Virtual University of Pakistan

Bt301
Introduction to biotechnology
Full book MCQs
Email address
bt301@vu.edu.pk

Course Instructor
Kamran Abbas

Created By Zareen Fatima

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BT301 MCQ full book
1. Making of yogurt from milk is the example of biotechnology
a. Traditional
b. Modern
2. Enzyme Celluloses use for the cleaning of
a. Protein particle
b. Grass marks
c. Lipids
3. HUMIRA is an antibody
a. Diclonal
b. Monoclonal
c. Triclonal
4. Craig venter present which cells by beating govt concision on HGP
a. Stem cells
b. Ultimate reboot cells
c. Adult stem cells
5. Risen bread by using yeast is a process
a. Aerobic respiration
b. Anaerobic respiration
6. 4000 BC what is use for cheese flavor
a. Yeast
b. Mold
7. Risen of bread by yeast this process is called
a. Extraction
b. Fermentation
c. Cleavage
8. 400 BC food is stored by using
a. Acids
b. Bases
c. Salt
9. Leeuwenhoek make how many lenses and microscopes respectively
a. 100,330
b. 200,500
c. 200,400
d. 500,200
10. Enzyme role in the reaction
a. Higher the activation energy
b. Lower the activation energy
c. No effect on activation energy
11. DNA present in cell which cell organelle

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 a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Chloroplast
d. All
12. MC1R gene controls
a. U shaped tongue
b. Curly hairs
c. Freckles on face
d. Eye color
13. IPO is abbreviation of ?
a. INITIAL PUBLIC OFFERING
b. INTERNAL PUBLIC OFFERING
c. INITIAL PUBLIC ORGANIZATION
14. Arthropoitem first drug for?
a. CANCER
b. Anemia
c. Arthritics
15. Nerves are covered by sheath called?
a. Lipids
b. Myelin
c. protein
16. Restriction enzymes are brought by
a. Cohen
b. Boyer
17. In which disease which enzyme glucocerebrocidase is deficient?
a. Gaucher
b. Diabetes
c. Anemia
18. How many Deoxy-ribonucleotides make the structural units of DNA.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
19. nucleotides of DNA are joined together through
a. Peptide linkage
b. Ester linkage
c. Phosphor-diester linkage
20. DNA base composition change with
a. Change in environment
b. Change in food
c. Have no effect
d. The growing age
21. In DNA, the number of adenosine residues is equal to the number of
a. Cytosine
b. Thymine

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 c. Guanine
22. The DNA helix have primary periodicities
a. 2.4 angstrom
b. 3.4 angstrom
c. 4.4 angstrom
23. Within two strands of DNA phosphodiester bond run in
a. Opposite direction
b. Same direction
24. Each ribonucleotide is composed of three components:
a. A ribose sugar
b. A Nitrogenous Base
c. A Phosphoric acid
d. All of above
25. The process of forming mRNA on a DNA template is known as
a. Translation
b. Replication
c. Transcription
26. The length of mRNA molecules is variable and it depends on
a. Length of DNA
b. Length of gene
c. Length of chromosome
27. tRNA linked with amino acid by
a. Ionic bond
b. Covalent bond
28. in ribosomes rRNA contain weight about
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
29. result of breaks in helix are
a. Budges
b. Internal loops
c. Both
30. Number of stranded amino acids
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
31. Smallest amino acids is
a. Alanine
b. Serine
c. Glycine
32. Amino acids are attach with each other by a covalent bond called
a. Ester bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Peptide bond

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33. With the formation of peptide bond between 2 amino acids release a molecule of
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Hydrogen
34. In primary structure of amino acids all elements are in co-planer but in
a. Cis configuration
b. Trans configuration
35. The helical twist of the α-helix found in all proteins is
a. Left handed
b. Right handed
c. Both
36. The range of ∅, 𝜑 values have a wide range But some values are prohibited because of
a. Hydrogen bonding
b. Helical structure
c. Steric hindrance
37. How many amino acid residues in a single turn of helix
a. 3.4
b. 2.6
c. 3.6
d. 3.7
38. adjacent polypeptide chains in a sheet can be
a. Parallel
b. Anti-parallel
c. Both
39. A multimer with just a few subunits is called as
a. Oligomer
b. Protomer
40. An icosahedron is a regular----cornered polyhedron having ----- triangular faces.
a. 8, 12
b. 12, 20
c. 20, 12
d. 12, 8
41. Genetic material in viruses can be in form of
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. DNA, RNA both
42. E. coli’s chromosome consists of approx. nucleotide pairs.
a. 5 million
b. 8 million
c. 6 million
d. 4 million
43. In E-coli each super coiled loop have average length of
a. 10-20 kbp
b. 1-2 kbp

