QP Xii Bio

कें द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन
(जम्मू संभाग )
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

(JAMMU REGION)
SAMPLE PAPER
FOR CLASS XII
BIOLOGY (044)
क्षेत्रीय कायाालय, जम्मू, नज़दीक राजकीय विककत्सालय, गााँधी नगर

जम्मू-180004
Regional Office, Jammu, Near Govt. Hospital,
Gandhi Nagar, Jammu-180004
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN (JAMMU REGION)
SAMPLE PAPER-1 (2022-23)
Class: 12 Subjects: Biology (044)
Time: 3 Hours M.M.:70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory
(ii) The question paper has four sections. There are 33 questions in the questions
paper.
(iii) Section-A has 16questions of 1 mark each Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks
each. Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case based
questions have 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section E has 3 questions of 5 marks
each.
(iv) There are no overall choices. However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and labeled diagrams should be drawn.
S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

SECTION A
1 The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by 1
reproductive technology called
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) ICSI (d) ET
2 Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will 1
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) Result in decline in growth rate
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) Result in an explosive population
3 A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the 1
(a) Base (b) Sugar
(c) Phosphate group t (d) Hydroxyl group
4 Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator? 1
(a) Lepidoptera (b) Lichens
(c) Lycopersicon (d) Lycopodium
5 Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose 1
the correct option.
i. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self-
cells increases
ii. Body attacks self-cells
iii. More antibodies are produced in the body
iv. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self-
cells is lost
(a) i and ii (b) ii and iv (c) iii and iv (d) i and iii
6 Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important 1
products.
Choose the correct match:

(a) i—B, ii—C, iii—D, iv—A (b) i—B, ii—D, iii—C, iv—A
(c) i—D, ii—C, iii—B, iv—A (d) i—D, ii—A, iii—C, iv—B
7 The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into 1
curd by lactic acid bacteria is
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin E
8 An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is 1
(a) Endonuclease (b) Exonuclease
(c) DNAligase (d) Hind-II
9 Female gametophyte is also known as 1
(a) Embryo sac (b) Ovary
(c) Nucellus (d) Megaspore
10 Begining of menstrual cycle is called as 1
(a) Menupause
(b) Ogenesis
(c) Menarch
(d) Ovulation
11 An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem? 1
(a) Forest (b) Marine (c) Grassland (d) Tundra
12 The nucleic acid synthesis take place in 1
(a) Any direction
(b) 3’-5’ direction
(c) 5’-3’ direction
(d) Both B and C
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion: Insects visit flower to gather honey. 1
Reason: Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging other
parts of the plant.
14 Assertion: Haemophilia is a genetic disorder generally found in males. 1

Reason: Haemophilia is a sex-linked trait and the gene for haemophilia is
located on the Y-chromosome.
15 Assertion: Cry gene expressing crop is resistant to a group of insects. 1

Reason: Cry proteins produced from Bacillus thuringiensis are toxic to
larvae of certaininsects.
16 Assertion: Community with more species tends to be more stable than 1
those with less species.
Reason: More will be the species, less will be year to year variation in total
biomass.
SECTION B
17 Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care programme of the 2
government to improve the reproductive health of the people.
18 Can a child have blood group O if his parents have blood group ‘A’ and ‘B’? 2
Explain with cross.
19 Where are B-cells and T-cells formed? How do they differ from each 2
other?
20 What does ‘H’ in ‘d’ and ‘III’ refer to in the enzyme Hind III? 2
21 2
a.Label the three tiers 1, 2, 3 given in the above age pyramid.

b. What type of population growth is represented by the above age
pyramid?
Or
Name A, B, C and D.
Species 1 Species 2 Type of example
interaction
+ - A C
+ + B D
SECTION C
22 Draw a diagram female reproductive tract and label and write the 3
functions of following: a) ovary , b) fallopian tube and c) uterine walls (all
three walls)
23 Write two adaptations for each: 3
a) Wind pollinated flowers
b) Water pollinated flowers
24 Define transformation in Griffith’s experiment. Discuss how it helps in the 3
identification of DNA as the genetic material.
25 State and explain any three factors affecting allele frequency in 3
populations.
Or
You have studied the story of Pepper moths in England. Had the industries
been removed, what impact could it have on the moth population?
Discuss.
26 (a) What would happen if a large volume of untreated sewage is 3
discharged into a river?
(b) In what way anaerobic sludge digestion is important in sewage
treatments?
27 A plasmid DNA and a linear DNA (both are of the same size) have one site 3
for a restriction endonuclease. When cut and separated on agarose gel
electrophoresis, plasmid shows one DNA band while linear DNA shows
two fragments. Explain with diagram.
Or
Expand PCR. Diagrammatically explain the steps involved in PCR.
28 There is greater biodiversity in tropical /subtropical regions than in 3
temperate region. Explain.
SECTION D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in
one subpart.
29 (4)
(i) Sickle cell anaemia is

a) Sex linked dominant b) Sex linked recessive
c) Autosomal dominant d) Autosomal recessive
(ii) For an offspring to have Sickle cell anaemia
a) Both the parents must be affected b) One parent is affected
c) Both the parents must be carriers for the gene d) None of the above
(iii) Affected beta globin chain contains which amino acid at 6th position
a) Glutamine b) Valine c) Glutamic acid d) Glycine
(iv) What is the shape of normal RBC?
a) Biconcave b) Elongate sickle c) Spindle d) Round
OR
Which organ is most affected in sickle cell anaemia?
30 A person ‘X’ was administered vaccine against COVID so that she could (1+1+2)
develop immunity against the virus. A vaccine is a preparation of antigenic
proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen introduced into
the body. An another person ‘Y’ encountered a snakebite and was given
preformed antibodies against the snake venom.
a) What is the principle of vaccination?
b) Which kind of immunisation was given to person ‘Y’?
c) Why was person ‘Y’ not given vaccine for snake venom?
Or
Differentiate between the two types of immunity given to person
‘X’ and person ‘Y’.
SECTION E
31 What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of 5
spermatogenesis.
Or
Answer the following:
a) What is the ploidy of microspore mother cell?
b) What is the function of filiform apparatus?
c) Reason, why are pollen grains found well preserved as fossils?
d) Differentiate between epicotyl and hypocotyl.
32 Give an account of post transcriptional modifications of a eukaryotic 5
mRNA.
Or
Explain the process of translation.
33 Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of 5

slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin from an animal source caused some
patients to develop allergy or other types of reactions to the foreign
protein. But now this problem has been overcome due to advent of
recombinant DNA technology.
a) What is the difference between pro-insulin and mature insulin?
Explain with diagram.
b) What was the main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA
technology?
c) Which company did overcome this problem and how?
Or
A patient is suffering from ADA deficiency. Can he be cured. How? Discuss
all possible ways.
paper.
each.
some questions.

SECTION A
1 Choose the right one among the statements given below: 1
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
2 Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct 1
options given below:
i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester.
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
iii. MTPs are always surgical.
iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel.
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iv (d) i and ii
3 Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because 1
(a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in
one direction (5′ —> 3′)
(c) It is a more efficient process
(d) DNA ligase has to have a role
4 Homologous organs arise due to 1
(a) Divergent evolution (b) Artificial selection
(c) Genetic drift (d) Convergent evolution
5 In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to 1
other parts of the body to form new tumours. This stage of disease is
called
(a) Metagenesis (b) Metastasis
(c) Teratogenesis (d) Mitosis
6 Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a 1
(a) machine
(b) bacterium that produces methane gas
(c) bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
(d) fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities.
7 What is meant by RCH care 1
(a) Reproductive and child health care
(b) Regenerative and child health protection
(c) Reproduction and choice of health
(d) Rare critical health
8 Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to 1
facilitate
(a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
(b) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
(d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
9 Ecological niche is 1
(a) The surface area of the ocean
(b) An ecologically adapted zone
(c) The physical position and functional role of a species within the
community
(d) Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake.
10 Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity? 1
(a) Destruction of habitat
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources
11 Pyramid of numbers is 1
(a) Always upright (b) Always inverted
(c) Either upright or inverted (d) Neither upright nor inverted
12 Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B. 1
13 Assertion: Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating agents. 1
Reason: Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex organs.
14 Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system. 1

Reason: When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO blood group
system, they both express their own types.
15 Assertion: Cellular defence mechanism in eukaryotes is RNAi. 1
Reason: RNAi is silencing of a specific tRNA.
16 Assertion: Plants need the help of insects and animals for pollinating their 1
flowers and dispersing their seeds.
Reason: Plants offer rewards in the form of pollen and nectar for
pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for seed dispersers.
SECTION B
17 Define: 2
a) Coitus interruptus.
b) Lactational amenorrhea.
18 What are possible genotypes of a person having blood group B? 2
19 Explain the four types of barriers of innate immunity. 2
20 Draw a well labelled diagram of vector pBR322. 2
21 Draw age pyramids for stable and declining population. 2
Or
Name A, B, C and D.
Species 1 Species 2 Type of example
interaction
- - A C
+ + B D
SECTION C
22 Draw a diagram of human sperm and label and write the functions of 3
following: a) Acrosome, b) middle piece and c) Tail
23 Draw the diagram of a mature embryo sac and show its 8-nucleate, 7- 3
celled nature.
What are the products of syngamy and triple fusion?
24 Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the followings: 3
(a) Promoter
(b) tRNA
(c) Exons
25 Give a brief account of Human evolution. 3
Or
Define the following terms:
a) Saltation
b) Founder’s effect
c) Adaptive radiation
26 a) Name the following bioactive agent, from where it is 3
extracted: Used as immunosuppressive agent and used as clot
buster.
b) Write the name of Baker’s Yeast.
27 Diagrammatically represent the experimental steps in cloning and 3
expressing a human gene (say the gene for growth hormone) into a
bacterium like E. coli?
Or
What is RNAi? How can it be used to make pest resistant plants?
28 Give three reason for explaining why tropics show greatest levels of 3
species richness.
SECTION D
one subpart.
29 Colour blindness is a recessive sex linked trait in which the eye fails to (4)
distinguish red and green colours. The gene for normal vision is dominant.
The normal gene and its recessive allele are carried by X chromosomes. In
females colour blindness appears only when both the sex chromosomes
carry the recessive gene. The females have normal vision but function as
carrier if a single recessive gene for colour blindness is present. However,
in human males the defect appears in the presence of a single recessive
gene because Y chromosome of male does not carry any gene for colour
vision. Colour blindness like any other sex linked trait shows criss-cross
inheritance. What is the genotype of affected and carrier colour blind
female?
i) The progeny of a colour blind woman and a normal man shall
consist of
a. 100% colour blind boys and 100% carrier girls
b. 100% normal boys and 100% colour blind girls
c. 100% colour blind boys and 100% colour blind girls
d. none of these
ii) Progeny of a normal woman and a colour blind man
a. 2 carrier girls: 2 normal boys
b. 2 carrier girls: 2 colour blind boys
c. 2 normal girls: 2 colour blind boys
d. 2 colour blind girls: 2 colour blind boys
iii) Progeny of colour blind woman and colour blind man
a. 2 carrier girls: 2 normal boys
b. 2 carrier girls: 2 colour blind boys
c. 2 normal girls: 2 colour blind boys
d. 2 colour blind girls: 2 colour blind boys
iv) Colour blindness is ______ trait
a. Autosomal trait b. Y linked
c. X linked d. none of these
OR
A colour blind man marries the daughter of a colour blind
person. Then in their progeny
a) None of their daughters are colour blind
b) All the sons are colour blind
c) All the daughters are colour blind
d) Half of their sons are colour blind
30 A person is suffering from a disease ‘X’ in which she is severely immune (4)
compromise. Doctors have told her that the virus is attaching her immune
cells. Doctors performed a diagnostic test to confirm the disease. She was
given antiviral drugs to cop up her situation.
a) Name the disease X and write its full form.
b) Which virus causes this disease?
c) Name the Diagnostic test for the disease.
OR
Name the body cells affected by this disease
d) Write the principle of this test.
SECTION E
31 Explain the phases of menstrual cycle in human females. And also 5
graphically represent the level of LH and FSH during menstrual cycle.
Or
Answer the following:
a) List three strategies that a bisexual chasmogamous flower can
evolve to prevent self-pollination (autogamy).
b) Are parthenocarpy and apomixis different phenomena? Discuss
their benefits.
32 Explain the process of DNA packaging in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. 5
Or
Explain the process of replication.
33 a) What is the difference between pro-insulin and mature insulin? 5

