HISTOPATHOLOGY

SESSION 1

1. Type of Necrosis wherein cells undergo lysis rapidly.

A. Caseous B. Coagulative C. Colliquative D. Gangrenous

2. Type of Necrosis usually seen in Smooth muscles.

A. Caseous B. Coagulative C. Colliquative D. Fibrinoid

3. It is the complete lysis of the Nuclei.

A. Karyorrhexis B. Karyolysis C. Pyknosis D. Margination

4. Term used to describe a Fragmented nucleus.

A. Pyknosis B. Karyolysis C. Karyorrhexis D. Margination

5. Bacterial toxins can cause what type of Necrosis?

A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulative C. Gangrenous D. Fibrinoid

6. Nuclear change generally seen in apoptosis

A. Margination B. Pyknosis C. Karyorrhexis D. Karyolysis

7. It is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel-like) substance in dead tissues in which the
architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy.
A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulative C. Gangrenous D. Fibrinoid

8. What is the term used to define diseases as well as deaths attributed to the Physician?
A. Nutritional Derangements B.Psychogenic Diseases C.Iatrogenic Causes D.Idiopathic Diseases

9. This type of disease/s means “of unknown cause”.

A. Nutritional Derangements B.Psychogenic Diseases C.Iatrogenic Causes D.Idiopathic Diseases

10. These are terms that used to define cases wherein there is lack of supply of blood or of oxygen in the
Body.
A. Hypoxia B. Ischemia C. Both D. Neither

SESSION 2

1. The term used for the heat felt at the area of inflammation
A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor

2. Mononuclear cells predominantly are present in this type of inflammation.

A. Subacute B. Acute C. Chronic D. Serous

3. Watery fluid seen in the cavity using a microscope is characteristic of what type of Exudate?
A. Fibrinous B. Catarrhal C. Suppurative D. Serous

4. What type of Inflammation is usually seen in Pleural, pericardial and Peritoneal surfaces?
A. Catarrhal B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Fibrinous
5. Type of inflammation wherein large amounts of pus is produced.
A. Suppurative B. Phlegmonous C. Hemorrhagic D. Catarrhal

6. Inflammation occuring septicemic diseases like anthrax and pasturellosis.

A. Catarrhal B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative

7. Pus which is colored blue-green is caused by?

A. Pseudomonas B.Listeria C. Streptococcus D. Pasturella

8. It is referred to as the Redness seen in the area of inflammation.

A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor

9. It is the Pain felt on the site/s of inflammation.

A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor

10. Vesicles, Pox, burns of second degree are under what type of Exudate?
A. Fibrinous B. Catarrhal C.Serous D. Purulent

11. Incomplete/defective development of a tissue/organ most commonly seen in one paired structure.
A. Aplasia B. Hypoplasia C. Agenesia D. Atresia

12. It is the failure of an organ to reach its full, mature size.

A. Aplasia B. Hypoplasia C. Agenesia D. Atresia

13. Reversible change involving transformation in one type of adult cell to another
A.Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

14.Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control (usually with no purpose or function)
A.Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

15. This generally consists of an expansion of immature cells, with a corresponding decrease in the
number and location of mature cells.
A.Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

16. Suffix used for malignant neoplasm in epithelial cells

A.-oma B. -sarcoma C. -carcinoma D. -coma

17. Benign tumor of the Bone cells

A. Hepatosarcoma B. Osteoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteocarcinoma

18. Benign tumor of the kidney

A. Renal Adenoma B. Renal Adenosarcoma C.Renal adenocarcinoma D. Reneonoma

19. It is an encapsulated tumor with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of all
three germ layers.
A. Meratoma B. Teratoma C. Carcinoma D. Pangtoma

10. What is the other name for anaplasia?

A. Dedifferentiation B. Atypical hyperplasia C. Tumor D. Redifferentiation
SESSION 3

1. Normally found from puberty, after childbirth, with abortion and menopause
A. parabasal cell
B. Navicular cell
C. Intermediate cell
D. Pregnancy cells