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 c. 7-9 kbp
44. The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are -----than those of prokaryotes
a. Larger and less complex
b. Larger and more complex
c. Small and less complex
d. Small and more complex
45. DNA with bound histones in the eukaryotes is called as
a. DNA strand
b. Chromosome
c. Chromatin
46. Each nucleosome contain -----bp of DNA and --- histones
a. 100, 8
b. 200, 9
c. 200, 8
d. 100, 9
47. Highly condensed chromatin is known as
a. Heterochromatin
b. Euchromatin
c. Both
d. None
48. the study of the entirety of an organism’s genes
a. Genetics
b. Genomics
c. None
49. Study of proteome is called
a. Metabolomics
b. Proteomics
c. Genomics
d. None
50. By gene sequencing we can understand mechanism of which disease
a. Infectious diseases
b. Pathogenic bacteria
c. Viruses
d. All of above
51. Restriction enzymes are used for
a. Insertion of vector
b. Breakdown of proteins
c. Digestion of DNA
d. None
52. Which one is example of genomic library
a. AACs
b. TACs
c. BACs
d. None

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53. YACs is abbreviation of
a. Yeast artificial colonies
b. Yeast artificial chromosomes
c. Yeast acidified colonies
d. None
54. Genomic researches use for
a. Criminal justices
b. Civil justices
c. Establish paternity
d. All
55. Humans have genome size of ------Mb
a. 2,500
b. 2,700
c. 3,000
d. 3,500
56. Viral genome is
a. Circular
b. Linear
c. Both
d. None
57. Lambda contain how many bp in its genome
a. 47,502 bp
b. 48,502 bp
c. 48,500 bp
d. 47,500 bp
58. Influenza virus have which type of nucleic acid and number of genes
a. ssDNA ,8
b. dsDNA ,12
c. ssRNA ,12
d. dsRNA ,8
59. Small organisms carry -----coding density.
a. Low
b. High
c. None
60. Over 95% of mitochondrial proteins are encoded in the
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Nuclear genome
61. How many rRNAs present in case of Human Mitochondrial Genome
a. 12
b. 37
c. 2
d. 15

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62. Chloroplast genome contain which type of inheritance pattern
a. Mendelian
b. Non- Mendelian
c. Both
d. None
63. Length of Minisatellites
a. 1-3
b. 1-5
c. 1-7
d. 1-13

64. multicellular eukaryotes have up to genes

a. 30,000
b. 40,000
c. 50,000
d. 60,000
65. Number of genes is correlated to genome size
a. True
b. False
66. Vertebrate genomes can produce more than one polypeptide per gene because of
a. Alternative splicing of RNA
b. mRNA
c. Cellular metabolites
d. Alternative splicing of DNA
67. Introns are
a. Coding part of DNA
b. Non-coding part of DNA
c. Both
d. None
68. Percentage of exons in the human genome
a. 1.3%
b. 1.4%
c. 1.5%
d. 1.7%
69. Similarity of man- yeast genome is
a. 21%
b. 23%
c. 25%
d. 27%
70. Distantly related species help us understand events
a. Ancient evolutionary
b. Recent
c. Both
71. Bacteria, Archaea, diverged from each other almost
a. 1 billion years ago
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 b. 2 billion years ago
c. 4 billion years ago
d. 6 billion years ago
72. the FOXP2 gene product turns on genes involved in
a. Baldness
b. Vocalization
c. Tumors
d. All of above
73. prokaryotes genome highly consist of
a. Gene
b. Transportable elements
c. Repeats
d. None
74. which of the following is start codon
a. GTA
b. ATG
c. AAG
d. TTG
75. Upstream region with binding site contain TATA box
a. True
b. False
76. Polycistronic mRNA encodes for proteins
a. Few
b. Several
c. One
d. Tow
77. Splicing is Removal of introns from the---- molecule
a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. mRNA
d. All of above
78. Most of prokaryotic genes are without introns and in the are
a. Monocistronic
b. Dicistronic
c. Tricistronic
d. Polycistronic
79. Following are not Nonfunctional copies of genes except
a. Pseudo gene
b. Duplicated gene
c. Tandemly repeated gene
d. Sequencing gene
80. Ethidium bromide is a
a. DNA precipitator
b. Loading dye