Explain with diagram.
b) What was the main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA
technology?
c) Which company did overcome this problem and how?
Or
a) What are Cry proteins?
b) Name an organism that produce it. How has man exploited this
protein to his benefit?
c) Why does this toxin not kill the bacteria that produces it?
paper.
each.
some questions.
SECTION - A
Q.N0 Question
1 Deviation from Mendelism occurs due to
(a) Monohybrid cross
(b)Mutation
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
2 The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
3 Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
(a) pleiotropy
(b) co-dominance
(c) segregation
(d) incomplete dominance
4 The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheeah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another
(b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function.
(d) the have biochemical similarities
5 Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis saliva
(c) flowers of Datura
(d) fruits of Erythroxylum coca
6 Antivenom against snake poison contains
(a) antigens
(b) antigen-antibody complexes
(c) enzymes
(d) antibodies
7 The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid
bacteria is
(a) vitamin C
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B12
(d) vitamin E
8 During gel electrophoresis DNA fragments move towards
(a) Anode
(b) cathode
(c) short fragments
(d) All of the above
9 Both the species benefit in

(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Competition
(d) Predation
10 Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called
(a) Ecto parasites
(b) Endo parasites
(c) Brood parasites
(d) symbiotic parasites
11 Which of the following is called as a detrivore?
(a) An animal feeding on decaying organic matter
(b) An animal feeding on a plant
(c) A plant feeding on an animal
(d) An animal feeding on another animal
12 Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our
country?
(a) Sundarbans and Rann of Kutch
(b) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(c) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
(d) Kerala and Punjab
Directions for question 13 to 16
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark
the correct choice as: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
13 Assertion: Autogamy is a transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the same
flower on the same plant.
Reason: Xenogamy is pollination between two flowers on same plants.
14 Assertion: Gametes receives both alleles of a gene.
Reason: During gamete formation, mitosis takes place leads to formation of haploid cells
15 Assertion: Cry gene expressing crop is resistant to a group of insects.
Reason: Cry proteins produced from Bacillus thuringiensis are toxic to larvae of certain insects
16 Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
SECTION-B
17 Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
18 What are multiple alleles? Give an example?
19 Draw a well – labelled diagram of antibody molecule.
20 What is “Insertional Inactivation”?
21 Differentiate between primary productivity & secondary productivity?
Or
Give any two hypothesis for explaining why tropics show greatest levels of species richness.
SECTION-C
22 Mention strategies involved to prevent self-pollination in flowers
23 Explain the process of oogenesis.
24 The base sequence on one strand of DNA is ATGTCTATA
a) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
b) If an RNA strand is transcribed from this strand what would be the base sequence of RNA?
c) What holds two nitrogen bases together?
25 By taking industrial melanism as on example, explain the concept of natural selection by
evolution?
26 What are carcinogens? What are the different types of carcinogens? Also mention the different
methods of treatment of cancer?
Or
ELISA technique is based on the principles of antigen-antibody interaction. Write full form of
ELISA.
Can this technique be used in the molecular diagnosis of a genetic disorder, such as
phenylketonuria?
27
What is the process taking place in this diagram? Why one newly synthesised is continuous and
other is discontinuous? How this stand is joined?
28 What is alien species invasion? Explain with the help of an example How it affects the species
diversity?
SECTION-D
29
Mr and Mrs Dorje were not having any genetic disease, but their two children and a grand child is
suffering from that disease.
a) What type of genetic disorder is this?
b) Name any one such genetic disorder
Or
What does double line connecting a male and female denote?
c) Write a note on symptoms and how it affects suffering human.
30 James was one of the good boys in the class. In spite of his efforts, he was not doing well in class
XI. His father wanted him to qualify for medical sciences. He got frustrated with his results and
resorted to drugs. He started misbehaving with parents and friends in school. His friends started
neglecting him. The school authorities counselled James but to no effect. His parents were upset
and took him to a rehabilitation centre. After a few months he came back recovered.
a) What is drug abuse?
b) What are withdrawal symptoms?
c) Name one commonly abused plant-based drug and its source plant.
d) Name a chemically synthesised drug.
Or
Name the active ingredient of tobacco.
SECTION-E
31 What develops into a microspore mother cell in a flower? Trace the development of this cell into
a pollen grain which is ready for germination. Draw a labelled figure of a mature pollen grain.
Or
What is menstruation? What are the specific actions of FSH, LH, estrogen &progesterone in
menstrual cycle?
32 What is an operon? Describe the structure and working Lac operon?
Or
What is meant by semi-conservative nature of DNA replication? Explain the experiment that
established that DNA replication is semi-conservative in nature.
33 Expand PCR? Describe the different Steps involved in this technique?
Or
What is a cloning vector? Explain any two characteristics of a good cloning vector. How bacterial
cells are made competent to take up DNA.
paper.
each.
some questions.
SECTION - A
Q.N0 Question
1 The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called: 1
a) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
b) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
c) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
d) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
2 Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named? 1
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms
3 An individual with into identical alleles is: 1
(a) Hybrid
(b) Dominant
(c) Homozygous
(d) Heterozygous
4 Human Appendix is an example of: 1
a) Analogous organ
b) homologous organ
c) Vestigal organ
d) none of the above
5 Which of the followings is processed form of Opium : 1
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin
6 HIV attacks which of the followings ? 1
(a) T-Helper cells
(b) f Killer T-cells
(c) B-lymphocyes
(d) phagocytes
7 Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism? 1

a) Azotobacter
b) Pseudomonas
c) Nostoc
d) Anabaena
8 4. Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products: Bacterium 1
Product
(i) Aspergillus niger (A) Lactic acid
(ii) Acetobacter aceti (B) Butyric acid
(iii) Clostridium butylicum (C) Acetic acid
(iv) Lactobacillus (D) Citric acid
a) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
b) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(A)
c) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
d) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
9 Both the species benefit in 1
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Competition
(d) Predation
10 Biosphere is: 1
a. a component in the ecosystem
b. composed of the plants present in the soil
c. life in the outer space
d. composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact
with the physical environment
11 Which of the following is not a producer? 1
a. Spirogyra
b. Agaricus
c. Volvox
d. Nostoc
12 Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian 1
context?
a. Lantana
b. Cynodon
c. Parthenium
d. Eichhornia
Directions for question 13 to 16
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark
the correct choice as: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
13 Assertion: Gynoecium consists of pistil. 1
Reason: It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.
14 Assertion: Behaviour of chromosome is parallelto gene. 1
Reason: Genes are located on the chromosome
15 Assertion: Cellular defence mechanism in eukaryotes is RNAi. 1
Reason: RNAi is silencing of a specific tRNA
16 Assertion: Tropical rain forests are rich in bio diversity 1
Reason: Temperature remains cool and pleasant due to frequent rains.
SECTION-B
17 What is colostrum? What is its significance to new born baby? 2
18 What is meant by aneuploidy? 2
19 i. Which organ of the human body is initially affected when bitten by an infected female 2
Anopheles? Name the stage ofthe parasite that infects this organ.
ii. Explain the events that are responsible for chill and high fever in the patient.
20 Many proteins are secreted in their inactive form. This is also true of many toxic proteins 2
produced by microorganisms. Explain how the mechanism is useful for the organism producing
the toxin?
21 Explain with an example, why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3- 2
4 tropic level?
Or
What is the difference between primary and secondary productivity?
SECTION-C
22 Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. 3
23 What are the difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis? Explain with diagram only. 3
24 Which one of the two strands of DNA has nucleotide sequence similar to the mRNA that will be 3
transcribed and why? Name the enzyme involved in the process.
25 i)Mention the specific geographical region, where marsupial animals are found. 3
ii)Name and explain the phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of such diverse
species in the region.
iii. Explain giving reasons the existence of placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf sharing the same
habitat.
26 3
i)Name the causative agent of typhoid in humans. ii. Name the test administered to
confirm the disease. iii. How does the pathogen gain entry into the human body? iv.
Write the diagnostic symptoms and mention the body organ that gets affected in
severe cases?
Or
What are vaccines and how they work? How working of snake venom is different?
27 Compare the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops. 3

28 A population of Paramoecium caudatum was grown in a culture medium. After 5 days the culture 3
medium became overcrowded with Paramoeium and had depleted nutrients. What will happen
to the population and what type of growth curve will the population attain? Draw the growth
curve.
SECTION-D
29 In a counselling session Doctor explained to a family that is who amongst the two parents is 4
responsible for determining .
a) In humans, males are heterogametic and females are homogametic. Explain. Are there any
examples where males are homogameticand females heterogametic?
b. Also describe as to, who determines the sex of an unborn child?
c)Mention whether temperature has a role in sex determination in humans.
or
What is chromosomal make of males in honey bees.
30 A healthy immune system defends the body against disease and infection. But if the immune 4
system malfunctions, it mistakenly attacks healthy cells, tissues, and organs. Called autoimmune
disease, these attacks can affect any part of the body, weakening bodily function and even
turning life-threatening.
i. Why are autoimmune diseases called degenerative diseases?
ii. Name an autoimmune disease of human body .
iii. Which types of immunity is provided by T-lymphocytes?
Or
Name the type of antibodies present in colostrum.
SECTION-E
31 a)Draw a well labelled diagram of angiosperm embryo sac. 5
b) Why is angiosperm embryo sac is called 7 celled and 8 nucleated .
c) What is double fertilisation?
Or
a) Draw a diagram of the adult human female reproductive system.
Label the different parts of human female reproductive system
(b) What are different layers of uterus? Write the function of middle layer of uterus wall
32 Read the text carefully and answer the questions: 5
Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and
answer the questions thatfollows:
i. Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in ‘switching off the
operon.
ii. Why is lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
iii. Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes z and y of the operon.
Or
i) Draw a schematic representation of the structure of a transcription unit and show the following
in it
a. The direction in which the transcription occurs
b. The polarity of the two strands involved
c. Template strand
d. Terminator gene
ii). Mention the function of promoter gene in transcription.
33 What is gene therapy? Illustrate using example of adenosine Deaminase deficiency. Mention the
cause and the body system affected by ADA deficiency in humans
Or
What is RNAi ? Explain all steps of this technique when used for protection of a crop from a pest
using its mRNA against the crop.

(ii) The question paper has four sections. There are 33 questions in the questions paper.
(iii) Section-A has 16questions of 1 mark each Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each.
Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case-based
each.
(iv) There are no overall choices. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions.
SECTION-A
1. Microsporogenesis is the
A) Development of megaspore
B) Development of pollen grain
C) Development of male gametophyte
D) Development of female gametophyte
2. The embryo sac of angiosperms contains
A) 3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells and 2 polar nuclei
B) 2 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells and 2 polar nuclei
C) 3 celled egg apparatus, 2 antipodal cells and 1 polar nuclei
D) 3 celled egg apparatus, 1 antipodal -cell and 2 polar nuclei

3. Assertion: Tapetum provides nourishment to the pollen grains.
Reason: Tapetum secretes enzymes as well as hormone.
A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
4. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in:
A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
C) Ribosomes and chloroplasts
D) Lysosomes and ribosomes
5If a dwarf pea plant was treated with gibberellic acid, it became a tall, as tall pea plants. If
these pea plants are crossed with pure tall pea plants, what will be the phenotypic ratio
in F1generation?
A) All dwarf plants
B) 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants
C) 75 % tall and 25 % dwarf plants
D) 100% tall plants
6. Assertion: Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles.
Reason: Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed down, unchanged from
parents to offspring’s through gametes.
assertion.
assertion.

