ĐỀ HSG 38 39 40
ĐỀ HSG 38 39 40
ĐỀ HSG 38 39 40
Dieu
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class the previous day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull ____ the promise she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh, honey, please don't make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern for the social prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting
American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team will be sent out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon
graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of work per week. Some employers consider between 32
and 40 hours of work per week to be full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.
Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25)
____ young children, students, and people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only option. Others
work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions - and working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In
some situations, part-time employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers do not offer (27) ____
such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their part-time employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific industries that are known to have many part-time
positions available. You should (28) ____ the factors before deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your specific
situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the USA in 1935
A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North America and half in Canada.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it has had difficult times. The US was
first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of
1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and their foreign policies have shown this.
During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the
first country to come forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political interests. An important reason for the friendship
is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature, films and television.
Many Americans have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s,
and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people are worried about the extent
of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret
Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
ĐỀ SỐ 39
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. work B. stork C. force D. form
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Question 3. A. confide B. approach C. install D. enter
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. There has been little rain in this region for several months, _______?
A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there
Question 6. The injured _______ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. was taking C. were taken D. have taken
Question 7. Visiting Ha Long Bay , tourists can save money thanks _______ the availability of low-cost hotels and cruise tours.
A. for B. with C. about D. to
Question 8. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, _______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disastersD. the more frequently natural disasters occur
Question 9. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by_______ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 10. When it started to rain, they _______ through the forest.
A. was walking B. were walking C. walked D. are walking
Question 11……………they do not have much experience; their applications have been approved.
A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 12. We will have prepared everything _______.
A. as soon as the meeting will begin B. by the time the meeting begins
C. as long as the meeting would begin D. after the meeting began
Question 13. _______ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 14. The map of top ten most densely _______ countries in the world includes Monaco, Singapore, Bahrain, Malta and Bangladesh.
A. populated B. populating C. population D. popular
Question 15. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t _______ at somebody house on the first day of the New Year unless you have been invited by the
house owner.
A. put up B. go up C. show up D.pick up
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder has _______ a lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17. Jimmy always takes the _______ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous pop star, which is why he is so
successful now.
A. bull(đương đầu khó khăn) B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 18. I’m a sharp cookie. There’s no way anybody can pull the wool over my _______.
A. eyes(lừa) B. tissue C. truth D. grass
Q19. When preparing a CV, university _______ can consider attaching a separate report about official work experience during the course.
A. graduates B. leavers C. candidates D. applicants
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
Question 20. Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit.
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed
Question 21. There is concern about several confidential documents which have gone missing.
A. attentive B. secretive C. diplomatic D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
Question 22. Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. lost their lives D. declined
Question 23. You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.
A. praise yourselfB. criticize yourself C. check up your back D. wear a backpack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.”
- Jimmy: “_______. There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life.
Question 25. Mary and her friend, Encobeill, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen?” - Encobeill: “_______”
A. Thanks, that’s fine. B. Yes, I’d love too.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
In such a costly and competitive society and world, no one of us can live without money. We need money to fulfill our basic needs of the life
such as buying food, and (26) _______ many basic necessities of life which are almost impossible to buy without money. People in the society
(27) _______ are rich and have property are looked as honourable and respectful person of the society however a poor person is seen as hatred
without any good impression.
Money increases the position of the person in the society and (28) _______ a good impression to him. All of us want to be rich by earning
more money through good job or business in order to fulfil all the increasing demands of the modern age. (29) _______, only few people get
this chance of completing their dreams of being a millionaire.
So, money is the thing of great importance all through the life. Money is required by everyone whether he/she is rich or poor and living in
urban areas or rural areas. People in the urban areas are earning more money than the people living in backward or rural areas as the people of
the urban areas have more (30) _______ to the technologies and get more opportunity because of the easy sources.
Question 36. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Paper bags are a good substitute for plastic ones. B. Is plastic really worse than paper?
C. Activities of American Progressive Bag Alliance D. What people think about paper bags
Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. people B. groceries C. paper bags D. plastic bags
Question 38. American Progressive Bag Alliance is the name of a _______.
A. plastic bag seller B. paper bag company C. law company D. plastic industry group
Question 39. The word “muddier” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______.
A. uglierB. luckier C. rarer D. Vaguer(mơ hồ)
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Paper bags can be the substitute for plastic bags.
