Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2020

(Held On Tuesday 07th JANUARY, 2020) TIME : 9 : 30 AM to 12 : 30 PM
PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION
1. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 2
1 d d d
A separated by distance 'd' between them. It is 1 ....
C AK 0 2 3
filled with a dielectric which has a dielectric
1 d d
constant that varies as k(x) = K(1 + x) where 1
C AK 0 2
'x' is the distance measured from one of the
plates. If ( d) <<1, the total capacitance of the AK 0 d
C 1
system is best given by the expression : d 2
2. The time period of revolution of electron in its
ground state orbit in a hydrogen atom is
1.6 × 10–16 s. The frequency of revolution of
the electron in its first excited state (in s–1) is:
(1) 6.2 × 1015 (2) 5.6 × 1012
2 (3) 7.8 × 10 14 (4) 1.6 × 1014
AK 0 d A 0K d
(1) 1 (2) d 1
d 2 2 NTA Ans. (3)

2 2 Sol. Time period of revolution of electron in nth orbit

A 0K d AK 0
(3) d 1 2 (4) 1 d n2
d 2 a0
2 r Z
NTA Ans. (1) T
V Z
V0
n
Sol. As K is variable we take a plate element of Area
n3
A and thickness dx at distance x T
Capacitance of element Z2
3
A K 1 x T2 2
dC 0 8 T2 = 8 × 1.6 × 10–16
T1 3
dx 1
1 1016
Now frequency f2= 7.8 × 1014 Hz.
T2 8 1.6
3. A long solenoid of radius R carries a
x dx time (t)-dependent current I(t) = I0t(1 – t). A ring
of radius 2R is placed coaxially near its middle.
Now all such elements are is series so
During the time interval 0 t 1, the induced
equivalent capacitance
current (IR) and the induced EMF(VR) in the
d ring change as :
1 1 dx
C dC AK 0 1 x (1) At t = 0.5 direction of IR reverses and VR
0
is zero
1 1 1 d (2) Direction of IR remains unchanged and VR
ln is zero at t = 0.25
C AK 0 1
(3) Direction of IR remains unchanged and VR
2 3 is maximum at t = 0.5
1 1 d d
d .... (4) At t = 0.25 direction of IR reverses and VR
C AK 0 2 3
is maximum

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
NTA Ans. (1) T = 24000 N
Power P = TV
Sol. 60 × 746 = (24000) V

60 746 1.9 m/s.

V 1.865
24000
I 5. The current I 1 (in A) flowing through 1
resistor in the following circuit is :
Magnetic flux ( ) through ring is = (R)2.B
= ( R2)( 0nI) = ( R2 0nI0)(t – t2) I1 1
2
d 1
Induced e.m.f. of VR
dt
2
R2 0 nI0 2t 1 1V

R2 0 nI0 2t 1 (1) 0.5 (2) 0.2

and induced current IR (3) 0.25 (4) 0.4
RR
NTA Ans. (2)
(RR Resistance of Ring)

1 Sol. Equivalent resistance of upper branch of circuit

Clearly VR and IR are zero at t = 0.5 sec. R = 2.5
2
and their sign also changes at t = 0.5 sec. i .5 2
4. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having
a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If 2
the frictional force on the elevator is 4000 N,
the speed of the elevator at full load is close to: 1V
(1 HP = 746 W, g = 10 ms–2) Voltage across upper branch = 1 V
(1) 1.7 ms–1 (2) 2.0 ms–1
(3) 1.9 ms –1 (4) 1.5 ms–1 1
i .4 A
NTA Ans. (3) 2.5
I1 = 0.2 A
Sol. T 6. A litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically
to a volume of 3 litres. If = 1.40, the work
done by air is : (31.4 = 4.6555) [Take air to be
an ideal gas]
lift
(1) 90.5 J (2) 48 J
(3) 60.7 J (4) 100.8 J
NTA Ans. (1)
fr
2000 g
nR T1 T2 P1V1 P2 V2
Let elevator is moving upward with constant Sol. w
1 0.4
speed V.
Tension in cable 100
100 3
T = 2000 g + fr = 2000 + 4000 4.6555 88.90 .
0.4
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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
7. As shown in the figure, a bob of mass m is tied 10. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of
by a massless string whose other end portion is length l, about an axis passing through a point
wound on a fly wheel (disc) of radius r and mass l
m. When released from rest the bob starts falling away from the centre of the rod, and
4
vertically. When it has covered a distance of h,
perpendicular to it, is :
the angular speed of the wheel will be :
1 7 3 1
m (1) l (2) l (3) l (4) l
8 48 8 4
r
NTA Ans. (2)

m l2 l2
Sol. m m mk 2
12 16
1 2gh 3 1 4gh 3
(1) (2) r 4gh (3) (4) r 2gh 7l 2
r 3 r 3 k2
NTA Ans. (3) 48
11. If the magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave

1 1 1 2 v2 3 2 is given by B 3 10 8 sin 1.6 103 x 48 1010 t ˆj T,

Sol. mgh mv 2 mr mv
2 2 2 r2 4 then what will be expression for electric field?

