TOEFL Test 1

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Practice test 1
Section 1
Listening comprehension
Time approximately 30 minutes 50 questions
Section 1 has three parts. Each parts has its own set of directions. Do not take notes
while listening or make any marks on the test pages. Note taking, underlining, or crossing out
will be considered cheating on the actual TOEFL exam. Answer the questions following the
conversations or talks based on what the speakers have stated or implied.
For practice test 1, insert your listening comprehension section. In the following test,
however, you will have only the 12 second given after each questions. Turn the page as soon
as you have marked your answer. Start your cassette now.
Part A
Direction
In the part A, you will hear conversations between two speakers. At the end of each
conversation, a third voice will ask a questions about what was said. The questions about it,
read the four possible answer and decide which one would be the best answer to the questions
you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet find the number of the problem and mark your
answer.
1. A. She’s tired of teaching C. Directions to interstate 4

B. She was dismissed from her job D. Their disgust with careless
C. She’s changing jobs 4. A. She thinks his lecturer are boring
D. The school is too hot B. She thinks his test are too long
2. A. She got up later than usual C. She doesn’t like his choice of test
B. The bus was late questions
C. She forgot her class D. She doesn’t think he prepares well
D. Her clock was wrong enough
3. A. The weather report 5. A. A movie
B. The traffic report B. A documentary
C. A soccer game 12 A. She went to wring class

D. A Comedy B. She was late for class because she
6 A. America got lost
B. England C. She missed the class
C. Switzerland D. She had some trouble finding the
D. Sweden class, but she arrived on the time
7. A. She had not applied Stetson 13. A. The man is not sure which type of
B. She had not worked very hard flower April sent
C. She was certain to admitted B. April received many kinds of
D. She was not likely to be admitted flowers
8, A. She got scratched in the wild berry C. The man received many kinds of
bushes flowers from April
B. She got cut at the wild picnic D. The man appreciated Aprils
celebration sending him flowers
C. She was allergic to the fruits that 14. A. William slept all the way from
She had eaten Georgia to New York
D. She was trying to get suntan at the B. George didn’t sleep at all on the
picnic trip
9 A. Winter C. William was half asleep all the
B. Wittner time that he was driving
C. Wittmer D. William didn’t sleep at all on the
D. Litner trip
10. A. Go out of the town 15. A. Too many people came to the
B. Help the woman prepare for her meeting
meeting B. There were not enough people at
C. Didn’t work with the woman the meeting inspect the documents
D. didn’t work when the woman was C. The man had expected more people
supposed to work to come to the meeting
11. A. 5 D. There were not enough seats for all
B. 3 the people
C. 2 16 A. He sold no magazines
D. 8 B. He sold only one magazine
C. He has never sold as many B. On a boat

magazines as he sold today C. On a plane
D. He sold five magazine at one house D. On a bus
17. A. Frank told the contractor to do the 22 A. She is going on vacation
work in spite of cost B. She is leaving her job temporarily
B. Frank told the contractor that the for health reasons
price was too high C. During the summer, she often
C. Frank cannot afford the word on misses work because of illness
his house D. She is sick of working all the time
D. Frank repaired his own house 23. A. She is disappointed with the results
18. A. He studied last night because he B. She likes her jobs very much
had to C. She is hopping for some
B. He tried to study last night, but the improvements in her workplace
material was too hard D. She is very pleased with the
C. He couldn’t study last night outcome of her meeting
because he was very tired 24 A. He said he was sorry that he had
D. He studied last night because He not announced the test sooner
was bored B. He was sorry that he had forgotten
19 A. She goes to a movie every years to bring the test to class
B. She hasn’t gone to a movie unless C. He was sorry that he had not given
she has a the time the test earlier
C. She doesn’t go to a movie unless D. He said he was sorry that he had
she has the time not given the results of the test sooner
D. She hasn’t seen a movie for a long 25. A. She is taking a leave of absence
time from her job because of her health
20 A. He turned around to answer the B. She is not going to return to her job
teacher questions C. She is right to quit her job
B. He is an intelligent student D. She did very good work, but now
C. He must have been embarrassed She is quitting her job
D. He looked in the red book for the 26 A. John will be able to buy groceries
answer to the questions B. John doesn’t have enough money
21 A. On a train to buy groceries
C. John wouldn’t buy groceries even D. Fred and Mary were supposed to
if he had enough money meet them at the movies but their car
D. John can’t find his grocery money broke down
27 A. Eighty people came to the rally 29 A. He was supposed to give the
B. Fourty people came to the rally awards at the banquet, but didn’t
C. One hundred sixty people came to B. He was given an award, but he
the rally refused it
D. One hundred people came to the C. He didn’t go to the banquet
rally D. He went to the awards banquet, but
28 A. They are going to meet Freed and he refused to give a speech
Mary at the movies if they have a time 30. A. He is out of sugar
B. They went to the movies with freed B. He puts only sugar in his coffee.
and Mary, but the theater was closed C. There isn’t enough sugar in his
C. They couldn’t meet freed and Mary coffee
at the movies because they didn’t have D. He likes sugar, but the coffee he is
any money drinking has too much
Part B
Directions
In the part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversations, you will be
asked some questions. The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will
not be written out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and
remembered what the speaker says. When you hear a question, read the fours possible answers
in your test book and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have
heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31 A. In clothing store B. Mission to mars