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 c. Digester of DNA
d. None of them
81. Following are example of Non LTR retrotranposons except
a. LINE
b. SINE
c. ORF
d. None
82. Transposon is cut off by
a. Transposase
b. Proteases
c. Lipases
83. Retrotransposons, which move by means of an
a. DNA intermediate
b. RNA intermediate
c. Both
84. Transposons content in the iris genome is
a. ~75%
b. ~85%
c. ~89%
d. ~98%
85. How many types of transposons in prokaryotes
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
86. IS10 is found in R plasmids
a. True
b. False
87. LTRs stand for
a. Leading direct Terminal Repeats
b. Long dominant Terminal Repeats
c. Long direct Terminal Repeats
d. Long direct Timid Repeats
88. ORF2 encodes an RNA binding protein
a. True
b. False
89. Which of the following is suitable replicon vehicle
a. Plasmids
b. Bacteriophage
c. Both
90. During DNA extraction -----is use for precipitation
a. Phenol
b. Isopropanol
c. Isopropyl
d. EDTA
91. --------is a fragment of DNA or RNA which is used to detect the sequences of target DNA

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 a. Probe
b. Primer
c. None
1. A technique using X-ray film to visualize fragments of molecules that have been radioactively
labeled
a. Blotting
b. Autoradiography
c. Gel electrophorese
d. Chromatography
2. Autoradiography is use to analyze the
a. Length of DNA
b. Number of DNA
c. Both
d. None of them
3. A Southern blot is a ----method
a. Kitchen
b. Laboratory
c. Both
d. None
4. After hybridization reaction, membrane is washed and hybridization are detected by
a. Blotting
b. Autoradiography
c. Gel electrophorese
d. Chromatography
5. A northern blot is a method used to detect -----molecules among its mixture
a. Specific DNA
b. Specific RNA
c. Specific amino acids
d. Both
6. In western blotting antibodies are used to detect
a. DNA fragment
b. RNA fragment
c. Specific antigens
d. None
7. To enable the cells to take up circular vector DNA they have to be made
a. Polar
b. Linear
c. Competent
d. Both a and c
8. In electroporation is applied to cells in order to increase permeability of the cell membrane to
take DNA
a. Magnetic field
b. Electric field
c. Both

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9. E. coli is electroporation technique use for introducing
a. Whole DNA
b. Fragment of RNA
c. Cloned genes
d. None of above
10. Animal cells, protoplasts of yeast and plant are susceptible to transformation by
a. E.coli
b. Liposomes
c. Bacillus subtilis
11. Amplification of genes done by
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. PCR
c. Blotting
12. the phenomenon of restriction and modification elucidated in
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
13. Restriction system allow bacteria to monitor the ---- of incoming DNA
a. Binding
b. Origin
c. Recombining site
d. None
14. For phage ʎ restriction/ modification is studded on which of the following strain
a. E. coli C
b. E. coli K
c. E. coli D
d. E. coli C and E. coli K
15. Methylation of certain bases is the process happened in
a. Restriction
b. Modification
c. Recombination
d. All
16. How many type of R-M system are known
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. In type 1 The active enzyme consists of --restriction subunit,-- modification subunit and --
recognition subunit
a. 2, 3, 2
b. 1, 2, 3,
c. 2, 2, 1
d. 3, 2, 1