2. Medium sized polyhedral cells with basophilic vacuolated cytoplasm

A. parabasal cell
B. Navicular cell
C. Intermediate cell
D. Endocervical cell

3. Found 1-10 days after menstruation and are shed in response to ovarian hormones
A. Endometrial
B. mature superficial
C. Intermediate cell
D. Pregnancy cells

4.Patient identification on the Cytologic slide can be done using________

A. Ball pen
B. Diamond point pen
C. Pencil
D. Mechanical pen

5. In determination of genetic sex, Barr bodies can be observed in what specimen?

A. Oral/buccal mucosa
B. Vaginal mucosa
C. Both
D.Neither

6. Collection method for patients with hysterectomy

A. Vaginal scrape
B. Endocervical brush
C. Lateral vaginal scrape
D.Vulvar scrape

7. Cytologic method for detection of Herpetic lesions and carcinoma

A. Vaginal scrape
B. Endocervical brush
C. Lateral vaginal scrape
D.Vulvar scrape

8. Cytologic method used for Hormonal evaluation

A. Vaginal scrape
B. Endocervical brush
C. Lateral vaginal scrape
D.Vulvar scrape

9. Honeycomb appearance:
A. Koilocytes
B. Basal cells
C. Intermediate cells
D. Endocervical glandular

10. You can visualize a group of parabasal cells in these situations except for:
A. 2 weeks of age to puberty
B. After menopause
C. After child birth
D. Before menopause

SESSION 4

1. They are used to produce substances with temperatures below -153Oc

A. Cryogen
B. Cryokwik
C. Cryostat
D. Thermophile

2. Which of the following chemicals is potentially explosive?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Picric acid
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Hydrochloric acid

3. All of the following are known oxidizers, except:

A. sodium iodate
B. mercuric oxide
C. chromic acid
D. silver solutions

4. Which of the following is the preferred equipment for tending to a person who is not breathing?
A. Defibrillator
B. Resuscitation bag and mask
C. Mouth to mouth resuscitation
D. Vicks VapoRub

5. All of the following are toxic materials capable of causing death in small doses, except:
A. Methanol B. Chromic acid C. Osmium tetroxide D. Dihydrogen monoxide

6. Which of the following is a required basic information that should be seen on the labels of chemicals?
A. Hazard warnings
B. Nutritional value
C. sp orbital of the chemicals
D. boiling point

7. Resting the wrist or forearm against the sharp edge and corner is an example of what ergonomic risk
factor?
A. Awkward postures
B. Duration
C. Repetition
D. Contact stress

8. All of the following are carcinogens except:

A. Auramine
B. Basic Fuchsin
C. Benzidine
D. Methanol

9. Flash point of the combustible materials is usually at what temperature?

A. 100oF
B. 112oF
C. 212oF
D. 312oF

10. They cause allergic reactions in some exposed workers, not just in hypersensitive individuals.
A. Corrosives
B. irritants
C. Sensitizers
D. Carcinogens

SESSION 5

It is done by placing a drop of secretion or sediment upon one slide and facing it to another clean slide.
A. Touch prep
B. Pull-apart
C. Smear
D. Squash
E. Teasing prep

2. Cryostat is a cold chamber used for Frozen sections and is usually kept at what temperature?
A.-5-25 degrees C
B. -0-10 Degrees C
C. 10-30 Degrees C
D. -10-20 Degrees C

3. Special way of preserving tissues by rapid freezing by Quenching (100-160 Degrees C)

A. Freeze-Substitution
B. Freeze-Drying
C. Cryotomy
D. Cryofixation

4. Vital stains can be used for what fresh tissue examination method?
A. Teasing
B. Spreading
C. pull apart
D. Touch prep

5. What is the main disadvantage of using Liquid nitrogen as a freezing agent?

A. Toxic to the environment
B. Very slow freezing agent
C. Produces ice crystals or freeze artifacts
D. Explosive material