B. In customs C. Martian renaissance
C. At the bank D. Captivating tales of mars
D. In a liquor store 36. A. Sciences fiction
32 A. 1 B. Adventures
B. 2 C. Biography
C. 3 D. Documentary
D. 4 37. A. One years
33. A. To make a list of her purchases B. Three years
B. To open her suitcase C. Five years
C. To pay $300 duty D. Seven years
D. To show him the bottles of wine 38. A. The crew had some incredible
34. A. Plants adventure on Mars
B. Wine B. The crew met some real Martians
C. Meat C. The Martians captured the crew
D. Cash D. The ship carried an all-male crew
35. A. The incredible adventures of the
Martians
Part C
Direction
In the part C, You will hear several talks. After each talk you will be asked some questions.
The talks and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written pout for you, so
you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a questions, read the four possible answer in your test book and decide which
one would be the best answer to the questions you have heardj, then on your answer sheet, find
the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
39. A. Spain 43 A. Multiple telegraph

B. Latin America B. Telephone
C. Florida C. Aviation
D. America D. Acoustics
40. A. Soccer 44 A. Acoustical Sciences
B. Handball B. Aviation
C. Football C. Adventure
D. Horse racing D. Architecture
41. A. Jai Lai is one of the fastest moving 45 A. He worked very hard but never
games achieved success
B. Jai Lai requires a great deal of skill B. He spent so many years working in
and endurance aviation because he wanted to be a
C. Jai Lai can be played as single of pilot
doubles C. He dedicated his life to science and
D. It is illegal to bet on Florida Jai Lai the well-being of humankind
games D. He worked with the deaf so that he
42. A. Baseball could invent the telephone
B. Ping pong 46 A. Bell was born in the eighteenth
C. Handball century
D. Badminton B. Bell worked with the deaf
C. Bell experimented with the 49 A. Because the insured must pay for
sciences of acoustics the agents retirements fund
D. Bell invented a multiple telegraph B. Because it is pure insurance
47 A. 100 C. Because part of the money is
B. 25 invested
C. 35 D. Because it based on the age of
D. 50 insured
48 A. It is less expensive than term 50 A. It is expensive
insurance B. One can borrow from the fund that
B. It can have fixed premium for life is built up
C. It may result in the insurance being C. The premium is paid by the interest
able to discontinue premium payments D. It requires an easier medical
D. It may results in retirement income examination than dies cash value
insurance.
Section 2
Structure and Written expression
Part A
Directions
Questions 1-15 incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or
phrases, marked (A), (B). (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the
sentences. The, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter
inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building____

A. Sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery
B. Sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithful
C. Sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week
D. Sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers
2. Because the first pairs of pants did not fit properly, He asked for___
A. Another pants
B. Others pants
C. The others ones
D. Another pair
3. The committee has met and
A. They have reached a decision
B. It has formulated themselves same opinions
C. Its decisions was reached at
D. It has reached a decisions
4. Alfred Adams has not____
A. Lived lonely-nessly in time previous
B. Never before lived sole
C. Ever lived was reached are
D. It has reached a decision
5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class——