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18. Most of the useful R-M system is
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
19. Type ---enzymes recognize a defined sequence and cut within it
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
20. Restriction occur distant from the recognition site this statement is true for
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IIs
21. R. HindIII in this name R indicates
a. Modification-methylase
b. Specie name
c. Endonuclease
d. None
22. AAGCTT is recognition site for
a. HaeIII
b. HindIII
c. HindII
d. HamHI
23. The number and size of fragments done by restriction enzyme depend on
a. Origin site of DNA
b. Recognition site of DNA
c. Target site of DNA
d. Binding site of DNA
24. Six base recognition site occurs every
a. 44 bp
b. 46 bp
c. 48 bp
25. ------ the enzyme that degrade DNA
a. Nucleases
b. DNA polymerase
c. Reverse transcriptases
d. DNA ligases
26. An enzyme that creates a phosphodiester bond
a. Nucleases
b. DNA polymerase
c. Reverse transcriptases
d. DNA ligases
27. Mainly----- methods are used for joining DNA in vitro
a. 1

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 b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
28. ------can repair the nicks produced after the association of cohesive ends of DNA strands
a. Nucleases
b. DNA polymerase
c. Reverse transcriptases
d. DNA ligases
29. T4 DNA ligase has been used to joint ----DNA molecules
a. Cohesive ends
b. Blunt-ended
c. Single stranded nicks
30. The main difference between linker and adaptor is that former having
a. Cohesive ends
b. Blunt-ended
c. Single stranded nicks
31. Eukaryotic mRNA can be cloned in vector after converting it to
a. DNA
b. tRNA
c. cDNA
32. Naturally occurring bacterial plasmids range in size from
a. 500 to 40,000 bp
b. 5,000 to 400,000 bp
c. 4,000 to 500,000 bp
d. 3,000 to 400,000 bp
33. Open circle or OC DNA have
a. Both strand intact
b. One strand intact
c. Completely closed
34. -----may be a mutagen, a carcinogen, or a teratogen
a. Phenol
b. Isopropanol
c. Ethidium bromide
d. Oxygen
35. Which plasmid carry set of tra gene
a. Conjugated
b. Non- conjugated
c. Both
36. Host range of plasmid is determined by
a. Binding site
b. Ori region
c. Tra gene
d. None
37. Naturally occurring plasmids are stably maintained because they contain

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 a. Ori region
b. Tra gene
c. Par region
d. None
38. --------of plasmids may arise by deletions or rearrangements of DNA
a. Incompatibility
b. Structural instability
c. segregative stability
d. Partitioning
39. Single sites for number of restriction endonucleases is property of --- cloning vehicle
a. Naturally occurring
b. Ideal
c. Every
d. Synthetic
40. Plasmids which were not constructed in vitro for the sole purpose of cloning are called plasmid
a. Natural
b. Ideal
c. Every
d. Synthetic
41. pSC101 Contain
a. Immunity to colicin
b. Ampicillin resistance
c. Tetracycline resistance
d. Colicin E1 production

For final term

For final term

 pSC101 contain ------resistance

Ampicillin
Tetracycline
None
 pBR322 is an example of -----constructed cloning vehicle
In vivo
In vitro
Artificially
 pBR322 contains the resistance gene against
Ampicillin
Tetracycline
Both
None

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 in pBR322 replicon element is
pBR11
pMB1
RSf2124
PstI
 pBR322 have -----target sites for different restriction enzymes
30
20
40
50
 pBR322 have high copy number and -----weight
High
Low
 pBR325 encodes ----resistance in addition to those resistance have psc101 plasmid.
Ampicillin
Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
 pAT153 another derivative of
pBR325
pBR322
psc101
 plasmids which loss during cell division is called
High copy number plasmid
Low copy number plasmid
Runaway plasmid
Lambda phage vector
 Wild type is not suitable as a cloning vector because it has ----restriction enzymes sites
Very low number of
Too many
A few
 Charon4A is a replacement vector is this statement
True
False
 Charon 60 is a replacement vector is this statement
True
False
 Charon 60 has ----- restriction site
1
2
3
Many
 Charon 4A and 16 are both derivatives of ------
Bacteriophage
Lambda

