ADDITIONAL OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS b. You least a car and pay by the month.

c. Your company undertakes a mining

AND ANSWERS IN ESAS project in which the land must be
reclaimed at the end of the project.
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
d. You invest in a safe dividend stock
1. Which of the following expression is incorrect? and receive dividends each year.
a. The future worth of a present amount,
(F/P, i, n) = 1/(P/F, i, n) 7. A project has the cash flow shown.
b. The future worth of an annuity, Theoretically, how many internal rates of return
(F/A, i, n) = 1/(A/F, i, n) can be calculated for it?
c. The present worth of an annuity,
(F/A, i, n) = 1/(A/P, i, n)
d. (A/F, i, n) – i = (A/P, i, n)

2. When using net present worth calculations to

compare two projects, which of the following
could invalidate the calculation? a. 2
a. differences in the magnitudes of the b. 3
projects c. 4
b. evaluating over different time d. 5
periods
c. mutually exclusive projects 8. The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defined as
d. nonconventional cash flows the order quantity that minimizes the inventory
cost per unit time. Which of the following is NOT
3. What must two investments with the same an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no
present worth and unequal lives have? shortages?
a. identical salvage values a. The demand rate is uniform and
b. different salvage values constant.
c. identical uniform annual cash flows b. There is a positive cost on each unit
d. different equivalent uniform annual inventoried.
cash flows c. The entire reorder quantity is delivered
instantaneously.
4. What is the formula for straight line depreciation d. There is an upper bound on the
rate? quantity ordered.
a. (100% - % net salvage value) /
estimated service life 9. Which of the following events will cause the
b. % net salvage value / estimated service optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model
life with no shortages, to increase?
c. 100% net salvage value / estimated a. a decrease in inventory carrying cost
service life b. a decrease in demand
d. average net salvage value / estimated c. an increase in demand
service life d. either option ‘a’ or ’c’

5. Which of the following is true regarding 10. What is a borrower of a particular loan almost
minimum attractive rate of return used in always required to do during repayment?
judging proposed investments? a. pay exactly the same amount of interest
a. It is the same for every organization. each payment
b. It is larger than the interest rate used to b. repay the loan over an agreed-upon
discount expected cash flow from amount of time
investments c. pay exactly the same amount of the
c. It is frequently a policy decision principal each payment
made by an organization’s d. both options ‘a’ and ‘c’
management.
d. It is not relevant in engineering 11. What is “work in process” classified as?
economy studies a. an asset
b. a liability
6. Which of the following situations has a c. an expense
conventional cash flow so that an internal rate d. a revenue
of return can be safely calculated and used?
a. You purchase a house and pay the bank 12. What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending
in monthly installments. variance?

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 1

 a. the difference between the actual IPC 19. Which of the following is NOT a basic
and IPC absorbed component of motion of a fluid element?
b. the difference between the IPC and a. translation
IPC volume-adjusted budget b. rotation
c. IPC volume-adjusted budget (fixed + c. angular distortion
(volume)(variable IPC rate)) d. twist
d. IPC volume-adjusted budget minus the
total IPC absorbed 20. Which of the following must be satisfied by the
flow of any liquid, real or ideal?
13. How is the material purchase price variance i. Newton’s second law of motion
defined? ii. the continuity equation
a. (quantity purchased)(actual price) iii. the requirement of a uniform
– (quantity purchased)(standard velocity distribution
price) iv. Newton’s law of viscosity
b. (quantity issued – standard v. The principle of conservation of
quantity)(standard price) energy
c. (actual price – standard price)(quantity a. i, ii, and iii
used) b. i, ii, and iv
d. (quantity purchased-quantity c. i, ii, and v
used)(actual price) d. i,ii, iii, and iv

