to help their children reduce stress?
C. How does the pandemic affect children’s education?
D. What are the new ways to learn in the COVID-19 pandemic?
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what does Robert Jenkins suggest that parents should do?
A. Separating learning online from doing everyday activities.
B. Letting their children free in their leisure time.
C. Not involving their children in doing domestic chores.
D. Planning a flexible routine that is suitable for the age of their children.
Question 41: The word “agitated” in paragraph 2 most probably means __________.
A. excited and enjoyable B. anxious and nervous
C. tired and bored D. relaxed and comfortable
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the ways to have open conversations with
children, EXCEPT __________.
A. Stimulate children to ask questions and express their emotions
B. Realizing the current understanding level of children
C. Talking in a secure environment
D. Reacting in different ways to children’s stress
Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. internet B. privacy C. safety D. risk
A new study shows that urbanization shifts this seasonal cue in nuanced ways, with cities in cold
climates triggering earlier spring plant growth and cities in warm climates delaying it. The study also
found that the urban heat island effect, the phenomenon in which cities are warmer than their
surroundings, is not the only culprit behind the shift, suggesting that other aspects of urbanization, such as
pollution, changes in humidity and fertilizer runoff, may also influence plants' seasonal patterns.
Researchers analyzed millions of observations of 136 plant species across the U.S. and Europe to
study how regional temperature and the local density of people—a proxy for urbanization—affect when
plants sprout leaves and blossoms. Their results revealed a complex story: Separately, warmer
temperatures and higher population density each spurred earlier springs. A 3.6-degree Fahrenheit increase
in temperature bumped up plants' production of leaves and flowers by about five and six days,
respectively. A fourfold increase in human population density advanced flowering and leaf production
dates by about three days. But the team found that when these two factors worked together, local
temperature had an outsized influence.
In cold regions — areas with an average November-to-May temperature of about 18 degrees—
plants produced leaves and flowers about 20 days earlier in locations with about 26,000 people per square
mile, compared with equally frigid wildland. When an area's average November-to-May temperature
jumped to 68, however, leaves and flowers appeared four and six days later, respectively, in locations with
about 26,000 people per square mile, compared with equally balmy wildland. In New York, for example,
plants are likely sprouting leaves about 9.5 days earlier and blossoms eight days earlier than uninhabited
regions with the same temperature. Jacksonville, in contrast, is likely pushing leaf production later by
about one day and flowers by about half a day, with leaves appearing two days later and flowers a day
later in Houston.
Even after accounting for urban heat islands, the team's models revealed cities significantly affect
plants' springtime growth. "Not only are there other things going on, but they actually matter quite a lot,"
said study co-author Brian Stucky, Florida Museum research scientist. Plants may not be the only
organisms affected by seasonal shifts, he added. "Seasons are such a big part of our lives. We define our
world around seasonal things. Those rhythms are what we think of as the normal way the world works."
(Source: https://phys.org/)
A. Fauna and flora reply to human influences.
B. Embracing the urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization may hold the key to plant survival.
D. Urbanization delays spring plant growth.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. subtle B. trivial C. obvious D. refined
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. warm climate B. spring plant C. seasonal cue D. plant growth
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, what will rising temperature combined with increased
crowdedness cause?
A. The plants that are supposed to be summer species will bloom in springtime.
B. The stimulating effect prompted by temperature increase will be immense.
C. The two forces will cancel each other and deliver a normal spring outcome.
D. The fruits will ripen before the appearance of leaves due to early blossom.
Question 48: The word “proxy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. guide B. proof C. demonstration D. representative
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what can be generalized from different pairs of comparison
cases?
A. One is the place where residents use the Celsius scale while the other favors Fahrenheit.
B. Both investigated areas are selected due to their typicality for research purposes.
C. One is a populous region while the other is desolate with the same weather settings.
D. Both places have immigrants traveling from countries with opposite climates.
A. Human activities within urban environments only affect the biogeochemical cycles.
B. One key area for future temperature research is climate change in suburbs and exurbs.
C. The frigid areas from November to May boast an average temperature of 18 degrees Celsius.
D. Pollution is one of the aspects of urbanization leading to disrupted plant growth.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 5: Aurora and Linda are reacting to the BLACKPINK member Lisa and her solo debut.
- Aurora: “I think Lisa showed her great sense of patriotism through her debut.”
- Linda: “___________. She included some elements of her Thai heritage in some of her outfits.”
A. I don't think so either B. You’re absolutely right
C. That’s not the same thing at all D. Neither do I
Question 6: Giang is showing his appreciation for Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “________________________.”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Question 7: During the 19th century, Britain became the world's first modern ___________ society.
A. urbanize B. urbanized C. urbanization D. urban
Question 8: You have hurt her feelings. You should have put yourself in her __________ to understand
the reason for her reaction.
A. boots B. sandals C. shoes D. sneakers
Question 9: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the United States.
A. To found B. Having been found
C. Founded D. Founding
Question 10: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before we have finished our work B. as soon as we have finished our work
C. after we had finished our work D. when we finished our work
Question 11: In the past, the __________ exam was very difficult and only a small minority of candidates
got through.
A. national B. mock C. final D. entrance
Question 12: If we continue to use our natural resources at this alarming rate, they will __________ by
the end of the century.
A. run out B. use up C. go off D. bring back
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a handbag on her birthday last week.
A. new nice big yellow B. big nice yellow new
C. nice big new yellow D. nice yellow big new
Question 14: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to _____ their own culture.
A. maintain B. reserve C. conserve D. preserve
Question 15: Many domestic flights have been cancelled __________ adverse weather conditions.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: We had some friends to dinner last night, __________?
A. hadn’t we B. had we C. didn’t we D. did we
Question 17: Valentine’s Day, __________ in many countries, is the time when lovers express their
affection with greetings and gifts.
A. is celebrated B. celebrates C. celebrated D. was celebrated
Question 18: I have to take on more extra work so that I could __________ ends meet with a big family.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: My youngest sister always dreams __________ becoming an English teacher.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
Question 20: The boy __________ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried
Question 21: The more I know her, __________ I admire her.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least

Question 22: The reason why his teacher asked him to repeat the question was that he wasn’t attending
during the lesson.
A. joining B. presenting C. noticing D. appearing
Question 23: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic measures in
this country.
A. untreated B. uninsured C. untested D. uncontrolled
Question 24: I was fairly positive about the fact that I’d heard it before because it’s quite familiar to me.
A. negative B. pessimistic C. hopeless D. uncertain
Question 25: The government took a range of measures to reduce poverty in the area, but they just drew
a blank.
A. had a consequence B. got a result
C. gained an advantage D. took a chance
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19 outbreak. Our
global SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution Working Group, which
(26) __________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27) __________
shared these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global collaboration allows scientists
to better track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends that all countries increase the sequencing of
the COVID-19 virus where possible and share data to help one (28) __________ monitor and respond to
the evolving pandemic.
WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework to identify,
monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like surveillance, research on variants
of concern, and (29) __________ of the impact on diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework
will serve as a guide for manufacturers and countries on changes (30) __________ may be needed for
COVID-19 vaccines.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. prediction B. expectation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. which B. when C. whom D. where
The main idea behind ecotourism is to educate tourists about conservation efforts and research
developments in fragile natural areas, while also offering travelers a chance to experience those areas
firsthand. Unfortunately, when those fragile areas start to receive a lot of traffic from tourists, it can
negatively impact their ecosystems.
Tourism inevitably leads to development – even in ecotourism efforts. When natural areas become
popular in the travel industry, they usually become the site of hotels, excavations and other tourist industry
activities. These activities sometimes displace indigenous groups and local people from their homelands,
which not only damages the integrity of those local communities, but prevents its members from
benefiting from the economic benefits of a growing tourism industry.
On top of ecotourism’s potential impacts on locals, the industry can also take a toll on surrounding
wildlife. It’s ironic, given that ecotourism aims to educate ecotourists and promote the conservation of
natural habitats, but, for some species, the increased presence of humans may by default negatively impact
their natural behaviors. Increased foot traffic can also affect soil quality and plant life in general,
damaging the area’s overall ecosystem.
Finally, not all travel organizations that market themselves as ecotourist programs are actually
environmentally friendly. These organizations know ecotourism is growing in popularity and may take
advantage of that fact by parading as ecotouristic when in reality they ignore eco-friendly practices. For
that reason, it’s important that would-be ecotourists do their homework before giving an organization
their business.
(Adapted from https://traveltips.usatoday.com/)
Question 31: What does the author mainly discuss in the passage?
A. Drawbacks of ecotourism B. Benefits of ecotourism on local areas
C. Ecotourism: A new trend for tourists D. The ways to develop potential ecotourism
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. homelands
B. tourist industry activities
C. displacing indigenous groups and local people from their homelands
D. natural areas become popular in the travel industry
Question 33: According increase in the employment rate of the local people to the passage, what is the
major goal of ecotourism?
A. to increase the employment rate of the local people
B. to stimulate the preservation of natural habitats
C. to enhance tourists’ knowledge about the beauty of surrounding wildlife
D. to diminish the foot traffic affecting the soil quality
Question 34: Which of the following negative impacts of ecotourism is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Some indigenous groups and local inhabitants may not receive the economic benefits of ecotourism.
B. The increase in the number of vehicles will make pollution worse.
C. Some travel organizations do not actually provide environmentally friendly tours.
D. The surrounding wildlife may be influenced by the frequent presence of humans.
Question 35. What does the author mean when suggesting that ecotourists should “do their homework”?
A. Ecotourists should attend some courses about ecotourism.
B. Ecotourists should finish their school work before the journey.
C. Ecotourists should take advantage of the trips to understand more about their school lessons.
D. Ecotourists should find out information about ecotourism and the travel organization before travelling.
The administrative room, which serves as the department headquarters, is noisy like a market.
Health workers from all over the country are present. People dispersed to various corners where we
carefully put on our personal protective equipment (PPE). After putting on the PPE, we slowly entered the
danger zone, where the patients were waiting. The ward with the most seriously ill patients is the red zone,
which is completely isolated since it is the most dangerous. Next is the transition area called the yellow
zone, and finally the medical staff's safe base, the briefing room, dubbed the green zone. When going from
green to red we must wear the PPE, and when leaving the red zone we must remove the PPE and carefully
disinfect it from head to toe before entering the green zone.
We finally entered the ward. With the PPE on, every movement became very difficult, the goggles
became foggy, and even breathing was difficult. Every one of the patients was suffering from shortness of
breath, coupled with anxiety and panic from witnessing other patients in the room get worse and
occasionally pass away. We had to practice speaking and breathing gently to avoid creating strong air
flows through our masks, which makes it easy to spread the infection. Nurses struggle to perform
venipuncture. Normally very dexterous at drawing blood, here they sometimes need two or three attempts
since having to wear multiple pairs of gloves hinder their ability to feel with their fingers. It is also
difficult for doctors to examine the patients since they cannot use stethoscopes and must be very brief
when asking patients questions. Instead, by observing whether patients breathe gently, with difficulty or
abnormally, and noting their facial expressions, sweat, skin color, we can assess the progress of the
disease.
As the day went by, severe patients were treated and less severe patients were recovering, and so
we finally felt reassured despite being drenched in sweat. Just as it was time for us to return to the green
zone to write up medical records, there was a commotion from the room next door. A patient's condition
was worsening. All the medical staff in the room rushed in for emergency treatment. After a few minutes
the patient's heartbeat returned, and the ventilator was reattached for the patient to resume breathing. My
colleagues were covered in sweat as if they had just showered.
(Source: https://e.vnexpress.net/)
A. Life in a Covid-19 field hospital.
B. A doctor’s perspective on COVID-19.
C. Dynamics between patients and doctors.
D. A day battle inside a Covid hospital.
Question 37: The word “dispersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scattered B. disunited C. disbanded D. sprinkled
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a challenge for the medics?
A. tight protective equipment B. some uncooperative patients
C. the restrictions on speaking D. the looming risk of infection
Question 39: The word “dexterous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quick B. graceful C. brilliant D. adroit
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. nurses B. doctors C. patients D. colleagues
Question 41: Which is NOT true about the hospital in this story?
A. Speaking too much or with force is discouraged to avoid the risk of infection.
B. Only until very late at night could the health workers return to the safe area.
C. Observation skills become crucial for the doctors in this difficult time.
D. Movements between the green and red zones are carefully regulated.
Question 42: Where would the author and his colleagues most possibly go right next?
A. The blue zone B. The red zone C. The yellow zone D. The green zone
Question 43: Mike doesn't feel well today. He can't go out with his friends.
A. If Mike felt well today, he could go out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he can go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn't have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can't go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no exception
whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take the job.
C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night.
C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at night.
Question 47: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Question 48: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 49: Marry was on a real height after easily winning the competition because she really didn't
A B C
expect to win.
D
Question 50: Economics in my classes at Sul Ross University were very difficult for me to learn
A B C
and understand.
D
-----THE END-----
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Question 5: He is a highly intelligent person, __________?
A. wasn’t he B. isn’t he C. has he D. was he
Question 6: My mother bought a __________ lunch box for me yesterday.
A. blue new plastic B. new plastic blue C. new blue plastic D. blue new plastic
Question 7: This expensive car __________ me lots of trouble ever since I got it.
A. has been given B. gave C. has given D. gives
Question 8: __________ nutritious your breakfast is, the healthier you feel during the day.
A. Most of B. More C. Most D. The more
Question 9: __________ poverty and faced problems in pursuing her career, Marry finally realized the
importance of perseverance and bravery.
A. Have experienced B. Having experienced
C. To experience D. Having been experienced
Question 10: The conventional dessert was topped __________ whipped cream and pieces of fruit.
A. by B. on C. for D. with
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: You must have a guarantor in order to get __________ visa to enter the country.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 13: Before __________, we had gone home.
A. raining B. having rained C. rained D. it rained
Question 14: According to a new research, The Air Force is the number one ranked __________ in this
area.
A. employer B. employee C. employment D. employ
Question 15: Marry was born in Korea but ______ in Los Angeles and quickly became Americanized.
A. grew up B. brought up C. turned up D. came up
Question 16: Government has already ____ all reasonable precautions to limit the spread of coronavirus.
A. taken B. done C. made D. carried
Question 17: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her CV
on the __________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 18: My vegetarian diet seems to be __________ because I've lost five pounds since I started this
diet.
A. operating B. working C. performing D. driving
Question 19: Ho Chi Minh president raised six urgent issues that government needed to solve
immediately to ease the food __________ in 1945.
A. lack B. deficiencies C. inadequacies D. shortages
Question 20: Laura would like to be financially secure by age 50, so she is working hard to earn a lot of
money.
A. safe B. stable C. confident D. protected
Question 21: He didn’t realize his ambition of becoming a dancer because he lost a leg in a motorcycle
accident.
A. recognize B. achieve C. identify D. succeed
Question 22: I like modern art to a certain degree, but I don't like the really experimental stuff.
A. unsure B. unlimited C. unchanged D. uncertain
Question 23: Some doctors in this hospital came under suspicion of unethical behavior towards their
patients.
A. betrayed people’s trust B. found not guilty
C. received people’s approval D. considered to be dishonest
Question 24: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Loan: “__________”
Question 25: Thanh and Hung are talking about a businesswoman.
- Thanh: “Mrs Phuong Hang is an exceptionally talented businesswoman to make such an enormous
fortune”
- Hung: “__________. Very few women can achieve great success like her.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. I’m afraid I can’t side with you on this one D. There’re no doubtful about it
Question 26: The boy collided with the car is making recovery from operation.
A B C D
Question 27: It’s reported that the number of cars which is stolen every year has risen.
A B C D
Question 28: I wonder if I can pay for the car by instalments because I really want it but I don’t have
A B C
money.
D
Question 29: This is the most enjoyable wedding party I have ever attended.
A. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I have never attended a more enjoyable wedding party than this one.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party like this.
Question 30: "It's you who broke my vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It wasn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may not have worried about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t have worried about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t have worried about these trivial things.
D. You can’t have worried about these trivial things.
Question 32: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an unacceptable
result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost all matches
with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an
Question 33: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Exploration has changed a lot over time. In the past, only adventurers who were willing to take
(34) __________ were considered explorers. In contrast, anyone can be an explorer today thanks to
modern technology.
In the past, when explorers traveled the world, people back home had to wait for months to hear
about their adventures. Explorers kept (35) __________ and wrote letters about their experiences. They
would only be able to tell (36)__________what they saw after they returned. By the end of the nineteenth
century, explorers were also able to take photos in the same way (37)__________ they do today.
However, they were unable to see the photos right away. It often took a long time for them to get photos
printed.
(38) __________, today’s explorers can travel around the globe and can send back live, real-time
images. Thanks to high-tech devices and the Internet, anyone can interact with them. When a discovery is
made, we can see photos on social media and read blog posts the same day. We may not be there, but we
still take part in the adventure.
(Adapted from Thomas Fast, 2017)
Question 34: A. dangers B. possibilities C. risks D. chances
Question 35: A. magazines B. journals C. history D. publication
Question 36: A. another B. other C. the others D. others
Question 37: A. what B. where C. that D. when
Question 38: A. In the same way B. On one hand C. By comparison D. Similarly
When I surveyed over 5,000 middle grade students for my book, kids were already reminding me
of the technology gap between them and their parents. They claimed that parents “didn’t have a clue” as to
what they were experiencing on screens. While generation gap is often characteristic of adolescence in
any generation, it is even wider because of rapidly changing technology.
Even the guidelines I prescribed six years ago would be impossible to implement for this
generation of tablets, cellphones and notebooks that travel in children’s backpacks. Setting and enforcing
guidelines early for children is helpful. Taking technology away at bedtime is still possible and at least
allows them a good night’s rest. Cautioning your children about not sharing real names, addresses or
phone numbers in chatrooms or for any emails protects them somewhat. Making sure your hardworking
home is balanced by non-screen family fun can be enormous protection. Beware of over-consequencing
and over-punishing for small problems. We don’t want your children to think of their parents as enemies
in a battle of wills.
Tell your children how wise and experienced you are and how much you love them at least five
times a week. They need to know they can count on you in this complex, fast-moving world even if they
know more about technology than you do. Like every generation, your children will grow up and
hopefully find responsible directions for their own lives. Technology skills are valued in the work force
and technology is here to stay. Learning as much about it as possible will help you stay tuned-in to what
your children aren’t saying.
(Source: https://www.wdtimes.com/)
A. Technology - a great challenge to parents. B. Negative aspects of technology.
C. Kids don’t want to talk about their lives. D. Technology facilitates communication.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. characteristic B. middle grade student
C. generation gap D. technology gap
Question 41: According to the passage, what shouldn’t the parents do in order to regulate the children’s
use of technology?
A. Confiscating the technology when bedtime comes.
B. Preserving time for activities beyond screens and technology.
C. Warning kids against oversharing on social media.
D. Demanding kids to share with the parents all their passwords.
Question 42: The word “tuned-in” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. oblivious B. alien C. sensitive D. helpful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE about the technology in this day and age?
A. Guidelines for technological parental control are still the same.
B. People can’t live successfully without technical skills.
C. Technology has made community activities more crucial than ever.
D. The detrimental effects of technology are holding it back.
If we really care about nature, then surely conservation has to be practical; it needs to work.
Everything we hear on the news seems to say the opposite: nature continues to go down the tube;
extinction rates are increasing; new threats like climate change are emerging; and beautiful places are
being destroyed before our eyes. All this is true; and yet…
If things are getting worse, it is obvious that conservation is failing. Well, no. In 2006, scientists at
BirdLife International showed that conservation action had prevented 16 bird species from going extinct
during the 1994-2004 time period. In 2014, scientists from the Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust found
that sustained conservation action from 1988 to 2012 resulted in eight species being down-listed to lower
categories of threat on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. In a pivotal study in 2015, a group of
researchers from the IUCN Species Survival Commission found that without conservation action that took
place between 1996 and 2008, the status of the world’s ungulates (deer, antelopes, cattle and their
relatives) would have been nearly eight times worse than was actually observed. In 2017, researchers were
able to quantify how conservation investments made between 1996 and 2008 reduced biodiversity loss in
109 countries by 29% per country on average.
Once again, this suggests that although too little was spent on conservation, it had a significant
level of success. As a result, decision-makers are now in a position, for the first time, to forecast what the
positive impacts of any increase in conservation spending are likely to be in relation to different scenarios
of human development pressure, and then compare these forecasts to their policy targets.
There is one clear conclusion from these and similar studies: conservation does work, but we do
not do anywhere close to enough of it. The threats to nature are certainly growing and this means that we
have to spend more on conservation just to stand still. On the other hand, if some of the commitments
made by the world’s governments are actually acted upon, such as the 2010 Aichi Biodiversity Targets