6. This type of smear preparation is especially recommended for smear preparations of fresh sputum
and bronchial aspirates?
A. Spreading
B. Pull-apart
C. Streaking
D. touch prep

7. This type of Smear preparation has an added advantage of examining the cells without destroying
their intercellular relationship.
A. Spreading
B. Pull-apart
C. Streaking
D. touch prep

8. Freeze-substitution uses _____ as a fixative (preservative).

A. Rossman’s formula
B. 1% Acetone
C. Both
D. Neither

9. It is the simplest, least invasive surgical procedure for procuring the needed sample for fresh tissue
examination.
A. Core needle
B. Trephination
C.. Fine needle
D. Curetting

10. The technique involves the use of a circular blade that is rotated down through the epidermis and
dermis, and into the subcutaneous fat, yielding a 3-4 mm cylindrical core of the tissue sample.
A. Shave
B. Punch
C. Fine needle
SESSION 6

All of the following are done by the clearing process, except:

A. Transferring dehydrated tissue to an intermediate solvent that is fully miscible with both ethanol and
paraffin wax
B. To remove substantial amount of fat from the tissue which otherwise presents a barrier to wax
infiltration
C. They impart an optical clarity or transparency to the tissue
D. Clears the cell of their constituent for a “Clearer” view

2. Section cutting is also known as?

A. Trimming
B. Remodeling
C. Microtomy
D. Impregnation

3. What is the preferred medium for infiltration and embedding process?

A. Paraffin
B. Celloidin
C. Gelatin
D. Agarose

4. All of the following are suitable factors that may speed up the process of tissue processing, Except:
A. Increased agitation
B. Increased temperature
C. Thinner tissue sections
D. Reduced pressure

5. What is the usual buffer used for maintaining the optimum pH of Formaldehyde solutions?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Picric acid
D. Phosphate

6. Dehydration of the tissues with ethanol is done in _____________ to facilitate proper water removal.
A. Decreasing concentration
B. Increasing concentration
C. Same concentrations
D. Any concentration

7. What is the process that follows after Fixing the tissue?

A. Clearing
B. Infiltration
C. Decalcification
D. Labeling

8. The temperature of the warm bath should be kept at __________ the melting point of the wax.
A. 5-10Oc
B. 10-15oC
C. 20oC
D. 3oC

9. They are the most commonly employed embedding media for semi-thin and ultrathin section.
A. Prosthetics
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxy
D. Celloidin

10. What is the most common clearing agent used in the histopath laboratory?
A. Acetone
B. Xylene
C. Benzene
D. Porthuene

SESSION 7

1. Using the Rapid Microwave processing removes what step in tissue processing?
A. Clearing B. Dehydration C.Fixation D. Infiltration

2. Microwave processing can be ________ faster than conventional processing time with an hourly
throughput of up to 120 specimens.
A. 50% B. 70% C. 100% D. 250%

3. The optimum temperature for staining methods using metallic compounds in RTP is ________.
A. 75-95 C B. 80-105 C C. 65-75 C D. 55-60 C

4. One of the main advantages of using automated microwave processing compared to the conventional
kitchen type microwaves is:
A. Less toxic wastes
B. Less consumption of electricity
C. More precise maintenance of temperature
D. Uneven distribution of heat in the tissue

5. What is the boiling point of Ethanol?

A. 80oC B. 72oC C. 100oC D. 150oC

6. This type of smear preparation is especially recommended for smear preparations of fresh sputum
and bronchial aspirates?
A. Spreading
B. Pull-apart
C. Streaking
D. touch prep

7. This type of Smear preparation has an added advantage of examining the cells without destroying
their intercellular relationship.
A. Spreading
B. Pull-apart
C. Streaking
D. touch prep

8. Freeze-substitution uses _____ as a fixative (preservative).

A. Rossman’s formula
B. 1% Acetone
C. Both
D. Neither

9. It is the simplest, least invasive surgical procedure for procuring the needed sample for fresh tissue
examination.
A. Core needle
B. B. Trephination
C. Fine needle
D. Curetting