7.The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further
infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.
8. Haemozoin is a
(a) precursor of hemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.
9. 17. Assertion: Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking industry.
Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal
expansion
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
10. The DNA fragments produced by the use of restriction endonucleases can be separated by
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) gel electrophoresis
(c) density gradient centrifugation
(d) any of the above.
11. The DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR is obtained from
(a) Thermusaquaticus
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella typhimurium.
12. Competition is most fierce between
a) Two or more closely related species in the same environment

b) Two or more closely related species in a different environment
c) Unrelated species in the same environment
d) None of these
13. The pyramid of energy will always be?

a)Inverted
b)Upright
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
14.Amensalism is an association between two species where:
a) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
b) both the species are harmed
c) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
d) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
15. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be
the status of the population after some years?
a) It will increase
b) It will first decline and then stabilize
c) It will stabilize
d) It will decline
16. Assertion: Communities that comprise of more species tend to be more stable.
Reason: A higher number of species results in less animal variation in total biomass.
SECTION -B
17. Draw a labelled diagram of at mature pollen grain. 2
18. The following pedigree shows a particular trait which is absent in the parents but found in
the subsequent generation irrespective of the sexes. Analyze the pedigree and draw a
conclusion.
2
19.What is interferon? How do they monitor the infection of new cells? 2
OR
Name the bacteria which is used as a clot buster. Mention about its mode of action.
20.What are the features of a plasmid being used as a cloning vector? 2
21.Availability of energy is less for entities at higher trophic levels. Why? 2
SECTION -C
22. Draw a labelled diagram of reproductive system in a human female.3
23.Identify A, B, C and D with reference to gametogenesis in humans, in the flow chart given
below.
3
24.The child has a blood group of O. If the father has blood group A and mother has blood
group B, work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other
offspring’s. 3
25. How is polygenic inheritance different from pleiotropy? Give one example of each. 3
26.Secondary treatment of the sewage is also called biological treatment. Justify this statement
and explain the process. 3
27.Explain palindromic nucleotide sequence with the help of a suitable example. 3
28. Define the term predation. Mention any two significant roles predation plays in nature. 3
OR
Explain how energy flow supports the second law of thermodynamics in an ecosystem.
SECTION –D (CASE BASED QUESTIONS)
29.Read the following and answer any four questions from 29 (i) to 29 (iv) given blow:
Arshi was happy when she gave birth to her first child. Her in- laws were dissatisfied at
her not giving birth to a male child and blamed Arshi. Arshi tried to convince her in laws
that she had no role in the child’s gender. They understood the biological reason but
were yet to be satisfied. Arshi husband took up the matter and convinced the parents.
It is unfortunate that In our society most of time female are blamed for giving birth to
girl child but according to biology factor in mammals XY type of sex determination is
seen where both male and female have same number of chromosomes 46.in human
being male is hetero-gametic and female is homo-gametic .in males an X-chromosomes
is present but its counterpart is smaller and called the Y-chromosomes, so in human
male Y-chromosomes responsible for sex determination in humans.
(4*1=4)
29.(i) who governs sex determination in humans?

(a) males - XY
(b) female –XX
(c) Both males-XY and female- XX
(d) None of these
29(ii) sex determination in humans male is:
(a) Homogametic
(b) Heterogametic
(c) Isogamete
(d) an isogamete
OR
Ploidy of human egg is
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Tetraploid
29(iii) in birds female is:
(a) ZZ
(b) XY
(c) ZW
(d) XX
29(IV) total no of autosomes chromosomes pairs are present in humans:
(a) 46
(b) 22
(c) 44
(d) 23
30.Read the following and answer any four questions from 30 (i) to 30 (iv) givenbelow:
Every day we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a few of
these exposures result in disease. Why? This is due to the fact that the body is able to
defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to fight
the disease-causing organisms, conferred by the immune system is called
immunity. Immunity is of two types: (i) Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired immunity.
Innate Immunity Innate immunity is non-specific type of defense that is present at the
time of birth. This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of
the foreign agents into our body. Innate immunity consist of four types of barriers.
These are — (i) Physical barriers: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents
entry of the micro-organisms. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory,
gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body.
(ii) Physiological barriers: Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all
prevent microbial growth. (iii) Cellular barriers: Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our
body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes and
natural killer (type of lymphocytes) in the blood as well as macrophages in tissues can
phagocytose and destroy microbes. (iv) Cytokine barriers: Virus-infected cells secrete
proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infection.(4*1=4)
30.(1) A skin barrier that protects our body from entering micro-organisms is …………….. Barrier.
(a) Cellular barrier
(b) Physical barrier
(c) Physiological barrier
(d) Both (a) and (c)
30.(2) A non-specific type of defense is also known as
(a) Innate immunity
(b) Acquired immunity
(c) Pathogen specific
(d) PMNL
30. (3) When the host is able to fight against disease-casing organisms, then the ability is known
as
(a) Microbial growth
(b) Immunity
(c) Barriers
(d) Interferons
30.(4) Which type of barrier include interferon’s that protects non-infected cells from further
viral infection?
(a) cytokine
(b) Immunity
(c) PMNL
(d) CMI
OR
Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called?
(a) Neutrophiles
(b) Histones
(c) Interferons
SECTION -E
31. Explain menstrual cycle in human females with hormones flow chart.
OR
Give reasons why?
(i) Most zygotes in angiosperms divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
(ii) Groundnut seeds are exalbuminous and castor seeds are albuminous.
(iii) Micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat of a seed.
(iv) Integuments of an ovule hardens and the water content is highly reduced as the seed
matures.
(v) Apple and cashewnuts are not called true fruits.
32.A tall plant with red flowers (dominant) is crossed with a dwarf plant with white flowers
(recessive). Work out a dihybrid cross and state the dihybrid ratio. What will be the effect on
the dihybrid ratio if the two genes are interacting with each other?
OR
List the salient features of double helix structure of DNA.
33. What are transgenic animals? Enlist any four areas where they can be used.
OR
What are ‘cloning sites’ in a cloning vector? Explain their role. Draw the diagram of pBR322.
******************************************************************************

Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case based
each.
questions.
SECTION-A
1. Which one of the following cells, found in the testes of mammal, secrete male hormones?
A) Leydig's cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Epithelial cells
D) Spermatocytes
2. After spermiogenesis sperm head become embedded in?
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Secondary Spermatocyte
(c) Primary Spermatocyte

(d) Interstitial cells
D) Overgrown structure
3. Reverse transcription is
A) DNA synthesized from RNA
B) RNA synthesized from DNA
C) DNA synthesized from 3' to 5' end
D) DNA synthesized from 5' to 3' end
4. RNA and DNA are similar in :
A) Having similar sugars
B) Having similar pyrimidine bases
C) Being capable to replicate
D) Being polymers of nucleotide

5. The primary treatment of waste water involves the removal of
(a)Dissolvedimpurities
(b)Stable particles
(c) toxic substances
(d) harmful bacteria.
6. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of
(a) total organic matter
(b) biodegradable organic matter
(c) oxygen evolution
(d) oxygen consumption.
7. For transformation, micro particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
made up of
a) Gold or Tungsten
b) Silicon or Platinum
c) Platinum or Zinc
d) Silver or Platinum
8. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with
a) Chilled chloroform
b) Methanol at room temperature
c) Chilled ethanol
d) Isopropanol
9. Two main structural features of an ecosystem is
a) Species composition and stratification
b) species composition and productivity
c) productivity and energy flow
d) nutrient cycling and stratification
10. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?
a) Marine
b) Forest
c) Grass land
d) Tundra
11. Which of the following is not a producer?
a) Agaricus
b) Nostoc
c) Volvox
d) Spirogyra
12. The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules is the
ecosystems
a) net primary productivity
b) gross secondary productivity
c) net secondary productivity
d) gross primary productivity
13. Assertion: Apple is an example of false fruits.
Reason: Thalamus contributes to the formation of pseudocarpic fruits.
assertion.
assertion.

14. Assertion: Untranslated regions (UTR) are the features of mRNA.
Reason: These regions codes for the formation of specific type of amino acids.
assertion.
assertion.

15. Assertion: Secondary treatment of sewage is also called biological treatment while primary
treatment is called physical treatment.
Reason: Primary sewage treatment depends only upon sedimentation properties of materials
present in sewage and filtration.
16. Assertion: If the species-area relationships are analyzed among very large areas like the
entire continents, the value of Z i.e., slope of line lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2.
Reason: The value of Z i.e., slope of line of species area relationships lies in the range of 0.6 to
1.2 when analysis is done among small areas.
SECTION -B
17. What is amniocentesis? How is it misused?
18. Differentiate gene and allele.
19. Name any two secondary lymphoid organs in a human body and state the function of any of
them.
OR
How is active immunity different from passive immunity?
20.What is GMO? How does it differ from a hybrid?
21.Name the four ways that are responsible for the loss of biodiversity.
SECTION -C
22.Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high and
effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
23. ‘Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)’ and ‘Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)’ are
two assisted reproductive technologies. How is one different from the other?
24.Describe the structure of a nucleosome with a suitable diagram.
25. Answer the questions based on the dinucleotide shown below.
(i) Name the type of sugar guanine base is attached to.

(ii) Name the linkage connecting the two nucleotides.
(iii) Identify the 3′ end of the dinucleotide. Give a reason for your answer.
26.Name the two special types of lymphocytes in humans. How do they differ in their roles in
immune response?
27.Explain how Eli Lilly, an American company, produced insulin by recombinant DNA
technology.
28.Explain by taking three different examples how do certain organisms pull through the
adverse conditions when unable to migrate under stressful period.
OR
What is the Food Chain? Explain the difference between DFC and GFC food chains in the
ecosystem.
SECTION –D (CASE BASED QUESTIONS)
29.Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (iv) given below:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder where the body produces an abnormal
hemoglobin called hemoglobin S. Red blood cells are normally flexible and
round, but when the hemoglobin is defective, blood cells take on a “sickle” or
crescent shape. Sickle cell anemia is caused by mutations in a gene called HBB.
It is an inherited blood disorder that occurs if both the maternal and paternal
copies of the HBB gene are defective. In other words, if an individual receives
just one copy of the defective HBB gene, either from mother or father, then the
individual has no sickle cell anemia but has what is called “sickle cell trait”.
People with sickle cell trait usually do not have any symptoms or problems but
they can pass the mutated gene onto their children. There are three inheritance
scenarios that can lead to a child having sickle cell anemia:
- Both parents have sickle cell trait
- One parent has sickle cell anemia and the other has sickle cell trait
- Both parents have sickle cell anemia
(i) Sickle cell anemia is a/ an ______________________ disease.
a. X linked
b. autosomal dominant
c. autosomal recessive
d. Y linked
(ii) I f both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is _______________of the child
having sickle cell anemia.
a. 25 % risk
b. 50 % risk
c. 75% risk
d. No risk
(iii) If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other has sickle cell trait, there is
__________that their children will have sickle cell anemia and ___________will
have sickle cell trait.
a. 25 % risk, 75% risk
b. 50 % risk, 50% risk
c. 75% risk, 25% risk
d. No risk
(iv) The point mutation in sickle cell anemia leads to a change in codon
a. UGA to UAA
b. AUG to GAG
c. GAG to GUG
d. GUG to CAG
OR
Substitution of amino acids in the globin protein results due to the single based substitution at
the sixth codon of the betaglobin gene from GAG to GUG.True/False
30.We know that large quantities of waste water are generated every day in cities and towns. A
major component of this waste water is human excreta. This municipal waste-water is also
called sewage. It contains large amounts of organic matter and microbes. Many of which are
pathogenic. Have you ever wondered where this huge quantity of sewage or urban waste water
is disposed off daily? This cannot be discharged into natural water bodies like rivers and
streams directly – you can understand why. Before disposal, hence, sewage is treated in sewage
treatment plants (STPs) to make it less polluting. Treatment of waste water is done by the
heterotrophic microbes naturally present in the sewage. This treatment is carried out in two
stages: Primary treatment: These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles
– large and small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. These are removed
in stages; initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. Then the grit (soil and
small pebbles) are removed by sedimentation. All solids that settle form the primary sludge,
and the supernatant forms the effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for
secondary treatment. Secondary treatment or Biological treatment: The primary effluent is
passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped
into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of bacteria
associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes
consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD
(biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent.
BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in
one liter of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is
reduced. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample
of water and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water. The
greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
1) BOD stands for
(a) Biosynthesis of Diphenol
(b) Biochemical of Demand
(c) Biological oxygen Degree
(d) Biochemical oxygen demand
Que. 2) Secondary treatment is also referred as
(a) Biohazards team
(b) Biological treatment
(c) Biomes team
(d) Biochemical flocs
Que. 3) …….. is the major component of waste water.
(a) Bird feather
(b) Human excreta
(c) Fish excreta
(d) All of them
OR
Primary treatment is also called
(a) Biological treatment
(b) Physical treatment
(c) Both a and b
(d) Centrifugation
Que. 4) Mention other word for municipal waste water.
(a) Human excreta
(b) Biological waste
(c) sewage
(d) Biochemical flocs
SECTION -E
31. Explain in detail the difference between the meiotic division of oogenesis and
spermatogenesis.
OR
Describe the structure of the embryo sac of a mature angiosperm. Explain the double
fertilization.
32.(i) Explain with the help of Griffith’s experiment how the search for genetic material was
conducted and what was the conclusion drawn?
(ii) How did MacLeod, McCarty and Avery establish the biochemical nature of the so called
‘genetic material’ identified by Griffith in his experiment? 5
OR
Explain the law of independent assortment with a dihybrid cross.
33.Explain five areas where biotechnology has influenced human lives. 5
OR
What is a polymerase chain reaction? What are the steps involved explain by diagram? Mention
its applications.
******************************************************************************
paper.
each.
some questions.