and the 2015 Sustainable Development Goals, then the number of resources to be allocated to
conservation is set to increase. Let’s hope that this will indeed be the case.
(Source: https://www.synchronicityearth.org/)
Question 44: Which question is the passage most possibly the answer to?
A. What exactly do conservationists need to do?
B. Why do we conserve nature in the first place?
C. Does conservation actually work?
D. What is and isn’t conservation?
Question 45: The word “emerging” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.
A. proceeding B. waning C. popping D. arising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a successful effort in conservation?
A. Many bird species were brought back from the brink of extinction.
B. Situation of the ungulates has become better.
C. Eight species are now less at risk of extinction.
D. The decline in biological diversity in many countries slowed down.
Question 47: The word “quantify” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________.
A. evaluate B. rate C. determine D. judge
Question 48: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. establishing new conservation goals B. support from the governments
C. the amount of resources D. more investment in conservation
Question 49: According to the passage, the overall situation is getting worse, __________.
A. and could turn even worse within the next decade.
B. despite some small local successes in conservation.
C. but not as fast as if we were doing no conservation at all.
D. yet many people still think that we are making progress.
Question 50. Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. There is increasing evidence that conservation is actually working.
B. There are many different views on how to achieve conservation.
C. Governments will need to do more to reach the necessary level of success.
D. Dears and antelopes are the species belonging to the ungulates group.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Question 3: A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Question 5: Many people are deeply unhappy about the way the government has handled this matter,
______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: The basic design of the car is very similar __________ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8: __________ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive B. Most expensive
C. The more expensive D. The most expensive
Question 9: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good
Question 10: I will tell David you are looking for him when I __________ him tomorrow.
A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: It was made of a __________ material.
A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic
C. green strange metallic D. green metallic strange
Question 13: __________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.
A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: I know you don’t like Jack’s idea, but just __________ with him for a while.
A. get out B. get along C. play along D. play out
Question 16: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I didn't
__________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 17: If you have any information that is __________ to the investigation, you should call the
police.
A. substantial B. material C. identical D. rational
Question 18: The hospital hit the __________ and became the center of a media storm when a number of
suspicious deaths occurred.
A. books B. ceiling C. buffers D. headlines
Question 19: The judge has decided to __________ his decision until a later date because there wasn’t
enough evidence.
A. preserve B. reserve C. maintain D. conserve

Question 20: It is an independent voluntary organization which aims to provide assistance to people in
need.
A. necessity B. hardship C. obstacle D. requirement
Question 21: Manufacturing plants which produce large amounts of carbon dioxide should closely
monitor the emission.
A. nearly B. exactly C. carefully D. strongly
Question 22: That visitors throw garbage into the ocean shows how shallow their commitment to the
environment really is.
A. deep B. serious C. attentive D. significant
Question 23: She demonstrated a clear determination to win because she didn’t throw in the towel just
because she had lost one game.
A. admit that she has been defeated B. stop trying to win
C. have the chance to succeed D. do her best to achieve victory
Question 24: Ronaldo and Messi are meeting at an outdoor cafe serving drinks.
- Messi: “Which drink do you want, coke or water?”
- Ronaldo: “__________ because it’s better for our health than coke.”
A. Either will do B. I’d prefer a glass of water
C. I don’t like both of them D. No thanks, I’ve just had some
Question 25: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Loan: “__________”
Question 26: He introduced himself to me and asked if I’d like him to visit once in awhile on his rounds.
A B C D
Question 27: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A B C D
Question 28: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regardless of her age, sex, or
nationality. A B C D
Question 29: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party a long time ago.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 30: "It's me who broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may worry about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Question 32: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.
A. If she doesn’t live so far away, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
B. He wishes she lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.
C. If only she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.
D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have promoted to chief executive.
D. But for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.
The (34) __________ girl who fell off a 12th floor apartment in Hanoi and was saved by a truck
driver last Sunday was discharged from hospital Friday morning. Hoang Hai Duc, head of pediatric
orthopedics at the National Children’s Hospital, said a dislocated hip has been fixed and the child would
have a (35) __________ after two or three weeks to see if her hips have regained their full function. "This
is truly too big a joy for our family," the girl’s mother said. The three-year-old dislocated (36)
__________ falling 50 m from the balcony in an apartment complex on Nguyen Huy Tuong Street. She
fortunately survived after Nguyen Ngoc Manh, a 31-year-old truck driver (37) __________ had parked
nearby, clambered up a corrugated roof and caught the falling child. Manh, who slightly injured his arms
in the ordeal, said the (38) __________ has turned his life upside down. His story was picked up by the
national and international media, turning him into a celebrity overnight. Many called him a hero to his
discomfort. "I don’t see myself as a hero; I just want to do good," he had said at the time.
Question 34: A. a little B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. checkup B. breakup C. outbreak D. breakthrough
Question 36: A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 37: A. which B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38: A. occasion B. incident C. accident D. situation
The 21st century has become another important century for inventions and discoveries. We are only
in the 2nd decade of this century currently but we have already witnessed many big innovations that have
drastically changed our way of living. Bluetooth technology, broadband internet, artificial heart, genetic
engineering, virtual reality, 3D printing are some to name a few. These inventions are changing the way
we live, do our things and communicate with the others. Even though some of these developments are in
the early stage of innovation, they have a more sophisticated and promising future. Social media is one of
the most important aspects that has affected each person in this modern time.
According to Heidi Cohen, Social Media are the platforms that enable the interactive web by
engaging users to participate in, comment on and create content as means of communicating with their
social graph, other users and the public. The power of social media has changed most of the things in our
daily life. Social media has revolutionized and completely changed the way we send and receive
information. It is more interactive, can be done in realtime and uses a wide number of media like text,
audio, video, pictures, graphics and more. With these sites, sending and receiving messages offline and in
realtime, audio and video chatting, sharing pictures, video and text, going “Live” to many audiences,
meeting old friends and making new has revolutionized our way of establishing connections with others.
There are also the negative sides of the innovation of social media and their usage. Increase in
cyber-crime, invasion of privacy, security threats etc. is some of the issues associated with social
networks. But at the same time social networks are working themselves to cope with the increasing
problems that arise with the improper use of it. With more and more sophistication and versatility of use,
social media have undoubtedly proved to be a boon to connectivity and social interaction between people
in this age of communication and information technology.
(Adapted from https://arjungelal.wordpress.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following could serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Social Media – One of the Greatest Inventions of the 21st Century
B. How Positive Social Media Changes Our Lives?
C. Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Media
D. Important Inventions in Modern Society
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. information B. the way C. social media D. the power
Question 41: The following are benefits brought by social media mentioned in paragraph 2, EXCEPT
__________.
A. connecting people all over the world
B. keeping contact with others via various ways
C. helping people exchange information in a more interactive way
D. increasing the private invasion of users
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE?
A. The new inventions remain the way we interact with each other.
B. It’s unlikely for people to process documents on social media.
C. Using social media improperly will increase the problems for users.
D. People nowadays send and receive more online messages than normal.
Question 43: The word “boon” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefit B. drawback C. challenge D. advance
Six the Musical tells the stories of King Henry VIII's six wives through a collection of pop songs
as they compare lives to see who suffered the most and who should therefore lead their girl group. The
songs are catchy, fun, and exciting, and they are genuinely great pop tunes. The singing performances
from the Australian actresses were amazing, and all of them were technically very skilled.
It originated as a college student's concept album and it is clear even in performance that it is not
designed to exist as anything more than that. The dialogue is clumsy and tonally confused. It gives the
audience proverbial whiplash by sounding like a Hi-5 concert one moment to hammy, beginner improv-
style dialogue the next, before snapping to blunt, and pretty overt, British jokes about sex and adultery.
Six tries to emulate Hamilton's success by using modern musical elements and basing the story on
a 'woke' and empowering retelling of history. But, as a revision on Henry VIII's wives, it just regurgitates
a bunch of facts that the audience already knows and sets it to the song. In performance most of the
characters are portrayed as strong, independent women, and they pull it off well by anchoring their music
in modern-day pop feminists. But the squabbles between the wives play into the stereotype that women
are catty and bitch about each other behind their backs. The entire musical is steeped in the idea that these
women are only notable because of their relationship with King Henry VIII. Only in the last song of the
show do the women finally reject Henry VIII and come to support and appreciate each other. Six didn't
have to be like that. It could have been about the women supporting each other from the start.
And that is my other problem with Six. It tries to sell itself as a musical when it really isn’t. Most
of the actresses cannot act or dance, they can only sing, and the choreography they are working with is
very static compared to the likes of West Side Story, Moulin Rouge or most other musicals. At the same
time, the set and lighting design are barely used and don't add much to their performances.
(Source: https://www.arc.unsw.edu.au/)
A. Feminism in the musical genre. B. Reviewing Six the musical.
C. The fame of a new musical. D. A failed copy of Hamilton.
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Henry VIII's wives B. pop tunes C. performances D. actresses
Question 46: The phrase “steeped in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imbued with B. connected with C. soaked in D. implanted in
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem with Six the musical?
A. It tries to follow in the footsteps of the legendary historical musical – Hamilton.
B. The musical fails to provide a new perspective as a revision on Henry VIII's wives.
C. The characters can’t portray the pop stars they are modelled after.
D. The cast of Six the musical all consists of female performers.
Question 48: The word “static” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stable B. steady C. unvarying D. orderly
Question 49: The author’s criticism about the musical is based on the rationale that __________.
A. a rendition of history should not stray too far from the original version.
B. historical stories should not be told with adulterous humor and sass.
C. a musical should combine acting, dancing, singing and set design together.
D. in Broadway, women’s stories don’t count unless they are about suffering.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is mentioned about Six the musical?
A. Six the musical is nothing more than a concept album.
B. Six the musical’s songs belong on the Billboard Hot 100.
C. Six the musical is a celebration of 16th-century girl power.
D. Six the musical has a witty, clever, and powerful dialogue.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or marbles
__________ mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their teachers will
become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained to deal with
difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware of what their
tour guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________ another job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided to quit her
new job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter
Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of food poisoning
in the countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University because it has
a high reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are arranged to
__________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the __________ of
running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the __________
because of the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local store, so you
can buy them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was deemed too
sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken into the art
gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything

Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time management
skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor weather conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for the construction
A B C D
of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert for two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my mother to me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities.
A. The school ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.

Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have sympathy for
me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s burgeoning
population, Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a deterioration in
environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural production starting
in the 1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the 1960s through the 1900s, yields of
rice and wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the continent’s population increased by 60 per cent,
grain prices fell, the average Asian consumed nearly a third more calories, and the poverty rate was cut in
half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green revolution. There
are two competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is high-tech, with a heavy emphasis on
continuing work of breeding better crops, but with modern genetic techniques. Scientists can now identify
and manipulate a huge variety of plant genes, for traits like disease (38) __________ and drought
tolerance. That is going to make farming more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus has intermittently closed
classrooms and campuses over the past year. But despite the disruption, the widespread shift to online
learning has given learners and education providers a glimpse of the future.
For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology training
provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a professor of business
education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of the
pandemic. For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest accomplishment
was being able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students to sit hundreds of exams under
supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to graduate. “Inevitably, after the pandemic, some
of this will move back offline,” he predicts, “but I think we will see a much more significant role for
online teaching, online assessment, online socializing and online libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA, says Paul.
“For learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused, you're going to pay
attention and not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a question at any time,” he says.
“You can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn from each other and the subject matter can
be tailored to your understanding.” Paul believes, “If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still important that
you can have a cup of coffee with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in class. But I don’t
think things will return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/)
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually
Question 41: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?
A. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic?
A. Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these founded on long-
held myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly interconnected and interdependent
world, proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that gives you the opportunity to engage with the
world in a more immediate and meaningful way—whether in your neighborhood or thousands of miles
away—while better preparing you to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect with others. Being
able to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible gift. Bilinguals have the unique
opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in their personal and professional lives.
Knowing the language makes you a local no matter where you are, opening up your world literally and
figuratively. You will be shaped by communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of strangers. You
will build lifelong friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of learning languages
for many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your monolingual
peers. They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no matter your sector or skill level
—and the demand for bilingual professionals is rising exponentially. In fact, between 2010 and 2015, the
number of U.S. job postings specifically geared toward bilingual candidates more than doubled.
Employers are seeking professionals who can communicate seamlessly with customers in new and
expanding overseas markets, as well as serve and sell to a large foreign-born population here at home.
With more than 60 million U.S. residents who speak a language other than English at home, you don’t
need to get on a plane to put your language skills to work. As an added incentive, in many instances,
language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased salaries. Whatever your career aspiration—with
language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another language,
EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international customers in their
nation and abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means _______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the tallest
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Question 2: A. begged B. canned C. booked D. buttoned
Question 3: A. erode B. involve C. reduce D. product
Question 4: A. discussion B. assistant C. character D. expensive
Question 5: There is no use persuading her to join us because her parents_______ her to return home after
the last game _________ over.
A. had told/was B. have told/is C. told/had been D. tell/has been
Question 6: If anyone ________, tell them I'm not at home.
A. call B. calls C. called D. should call
Question 7: All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability.
A. searched B. vetted C. investigated D. scrutinized
Question 8: They knew that it was just not feasible ______ such a small firm to compete with the big
boys.
A. in B. at C. for D. about
Question 9: If we lose the case we may be _______________ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 10: _________ is someone who can reduce spending without hurting morale.
A. What is needed B. What needs C. Being needed D. That needs
Question 11: We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but it _____ the
whole time we were there.
A. poured with rain B. rained dogs and cats
C. dropped in the bucket D. made hay while the sun shined
Question 12: She made as if ____________ but then stopped.
A. to speak B. speaking C. spoken D. speak
Question 13: ____________ the ability to delay normal cognitive decline as we age, there are significant
social benefits to lifelong learning.
A. Aside from B. In addition C. Moreover D. Furthermore
Question 14: _________ massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up recovery
from medical problems.
A. a B. the C. 0 D. some
Question 15. Since the situation was so bad, she should _________ care of much earlier.
A. have taken B. have been taken C. be taken D. take
Question 16: The committee is _______ of well-known mountaineers.
A. contained B. comprised C. included D. consisted
Question 17: It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the __________ staff every 6 months
to clean up the air conditioners.
A. maintaining B. maintain C. maintainable D. maintenance
Question 18: He made all sorts of beautiful plans for his tour without taking into consideration the
possibility ________ an entry visa.
A. of refusing B. of being refused C. of refusal of D. to be refused
Question 19: You have never had any liking for cats, ________ ?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 20: While Tom Spinkler was travelling along Wagon Wheel Road in Big Cypress Swamp in
South Florida, he came across a young snake.
A. run up B. run down C. run into D. run out
Question 21: The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty
resources.
A. ordinary B. limited C. abundant D. natural
Question 22: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Question 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
It is natural for young people to be critical of their parents at times and to blame them for most of
the (24) __________ between them. They have always complained, more or less justly, that their parents
are old-fashioned, possessive and dominant; that they do not trust their children to deal with obstacles;
(25) ___________ they talk too much about certain problems and that they have no sense of humor, at
least in parent-child relationships. I think it is true that parents often (26) _________ their teenage
children and also forget how they themselves felt when young.
Young people often irritate their parents with their choices in clothes and hairstyles, in entertainers
and music. This is not their motive. They feel cut off from the adult world into which they have not yet
been accepted. (27)_________they create a culture and society of their own. Then, if it turns out that their
music or entertainers or vocabulary or clothes or hairstyles irritate their parents, this gives them additional
enjoyment. They feel they are superior, at least in a small way, and that they are leaders in style and taste.
If you plan to control your life, co-operation can be part of that plan. You can charm others,
especially parents, into doing things the ways you want. You can impress others with your sense of
responsibility and (28) _________, so that they will give you the authority to do what you want to do.
(Source: https://www.woyaosouti.com/topic/107813763)
Question 24: A. misunderstandings B. debates C. conflict D. understanding
Question 25: A. that B. which C. who D. why
Question 26: A. overestimate B. underestimate C. impose D. dominate
Question 27: A. However B. Besides C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 28: A. initiation B. initiate C. initiative D. initial
Question 29: It was reported that a policeman was badly injured in the explosion.
A B C D
Question 30: The Principal demanded that the heaters repair immediately. Winter is coming!
A B C D
Question 31: The accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
So far, COVID-19 has caused the deaths of more than 3 million people worldwide, and that
number could be significantly higher given how challenging it is to track every COVID-19 death. Despite
this, it would make sense to assume that the natural world, at least, is getting a bit of a break. A world in
which humans are traveling far less should offer major environmental benefits. But is wildlife really
benefitting from the pandemic?
One major and predominately positive benefit of the pandemic for wildlife is less human travel.
Due to the significant reduction in journeys, fewer people are hitting and injuring or killing wildlife on
roadways. In addition, fewer ships are traveling through the world’s waterways and oceans for shipping,
fishing, aquaculture, and tourism purposes. A reduction in water travel and activity could reduce the risk
of ships striking and injuring or killing marine animals. It may also reduce the marine disruption that
occurs due to noise pollution from ships, fishing sonar, and recreational boats. Birds might also be
benefitting from the sharp decline in air travel, which may have vastly reduced the risk of bird strikes.
People are also reporting seeing wildlife in unexpected places, such as in large cities and commercial
harbors. The increased number of animals in urban environments is likely due to reductions in human
presence, air and water pollution levels, and noise pollution.
However, some studies have also found that the pandemic may actually be causing harm to
wildlife. In one study, researchers found that reduced human disturbance relating to lockdown has
benefitted invasive alien species by interrupting the actions that people were taking to control them. The
authors also claim that pandemic restrictions have reduced the work of conservation and law enforcement
organizations that care for wildlife and protected areas. Some experts also worry that economic hardship
in low income countries may lead to an increase in natural resource exploitation, such as unlicensed
logging and the illegal wildlife market, as people run out of ways to earn a living.
(Adapted from https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/)
A. The Advantages of COVID – 19 for Natural Environment
B. The Influence of COVID – 19 on Economics and on Wildlife: Which is Greater?
C. The Potential Impact of the COVID – 19 Pandemic on Wildlife
D. COVID – 19: Good or Bad?
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as the benefits of COVID – 19 for the
wildlife?
A. Fewer terrestrial and marine animals are damaged by people’s transport.
B. The number of birds increases because fewer people travel by plane.
C. There are more animals in urban places owing to the cleaner natural environment.
D. Marine disruption relating to noise pollution happens more frequently.
A. people B. invasive alien species
C. researchers D. studies
Question 35: The word “hardship” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. difficulty B. challenge C. recovery D. cooperation
Question 36: The author stated in the passage that pandemic restrictions __________.
A. limited conservationists from preserving the wildlife and their habitat.
B. increased deforestation and overexploitation.
C. resulted in the disappearance of invasive alien species.
D. caused the reduction in animals’ presence in urban environments.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to
the economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have
just endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understand. But
other people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people.
The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation may
really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the way
you think about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm.
One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They
cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems
to have been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their
families are unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is
already trying to figure out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing
a very normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be better off.
They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time.
This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without
having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the
situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a better
tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through
many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if
you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The advice
of a friend, family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can
certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 37: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.
B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.
C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful.
D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists.
Question 38: The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage
Question 39: What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. all of the people
C. the first family D. the second family
Question 40: It can be inferred from the third paragraph that ______________.
A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.
B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are.
C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists.
D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations.
Question 41: The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _____________.
A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination
A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. Paying attention to the solutions to the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes.
D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today.
Question 43: According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles?
A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary.
C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is.
questions.
Question 44: He should have listened to your advice.
A. It was essential that he listen to your advice but he didn't.
B. It was likely that he could have listened to your advice.
C. I was guess he might have taken your advice.
D. He needn’t have listened to your advice.
Question 45: Tom said: "I have already had breakfast, so I am not hungry."
A. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
B. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he is not hungry.
C. Tom said he has already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
D. Tom said he had already had breakfast, so he was not hungry.
Question 46: As John became more successful, he had less time for his family.
A. The less time John had for his family, the more successful he became.
B. The more successful John became, the less time he had for his family.
C. More and more successful John achieved caused him to have less time for his family.
D. The more successful John achieved, the less time he had for his family.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47: Two classmates are talking to each other.
– Student 1: "How can volunteers benefit from their work?"
– Student 2: “__________________.”
A. They earn a lot of money. B. They can live better than others.
C. They feel happy themselves. D. They don't have any worries.
Question 48: Ryan finds a new job in New York and is about to move there. He doesn't want his
friendship with Adriana to drift apart.
- Adriana: “Don't forget to drop me a line when you settle down."
- Ryan: “________________.”
A. Oh, that's great! But I'm going to miss you. B. I look forward to hearing from you soon.
C. Trust me. I won't. I'll keep you posted. D. All right! Good luck!
Question 49: We live in a world. Immediate and easy access to information is a standard expectation
there.
A. Immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is a standard expectation.
B. Immediate and easy access to information is expected to be standardized in the world we live in.
C. People living in this world expect that immediate and easy access to information is a standard.
D. It is expected that immediate and easy access to information in the world we live in is a standard.
Question 50: Urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen. Therefore, our cities
have to adapt.
A. Our cities have to adapt if urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen.
B. As the urban population grows and the effects of climate change worsen, our cities have to adapt.
C. Our cities are always adaptive to urban population growth and the effects of climate change.
D. Urban population growth and effects of climate changes are worsening, which make our cities more
adaptive.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. arranged B. aged C. changed D. managed
Question 2: A. elongated B. integrate C. economy D. reliable