B. New York City prefers single-use bags.
C. Studies reach the same conclusion on bags’ environmental impacts.
D. Plastic bags have a higher carbon footprint than paper according to research in 2007.
Question 41. The word “stemming” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. looking for B. asking for C. deriving from D. keeping from
Question 42. What can be inferred the reason for paper’s higher carbon footprint?
A. Paper bags are difficult to ship. B. Paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags.
C. Paper bags take less space. D. Paper bags are easily torn.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Since he started primary school, he helped his mother prepare meals, do the washing up and take care of his younger sister.
A. started B. helped C. meals D. take care
Question 44. Many successful film directors are former actors who desire to expand his experience in the film industry.
A. successful film directors B. former C. who D. expand his
Question 45. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter their eating habits.
A. raised B. rapidly C. that D. to alter
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. This is the first time I have had such a delicious meal.
A. I have ever had much delicious meal before. B. I had had such a delicious meal several times
C. I haven't had such a delicious meal before. D. I had ever had a delicious meal like this before
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48. You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother B. You must clean the house instead of your brother
C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother D. You might clean the hosue instead of your brother
Question 49. Jack bought that second-hand car. He then recognized that he shouldn't have done that.
A. Jack wished that he has not bought that second-hand car. B. Jack wished that he did not buy that second-hand car.
C. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car. D. If only Jack hadn’t bought that second-hand car.
Question 50. We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
ĐỀ SỐ 40
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Question 1. A. extended B. skipped C. looked D. watched
Question 2. A. farm B. favor C. harm D. marble
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Question 3. A. adapt B. damage C. award D. prefer
Question 4. A. simulate B. sacrifice C. devastate D. determine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Everybody is tired of watching the same comercials on TV every night,_______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. haven’t they D. don’t they
Question 6. The story I’ve just read _______ by Agatha Christie
A. were written B. was written C. was written from D. wrote by
Question 7. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 8. The more you study during this semester, _______ the week before the exam.
A. you have to study the less B. the less you have to study
C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have
Question 9. John lost the _______ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him.
A. new beautiful blue Japanese B. beautiful blue Japanese new
C. beautiful new blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue
Question 10. When we came in, they _______ the meal for us.
A. prepared B. prepare C.preparing D. were preparing
Question 11. _______ there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to everyone.
A. However B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 12. They will have suffered from coldness and hunger for 6 hours _______ them on the mountain.
A. by the time we find B. when we found C. as soon as we had found D. after we had found
Question 13. _______ for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked C. Walking D. Walked
Question 14. High intelligent machines can be automated to operate without human _______.
A. intervene B. intervening C. intervention D. interventionist
Question 15. Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in order to _______ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 16. The poor child was in floods of _______ because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. tears B. sorrow C. sadness D. upset
Question 17. The problems of the past few months have taken their _______ on her health and there are shadows under her eyes.
A. toll(gây ảnh hưởng nghiêm trọng) B. effected C. food D. changes
Question 18. The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a _______ of a doubt.
A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue
Question 19. During the Medieval period, people were made public _______ of being witches.
A. complaint B. criminal C. trouble D. accusation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 21. His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn’t want to hire him anymore.
A. agreement B. obedience C. rudeness D. respect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. boredom D. apprehension
Question 23. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.” - Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all. C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Question 25. Nam is talking about Hưng’s hairstyle
- Nam: You really have a beautiful hairstyle now, Hưng! - Hưng: _______! You’ve pushed me into the blush.
A. It isn’t your work B. You must be kidding C. Yes, of course D. Nice to meet you
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind is free, operational costs are nearly
zero (26) _______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) _______
governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) _______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and
bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity
generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) _______. Thanks to global efforts to combat climate change, such as the Paris Agreement,
renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30) _______ wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity
around the world increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number of
installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
Question 26. A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27. A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28. A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29. A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30. A. who B. when C. why D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational training programme. Such programmes offer
plenty of opportunities for on-the-job training and work experience. Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and
comprise theoretical as well as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational school
where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The rest of the time will be spent at a company.
There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what
your company does, learn how it operates and find out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training.
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you have completed your training, you will not
only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also have hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially
recognised training programmes in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out which
one that might be by visiting one of the jobs vocational training fairs which are organised in many German cities at different times in the year.
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are very good. This is one of the reasons why
this kind of training is very popular with young Germans: around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training
programme.
Question 31. How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?
A. around one out of five B. less than a third C. well over 75% D. about 70%
Question 32. The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. company B. organisation C. machinery D. knowledge
Question 33. Which of the following statements best describes the dual vocational training programmes?