10. The technique involves the use of a circular blade that is rotated down through the epidermis and
dermis, and into the subcutaneous fat, yielding a 3-4 mm cylindrical core of the tissue sample.
A. Shave
B. Punch
C. Fine needle
D. curetting

SESSION 8

1. This Method of fixation is primarily used to accelerate other forms of fixation as well as the next steps
in processing.
A. Freezing B. Heat C. Vapor fixation D. Secondary Fixation

2. 400-450 mOsm is considered _________ for a fixative:

A. Hypotonic B. Hypertonic C. Isotonic D. Super Tonic

3. Postmortem decomposition is also known as:

A. Autolysis B. Apoptosis C. Necrosis D. Symbiosis

4. The primary aim of Fixation is:

A. To harden the tissue
B. To preserve the tissue
C. To distort the tissue
D. To Dehydrate the tissue

5. All of the following are Additive type of Fixatives, Except:

A. Formalin B. Mercury C. Osmium Tetroxide D. Alcohols
6. All of the following are must be preserved by Fixation, except:
a. Shape
b. Structure
c. Degeneration of cellular constituents
d. Chemical Constituents

7. Fixation can be improved by the ff, except:

A. Agitation B. Heat C. Microwave D. Presence of mucus

8. What is the preferred thickness of a tissue section to be examined using electron microscope?
A. 1-2 mm2 B. 5 cm2 C. 1 cm 2 D. 0.9 cm2

9. What is the recommended time for primary fixation in buffered formalin?

A. 1-day B. 12 hours C. 8-10 hours D. 6 hours

10. it is the most common fixing agent used

A. 1% glutaraldehyde
B. 3-4% Lead
C. 10% Formaldehyde
D. Mercuric chloride

SESSION 9

1. Polymerized form of formaldehyde, usually obtained as a fine white powder, which depolymerizes
when heated
A. Paraformaldehyde B. Metaformaldehyde C. Glutaraldehyde D. Karnovsky’s solution

2. Recommended for preservation of CNS tissues and general post-mortem tissues for histochemical
examination
A. 10% NB Formalin B. 10% Formol saline C. Gendre’s D. Formal-sublimate

3. Which of the following fixatives contains Mercuric chloride?

A. 10% Bouins B. 10% Formol saline C. Gendre’s D. Formal-sublimate

4. Which of the Following is not a Nuclear fixative?

A. Bouin’s B. Flemming’s C. Carnoy’s D. Regaud’s

5. Which of the following is a Nuclear and a Histochemical fixative at the same time?
A. Newcomer’s B. Flemming’s C. Acetone D. Regaud’s

6. Type of Fixation used for Bacteriologic Smears

A. Freezing B.Heat Fixation C.Butanol d.Glutaraldehyde

7. Formalin + Sodium Phosphate

A. Neutral Buffered formalin B.Zenker-formol C.Formol-Saline D.Formol-Calcium

8 Which of the following doesn't belong to Physical Fixation

A. Heat b. Freezing c. Microwave d. Immersion
9. Preserves cellular structures better, hence recommended for enzyme histochemistry and electron
microscopy.
A. Paraformaldehyde B. Karnovsky’s P-G C. Glutaraldehyde D. osmium tetroxide

10. Which of the following is included in the formula for 10% Neutral buffered formalin?
A. Sodium Dihydrogen Phosphate B. Disodium Hydrogen Phosphate C. Distilled water D. all of the
choices

SESSION 18

1. A related procedure to Staining that makes use of Heavy metal salts which precipitates on certain
cellular and tissue Components.
A. Infiltration B. Staining C. Blueing D. NOTA

2. This serves as a link or bridge between tissue and the dye to make staining reaction possible.
A. Accentuator B. Mordant C. Stain D. Counterstain

3. A reagent not essential to the chemical union of the tissue and dye. It does not participate in the
staining reaction.
A. Accentuator B. Mordant C. Stain D. Counterstain

4. The process whereby tissue elements are stained in a definite sequence and the staining solution is
applied for specific periods of time.
A. progressive B. regressive C. Degressive D. Decolorization

5.It is the selective removal of excess stain from the tissue .