SECTION A
1 The removal of keystone species will affect- 1
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Consumers
2 Which of the following statement is correct- 1
(a) Corpus luteum changes into corpus albicans
(b) Corpus luteum degenerates after fertilization
(c) Corpus luteum persists throughout pregnancy
(d) Corpus luteum is not formed during the pregnancy
3 In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are 1
required to produce 100 pollen grains?
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
4 How many different kind of gametes will be produced by a plant 1
having the genotype AABbCC?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Nine
5 Buffer zone in biosphere is the zone for 1
(a) Forestry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Tourism and restoration
(d) Research and Education
6 The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a peptide chain from 1
a ribosome is catalysed by-
(a) UAA
(b) Release Factor
(c) Stop Codons
(d) Peptidyl Transferase
7 BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of 1
(a) Total organic matter
(b) Biodegradable organic matter
(c) Oxygen evolution
(d) Oxygen consumption
8 Microbes used as ‘clot busters’ during myocardial infarction: 1
(a) Streptococus
(b) Penicillium notatum
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Clostridium butylicum
9 HIV Selectively targets- 1
(a) Cytotoxic T-Cells
(b) Helper-T Cells
(c) Memory Cells
(d) Complete immune system
10 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? 1
(a) Central Dogma- Codon
(b) Okazaki Fragments- Splicing
(c) RNA Polymerase- RNA Primer
(d) Restriction Enzymes- Genetic Engineering
11 The Organization which publishes the red list of species is: 1
(a) WWF
(b) IUCN
(c) UNEP
(d) MAB
12 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been 1
identified?
(a) 43
(b) 34
(c) 17
(d) 35
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
13 Assertion: Cry gene expressing crop is resistant to a group of 1
insects.
Reason: Cry proteins produced from Bacillus thuringiensis are
toxic to larvae of certaininsects.
14 Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood 1
group system.
Reason: When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO
blood group system, they both express their own types.
15 Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments present in 1

testes.
Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of fertilization.
16 Assertion: Flora contains the actual account of habitat and 1
distribution of plants of a given area.
Reason: Flora help in correct identification.
SECTION B
17 Expand and Explain GIFT and ICSI. 2
18 What are the major differences between simple stirred tank 2
bioreactor and sparged stirred tank bioreactor?
OR
What is the principle of Gel Electrophoresis? Name the compound

used for staining DNA. What is the colour of such stained DNA.
Mention at least one application of the given technique.
19 What is haplodiploidy mechanism of sex determination? 2
20 Explain the role of primary lymphoid organs in the immune 2
system.
21 (a) What is ‘r’ in the population equation given dN/dt=rN. 2
(b) How does increase and decrease in the value of ‘r’ affect the
population size?
SECTION C
22 Draw the labelled diagram of embryo sac and define double 3
fertilization.
23 ‘A fertilized egg is a blueprint of future development’. Explain. 3
OR
Point out A and B ovarian hormones and Explain roles.
24 Explain the mechanism of DNA replication with the help of a 3

replication fork. What role does the enzyme DNA-ligase play in a
replication fork?
25 Explain the experiment for the formation of simple organic 3
molecules.
26 Describe how do ‘flocs’ and ‘activated sludge’ help in sewage 3
treatment.
27 How has RNAi technique helped to prevent the infestation of roots 3
in tobacco plant by a nematode Meloidegyne incognita?
28 What is in-situ conservation? ‘ In-situ conservation conserves 3
biodiversity’. Justify the statement.
SECTION D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal
choice in one subpart.
29 During an argument between two Biology students, Raman said (1+1+2)
that during the course of evolution, DNA was chosen over RNA
because the former has stable structure and is less reactive as
compared to the later. Ajay was not convinced and said that RNA
was the first genetic material in organism.
(i) Why RNA is considered unstable over DNA?
(ii) Give evidence that RNA was the first genetic material.
OR
Name the sugar molecule present in DNA.
(iii) Do humans contain RNA? If yes, mention its function.
30 During the unfortunate coronavirus lockdown Kavita is started (1+1+2)
cursing the existence of microbes on Earth. On hearing this
Ramesh told Kavita that not all the microbes are useful for us.
Many microbes are useful in producing medicines, bioactive
molecules and household products.
(i) Name the microbes from which the penicillin antibiotic is

derived.
(ii) Name the microbe which produce large holes in swiss cheese.
OR
Name the bacteria responsible for curd formation.
(iii)Mention the source and functions of cyclosporin a and statins.
SECTION E
31 Draw the labelled diagram of Human Male reproductive system 5
and make a flow chart from the site of sperm formation to urethra.
Explain male reproductive glands.
OR
Explain the steps of DNA Fingerprinting. What the applications of
this method.
32 (i) Explain the observations and the conclusion drawn by Darwin 5
during his visit to Galapagos Islands.
(ii) Write any two key concepts of Darwin’s theory of natural
selection.
OR
a. Describe major causes of biodiversity losses in a
geographical region.
b. Name any two hot spots of India.
33 Briefly define the stages of Recombinant DNA Technology. 5
OR
Explain and show the diagrammatic illustrations of the polymerase
chain reaction.
paper.
each. Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case-based
each.
some questions.

SECTION A
1 An interaction between members of two species in which one 1
members of the species capture, kill and eat up members of other
species.
(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation
(c) Mutualism
(d) Commensalism
2 In monocots, the embryo posses only one terminal cotyledon 1
called……………..
(a) Root Cap
(b) Epicotyl
(c) Coleoptile
(d) Scutellum
3 Which of the following is not a part of external genitalia of 1
female?
(a) Labia minora
(b) Clitoris
(c) Hymen
(d)Foreskin
4 DNA is negatively charged because of 1
(a) Deoxyribose Sugar
(b) Phosphate
(c) Adenine
(d) None
5 What percentage of PAR is utilized by plants? 1
(a) 1-2%
(b) 2-5%
(c) 2-10%
(d)15.5% Only
6 Genetic drift is found in 1
(a) Animal population
(b) Large population with random mating.
(c) Plant population
(d) Small population with or without mutated gene.
7 How many characters are dominant in pea plant? 1
Tall, Violet, Constricted, Green seed, Axial, Terminal, Rounded
seed
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
8 Which one is not functional aspect of the ecosystem? 1
(a) Productivity
(b) Energy Flow
(c) Decomposers
(d) Decomposition
9 Cry genes are present in Bt-cotton….. 1
(a) cry IAc and cry I Ab
(b) cry IAc and cry II Ab
(c) cry IAc and cry I Ab
(d) cry IIAc and cry I Ab
10 The genetic variation found in the medicinal plant ………., 1
growing in different Himalayan ranges.
(a) Rouwolfia vomitoria
(b) Equisetum
(c)Cycus revoluta
(d) None of these
11 What is another name of antibodies? 1
(a) H1L1
(b) H2L1
(c) H1L2
(d) H2L2
12 In cryopreservation, the propagules are stored at the …………. °C 1
in liquid nitrogen.
(a) -196
(b) -225
(c) -125
(d)-360
13 Assertion : In human male, testes are extraabdominal and lie in 1
scrotal sacs.
Reason : Scrotum acts as thermoregulator and keeps testicular
temperature lower by 2°C for normal spermatogenesis.
14 Assertion: The initiation step of protein synthesis in prokaryotes 1
and eukaryotes has several differences.
Reason: They both form mRNA-tRNA complexes with smaller

subunits of ribosomes.
15 Assertion : Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce 1

sticky ends.
Reason : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme
DNA polymerase.
16 Assertion: Wine and beer are produced without distillation 1
Reason: Depending on the type of the raw material used for

fermentation and the type of processing (with or without
distillation) different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
SECTION B
17 Explain the Connel’s elegant field experiment. 2
OR
What is the detritus food chain made up of? How do they meet
their energy and nutritional requirements?
18 Correct the given statements. 2
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b) Surgical methods of birth control in male is tubectomy.
19 Differentiate between a template stand and a coding strand of 2
DNA.
20 Match the following- 2
Column A Column B
Citric Acid Monascus
Acetic Acid Aspergillus niger
Cyclosporin-A Acetobacter aceti
Statins Trichoderma polysporum
21 Differentiate between the term ‘Cry’ and ‘cry’. 2
SECTION C
22 Explain any three major reasons for greater biodiversity in tropics. 3
23 “Zona pellucida is oneof the most important layer around the 3
ovum.” Justify the statement.
24 What are the major factors affecting Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? 3
25 If a person is injected with a used needle, which retro-viral disease 3
can develop in the person. Explain the life cycle of the retro-virus
in the patient’s body.
26 What is the difference between insulin and proinsulin? If naturally 3
proinsulin is produced inside the cell and later it is converted into
insulin, then why the American company did not produced
proinsulin in spite of insulin.
27 Briefly define the following- 3
(a) Apomixis
(b) Polyembryony
(c) Parthenocarpy
28 Explain the experiment where bacteriophage and E.coli were used 3
to prove the DNA as genetic material.
OR
Label A, B, C and D from the above diagram.
SECTION D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal
29 Once Geeta asked Sarita about her adrenal in and steroid (1+1+2)
medication. Sarita told Geeta that she is allergic to pollens and
mites.
Sarita also mentioned that she became allergic due to the protected
environment to her in early life upon after conversation Geeta
discuss that she is suffering from an autoimmune disease.
(i) Name the antibody which is produced in response to allergence

(ii) Mention few symptoms of allergic reactions
OR
What is an autoimmune disease.
(iii) Draw the labelled diagram of antibody molecule.
30 Rajat was rushed to civil hospital after he met with an accident (1+1+2)
which caused too much blood
loss.his blood group was O negative. Hospital could not provide O
negative blood for
transfusion. Sameer was attending his patient on nearby bed. He
heard about the situation and agreed
to donate blood as he too had same blood group. His mother’s
blood group is A negative and
father’s blood group is B negative.
i. Write the genotype of O blood group
ii. How does human blood group represent multiple allelism?
OR
Can O positive blood be transfused to Rajat? Give reason.
iii. Make a cross to show the inheritance of O blood group by Rajat
from his parents.
SECTION E
31 (a) Draw a labelled diagram of mature embryo sac. (2+2+1)
(b) Why does a pollen grain possess two male gametes?
(c) What is the PEN?
OR
Draw a diagram of LS of an anatropus ovule of an angiosperm and
level the following parts.
(a) Nucellus
(b) Integuments
(c) Antipodal cells
(d) Secondary nucleus
(e) Egg
(f) synergids
32 (a) What is male as well as female hetergamety? (2) 5
(b) Explain any three types of chromosomal sex determination. (3)
OR
(a) What is Euploidy and Aneuploidy? (2)