4 (1) E 9sin 1.6 103 x 48 1010 t kˆ V / m

u gh
3
(2) E 3 10 8 sin 1.6 103 x 48 1010 t ˆi V / m
v
r 60sin 1.6 103 x 48 1010 t kˆ V / m
(3) E
8. Which of the following gives a reversible
operation? (4) E 3 10 8 sin 1.6 103 x 48 1010 t ˆj V / m

NTA Ans. (1)

(1) (2)

Sol. E B C ˆi

(3) (4) where B is along ĵ

NTA Ans. (2) C

B
9. If we need a magnification of 375 from a E = 3 × 10–8 × 3 × 108 = 9 V/m.
compound microscope of tube length 150 mm
12. Consider a circular coil of wire carrying
and an objective of focal length 5 mm, the focal
constant current I, forming a magnetic dipole.
length of the eye-piece, should be close to : The magnetic flux through an infinite plane that
(1) 22 mm (2) 12 mm contains the circular coil and excluding the
(3) 33 mm (4) 2 mm circular coil area is given by i. The magnetic
NTA Ans. (1) flux through the area of the circular coil area
is given by 0. Which of the following option
LD 150 250 is correct ?
Sol. m 375
fe f 0 f e 25 (1) i =– 0 (2) i = 0

fe = 20 mm. (3) i < 0 (4) i > 0

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
NTA Ans. (1) NTA Ans. (1)

13. Speed of a transverse wave on a straight wire

I0 I0
(mass 6.0 g, length 60 cm and area of cross-section Sol. I cos2
1.0 mm2) is 90 ms–1. If the Young's modulus 10 2
of wire is 16 × 1011 Nm–2, the extension of wire 1
over its natural length is : cos
5
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.04 mm
(3) 0.03 mm (4) 0.01 mm I0
NTA Ans. (3) I0 10
2
= 63.44°
T angle rotated = 90 – 63.44° = 26.56°
Sol. v
Closest is 1.
YA 16. A satellite of mass m is launched vertically
l upwards with an initial speed u from the surface
l 16 1011 10 6 l
90 of the earth. After it reaches height R (R = radius
m 6 10 3
l m
of the earth), it ejects a rocket of mass so
8100 3 10
10 8 l
8 that subsequently the satellite moves in a
14. Visible light of wavelength 6000 × 10–8 cm falls circular orbit. The kinetic energy of the rocket
normally on a single slit and produces a is (G is the gravitational constant; M is the mass
diffraction pattern. It is found that the second of the earth):
diffraction minimum is at 60° from the central
2
maximum. If the first minimum is produced m 2GM
at 1, then 1 is close to : (1) u
20 3R
(1) 20° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 25°
NTA Ans. (4) 2 119 GM
(2) 5m u
200 R

2
2 3m 5GM
Sol. sin (3) u
8 6R
2
sin 60 m 2 113 GM
(4) u
20 200 R
3
sin 1
4 NTA Ans. (2)
1 = 25°
15. A polarizer - analyser set is adjusted such that
the intensity of light coming out of the analyser Sol. Applying energy conservation
is just 10% of the original intensity. Assuming Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf
that the polarizer - analyser set does not absorb
any light, the angle by which the analyser need 1 GMm 1 2 GMm
mu 2 mv
to be rotated further to reduce the output 2 R 2 2R
intensity to be zero, is :
(1) 18.4° (2) 71.6° (3) 90° (4) 45°
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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

GM y
v u2 ....(i) Sol.
R
By momentum conservation, we have (0,4) 2.5 kg
vT
m 4 cm
10 vr
R Rocket
x
(0,0) 1.0 kg 3 cm 1.5 kg
(3,0)

m 9m GM Let 1 kg as origin and x-y axis as shown

vT ....(ii)
10 10 2R
m 10 1.5 3 2.5 0
v r mv x cm = 0.9 cm
& 5
10
m GM 10 1.5 0 2.5 4
vr m u 2 ....(iii) ycm = 2 cm
10 R 5
Kinetic energy of rocket
1 CP 5
m v 2T v 2r 18. Two moles of an ideal gas with C
2 V 3 are
m GM GM mixed with 3 moles of another ideal gas with
81 100u 2 100
20 2R R
CP 4 CP
m 119GM
100u 2 CV 3 . The value of CV for the mixture is:
20 2R
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.42
119GM
5m u 2 . (3) 1.45 (4) 1.47
200R
NTA Ans. (2)
17. Three point particles of masses 1.0 kg, 1.5 kg
and 2.5 kg are placed at three corners of a right
angle triangle of sides 4.0 cm, 3.0 cm and CP1 5
5.0 cm as shown in the figure. The center of Sol. For 1st gas C P1 = 5x and CV1 = 3x
CV1 3
mass of the system is at a point:

2.5 kg C P2 4
For 2nd gas CP2 = 4x and C V2 =3x
C V2 3
5 cm
4 cm
n1CP n 2CP 17R
1.0 kg 1.5 kg Now for mixture CP 1 2
=
3 cm n1 n 2 5
(1) 1.5 cm right and 1.2 cm above 1 kg mass
n1CV n 2C V 12R
(2) 0.9 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass CV 1 2
=
n1 n 2 5
(3) 0.6 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass
(4) 2.0 cm right and 0.9 cm above 1 kg mass CP 2 5x 3 4x 17
NTA Ans. (2) CV 2 3x 3 3x 12

CP
1.42 .
CV

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
19. A LCR circuit behaves like a damped harmonic
oscillator. Comparing it with a physical spring- 3 xˆ
mass damped oscillator having damping (1) 1 yˆ
0 2 2
constant 'b', the correct equivalence would be:
1
(1) L m,C ,R b
k 3 xˆ
(2) 2 1 yˆ
1 1 1 0 2 2
(2) L ,C ,R
b m k
(3) L m,C k, R b x̂
(3) 1 3 yˆ
(4) L k,C b,R m 2 0 2
NTA Ans. (1)
x̂
(4) 1 3 yˆ
Sol. L C R 2 0 2

NTA Ans. (2)

i

Sol. Electric field due to each sheet is uniform and

By kVL
equal to E
di q 2 0
L iR 0
dt C

d 2q 1 dq E
L q R 0
dt 2 C dt
60°
for damped oscillator E 30°

net force = –kx – bv = ma Now net electric field between plates

2
md x bdx
kx 0 E net E cos 60 xˆ E E sin 60 yˆ
dt 2 dt
by comparing ; Equivalence is
x̂ 3
1 yˆ .
1 2 0 2 2
L m; C ;R b.
K 21. A particle (m = l kg) slides down a frictionless
20. Two infinite planes each with uniform surface track (AOC) starting from rest at a point
charge density + are kept in such a way that A (height 2 m). After reaching C, the particle
the angle between them is 30°. The electric field
continues to move freely in air as a projectile.
in the region shown between them is given by:
+ When it reaching its highest point P (height
y 1 m), the kinetic energy of the particle (in J)
is : (Figure drawn is schematic and not to scale;
30°
+ x take g=10 ms–2)_____.