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 Ecoli
 Charon 60 can be cloned
2 kbp
3kbp
4kbp
5kbp
 lacZ gene encode for enzyme
PAL
4CA
βGal
PPR
 first step in the cloning is
Cutting vector
Isolation of DNA
Insertion of vector
Infection
 in case phage-λ Packaging yields about ----- of vector DNA
104 plaques/ µg
105 plaques/ µg
106 plaques/ µg
 At each cos site nicks are introduce ----- far apart on opposite strand of DNA
10bp
13bp
12bp
16bp
 Cos sits are
Cloning site
Cooperative site
Cohesive site
Capsulation site
 Gene D is include in the --- process
Capsulation
Ligation
Termination
Packaging
 M13 is a filamentous bacteriophage with-----
dsDNA
ssDNA
dsRNA
ssRNA
 Which of the following vector replicate without killing its host
Phage-λ
M13
Mp18

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 Cosmid
 M13 can clone DNA of variable length about
3kpb
4kbp
5kbp
6kbp
 In x gal containing medium blue colonies represent the cloned DNA colonies, statement is
True
False
 Cosmid can clone around ------length of DNA
45kbp
37kbp
53kbp
200kbp
 Modified cosmid vector produced by ----- in 1981
Watson and crick
Ish-Horowicz and Burke
Edward Southern
Bates and Swift
 A modified procedure for cosmid is derived by
Watson and crick
Ish-Horowicz and Burke
Edward Southern
Bates and Swift
 Cosmid c2XB is derived by
Watson and crick
Ish-Horowicz and Burke
Edward Southern
Bates and Swift
 -----vectors are combination of plasmid and ʎ phage sequences
Lambda
Phasmid
Cosmid
 BACs can clone ----------length of DNA fragment
5kbp
150-200kbp
100-300 kbp
60kbp
 YACs vectors replicate in ------like normal chromosome
Bacteria
Yeast
Fungi
Mammalian cell
 YACs can clone ----------length of DNA fragment

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 5kbp
150-200kbp
100-300 kbp
60kbp
 Vectors that can replicate and are stably maintained in two or more unrelated host organisms
are called
YACs
Shuttle vectors
BACs
Cosmid vector
 Expression vector are used to control
Infection
Expression
Translation
Insertion
 In Ecoli p1 phage can clone -----length of DNA
10-15 kb
2-25 kb
35-45 kb
70-100 kb
 The second strategy is to selectively amplify the target sequence directly from the source DNA
by using
Different vectors
PCR
Gel electrophoresis
 ---- represent the genomic makeup of an organism
cDNA library
RNA sequence
Genomic library
 Genome size of human is
2.8x106
3x106
1.25x105
 Drosophila melanogaster have size of DNA 1.8x105 this statement is
True
False
 Average fragment size can be controlled by-----------
Restriction endonucleases
Mechanical shearing
Random cutting
 High molecular weight genomic DNA is digested with-------
BamH1
Sau3AI
Sal1

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 PmB1
 For construction of genomic libraries ----vectors are required
High capacity cloning
Low capacity cloning
Moderate capacity cloning
 ------is prepared by reverse-transcribing cellular RNA
DNA
cDNA
Proteins
Amino acids
 Which lack the non-coding sequence
DNA
rRNA
cDNA
 Introns are rare in bacteria but occur in genes of higher
Eukaryotes
Prokaryotes
 cDNA library is representative of the ---population from which it was derived
DNA
RNA
Proteins
 A serious disadvantage of the hairpin method is that cleavage with S1 nuclease results in the
loss of sequences at the
3’ end of the clone
5’ end of the clone
 correct orientation of inserted cDNA can be achieved by------
Hairpin method
Self-priming method
Sequencing
Reverse transcriptase method
 -----followed by the PCR (RTPCR) leads to the amplification of RNA sequences in cDNA form
Genomic library
Reverse transcription
Splicing
Digestion of DNA
 Major screening strategies involve Genetic methods
Sequence-dependent screening
Screening expression libraries
All of above
 All useful vector molecules carry a selectable ---------or property
Nutritional marker
Genetic marker
Drug resistance
 In phage vectors, ------is itself the selected property