(b) Explain three types of sex determination showing ploidy,
chromosomal condition and characteristic symptoms. (3)
33 (a)Draw the labelled diagram of pBR322. (2) 5
(b) What is insertional inactivation? (1)
(c) What is the role oforiand restriction sites found in the pBR322?
(2)
OR
Describe the steps which are involved in recombinant DNA
technology.
paper.
each.
some questions.
Q. Questions Marks
No
SECTION A
1 After diagnosis it is found that fallopian tube of a lady is blocked. Which 1

of the following ART is useful for her-
(a) IVF
(b) ZIFT
(c) GIFT
(d) ICSI
2 Which ion is generally used in IUDs- 1
(a) Cl
(b) Cu
(c) Ca
(d) CO3
3 Which is not essentially required in replication- 1
(a) Primer
(b) dNTPs
(c) Ori
(d) All of these
4 Which of the following is not a characterstic of a plasmid? 1
(a) Extranuclear
(b) Single stranded
(c) Independent replication
(d) Circular DNA
5 Function of interferons is related with - 1
(a) Release of cytokinin
(b) Acts against virus infected cell
(c) Protect non infected cells
(d) All of these
6 PMNL- neutrophils belongs to which types of immunity - 1
(a) Physical barriers
(b) Physiological barriers
(c) Cellular barriers
(d) Cytokine barriers
7 In Sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of 1
the following triplets code for valine?
(a) GGG
(b) AAG
(c) GAA
(d) GUG
8 Identify incorrect statements about Ti plasmid- 1
a- It is isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens
b- It is tumor-inducing plasmid.
c- It is used in its natural form to create GMOs
d- It uses does not harm the plants and only delivers the gene of
interest.
9 observe the diagram and answer- 1
a- It represents pyramid of energy in
an aquatic ecosystem
b- It represents population density (N)
in an aquatic ecosystem
c- It represents pyramid of biomass in an aquatic ecosystem
d- It represents eutrophication in an aquatic ecosystem
10 Read the statements and answer- 1
i- Mycorrhiza is association between fungus and roots of higher
plants
ii- In brood parasitism parasitic bird lay her egg in nest of host
iii- Liver fluke and lice are example of ectoparasite
iv- Cuscuta is parasitic plant
a- (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
b- (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c- (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d- All are incorrect
11 Identify the factors which increases population growth- 1
a- Immigration and natality
b- Immigration and mortality
c- Natality and mortality
d- Emigration and immigration
12 The DFC in any ecosystem begins with - 1
(a) Decomposers
(b) Inorganic material
(c) Detritus
(d) Consumers
Questions No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion: Of the incident solar radiation < 50 % of it is PAR. 1
Reason: PAR is photosynthetically active radiation available for plants.
14 Assertion: lactational amenorrhea is a method of natural contraception. 1
Reason: In this condom is used which is safest method of contraception.
15 Assertion: Mendel crossed a tall plant from F2 generation dwarf plant and 1
named it as test cross.
Reason: In a typical test cross an organism showing a dominant phenotype
is crossed with recessive parent instead of self-crossing.
16 Assertion: Immunoglobins basically proteinaceous in nature. 1
Reason: These are related with the humoral immunity.
SECTION B
17 (a) Flowering plants shows self-incompatibility phenomenon.What 2

do you understand by termself-incompatibility?
(b) Where we can observe the filiform apparatus in a flower? Mention
its role.
18 Sheela has normal vision but her father is colour blind. Sheela married a 2
normal visioned man. Find out probability of their children to be colour
blind.
19 Write one difference between 2
a- Active and passive immunity
b- Contact inhibition and metastasis
20 (a) What is the principle behind using very high temperature during 2
polymerase chain reaction?
(b) Write advantage of primers in PCR.
21 By graphical representation show that 2
Log S = log C + Z log A
OR
What were the observations of David Tilman about species diversity in an
ecosystem.
Mention the value of regression coefficient for frugivorous birds.
SECTION– C
22 (a) Which cell provide nutrition to the germ cells in seminiferous 3

tubule.
(b) Write role of bulbourethral glands inmale.
(c) Name the duct through which milk is sucke dout.
23 (a) How Many times reductional division is required for pollen mother 3
cell to produce 64microspores?
(b) How tapetum and production of viable male gametophytes are
linked?
(c) Illustrate significance of emasculation.
24 Compare the termination of transcription and translation process. What 3
types of factors involved in the process.
25 (a) Write the method of evolution that has brought the similarities 3
seen in tuber of potato and sweet potato.
(b) Compare Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
(c) Who disproved spontaneous generation theory.
26 Explain withdrawal syndrome. Also mention two symptoms related to this. 3
OR
Study the given diagram and answer
the followings;
(a) Name the pathogen responsible for
this cycle
(b) Identify' A'
(c) In which organ event 'C' takes place
(d) Identify the organ' B'
27 (a) How gene of interest is transferred to a host using biolistic method? 3

(b) What is advantage of heat and shock method in biotechnology?
(c) Disarmed pathogens may be a good tool for r-DNA technology.
Give reason
28 (a) Name any one man made ecosystem with high productivity. 3
(b) Which region of Meghalaya is well known for sacred grooves.
(c) List any two reasons that could have triggered mass extinctions
of species in the past?
SECTION– D
29 Microbes are beneficial as well as detrimental to the welfare of human

beings. Microbes are an excellent boon for commercial and industrial 4
purposes. They are used in pharmaceutical industry, sewage treatment
plants as well as production of chemicals like alcohol, enzymes and
organic acids. Various microbes are used in production of SCP,
Biofertilizers and biogas.
(a) Which microorganism is used in production of immunosuppressive
drug.
(b) How flocs affect the BOD of a water body.
(c) Who discovered the full effectiveness of penicillin?
OR Expand SCP and give one example.
d)How streptococcus is used to treat heart disorder?
30 The production of an offspring which 4
contains different combinations of
traits compared to their parents is
known as recombination. Crossing
Over: The exchange of DNA segments
between non-sister chromatids
during the synapsis is known as
crossing over. All organisms have a
large number of genes, the number
being much more than the number of
chromosomes. All
genes on the same chromosome do not assort independently and
therefore, provide another exception to Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Genes whose patterns of inheritance deviate from that of independent
assortment are often linked.
a- Mention relation of distance between genes in linkage.
b- In which condition the percentage of cross over is higher?
c- Linkage occurs usually on homologus or non
homologus chromosome and why?
OR Mention relation between linkage and
recombination.
d- Who laid concept of linkage?
SECTION– E
31 Answer the questions based on the given diagram – 5
a- Write the role of ori.

b- What is the method of nomenclature of EcoRI.
c- What are selectable markers? Give one example of such markers.
OR
What is gene therapy? Describe methods of gene therapy using the
example of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
32 Observe the diagram and 5
answer the followings-
a- Identify x and y
b- How corpus luteum is
associated with
implantation.
c- What happens to the
corpus luteum in the absence of fertilisation of the ovum.
OR
a- Diagrammatically represent the stages of human embryo
development inside female.
b- What is importance of umbilical cord.
33 Explain positive and negative regulation of the Lac operon. 5
OR
(a) What is initiatort RNA?
(b) Not the complete mRNA is involved in translation. Explain.
(c) Describe any two steps which are required for processing of hn
mRNA in eukaryotic cell.

Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case-based questions have 4
questions of 1 mark each. Section E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
questions.
SECTION-A
1. Which statement is significant in reference to test tube baby-

a) Fertilization occurs in in vitro condition
b) Fertilization and embryo development take place in a testtube
c) Ova is proliferated in the test tube outside theovary
d) Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube and embryogenesis takes place testtube
2. Copper-related IUDs act as a contraceptive method as these-

a) Suppress movement of cilia infimbriae
b) Suppress fertilizing capacity ofsperm
c) Block cervix which doesn’t allow the sperm to pass throughit
d) Delayedoogenesis
3. dNTPs are required for-

a) As a source ofnucleotides
b) As a source of energy
c) Formation of phosphodiesterbond
d) All of these
4. The Miller-Urey abiotic synthesis experiment (and other subsequent, similar experiments) shows
that:
A) simple organic molecules can be formed spontaneously under conditions like those thought to
prevail early in the earth's history.
B) The earliest life forms introduced large amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere.
C) Life can be created in a test tube.
D) Long chains of DNA can form under abiotic conditions.
5. Antibodies present in colostrum that protect the infant from infection are-
a) Ig G
b) Ig D
c) Ig E
d) Ig A
6. Citric acid is obtained from:
A) Aspergillusniger
B) Rhizobium nigricans
C) Penicilliumcitrinum
D) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
7. Identify the correct match-
a- Thermusaquaticus i- Cryprotein
b- E.coli ii-r-insulin
c- Bacillusthuringiensis iii-PCR
d- Trichoderma iv- biocontrolagent
(a) a- iii, b- ii, c- i, d-iv
(b) a- ii, b- iii, c- i, d-iv
(c) a- iii, b- ii, c- Iv, d-i
(d) a- iii, b- i, c- ii, d-iv
8. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering because:
A) they can join different DNA fragments.

B) they can cleave DNA at a specific target.
C) they are nucleases that cut DNA at variable sites.
D) they are proteolytic enzymes which can degrade harmful enzymes.
9. Which of the following type of interactions occur in predation and parasitism?
A) (+, +)
B) (+, 0)
C) (+, -)
D) (-, -)
10. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of reproductive age is lesser than pre-reproductive but
higher than post reproductive ones. The population is:
A) Growing
B) Declining
C) Stable
D) Cannot be predicted
11. Which statement explains the concept of Allen's rule?

A) Aquatic mammals have blubber as insulator.
B) Mammals of colder climate have shorter ears and limbs.
C) Mammals of humid and warmer region have more melanin in their skin.
D) The bear undergoes hibernation during winter.
12.In a food, chain decomposer can be correctly called as-
(a) Producer
(b) Recycler
(c) Primaryconsumer
(d) Top consumer
13.Assertion: Newer antibiotics are required to be produced regularly.
Reason: Pathogens often develop resistance to existing antibiotics.
A. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
B. if both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
C. if the assertion is true but the reason is false
D. if both the assertion and reason are false
14. Assertion: In Ophrysone petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance tothe female bee.
Reason: Two closely related species competing for the same resource cancoexist simultaneously.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
Explanation of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
Explanation of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false
15. Assertion: “AI” technique is very successful for those males who have low sperm count.
Reason: In this semen collected from the husband or healthy donor is artificially inseminated into the
vagina of the female.
A. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
B. if both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
C. if the assertion is true but the reason is false
D. if both the assertion and reason are false
16. Assertion: Haemophilia is an autosomal-linked disorder.