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

Height Q 1200 900

A
P Q 300
2m C Q + 1200 = 3Q
Q = 600 J.
O
23. A beam of electromagnetic radiation of
NTA Ans. (10) intensity 6.4 × 10 –5 W/cm 2 is comprised of
wavelength, = 310 nm. It falls normally on
a metal (work function = 2eV) of surface area
Sol. Mechanical energy conservation between of 1 cm 2 . If one in 10 3 photons ejects an
A&P electron, total number of electrons ejected in
1 s is 10x. (hc=1240 eVnm, 1eV=1.6×10–19 J),
then x is____.
U1 + K1 = K2 + U2
NTA Ans. (10)
mg × 2 = mg × 1 + K2
K2 = mg × 1 = 10 J. Sol. Power incident P = I × A
22. A Carnot engine operates between two n = no. of photons incident/second
reservoirs of temperatures 900 K and 300 K. nEph = IA
The engine performs 1200 J of work per cycle. IA
n
The heat energy (in J) delivered by the engine E ph
to the low temperature reservoir, in a cycle, IA 6.4 10 5 1
n
is____. hc 1240
1.6 10 19
310
NTA Ans. (600)
n = 10+14 per second
Since efficiency = 10–3
Sol. 900 no. of electrons emitted = 10+11 per second.
x = 11.
Q1 = Q + W
24. A non-isotropic solid metal cube has
W = 1200 J coefficients of linear expansion as :
Q2 = Q 5 × 10–5/°C along the x-axis and 5 × 10–6/°C
300 along the y and the z-axis. If the coefficient of
volume expansion of the solid is C × 10–16/°C
for carnot engine
then the value of C is ______.
Q1 T1 NTA Ans. (60)
Q2 T2

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

Sol. y
x y z
D C(5,5,0)
= 5 × 10–5 + 5 × 10–6 + 5 × 10–6
E
= (50 + 5 + 5) × 10–6 C(0,5,5)
= 60 × 10–6 x
A B
Sol.
C = 60.
F
25. A loop ABCDEFA of straight edges has six
Z
corner points A(0,0,0), B(5,0,0), C(5,5,0),
D(0, 5, 0), E(0, 5, 5) and F(0, 0, 5). The
A ABCD 25kˆ
magnetic field in this region is B 3iˆ 4kˆ T .
A ADEF 25iˆ

The quantity of flux through the loop A net 25iˆ 25kˆ

ABCDEFA (in Wb) is ______ .
B 3iˆ 4kˆ
NTA Ans. (175)
B.A
= 25 × 3 + 25 × 4
= 175 Wb.

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2020

(Held On Tuesday 07th JANUARY, 2020) TIME : 9 : 30 AM to 12 : 30 PM
CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION
1. A solution of m-chloroaniline, m-chlorophenol 2. 1-methyl ethylene oxide when treated with an
and m-chlorobenzoic acid in ethyl acetate was excess of HBr produces :
Br Br
extracted initially with a saturated solution of (1) (2)
CH3 Br
NaHCO 3 to give fraction A. The left over
Br
organic phase was extracted with dilute NaOH CH3
Br
(3) Br (4)
solution to give fraction B. The final organic CH3
layer was labelled as fraction C. Fractions A, NTA Ans. (4)
B and C, contain respectively :
(1) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chloroaniline and Sol. CH3 – CH – CH 2 ¾¾ ¾
HBr
® CH3 – CH – CH2
m-chlorophenol O O +
(2) m-chloroaniline, m-chlorobenzoic acid and H
m-chlorophenol Br
–
(3) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chlorophenol and ¾¾¾
(1) Br
® CH3 – CH – CH2
(2) HBr
m-chloroaniline
Br
(4) m-chlorophenol, m-chlorobenzoic acid and 3. Amongst the following statements, that which
m-chloroaniline was not proposed by Dalton was :
NTA Ans. (3) (1) all the atoms of a given element have
identical properties including identical mass.
Sol. Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
NH2 OH COOH (2) chemical reactions involve reorganisation
of atoms. These are neither created nor
destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Cl Cl Cl (3) when gases combine or reproduced in a
chemical reaction they do so in a simple
O = C – OH O = C – O – Na+ ratio by volume provided all gases are at the
NaHCO3
+ H2CO3 ® H2O + CO2 same T & P.
(4) matter consists of indivisible atoms.
Cl Cl
NTA Ans. (3)
Fraction-A
Sol. Option(3) is according to Gaylussac's law of
OH O –Na+
volume combination.
NaOH 4. What is the product of following reaction ?
Cl Cl (i) NaBH4
Hex-3-ynal (ii) PBr ?
3
(iii) Mg/ether
Fraction-B +
(iv) CO2/H3O
NH2 (1) COOH

(2) COOH
Cl (3) COOH
Fraction-C
(4) COOH
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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

NTA Ans. (3) NTA Ans. (3)