A. progressive B. regressive C. Degressive D. Decolorization

6. Process where tissue is first overstained to obliterate the cellular details .

A. progressive B. regressive C. Degressive D. Decolorization

7.Use of dyes which differentiate substance in a section by staining them with a color that is different
from the stain Itself.
A. Regressive staining B. Progressive C. Orthochromatic D. Metachromatic

8.It is the application of a different color or stain to provide contrast and background.
A. Overstaining B. Counterstaining C.Metastaining D. Decolorization

9. The Best vital dye

A. Trypan blue B. Nile blue C. Neutral Red D. Thionine

10. All of the are Intravital stains except:

A. Lithium B. Thionine C. India ink D. Carmine

SESSION 19
1. It is recommended for staining Triglycerides, giving them an Intense red stain.
A. Sudan III B. Sudan IV C. Sudan Black D. Oil Red O

2. First Sudan dye to be introduced into Histochemistry.

A. Sudan III B. Sudan IV C. Sudan Black D. Oil Red O

3. Used for the demonstration of Neuroglia in frozen sections.

A. Prussian blue B. Osmium Tetroxide C. Rhodamine B D. Victoria blue

4. Used for counterstaining of epithelial sections.

A. Acridine Red B. Night blue C. Aniline Blue D. Lissamine green

5. Basic fuchsin solution used for staining Hemoglobin.

A. Schiff’s B. Coleman’s C. Benzidine D. Carbol-fuchsin

6. Used as Aqueous solution in Krajian’s method of staining amyloid.

A. Congo Red B. Neutral red C. Victoria blue D. Bismarck brown

7. Used as a contrast stain for Gram’s Technique, in acid fast and Papanicolau method.
A. Congo Red B. Neutral red C. Victoria blue D. Bismarck brown

8. Used for staining Astrocytes (they appear black on a brownish background)

A. Weil’s B. Modified Holzer’s C. Luxol Fast blue D. Cajal’s

9. Colored salt of ferric ferrocyanide utilized as an Intravital stain.

A. Picric acid B. Rhodamine B C. Ferric Black D. Prussian blue

10. Substitute for Carbol fuchsin in acid fast staining.

A. Neutral Red B. Night blue C. Methyl green D.Night blue

11. Which of the following is Not used as a mordant for Hematoxylin?

A. Iron B. Tungsten C. Zinc D. Magnesium

12. Example of a Basic stain.

A. Methylene blue B. Neutral Red C. Fuchsin D. Romanowsky dye

13. It is the Staining solution most commonly used for Routine Histologic studies.
A. Orcein B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Wright’s

14. Aside from Eosin Y, which of the following is/are also forms of Eosin?
A. Eosin B B. Eosin S C. Eosin D D. A and B C. B and C

15. Heidenhain's Hematoxylin uses __________ as a mordant.

A.Ferric Ammonium Iodate B. Ferric Ammonium Sulfate C.Ferric Ammonium Chloride D. Ferric
ammonium Molybdate

16. What dye is Normally Colorless but when treated with ammonia and exposed to air, produces blue
or violet colors?
A. Hematoxylin B. Cochineal C. Coal Tar D. Orcein
17. What is added to Chromogen to improve the retaining of color?
A. Chromophore B. Decolorizer C. Auxochrome D. Lysochrome

18. Simple benzene compounds + Chromophores=?

A. Auxochrome B. Chromogen C. Chromophore D. Lysochrome

19. Also known as Coal tar Dyes.

A. Synthetic B. Natural C. Orcein D. Saffron

20. Most commonly used Eosin stain

A. Eosin-phloxine B B. Eosin X C. Eosin Y D. Eosin RED

SESSION 20

1. Van Gieson’s Acid fuchsin-Picric acid stain will dye the collagen fibers with what color?
A. Pink B. Deep Red C. Both D. Neither