Question 3: A. volunteer B. theory C. physical D. principle
Question 4: A. burden B. childcare C. wisely D. esteem
Question 5: Thanks to lifelong learning, people's level of awareness ____________ significantly.
A. has improved B. have improved
C. has been improving D. have been improved
Question 6: A generation gap or generational gap, is a difference __________ opinions between one
generation and another regarding beliefs, politics, or values.
A. in B. between C. of D. among
Question 7: A new TV show has sparked ________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of
college.
A. controversy B. argument C. contention D. debate
Question 8: Singapore is a __________ example of a smart city, and is constantly evolving its "city brain,
"a backbone of technologies is used to help control pollution, monitor traffic, allocate parking,
communicate with citizens.
A. lead B. leading C. led D. leader
Question 9: Despite the tough _______ in the sector, our little store managed to break _________ its first
year in operation.
A. contest/level B. competition/equal
C. competition/even D. opposition/equal
Question 10: Under this high-pressure and competitive environment, it is ____ a balanced lifestyle.
A. difficult for people to achieve B. difficult to achieve for people
C. for people to achieve difficult D. for difficult people to achieve
Question 11: This ticket ____ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B. grants C. entitles D. credits
Question 12: __________ as it was at such a time, his work attracted much attention.
A. Being published B. Published C. Publishing D. To be published
Question 13: It can be argued that the future of human life on the planet rests on __________ smooth
transition to cities that are more efficient and less wasteful.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 14: I wish you __________ throw rubbish out of the car window.
A. won't B. wouldn't C. didn't D. couldn't
Question 15: Sarah’s friends all had brothers and sisters but she was a (n) _____ child.
A. singular B. individual C. single D. only
Question 16: The greatest happiness of life is the conviction that we are loved; loved for ourselves, or
rather, loved __________ of ourselves.
A. regardless B. in spite C. in case D. instead
Question 17: Being independent is a mixture of many things from teaching yourself new things to
__________ on an adventure all on your own.
A. to embark B. embark C. embarking D. embarked
Question 18: Ian has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared for him.
A. lending B. taking C. putting D. heading
Question 19: __________ for about 4 weeks, we now can perform most of the tasks confidently.
A. Being trained B. Training
C. Having train D. Having been trained
Question 20: That was so serious a matter that I had no choice but to call in the police.
A. ask the police to come and help B. phone to say where we are
C. ask the police to come to a particular place D. order the police by phone
Question 21: An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.
A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant
Question 22: My father was as poor as a church mouse growing up, so his sole focus was to give his
kids every opportunity in life that he missed out on.
A. looked like a million dollars B. was born with a silver spoon in his mouth
C. was short of cash D. was very poor
Question 23: Social media which prove to be an efficient means of communication have helped narrow
the gap between faraway people.
A. inadequate B. ineffective C. incapable D. impotent
The first thing that is included in the "living together” (24) ______ is the expected good relations
with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. Lots of people think that everyone
should share the housework (25) ________, but in many homes parents do most of it. To certain minds,
many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework equally
is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and parents
must do things together. For this they can establish a housework planning.
(26)_________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will
think that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should share the
housework because (27) ______ will help them when they have to establish their own family in the future.
Too many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents
delegate basic housework to teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the
housework in their new grown-up life.
It can be (28) ________ concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for future,
because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens will
be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)
Question 24: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 25: A. equal B. equalize C. equality D. equally
Question 26: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 27: A. which B. what C. that D. who
Question 28: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly
Question 29: Everything that parents do will be very likely to transfer to their children through the
learning process. A B C D
Question 30: It was the shop near my school that I bought these shirts and accessories.
A B C D
Question 31: It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A B C D
Exactly 50 years ago, humanity stepped foot on the surface of the Moon for the first time. It was a
miracle, and one made so powerful because it was so very unlikely. It was hailed as an incredible success.
But the chance of failure was such that authorities had to prepare for the possibility of losing the
astronauts. Those preparations offer a humbling insight into how risky that mission was, and how high the
stakes were. Probably the most potent document from those preparations is the speech that would have
been used to hail the bravery of the astronauts as they were left to their death on the Moon.
It was written to announce to the world that the astronauts had been lost, and that the Moon
mission was a failure. After it was read, the two astronauts would be given a ceremony something like the
burial at sea, but one entirely without precedent. The document was hidden for many years – unused, it
was "quietly tucked away into the record" after the astronauts returned home, as the National Archive that
now holds it notes. But over time it became public, after being revealed by the man who wrote it, and is
now available for the public to read.
It was prepared in the case that the astronauts and their moon lander failed to get back to the main
craft that was floating around in the Moon's orbit ready to bring them home, and contained Neil
Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin's colleague Michael Collins. In that case, it was most likely that those
pioneering explorers would not lose their lives in a single spectacular moment. Instead, they would most
likely be stranded, stuck 250,000 miles from Earth with no way of getting back home. "If they couldn't get
back safely, they'd have to be abandoned on the moon, left to die there," speechwriter William Safire said
in 1999. "The men would either have to starve to death or commit suicide."
In the end, and despite some very anxious moments, the crew would explore the lunar surface and
come back down safely. That meant that, instead of announcing their loss, Nixon could instead share in
the astronaut's success. In one of the most famous moments of the mission, he spoke to them in a phone
call that was beamed around the world. He recognised the triumph of their achievement, and wished them
safety for their return.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
A. The successful landing on the Moon surface.
B. The anxiety for losing the astronauts on the flight to the Moon.
C. The preparations for an incredible success of the astronauts.
D. The speech prepared for the Moon landing failure.
Question 33: The phrase “tucked away” in paragraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. stored B. discarded C. removed D. opened
A. Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
B. Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins
C. Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin
D. Neil Armstrong and Michael Collins
A. The writer of the speech made it possible for the public.
B. There was an astronaut on the main craft when the others landed on the Moon.
C. If the astronauts had failed to get back to the main craft, they would have died of hunger or suicide.
D. The burial ceremony intended to give the astronauts has ever been celebrated some times before.
Question 36: What did Nixon do after the crew landed safely?
A. He expressed his anxiety and wished them to return safely.
B. He made a call and appreciated their success.
C. He made a speech to share the achievement with other countries in the world.
D. He congratulated them and hailed their bravery.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with
scientists blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic
islands this summer by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never
logged so many deaths at once in 40 years of monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find
so many dead animals,” project leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an
example of how climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming
quicker than any other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder
temperatures in the region led to unusually heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when
the precipitation froze. This meant the reindeer could not dig through the hardened tundra to reach the
vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures, the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed
eating seaweed and kelp when food is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach
problems.
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and
weakest are often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were
so many calves last year. But the large number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global
warming,” said Ms Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier
this year. Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept
in check by the animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report
by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was
partly to blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk
of diseases spread by flies and parasites. The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7 oC
since 1900, more than three times the global average increase of about 1oC. In 2016, the entrance to the
town’s “Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was flooded
following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 37: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 38: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 39: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 40: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 41: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer
C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs?
A. After over 2 months of investigation, reindeer populations were reported to decrease because of the
increase of unwanted plant species.
B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades.
C. Besides the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality.
D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7oC since 1990.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that ______________ .
A. Arctic reindeer play the most important role in the Arctic ecosystems.
B. the Arctic ecosystems are altering worse because of the global warming.
C. the clearest effect of climate change is the limit of the food chain in nature.
D. the harsh weather in Arctic islands only damages the newborn calves.
questions.
Question 44: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 45: “Sometimes, I think I'm overly independent. I hate asking for help." She said.
A. She said sometimes she thought she was overly independent as she hated asking for help.
B. Sometimes, she said she hated asking for help to be thought of as being overly independent.
C. She said sometimes, she was thought to be overly independent as she hated asking for help.
D. Sometimes, as she said, she hated being asked for help and thought she was overly independent.
Question 46: Elephants have the same importance now as they did in the past.
A. Elephants now are the most important. B. Elephants have never been so important.
C. Elephants are as important as ever. D. Elephants are as important as they will.
Question 47: Two parents are talking with each other about their teenage daughter:
- The husband: “________________.”
- The wife: "Though she was told not to, she spent all the money."
A. Are you going out with her? B. Have you read her school report?
C. Why are you so angry? D. Thanks god, she's doing very well at school.
Question 48: Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for:
- Manager: “____________.”
- Claudia: “I work hard and I enjoy working with other people.”
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this position?
Question 49: Could you reply this e-mail? Please confirm your attendance at the meeting!
A. I wonder whether you have the ability to confirm your attendance at the meeting.
B. If I were you I would reply this e-mail to confirm my attendance at the meeting.
C. Do you mind replying this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting?
D. You'd better reply this e-mail to confirm your attendance at the meeting soon.
Question 50: Sunbathing is still a popular activity. People do it even though they know it can cause
cancer.
A. No matter what people know that sunbathing can cause cancer, it is still a popular activity.
B. Because sunbathing is still a popular activity, it can cause cancer.
C. Sunbathing is still a popular activity as long as it can cause cancer.
D. Unless it can cause cancer, sunbathing is still a popular activity.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. graduate B. mandatory C. explode D. persuade
Question 2: A. chooses B. clothes C. encourages D. boxes
Question 3: A. abundant B. admission C. demolish D. dynasty
Question 4: A. abroad B. dweller C. degree D. intact
Question 5: With 1960 islands in different sizes and an unbelievable smooth sea surface, Ha Long Bay
__________ its name to one of the worthiest places in the world to visit.
A. writes B. wrote C. will write D. has written
Question 6: Lifelong learning can also help _______ some of the weaknesses of the education system.
A. amend B. repair C. mend D. adjust
Question 7: Teachers’ _________ would rise an average of $1000 under the proposal.
A. pensions B. salaries C. wages D. incomes
Question 8: She drinks a lot less now, to ____________ benefit of her health as a whole.
A. a B. an C. 0 D. the
Question 9: _______ the institution type, in the United States, students typically earn credits for courses
they take and these credits count towards the completion of a program.
A. According to B. In regard to C. Thanks to D. Regardless of
Question 10: Electronic devices are becoming ________ common in educational environment.
A. increase B. increasing C. increasingly D. increased
Question 11: I hope you _______ the point of everything your mother and I do for you.
A. annoy B. have C. see D. take
Question 12: Those in ____ of banning laptops in classrooms like to demonstrate how handwritten notes
lead to better learning compared to notes taken on a computer.
A. search B. need C. view D. favor
Question 13: Teachers can tell their students to use mobile apps like "PIAZZA” to access course
materials and also to post questions about specific subjects, all _______ can be done in the classroom or
outside the classroom.
A. this B. what C. which D. how
Question 14: The Heritage Education for Sustainable Development project aims ____ strengthening the
linkage between culture and education for sustainable development.
A. to B. for C. at D. by
Question 15: ____________, the bird may abandon the nest, leaving the chicks to die.
A. If the birds are disturbed B. If disturbed
C. If you disturbed the bird D. Should the birds be disturbed
Question 16: Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through hospitals
and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. certification C. license D. degree
Question 17: __________ with the internet, which is a system of linked computer networks, the
worldwide web was invented by British computer scientist Tim Berners-Lee.
A. Not to confuse B. Not to be confused
C. To be not confused D. Confused not to be
Question 18: It's time for us __________ in efficiency and renewable energy, rebuild our cities, towns,
municipalities and states.
A. to invest B. invest C. investing D. invested
Question 19: People think he will not win the competition, __________?
A. do they B. will he C. don’t they D. won’t he
Question 20: Western cultures are often more informal, where business leaders often refer to each other
by first names. In countries like Japan, this is frowned upon as it indicates disrespect.
A. hated by B. disapproved of C. agreed on D. kept away from
Question 21: Notwithstanding some members' objections, I think we must go ahead with the plan.
A. Similarly B. Despite C. Along with D. Otherwise
Question 22: For eliminating pollution, one can switch to alternative and renewable energy sources like
bio fuels instead of depending on non-renewable fossil fuels that only help in polluting our planet.
A. change for the better B. substitute for the unavailable
C. make no change at all D. find a replacement for
Question 23: Scientists believe that it is possible for waves to reach the heights described when they
come into contact with strong ocean currents.
A. touch B. enter C. meet D. avoid
The "greenhouse effect" is the warming that happens when certain gases in Earth's atmosphere (24)
________ heat. These gases let in light but keep heat from escaping, like the glass walls of a greenhouse.
First, sunlight shines onto the Earth's surface, (25) ______ it is absorbed and then radiates back into the
atmosphere as heat. In the atmosphere, “greenhouse gases trap some of this heat, and the (26) ________
escapes into space. The more greenhouse gases are in the atmosphere, the more heat gets trapped.
Scientists have known about the greenhouse effect since 1824, when Joseph Fourier calculated that
the Earth would be much colder if it had no atmosphere. This greenhouse effect is what keeps the Earth's
climate (27) _________. Without it, the Earth's surface would be an average of about 60 degrees
Fahrenheit cooler. Scientists often use the term "climate change" instead of global warming. This is
because as the Earth's average temperature climbs, winds and ocean currents move heat around the globe
in ways that can cool some areas, warm others, and change the amount of rain and snow falling.
(28)_________, the climate changes differently in different areas.
(Source: https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent)
Question 24: A. seize B. capture C. trap D. grasp
Question 25: A. which B. where C. that D. what
Question 26: A. rest B. other C. latter D. remain
Question 27: A. lively B. alive C. livable D. living
Question 28: A. However B. In addition C. On the contrary D. As a result
Question 29: At the moment, students in England, Wales and Northern Ireland are required to pay for
A B
both their tuition fees and life expenses.
C D
Question 30: If you look at the environment around us, you can see that there is a number of issues
A B C
that come to our attention.
D
Question 31. If you care about protecting nature and having a positive impact, you should make sure
A B C
that your travels have done sustainably.
D
Many of us worry about the effects of television on family life. We think that we spend too much
time watching television and that it takes us away from more important activities, such as reading,
exercising and talking to family and friends. But is this really true?
Studies have shown that people in the United States do spend a lot of time in front of their
television sets. About 98% of American homes have at least one TV set, and in the average home the TV
is on more than six hours a day. But how much attention do people actually pay to the programs? And do
people who watch TV really spend less time on other free-time activities? Recently some researchers in
New York City tried to find the answers to these questions by conducting a telephone survey. They
phoned more than a thousand people all over the United States and asked them questions about how they
spend their free time.
No one was surprised to find out that watching TV is the most popular free-time activity in the
United States. More than 70% of those asked said that they watch TV every day or almost every day. The
second most popular activity that they mentioned was reading the newspaper. Listening to music at home
was third, talking on the phone to friends and relatives was fourth and doing some form of exercise was
fifth.
But the researchers discovered an interesting fact about Americans' TV habits. According to this
survey, although most people turn the TV on every day, they do not actually watch it very much. Six out
of ten people said that when the TV is on, they seldom pay attention to it. During a typical television
program, they may eat dinner, do housework, read a newspaper or magazine, talk to their children or even
read to them. The TV may be on, but it is just background music.
The researchers therefore concluded that television does not take Americans away from more
important activities. It doesn't keep them from doing other free-time activities. In fact, when they
compared people who frequently watch TV and those who seldom watch TV, they found that there were
no great differences in their other activities. The frequent watchers read to their children and talk to their
families just as much as the others.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Do people prefer watching TV to other free-time activities?
B. The TV is on but who’s watching?
C. Is TV always bad?
D. What are people’s TV habits?
Question 33: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT ____________.
A. Almost all American households own one or more TV sets.
B. Reading newspapers ranks second in popularity, just after watching TV.
C. American people have their TV on for more than a quarter of a day.
D. About a third of those asked spent more time on other free-time activities.
Question 34: The word “conducting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. organizing B. preparing C. asking D. reviewing
Question 35: What did the researchers find about Americans’ TV habits in their survey?
A. TV distracts most people from doing other activities.
B. People who seldom watch TV spend more time on children than frequent watchers.
C. 60% of frequent watchers often do others things while the TV is on.
D. Infrequent watchers do a more variety of activities than others.
A. free-time activities B. Americans
C. the researchers D. frequent watchers
A generation gap in the workplace can make workers both young and old feel inferior, as well as
hamper productivity and teamwork. Differences between generations can be seen in work ethics, habits
and communication styles. Younger workers might fear not being taken seriously by their older
colleagues, while older workers might fear that their experience is not valued but replaced by workers
with knowledge of more current technology. However, members of each generation can close the gap
between them if they're willing to meet one another halfway.
Older workers can show respect to the younger set by asking for their opinions and recognizing
their contributions to the workplace as valid, or complimenting them on a job well done. Younger workers
can show their elders respect by asking for advice on how to manage a situation with work, based on the
older worker's many years of experience. It's important for both entry- and senior-level workers to see
each other as equals, regardless of the type of position in which they work. No one wants to feel inferior
or irrelevant just because of their age. Rather, a generation gap at work can be a learning opportunity.
Workers can also put themselves in their colleagues' shoes to determine what might be bothering
them about their generational age difference. If a person is much older than another, perhaps it is
bitterness about fewer job opportunities, or fear that a younger worker might seem more relevant and edge
him out of his job. If workers open their minds to understand where co-workers are coming from, it can
help ease any tension between them and appreciate each other's work contributions.
If age seems to be a problem for someone at the workplace, it can be helpful to do the very
opposite of what a co-worker might expect from someone of a different age set due to stereotypes. For
example, if a worker is considerably younger such as right out of college, she can share researched
information to indicate that she knows what she's doing, or show curiosity instead of upset to indicate
emotional maturity if the person makes a disparaging remark about her youth. Older workers can maintain
an enthusiastic attitude about work instead of showing boredom or bitterness from past experiences.
Workers can, moreover, directly address the concern of age differences at work with the colleague
at odds with them by asking the person for constructive advice on how to handle the issue. For example,
older workers who are unfamiliar with new software that younger colleagues understand might
acknowledge to them that they did the same tasks differently in years past but show interest in learning
the program to keep up with modern technology. Learning to speak their technological language can make
them feel more connected. Likewise, a younger worker can admit to being green on the work scene, but
eager to gain experience by learning from senior colleagues.
(Source: http://work.chron.com/)
Question 37: What is the purpose of writer in the passage?
A. To describe the status of generation gap in the workplace.
B. To suggest the solutions to bridge the generation gap between the older and younger workers.
C. To determine which generation will have more influence on the workforce.
D. To show the differences between the older and younger at their work.
Question 38: Each generation should respect the other generation at work to _____________.
A. affirm their ability or personal experience they contribute to work.
B. express the recognition of the other’s position in the workplace.
C. make the other feel that they are necessary or useful in the workplace.
D. treat the other equally at work.
Question 39: What does the writer mean by stating “put themselves in their colleagues' shoes” in
paragraph 3?
A. Workers should try on their colleagues’ shoes to master the difference of their generation.
B. Workers should buy their colleagues’ shoes not to bother them about generational age differences.
C. Workers should determine the differences between their generational ages so that they can
understand their colleagues’ situations.
D. Workers should imagine that they are in their colleagues’ situation to understand and sympathy the
difficulties they meet.
Question 40: The word “him” in paragraph 3 refers to ____________.
A. an older worker B. a younger worker C. a colleague D. a person
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word “stereotypes” in paragraph 4?
A. achievements B. failures C. prejudices D. jealousness
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are measures to overcome the generation gap,
EXCEPT _____________.
A. Keeping an open mind B. Doing the opposite
C. Requesting feedback D. Appreciating the opportunity
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that _______________.
A. The younger and older workers should meet one another on the way to reduce the generation gap in
the workplace.
B. The main principle to bridge the generation gap is to balance the experience and technology.
C. Positive attitude will help to decrease the conflicts between the older and younger.
D. The competitive environment in the workplace might make the generation gap wider.
questions.
Question 44: Ecotourism can support conservation and environmental management if properly carried
out.
A. As ecotourism is properly carried out, it can support conservation and environmental management.
B. In order for ecotourism to support conservation and environment management, it is properly carried
out.
C. Only when properly carried out can ecotourism support conservation and environmental
management.
D. Supporting conservation and environmental management, ecotourism is properly carried out.
Question 45: "Which cities have the worst waste problem?" the student asked the teacher.
A. The student asked the teacher for which cities had the worst waste problem.
B. The student asked the teacher to tell him which cities had the worst waste problem.
C. The student asked the teacher which cities had the worst waste problem.
D. The student asked the teacher which cities had had the worst waste problem.
Question 46: My brother quickly adapted to his new job at the bank.
A. My brother was used to adapting to new jobs at the bank quickly.
B. My brother's new job at the bank was easy for him to adapt to.
C. My brother quickly got used to his new job at the bank.
D. My brother was able to do his new job at the bank easily.
Question 47: – "What are the major tourist attractions in your city?"
– “______________.”
A. Half of the city has been rebuilt.
B. The more you know about my city, the more you like it.
C. We have a lot of historic buildings and ruins.
D. You should go on a city tour by bus.
Question 48: A: “Can you concentrate on other things when you are listening to music?”
B: “_____________________________.”
A. I prefer to work in a quite area.
B. I'm keen on listening to dance music.
C. I often share my favorite albums with friends.
D. I don't think music can help with this.
Question 49: Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities. Among them are coaching children and
youth.
A. Coaching children and youth are the most common activities included in a wide range of volunteer
working activities.
B. Coaching children and youth are included in a wide range of activities of volunteer work.
C. Including a wide range of activities, volunteer work involves coaching children and youth.
D. Volunteer work includes a wide range of activities, among which are coaching children and youth.
Question 50: The company director decided to raise the workers' wages. He did not want them to leave.
A. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages, so they did not leave.
B. The company director decided to raise the workers' wages though he wanted them to leave.
C. The workers did not want to leave since the company director decided to raise their wages.
D. Not wanting the workers to leave, the company director decided to raise their wages.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. report B. perform C. according D. word
Question 2: A. eliminated B. forced C. worked D. missed
Question 3: A. dismiss B. destroy C. discount D. district
Question 4: A. remember B. memorize C. dedicate D. clarify
Question 5: Why should we wait any longer? We’ve been told to act once we ______ the governor’s
permission.
A. received B. will have received
C. have received D. will receive
Question 6: Don’t forget to ring me up if _________ any changes in the timetable.
A. they are B. it will be C. there will be D. there are
Question 7: Of 30 countries inspected for airline safety, only 17 received a _________bill of health.
A. clear B. clean C. pure D. dirty
Question 8: Solar power is _________ to become the world's largest source of electricity by 2050.
A. estimated B. antedated C. anticipated D. awaited
Question 9: The contract includes a 35-cent per hour increase in night shift ____________ pay.
A. difference B. different C. differential D. differentiate
Question 10: Tom is always blowing his trumpet that he is a qualified electrician, but the truth is quite
_______.
A. or else B. instead C. though D. otherwise
Question 11: Be present _______ the hall _______ time and then I will present you ______him.
A. with/on/to B. at/in/to C. to/on/with D. at/on/with
Question 12: To solve the problems of pollution, it is important to identify the __________ of it.
A. reasons B. purpose C. causes D. facts
Question 13: The company was strongly criticized for _______ large amounts of waste into the river.
A. dumping B. having dumped C. being dumped D. having been dumped
Question 14: The judge declared he was immune ____________ prosecution.
A. to B. from C. about D. at
Question 15: Most young people want to ____ an independent life without being influenced by anyone.
A. lay B. put C. lead D. bring
Question 16: _________ to withdraw from the tournament surprised us all.
A. What the champion decided B. That the champion decided
C. The champion decided D. That the champion's decision
Question 17: __________ car is responsible for causing a lot of damage to our environment.
A. A B. An C. The D. 0
Question 18: _____ a cry whenever you have a feeling that you are in danger so that everyone could hear
you and come to help immediately.
A. Send B. Give C. Make D. Lend
Question 19. We are happy today because today is a __________ day.
A. memorable training long B. long memorable training
C. memorable long training D. training memorable long
Question 20: Simon earned the respect of his friends when he determined to complete such a challenging
task while others had already given up.
A. dropped by B. dropped out C. dropped in D. dropped off
Question 21: Because of his disease, the doctor advised him to abstain from alcohol and meat. However,
he seems not to follow this advice.
A. continue B. desist C. increase D. undermine
Question 22: When I was young and idealistic I believed it was possible to change the world.
A. applicable B. energetic C. practical D. thoughtless
Question 23: There is a (n) world of difference between love and marriage. While love belongs to
emotion, marriage means a lot of bonds and responsibilities.
A. striking similarity B. sharp contrast
C. general equivalence D. clear distinction
Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling people about global warming and its causes,
most people have (24) _______to realize how severe the problem is. Coming climate changes could alter
as much as one third of plant and animal habitats by the end of the 22nd century. These changes could in
(25) ____ cause widespread extinctions among plant and animal species around the globe.
Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger (26) _______ they face the combined
threats of warming oceans and rising sea levels. As habitats change, many animals will come under
intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass (27) ____ of at least some animals are
certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that many animals will simply not be able to move fast
enough.
Such dire predictions may sound alarmist, but they are based on the rather moderate estimate that
the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will double by 2100. Many scientists believe, however,
that this figure is actually very conservative, and they claim that a tripling is far more realistic. If they are
(28) ____, the effects on nature will be even more dramatic.
(Source: https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2017/climate)
Question 24: A. hence B. yet C. however D. therefore
Question 25: A. turn B. order C. result D. line
Question 26: A. although B. providing C. since D. therefore
Question 27: A. migrations B. onslaught C. emigration D. extinctions
Question 28: A. precise B. true C. exact D. correct
Question 29: As emissions increase, it trap more heat in the atmosphere, leading to a period of
A B C
unprecedented warming.
D
Question 30: Thanks to artificial intelligence, the phone's voice-recognition system converts the sound
A B C
into numerous data.
D
Question 31: One of the most famous and respectable learners of the country is said to have found this
school. A B C D
Long gone but not forgotten are those carefree student days of shared showers, derelict rental
properties and parties where the booze always ran out before midnight. Being a student was quite a
privilege in the good old days when local authorities and the government footed the bill and there was
almost certainly a job at the end of it.
In the early 1960s, only 4% of school leavers went to university, rising to around 14% by the end
of the 1970s. Nowadays, more than 40% of young people start undergraduate degrees – but it comes at a
cost. Today’s students leave with debts of £40,000 and upwards to pay back over their working lives.
So how has the student experience changed over the years? Parents looking back on their
university lives are amazed at the luxuries their sons and daughters enjoy, such as en suite bathrooms,
flatscreen TVs and leather sofas. Student accommodation has improved but rents have soared and taken
up a bigger whack of the living cost loans, leaving today’s undergraduates little better off than their
parents.
They still party and have a good time, but students are working harder and more consistently, their
parents believe. Partly, it is the move away from “big bang” finals to continuous assessment, they say, but
also the pressure to get that all-important 2:1 or above degree classification. One-third of students were
awarded firsts or 2:1s in 1970. Last year it was over two-thirds: 70%.
Today’s students are more career-orientated and under pressure to take on extracurricular
activities, more responsibilities and work experience to compete in the graduate jobs market. Meeting
people, making friends for life and discovering new interests: these are the things that have not changed
for students who are following the same route to independence as their parents.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
A. The differences in students’ and their parents’ thoughts.
B. How universities have changed.
C. The number of undergraduate students over the years.
D. The student experience – then and now.
Question 33: The phrase “footed the bill” in the first paragraph mostly means ______________.
A. paid the cost B. lent the money
C. offered scholarships D. built the facilities
Question 34: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There are more and more high-school graduates attending universities.
B. The life of today’s undergraduates is nearly the same as their parents.
C. Today’s graduates are easier to get a job after university than their parents.
D. Modern students have to work hard after graduating to pay the loans for their studies.
A. students B. today’s undergraduates
C. parents D. friends
Question 36: The following adjectives are true about today’s students in comparison with their parents,
EXCEPT _________.
A. more career-orientated B. more privileged
C. more responsible D. more hard-working
If you’ve done any traveling at all, you’re likely quite aware that customs and etiquette differ from
one culture to another: what may be perfectly innocuous in one place may be hideously offensive in
another, and vice-versa. Granted, even if you haven’t traveled at all, you’re probably aware of the fact that
certain types of behavior aren’t exactly acceptable in other countries: belching at the table may be a sign
of gratitude in some places, but in most areas of North America and Europe, such a display will earn you a
fair bit of ire. Whether you plan on traveling to any of the places listed below or just doing business with a
foreign client, it’s important to educate yourself on the standards of politesse and etiquette beforehand—
the last thing you want to do is offend someone with any ignorant, boorish behavior. Here’s how to be
polite in different countries.
When dealing with Japanese clients, be sure to dress fairly conservatively, and make sure that you
bow lower than they do upon meeting them. Accept gifts with both hands and open them later, not in front
of the giver, and never blow your nose at the dining table. Avoid asking and answering direct questions:
it’s better to imply rather than ask, and to answer with vagueness during conversations.
In Mexico, when meeting others, women should initiate handshakes with men, but all people
should avoid making too much eye contact; that can be seen as aggressive and belligerent behavior. If
sharing a meal with others, keep your elbows off the table and try to avoid burping at all costs. Keep your
hands off your hips, and make sure you never make the “okay” sign with your hand: it’s vulgar.
In Kenya, when greeting someone older or of a higher status than yourself, grip their right wrist
with your left hand while shaking it; it’s a sign of respect and deference. Do ask questions about their
health, family, business etc. before getting to major topics, as skipping these niceties is seen as impolite. If
sharing meals, do not begin eating until the eldest male has been served and starts to eat.
Turning down an alcoholic drink is considered terribly offensive in Russia, so it’s a good idea to
fortify yourself with some greasy food before heading out for a meal with Russian or Ukrainian clients.
Don’t smile at strangers or they’ll think you’re deranged, and when paying for items, place your money on
the counter rather than trying to hand it directly to the cashier.
(Adapted from https://www.lifehack.org/)
Question 37: Which of the following could be served as the best title of the passage?
A. Behavior to be a courteous person in distinct nations.
B. Different customs you should know when travelling abroad.
C. Different meanings of the same behavior in many countries.
D. Avoiding offensive behavior in different countries.
Question 38: The word “innocuous” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. wonderful B. acceptable C. impolite D. harmless
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following behavior should be avoided when sharing
meals with others?
A. Try to not burp at the table in North America and Europe.
B. Never blow your nose at a Japanese dinner.
C. Don’t keep your elbows off the table in Mexico.
D. Never eat before the eldest Kenyan man begins his meal.
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. their right wrist B. your left hand
C. a higher status D. a sign of respect and deference
Question 41: The word “fortify” in the last paragraph mostly means _____________.
A. debilitate B. enervate C. invigorate D. enfeeble
Question 42: According to the last paragraph, what behavior is often seen in Russia?
A. turning down an alcohol drink
B. smiling at strangers
C. asking direct questions
D. avoiding handing money directly to the cashier
Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Europeans are stricter than people in other countries.
B. Understanding clients’ customs is an important criterion in doing business.
C. Dinning etiquette is the most important one to know about other countries.
D. Observing and imitating behavior of the eldest is a wise choice.
questions.
Question 44: You should not have come to class late.
A. I'd rather you didn't come to class late.
B. I would like you not to be late for class.
C. I'd sooner you hadn't come to class late.
D. I would prefer that you come to class on time.
Question 45: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night.
A. You shouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
B. You left the windows open last night due to your carelessness.
C. If you hadn’t been careless, you wouldn’t have left the windows open last night.
D. You can’t have left the windows open last night because you were careless.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn’t like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
B. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn’t like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
D. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
Question 47. - Hung: "I have thought of a way to save energy around the house!"
- Teacher: "________________!"
A. Best wishes B. My dear C. Well done D. That's very well
Question 48. - A: “______________”
- B: “You have to obtain the high school diploma.”
A. What is the requirement to enter this university?
B. When do we finish high school?
C. I can't wait to obtain the high school diploma.
D. I am trying my best to win a place at university.
Question 49: He was very tired. He agreed to play tennis.
A. Tired as though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
B. Tired though he was, he agreed to play tennis.
C. Tired, he agreed to play tennis.
D. So tired was he that he agreed to play tennis.
Question 50: Tina does not want to become a lawyer. She wants to become a counselor.
A. It is a lawyer, not a counselor that Tina wants to become.
B. It is Tina who wants to become a counselor not a lawyer.
C. It is Tina who wants to become a lawyer not a counselor.
D. It is a counselor, not a lawyer that Tina wants to become.
-----THE END-----
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. absence B. arrive C. absorb D. apologize
Question 2: A. dogged B. crooked C. naked D. backed
Question 3: A. approach B. panda C. income D. current
Question 4: A. confidence B. celebrate C. effective D. handicapped
Question 5: All of the plants now raised on farms _______ from plants that ______ wild.
A. had been developed – once were grown B. have been developed – once grew
C. have been developed – have grown D. had been developed – once grew
Question 6: We _______ more time with our children before they left for university. We were too busy
with our jobs to think about that.
A. wish we spent B. were supposed to be spending
C. would like to have spent D. regret that we didn’t spend
Question 7: Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save _____ so she said that she had
left it willingly.
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame
Question 8: The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last
minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment
Question 9: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the _____ of anyone walking down the street.
That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 10: No matter how busy I may be, I shall be there tonight come what_______.
A. may B. might C. can D. could
Question 11: Organizations may qualify for exemption from income tax if they _______ exclusively as
charities.
A. operated B. operate C. had operated D. are operated
Question 12: I used to be nervous when my father asked me to give him my school _________.
A. diploma B. certificate C. report D. background
Question 13: Simon Lake drew the inspiration __________ La submarine of undersea travel and
exploration from Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
A. at B. by C. for D. of
Question 14: Parents should start teaching them how to manage more complicated duties __________
children graduate from toddlerhood and move toward preschool.
A. yet B. when C. and D. so
Question 15: Ecotourism is any type of tourism to relatively _______ natural areas for the enjoyment of
natural, cultural and historical features.
A. disturbed B. disturb C. undisturbed D. disturbance
Question 16: Different activities should be carried out to raise _________ awareness of our people about
ecotourism.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 17: __________ perform a function that requires water to perform that function, you had better
give that water to the body in advance of the event.
A. Any time you want to B. Unless you want to C. What you want to D. You want to
Question 18: There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 19: The older Ms. Lucy is, __________ she becomes.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive
C. the more attractive D. more attractive
Question 20: In the 1960s, the World Health Organization (WHO) began a campaign to get rid of the
mosquitoes that transmit the disease malaria.
A. minimize B. develop C. eradicate D. appreciate
Question 21: A father will be his child's role model. He will be the example for his child of what
husbands and fathers are like.
A. someone that others admire and follow B. someone that others share interest with
C. someone that others love and live with D. someone that others are fond of with
Question 22: For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it comes to finances
and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.
A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty
Question 23: Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding
before you've even been invited to it?
A. doing things in the wrong order B. do things in the right order
C. knowing the ropes D. upsetting the apple cart
Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People differ (24) ____ opinions, race,
nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so much more, yet at the very
basic we are all human species. Ideally, all people feel (25) ____ and joy despite the differences. Today,
the changes in time and technology have made it extremely impossible for any group of people to live
without interacting with others outside their group. Often people of different cultural and geographical
(26) ____ meet in international conferences, education exchange programs, sports, etc.
Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences has been
with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their rights (27) _________ individual
greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to lack of understanding. Unfortunately,
some of these occurrences are visible even today, perpetuated by people who little understand the
importance of the (28)__________of our diversity.
(Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com)
Question 24: A. from B. by C. in D. with
Question 25: A. pain B. pained C. painful D. painless
Question 26: A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D. surroundings
Question 27: A. because of B. thanks to C. despite D. as a result
Question 28: A. specialty B. uniqueness C. identity D. sustainability
Question 29: The innovators behind objects like the cellphone or the helicopter took inspiration from
A B C
work like "Star Trek" and “War of the Worlds”.
D
Question 30: How many people know that the Brooklyn Bridge, built in 1883, were the world's first
A B C
suspension bridge?
D
Question 31: It is said that the accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A B C D
The best explainer videos are realized by great background score. When was the last time you
watched a silent movie? Never? Not for a while? A long while? Even if you remember watching one, it
would still have had a background score, or you’ve accidentally pressed the mute button!
The importance of background music and sound effects for your explainer video, therefore, cannot
be overstated. You may not need a full blown orchestra or classy jazz tones to create the mood, but
whether going for a subtle effect, a professional demonstration or simply trying to attract customers,
music is a must. Explainer videos have the emotional quotient working for them and music is just going to
add more to make the viewers relate to the pain points you are highlighting in your video. Imagine if your
favorite video game has no background music or sound effects to back the amazing graphics? Would you
play it with the same feel and excitement? Nah! Same is the case with your explainer videos. They need to
and should have apt sound effects to make them worth your viewer’s time.
While the focus of explainer videos production is more on passing the desired information and
explaining technical and complex procedures easily, it doesn’t mean you’ll be distracting your viewers
with the background music. The sound effects and music is not going to take the message away from your
explainer, it’s just going to enhance it and turn it more watchable and share-able. Even if your video
doesn’t require a background score, it must include some sound effects or else it would be not so good an
experience for those who choose to watch it.
(Source: https://www.b2w.tv/)
A. The importance of background music and sound effects.
B. The influence of silence and background music on memory.
C. Inside the booming business of background music.
D. How to choose the background music for your explainer videos?
Question 33: The word “score” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ______.
A. grove B. mark C. instrument D. music
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is the main purpose for using background music?
A. Sound helps build and sustain relationships between films and viewers.
B. Background music can control how the audience should react to a scene.
C. Background music can influence both everyone’s mood and choices.
D. A musical atmosphere can actually motivate people to do risky things.
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. score B. video C. sound D. background
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what is the fundamental and typical use of explainer videos?
A. It is used to distill wide-ranging and complex ideas into a viewer-friendly package.
B. Businesses use them to quickly introduce themselves and their importance.
C. It is designed as a means to stimulate both auditory and visual senses.
D. It helps the customers with their daily life problems with scientific information.
In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications and business,
Mandarin, Hindi, English, Spanish and Russian amongst others, are placing small languages spoken in
remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people speak languages such as Liki, Taushiro
and Dumi as their children shift away from the language of their ancestors towards languages which
promise education, success and the chance of a better life. While to many parents, this may appear a
reasonable choice, giving their offspring the opportunity to achieve the sort of prosperity they see on
television, the children themselves often lose touch with their roots. However, in many places the more
reasonable option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a local and a national language, is
being promoted. This gives hope that many endangered languages will survive, allowing people to
combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture.
While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a minority language, national
governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an economically unproductive
language, especially in times of budget constraints. It is generally accepted that national languages unite
and help to create wealth while minority regional languages divide. Furthermore, governments have a duty
to ensure that young people can fulfill their full potential, meaning that state education must provide them
with the ability to speak and work in their national language and so equip them to participate responsibly
in national affairs. People whose language competence does not extend beyond the use of a regional
tongue have limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a sentimental attachment to
their local language, their government’s position should be one of benign neglect, allowing people to
speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance.
Many PhD students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their language skills,
with the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to communicate with speakers of the
language they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on the quality of their research. At the same time,
they have to struggle against the frequently expressed opinion that minority languages serve no useful
purpose and should be allowed to die a natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a
unique body of knowledge and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that
language extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are part of an
impending global catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable.
(Adapted from Complete Advanced by Guy Brook – Hart and Simon Haines)
Question 37: Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage?
A. The threat to minority languages in different parts of the world.
B. The domination of business languages all over the world.
C. The shift from regional to national languages in many countries.
D. The benefits of national languages in the modern world.