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 APR
TCR
Plaque formation
CHR
 Nucleic acid -----------is the most commonly used method of library screening
Amplification
Sequencing
Hybridization
Screening
 --------- (1975) developed a screening procedure to detect DNA sequences in transformed
colonies
Ish-Horowicz and Burke
Edward Southern
Bates and Swift
Grunstein and Hogness
 The results of the hybridization can be monitored by
PCR
Autoradiography
Gel documentation
Centrifuge
 Benton and Davis (1977) devised a method called
Hybridization
Plaque lift
Sequencing
Screening
 In plaque lift techniques there is direct contact between plaque and filter this statement is
False
True
 A great advantage of hybridization for library screening is that it is extremely
Important
Versatile
Difficult
Unique
 A cloned genomic fragment must be found as a ------point for the walk
Mid
End
Starting
Selectable
 In chromosome walking, human genome starting point may be a ----
CAPs
SNPs
RFLP
AFLP

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 One----- of chromosome walking is the requirement that each DNA segment used is not
repeated elsewhere in the genome
Benefit
Drawback
Characteristics
 In chromosome jumping, the DNA of interest is identified, cut into fragments with restriction
enzymes and
Elongate
Circularized
Break down
Straighten
 Cloned DNAs from the closure sites make up a jumping library is this statement
False
True
 The PCR is widely used to isolate specific DNA sequences from-----genomic DNA or cDNA
Cloned
Uncloned
Gel treated
 To isolate specific clone, PCR is carried out with
Simple primers
Unusual primers
Special primers
Gene-specific primers
 A degenerate primer is a mixture of primers, all of similar sequences but with variations at ---
positions
One
Two
One or more
Several
 If DNA library is established using expression vectors, each individual clone can be expressed to
yield a
Monopeptide
Polypeptide
Dipeptide
 Immunochemical screening involves the use of
Antibodies
Antigen
Nucleic acid
RNA
 The molecular target for recognition is generally an
Antibody
Epitope
Probe
Primer

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 polyvinyl and that IgG antibodies can be readily labelled with
I125
I108
I127
I129
 it is much more convenient to use--- because they have high capacity and efficiency to in vitro
packaging
Bacteriophage simple insertion vector
Bacteriophage Ecoli 1 insertion vector
Bacteriophage-ʎ insertion vector
Bacteriophage-ʎ deletion vectors
 Screening is carried out without using an antibody, by incubating the membranes with
radiolabelled -----------
Ss DNA probe
ds DNA probe
Ss RNA probe
 -----is the process by which a particular DNA sequence compensates for a missing function in a
mutant cell and thus restores the wild type phenotype
Functional complementation
Functional analysis
Functional genomics
Non Functional complementation
 Functional complementation is also possible in
Transgenic animals and plants
Transgenic animals
Transgenic plants
Transgenic bacteria
 Functional complementation used for complementation in -----to isolate the Shaker - 2 gene
Transgenic cat
Transgenic mice
Transgenic bacteria
 -----depends upon transcription of appropriate gene, efficient translation of mRNA and in many
cases, posttranslational processing and compartmentalization of nascent polypeptide
Synthesis of functional DNA
Synthesis of functional RNA
Synthesis of functional protein
 Gram-negative bacteria such as E. coli have a
Complex wall-membrane mitochondria
Simple wall-membrane
Complex wall-membrane
Difficult wall-membrane
 The bacterial inner membrane, periplasmic space and outer membrane all contain proteins
found in the cytoplasm
True