14. Which of the following does NOT affect owner’s 21. What is the definition of pressure?
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
equity? a. 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
a. dividends paid 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
b. lim
b. license to start operation 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒→ ∞ 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
c. invested capital c. 𝐥𝐢𝐦
𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒄𝒆
𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒄𝒆→ 𝟎 𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒂
d. expense to get license to start operation 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
d. lim
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒→ 0 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
15. What is the acid test ration?
a. the ratio of owner’s equity to total 22. For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of
current liabilities proportionality between shear stress and what
b. the ratio of all assets to total liabilities another variable?
c. the ratio of current assets a. time derivative of pressure
(exclusive of inventory) to total b. time derivative of density
current liabilities c. spatial derivative of velocity
d. the ratio of gross margin to operating, d. spatial derivative of density
sales, and administrative expenses
23. Surface tension has which of the following
UNITS properties?
16. Which of the following is NOT a unit of i. It has a unit of force per unit
pressure? length
a. kPa ii. It exists whenever there is
b. N/cm2 density discontinuity.
c. bars iii. It is strongly affected by
d. kg/m2 pressure.
a. i only
17. Which of the following is the definition of a b. ii only
joule? c. iii only
a. a unit of power d. i and iii
b. a N·m
c. a kg·m/s2 24. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate
d. a rate of change of energy drops. Which of the following is the main cause
of the phenomenon?
FLUID STATICS AND DYNAMICS a. gravity
b. air resistance
18. Which statement is true for fluid?
c. viscosity of fluid
a. It cannot sustain shear force.
d. surface tension
b. It cannot sustain shear force at
rest.
25. Which of the following describes shear stress in
c. It is a liquid only.
Newtonian fluid?
d. It has a very regular molecular
structure.

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 2

 a. It is proportional to the absolute y direction, and w is the velocity in the x
viscosity. direction.
b. It is proportional to the velocity gradient a. It is valid only for compressible flow.
at a point of interest. b. It is valid only for steady flow.
c. It is nonexistent. c. It is derived from the conservation
d. Both A and B of mass.
d. It is derived from the conservation of
26. If a shear stress in a fluid varies with the energy.
velocity gradient, which of the following
describes the fluid? 33. What is the origin of the energy conservation
a. It is inviscid. equation used in flow systems?
b. It is a perfect gas. a. Newton’s first law of motion
c. It is a Newtonian fluid. b. Newton’s second law of motion
d. It is at constant temperature. c. First law of thermodynamics
d. Second law of thermodynamics
27. How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid
related to the force field? 34. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s
a. They are parallel to the force field. law for fluid flow?
b. They are perpendicular to the force a. the principle of conservation of mass
field. b. the principle of conservation of
c. They are at 45 deg. angle to the force energy
field. c. the continuity equation
d. They are perpendicular to the force of d. the principle of conservation of
gravity. momentum

28. Which of the following statements about a 35. Under which of the following conditions is
streamline is most accurate? Bernoulli’s equation valid?
a. It is a path of fluid particle. a. all points evaluated must be on the
b. It is a line normal to the velocity vector same streamline
everywhere. b. the fluid must be compressible
c. It is fixed in space in steady flow. c. the fluid must be inviscid
d. It is defined for non-uniform flow. d. all of the above

29. Which of the following describes a streamline? 36. Under certain flow conditions, the expression of
i. It is a mathematical concept. the first law of thermodynamics for a control
ii. It cannot be crossed by the flow volume reduces to Bernoulli’s equation. Which
iii. It is a line of constant entropy. combination of the following conditions is
a. i only necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law
b. ii only of thermodynamics for a control volume to
c. i and ii Bernoulli’s equation?
d. i and iii i. steady flow
ii. incompressible flow
30. Under what conditions is mass conserved in a iii. no frictional loss of energy
fluid flow? iv. no heat transfer or change in
a. The fluid is barotropic. internal energy
b. The flow is isentropic. a. i only
c. The flow is adiabatic. b. i and ii
d. It is always conserved. c. i and iv
d. i, ii, iii, and iv
31. What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a
surface? 37. What are the units of Reynolds number for pipe
a. the same as the bulk fluid velocity flow?
b. the velocity of the surface a. m/s
c. zero b. m/s2
d. proportional to the smoothness of the c. kg/m·s2
surface d. none of the above

32. Which of the following statements is true 38. Which of the following ratios of forces
concerning the following continuity equation, represents a physical interpretation of the
“
𝜕𝜌
+
𝜕(𝜌𝑢)
+
𝜕(𝜌𝑣)
+
𝜕(𝜌𝑤)
= 0 where ρ is density, Reynold’s number?
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑧
a. buoyant / inertial
u is velocity in the x direction, v is velocity in the