2. Periodic Acid Schiff with Diastase specifically measure __________.

A. Glycogen B. Glucose C. Glycine D. all Carbohydrates

3.Carmine stain, when combined with Alum chloride, can be used to stain?
A. Proteins B. Histones C. Myelin sheath D. Glycogen

4. It employs basic fuchsin plus aldehyde to demonstrate sulfur-containing compounds.

A. Gomori’s Aldehyde Fuchsin B. Mucicarmine C. Colloidal Iron Technique D. Fluorescent Acridine
orange

5. It uses the conventional Perl’s technique to visualize Acid mucins

A. Gomori’s Aldehyde Fuchsin B. Mucicarmine C. Colloidal Iron Technique D. Fluorescent Acridine
orange

6. It is the most popular method for general demonstration of Acid mucopolysaccharides.

A. Combined Alcian Blue-PAS-Hematoxylin B. Mucicarmine C. Alcian Blue D. Fluorescent Acridine orange

7. The most useful metachromatic dye for acid mucin is _________.

A. Azure B B. Azure A C. Uranyl nitrate D. Toluidine blue

8. This method is selective but not as highly specific for glycogen as the PAS method with or without
diastase.
A. Azure B B. Best Carmine C. Toluidine Blue D. Mucicarmine

9. A good quality Schiff’s reagent should be made from __________rather than Basic fuchsin
A. Rosanilin B. Pararosanilin C. Magenta II D. Azure B

10. What is the commonly used counterstain for PAS staining?

A. Hematoxylin B. Eosin C. Touidine blue D. Alcian Blue
11. It is recommended for staining Triglycerides, giving them an Intense red stain.
A. Sudan III B. Sudan IV C. Sudan Black D. Oil Red O

12. First Sudan dye to be introduced into Histochemistry.

A. Sudan III B. Sudan IV C. Sudan Black D. Oil Red O

13. Most sensitive of all the oil soluble dyes.

A. Sudan black B. Sudan IV C. Sudan III D. Oil red O

14. Fat: Brilliant red, Nuclei- Blue. What is the stain being referred to?
A. Borohydride-Periodic Schiff B. Nile red sulfate C. oil Red O D. Peracetic Acid-Alcian blue

15. Fat/Lipid Cells- Black, Nuclei- Yellow-Orange

A. Sudan IV B. Toluidine blue-acetine C. Borohydide-PAS D. Osmic acid

16. It is the property of tissues to be stained with fat or oil-soluble dyes, regardless of the type used, due
to their essential lipid nature.
A. Lysochromia B. Sudanophilia C. Sudanephilia D. Lysophilia

17. They are esters of fatty acids with alcohols and are usually found in the body as energy stores in
adipose tissue.
A. Simple Lipids B. Derived Lipids C. Compound Lipids D. Complicated Lipids

18. It is the fixative of choice for lipid histochemistry

A. Osmic Acid B. Cold Absolute Alcohol C. Formol-calcium D. Formol-saline

19. It is the most important component of cellular membranes

A. Glycolipids B. Glycoproteins C. Phospholipids D. Triglycerides

20. It is not a dye but is an unstable oxide which is reduced to a permanent black substance by
unsaturated fats and fatty acids
A. Sudan IV B. Oil Red O C. Borohydide-PAS D. Osmic acid

SESSION 21

1. Used for the demonstration of Neuroglia in frozen sections.

A. Prussian blue B. Osmium Tetroxide C. Rhodamine B D. Victoria blue

2.It is a mixture of picric acid and Acid fuchsin for the demonstration of Connective tissues.
A. Von kossa’s B. Von ebner’s C. Van gieson’s D. Van Gogh

3. Used for staining Astrocytes (they appear black on a brownish background)

A. Weil’s B. Modified Holzer’s C. Luxol Fast blue D. Cajal’s

4. Amyloid- Red on a Clear background, Nuclei- Blue. What is the stain being referred to?
A. Highman’s Congo red B. Verhoeff’s C. Krajian’s D. PTAH mallory’s