Sol. Sol. Atomic radius of Ag and Au is nearly same due

to lanthanide contraction.
O
NaBH4 7. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4
CH3 – CH2 – C º C – CH2 – C are in the order :
H
(1) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3
CH3 – CH2 – C º C – CH 2 – CH2 – OH (2) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3
PBr3 (3) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3
(4) CHCl3 < CH4 = CCl4
Mg/ether NTA Ans. (1)
CH3 – CH 2 – C º C – CH 2 – CH 2 – Br

(1) CO2 H Cl
CH3 – CH2 – C º C – CH2 – CH2 – MgBr
(2) H 3O +
C C
O Sol. H µnet = 0 Cl µnet = 0
H Cl
CH3 – CH2 – C º C – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH H Cl

5. The increasing order of pKb for the following

compounds will be : H
NH2 – CH = NH, C
Cl µnet ¹ 0
(A) Cl
Cl
N 8. Given that the standard potentials (E°) of
Cu2+/Cu and Cu+/Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V
N NH,
respectively, the E° of Cu2+/Cu+ is :
(1) +0.158 V (2) 0.182 V
(B) (3) –0.182 V (4) –0.158 V
CH3NHCH3 NTA Ans. (1)
(C)
(1) (A) < (B) < (C) (2) (C) < (A) < (B) Sol. E0 DG0
(3) (B) < (A) < (C) (4) (B) < (C) < (A)
Cu 2 Å + 2e Å ¾¾
® Cu 0.34 = – 2F (0.34)
NTA Ans. (3)
Cu Å + e Å ¾¾
® Cu 0.522 = –F (0.522)
Sol. Base strength order
Cu 2Å + eÅ ¾¾
® Cu +
N
DG0 = –2F (0.34) – (– F(0.522) = –F (0.68 –
> NH 2 – CH = NH > CH 3 – NH – CH 3
N NH (+R) 0.522) = – F (0.158)
(+R) (+R)

(B) (A) (C) - F ( 0.158 )

E0 = = 0.158V
–F
increasing order of pkb order (B < A < C)
6. The atomic radius of Ag is closest to :
(1) Cu (2) Hg (3) Au (4) Ni

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
9. In comparison to the zeolite process for the Which of these reaction(s) will not produce
removal of permanent hardness, the synthetic Saytzeff product ?
resins method is : (1) (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) less efficient as it exchanges only anions (3) (d) only (4) (b) and (d)
(2) more efficient as it can exchange only NTA Ans. (1)
cations
(3) less efficient as the resins cannot be Sol.
regenerated
(4) more efficient as it can exchange both
cations as well as anions CH3 CH3
H+
NTA Ans. (4) (a) CH 3 – C – CH – CH3 CH3 – C – CH – CH3
–H2O +
CH3 OH CH3
2+
Sol. (a) Zeolite method removes only cations (Ca
2+
and Mg ion) present in hard water
2+ +
CH3
2NaZ + M (aq) ® MZ2(s) + 2Na (aq) CH 3 – C – CH – CH3
–H+ +
(M®Mg, Ca) CH3
(b) Synthetic resin method removes cations (Saytzeff
2+ 2+ – major)
(Ca and Mg ion) and anions (like Cl ,
– 2–
HCO3 , SO4 etc.)
2+ +
(i) 2RNa(s) + M (aq) ® R2M(s) + 2Na (aq) (b) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 ¾¾¾ ® CH3 – C = CH – CH 3
alc.KOH
D
(Cation exchange (M®Mg, Ca) CH3 Br CH3
resin) (Saytzeff
+ – – + – major)
(ii) RNH 3 OH (s) + X (aq) ® RNH3 X (s) +
–
OH (aq) O– K + / D
a b
– – – 2–
(Anion exchange (X =Cl ,HCO3 ,SO4 (c) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
resin) etc) CH3 Br (Hoffmann
10. The relative strength of interionic/ major)
intermolecular forces in decreasing order is :
(1) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole OH O CH3 O
(2) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion (d) CH3 – C – CH2 – C – H ¾D
® CH – C – H
(3) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion CH3 CH3 (Saytzeff
(4) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole major)
NTA Ans. (4)
(CH 3 ) 3 O – K + is incorrect representation of
potassium tert-butoxide [(CH3)3CO–K+].
Sol. Order is
So it is possible that it can be given as Bonus
ion – ion > ion – dipole > dipole – dipole
12. The purest form of commercial iron is
11. Consider the following reactions :
conc.H 2SO 4
(1) scrap iron and pig iron
(a) (CH3 )3 CCH(OH)CH 3 ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
(2) wrought iron
alc.KOH
(b) (CH3 ) 2 CHCH(Br)CH 3 ¾¾¾¾
® (3) cast iron
given by NTA (CH3 )3 OQKÅ
(c) (CH3 )2 CHCH(Br)CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
It should be (CH ) CO K
®
3 3
Q Å (4) pig iron
D NTA Ans. (2)
(d) (CH 3)2C–CH 2–CHO
OH