Reason: Its gene is located on the X-chromosome
A) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
B) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
D) If both the assertion and reason are false
SECTION-B
17. Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote the cervix hostility to sperms.
18. Mention the scientific name of the animal on which T. H. Morgan perform
hisexperiment.Whydidheprefertoworkwiththatanimal?Giveanythree reasons.
19. When does a human body elicit an anamnestic response?
20. Gene Z (beta-galactosidase) is a marker gene. By using the insertional inactivation technique, we can
identify recombinants and non - recombinants. Give reason.
21. What are the key functions of the ecosystem?
OR
What are ecosystem services?
SECTION -C
22. With a neat labelled diagram, write the function of the any three parts of a typical angiosperm
ovule?
23. (a) Write the difference between morula andblastocyst.
(b) Mention the condition of disintegration of theendometrium.
(c) Which structure is formed along with the secondaryoocyte?
24. What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its applications.
25. Write Hardy-Weinberg principle.How can Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium be affected? Explain giving
three reasons.
26. Draw a flow chart of sewage treatment plant.
OR
Given below is a list of six microorganisms. State their usefulness to humans.
(i) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(ii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(iii) MonascusPurpureus
(iv) Trichoderma polypore
(v) PenicilliumNotatum
(vi) Propionibacterium shamanic.
27. Show the processes involved in the decomposition of detritus.
28.write the steps in the formation of rDNA.
SECTION -D
29.Read the following and answer any four questions from 29 (i) to 29 (iv) given
below:
Mutation explains the relationship between gene and DNA. The effects of large deletion and
rearrangement in a segment of DNA results in loss or gain of gene and its function. Insertion or deletion
of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. A classical
example of point mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain that results in
change of amino acids residue glutamate to valine and results into a diseased condition for sickle cell
anaemia
i) A mutation is change produced by alteration in the genetic mechanism and .
a. may arise spontaneously
b. is always induced by the environment
c. is advantegeous
d. is not inherited
(ii) DNA code for glutamic acid is
a. CTC
b. CTT
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
(iii) In valine the DNA code is
a. CAT
b. CCC
c. CUU
d. GUA
OR Part of the amino acid sequence in sickle cell haemoglobin is
a) Thr-Pro-Val-Glu
b) Pro-Thr-Val-Glu
c) Glu-Thr-Pro-Val
d) Val-Pro-Thr-Glu
(iv) The point mutation in sickle cell anemia lead to a change in codon
a. UGA to UAA
b. AUG to GAG
c. GAG to GUG
d. GUG to CAG
30.Read the following and answer any four questions from 30 (i) to 30 (iv) given
below:
Every day we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a few of these
exposures result in disease. Why? This is due to the fact that the body is able to defend itself
from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing
organisms, conferred by the immune system is called immunity. Immunity is of two types: (i)
Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired immunity. Innate Immunity Innate immunity is non-specific
type of defence, that is present at the time of birth. This is accomplished by providing different
types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body. Innate immunity consist of four
types of barriers. These are — (i) Physical barriers: Skin on our body is the main barrier which
prevents entry of the micro-organisms. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory,
gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body. (ii)
Physiological barriers: Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent
microbial growth. (iii) Cellular barriers: Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body like
polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes and natural killer (type of
lymphocytes) in the blood as well as macrophages in tissues can phagocytose and destroy
microbes. (iv)Cytokine barriers: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which
protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Que. 1) A skin barrier that protects our body from entering micro-organisms is
a …………………………………………………………….. barrier.
(a) Cellular barrier
(b) Physical barrier
(c) Physiological barrier
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Que. 2) A non-specific type of defense is also known

as ……………………………………………………………………………….
(a) Innate immunity
(b) Acquired immunity
(c) Pathogen specific
(d) PMNL
Que. 3) When the host is able to fight against disease-casing organisms, then the ability is known
as …………………………………………………………………………….
(a) Microbial growth
(b) Immunity
(c) Barriers
(d) Interferons
OR
Enzyme present in tear is……………….
a) Amylase
b) Lysozyme
c) Trypsin
d) Lipase
Que. 4) Which type of barrier include interferons that protects non-infected cells from further viral
infection?
(a) cytokine
(b) Immunity
(c) PMNL
(d) CMI
SECTION -E
31 Descibe the process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Give the schematic diagram also.
OR
Describe the following –
(a) Spermiation
(b) Two layers ofovum
(c) LHSurge
(d) Acrosome
(e) fetal ejectionreflex
32. List the characteristics of DNA molecules. What criteria required for genetic material.
OR
Explain the components lac operon in E. coil with suitable diagram and write the role of z,y,a gene in
Lac Operon.
33.Observe the given diagram carefully and answer the questions-
a- Define and explain theprocess.

b- Which type of dye is used in the process to visualize DNA? c- Why are some DNA
fragments and otherslarger?
OR
Explain the steps in the formation of recombinant DNA by Eco RI by giving a suitable diagram.
paper.
each. Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case-
based questions have 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section E has 3 questions of
5 marks each.
some questions.
SECTION-A
Q. No. Marks
1. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is 1
(a) Ovariectomy
(b) Castration
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Hysterectomy
2. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify one 1
which does not specifically affect the sex organ.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts
3. Which of the following is true with respect to AUG? 1
(a) It codes for methionine.
(b) It is also an initiation codon.
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(d) All of the above.
4. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah, and man are similar in 1
structure, because.
(a) One organism has given rise to another.
(b) They share a common ancestor.
(c) They perform the same function.
(d) They have bio-chemical similarities.
5. The sporozoites that causes infection when a female anopheles 1
mosquito bites a human being are formed in
(a) Liver of human
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) Salivary gland of mosquito
(d) Gut of mosquito
6. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from 1
certain diseases is of
(a) Ig G type
(b) Ig A type
(c) Ig D type
(d) Ig E type
7. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of 1
(a) Total organic matter
(b) Biodegradable organic matter
(c) Oxygen evolution
(d) Oxygen consumption
8. Which of the following is not required in the preparation of a 1
recombinant DNA molecule?
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E.coli
9. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national 1
parks and sanctuaries?
(a) Pug marks only
(b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only
(d) Actual head counts
10. Cuckoo and crow are example of 1
(a) Competition
(b) Ectoparasites
(c) Brood parasitism
(d) Predation
11. Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain? 1
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
12. Which of the following is an example of ex situ conservation? 1
(a) Sacred groves
(b) National park
(c) Biosphere reserve
(d) Seed bank
13. Assertion: Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit. 1
Reason: Parthenocarpy is development of seeds without fertilisation.
14. Assertion: In honeybee, female is diploid and male is haploid. 1
Reason: Gametes are formed by meiosis in female and by mitosis in
male.
15. Assertion: In human beings the transgenic food may cause toxicity and 1
product allergy.
Reason: The bacteria present in alimentary canal of human beings may
become resistant to the antibiotics by taking up the antibiotic resistant
gene that is present in the GM food.
16. Assertion: Leaf butterfly and stick insect show mimicry to dodge their 1
enemies.
Reason: Mimicry is a method to acquire body colour blending with the
surroundings.
SECTION-B
17. Does apomixis require fertilization and pollination? Give reasons in 2
support of your answer.
18. Name the cross when progeny of F1 and a homozygous recessive plant 2
is crossed? State its advantage.
19. The innate immunity consists of four types of barriers. Name them. 2
20. What are the basic steps of PCR? Write them. 2
21 Give an example of an ecological pyramid which is always upright. 2
Justify your.
Or
In a pyramid of biomass drawn below, name the two crops: (i) One
which is supported and (ii) The one which supports. In which ecosystem
is such a pyramid found?
Zooplanktons
Phytoplank
tons
SECTION-C
22. What are the difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis? 3
Explain with diagram only.
23. What do mean by outbreeding devices? Write various type of 3
outbreeding devices.
24. What is transformation? Describe Griffith’s experiment to show 3
transformation? What did he prove from his experiment?
25. (I) name the two growth models that represent population growth and 3
draw the respective growth curves.
(II) which growth model is more realistic and why?
26. Name the cells HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) gains entry into 3
after infecting the human body. Explain the events that occur in these
cells.
Or
Differentiate between active and passive immunity.
27. (a) write the palindromic nucleotide sequence EcoRI recognises. 3
(b) Draw the vector DNA and a foreign DNA showing the sites where
EcoRI has
acted to form the sticky ends.
28. (a) What do you mean by “The Evil Quartet”? Explain. 3
(b) Write any two biodiversity hot spot in India.
SECTION-D
Q. no. 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal
29. When experiments on peas were repeated using other traits in other 4
plants, it was found that some times the F1 had a phenotype that did
not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two.
The inheritance of flower colour in dog flower is a good example to
understand the concept of incomplete dominance.
(i) What was the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation, when
heterozygous(Rr) plant was selfed.
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 2:1
(ii) Which plant shows incomplete inheritance among the
following
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Lathyrasodoratus
(c) Rafflesia
(d) Antirrhinum sp.
(iii) What was the genotype and phenotype of F1 generation,
when homozygous dominant plant (RR) and homozygous
recessive (rr) plants were crossed.
(a) RR, Red
(b) Rr, Pink
(c) RR, white
(d) Rr, red
(iv) Incomplete dominance occurs when:
(a) Phenotype of both alleles is partially expressed.
(b) Phenotype of one allele is expressed.
(c) Phenotype of both alleles is expressed.
(d) Phenotype of both alleles donot expressed.
Or
What was the genotype and phenotype of F1 generation,
when homozygous dominant plant (RR) and homozygous
recessive (rr) plants show incomplete dominance.
(a) RR, Red
(b) Rr, Pink
(c) RR, white
(d) Rr, red
30. A group of youth was having a “rave party” in an isolated area and was
raided by police. Packets of smack and syringes with needle were found
littered around.
(i) Which of the following statement is incorrect about smack?
(a) It is an addictive substance.
(b) It affects nervous system.
(c) It causes cancers of lungs and throat.
(d) It impairs ones physical and physiological functions.
(ii) The chemical name of ‘smack’ is
(a) Diacetyl morphine
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Amphetamines
(d) Marijuana
(iii) ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) Latex of Papaver somniferum
(b) Leaves of Cannabis sativa
(c) Flowers of Datura
(d) Fruits of Erythroxylum coca
(iv) Syringes and needles used by youth for taking the drug
could prove to be very fatal because
(a) It may cause disease tuberculosis.
(b) It may transmit HIV infections.
(c) It may lead to blood loss.
(d) All these
Or
When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as
unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that
(a) The patient was not efficient at his work.
(b) The patient was not economically prosperous.
(c) The patient shows behavioural and social
maladjustment.
(d) He does not take interest in sports
SECTION-E
31. What is menstruation? What are the specific actions of FSH, LH, 5
estrogen& progesterone in menstrual cycle?
Or
1. Draw the embryo sac of a flowering plants and label :
(a) (i) Central Cell (ii) Chalazal end (iii) Synergids
(b) Name the cell that develops into embryo sac and explain how this
cell leads to formation of embryo sac.
(c) Give the role of filiform apparatus.
32. What do you mean by semi-conservative nature of DNA replication? 5
Explain the experiment performed by Mathew Meselson and Franklin
Sthal.
Or
(a) What are the salient features of genetic code?
(b) What are the difference between euchromatin and
heterochromatin?
33. The development of bioreactors is required to produce large quantities 5
of products.
(a) Give optimum growth conditions used in bioreactors.
(b) Draw a well labelled diagram of simple stirred tank bioreactor.
(c) How does a simple stirred tank bioreactor differ from sparged
stirred – tank’ bioreactor?
Or
Describe the various steps involved in Recombinant DNA technology
with the help of a well labeled. Diagram?
paper.
each.
some questions.
SECTION-A
Q. No. Marks
1. Following statements are given regarding MTP. 1
(I) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
Choose the correct option.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
2. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted 1
Reproductive Technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
3. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other 1
by 3′→ 5′ phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of
nucleotides, which of the following modifications would you
choose?
(a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(b) Remove/replace 3′ OH group in deoxyribose
(c) Remove/replace 2′ OH group with some other group in
deoxyribose
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Match the scientists listed under column ‘I’ with ideas listed column ‘II’. 1
Column I -Column II
A. Darwin -(i) Abiogenesis
B. Oparin -(ii) Use and disuse of organs
C. Lamarck -(iii) Continental drift theory
D. Wagner -(iv) Evolution by natural selection
(a) A-(i); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(b) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(c) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)
(d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
5. Immune system retain the memory of which response in 1
vaccination process
(A) Passive immunization response
(B) Primary immune response
(C) Secondary immune response
(D) All the above.
6. D.P.T vaccine is an example of 1
(A) Active immunity
(B) Passive immunity
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Interferon
7. The product of Monascuspurpureus has been 1
commercialized as
(a) Immunosuppressive agent
(b) Blood- cholesterol lowering agent
(c) Clot buster
(d) Bottled juices clarifying agents
8. DNA fragments generated by the restriction 1
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated
by
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) electrophoresis
(c) restriction mapping
d)centrifugation
9. If a population of 50 Paramoecia present in a pool 1
increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the
growth rate of population?
(a) 50 per hour
(b) 200 per hour
(c) 5 per hour
(d) 100 per Hour
10. The relationship between the alga Cladophora and the 1
snail shell on which it grows corresponds to:
(a) Neutralism
(b) Predation
(c) Commensalism
(d) Mutualism
11. What percentages of PAR can be captured by plants? 1
(a) 1-5%
(b) 2-10%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%
12. According to rivet popper hypothesis key species are 1
represented by
(a) Air plane
(b) Rivets on the windows
(c) Rivets on the wings
(d) Both B and C
13. Assertion: Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating 1
agents.
Reason: Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex
organs.
14. Assertion: Histones are basic in nature. 1
Reason: Histones are rich in the amino acids lysine and
arginine.
15. Assertion: Cry gene expressing crop is resistant to a 1
group of insects.
Reason: Cry proteins produced from Bacillus
thuringiensis are toxic to larvae of certain insects.
16. Assertion: The prickly pear cactus introduced into 1
Australia in early 1920s caused havoc by spreading
rapidly into millions of hectares of land range.Reason:
When certain exotic species are introduced into a
geographical area, they become invasive and start
spreading fast because the invaded land does not have
the natural predators.
SECTION-B
17. Give the function of (a) Corpus luteum (b) Endometrium 2
18. Differentiate between point mutation and frameshift 2