Question 38: According to the first paragraph, why do many parents consider the change towards national
languages a reasonable choice?
A. Because not many people nowadays are familiar with the language of their ancestors.
B. Because children now can learn to speak both a local and a national language.
C. Because their children may have a chance to achieve education, success and better living condition.
D. Because their children may help to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world
culture.
Question 39: What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. the more reasonable option
B. the place where children can use bilingualism
C. the opportunity to achieve prosperity
D. the promotion of bilingualism
Question 40: The word “constraints” in the second language is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. investments B. restrictions C. crises D. depressions
Question 41: What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many PhD students
mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. These students are unable to persuade people to use the language they are learning.
B. Their qualified research is unlikely to complete.
C. They will have many difficulties in understanding these languages.
D. They have to become interpreters and translators of these languages themselves.
Question 42: The word “facets” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _____________.
A. aspects B. problems C. procedures D. products
Question 43: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Local languages can’t unite and create as much wealth as national languages.
B. State education is obligatory to ensure young people to speak and work in their regional languages.
C. Lack of language skills causes a negative effect on the quality of PhD students’ research.
D. Each citizen has the right to decide whether they want to speak a minority language or not.
questions.
Question 44: "Please don't leave until I come back", Sarah said.
A. Sarah suggested not leaving until she comes back.
B. Sarah asked us to leave until she came back.
C. Sarah told us not to leave until she came back.
D. Sarah offered to leave until she came back.
Question 45: The weather has been terrible recently. I am very depressed now.
A. If the weather had not been terrible lately, I wouldn't be so depressed now.
B. If the weather hasn't been terrible recently, I won't be so depressed now.
C. If the weather hadn't been terrible recently, I wouldn't have been so depressed now.
D. If the weather had been more terrible recently, I would be depressed now.
Question 46: I eat a lot. I cannot keep fit.
A. I eat more and more and become fitter and fitter.
B. The less I eat, the fitter I become.
C. The more I eat, the less fit I become.
D. I become fit not only because I eat a lot.
Question 47: - “I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer.”
- “_____________________.”
A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'.
B. I do, but I don't have enough time for studying.
C. That's great. You have been coming of age.
D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?
Question 48. - Phúc: “I am offered the job at Vietravel.”
- Thomas: “_______________.”
A. Good Heavens! B. Congratulations!
C. Good luck! D. Never mind, better luck next time!
Question 49: We came in the room. Our boss was sitting in the front desk.
A. We came in the room, our boss was sitting in the front desk.
B. When we came in the room, our boss had been sitting in the front desk.
C. When we came in the room, in the front desk was sitting our boss.
D. Hardly had we come in the room when our boss sat in the front desk.
Question 50: Sara's classmates said that she littered on the school yard. She denied it.
A. Sara denied having littered on the school yard.
B. Sara denied her friends' littering on the school yard.
C. Having littered on the school yard, Sara's classmates denied it.
D. As Sara denied it, her classmates said that she littered on the school yard.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty
Question 2: A. booths B. months C. mouths D. paths
Question 3: A. rechargeable B. continuous C. appreciate D. academic
Question 4: A. thesis B. vital C. tension D. champagne
Question 5: The late 1800s and early 1900s ____ excitement over a wide array of inventions and
developments.
A. brought B. have brought C. had brought D. would bring
Question 6: ________ the Australian gold mining company ________ more care with the storage of
cyanide, the catastrophe could have been prevented.
A. Has – taken B. Had – taken C. Would – take D. Should – take
Question 7: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations become more
important, and as conventional tourism is forced to ____ tougher environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Question 8: Gender __________ is not only a fundamental human right, but a necessary foundation for a
peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world.
A. equity B. unity C. equality D. identity
Question 9: When children have a strong, positive relationship with their parents, they are ____ to
succeed in school.
A. most likely B. more likely C. the likelier D. the more likely
Question 10: Students can only use technological devices to complete their work ____ investment on
notebooks and books.
A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case
Question 11: The advantages of the new method really ____ the disadvantages.
A. outperform B. outdo C. outweigh D. outgrow
Question 12: Jimmy always takes the _____ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous
pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 13: A smart city is an urban area that uses different types of electronic data collection sensors to
supply information which __________ assets and resources efficiently.
A. used to manage B. is used to managing
C. is used to manage D. is using to manage
Question 14: It is the classical Athenians who can probably lay claim __________ the invention of
commercial advertising as we know it today.
A. to B. for C. of D. with
Question 15: The storm did a lot of ______ to our village. All the crops were drastically destroyed and
many houses were washed away.
A. injury B. hardship C. harm D. damage
Question 16: My aunt gave me a(n) ______ bag on my 24th birthday.
A. expensive small brown Chanel leather B. small brown expensive leather Chanel
C. expensive small brown leather Chanel D. small expensive brown leather Chanel
Question 17: Cultural diversity expands choices, nurtures _______ variety of skills, human values and
worldviews and provides wisdom from the past to inform the future.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 18: Our bodies are supported by the skeletal system, which consists of 206 bones ______
tendons, ligaments and cartilage.
A. that connect to B. that are connected by
C. which connects to D. which is connected by
Question 19: He gave up work because of ill health, __________ ?
A. wasn’t he B. is he C. didn’t he D. does he
Question 20: A lot of adults pay lip service to the idea that it is important to listen to teenagers' ideas, but
they tend to listen and then forget.
A. empty promise B. solemn promise C. broken promise D. early promise
Question 21: Students will find all academic assignments via the class blog their teachers create to post
assignments.
A. by means of B. in terms of C. by the way D. in search of
Question 22: The manager needs an assistant that he can count on to take care of problems in his
absence.
A. discredit B. disrespect C. dislike D. distrust
Question 23: If it had not been for the couch's decision to strike while the iron is hot, the team would
not have won the game so easily.
A. take advantage of an opportunity B. miss the boat
C. face the music D. put others first
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that Londoners use their
cell phones the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let calls be answered by voice mail (a
recorded message) and then they check for messages later. If the English do answer a call on the street,
they seem to dislike talking with others around. They tend to move away from a crowded sidewalk and
seek out a place (24) ________ they cannot be heard, such as the far side of a subway entrance or even the
edge of a street. They seem to feel that the danger of the traffic is (25) ___________ to the risk of having
their conversation be overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser has called "clustering." At a busy
time of day on the streets of London, you may find small crowds of cell phone users grouped together,
each one talking into a cell phone. Even when it is raining—as it is often in London—people still prefer
not to hold their conversations where others could hear. They talk (26) _____________ their umbrellas or
in a doorway.
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is not
considered polite to use a phone in a restaurant, (27) ______________, though it might be acceptable in
the more informal setting of a café. One special custom that has developed in cafés seems unique to Paris.
Young women often place their cell phones on the table beside them to signal that they are expecting
someone. When the friend arrives, the phone is (28) _____________. In fact, the French are generally
very disapproving of phone use in public and are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 24: A. which B. when C. where D. what
Question 25: A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential
Question 26: A. on B. under C. in D. after
Question 27: A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance
Question 28: A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside
Question 29: The reasons why lack of water causes the body to become stressed and diseased, as well
A B
as very simple methods to ensure your own vibrant health, are all explained in details.
C D
Question 30: Volunteer work, understood in its traditional meaning, as unpaid activity oriented to help
A B
others and to improve society, have existed throughout the history of humanity.
C D
Question 31: Vinton G. Cerf founded the InterNetworking Group in 1972 and this has been since
A B
recognized as the birth-year of the Internet.
C D
No matter how much you’ve trained, performance anxiety before or during a competition may
occur, hindering the results of your match.
While you can tell yourself to stay calm prior to a competition, managing performance anxiety
may not be as simple as. Research has shown that strategies such as meditation and guided imagery are
great places to start; both require your brain to rehearse what you will do during your competition. Your
imagination holds much more power than you may expect, helping you focus on how to beat your
opponent, instead of other factors that contribute to your anxiety. Adequate preparation also plays a large
role.
To master the mental game, it takes time. Starting one month before your competition, consider
sitting in solitude in a comfortable position for 15 minutes each day. Focus first on breathing in and out
deeply. Then, begin to imagine competition situations and visualize yourself in a fight with your
competitor. Be mindful of your anxiety and return your focus to breathing if you feel yourself tense up.
Sometimes, you may find yourself thinking self-deprecating or negative thoughts, at which point you
should consciously replace any negative self-talk with positive self-talk. During these visualizations, also
be sure to think about your posture and form and create cues — mental and verbal — that will help you
review and correct your technique.
Pre-competition jitters are completely normal and it’s important to acknowledge that. Accepting
that this excitement and/or nervousness is normal will help your body also understand that what you are
experiencing is not fear, but perhaps part of your adrenaline response to competition. With more
experience, mindful visualization and mental/physical preparation can help you manage and overcome
performance anxiety.
(Source: https://blog.perfectmind.com/)
A. Overcoming performance anxiety before a competition.
B. Songs Olympians listen to before competition.
C. How to pray before, during, and after competition.
D. Anxiety before a competition can lead to insomnia.
Question 33: The word “hindering” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. frustrating B. crippling C. arresting D. hampering
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a contributing factor for victory?
A. Imagination B. Preparation
C. Anxiety D. Anxiety management
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what step is NOT included in the mindful visualization
technique?
A. Maintain a daily habit of 15-minute sitting alone for a month before the contest day.
B. Visualize interconnected dots in your minds while reciting the secret mantra.
C. Simulate several possible interactions between yourself and your opponents.
D. Steer is clear of pessimistic thoughts and substitutes them with optimistic ones.
Question 36: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. The fact that your fear for the competition is a kind of inexplicable phobia.
B. The fact that feeling anxious before a competition is nothing unusual.
C. The fact that hardly anyone will understand your aversion to contest.
D. The fact that introspection is not an effective pre-test calming practice.
Coral reefs are some of the most diverse ecosystems in the world, housing tens of thousands of
marine species. With their hardened surfaces, corals are sometimes mistaken as being rocks. And, because
they are attached, “taking root” to the seafloor, they are often mistaken for plants. However, unlike rocks,
corals are alive. And unlike plants, corals do not make their own food. Corals are in fact animals.
Appearing as solitary forms in the fossil record more than 400 million years ago, corals are extremely
ancient animals that evolved into modern reef-building forms over the last 25 million years.
Coral reefs are the largest structures on earth of biological origin. Coral reefs are unique and
complex systems. Rivaling old growth forests in longevity of their ecological communities, well-
developed reefs reflect thousands of years of history.
Corals are ancient animals related to jellyfish and anemones. The branch or mound that we often
call “a coral” is actually made up of thousands of tiny animals called polyps. A coral polyp is an
invertebrate that can be no bigger than a pinhead to up to 30 centimeters (1 foot) in diameter. The polyps
extend their tentacles at night to sting and ingest tiny organisms called plankton and other small creatures.
Each polyp has a saclike body and a mouth that is encircled by stinging tentacles. The polyp uses calcium
carbonate (limestone) from seawater to build a hard, cup-shaped skeleton. This skeleton protects the soft,
delicate body of the polyp.
Reefs only occur in shallow areas that are reachable by sunlight because of the relationship
between coral and algae. Various types of microscopic algae, known as Symbiodinium, live inside of the
coral, providing them with food and helping them to grow faster.
There are over 2,500 kinds (species) of corals. About 1,000 are the hard corals that build coral
reefs. Other corals are soft corals. Soft corals have skeletons that are flexible and can bend with the water.
The three main types of coral reefs are fringing reefs, barrier reefs, and coral atolls. The most common
type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows seaward directly from the shore. They form
borders along the shoreline and surrounding islands. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from
a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or
oval in shape, with an open lagoon in the center. Any reef that is called a barrier reef gets its name
because its presence protects the shallow waters along the shore from the open sea. That protection
promotes the survival of many types of sea plant and animal life.
(Adapted from http://justfunfacts.com)
Question 37: Which of the following could best reflect the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To prove that coral reefs are animals.
B. To provide the facts about coral reefs.
C. To explain that coral reefs are the most diverse ecosystems in the ocean.
D. To distinguish coral reefs from other animals.
Question 38: The word “solitary” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by ____________.
A. single B. private C. general D. typical
Question 39: The word “rivaling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. differing from B. comparing with C. relating to D. changing from
Question 40: According to the passage, the following are true about coral reefs, EXCEPT _______.
A. Coral reefs are mistaken for rocks and plants because of their hardened surface and “roots”.
B. Polyps are the composition of corals.
C. The skeleton of a polyp is created from calcium carbonate in seawater.
D. Corals absorb food in the sunlight using their tentacles.
A. coral atolls B. barrier reefs C. fringing reefs D. the shores
Question 42: As mentioned in the last paragraph, why a reef is called a barrier reef?
A. As it keeps developing from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level.
B. Because its skeleton is flexible enough to defend many marine organisms.
C. Since it saves the low waters along the coastline from the open sea.
D. Because it is one kind of 1,000 hard corals that protect the shoreline.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that coral reefs ______________.
A. evolved from a kind of plant on the Earth.
B. are the biggest structures that have ever lived on the Earth.
C. are the origin of many marine plants and animals.
D. appeared on the Earth hundreds of million years ago.
questions.
Question 44: It is against the school rules to cheat in the test.
A. You don't have to cheat in the test. B. You must cheat in the test.
C. You must not cheat in the test. D. You have to cheat in the test.
Question 45: "You should open up and tell our teacher about your situation", said Maria to Victor.
A. Maria advised Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
B. Maria forbid Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
C. Maria forced Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
D. Maria allowed Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
Question 46: The professor is a more efficient financial adviser than the expert.
A. The professor gives advice on finance less efficiently than the expert.
B. The expert is a less efficient financial adviser than the professor.
C. The professor gives advice on finance not as efficiently as the expert.
D. The expert gives financial advice more efficiently than the professor.
Question 47: – "Do you get along well with your brothers?"
– “______________”
A. He's not living with us, he's living in the town.
B. We have never got into a fight but sometimes in a quarrel.
C. He likes swimming, and I like reading when free.
D. Mom and Dad always help us with our school work.
Question 48: - A: "Doctor, can you give me some suggestions on how to stay healthy?"
- B: “___________________.”
A. Well, first of all, you need to make sure that you eat the right foods.
B. It is very confusing to know what to eat.
C. As long as you don't overdo it, a glass of wine a day should be OK.
D. If you smoke, you need to stop.
Question 49: His parents don't like some of his friends. His friends wear too flashy clothes.
A. His parents don't like some of his friends despite their too flashy clothes.
B. His parents don't like some of his friends because of their too flashy clothes.
C. His parents don't like some of his friends but for their flashy clothes.
D. His parents don't like some of his friends without their too flashy clothes.
Question 50: Inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem. Instead, they try different
ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
A. Instead of trying to solve a problem, inventors' and engineers' initial ideas are to try different ideas,
learn from mistakes, and try again.
B. Rarely do inventors' and engineers' initial ideas solve a problem rather than try different ideas, learn
from mistakes, and try again.
C. Because inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try different ideas, learn
from mistakes, and try again.
D. Even though inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try different ideas,
learn from mistakes, and try again.
-----THE END-----