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

Sol. Wrought iron is purest from of commercial 15. The number of orbitals associated with quantum
iron. 1
13. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm numbers n = 5, ms = + is :
2
Hg and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A
(1) 11 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 50
solution of CS 2 in acetone has a total vapour
pressure of 600 mm Hg. The false statement NTA Ans. (2)
amongst the following is :
2 2
(1) heat must be absorbed in order to produce Sol. No. of orbitals = n = 5 = 25
the solution at 35°C For n = 5, no. of orbi tal s = n2 = 25
(2) Raoult's law is not obeyed by this system Total number of orbitals is equal to no. of
(3) a mixture of 100 mL CS 2 and 100 mL 1
acetone has a volume < 200 mL electrons having ms =
2
(4) CS 2 and acetone are less attracted to each
16. Match the following :
other than to themselves
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi
NTA Ans. (3)
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(iii)Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
Sol. The vapour pressure of mixture ( = 600 mm Hg)
(iv)Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
is greater than the individual vapour pressure
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
of its constituents (Vapour pressure of CS 2 =
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
512 mm Hg, acetone = 344 mm Hg). Hence,
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
the solution formed shows positive deviation
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
from Raoult's law.
NTA Ans. (1)
Þ (1) DSol H > 0 , (2) Raoult's law is not
obeyed Sol. (i) Riboflavin ¾¾
® (c) Cheilosis
(3) Dsol. Volume > 0 (ii) Thiamine ¾¾
® (a) Beriberi
(4) CS2 and Acetone are less attracted to each
ether than to themselves. (iii) Pyridoxine ¾¾
® (d) Convulsions
14. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of
(iv) Ascorbic acid ¾¾
® (b) Scurvy
fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine,
respectively are : 17. The theory that can completely/properly
(1) – 333, – 349, – 325 and – 296 explain the nature of bonding in [Ni(CO) 4 ]
(2) –296, – 325, – 333 and – 349 is :
(3) – 333, – 325, – 349 and – 296 (1) Werner's theory
(4) –349, – 333, – 325 and – 296 (2) Crystal field theory
NTA Ans. (1) (3) Valence bond theory
(4) Molecular orbital theory
Sol. Order of electron gain enthalpy (magnitude) is NTA Ans. (4)
Cl > F > Br > I

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

Sol. In complex [Ni(CO)4 ] decrease in Ni–C bond 20. Oxidation number of potassium in K2O, K2O2
length and increase in C–O bond length as well and KO2 , respectively, is :
as it's magnetic property is explained by MOT. (1) +1, +4 and +2
18. Consider the following reaction : (2) +1, +2 and +4
(3) +1, +1 and +1
CH3 Å ! Å ! OH–
N +Na SO3 N2Cl 'X'
CH3 1
(4) +2 , +1 and +
The product 'X' is used :
2
(1) in acid base titration as an indicator NTA Ans. (3)
(2) in protein estimation as an alternative to
ninhydrin
Sol. Potasisum has an oxidation of +1 (only) in
(3) in laboratory test for phenols
(4) as food grade colourant combined state.
NTA Ans. (1) 21. For the reaction ;
A(l) ® 2B(g)
Sol. DU = 2.1 kcal , DS = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K
Hence DG in kcal is_________ .
H3 C – –
N + Cl NºN SO3 Na+ NTA Ans. (–2.70)
H3C

Sol. A ( l ) ¾¾
® 2B ( g )
Me
–
N N=N SO3 Na+
DU = 2.1 Kcal , DS= 20 cal K–1 at 300 K
Me
(Methyl orange) DH = DU + DngRT

It is an acid base indicator DG = DH - TDS

19. The IUPAC name of the complex
[Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is : DG = DU + Dn g RT - TDS
(1) Diammine (methanamine) chlorido
platinum (II) chloride 2 ´ 2 ´ 300 300 ´ 20
= 2.1 + -
(2) Bisammine (methanamine) chlorido 1000 1000
platinum (II) chloride
(R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)
(3) Diamminechlorido (aminomethane)
= 2.1 + 1.2 – 6 = – 2.70 Kcal/mol
platinum(II) chloride
(4) Diamminechlorido (methanamine) platinum
(II) chloride
NTA Ans. (4)

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
22. During the nuclear explosion, one of the Sol. 4 gm of NaOH in 100 L sol. Þ 10–3 M sol.
products is 90Sr with half life of 6.93 years. if 9.8 gm of H2SO4 in 100 L sol. Þ 10–3 M sol.
1 mg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a Mixture : 40L of 10–3 M NaOH and 10 L of
newly born baby in place of Ca, how much
10–3 M H2SO4 sol.
time, in years , is required to reduce it by 90%
Final Conc. of OH–
if it is not lost metabolically______ .
NTA Ans. (23 to 23.03) 10 –3 ( 40 ´ 1 – 10 ´ 1 ´ 2 )
= = 6 ´ 10 -4 M
40 + 10
Sol. All nuclear decays follow first order kinetics pOH = – log (6 ×10–4)
= 4 – log 6 = 4 – 0.60 = 3.40
1 [A0 ]
t = ln pH = 14 – 3.40 = 10.60
k [A] 25. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated
NaOH and produces compounds (X) and (Y).
( t1/2 ) ´ 2.303 Compound (X) gives white precipitate with
= log10 10 = 10 × 2.303 × 1 silver nitrate solution. The average bond order
0.693
between Cl and O atoms in (Y) is ______.
= 23.03 years
23. The number of chiral carbons in NTA Ans. (1.66 to 1.67)
chloramphenicol is _______ .