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 3

 b. viscous / inertial iv. mass
c. drag / viscous a. i only
d. inertial / viscous b. iv only
c. i and ii
39. Which of the following statements is FALSE? d. i, ii, and iii
a. The Reynold’s number is the ratio
of the viscous force to inertial 45. How many independent properties are required
force. to completely fix equilibrium of a pure gaseous
b. Steady flows do not change with time at compound?
any point. a. 0
c. The Navier-Stokes equation is the b. 1
equation of motion for viscous c. 2
Newtonian fluid. d. 3
d. Bernoulli’s equation only holds the same
streamline. 46. Which of the following thermodynamic relations
is INCORRECT?
40. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the a. TdS = dU + pdV
Blasius layer solution? b. TdS = dH – Vdp
a. It is only valid for potential flow. c. U = Q – W
b. It is valid for laminar flow. d. H = U + pV
c. It is an approximate solution.
d. It permits one to calculate the skin 47. Which of the following relationships define
friction on a flat plate. enthalpy?
a. h = u + p/T
41. For what were the curves of the moody friction b. h = u + pv
factor diagram for pipe flow determined? c. h = u + p/v
a. calculations based on potential flow d. h = pv + T
b. theoretical solutions of the Navier-
Stokes equations 48. Which of the following is true for water at a
c. experiment results for inviscid fluids reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
d. experiment results for viscous a. Internal energy is zero.
fluids b. Entropy is non zero.
c. Specific volume is zero.
42. Which of the following flow meter measures the d. Vapor pressure is zero.
average fluid velocity rather than a point or local
velocity in a pipe? 49. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j,
i. venturi meter what is the mole fraction component i, xi, equal
ii. pitot tube to?
iii. impact tube 𝑇𝑖
a. 𝑇 +𝑇
iv. orifice meter 𝑖
𝑍𝑖
𝑗

v. hot-wire meter b.
𝑍𝑖 +𝑍𝑗
a. i only c.
𝒑𝒊
𝒑𝒊 +𝒑𝒋
b. ii only 𝑚𝑖
c. i and iv d.
𝑚+𝑚𝑗
d. ii and v
50. The compressibility factor, Z, is used for
43. For pipe flow in the laminar flow region, how is predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How
the friction factor related to the Reynolds is compressibility factor defined relative to an
number? ideal gas? (subscript c refers to critical value)
𝟏 𝑝
a. 𝒇 ∝ 𝑹𝒆 a. 𝑍 = 𝑝
𝑐
12 𝒑𝑽
b. 𝑓 ∝ 𝑅𝑒 b. 𝒁 = 𝑹𝑻
c. 𝑓 ∝ 𝑅𝑒 c. 𝑍=𝑇
𝑇

d. 𝑓 ∝ 𝑅𝑒 2 𝑐
𝑇 𝑝
d. 𝑍 = ( ) ( 𝑐 )
𝑇𝑐 𝑝

THERMODYNAMICS
51. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?
44. Which of the following are intensive properties? a. p-V
i. temperature b. p-T
ii. pressure c. h-s
iii. composition d. s-u

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 4

 the inversion temperature. When µJT is negative,
52. How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture which of the following statements is true?
defined? a. Gases may be liquefied by
a. the fraction of the total volume that is pressurization.
saturated vapor b. No liquefaction possible.
b. the fraction of the total volume that is c. Only trace of liquefaction is possible.
saturated liquid d. Liquefaction can be obtained only with a
c. the fraction of the total mass that catalyst.
is saturated vapor
d. the fraction of the total mass that is 58. What is the equation for the work done by a
saturated liquid constant temperature system?
a. W = mRTln(V2-V1)
53. What is the expression for the heat of b. W = mR(T2-T1)ln(V2/V1)
vaporization? (hg = enthalpy of saturated vapor c. W = mRTln(V2/V1)
and hf = enthalpy of saturated liquid) d. W= mRTln(p2/p1)
a. hg + hf
b. hf – hg 59. How does an adiabatic process compare to an
c. hg – hf isentropic process?
d. hg2 – hf2 a. adiabatic: heat transfer = 0; isentropic:
heat transfer ≠ 0
54. The first law of thermodynamics is based on b. adiabatic: heat transfer ≠ 0; isentropic:
which of the following principles? heat transfer = 0
a. conservation of mass c. adiabatic: reversible; isentropic: not
b. the enthalpy-entropy reaction reversible
c. action-reaction d. both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic:
d. conservation of energy reversible