Question 1: A. interaction B. initiative C. hospitality D. activity
Question 2: A. invites B. comes C. arrives D. loves
Question 3: A. cartoon B. answer C. open D. paper
Question 4: A. certificate B. knowledgeable C. prosperity D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: Unfortunately, many of the travel experiences we take part in _______ into consideration
how it affects our planet and the well-being of people.
A. does not take B. do not take C. is not taken D. are not taken
Question 6: If he had not spent his youth not learning anything, he __________ himself for his lack of
knowledge now.
A. will not blame B. would not blame
C. would not have blamed D. would blame
Question 7: Research suggested that people can ________ recall events that never happened.
A. vividly B. clearly C. obviously D. certainly
Question 8: ____________ , the driver couldn’t make out the road signs.
A. There is a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
B. There being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
C. It was a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
D. It being a lot of freezing fog and icy patches
Question 9: If you don't have anything __________ to say, it's better to say nothing.
A. construct B. construction C. constructive D. constructor
Question 10: Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk _______in
heavy traffic during rush hour.
A. holding up B. being held up C. to be held up D. to hold up
Question 11: Global warming will result _____ crop failures and famines.
A. with B. from C. for D. in
Question 12: There are both advantages and disadvantages of living in families with three or four
generations, also known as __________ families.
A. single-parent B. extended C. nuclear D. crowded
Question 13: ______ I got to the dentist last week, I had to sit in the waiting room for over one hour.
A. When B. Once C. While D. Since
Question 14: He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) _____ of danger.
A. omen B. premonition C. foreboding D. prediction
Question 15: When I agreed to help, I didn't know what I was __________ myself in for.
A. laying B. putting C. letting D. bringing
Question 16: Friends will come and go in your life, but more important than __________ is your friends'
acceptance of you for who you are.
A. how long do your friendships last B. how long your friendships will last
C. how long your friendships last D. how long will your friendships last
Question 17: _______ Spring festival season in Vietnam starts with the Lunar New Year and closes with
the celebration honoring the mythical founding fathers, ______ Hung Kings, on _____ tenth day of
_______ third lunar month.
A. The/the/the/the B. 0/0/the/the
C. The/0/0/the D. The/the/0/0
Question 18: I'm not suggesting ________ that she meant to cause any trouble.
A. for one minute B. for sure
C. for sales D. for a laugh
Question 19: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, __________?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Question 20: I took a course at the employment bureau to learn how to organize my résumé to best show
off my experience and qualifications.
A. enhance B. promote C. boast D. achieve
Question 21: In their senseless killing of innocent people, the terrorists have shown their lack of respect
for human life.
A. had B. earned C. gained D. commanded
Question 22: On the whole, further education still plays an important role in the development of any
country.
A. Generally B. Specifically C. Essentially D. Surprisingly
Question 23: It's not beyond the realm of possibility that some schools may have to cut sport altogether.
A. possible B. impossible C. unlikely D. certain
An A level is an Advanced level GCE qualification. This exam is (24) __________ taken after two
years of A level study, following the O level/IGCSE exams. Students can take any number of A level
exams; in the UK, most college students take three or four A level exams for their final two years of study.
The (25) __________ of A levels to be taken will often depend on the qualifications that the university
chosen requires. A level results can open doors to undergraduate studies at some of the best higher
educational institutions in the world, and to a wide range of professional and vocational courses (26)
_______ can help build skills for an exciting and rewarding career. In many countries round the world,
some schools follow the GCE syllabus to prepare their pupils for taking A level exams. Students at these
schools should enquire at their school about how they can register and sit (27) ____ the exams. Students
who do not attend a school that follows the GCE syllabus can still take A level exams and can register as a
private individual with the British Council.
In order to register for an A level exam one will need to complete an entry form which will
become available at the British Council offices. Forms usually become (28) __________ for January