NTA Ans. (2) Sol. 3Cl 2 + 6NaOH ® 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2 O

(X) (X)
NaCl + AgNO3 ® AgCl ¯ + NaNO3
OH OH (X)
*
* Cl
O ClO3– Cl
N NH CH
Sol. – O
O C Cl O O
O
2 5
Bond order of Cl–O Bond = 1 + =
Chloramphenicol 3 3
24. Two solutions A and B, each of 100 L was
= 1.66 or 1.67
made by dissolving 4g of NaOH and 9.8 g of
H2SO 4 in water, respectively. The pH of the
resultant solution obtained from mixing 40 L
of solution A and 10 L of solution B
is_______.
NTA Ans. (10.60 to 10.60)

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2020

(Held On Tuesday 07th JANUARY, 2020) TIME : 9 : 30 AM to 12 : 30 PM
MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION
1. If g(x) = x2 + x – 1 and Þ 2x2 + 2y2 + 2x + 3y + 1 = 0
æ5ö 3 1
(gof)(x) = 4x2 – 10x + 5, then f ç ÷ is equal to x2 + y2 + x + y+ = 0
è4ø 2 2
3 1 3 1 Þ locus is a circle whose
(1) (2) - (3) - (4)
2 2 2 2
æ 1 3ö 5
NTA Ans. (2) Centre is ç - , - ÷ and radius
è 2 4 ø 4
5
Sol. g(x) = x2 + x–1 Þ diameter =
2
g (f(x)) = 4 x2 – 10x + 5
3. Five numbers are in A.P., whose sum is 25 and
= (2x –2)2 + (2 – 2x) –1
product is 2520. If one of these five numbers is
= (2 – 2x)2 + (2 – 2x) –1
1
Þ f(x) = 2 – 2x - , then the greatest number amongst them is :
2
æ 5 ö -1
fç ÷ =
è4ø 2 21
(1) (2) 27 (3) 16 (4) 7
æ z -1 ö 2
2. If Re ç ÷ = 1, where z = x + iy, then the point
è 2z + i ø NTA Ans. (3)
(x,y) lies on a :
æ 1 3ö Sol. Let the A.P is
(1) circle whose centre is at ç - , - ÷
è 2 2ø a – 2d, a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d
5 Q sum = 25 Þ a = 5
(2) circle whose diameter is
2 Product = 2520
3 (25 – 4d2) (25 –d2) = 504
(3) straight line whose slope is
2 4d4 – 125d2 + 121 = 0
2 121
(4) straight line whose slope is - Þ d2 = 1,
3 4
NTA Ans. (2)
11
Þ d = ±1, ±
2
æ z -1 ö d = ± 1 is rejected because none of the term can
Sol. Re ç ÷=1
è 2z + i ø
-1
be .
Put z = x + iy 2

æ ( x + iy ) - 1 ö 11
Re ç ÷ =1 Þd= ±
è 2(x + iy) + i ø 2

1 21
æ æ (x - 1) + iy öæ 2x - i(2y + 1 ö ö Þ AP will be –6, - , 5, ,16
2 2
Re ç ç ÷ç ÷÷ = 1
è è 2x + i(2y + 1 øè 2x - i(2y + 1) ø ø
Largest term is 16.

1
Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
4. If 6. If y = mx + 4 is a tangent to both the parabolas,
y2 = 4x and x2 = 2by, then b is equal to :
æ tan a + cot a ö 1 æ 3p ö
y(a) = 2 ç ÷ + 2 ,a Î ç , p ÷ , (1) 128 (2) –64 (3) –128 (4) –32
è 1 + tan a ø sin a
2
è 4 ø
NTA Ans. (3)
dy 5p
then at a = is :
da 6 Sol. y = mx + 4 is tangent to y2 = 4x
1 4
(1) 4 (2) - (3) (4) –4 1
4 3 Þm=
4
NTA Ans. (1)
1
y = x + 4 is tangent to x2 = 2by
4
( tan a + cot a ) + 1 æ 3p ö
Sol. y( a) = 2 , aÎç ,p÷ b
1 + tan a2
sin a
2
è 4 ø
Þ x - x - 8b = 0
2

2
sin a + cos a - ( sin a + cos a ) ÞD=0
= =
| sin a | sin a b2 + 128b = 0
= – 1 – cota Þ b = – 128, 0
y' (a) = cosec2a b ¹ 0 Þ b = –128
7. If the distance between the foci of an ellipse is
æ 5p ö 6 and the distance between its directrices is 12,
y 'ç ÷ = 4
è 6 ø then the length of its latus rectum is :
5. Let a be a root of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0 3
(1) 3 (2) 2 3 (3) 3 2 (4)
é1 1 1 ù 2
1 ê
and the matrix A = 1 a a2 úú , then the
3ê NTA Ans. (3)
êë1 a2 a4 úû
matrix A31 is equal to:
(1) A3 (2) A (3) A2 (4) I3 Sol. Given 2ae = 6 Þ ae = 3 ......(1)
NTA Ans. (1)
2a
and = 12 Þ a = 6e ....(2)
e
Sol. x2 + x + 1 = 0
from (1) and (2)
a= w
a2 = w2 1
6e2 = 3 Þ e =
2
é1 1 1ù
1 ê
A= 1 w w2 ú Þ a =3 2
3ê ú
êë1 w2 w úû
Now, b2 = a2 (1 – e2)
é1 0 0ù
æ 1ö
A = ê0 0 1 ú
2
Þ b2 = 18 ç 1 - ÷ = 9
ê ú è 2ø
êë 0 1 0 úû
Þ A4 = A2 . A2 = I3 2 ( 9)
A31 = A28. A3 = A3. Length of L.R = =3 2
3 2

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
8. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Suppose that 1
a variable X is assigned the value k when k dy æ y ö 3
10. Let xk + yk = ak, (a, K > 0) and + ç ÷ = 0,
consecutive heads are obtained for k = 3, 4, 5 dx è x ø
otherwise X takes the value –1. Then the expected
then k is :
value of X, is :
3 3 1 1 3 1 2 4
(1) (2) - (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) (4)
16 16 8 8 2 3 3 3
NTA Ans. (3) NTA Ans. (3)

Sol. xk + yk = ak (a ,k > 0)
k0 1 2 3 4 5
Sol. 1 12 11 5 2 1 dy
P(k) kxk–1 + kyk–1 =0
32 32 32 32 32 32 dx
Expected value = å XP(k)
k -1
1 12 11 15 8 5 dy æ x ö 1
+ = 0 Þ k –1 = – Þ k = 2/3
- - - + + +
32 32 32 32 32 32 dx çè y ÷ø 3