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 False
 ABC pathway of protein export and type II secretion pathway are use for
Chromosome trafficking
DNA trafficking
RNA trafficking
Protein trafficking
 In E.coli foreign protein are
Stable
Instable
Dissolved
Submerged
 In the case of somatostatin, degradation was prevented by producing a ------consisting of
somatostatin and β-galactosidase
Simple protein
Fused protein
Complex protein
Hybrid DNA
 Expression from a strong promoter can represent ----of cloned gene product of toral cell protein
30-40%
10-40%
20-40%
20-30%
 Complementarity of Shine-Dalgarno (S-D) sequence with 16s rRNA can affect the
Rate of transcription
Rate of translation
Rate of enzyme
Rate of cell cycle
 Composition of triplet immediately preceding the AUG ----also affects the efficiency of
translation
Start codon
Stop codon
Termination site
 The rate of synthesis of a particular protein will depend on the ---------in the cell
Steady-state of RNA
Steady-state of DNA
Steady-state of mRNA
Mobile-state of mRNA
 ---------usually proceeds by a combination of endonuclease and 3’exonuclease attack
Synthesis of mRNA
Degradation of mRNA
Degradation of DNA
Degradation of protein
 One way of increasing the expression of a cloned gene is to increase the
Temperature

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 Plasmid copy number
Enzyme
pH
 The loss of plasmids due to defective partitioning is called
Segregative stability
Segregative instability
Non-Segregative stability
Non-Segregative instability
 Structural instability of plasmids may arise by deletions or rearrangements of
RNA
mRNA
DNA
rRNA
 Techniques for DNA sequencing became available in the
Early 1970s
Late 1970s
Early 198s
Late 1980s
 Maxam-Gilbert method for DNA sequencing makes use of chemical reagents to bring about ------
of the DNA
Base-specific addition
Base-specific cleavage
Digestion
Rearrangement
 DNA synthesis is carried out in the presence of the four deoxynucleoside triphospahtes, one or
more of which is labelled with ----- and in four separate incubation mixes
N15
P32
N14
P35
 The combination of chain terminator and M13 vectors to produce -----is very powerful
dsDNA
ssDNA
dsRNA
ssRNA
 Sequences that were read beyond 4oo bp contained an average of ---error
2.3%
3.2%
3.4%
4.4%
 Sequences that were read less than 4oo bp contained an average of ---error
2.3%
2.8%
3.2%

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 4.4%
 --------is a process to change the genetic information of an organism
Hybridization
Autoradiography
Mutagenesis
Genetic library
 Mutagenesis sources
Occur naturally
Exposure to mutagens
Induced in laboratory
All of above
 ----different methods of site-directed mutagenesis
2
3
4
5
 A synthetic DNA fragment containing the desired mutant sequence is used to replace the
corresponding sequence in the wild-type gene
Cassette mutagenesis
Primer extension
Procedures based on PCR
 In -----method, the product of the first PCR is used for the second PCR
Site directed PCR
Megaprimer
Basic PCR
 The ----of a PCR based mutagenic protocol is that the desired mutation is obtained with 100%
efficiency
Advantage
Disadvantage

None
 PCR can also be used to generate DNA fragments for gene cloning by using ---with specific
restriction sites
Probes
Primers
Both
None
 Nucleotides are building block of
Proteins
Lipids
DNA
All of above
 Taq polymerase is a ----DNA
Thermostable

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 Thermoinstable
Binding resistant
 ----------is a short strand of oligonucleotide that serves as a starting point for DNA synthesis
Probes
Primers
Both
 --------was designed to amplify RNA sequences (mainly mRNA) through synthesis of cDNA by
reverse transcriptase
RT-PCR
q PCR
Nested PCR
Inverse PCR
 It is used to measure starting amounts of DNA, cDNA, or RNA
RT-PCR
q PCR
Nested PCR
Inverse PCR
 In --------two sets of primers are used in two successive PCRs
RT-PCR
q PCR
Nested PCR
Inverse PCR
 -----------is used to identify the flanking sequences around genomic inserts
RT-PCR
q PCR
Nested PCR
Inverse PCR
 Multiplex PCR is used to amplify several different DNA sequences simultaneously
True
False
 ---------is a type of PCR reaction but the segments of DNA that are amplified are random
AFLP
RAPD
SNPs
RFLP
 AFLPs-Amplified fragment length polymorphisms are differences in restriction fragments length
caused by
AFLP
RAPD
SNPs
RFLP
 PCR has applications in the fields of life sciences
Genetic engineering
Medical