A. He should study last night
B. He should have studied last night
C. He must have studied last night
D. He must had to study last night
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because—
A. He must to teach a class
B. He will be teaching a class
C. Of will teach a class
D. He will have teaching a class
7. Having been served lunch——
A. The problem was discussed by the members of the committee
B. The committe members discussed the problem
C. It was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. A discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
8. Florida has not yet ratified the Amendment and___
A. Several others states hasn’t either
B. Neither has come of the others states
C. Some others states also have not either
D. Neither have several other states
9. The chairman requested that____
A. The members studied more carefully the problem
B. The problem was more carefully studied
C. With more carefulness the problem could be studied
D. The members have several others states
10 California relies heavily on income from fruit corps, and___
A. Florida also
B. Florida too
C. Florida is as well
D. So does Florid
11. The professor said that

A. The students can turn over their reports on the Monday
B. The reports on Monday could be received from the students by him
C. The students could hand in their reports on Monday
D. The students will on Monday the reports turn in
12 This year will be difficult for this organization because _______
A. They have less money and volunteers than they had last years
B. It has less money and fewer volunteers than it had last years
C. The last year it did not have as few and little volunteers and money
D. There are fewer money and volunteers that in the last year there were
13. The teachers have had some problems deciding___
A. When to the students they shall return the final papers
B. When are they going to return to the students the final papers
C. When they should return the final papers to the students
D. The time when the final papers they should return for the students
14. She wanted to serve some coffee to her guests; however,_____
A. She hadn’t many sugar
B. There was not a great amount of the sugar
C. She did not have much sugar
D. She was lacking in amount of the sugar
15 there has not been a great response to the sale ___?
A. Does there
B. Has not there
C. Hasn’t it?
D. Has there
Part B
In question 16-40, each sentences has four underlined word or phrases. The four underlined
parts of the sentences are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the questions and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen.
16. The main (A) office of the factory can be found (B) in (C) maple street in (D) New York
City.
17. Because there are less (A) members present tonight than (B) there were (C) last night, we
must wait until the next meeting to vote (D).
18. David is particularly (A) fond of (B) cooking, and he often cooks (C) really (D) delicious
meals.
19.The progress (A) made (B) in space C) travel for (D) the early 1960s is remarkable
20. Sandra has not rarely (A) missed a play (B) or concert since (C) she was seventeen years
old (D).
21. The governor (A) has (B) not decide how to deal with (C) the new problems already (D)
22. There was (A) a (B) very interesting news on the (C) radio this morning about (D) the
earthquake in Italy.
23. The professor had already given the homework assignment (A) when he had remembered
(B) that Monday (C) was (D) a holiday.
24. Having been beaten by (A) the police for striking an officer (B), the man (C)will cry out
(D) in pain.
25. This table is not study enough (A) to support (B) a television, and that one (C) probably
isn’t neither (D).
26. The bridge was hitting (A) by a large ship during (B) a sudden (C) storm last (D) week.
27. The company (A) representative sold to the manager (B) a sewing (C) machine for (D)
forty dollars.
28. The taxi driver (A) told the man (B) to don’t allow (C) his disobedient son to hang out
(D) the window.
29. These televisions are quite (A) popular in (B) Europe, but those ones (C) are (D) not
30. Harvey seldom pays his bills (A) on time (B), and his (C) great brother does too (D).
31. The price of (A) crude oil used to be a great (B) deal lower (C) than now, wasn’t it? (D)
32. When an (A) university formulates new regulations (D) it (C) must relay its (D) decisions
to the students and faculty.
33. Jim was upset (A) last night because (B) he had to do (C) too many homeworks (D)
34. There is (A) some scissors (B) in (C) the desk drawer in (D) the bedroom if you need
them.
35. The board of realtors doesn’t have any informations (A) about (B) the increase (C) in rent
(D) for this area.
36. George is not enough intelligent (A) to pass (B) this (C) economics (D) class without
help.
37. There was (A) so much (B) people trying to leave the burning (C) building that (D) the
police had great deal of trouble controlling them.
38. John lived in (A) New York since (B) 1960 to 1975, but he is now living (C) in (D)
Detroit.
39. The fire began in (A) the fifth (B) floor of (C) the hotel, but it soon spread (D) to adjacent
floors.
40. Mrs. Anderson bought last week a new sport car (A). However (B), she has yet to learn
(C) how to operate (D) the manual gearshift.
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Directions
In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is followed by approximately
ten questions about it. For questions 1-50 choose the one best answer, A, B, C, D to each
questions. Then, find the number of the questions on your answer sheet, and fill in the space
that corresponds the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all of the questions
following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage
The stone age was a period of history which began in approximately 2 million BC and
lasted until 3000 BC. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapon that modern
scientist found. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic ages,
during the first period (2 millions to 8000 BC ), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and
(5) cooking were developed. As a result of the ice age, which evolved about the million years into
the Paleolithic age, people were forced to seek shelter in caves, we wear clothing and develop
new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first
fish hooks, took dogs huntung, and developed the bow and arrow, which were used until the
(10) fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 BC) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs,
and cattle, being less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements and
creating governments.
1. In to how periods was the Stone Age divided?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2. In the line 2, the word “derived” is closet in meaning to
A. Originated
B. Destroyed
C. Hallucinated
D. Discussed
3. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. Fish hook
B. Hatchet
C. Bow and arrow
D. Pottery
4. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. Farming
B. Clothing
C. Living indoors
D. Using fire
5. The word “crude” in line 8 is closet in meaning to?
A. Extravagant
B. Complex
C. Vulgar
D. Primitive
6. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because
A. It was very durable like stone
B. The tools and weapons were made of stone
C. There was little vegetation
D. The people lived in stone caves
7. In the line 12 “nomadic” is closet meaning into?
A. Sedentary
B. Wandering
C. Primitive
D. Inquisitive
8. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Ages