55. The general equation for an open system 60. What is true about the polytropic exponent, n,
involves the following five terms. for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric
i. accumulation of energy process?
ii. net energy transfer by work a. n > 0
(standard sign convention) b. n < 0
iii. net energy transfer by heat c. n  ∞
(standard sign convention) d. n = 0
iv. transfer of energy in by mass
flow 61. During an adiabatic, internally reversible
v. transfer of energy out by mass process, what is true about the change in
flow entropy?
Using the standard sign conventions, what is the a. It is always zero.
proper arrangement of these terms for the b. It is always less than zero.
general energy equation satisfying the first law c. It is always greater than zero.
of thermodynamics? d. It is infinite.
a. i= -ii + iii + iv – v
b. i =ii + iii + iv + v 62. For an irreversible process, what is true about
c. i = ii + iii + iv – v the total change in entropy of the system and
d. i = ii – iii – iv + v surroundings?
a. dS = ∞
56. What is the value of the work done for closed, b. dS = 0
reversible, isometric system? c. dS> 0
a. zero d. dS< 0
b. positive
c. negative 63. For which type of process is the equation dQ =
d. positive or negative TdS valid?
a. irreversible
57. The expansion of a gas through a plug at high b. isothermal
pressure results in temperature rise, while at c. reversible
lower pressures a temperature drop occurs. The d. isobaric
Joule-Thompson coefficient, µJT, is defined as
the ratio of the changes in temperature to the 64. Which of the following is true for any process?
change in pressure. The temperature at which a. ΔS (surroundings) + ΔS (system) ≥
µJT changes from positive to negative is called 0

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 5

 b. ΔS (surroundings) + ΔS (system) ≤ 0 i. adiabatic compression, constant
c. ΔS (surroundings) + ΔS (system) < 0 volume heat addition, adiabatic
d. ΔS (surroundings) + ΔS (system) > 0 expansion, constant volume and
heat rejection
POWER CYCLES ii. isothermal compression, isobaric
65. Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is heat addition, isothermal
the most efficient? expansion, isobaric heat
a. Brayton rejection
b. Rankine a. i only
c. Carnot b. ii only
d. combined Brayton-Rankine c. i and ii in succession
d. ii and i in succession
66. The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves several
basic processes. What type of processes are 72. A Carnot refrigerator operates between two
they? reservoirs. One reservoir is at higher
a. all adiabatic temperature, TH, and the other is at cooler
b. all isentropic temperature, TC. What is the coefficient of
c. two adiabatic and two isentropic performance, COP, of the refrigerator?
d. two isothermal and two isentropic a. TH – TC/TH
b. 1 – TC/TH
67. What is the temperature difference of the cycle c. TH/TC – TC
if the entropy difference ΔS and the work is W? d. TC / (TH – TC)
a. W – ΔS
CHEMISTRY
b. W / ΔS
c. ΔS / W 73. The mole is a basic unit of measurement in
d. W (ΔS) chemistry. Which of the following is NOT equal
to or the same as 1 mol of the substance
68. For a heat engine operating between two indicated?
temperatures (T2>T1), what is the maximum a. 22.4 L of nitrogen (N2) gas at STP
efficiency attainable? b. 6.02 x 10^23 oxygen (O2) molecules
a. 1 – T2/T1 c. 12 g of carbon atoms
b. 1 – T1/T2 d. 16 g of oxygen (O2) molecules
c. T1/T2
d. 1 – (T1/T2)k 74. Which of the following is the standard
temperature and pressure (STP)?
69. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a a. 0K and 1 atm
superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open b. 0F and 0 atm
Rankine cycle? c. 32F and 0 atm
a. increased efficiency d. 0C and 1 atm
b. increased turbine work output
c. increased turbine life 75. Which of the following is FALSE for an ideal gas?
d. increased boiler life a. The molecules behave as solid
spheres of finite radius.
70. Which of the following statements regarding b. pV = nR*T
Rankine cycles is FALSE? c. Collisions between gas molecules are
a. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle perfectly elastic and result in no
increases the efficiency of the cycle. decrease in kinetic energy.
b. The temperature at which energy d. No attractive forces exist between the
transferred to and from the working molecules.
liquid are less separated than in a
Carnot cycle. 76. The following statements are made with regard
c. Superheating increases the efficiency of to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement
a Rankine cycle. is FALSE?
d. In practical terms, the a. A nonvolatile substance having zero
susceptibility of the engine vapor pressure in solution (e.g., sugars
materials to corrosion is not a key or salts) has no true boiling point.
limitation on the operating b. The boiling point is the temperature at
efficiency. which the vapor pressure of a liquid
equals to the applied pressure on the
71. Which of the following sets of reversible liquid.
processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 6