mutations.
19. Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs. Describe 2
the role of lymph nodes in our immune response.
20. How does plasmid differ from chromosomal DNA? 2
21 What are the limitations of ecological pyramids? 2
Or
What are sacred grooves? What is their role in
conservation?
SECTION-C
22. What are the various male accessory glands? Give their 3
function.
23. List any three differences between wind pollinated 3
flower & insect – pollinated flower.
24. The base sequence on one strand of DNA is ATGTCTATA 3
(i) Give the base sequence of its complementary
strand.
(ii) (ii) If an RNA strand is transcribed from this
strand what would be the base sequence of
RNA?
(iii) (iii) What holds these base pairs together?
25. How does the shape of age pyramid reflect the growth 3
status of a population?
26. What is innate immunity? List the four types of barriers 3
which protect the body from the entry of the foreign
agents.
Or
What are Cannabinoids? From which plant Cannabinoids
are obtained? Which part of the body is affected by
consuming these substances?
27. A bacterium Bacillusthuringiensis produces a toxic 3
protein named ‘cry protein’ that is lethal to certain
insects but not to bacterium
(a) Why this toxin does not kill the bacteria?
(b) What type of changes occur in the gut of insects on
consuming this protein?
(c) How man has exploited this protein for his benefit?
28. How does the Hardy- Weinberg’s expression 3
2 2
P +2PQ+Q =1. Explain that genetic equilibrium is
maintained in a population?
SECTION-D
Q. no. 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice
in one subpart.
29. Haemophilia is a sex linked disease which is also known 4
as bleeder’s disease as the patient will continue to bleed
even from a minor cut since he or she does not possess
the natural phenomenon of blood clotting due to
absence of anti-haemophilic globulin or factor VIII and
plasma thromboplastin factor IX essential for it. As a
result of continuous bleeding the patient may die of
blood loss. colour blindness is another type of sex linked
trait in which the eye fails to distinguish red and green
colour. Vision is however, not affected and the colour
blind can, lead a normal life, reading, writing and driving
(distinguishing traffic light by their position).
(i) If a haemophilic man marries a woman whose
father was haemophilic and mother was
normal then which of the following holds true
for their progenies?
(a) Of the total no. of daughters, 50%
daughters are carrier and 50% are
haemophilic.
(b) all the daughters are haemophilic.
(c) All sons are haemophilic and all daughters
are normal.
(d) All sons are normal and all daughters are
carrier.
(ii) A man whose father was colour blind and
mother was normal marries a woman whose
father was haemophilic and mother was
normal. Which of the following true for their
progenies?
(a) 25% female progenies carry the gene for
both haemophilia and colour blindness.
(b) 25% male progenies carry only the gene
of and colour blindness.
(c) 25% female progenies carry only the gene
of and colour blindness.
(d) 25% male progenies and 25% female
progenies carry the gene of haemophilia.
(iii) Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding haemophilia?
(a) It is dominant disease.
(b) A single protein involved in clotting of
blood is affected.
(c) It is recessive disease.
(d) It is mendelian disorder.
(iv) Anup is having colourblindness and married
to Soni who is normal. What is the chance
that their son will have the disease?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 0%
Or
A colour blind man marries the daughter of a
colour blind person. Then in their progeny
(a) None of their daughters are colour blind
(b) All the sons are colour blind
(c) All the daughters are colour blind
(d) Half of their sons are colour blind
30. The diagram below is a typical biogas plant. Carefully
understand the diagram and answer any four questions
given below.
(i) The label (a) and (b) in the diagram is
………and ………respectively.
(a) Sludge loader and gas holder
(b) Dung and Sludge loader
(c) Dung and gas holder
(d) Sludge loader and dung
(ii) The floating nature of(b) is due to…….
(a) Microbial activity
(b) Greenhouse effect
(c) BOD
(d) None of these
(iii) What is the main products of anaerobic
digestion?
(a) CO and H2
(b) CH4 and CO2
(c) CH4 and CO
(d) H2 and CO2
(iv) The group of organisms that act to produce
biogas is :
(a) methanogens
(b) bioactive molecules
(c) biocontrol agents
(d) biopesticides
Or
Under which condition the organisms be
most active and effective?
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
SECTION-E
31. Explain the development of human embryo with 5
diagrams.
Or
Explain the formation of an embryo sac of angiosperm
with diagrams.
32. Give an account of Hershey and Chase experiment. What 5
did it conclusively prove? If both DNA and proteins
contained phosphorus and sulphur do you think the
result would have been the same?
Or
Define an operon. Giving an example, explain an
Inducible operon.
33. Expand PCR? Describe the different Steps involved in this 5
technique?
Or
Study the figure of vector pBR322 given below in which
foreign DNA is ligated at the Bam H1 site of tetracyline
resistance gene.
Answer the following questions :

(a) Mention the function of rop.
(b) What will be the selectable marker for this
recombinant plasmid and why?
(c) Explain transformation.
Or
(a) rop codes for the proteins involved in the replication of plasmid
(b) Selectable marker ampicillin resistance gene. It will help distinguishing
transformants from non-transformants after plating them on ampicillin
containing medium.
(c) Transformation It is the phenomenon by which the DNA isolated from one
type of cell and introduced into another type and is able to bring about some of
the properties of former to the later.

(iii) Section-A has 16questions of 1 mark each Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each. Section-
C has 7 questions of 3 marks each and section-D has 02 case-based questions have 4 questions
of 1 mark each. Section E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
questions.
SECTION – A
1.Self pollination is fully ensured if
( a ) the flower is bisexual
( b) the style is longer than the filament
( c ) the flower is cleistogamous
( d) the time of the pistil and anther maturity is different
2.Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta
( a) hCG
( b ) estrogens
( c ) progesterone
( d ) LH
3. In sickle cell anaemia Glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for
valine
(a ) GGG
( b ) AAG
( c ) GAA
( D ) GUG
4.Which was the last human chromosomes to be completely sequenced
( a) Chromosome 1
( b ) Chromosome 11
( c ) Chromosome 21
( d ) Chromosome X
5.Which of the following antibodies formed innate immunity
( a) IgE
( b ) IgD
(c ) IgM
( d ) IgG
6. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant disease is
( a) Baculovirus
( b ) Bacillus thuringiensis
( c) Glomus
(d ) Trichoderma
7. Cry I endotoxins obtained from bacillus thuringiensis are effective against
( a) Nematodes
( b ) Bollworms
( c ) mosquitoes
( d ) flies
8. Which of the following is not a characterstics of the plasmids
( a) Extranuclear
( b ) single stranded
(c ) independent replication
( d ) circular DNA
9. Cuscuta is an example of
(a ) Ectoparasitisim
( b ) Brood parasitism
( c) predation
( d ) endoparasitims
10. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
( a ) Pond
( b) forest
( c) lake
( d ) Grassland
11.The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from
(A) datura
(b ) Rauwolfia
(c ) Atropa
( d ) Papaver
12. What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and Africian catfish
(a ) All are endangered species of India.
(b) All are key stone species.
( c) All are mammals found in India.
( d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.
D. A is False but R is true
13. Assertion :- The regions inside the seminiferous tubules contains Leydig cells.
Reason :- Leydigs cells synthesize and secrete androgens.
14. Assertion :- Haemophilia never occurs in Women
Reason :- Gene for haemophilia is located on X chromosome.
15. Assertion :- Morphine is useful for patient under depression.
Reason :- Morphine is a very effective sedative Pain killer.
16. Assertion :- Biodiversity is declining at an accelerated rate
Reason :- Exotic species cause extinction of endemic species.
SECTION – B
17. Name the hormonal composition of the oral contraceptive used by human females. Explain how does
it act as a contraceptive.
18. Explain the dual function of AUG codon. Give the sequence of bases it is transcribed from and its
anticodon ?
19. Name one plant and the addictive drug extracted from its latex. How does this drug affect the human
body?
20. Highlight any four advantages of genetically modified organisms (GMOs
21. How does the floral pattern of Mediterranean orchid Ophrys guarantee cross pollination?
SECTION –C
22.The generative cell of a 2 celled pollen divides in the pollen tube but not in a 3 celled pollen. Give
reason .
23 ( a) List any four characterstics of an ideal contraceptive.
( b) Nmae two intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the motility of sperms ?
24. Given below is one of the strands of a DNA segment :
3′→TACGTACGTACGTACG5′
(a) Write its complementary strand.
(b) Write a possible RNA strand that can be transcribed from the above DNA molecule formed.
25. "Post industrilisation the population of melanised moth increased in England at the expense of white
winged moths " Provide explanation.
26.( a) Name the protozoan parasites that cause amoebic dysentery in humans.
( b) Mention two diagnostic symptoms of the disease.
( c) How is the disease transmitted to others ?
27. Explain the action of the restriction endonuclease EcoRI.
OR
How is the DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis and visualized for use in constructing
recombinant DNA?
28. A couple believe that they have brought the wrong baby from the hospital. The wife is group O her
husband is group B and child is group O. Could the baby be their?
SECTION - D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.
29 Study the Pedigree chart given below and answer the questions that follow: 4
(a) On the basis of the inheritance pattern exhibited in this pedigree chart,
whatconclusion can you draw about the pattern of inheritance?
(b) If the female is homozygous for the affected trait in this pedigree chart,
thenwhat percentage of her sons will be affected ?

(c) Give the genotype of offsprings 1,2,3 and 4 in III generation.
OR
(c) In this type of inheritance pattern, out of male and female children which
onehas less probability of receiving the trait from the parents. Give a reason.
30. The data below shows the concentration of nicotine smoked by a smoker taking 10 4
puffs/ minute.
(a) With reference to the above graph explain the concentration of nicotine in
bloodat 10 minutes.
(b) How will this affect the concentration of carbon monoxide and
haemboundoxygen at 10 minutes?
(c) How does cigarette smoking result in high blood pressure and increase in heart
rate?
OR
(c) How does cigarette smoking result in lung cancer and emphysema?
SECTION –E
31. What is menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?
OR
Describe the process of microsporogenesis in angiosperm. Explain the role of tapetum in the
formation of pollen grain.
32. Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Explain the function of each
component in the unit in the process of transcription.
OR
A snapdragon plant homozygous for red flower when crossed with a white flowered plant of
the same species produced pink flowers in F1 generation. (a) What is this phenotypic
expression called? (b) Work out the cross to show the F2 generation when F1 was self-
pollinated. Give the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of F2 generation. (c) How do you compare
the F2 phenotypic and genotypic ratios with those of Mendelian monohybrid F2 ratios?
33. (a) Why is Bacillus thuingiensis considered suitable for developing GM plants ?
(b ) Explain how it has been used to develop GM crops ?
OR
Which methodology is used while sequencing the total DNA from a cell? Explain it in detail ?
SAMPLE PAPER- 14 (2022-23)

each.
questions.
SECTION – A
1.A genetic mechanism which prevents inbreeding depression in majority of angiospermic
plants is
( a) Parthenogenesis
( b) Parthenocarpy
( c) Mutation
( d ) Self- incompatability
2. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
( a) nucleus is removed
( b) ovaries are removed
( c ) small part of fallopian tube is removed.
( d) small part of vas deferens is removed .
3. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a ) Platypus
( b) Snails
( c) Peacock
( d) Cockroach.
4. If Meselson ad Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of
N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would be
(a) 1:1:0
(b) 1:4:0
(c ) 0:1:3
(d) 0:1:7
5. Homologous organs show
(a) natural selection
(b) divergent evolution
( c) genetic drift
( d) convergent evolution
6.LSD is obtained from
(a) Erythroxylum coca
( b)Cannabs sativa
( c ) Claviceps purpurea
(d) Papaver somniferum
7.Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
(a) ethanol
(b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
(c) citric acid
(d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
8.Agrose extracted from see weeds is used in
(a) spectrophotometry
(b) tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) gel electrophoresis
9.Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering because
a) They can cut DNA at specific base sequence
b) They can join different DNA fragments
c) Both A and B
d) None of this
10. Biopiracy is related to which of the following
a) traditional knowledge b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources
c) genes isolated from bioresources
d) All of the above
11.Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called