B. The Paleolithic Ages
C. The Stone Age
D. The Ice Age
9. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic age?
A. People were inventive
B. People stayed indoors all the time
C. People were warriors
D. People were crude
10. In the line 12 the word “eras” is closet in meaning to
A. Families
B. Periods
C. Herds
D. Tools

Hot boning is an energy saving technique for the meat processing industry. It has
received significant attention in recent years when increased pressure for energy conservation
has accentuated the need for more efficient method of processing the bovine carcass. Cooling
an entire carcass requires a considerable amount of refrigerated space, since bone and
(5) trimmable fat are cooled along with the muscle. It’s also necessary to space the carcasses
adequately in the refrigerated room for better air movement and prevention of microbial
contamination, thus adding to the volume requirements for carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef sides in the cooler for 24 to
36 hours before boning. Chilling in the traditional fashion is also associated with a loss of
(10) carcass weight ranging from 2 percent to 4 percent due to evaporation of moisture from the
meat tissue
Early excision, or hot boning, of muscle prerigor followed by vacuum packaging has
several potential advantages. By removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor, refrigeration
space and costs are minimized, boning labor is decreased, and storage yields increased, because
(15) hot boning often results in the toughening of meat, a more recent approach, hot boning
following electrical stimulation, has been used to reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis.
Some researcher have found this method beneficial in maintaining tender meat, while
others have found that the meat also becomes tough aster electrical simulation.
11. The word “accentuated” in the line 3 is closest in meaning to