A. These programmes provide you with both theoretical knowledge and practical working experience.
B. These programmes require you to have only practical working time at a certain company
C. These programmes offer you some necessary technical skills to do your future job.
D. These programmes consist of an intensive theoretical course of two and a half years at a vocational school.
Question 34. The word "hands-on" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. technical B. practical C. theoretical D. integral
Question 35. Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage?
A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany B. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany
C. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany D. Higher Education System in Germany
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Environmentalists often fear that tourists will trample all over sensitive natural resource areas, but tourism may bring the needed and only
economic incentives to help drive conservation, said Bynum Boley. Ecotourism and natural resource conservation already have a mutually
beneficial relationship that is ideal for creating a sustainable partnership.
"Ecotourism destinations benefit in the form of enhanced tourism competitiveness from the protection of quality natural resources," he said.
"Meanwhile, the conservation of these natural resources is increasingly valued since these pristine natural resources are the foundation of the
ecotourism industry and the driver of all economic benefits associated with ecotourism."
Tourism is a $7.6 trillion global industry, provides 277 million jobs and is a primary income source for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed
countries. It also subsidizes environmental protection and helps protect, conserve and value cultural resources that might otherwise be
undervalued by the host community, Boley said. In the newspaper, Boley and co-author Gary Green said that despite past tension between the
tourism industry and environmentalists, the two should team up as allies to fight off increasing conversion of land away from its natural state,
Ecotourists not only provide a boost to the economy in such places, they can also motivate landowners into keeping the environment in its
natural state instead of converting it into something unsustainable. They could also influence the public perception of conservation, Boley
explained, which does not often favor environmental protection.
“The public has become increasing less prone to respond to environmental messages,” he said. “Economic messages are needed in order to
attract the public's interest.” Too often, Boley and Green said, unique natural resource areas are converted into urban, suburban and
agricultural developments without considering their ecotourism potential. In addition to the lost ecotourism revenue, there are a host of
negative environmental consequences such as biodiversity loss, water and food shortages and the land being unable to mitigate the effects of
climate change. These areas are not valued for their unique attributes or the valuable natural resources they provide, Green said, “so we lose
them.” Tourists have historically been seen as having a negative impact on the environment. Critics complain that they violate fragile and
threatened natural environments while contributing to greenhouse gases from the increased number of flights to these exotic and often remote
locales. While these criticisms are justified, Boley and Green said responsible programs promote education of ecological conservation and
environmental sustainability, fostering a greater understanding and appreciation of these exotic areas.
(Adapted from https://wvvw.sciencedaily.com/ )
Question 36. What is the best title for the passage?
A. How to save the environmental resources B. Ecotourism - benefits and drawbacks
C. The consequences of ecotourism D. The development of ecotourism
Question 37. The word “pristine” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. unspoiled B. touched C. destroyed D. spoiled
Question 38. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Tourism?
A. subsidizes environmental protection. B. is a primary income source for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed countries.
C. only develops in industrialized nations. D. provides 277 million jobs.
Question 39. The word “perception” can be replaced by _______.
A. concept B. overview C. insight D. awareness
Question 40. It can be inferred from the phrase “Economic messages are needed in order to attract the public's interest.” is _______.
A. People get more interested in issues related to environment. B. People get less interested in issues related to environment.
C. People get more interested in issues related to economy. D. People get less interested in issues related to economy.
Question 41. According to the passage, negative environmental outcomes _______?
A. have bad influence on the biodiversity. B. boost local economy.
C. reduce the effects of climate change. D. provide more water and food.
Question 42. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. critics B. tourists C. these areas D. flights
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information about it.
A. there will be B. held C. will give D. about
Question 44. Her weight has increased remarkably since they began receiving treatment.
A. Her weight B. bbbbbb C. they D. receiving
Question 45. Speech sounds are produced as a continuous sound signal rather than discreet units
A. speech B. discreet C. are produced D. signal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months. B. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore. D. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 47. "No, I won’t go to work, at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend. B. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend. D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend
Question 48. It is impossible for you to buy a big house with little money
A. You are able to buy a big house with little money B. You can’t buy a big house with little money.
C. You will buy a big house with little money. D. You have to buy a big house with little money.
Question 49. I really regert that you haven’t told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family. B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family. D. If only you hadn’t told me about her family.
Question 50. Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
C. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.