examinations in early August of the preceding year. For May/June examinations, they are available in
early December of the preceding year.
(Source: https://qualifications.pearson.com)
Question 24: A. normally B. popularly C. largely D. noticeably
Question 25: A. sum B. number C. amount D. quantity
Question 26: A. what B. that C. when D. who
Question 27: A. at B. in C. for D. into
Question 28: A. availability B. avail C. availably D. available
Question 29: According to the results of a survey which conducted by a USA magazine, there isn't
A B C
really a generation gap.
D
Question 30: The best way to get ready for an interview is to take the time to review the most common
A B C
interview questions you will mostly likely be asked.
D
Question 31: Down did an apple fall when he was passing under the tree.
A B C D
New research shows that long-term changes in diseases in ocean species coincide with decades of
widespread environmental change. The paper, "Increases and decreases in marine disease reports in an era
of global change," was published Oct. 9 in Proceedings of the Royal Society B.
Understanding oceanic trends is important for evaluating today's threats to marine systems, and
disease is an important sentinel of change, according to senior author Drew Harvell, professor of marine
biology at Cornell University. "Disease increases and decreases can both be bad news," said lead author
Allison Tracy, who studied with Harvell. "The long-term changes in disease that we see here may result
from anthropogenic pressure on plants and animals in the ocean." The researchers examined marine
infectious disease reports from 1970 to 2013, which transcend short-term fluctuations and regional
variation. They examined records of corals, urchins, mammals, decapods, fish, mollusks, sharks, rays,
seagrass and turtles.
For corals and urchins, reports of infectious disease increased over the 44-year period. In the
Caribbean, increasing coral disease reports correlated with warming events. It is widely known that coral
bleaching increases with warming, but Harvell said they have established a long-term connection between
warming and coral disease. "We've finally linked a coral killer like infectious disease to repeated warming
bouts over four decades of change," she said. "Our study shows that infectious disease reports are
associated with warm temperature anomalies in corals on a multi-decadal scale." These results improve
understanding of how changing environments alter species interactions, and they provide a solid baseline
for health of marine life in the period studied.
(Source: https://www.myvetcandy.com/)
Question 32. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Infectious disease in marine life linked to ocean warming.
B. Ocean pollution and diseases resulted from aquaculture.
C. Health threats from polluted coastal waters.
D. What to know about flesh-eating bacteria infections.
Question 33: The word “coincide” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. agree B. coexist C. differ D. concur
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what role does marine disease play in the oceanic analysis?
A. It reflects the progress in the study of human immunology.
B. It deals with the task of monitoring vector-borne threats.
C. It serves as an indicator of the presence of oceanic changes.
D. It induces changes in fungal communities under the water.
Question 35: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. reports B. researchers C. animals D. fluctuations
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what can be concluded from the Allison Tracy’s investigation?
A. Water sources might soon become poisonous to ocean life and the humans.
B. Rising global temperatures are spreading disease at an unprecedented level.
C. Oceans have absorbed more than 90% of the warming effects of climate change.
D. No level of conservation in the future will be enough to override the warming impacts.
To quote CREST founder Dr. Martha Honey, we earnestly believe that ecotourism is “simply a
better way to travel.” Here’s a look at how this transformational approach to travel benefits conservation,
increases cross-cultural understanding, and ultimately turns travelers into environmental advocates:
To see how ecotourism benefits nature and wildlife, let’s look at endangered species such as
African Elephants. Ivory from Elephant tusks is worth $1500 a pound on the black market, which has led
to a dramatic increase in poaching. But Elephants are worth 76 times more alive than dead. When you
consider the revenue from wildlife photography tours, luxury safari camps, and other ecotourism
offerings, a single Elephant is worth $1.3 million over the course of its lifetime! Ecotourism offers a long-
term alternative to exploitation, generating sustainable revenue and ensuring the better overall health of
the ecosystem.
Nature reserves and national parks help prevent deforestation and pollution, while also protecting
the habitat of endemic species. The revenue that ecotourism provides can help replace profits from
exploitative practices such as mining or slash ‘n’ burn agriculture. It can also help ensure the long-term
financial viability of the area. Naturalist guides also help travelers understand the value of a pristine
ecosystem, and teach them about the importance of conservation. This ultimately helps to create a more
mindful and conscious legion of travelers.
When managed properly, ecotourism can offer locals alternative revenue streams. In wildlife-rich
countries such as Rwanda, former poachers are often employed as guides or trackers, capitalizing on their
knowledge of the animals and their habitat. In Costa Rica, unemployment has fallen to less than 10%
since the country started building its ecotourism infrastructure in the 1970s. Involving local communities
in tourism management empowers them by ensuring that more revenue is reinvested locally. Ecotourism
also offers indigenous peoples an opportunity to remain on ancestral land, conserve it, and preserve
traditional culture.
Sure, being a responsible traveler takes a greater level of commitment to being conscious and
mindful of the impact we have on the destinations we visit. But ecotourism also offers us incredible,
transformative experiences, allowing us to develop closer personal relationships to the nature, wildlife,
and local people we encounter during our adventures. Learning about ecotourism can permanently change
your understanding of mankind’s role in our planetary ecosystem. And once you’ve had that sort of travel
experience, you’ll never want to travel the traditional way again.
(Source: https://www.ith.org.za/what-is-eco-tourism/)
Question 37: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The benefits of ecotourism.
B. Making the most of ecotourism.
C. An introduction to ecotourism.
D. Encourage conservation or adding to exploitation?
Question 38: The word “revenue” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. reward B. benefit C. profit D. interest
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, in what direction can ethical tourism help the society?
A. Green tourism maintains the balance between animals and humans.
B. Ecotourism provides financial support for local communities.
C. Sustainable tourism yields substantial environmental benefits.
D. Ecotourism encourages open dialogue about deforestation.
Question 40: The word “pristine” in paragraph 3 most likely means _______.
A. natural B. untouched C. beautiful D. dirty
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. species B. relationships C. poachers D. locals
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, why did the author claim that people will prefer ecotourism over
normal one?
A. Because it is such an awakening and mind-expanding experience.
B. Because the author is a trend-setting writer who believes in his words’ influence.
C. Because anything with a green label on it is all the craze now.
D. Because the standard of ecotourism service is more satisfying than other types.
A. Ecotourism is seasonal in nature, therefore a vulnerable industry.
B. The current sustainable tourism service is just greenwashing.
C. Ecotourism is a win-win experience, both for nature and the people.
D. Responsible travel is a unique opportunity for business.
questions.
Question 44: She said, "John, I'll show you around my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip around her city with John.
B. She planned to show John around her city.
C. She promised to show John around her city.
D. She organized a trip around her city for John.
Question 45: People say that Vietnamese students are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
A. Vietnamese students are said not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.
B. Vietnamese students say they are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
C. People do not like Vietnamese students to be well-prepared for their future jobs
D. People, as well as Vietnamese students, are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
Question 46: Unlike traditional learning, the e-learning is flexible for the students as well as for the
teachers.
A. The e-learning is more flexible for the students and the teachers than traditional learning.
B. The students' e-learning is more flexible than the teachers' traditional learning.
C. The e-learning for the students is more flexible than traditional learning for the teachers.
D. The students use more flexible e-learning than traditional learning used by the teachers.
Question 47: - Nick: "What about stopping by a fishing village for lunch?”
- Linh: “_______________.’
A. It's isn't really worth seeing. B. Thanks, that's really useful.
C. That sounds fantastic! D. You've done a very good job.
Question 48: - "Will you please show me how to operate the new machine?
- “_______________.”
A. Sure. It's a piece of cake. B. Is it like a piece of cake?
C. Of course it's no easy work. D. No, I won't.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey
A. They were so exhausted that they could hardly continue the journey.
B. They were hardly exhausted but they could not continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. They could continue the journey as they were hardly exhausted.
Question 50: Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us. She had already seen the movie.
A. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us, so she had already seen it.
B. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us as she had already seen it.
C. As Karen had already seen the movie, Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema.
D. Karen had already seen the movie, then she didn’t want to go the cinema.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 2: A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
Question 3: A. social B. common C. verbal D. polite
Question 4: A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
Question 5: The majority of the students _______ home for their holidays for the past few weeks.
A. has gone B. had gone C. goes D. have gone
Question 6: My sister often reads _______ fashion pages in _______ newspapers to keep up with
__________ latest styles.
A. Ø/the/the B. the/the/the C. Ø/Ø/the D. the/Ø/the
Question 7: Mrs Townsend was left ___________ all the arrangements for the outing by herself.
A. to make B. making C. having made D. to making
Question 8: “If I ________ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55 minutes
determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could solve the problem in
less than five minutes." - Albert Einstein
A. have an hour to solve a problem B. had an hour solving a problem
C. had had an hour to solve a problem D. had an hour to solve a problem
Question 9: I’m sorry but I assure you that I had no intention ____________ offending you.
A. in B. of C. to D. for
Question 10: As a devoted and respectable woman, she makes a large donation to a _____________
cause every year.
A. worthless B. worthy C. worthwhile D. worth
Question 11: __________ you have thought about where you are at now and where you want to be, you
can work on getting to know your skills, interests and values.
A. As B. Although C. Unless D. Once
Question 12: When we went to Egypt he knew __________ no Arabic, but within six months he had
become extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. virtually D. scarcely
Question 13: In ______________, I must acknowledge that we were guilty of errors of judgment.
A. retrospect B. review C. experience D. hindsight
Question 14: Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______________ on the table
regarding their long-term plans.
A. cards B. hands C. feet D. papers
Question 15: "Anyone who stops learning is old, ________. Anyone who keeps learning stays young." -
Henry Ford
A. either at twenty or eighty B. neither at twenty or eighty
C. neither at twenty nor eighty D. whether at twenty or eighty
Question 16: He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _____ for heights.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
Question 17: The ________________ of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday.
A. survey B. inspection C. appraisal D. review
Question 18: One moment you say you love me, the next moment you are dating another girl, ______?
A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. won’t you D. do you
Question 19: Ms. Hoa is a __________ girl who always smiles with everyone friendly.
A. beautiful tall young B. young beautiful tall
C. young tall beautiful D. tall young beautiful
Question 20: If the rain doesn't let up soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
A. brighten B. stop C. clear D. darken
Question 21: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no
alternative but to expel her.
A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster
C. punish her severely D. beat her violently
Question 22: It is an ideal opportunity to make yourself memorable with employers for the right reasons
by asking sensible questions.
A. theoretical B. silly C. practical D. burning
Question 23: Steve was very happy in his job until he fell out with his boss. After that, it was difficult for
them to work together.
A. made up with B. made for C. made out D. made off
A little while ago, the European Parliament recommended a list of 8 key competencies which they
believe all (24) ____ institutions should provide their students with, to promote lifelong learning. These
key competencies consist of knowledge, skills, and attitudes which are central to the development of (25)
____ children, young people and eventually adults.
Finland isn't the first country to recognize the value of ‘lifelong learning’ but Finland is the first
country to base their teaching curriculum (26) ____ the eight key competencies. Instead of focusing on
classic academic subjects, like. History or English, Finnish schools will now structure lessons around
broader, crosscutting and interdisciplinary "topics".
Speaking on why Finland decided to make this shift towards lifelong learning. Pasi Sahlberg.
Visiting Professor at the Graduate School of Education Harvard University, said: “educators in Finland
think, quite correctly, that schools should teach what young people need in their lives ... (27) ______
Finnish youth need more than before are more integrated knowledge and skills about real world issues”.
As Professor Sahlberg explains the key competencies don't focus on knowledge acquisition and
test score results, (28) ____ on developing skills for longer term learning, with an emphasis on social and
emotional development.
(Source: https://www.mindmeister.com/blog/8-lesson-plans-promote-lifelong-learning/)
Question 24: A. educate B. educating C. education D. educational
Question 25: A. good-rounding B. well-rounding C. good-rounded D. well-rounded
Question 26: A. in B. for C. over D. round
Question 27: A. that B. it C. what D. which
Question 28: A. rather B. instead C. but D. than
Question 29: If students are going to an open day they should be familiarized themselves with a
A B
Range of courses in that institution.
C D
Question 30: Employers offer pension or a salary for the workers in exchange for the worker's work or
labor. A B C D
Question 31: Many people suppose that the more popular television programmes become, the
A B C
more badly they seem.
D
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes the types of
encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships, as was time
spent enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance of making a “casual
friend,” as opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent when people spent approximately
43 hours together within three weeks of the meeting. He further found that casual friends evolve into
friends at some point between 57 hours after three weeks, and 164 hours over three months. Hall's
research also demonstrated, however, that when it comes to time spent developing friendships, quality is
more important than quantity. And when it comes to conversation, topics matter. When it comes to
building quality relationships, the duration of conversation is not as important as the content. Meaningful
conversation is the key to bonding with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through catching up and
joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider the inane topics that often come up when
you are trapped in an elevator with an acquaintance. Discussing the weather or speculating on how many
stops you will make before finally reaching the lobby does not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere
proximity. Hall found that obligatory time spent together, such as in a classroom or workplace, does not
promote closeness. Friendships require an efficient use of time together. Someone who remembers the
details of your life and asks questions about your family, your job, your latest vacation, etc., is much more
likely on his or her way to becoming someone you consider a friend, as opposed to an acquaintance.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
A. The priceless gift of time B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances. D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 33: The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate B. friend C. acquaintance D. Jeffrey
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of Jeffrey A. Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen relationships.
Question 35: The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly B. small C. regular D. normal
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street.
B. Travelling with your friend on holiday.
C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor.
D. Discussing with a classmate for the class project.
Although television was first regarded by many as “radio with pictures,” public reaction to the
arrival of TV was strikingly different from that afforded the advent of radio. Radio in its early days was
perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of cultural significance. The public quickly
adjusted to radio broadcasting and either enjoyed its many programs or turned them off. Television,
however, prompted a tendency to criticize and evaluate rather than a simple on-off response.
One aspect of early television that can never be recaptured is the combined sense of astonishment
and glamour that greeted the medium during its infancy. At the midpoint of the 20th century, the public
was properly agog about being able to see and hear actual events that were happening across town or
hundreds of miles away. Relatively few people had sets in their homes, but popular fascination with TV
was so pronounced that crowds would gather on the sidewalks in front of stores that displayed a working
television set or two. The same thing happened in the typical tavern, where a set behind the bar virtually
guaranteed a full house. Sports events that might attract a crowd of 30,000 or 40,000 suddenly, with the
addition of TV cameras, had audiences numbering in the millions. By the end of television’s first decade,
it was widely believed to have a greater influence on American culture than parents, schools, churches,
and government-institutions that had been until then the dominant influences on popular conduct. All were
superseded by this one cultural juggernaut.
The 1950s was a time of remarkable achievement in television, but this was not the case for the
entire medium. American viewers old enough to remember TV in the ’50s may fondly recall the shows of
Sid Caesar, Jackie Gleason, Milton Berle, and Lucille Ball, but such high-quality programs were the
exception; most of television during its formative years could be aptly described, as it was by one
Broadway playwright, as “amateurs playing at home movies.” The underlying problem was not a shortage
of talented writers, producers, and performers; there were plenty, but they were already busily involved on
the Broadway stage and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures. Consequently, television drew chiefly
on a talent pool of individuals who had not achieved success in the more popular media and on the young
and inexperienced who were years from reaching their potential. Nevertheless, the new medium ultimately
proved so fascinating a technical novelty that in the early stages of its development the quality of its
content seemed almost not to matter.
Fortunately, the dearth of talent was short-lived. Although it would take at least another decade
before areas such as news and sports coverage approached their potential, more than enough excellence in
the categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s to deserve the attention of discriminating
viewers. They are the most fondly remembered of the Golden Age genres for both emotional and
intellectual reasons. Live TV drama was, in essence, the legitimate theatre’s contribution to the new
medium; such shows were regarded as “prestige” events and were afforded respect accordingly. The
comedies of the era are remembered for the same reason that comedy itself endures: human suffering and
the ever-elusive pursuit of happiness render laughter a necessary palliative, and people therefore have a
particular fondness for those who amuse them.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/)
Question 37: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Television development in comparison with radio
B. Sports events on television
C. High-quality programs enjoyed by American
D. Television in the United States
Question 38: The phrase “agog about” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by _____.
A. looking forward to B. interested in
C. involved in D. keen on
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why would the public gather on the sidewalks in front of stores?
A. They had no work B. They had a sense of astonishment
C. Because of their fascination with TV D. They went to the tavern together
Question 40: Which of the following does the word “aptly” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. at a slow speed; not quickly
B. in a way that is suitable or appropriate in the circumstances
C. happening in a short time or without delay
D. the whole of; as much as
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, why is television described as “amateurs playing at home
movies”?
A. Writers, producers, and performers don’t have enough money to invest in television.
B. There are no high-quality programs.
C. Because talented writers, producers, and performers are busy with Broadway stage and in
vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures.
D. There are no talented writers, producers, and performers.
Question 42: The word “dearth” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lack B. plenty C. absence D. empty
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE according to the paragraph?
A. Television in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of
cultural significance.
B. Few people had TV sets at home but they all enjoyed watching programs especially sports on TV.
C. Television could draw chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had achieved success in the more
popular media.
D. The categories of comedy and drama that emerged in the 1950s were not good enough to attract
viewers.
questions.
Question 44: He broke up with her but now he thinks that was a mistake.
A. He feels pity that he had broken up with her.
B. He wishes not to have broken her up.
C. He regrets having broken up with her.
D. He was mistaken about breaking up with her.
Question 45: "Let's tell Dad about our problem” said Carol to Tony.
A. Carol ordered Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
B. Carol suggested telling Dad about their problem.
C. Carol forbid Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
D. Carol allowed Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
Question 46: People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.
D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Question 47: A student is talking with his professor about his missing the midterm test. Complete the
exchanges with the best answer:
- Student: "What can I do to make up for the missing midterm test, professor?"
- Professor: “______________________.”
A. Don't mention it. It's my pleasure to do this.
B. Thank you very much for accepting the invitation.
C. You are supposed to write a chapter review.
D. I agree to some extent with this statement.
Question 48: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Question 49: The average lifespan is 79 years. However, the poorest men in this city have a life
expectancy of 54 years.
A. If the average lifespan is 79 years, the poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years.
B. The average life expectancy of 79 years is higher than that of the poorest men in this city.
C. The poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years, much lower than the average
lifespan.
D. The average life expectancy is 25 years higher than the poorest men in this city.
Question 50: Sam has a new job title and she gets a higher salary now. This means, she has been
promoted.
A. Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now, which means she has been promoted.
B. Sam has been promoted because she has a new job title to get a higher salary now.
C. Getting a higher salary after having a new job title had made Sam promoted.
D. Having been promoted, Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. breath B. path C. wither D. breakthrough
Question 2: A. reads B. meets C. stops D. drops
Question 3: A. comment B. common C. commence D. compass
Question 4: A. compliment B. argument C. nursery D. requirement
Question 5: She was sitting on the grass, out of breath. She ______. She shouldn't have run so long.
A. was running B. had run home C. had been running D. ran
Question 6: If____________, those areas will not be available to future generations any longer.
A. those areas were damaged or destroyed B. are damaged or destroyed
C. damaged or destroyed D. they damage or destroy
Question 7: His aggressive style contrasts __________ with that of his low-key predecessor.
A. thoroughly B. sharply C. fully D. coolly
Question 8: The company had to _______ reparation to those who suffered ill health as a result of
chemical pollution.
A. take B. do C. make D. pay
Question 9: Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like health, food,
safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.
A. communication B. communicative C. communicator D. communicating
Question 10: A good way to show your responsibility and commitment to your family is to do your
chores without complaining or___________.
A. asking B. ask C. being asked D. to be asked
Question 11: According to some researchers, the emphasis in education in the next few years would be
__________ the development of student's computer skills.
A. to B. at C. on D. with
Question 12: I hope you won’t take _________ if I tell you the truth.
A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence
Question 13: Just water these plants twice a week, and ____________ the ones in the bedroom.
A. likewise B. otherwise C. nonetheless D. unless
Question 14: Crops are often completely destroyed by _________ of locusts.
A. bands B. troupes C. swarms D. flocks
Question 15: They failed to ___________ the necessary precautions to avoid infection.
A. take B. lead C. do D. conduct
Question 16: The more satisfied employees are, ______________ to the company.
A. the more likely they will remain loyal B. the more loyal they will remain likely
C. the more they will likely remain loyal D. the likely they will remain more loyal
Question 17: _______lunch in Spain is _____ bit different from what we're used to in _____ America.
A. The/a/0 B. 0/a/0 C. 0/0/0 D. A/a/the
Question 18: The victims of the disaster finally decided not to choose __________ of the two plans of
receiving relief supplies from the government.
A. both B. either C. not D. neither
Question 19: __________ to wake him up, I turned off the radio.
A. Not wanting B. Not wanted
C. Not to want D. Not have been wanted
Question 20: It was Giovanni Luppis, an officer in the army of the Austrian empire, who first came up
with the idea of a self-propelled anti-ship weapon.
A. suggested B. discovered C. propose D. revealed
Question 21: If he so much as harms a hair on her head, I won't be responsible for my actions.
A. hurts her B. flirts her C. dates her D. beats her
Question 22: Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers,
rhinoceros, bears and even primates.
A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law
C. introducing a law D. imposing a law
Question 23: His lawyer thought he had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further
evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. advised of appealing D. charged of fraud
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In my culture,
usually, if a woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (24)_______, in the first few days of
school, I found it strange that so many women were talking to me and I was under the impression that
some women on my dormitory floor were interested in me. To (25) _____ their politeness, I would buy
them flowers or offer small gifts, as is done in my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that
these same women now seemed (26) _______ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to
leave her alone. Eventually I talked to the residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong,
and he explained to me the way men and women usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear
that (27) _____ was wrong with me, but rather with the way I was interpreting my conversations with