A. De-emphasized
B. Speeded up
C. Caused
D. Highlighted
12. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the conventional method of boning
EXCEPT
A. Storage space requirements
B. Energy waste
C. Loss of carcass weight
D. Toughness of meat
13 In the line 3, the word “pressure” is nearest meaning to
A. Urgency
B. Weight
C. Flavor
D. Cooking texture
14. Hot boning is becoming very popular because
A. It causes meat to be very tender
B. It helps conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional methods
C. Meat taste better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat
D. It reduce the weight of the carcass
15. In the line 7 “carcass chiller” is nearest in meaning to
A. A refrigerator for the animal body
B. A method of boning meat
C. Electrical stimulation of beef
D. Early excision
16. In the line 12 “early excision” is closest in meaning to
A. Vacuum packaging
B. Hot boning
C. Carcass chilling
D. Electrical stimulation
17. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been combated by
A. Following hot boning with electrical stimulation
B. Tenderizing the meat
C. Using electrical stimulation before hot boning
D. Removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor
18. The word “bovine” in line 3 is nearest in meaning to
A. Cold
B. Electrically stimulated
C. Beef
D. Pork
19. The word “this” in line 17 refers to
A. Hot boning
B. Hot boning following electrical stimulations
C. Prerigor mortis
D. Removing edible muscle and fat Prerigor
20 In the line 3, the word “carcass” is closest in meaning to
A. Deboned meat
B. Body
C. Refrigerator
D. Fat
21. The word “considerable” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
A. Frigid
B. Kind
C. Lesser
D. Substantial
22. One reasons it is recommended to remove bones before refrigerating is that
A it makes the meat more tender
B the bones are able to be used for other purposes
C it increase chilling time
D it saves cooling space by nit refrigerating parts that will be discarded
23. The word “trimmable” in line 5 is nearest in meaning to

A. Unsaturated
B. Removable
C. Unhealthy
D. Chillable
In 1920, after some thirty-nine years of problems with disease, high costs and politics
the Panama Canal was officially opened, finally linking the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans by
allowing ships to pass through the fifty-nine Canal Zone instead of traveling some seven
thousand miles around Cape Horn. It takes a ship approximately eight hours to complete the
(5) trip through the canal and costs an average of fifteen thousand dollars, one tenth of what it
would costs an average ship to round the horn. More than fifteen thousand ships pass through
its locks each year.
The French initiated the project but sold their rights to the United States, which actually
began construction of the project. The letter will control it until the end of the twentieth century
(10) when Panama takes over its duties.
24. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

A. French
B. United States
C. Panama
D. Canal Zone
25. The word “Locks” in the line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. Securities
B. Latches
C. Lakes
D. Canal gates
26. On the average, how much it cost a ship to travel around Cape Horn?
A. $1,500
B. $ 15.000
C. $150,000
D. $ 1,500,000
27. In what year was construction begun on the canal?
A. 1881
B. 1920
C. 1939
D. 1999
28. It can be inferred from the passage that
A. The canal is a costly project which should be reevaluated
B. Despite all the problems involved, the project is beneficial
C. Many captains prefer to sail around Cape Horn because is less expensive
D. Problems have made it necessary for three government control the canal over
the years
29. In the line 3, the word “linking” is closest in meaning to
A. Controlling
B. Dispersing
C. Detaching
D. Joining
30. In line 8, “initiated” is nearest in meaning
A. Purchased
B. Launched
C. Detaching
D. Joining
31. All of the following are true EXCEPT

A. It cost so much to pass through the locks because very few ships use them
B. The united states received the rights to the canal from the French
C. A ship can pass through the canal in only eight hours
D. Passing through the canal saves thousands of miles of travel time around Cape Horn
In 776 B,C, the first Olympic games were held at the foot of mount Olympus to honor
the Greeks Chief God, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness
in war. And their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and
military could participate at first, but later the games were open to all free Greek males who
(5) had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education
of youth. Therefore, contest in running, jumping, discus, and javelin throwing, boxing and
horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed every four
years at mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on
their heads and having poems sung about their deeds.
(10) Originally these contest were held as games of friendship and any wars in progress were
halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among
competitors and the different cities represented.
The Greeks attached to much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-
year cycles called “Olympiads” dating from 776 BC. The contest coincided with religious
(15) festivities and constituted and all of effort on the part of the participants to please the gods.
Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought
shame nit only to themselves, but also to cities they represented.
32. Which of the following is not true?