 c. Combinations of liquids having different 82. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
boiling points can be separated by a. It is not possible for bonds
slowly raising the temperature draw off between a pair of atoms to e
each fraction (i.e., by fractional different (e.g., different bond
distillation) lengths or bond energies) in
d. At high elevations, water boils at different compounds.
lower temperature because of the b. The bond length of a pair of atoms in
reduction in the surface tension of the point of lowest energy.
the water. c. The electrostatic repulsion between two
nuclei increases as the atoms are
77. The critical point for a mixture occurs for which brought together.
of the following cases? d. The repulsion between two nuclei
a. The vapor and liquid exist in a increases as their charge increases.
single form.
b. The liquid has no absorbed gas. 83. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
c. The vapor phase is stable. a. For a diatomic molecule, the bond
d. The liquid is completely vaporized. dissociation energy is the change in the
enthalpy of the reaction when the
78. How is MOLALITY defined? molecule is separated into atoms.
a. the number of moles of solute in b. The average bond energy is the
1000 grams of solvent approximate energy required to break
b. the number of moles of solute in 1.000 bond in any compound in which it
liter of solution occurs.
c. the number of gram-formula weights of c. The energy released when a gaseous
solute per liter molecule is formed from its gaseous
d. the number of gram-equivalent weights atoms can be estimated using average
of solute in 1 liter of solution bond energies.
d. The change in enthalpy is negative
79. Which of the following postulates does Bohr’s when energy is absorbed in the
model of the hydrogen atom involve? formation of a compound from its
a. The electron in a tom has an infinite elements.
range of motion allowed to it.
b. When an atom changes from a low 84. The molecule methane, CH4, has a geometric
energy state to a high energy state, it shape of?
emits a quantum of radiation whose a. linear
energy is equal to the difference in b. square planar
energy between two states. c. planar
c. In any of its energy states, the d. tetrahedral
electron moves in a circular orbit
about the nucleus. 85. A substance is oxidized when which of the
d. The states of allowed electron motion following occurs?
are those in which the angular a. It turns red.
momentum of the electron is an integral b. It becomes more negative.
of h/2π. c. It loses electron.
d. It gives off heat.
80. Which of the following elements and compounds
is reactive in its pure form? 86. In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic
a. sodium (Na) molecules, which of the following is followed?
b. helium (He) a. The oxidation of all elements in any
c. carbon dioxide (CO2) allotropic form is zero.
d. hydrochloric acid (HCl) b. The oxidation state of oxygen is always
-2.
81. Two major type of chemical bonds are observed c. The oxidation state of hydrogen is
in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which always +1.
of the following has a bond that is least ionic in d. All other oxidation states are chosen
character? such that the algebraic sum of the
a. NaCl oxidation states of for the ion or
b. CH4 molecule is zero.
c. H2
d. H20 87. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher
temperatures because of which of the following?

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 7

 a. The molecules collide more frequently. b. alkyne, alkane, alkene
b. The activation energy is less. c. alkane, alkene, alkyne
c. The molecules are less energetic. d. alkane, alkyne, alkene
d. Both options ‘a’ and ‘b’.
93. Which of the following is most likely to prove
88. Which of the following statements is FALSE? that a substance is in organic?
a. In general, as reaction products are a. The substance is heated together
formed, they react with each other and with copper oxide and the resulting
reform reactants. gases are found to have no effect
b. The net rate at which reaction proceeds on limestone.
from left to right is equal to the forward b. The substance evaporates in room
rate minus the reverse rate. temperature and pressure.
c. At equilibrium, the reaction rate is zero. c. Analysis shows that the substance
d. The differential rate law is the contains hydrogen.
mathematical expression that d. The substance floats in water.
shows how the rate of reaction
depends on volume. 94. Which of the following chemicals is most soluble
in water?
89. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. CH3CH3
a. When temperature is raised, the b. CH3OH
rate of any reaction is always c. CCl4
increased. d. CH3-(CH2)n-CH3
b. In general, when any tow compounds
are unmixed, a large number of actions 95. What structure do both aldehydes and ketones
may be possible, but those which contain?
proceed the fastest are the ones a. the carboxyl group
observed. b. the carbonyl group
c. It is possible to influence the products of c. the hydroxyl group
a chemical change by controlling the d. the carbon-carbon double bond
factors which affect reaction rates.
d. Heterogeneous reactions are the STATICS
reactions that takes place at the 96. Determine the height of the centroid, 𝑦̅, of the
boundary surface between two faces. semicircle with radius r shown.

90. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. In considering chemical equilibrium, the
relative stabilities of products and
reactants are important.
b. In considering chemical
equilibrium, the pathway from the a. 2r/3
initial state to the final state is b. 2πr/5
important. c. 4r/3π
c. In treating reaction rates, the rate at d. 3r/4
which reactants are converted to
products is important. 97. Which statement about area moments of inertia
d. In treating reaction rates, the sequence is FALSE?
of the physical processes by which a. 𝐼 = ∫ 𝑑2 𝑑𝐴
reactants are converted into products b. The parallel axis theorem is used to
are important. calculate moment of inertia about a
parallel displaced axis.
91. The voltage of a galvanic cell does NOT depend c. The moment of inertia of a large area is
on which of the following parameters? equal to the summation of the inertia of
a. concentration of solutions the smaller areas within the large area.
b. temperature of solutions d. The area closest to the axis of
c. pressure of solutions interest contribute most of the
d. volume of solutions moment of inertia.

92. In organic chemistry, which compound families MATERIALS SCIENCE

are associated with the following bonds: C-C,
98. Which of the following affects most of the
C=C, C≡C.
electrical and thermal properties of materials?
a. alkene, alkyne, alkane

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 8

 a. the atomic weight expressed in grams 105. Which of the following accurately
per gram-atom describes differences between crystalline
b. the electrons, particularly the polymers and simple crystals?
outermost ones i. Crystalline polymers, unlike
c. the magnitude of electrical charge of simple crystals, are made of
protons folded chains of atoms.
d. the weight of atoms ii. Crystal size can be increased by
raising the crystallization
99. What are valence electrons? temperature only in polymers.
a. the outer-shell electrons iii. While a simple crystal may be
b. electrons with positive charge totally crystallized, a polymer
c. the electrons with complete quantum can reach only partial
shells crystallization.
d. the K-quantum shell electrons a. i only
b. ii only
100. What is the strong bond between c. iii only
hydrogen atoms called? d. i and iii
a. ionic bond
b. metallic bond 106. Polymers that favor crystallization are
c. ionic and metallic bonds least likely to have which of the following?
d. covalent bond a. an atactic configuration of side
groups
101. What are Van der Waal’s forces? b. small side groups
a. weak secondary bonds between c. only one repeating unit
atoms d. small chain lengths
b. primary bonds between atoms
c. force between electrons and protons 107. What is the atomic packing factor (APF)
d. forces not present in liquids for a simple cubic crystal?
a. 0.48
102. Which of the following statements is b. 0.52
FALSE? c. 1.00
a. Ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic d. 1.10
solids that are processed or used at high
temperatures. 108. How many atoms are in the unit cell of a
b. Metals are chemical elements that form body-centered cubic structure?
substances that are opaque, lustrous a. one
and good conductors of heat and b. two
electricity. c. three
c. Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are d. four
considered to be within the class of
materials known as glasses. 109. How many atoms are there per unit cell
d. Most metal are strong, ductile, and for a face-centered cubic structure?
malleable. In general, they are heavier a. one
than most other substance. b. two
c. three
103. Which of the following materials is NOT d. four
a viscoelastic material?
a. plastic 110. What is the first coordination number of
b. metal a body-centered cubic structure?
c. rubber a. 4
d. glass b. 6
c. 8
104. In molecules of the same composition, d. 10
what are variations of atomic arrangements
known as? 111. What is the first coordination number for
a. polymers a face centered cubic structure?
b. noncrystalline structures a. 2
c. monomers b. 4
d. isomers c. 8
d. 12