women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in the USA, I still made many good
female friends afterwards (28) _______I still maintain contact.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 24: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 25: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 26: A. uncomfortable B. comfort C. comfortably D. comfortable
Question 27: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 28: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom
Question 29: Everyone can take an important role by always doing their best to help their families flourish.
A B C D
Question 30: The liver has many functions, which includes detoxifying of harmful chemicals,
A B
breakdown of drugs, filtering of blood, secretion of bile and production of blood-clotting proteins.
C D
Question 31: Not only men and women do have many differences, but they also have many similarities.
A B C D
How might volunteering contribute to lower blood pressure? Performing volunteer work could
increase physical activity among people who aren’t otherwise very active, says lead study author
Rodlescia Sneed, a doctoral candidate in social and health psychology at Carnegie Mellon University. It
may also reduce stress. “Many people find volunteer work to be helpful with respect to stress reduction,
and we know that stress is very strongly linked to health outcomes,” she says.
As with any activity thought to improve health, researchers are trying to identify the specific
characteristics of volunteering that provide the greatest benefit. For example, how much time would you
need to put into volunteer work to lower your blood pressure or live longer? In the Carnegie Mellon study,
200 hours of volunteering per year correlated to lower blood pressure. Other studies have found a health
benefit from as little as 100 hours of volunteering a year. Which types of volunteer activities improve
health the most? No one really knows. Sneed speculates that mentally stimulating activities, like tutoring
or reading, might be helpful for maintaining memory and thinking skills, while “activities that promote
physical activity would be helpful with respect to cardiovascular health, but no studies have really
explored this.”
One key for deriving health benefits from volunteering is to do it for the right reasons. A 2012
study in the journal Health Psychology found that participants who volunteered with some regularity lived
longer, but only if their intentions were truly altruistic. In other words, they had to be volunteering to help
others—not to make themselves feel better.
The Greek philosopher Aristotle once surmised that the essence of life is “To serve others and do
good.” If recent research is any indication, serving others might also be the essence of good health.
(Source: https://www.health.harvard.edu/)
A. Global volunteer experience. B. Volunteer opportunities for teenagers.
C. The benefits of volunteering. D. Voluntary work with children
Question 33: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Physical activity B. Blood pressure C. Doctoral candidate D. Volunteer work
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what information about volunteers has NOT been supported by
researchers?
A. 100 hours of voluntary activities are enough for a certain health benefit, but a low blood pressure
level requires double that amount.
B. Only 100 hours of volunteering per annum are needed to reap a health benefit.
C. 200 hours of voluntary activities should be spent annually to influence the level of blood pressure.
D. Mentally demanding works enhance intellectual capacity while physical ones benefit the heart and
blood flow.
Question 35: The word “altruistic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. egoistic B. philanthropic C. liberal D. magnanimous
Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what is the lesson from one of the greatest intellectual figures in
history?
A. Opportunities to serve others result in a stronger sense of purpose and meaning in life.
B. Without the freedom of forgiveness, you’ll end up serving for the wrong reasons.
C. We should take advantage of the generous help of others without giving in return.
D. Only a small minority of people use their lives to serve others.
The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than men might
be due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers have suggested.
Recent figures show about 65% of those living with dementia in the UK are women, with a similar
statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading cause of death for women in
England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of dementia, but the most common form. While one
explanation is that dementia risk increases with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men,
new research suggests there might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within
neurons and linked to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.
The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los Angeles by
researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-reviewed, used scans from a
method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them to look at the way clumps of a protein
called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and 178 women without cognitive problems, as well as
101 men and 60 women with mild cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s
disease. Cognitively normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.
From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show similar signals
relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based on that we kind of try to
reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is presenting the research, told the
Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.” The team says the results suggest these maps
look different in women and men, suggesting tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female
brain.
Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer-reviewed – added weight to the
idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect dementia risk. Research by
scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of genes and genetic variants appear to be
linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological sex or the other. While the actual importance of these
factors has yet to be unpicked, and the study only looked at white participants, the team says it
underscores that there could be a genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women,
and the way it develops.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
A. The differences between the male and female brain and the condition for Alzheimer’s.
B. Research shines a light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.
C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women
D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.
Question 38: The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions
Question 39: As mentioned in paragraph 3, positron emission tomography is a method to __________.
A. distinguish between the amount of tau in normal people and that in those with cognitive problems.
B. diagnose who are easier to get Alzheimer’s disease.
C. observe the increase of a protein called tau in the brains of subjects.
D. review whether people with cognitive problems have a protein called tau or not.
Question 40: What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems
B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems
C. cognitively normal older people’s
D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease
A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.
B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from Alzheimer’s.
C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.
D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.
Question 42: The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by __________.
A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated
Question 43: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ____________.
A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.
B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been scientifically
illuminated.
C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.
D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.
questions.
Question 44: “What happens to what we throw away?", Mary wonders.
A. Mary wonders what happens to what we throw away.
B. Mary wondered what happened to what we threw away.
C. Mary wondered what has happened to what we threw away.
D. Mary wonders what happened to what we threw away.
Question 45: Dr. Mercer decided not to accept the research grant at Harvard because he is going to take
six months off to spend more time with his family.
A. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to take six
months off to spend more time with his family.
B. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he were not going to take six months off to
spend more time with his family.
C. Dr. Mercer would have accepted the research grant at Harvard if he had not been going to take six
months off to spend more time with his family.
D. Dr. Mercer would accept the research grant at Harvard if he had not been going to take six months
off to spend more time with his family.
Question 46: Textbooks can't provide students with the latest information as a mobile device can.
A. Textbooks do not provide students with information later than can a mobile device.
B. The information provided by textbooks is not later than that provided by a mobile device.
C. Textbooks can't provide students with as new information as a mobile device can.
D. The information provided by textbooks is newer than that provided by a mobile device.
Question 47. – “I am sorry. I've spoilt the cake.”
- “__________”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, definitely
C. That's alright. Don't worry. D. I'd rather not do it
Question 48: - A: “I need to stop eating such unhealthy foods.”
- B: “___________________.”
A. That sounds delicious and nutritious.
B. I know what you mean. I've started eating better myself.
C. I mainly eat baked chicken, because there's not a lot of fat.
D. Are you sure that's how you want me to make it?
Question 49: Technology allows for remote working. This expands women's options.
A. Technology allows for remote working, which expands women's options.
B. That technology allows for remote working will expand women's options.
C. Because technology allows for remote working, it expands women's options.
D. Allowing for remote working, technology expands women's options.
Question 50: She teaches children with special needs. Many of them have severe learning difficulties.
A. She teaches children with special needs and whoever has severe learning difficulties.
B. She teaches children with special needs and severe learning difficulties.
C. She teaches children with severe learning difficulties and with special needs.
D. She teaches children with special needs, many of whom have severe learning difficulties.
-----THE END-----
Question 1: A. promote B. voluntarily C. solidarity D. bronchitis
Question 2: A. obliged B. graduated C. attended D. wretched
Question 3: A. advice B. apply C. career D. lifelong
Question 4: A. demonstrate B. paperwork C. probation D. dealership
Question 5: By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he __________ five different schools
because his parents moved frequently.
A. attended B. was attending
C. had attended D. has been attending
Question 6: If computers become as smart as humans, ____________?
A. would they do our jobs better than we can B. will they do our jobs better than we can
C. would they do our jobs better than we could D. will they do our jobs better than we could
Question 7: Most people are interested in __________ about famous celebrities, which is why tabloid
magazines still exist.
A. juicy chatter B. juicy gossip C. gossip freely D. juicy talk
Question 8: There’s no need for you to try to _____ an argument with him. You need to calm down or
your relationship will get worse.
A. win B. beat C. defeat D. gain
Question 9: Lifelong learning involves the use of both formal and informal learning opportunities
throughout people's lives in order to foster the __________ development.
A. continuing B. continuous C. continual D. continued
Question 10: She couldn't resist _______ at him in those clothes
A. to laugh B. laugh C. laughing D. laughed
Question 11: He harbors a deep resentment ___________ his parents for his miserable childhood.
A. on B. from C. for D. against
Question 12: We are raising funds for people with visual __________ in the city.
A. breakages B. failures C. impairments D. damages
Question 13: The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _____, they do free
home deliveries.
A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead
Question 14: On being told about her sack, ________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked
C. Mary's face turned pale D. her boss changed his attitude
Question 15: He did his work ____________ because he did not like the culture of this company.
A. reluctantly B. willingly C. inefficiently D. successfully
Question 16: It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age, ____?
A. isn't it B. is it C. doesn't he D. does he
Question 17: The government is trying its best to narrow the gap between ____ rich and ____ poor
A. the / a B. a / the C. the / the D. a / a
Question 18: The government has given the _____ light to our tree – planting project, so we can go ahead
and start organizing things.
A. blue B. green C. red D. white
Question 19: Vietnam has become __________ to foreign tourists.
A. the more and more attractive B. most and most attractive
C. the most and most attractive D. more and more attractive
Question 20: The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and health.
A. blare B. flask C. stark D. spark
Question 21: To keep up with new developments and technology, modern people need to implement
lifelong learning all the time.
A. come up with B. get on with C. face up with D. catch up with
in each of the following questions
Question 22: The rapid development of artificial intelligence can replace many people in their jobs and
make many people unemployed.
A. have a job working for a company or another person
B. not have a job that provides money
C. have enough skills and abilities for someone to employ you
D. have enough skills and abilities
Question 23: My teacher required us to present our report of the survey's result in black and white in
order for her to see our points easily.
A. clearly B. ambiguously C. thoroughly D. obviously
The next time you are watching a film and you see one of the characters jumping out of a plane,
falling off a horse, or being blown through a window - spare a (24) ________ for the stunt artist. Lots of
people think that stunt artists are just "extras" who play small, unimportant parts in films and television.
Nothing could be further from the truth. A stunt artist must combine the skills of an actor with the physical
abilities of a first - (25) _____________ athlete. He or she must be extremely fit, and highly trained in a
number of activities like scuba-diving, horse riding, martial arts or parachuting.
It is not easy to get started in a career as a stunt performer. Film and television producers look for
experience and proven ability, as it is unlikely that they will take on a complete newcomer. However,
because of the (26) ____________ of their profession, stunt artists tend to retire early. This means that

new performers must be employed, or there will be no one to take (27) ______________ when the present
generation quits.
Even when a stunt artist becomes well-known, the work is not regular. It may sometimes be
necessary to travel to the other side of the world for a job which involves long hours and great physical
danger. It is not a glamorous occupation either. Unlike the famous actors for (28) ____________ they
sometimes risk their lives, few stunt artists are recognized in the street by adoring fans.
(Source: https://matthewtoffolo.com/category/cinematography/page/2/)
Question 24: A. coin B. sympathy C. minute D. thought
Question 25: A. gold B. class C. national D. level
Question 26: A. feature B. nature C. aspect D. type
Question 27: A. over B. in C. up D. out
Question 28: A. who B. whom C. them D. which
Question 29: The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held on the campus
A B C
of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956.
D
Question 30: A recent report in Neurology noted that while cognitive activity can't change the biology
A B
of Alzheimer's, learning activities can help delay symptoms, preserve people's quality of life.
C D
Question 31: Many nations protect endangered species by forbidding hunting, to restrict land
A B C
development and creating preserves.
D
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the
disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study
found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they
look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major
differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as
divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young
and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents
are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young
adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is
twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged
than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in
technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its
own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older
generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry
of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as
superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 32: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in the generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 33: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant
Question 34: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause
disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 35: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 36: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
Sixty percent of working Americans today say they’ve left a job, or considered leaving a job,
because they didn’t like their direct supervisor, according to a survey from human resource consulting
firm Randstad US. Though leaving a job may seem like the best solution for retiring a bad boss, that
doesn’t mean that it’s always the best plan for your career. In fact, if you’re in a situation where you love
your job and the opportunities it presents, then leaving your role because of a difficult boss may not be the
best idea. Pollak and Monster.com career expert Vicki Salemi broke down three ways you can deal with a
bad boss without quitting a job you love.
Pollak says that in many cases, a difficult relationship with your boss is often due to differing
personalities and habits. One way to mend this relationship, she says, is to closely study your boss’s
behavior so that you can meet their expectations. “Become the world’s leading expert on your boss or
your manager,” says Pollak, who is also the author of the book “The Remix: How to Lead and Succeed in
the Multigenerational Workforce.” “How does this person like to communicate? If she hates long emails,
stop sending long emails. If she doesn’t like it when you drop by her office but reacts better when you
schedule an appointment, then learn to always schedule appointments instead of dropping in. If she is not
a morning person, don’t ask for things in the morning. If this person is really detail-oriented, then triple
check your documents before handing them in.” Salemi agrees. She says that if you have a boss who’s
critical or a micromanager, often the best way to deal with them is to be proactive in meeting their needs.
“It’s kind of like you’re managing them without making it seem like you’re managing them,” she says.
When dealing with a difficult boss, Pollak says one of the best ways to figure out how to
successfully work under their leadership is to talk to other people who you know have been in a similar
situation. “Other people can be a resource, whether it’s a mentor, someone at a different company, a coach
or people who have worked for this person in the past,” she says. “Treat it as a positive and say, ‘I really
want to be successful working with X. What recommendations do you have?’” However, she emphasizes,
you should never talk about the situation in a negative way, or say you don’t like working for your boss.
Instead, discuss about the situation in a way that shows your willingness to adapt to make the relationship
work.
If talking to other colleagues isn’t helpful, then Pollak says one of your last options should be to
talk directly to your boss. Consider your approach carefully. Instead of saying, “We’re not getting along.
What should we do?”, say something to the effect of, “I’d really like to make sure that I’m serving your
needs. I’d like to make sure that I’m communicating in a way that’s effective for you and I want to make
sure that I’m being as productive as possible. Is there anything I can do differently?” This way, she says,
you’re approaching the situation by asking how you can help, instead of emphasizing a problem.
(Adapted from https://www.cnbc.com/)
Question 37: Which best serves as the main idea of the passage?
A. How to get on well with your strict boss.
B. Is it a good idea to quit the job you love?
C. How to make the best plan for your career.
D. Three ways to become a boss of the job you love.
Question 38: The phrase “dropping in” in the second paragraph mostly means __________.
A. paying a formal visit to a place B. paying an informal visit to a person
C. having an arrangement before D. leaving before saying goodbye
Question 39: What does the phrase “this person” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. a mentor B. someone at a different company
C. a coach D. your boss
Question 40: What should you have to pay attention to if you want to ask for others’ advice about your
boss?
A. your feeling B. your attitude C. your situation D. your relationship
Question 41: The word “productive” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. useful B. destructive C. harsh D. critical
Question 42: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Always check your documents carefully before giving them to a detailed-oriented boss.
B. Don’t talk about your situation negatively.
C. Never show your enthusiasm for work when talking to your boss.
D. Don’t mention the problem between you and your boss.
A. Not every boss appreciates your willingness to adapt their behavior.
B. Finding help whenever suffering a bad boss is the best solution.
C. A proactive person will not face a strict boss.
D. Your positive attitude will help you know how to deal with your difficult boss.
questions.
Question 44: “My father doesn’t work in the factory anymore” Bella told us.
A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.
B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory anymore.
C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory
D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.
Question 45: He visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years.
B. He was in London for three years.
C. He didn’t visit London three years ago.
D. He has been in London for three years.
Question 46: If someone understands this theory, they are cleverer than I am.
A. There is someone who is cleverer than I am as he understands this theory
B. Some people who understand this theory are cleverer than I am
C. No one who is cleverer than I am understands this theory.
D. Anyone who understands this theory is cleverer than I am.
Question 47: Two friends meet on the first day at school. Complete the conversation.
- A: “Hey John. I didn't know you were coming to this school.”
- B: “__________ . It's good to see you.”
A. Oh, nice to meet you B. Yeah, what a coincidence
C. That's life D. Every now and then
Question 48: Joanna is inviting Sally to go out with her.
- Joanna: “Well, would you like to come out for dinner? Let's go somewhere this evening.”
- Sally: “__________ .”
A. Really? I'd love to. B. How do you feel about it?
C. Shall we go out tonight? D. I love going out.
Question 49: Ann can't use her office this week. The painters are working there.
A. Ann is not working at her office because the painters are working there.
B. Ann can't use her office this week because her office is being painted.
C. The painters who are working at Ann's office ask her out during the week.
D. The painters are using Ann's office this week as they are working there.
Question 50: So many animals are now in danger of extinction. Then, a list of them is kept in a Red
Book.
A. To keep many animals from danger of extinction, a list has been made in a Red Book.
B. So many animals are now in danger of extinction that a list of them is kept in a Red Book
C. So many animals are now in danger of extinction so that a list of them is kept in a Red Book.
D. So many animals are now in danger of extinction as to keep a list of them in a Red Book.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022

BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 2

Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?

BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 4

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BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 10

BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 19

Question 29: A. which B. when C. who D. where

BỘ ĐỀ MINH HỌA ANH 2022 – TRƯỜNG THPT HÙNG VƯƠNG - 33

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