28 - 24 4 1 11. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential

= = =
32 32 8
y æ dy ö
9. The area of the region, enclosed by the circle equation, e ç - 1 ÷ = ex such that y(0) = 0, then
è dx ø
x2 + y2 = 2 which is not common to the region
bounded by the parabola y2 = x and the straight y(1) is equal to :
line y = x, is : (1) 2 + loge 2 (2) 2e

1 1 (3) loge 2 (4) 1 + loge2

(1) (12p - 1) (2) (12p - 1)
3 6 NTA Ans. (4)

1 1
(3) (24 p - 1) (4) (6 p - 1) dy y
6 3 Sol. ey - e = e x , Let ey = t
dx
NTA Ans. (2)
dy dt
Þ ey =
dx dx
dt
- t = ex
2 dx
(1,1)
y =x
2 2
x +y =2 A I.F. = e ò - dx = e - x

t e–x = x + c Þ ey–x = x + c
Sol.
y(0) = 0 Þ c = 1
ey–x = x + 1 Þ y(1) = 1 + loge2
12. Total number of 6-digit numbers in which only

( ) and all the five digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 appear, is :

1
A= ò 0
x - x dx
1 5 1
é2 x2 ù 1 (1) (6!) (2) 56 (3) (6!) (4) 6!
= ê x3/2 - ú = 2 2
ë3 2 û0 6
NTA Ans. (1)
1 1
Required Area : pr - = (12p - 1)
2

6 6
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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
Sol. Total number of 6-digit numbers in which only
l l
and all the five digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 is Þ2+ + 1 + + 2l - 12 - 3 = 0
2 2
6!
5
C1 ´ Þl=4
2!
Þ I (6, 5, –2)
13. Let P be a plane passing through the points
r
(2, 1, 0), (4, 1, 1) and (5, 0, 1) and R be any point 14. A vector a = aˆi + 2 ˆj + bk(
ˆ a, b Î R) lies in the
(2, 1, 6). Then the image of R in the plane P is : r r
plane of the vectros b = ˆi + ˆj and c = ˆi - ˆj + 4kˆ .
(1) (6, 5, –2) (2) (4, 3, 2)
(3) (3, 4, –2) (4) (6, 5, 2) r r r
If a bisects the angle between b and c , then:
NTA Ans. (1)
r r
(1) a. ˆi + 1 = 0 (2) a. ˆi + 3 = 0
Sol. Plane passing through : (2, 1, 0), (4, 1, 1) and
r r
(5, 0, 1) (3) a.kˆ + 4 = 0 (4) a.kˆ + 2 = 0

NTA Ans. (4)

x - 2 y -1 z
2 0 1
=0
3 -1 1
r æ ˆi + ˆj ˆi - ˆj + 4kˆ ö
Sol. (
a = l bˆ + cˆ = l ç ) + ÷
Þ x + y – 2z = 3 è 2 3 2 ø

P(2,1,6) r l l
a=
3 2
(
4iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4kˆ Þ
3 2
)
(4iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4k)
ˆ

A(2,1,0)
C(5,0,1)
= aˆi + 2ˆj + bkˆ
F•
B(4,1,1) Þ a = 4 and b = 4
plane r
So, a = 4iˆ + 2ˆj + 4kˆ

None of the given options is correct

I 15. If f (a + b + 1 – x) = f(x), for all x, where a and

b are fixed positive real numbers, then

Let I and F are respectively image and foot of 1 b

a + b òa
x( f (x) + f (x + 1))dx is equal to :
perpendicular of point P in the plane.

x - 2 y -1 z - 6 b +1 b +1
= = = l(say)
eqn of line PI
1 1 -2
(1) ò
a +1
f (x)dx (2) ò
a +1
f (x +1)dx

Let I (l + 2 , l + 1, –2l + 6) b -1 b -1

l l
(3) ò
a -1
f (x +1)dx (4) ò
a -1
f (x)dx
æ ö
Þ F ç 2 + ,1 + , -l + 6 ÷
è 2 2 ø NTA Ans. (1)
F lies in the plane

4
 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session
Sol. f(x + 1) = f (a + b – x) 16. Let the function, f : [–7, 0] ® R be continuous
1 b on [–7, 0] and differentiable on (–7, 0).
I= ò x ( f(x) + f(x + 1) dx .....(1) If f(–7) = –3 and f' (x)£2, for all xÎ (–7, 0), then
(a + b ) a
for all such functions f, f(–1) + f (0) lies in the
1 b
I= ò (a + b - x) ( f(x + 1) + f (x) ) dx ...(2) interval :
(a + b ) a (1) [–6, 20] (2) ( –¥, 20]
from (1) and (2)
b
(3) ( – ¥, 11] (4) [ –3, 11]
2I = ò ( f(x) + f(x + 1) dx
a NTA Ans. (2)
b b
2I = ò f ( a + b - x ) dx + ò
a a
f(x + 1)dx
Sol. Using LMVT in [–7, –1]
b b
2I = 2 ò f(a + 1)dx Þ I = ò f(x + 1)dx
a a
f ( -1) - f ( -7)
b -1 £2
-1 - ( -7)
= òa -1
f(x)dx
OR f(–1) – f (–7) £ 12
1 b Þ f (–1) £ 9 ....(1)
x ( f(x) + f (x + 1) ) dx ...(1)
( a + b ) òa
I=
Using LMVT in [–7, 0]

1 f(0) - f( -7)
( a + b - x )( f(a + b - x) + f(a + b + 1 - x) ) dx
b
= ò £2
(a + b) a 0 - ( -7)