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 9

 112. Which of the following statements is ii. the strength of a test sample
FALSE? iii. the ductile to brittle transition
a. Both copper and aluminum have face- temperature of metals
centered cubic crystal structure. a. i only
b. Both magnesium and zinc have a b. ii only
hexagonal close-packed crystal c. iii only
structure. d. i and iii
c. Iron can have either a face-centered or
a body-centered cubic crystal structure. 119. A shaft made of good quality steel
d. Both lead and cadmium have a breaks in half due to fatigue. What would the
hexagonal close-packed crystal surface of the fracture site looks like?
structure. a. like a cup and cone
b. quite smooth to the unaided eye, with
113. Which crystal structure possess the ripples apparent under low-power
highest number of closed-packed planes and magnification
close-packed directions? c. smooth over most of the surface,
a. simple cubic with tearing at the location of
b. body-centered cubic fracture
c. face-centered cubic d. very jagged and rough
d. close-packed hexagonal
120. To which of the following can the large
114. In a crystal structure, what is an discrepancy between the actual and theoretical
interstitial atom? strengths of metals mainly be attributed?
a. an extra atom sitting on a non- a. heat
lattice point b. dislocations
b. an atom missing at a lattice point c. low density
c. a different element on a lattice point d. stress direction
d. a line defect
121. The ease with which dislocations are
115. Which of the following is a line defect in able to move through a crystal under stress
a lattice crystal structure? accounts for which of the following?
a. tilt boundary i. ductility
b. screw dislocation ii. lower yield strength
c. vacancy iii. hardness
d. Schottky imperfection a. i only
b. ii only
116. Which of the following statements c. iii only
regarding diffusion in a crystal structure is true? d. i and iii
a. Solid interstitial atoms cannot diffuse
through structures that lack vacancies. 122. As the amount of slip increases,
b. It occurs only in alloys, never in pure additional deformation becomes more difficult
crystals. and decreases until the plastic flow finally stops.
c. It often uses an exchange or Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is
vacancy mechanism. applied. What is this phenomenon known as?
d. It occurs primarily as a result of a. cooling
mechanical work. b. crowding
c. strain hardening
117. Under conditions of very slow d. twinning
deformation at high temperatures, it is possible
to have plastic flow in a crystal at shear stresses 123. Which word combination best completes
lower than the critical shear. What is this the following sentence? "Plastic deformation of a
phenomenon called? single crystal occurs either by ___ or by ___ but,
a. slip ____ is the more common method."
b. twinning a. bending; compression; bending
c. creep b. shearing; compression; compression
d. bending c. slip; twinning; slip
d. twinning; slip; twinning
118. What does the Charpy impact test
measure? 124. Which one of these statements is true
i. the energy required to break a for twinning?
test sample

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 10

 a. It occurs at lower shear stresses than b. The process of applying force to a metal
slip. at temperatures below the temperature
b. It is the most significant form of plastic of crystallization in order to plastically
deformation. deform the metal is called cold working.
c. It cannot be caused by impact or c. Annealing eliminates most of the defects
thermal treatment. caused by the cold working of a metal.
d. It frequently occurs in hexagonal d. Annealing reduces the hardness of the
close-packed structures. metal.

125. Which of the following does NOT 130. Which of the following 8tatements is
produce vacancies, purity defects in a material? FALSE?
a. plastic deformation a. There is a considerable increase in the
b. slow equilibrium cooling hardness and the strength of a cold-
c. quenching worked metal.
d. increasing the temperature (which b. Cold working a metal significantly
increases atomic energy) reduces its ductility.
c. Cold working causes a slight decrease in
126. Which of the following are true the density and electrical conductivity of
statements about the modulus of elasticity, E? a metal.
a. It is the same as the rupture modulus. d. Cold work decreases the yield point
b. It is the slope of the stress-strain of metal.
diagram in the linearly elastic
region. 131. Which of the following statements is
c. It is the ratio of stress to volumetric FALSE?
strain. a. Hot working can be regarded as the
d. Its value depends only on the simultaneoug combination of cold
temperature of the material. working and annealing.
b. Hot working increases the density of the
127. In general, what are the effects of cold metal.
working a metal? c. One of the primary goals of hot working
a. increased strength and ductility is to produce a fine-grained product.
b. increased strength, decreased d. Hot working causes much strain
ductility hardening of the metal.
c. decreased strength and ductility
d. decreased strength, increased ductility 132. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Grain size is of minor importance in
128. Which of the following does cold considering the properties of poly-
working a metal cause? crystalline materials.
a. elongation of grains in the flow b. Fine-grained materials usually exhibit
direction, an increase in dislocation greater yield stræses than coarse-
density, and an overall increase in grained materials at low temperatures.
energy of the metal c. At high temperatures, grain boundaries
b. elongation of grains in the flow become weak, and gliding occurs.
direction, a decrease in dislocation d. Grain boundary sliding is the relative
density, and an overall decrease in movement of two grains by a shear
energy of the metal movement parallel to the grain
c. elongation of grains in the flow boundary between them.
direction, a decrease in dislocation
density, and an overall increase in 133. Which of the following correctly
energy of the metal describes atoms located at grain boundaries?
d. shortening of grains in the flow a. They are subjected to the same type of
direction, a decrease in dislocation interatomic forces that are present in
density, and an overall decrease in the the interior atoms of the crystal,
energy of the metal b. They are located primarily in highly
strained and distorted positions.
129. Which of the following statements is c. They have a higher free enerw than
FALSE? atoms in the undisturbed part of the
a. The amount or percentage of cold crystal lattice.
work cannot be obtained from d. All of the above are correct.
information about change in the
area or thickness of a metal.