5. Nissl subs- Puple dark blue, Neurons pale blue, Cell Nuclei- Purple blue.
A. Weigert-pal B. Cresyl fast violet C. Sevier-Munger technique D. Rapid toluidine blue
6. It is a common laboratory technique used to make many copies of a particular region of DNA.
A. In-situ Hybridization B. PCR C. RT-PCR D. Western Blot

7. DNA – Green or Blue Green, RNA – Red-rose; granules (dark-rose-red)

A. Acridine Orange B. Fluorescein C. Methyl green-Pyronin D. Feulgen

8. Most commonly used fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA.

A. Acridine Orange B. Fluorescein C. Methyl green-Pyronin D. Rhodamine

9. Albumins and Globulins are types of:

A. Simple proteins B. Compound Proteins C. Derived proteins D. Denatured proteins

10. Cystine and Cysteine – Blue green coloration

A. Peracetic Acid-Alcian Blue B. Alkaline Fast-green C. Alcian blue-PAS D. Peracetic acid-PAS

SESSION 22

1. Which of the following is not demonstrated in Proteolytic enzyme method of Antigen retrieval?
A. Light chain Igs B. Heavy Chain Igs C. Complement D. Specific Epitopes

2. Carcinomas of the Stomach and colon

A. CK 7 positive B. CK 20 Positive C. Both positive D. Both Negative

3. Squamous cell carcinomas

A. CK 7 positive B. CK 20 Positive C. Both positive D. Both Negative

4. Most satisfactory time period for Microwave Antigen retrieval

A. 15 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 45 minutes

5. Positive in Thyroid, lung and Neuroendocrine tumors

A. TTF-1 B. CEA C. PLAP D. EMA E. Desmin

6. Positive in Leiomyoma and Rhabdomyosarcoma

A. Actin B. Vimentin C. Desmin D. GFAP E. Neurofilament

7. Expressed by CNS tissues/Glial cells; Also expressed by Astrocytes

A. Actin B. Vimentin C. Desmin D. GFAP E. Neurofilament

8. All of the following are helpful in the diagnosis of Fibrohistiocytic tumors except?
A. CD68 B. FAM 56 C. CD31 D. Alpha-Antitrypsin E. C and D

9. All of the following are helpful in the diagnosis of Melanomas except?

A. S100 B. HMD-45 C. UEA D. Melan-A

10.All of the following are Markers for B-Cell Except?

A. CD19 B. CD20 C. CD23 D. CD30

SESSION 23
1. Term used for Post mortem lividity and purplish discoloration.
A. Algor mortis B. Livor mortis C. Rigor mortis D. Caynosis

2. Stiffening of the skeletal muscle after death.

A. Algor mortis B. Livor mortis C. Rigor mortis D. NOTA

3. Cooling of the body after death.

A. Algor mortis B. Livor mortis C. Rigor mortis D. Cryogenation

4. Invasion of Bacterial flora in the dead body

A. Dessication B. Autolysis C. Putrefaction D. Necrosis

5.Removal of Visceral organs:

A. Dissection B. Visceration C. Evisceration D. Sectioning

6. Instant Cause of death of the patient:

A. Underlying cause B. Immediate Cause C. Contributory cause D. NOTA

7. Most reliable measure of the time of death.

A. Algor Mortis B. Rigor Mortis C. Livor Mortis D. NOTA

8. Process of taking pieces of tissue from a dead person for the purpose of examination or investigation
A. Forensic sampling B. Autopsy C. Necropsy D. Antemortem examination

9. The cadaver is opened from both shoulder regions down to the xiphoid area, then incised down to the
pubic region.
A. U-Incision B. T-Incision C. Y-Incision D. Straight Cut incision

10. A person died of unknown disease; the physician would like to know the final diagnosis. Who is
authorized to give consent for autopsy?
A. The Deceased himself
B. The attending physician
C. Next of kin or the nearest relative
D. NBI officials must perform the autopsy