1 b f(0) – f (–7) £ 14
I= ò (a + b - x) ( f(x + 1) + f(x) ) dx ...(2)
(a + b) a f(0) £ 11 ....(2)
equation (1) + (2) from (1) and (2)
1 b f(0) + f (–1) £ 20
(a + b) ( f (x + 1) + f(x) ) dx
( a + b ) òa
2I =
17. If the system of linear equations
2x + 2ay + az = 0
1é b
f(x + 1)dx + ò f(x)dx ù
b
I= ò
2 ëê a a ûú 2x + 3by + bz = 0
2x + 4cy + cz = 0,
1é b
f(a + b + 1 - x)dx + ò f(x)dx ù
b
=
ê
2ë òa a úû where a, b, c Î R are non-zero and distinct; has
a non-zero solution, then :
1é b
f (x)dx + ò f(x)dx ù
b
=
ê
2ë òa a úû (1) a, b, c are in A.P.
b
(2) a + b + c = 0
I= ò a
f(x)dx (3) a, b, c are in G.P.
Let x = T + 1
1 1 1
b (4) , , are in A.P.
= ò f(T + 1)dT a b c
a -1

b -1 NTA Ans. (4)

I=ò f(x + 1)dx
a -1

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Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

Sol. For non-zero solution Sol. (p ® q) Ù (q ® ~p)

º (~p Ú q) Ù (~q Ú ~p)
2 2a a 1 2a a º ~pv(q Ù ~q)
2 3b b = 0, Þ 0 3b - 2a b - a = 0 º ~p Ú C º ~p
2 4c c 0 4c - 2a c - a
20. The greatest positive integer k, fr which 49k + 1
is a factor of the sum
Þ (3b – 2a) (c –a) – (b – a) (4c – 2a) = 0
Þ 2ac = bc + ab 49125 + 49124 + ... 492 + 49 + 1, is :
(1) 32 (2) 60 (3) 63 (4) 65
2 1 1
Þ = +
b a c NTA Ans. (3)

1 1 1
Hence , , are in A.P. Sol. 1 + 49 + 492 +…+ 4912
a b c
18. Let a and b be two real roots of the equation (4963 - 1)
= (49)126 –1= (4963 + 1)
(k + 1) tan 2 x – 2 . l tanx = (1 – k), (48)
where k(¹ –1) and l are real numbers.
So greatest value of k = 63
If tan2 (a + b) = 50, then a value of l is ;
3x + 33- x - 12
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 5 2 (4) 10 2 21. lim is equal to ____________.
x®2 3- x /2 - 31- x

NTA Ans. (2) NTA Ans. (36)

l 2
Sol. tana + tanb = 3x + 33- x - 12 32x - 12.3x + 27
k +1 Sol. lim Þ lim
x®2 3- x /2 - 31-x x ®2 3x/2 - 3
k -1
tana. tanb =
k +1 (3x - 9)(3x - 3)
= lim
x®2 (3x/2 - 3)
l 2
k +1 = l 2 = l
tan(a + b) = k -1 2 2 (3x/2 + 3)(3x/2 - 3)(3x - 3)
1- = lim
k +1 x®2 (3x/2 - 3)

l2 = 36
Þ = 50 Þ l = 10 & -10
2 22. If the variance of the first n natural numbers is
19. The logical statement (p Þ q) ^ (q Þ ~p) is 10 and the variance of the first m even natural
equivalent to : numbers is 16, then m + n is equal to ________.
(1) p (2) q (3) ~p (4) ~q NTA Ans. (18)
NTA Ans. (3)

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 Final JEE - Main Exam Januar y, 2020/07-01-2020/Morning Session

n2 -1 25. Let S be the set of points where the function,

Sol. Variance of first 'n' natural numbers = = 10
12 f(x) = 2 - | x - 3 | , xÎR, is not differentiable.
Þ n = 11
and variance of first 'm' even natural numbers Then å f ( f (x)) is equal to __________.
xÎS
æ m -1 ö m -1
2 2
NTA Ans. (3)
= 4ç ÷Þ = 16 Þ m = 7
è 12 ø 3
m + n = 18
Sol. f(x) = |2 – |x – 3||
23. If the sum of the coefficients of all even powers
f is not differentiable at
of x in the product
x = 1, 3, 5
(1 + x + x2 + ... + x2n) (1 – x + x2 – x3 + ... + x2n)
y (3, 2)
is 61, then n is equal to _________.
NTA Ans. (30)
(0, 1)
Sol. Let (1 + x + x2 +…+ x2n) (1 – x + x2 – x3 +…+x2n) x
x'
= a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + a4x4 +…+a4nx4n O (1, 0) (5, 0)
So,
y'
a0 + a1 + a2 +…+ a4n = 2n + 1 …(1)
a0 – a1 + a2 – a3…+a4n = 2n + 1 …(2) Þ S f(f(x)) = f(f(1)) + f(f(3)) + f(f(5))
xÎs
Þ a0 + a2 + a4 +…+a4n = 2n + 1
= f(0) + f(2) + f(0)
Þ 2n + 1 = 61 Þ n = 30
=1+1+ 1=3
æ3 ö
24. Let A(1, 0), B(6, 2) and C ç ,6 ÷ be the vertices
è2 ø
of a triangle ABC. If P is a point inside the
triangle ABC such that the triangles APC, APB
and BPC have equal areas, then the length of the
æ 7 1ö
line segment PQ, where Q is the point ç - , - ÷ ,
è 6 3ø
is __________.
NTA Ans. (5)

Sol. P is centroid of the triangle ABC

æ 17 8 ö
ÞPº ç , ÷
è 6 3ø

Þ PQ = 5