A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads
B. The games were held in Greece every four years
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games
D. Poems glorified the winners in song
33. The word “elite” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. Aristocracy
B. Brave
C. Intellectuals
D. Muscular
34. Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. To stop wars
B. To honors Zeus
C. To crown the best athletes
D. To sings songs about the athletes
35. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
A. 800 years
B. 1,200 years
C. 2,300 years
D. 2,800 years
36. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks?
A. They were pacifists
B. They believed athletic events were important
C. They were very simple
D. They couldn’t count, so they used “Olympiads” for dates
37. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks
B. The Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical fitness
programs
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go
back to was when the games we over.
38. In line 9, the word “deeds” is closest in meaning to
A. Accomplishments
B. Ancestors
C. Documents
D. Property
39. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athlete competing in the Olympics?
A. They must have completed military service
B. They had to attend special training sessions
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminals record
D. They had to be very religious
40. The word “halted” in line 11 means most nearly the same
A. Encouraged
B. Started
C. Curtailed
D. Fixed
41. What is an “Olympiad”?
A. The time it took to finish the games
B. The time between games
C. The time it took finish a war
D. The time it took the athletes to train

Tampa, Florida owes a great deal of its growth and prosperity ti a Cuban cigar
manufacturer named Vicente Martinez Ybor. When civil war broke out in 1869, He was forced
to flee his country, and he moved his business to south Florida. Sixteen years later, labor union
problems in Key West caused him to seek a better location along the west coast of the state, he
(5) bought a forty acre tract of land and made plans to set up his cigar factory on the site. This
original sixteen block stretch of land later expanded to one hundred acres near Tampa. This
newly developed area was called Ybor city in his honor. Spanish, Italian, and Cuban
immigrants flocked to the area as the demand for workers in the cigar factory increased. One
fifth of the city twenty thousand resident enjoyed the high paying jobs there, at the end of
(10) 1800s, Jose Marti, a Cuban poet and freedom fighter organized a revolution from Ybor City
and managed to get considerable support for his movement. Teddy Roosevelt’s “Rough
Riders” were stationed there during the Spanish-American war in 1898. Much of the prosperity
of this region is due to Ybor cigar factory established more than one hundred years ago.
42. Where is Ybor city located?

A. South Florida
B. Cuban
C. West Florida
D. Marti
43. The word “flee” in line 3 means most nearly the same as
A. Escape
B. Return to
C. Fight
D. Disembody
44. The word “seek” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
A. Purchase
B. Pursue
C. Elude
D. Develop
45. Why will people probably continue to remember Ybor?
A. He suffered a great deal
B. An area was named in his honor
C. He was a Cuban revolutionary
D . He was forced to flee his homeland
46. In line 8, the word “flocked” is closest in meaning to
A. Came in large numbers
B. Escaped hurriedly
C. Increased rapidly
D. Prospered greatly
47. In the early years, how many residents of Ybor City worked the cigar factory?
A. 4,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
48. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Spanish-American War
B. Cuban contributions in the developments of Ybor city
C. Ybor’s contribution to developing part of the Tampa area
D. The process of cigar manufacturing
49. In line 5 “site” is closest in meaning to

A. Location
B. View
C. Vision
D. Indebtedness
50. Who was Jose Marti?
A. A good friend of Ybor
B. One of teddy Roosevelt’s “Rough Riders”
C. A Cuban writer who sought to free his country
D. A worker in the cigar factory
==THIS IS THE END OF TOEFL TEST 1==

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LEMBAGA KAJIAN DAN PENGAJARAN BAHASA (LKPB)

NIB: 1254000101301 | Akta Notaris No: 08 Tgl 21 April 2021

1. A. She’s tired of teaching C. Directions to interstate 4

C. A soccer game 12 A. She went to wring class

C. He has never sold as many B. On a boat

31 A. In clothing store B. Mission to mars

39. A. Spain 43 A. Multiple telegraph

1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building____

5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class——

11. The professor said that

Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage

1. In to how periods was the Stone Age divided?

A. The Neolithic Ages

Questions 11 through 23 are based on the following passage

11. The word “accentuated” in the line 3 is closest in meaning to

23. The word “trimmable” in line 5 is nearest in meaning to

Questions 24 through 31 are based on the following passage

24. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

31. All of the following are true EXCEPT

Questions 32 through 41 are based on the following passage

32. Which of the following is not true?

Questions 42 through 50 are based on the following passage

42. Where is Ybor city located?

49. In line 5 “site” is closest in meaning to

==THIS IS THE END OF TOEFL TEST 1==

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