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 Forensic
All of above
Both a b
 PCR has been used in gene cloning and ------of genomic libraries
Sequencing
Screening
Construction
Degradation
 DNA profiling or DNA fingerprinting have --------meaning
Different
Same
 DNA profiling or DNA fingerprinting is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by
characteristics of their..
Protein
RNA
DNA
cDNA Genomic library
 Assigning of a specific gene to particular region of a chromosome and determining the location
of and relative distances between genes on the chromosome is called
Chromosome jumping
Chromosome walking
Chromosome mapping
 Any identifiable feature of the genome cannot serve as a marker in mapping, but specific
True
False
 The landmarks on genome map might include
Short DNA sequences
Regulatory sites
Genes themselves
All of above
 Genetic linkage maps illustrate the order of genes or genetic markers on a chromosome and the
relative distances between those genes
DNA finger printing
Physical mapping
Genetic linkage mapping
 ----------give the DNA base pair distances from one landmark to another
DNA finger printing
Physical mapping
Genetic linkage mapping
 -------------exploits variations in homologous DNA sequences
AFLP
RAPD
SNPs
RFLP

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 Botstein et al. (1980) were the first to recognize that ----that target RFLPs can be used for
mapping
DNA probes
DNA primers
RNA primers
 Sequence-tagged sites (STS) are more convenient markers than RFLPs because they do not use
RT-PCR
Southern blotting
Restriction enzyme
DNA polymerase
 SNPs are -----base-pair positions in genomic DNA at which different sequence alternatives
(alleles) exist in a population
Single
Double
Triple
Complementry
 Amplified fragment length polymorphisms (AFLP) is a diagnostic fingerprinting technique that
detects genomic
Amplified fragment
Restriction fragments
Complemenrtry fragment
 FISH is a cytogenetic method that used ----probes
Scanning
Fluorescent
Radio active
 RH mapping used X-ray breakage of chromosomes to determine the distances between ---as
well as their order on the chromosome
DNA probes
DNA primers
DNA markers
 Happy mapping is an ------technique
In vivo
In vitro
None
 The process of determining the exact order of nucleotides within a DNA or RNA molecule is
called
Screening
Sequencing
Mapping
 Shotgun sequencing is used for sequencing -------DNA strands
Short
Long
Fragmented
Digested

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 --------- a map of each chromosome of the genome is made before the DNA is split up into
fragments for sequencing
Chromosome sequencing
In clone-by-clone sequencing
Physical mapping
Genetic linkage mapping
 Orthologs are homologous genes in different organisms that encode proteins with the
Different functions
Same function
Non functional
 Genome of bacteria may be of variable in size. For example, it may vary from
0.39Mb to 8.1 Mb
0.49 Mb to 9.1 Mb
0.49Mb to 1.9Mb
 Mitochondrial genomes exhibit an amazing
Genomic diversity
Structural diversity
Functional diversity
Phenotypic diversity
 ----are used to study the expression of many genes at once
Comparative genomics
Microarrays
Filamentous bodies
 Which is the DNA array used in expression analysis
Spotted DNA arrays
Printed oligonucleotide chips
Both
None
 The predominate application of DNA microarray has been to measure
Gene expression levels
Gene synthesis level
Genetic difference
 Microarrays have been widely used as ------------genotyping platforms
AFLP
RAPD
SNP
RFLP
 Phage display is the technology that allows expression of exogenous -----on the surface of phage
particles
Monopeptide
Dipeptide
Polypeptides
Nucleotide

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 The most common screening method is based on enriching the phage clones with binding
affinity for the target by a process called
Epitope
Biopanning
Microarrays
 Applications of phage display includes
Determination of protein to protein interactions,
To determine enzyme specificity
To generate target specific antibodies
Both a b
All of above
 A genetic technique in which one of an organism’s gene is made inoperative that is simply called
Knocked in
Knocked out
Knocked down
 ---- refers to a gene manipulation method that involves the insertion of a protein coding cDNA
sequence at a particular locus in an organism’s chromosome
Knocked in
Knocked out
Knocked down
 Small interfering RNA (siRNA) is the most commonly used (RNAi) tool for inducing ----------coding
genes
Long-term silencing of protein
Short-term silencing of protein
Permanent silencing of protein

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