(a) standing crop
(b) detritus
(c) humus
(d) standing state
12.Of the total amount of energy that passes from one trophic level to another, about 10% is
(a) respired and becomes heat (b) passes out as faces or urine (c) stored as body tissue (d)
recycled to autotrophs
D. A is False but R is true
13. Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called
interstitial spaces. Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells.
14.Assertion :- Genetic drift refers to changes in allele frequency.
Reason :- Heritable variations enable survival of the fittest.
15.Assertion :- Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Reason :- Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs.
16.Assertion :- Tropical rainforest are rich in flora and fauna along with microbes on this
biosphere.
Reason :- The low latitude humid tropics harbor the rainforest ecosystem
SECTION – B
17. What are chasmogames flowers ?Can cross pollination occurs in cleistogamus flowers ? Give
reasons for your answer.
18. Write the probable differences in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo erectus ?
19. Write the source and the effect on the human body of the following drugs
(a) Morphine ( b ) Cocaine
20 Explain palindromic nucleotide sequence with the help of a suitable example ?
21.What is difference between endemic and exotic species ?
SECTION –C
22. Explain the process of charging of tRNA. Why is it essential in translation?
23. How do organisms manage with stressful conditions existing in their habitat for short
duration? Explain with the help of one example each.
24. The length of a DNA molecule in a typical mammalian cell is calculated to be approximately
2.2 metres. How is the packaging of this long molecule done to accommodate it within the
nucleus of the cell?
25. Draw a labelled diagram of sectional view of a human ovary showing various stages of
follicles growing in it.
26. (a) Expand IUD. (b) Why is hormone releasing IUD considered a good contraceptive to space
children?
27. Explain the role of baculoviruses as biological control agents. Mention their importance in
organic farming.
28. Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a natural genetic engineering of plants. What modification is
done on its Ti plasmid to convert it into a cloning vector?
SECTION - D
one subpart.
1. Observe following diagram and give answers.
(any 4)
i)Identify the following diagram.
a) Cistronic Unit
b) Replication Unit
c)Translation Unit
(d)Transcription Unit
ii)How many regions are there in given structure?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(iii)Which region provides binding site for RNA polymerase,

(a)Promoter
(b)Terminator
( c)Structural gene
( d ) Cistron
(iv)Which region is located towards 3'-end (downstream) of the coding strand
(a)Cistron
(b)Promoter
( c)Terminator
(d)Structural gene
OR
Which region located towards 5'-end (upstream) of the structural gene.
(a)Cistron
(b)Promoter
(c) Regulator
(d)Terminator
30. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows.
The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of memory of

the immune system. In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or
inactivated/ weakened pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body. The
antibodies would neutralise the pathogenic agents during the infection. The vaccine also
generates memory B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent
exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
(i) Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced from which microbes?
(ii)In which type of immunity, a quick immune response is needed as in tetanus infection,
preformed antibodies or antitoxin is injected into the patient body
(iii) Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that
are administered into the body contain which forms of pathogens?
(iv) Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have controlled which
of theinfectious diseases?
OR
What is an autoimmune disease?
SECTION –E
31. Explain with the help of a diagram the development of a mature embryo sac from a
megaspore mother cell in angiosperm.
OR
a. Draw and label the diagram of electron microscopic view of human sperm.
b. Illustrate the structure of TS of testis.
32. (i) Who explained the ‘transforming principle’ in an organism? How did the scientist
perform the experiment to explain this principle? (ii) How was the biochemical nature of
the transforming material determined? Explain.
OR
Inheritance pattern of ABO blood group in humans shows dominance, co-dominance
and multiple allelism. Explain each concept with the help of blood group genotypes.
33 Name and explain the techniques used in the separation and isolation of DNA fragments
to be used in recombinant DNA technology.
OR
(a) Why are engineered vectors preferred by biotechnologists for transferring the desired genes
into another organism? (b) Explain how do “ori”, “selectable markers” and “cloning sites”
facilitate cloning into a vector.
each.
questions.
SECTION:- A
Qno1. The aquatic plant having long and ribbon like pollen grains is
a) Vallisneria
b) Hydrilla
c) Eichornia
d) Zostera
Qno2. Name the hormone helps in the contraction of smooth muscles of myometrium of uterus
during parturition.
a) FSH
b) LH
c) Oxytocin
d) Estrogen
Qno3. Name the bacteria causing Syphilis
a) Salmonella
b) Trichomonas
c) Treponema
d) Neisseria
Qno4. Trisomy of 21st chromosome causes
a) Klinefilter syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Down’s syndrome
d) Sickle cell anaemia
Qno5. What is initiation codon?
a) UUU
b) AUG
c) UAG
d) UGA
Qno6. Phenomenon of industrial melanism proves
a) Natural selection
b) isolation
c) Speciation
d) Mutation
Qno7. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
a) Malaria
b) Pneumonia
c) Tuberculosis
d) Typhoid
Qno8. Which immunoglobulin is the largest in size?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgM
d) IgG
Qno9. A nitrogen – fixing microbe associated with Azolla in the rice fields is
a) Spirulina
b) Anabaena
c) Frankia
d) Rhizobium
Qno.10 The first transgenic crop was
a) Cotton
b) Pea
c) Tomato
d) Tobacco
Qno11 Molecular scissors is
a) Ligase
b) Restriction endonuclease
c) Restriction exonuclease
d) Helicase
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Qno.12 Assertion: Indo-Gangetic plains have high population density.
Reason: These have favourable climate and fertile soil.
Qno.13 Assertion: Pyramids of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is inverted.
Reason: Pyramid of biomass in an aquatic ecosystem is always upright.
Qno14. Assertion: The nature and properties of soil in different place vary.
Reason: Soil is dependent on the climate and the weathering process.
Qno15 Assertion: In a terrestrial ecosystem, detritus food chain is a major conduit for energy
flow.
Reason: Solar energy is direct source of energy supply in detritus food chain.
Qno16 Assertion: Species are groups of potentially interbreeding natural populations which are
isolated from other such groups.
Reason: Distinctive morphological characters are displayed due to reproductive isolation.
SECTION:- B
Qno17 What are interferons and how they act ?
Qno18 Name the hormones releasing IUDs and their role.
Qno19. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of Amniocentesis?
Qno20 What is downstream processing?
Qno21 Write a short note on Commensalism with suitable example?
SECTION:- C
Qno.22 What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place ? Name the nuclei involved in
triple fusion.
Qno23. Who proposed Chromosomal theory of inheritance ? Enlist three main points of this
theory.
Qno24. What is metastasis? Differentiate between normal cell and cancerous (any three).
Qno25. What is plasmid ? What is the role of ‘Ori' gene and 'Selectable marker’ gene on a
plasmid?
Qno26. Analysis of age pyramids for human population can provide important inputs for long
term planning strategies. Explain.
Qno27. What is gametogenesis? Diagrammatic representation of Oogenesis with different
phases.
Qno28. What is Natural selection? Explain genetic basis of adaptation in industrial melanism.
SECTION:- D
Qno 29 Case study based question.
We use microbes or products which are derived from them every day. A common example is
the production of curd from milk. Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others commonly
called lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd. The dough, which is used for
making foods such as dosa and idli is also fermented by bacteria. A number of traditional drinks
and foods are also made by fermentation by microbes. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink in some
parts of southern India is made by fermenting sap from palms. The ‘Roquefort cheese’ is
ripened by growing specific fungi on them, which gives them a particular flavour. Different
varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste, the specificity
coming from the microbes used.
1)Which of the following organisms is used in the production of beverages?
a) Penicillium notatum
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Clostridium butylic
d) Clostridium butylicum
2 ) Microbes are present in
a) Soil
b) thermal vent
c) polluted water
d) all of the above
3)Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used primarily for
a) Baking
b) Bleaching
c) Biofuel
d) none of the above
4)The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to
a) Production of a large amount of CO2
b) Production of O2
c) Due to the presence of water
d) None of these
Qno 30 Some restriction enzymes break a phosphodiester bond on both the DNA strands, such
that only one end of each molecule is cut and these ends have regions of single stranded DNA.
BamH1is one such restriction enzyme which binds at the recognition sequence, 5’-GGATCC-
3’and cleaves these sequences just after the 5’- guanine on each strand.
a) Explain how the gene of interest is introduced into a vector.
b) If Bam H1 cut the dna sequence how many dna fragments would you expect.
c) What are palindrome sequence with suitable example?( 2 marks)
SECTION:- E
Qno31 What is spematogenesis? Diagrammatic representation of spematogenesis. What
changes occur during spermiogenesis ?
Or
a) Name the hormone responsible for parturition and their role.
b) What is foetal ejection reflex?
c) How polyspermy is prevented by cortical reaction?
Qno32 What is dihybrid cross? Diagrammatic representation of dihybrid cross with the help of
punnet square and what is the genotype ratio of dihybrid cross.
Qno33 How is a mature insulin different from proinsulin secreted by panceas in humans.
Explain how was human functional insulin produced using rDNA technology. Why is the
functional insulin thus produced considered better than the once used earlier by diabetic
patients.
Or
Write a short note on
a) Biopiracy
b) Gene therapy
c) Name the source of agrose gel.
d) Name the polymerase used for PCR.
e) Name the nematode infect the roots of tobacco plant.

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कें द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

क्षेत्रीय कायाालय, जम्मू, नज़दीक राजकीय विककत्सालय, गााँधी नगर

S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

Choose the correct match:

14 Assertion: Haemophilia is a genetic disorder generally found in males. 1

15 Assertion: Cry gene expressing crop is resistant to a group of insects. 1

a.Label the three tiers 1, 2, 3 given in the above age pyramid.

(i) Sickle cell anaemia is

33 Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of 5

S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

14 Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system. 1

33 a) What is the difference between pro-insulin and mature insulin? 5

9 Both the species benefit in

7 Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism? 1

27 Compare the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops. 3

SAMPLE PAPER-5 (2022-23)

Class: 12 Subjects: Biology (044)

Time: 3 Hours M.M.:70

(i) All questions are compulsory

B) Development of pollen grain

C) Development of male gametophyte

D) Development of female gametophyte

2. The embryo sac of angiosperms contains

A) 3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells and 2 polar nuclei

B) 2 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells and 2 polar nuclei

C) 3 celled egg apparatus, 2 antipodal cells and 1 polar nuclei

D) 3 celled egg apparatus, 1 antipodal -cell and 2 polar nuclei

Reason: Tapetum secretes enzymes as well as hormone.

C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

4. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in:

A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts

B) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria

C) Ribosomes and chloroplasts

D) Lysosomes and ribosomes

A) All dwarf plants

B) 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants

C) 75 % tall and 25 % dwarf plants

D) 100% tall plants

C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

a) Two or more closely related species in the same environment

c) Unrelated species in the same environment

13. The pyramid of energy will always be?

a) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected

b) both the species are harmed

c) one species is harmed and other is benefitted

d) one species is harmed and other is unaffected

b) It will first decline and then stabilize

29.(i) who governs sex determination in humans?

29(ii) sex determination in humans male is:

29(iii) in birds female is:

29(IV) total no of autosomes chromosomes pairs are present in humans:

SAMPLE PAPER-6 (2022-23)

Class: 12 Subjects: Biology (044)

Time: 3 Hours M.M.:70

(i) All questions are compulsory

2. After spermiogenesis sperm head become embedded in?