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 11

 134. What causes the vinyl interiors of 140. Low-carbon steels are generally used in
automobiles to crack when subjected to the "as rolled" or "as fabricated" state. What is
prolonged direct sunlight? the reason for this?
a. the volatilization (evaporation) of a. They come in many different shapes
plasticizers and thicknesses.
b. repetitive expansion and contraction of b. Their strength generally cannot be
the plastic increased by heat treatment.
c. oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and c. They degrade severely under heat
oxygen treatment.
d. all of the above d. Their chromium content is so low.

135. Low-density polyethylene undergoes 141. The equilibrium cooling of a steel

extensive (over 100%) elongation prior to containing 0.8% carbon results in a product with
rupture, while polystyrene undergoes only 1— little use because it is extremely brittle. Which of
2% elongation. What is the main reason for this the following is the primary reason for this poor
difference? characteristic?
a. The polyethylene is less dense. a. The material has not been cold worked.
b. The large styrene groups in the b. The austenite grains are too small, and
polystyrene prevent slippage. the carbide grains are too large.
c. More cross-linking occurs in the c. Thick layers of iron carbide surround the
polystyrene. course ferrite grains.
d. Polyethylene is less crystalline. d. The carbide forms thin plates that
are brittle.
136. What is transformed in a eutectoid
reaction? 142. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both
a. One liquid is transformed into two contain 4% carbon. Ductile cast iron, however, a
solids of different composition. higher tensile strength and is considerably more
b. A solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic ductile. Which of the following is the major
temperature, difference that accounts for the superior
c. A liquid becomes a solid at the solidus properties of the ductile iron?
temperature. a. The gray cast iron contains iron carbide,
d. A solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus whereas the ductile iron contains
temperature. graphite.
b. The gray cast iron contains flakes
137. On an alloy phase diagram, what is the of graphite, whereas the ductile
solidus temperature? iron contains spheroids of graphite.
a. The point at which all solids completely c. The ductile iron is tempered to give
reach the liquid stage. better properties.
b. The temperature of the liquid phase at d. The ferrite grains in the gray cast iron
which the first solid forms for a given are excessively large.
overall composition.
c. The temperature of the solid phase 143. In preparing a metallographic iron
at which the first liquid forms for a specimen, the grain boundaries are made most
given overall composition, visible by which of the following Steps?
d. The temperature at which the solid is at a. grinding the sample with silicon carbide
equilibrium. abrasive
b. polishing the sample with A1203
138. Which of the following is NOT a c. mounting the sample in an epoxy mold
structural class of steels? d. etching the sample in a 2%
a. carbon solution of nitric acid in alcohol
b. high-strength, low-alloy
c. low-alloy 144. Which of the following statements is
d. tool and die FALSE?
a. Low-alloy steels are a minor group
139. Which of the following phases of steel and are rarely used.
has a face-centered cubic structure? b. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-
a. ferrite treated condition.
b. pearlite c. Low-alloy steels contain small amounts
c. austenite of nickel and chromium.
d. cementite d. The addition of small amounts of
molybdenum to low-alloy steels makes

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 12

 145. Which of the following statements is d. repeated load
FALSE?
a. High-strength, low-alloy steels ore not 151. A specimen is subjected to a load. When
as strong as nonalloy, low-carbon steels. the load is removed, the strain disappears. From
b. Small amounts of copper increase the this information, which of the following can be
tensile strength of steels. deduced about this material?
c. Small amounts of silicon in steels have a. It is elastic.
little influence on toughness or fabric b. It is plastic.
ability. c. It has a high modulus of elasticity.
d. Addition of small amounts of silicon d. It does not obey Hooke's law.
to steel can cause a marked
decrease in yield strength of the 152. Which of the following may be the
steel. Poisson ratio of a material?
a. 0.35
146. Which of the following statements is b. 0.52
FALSE? c. 0.55
a. Stainless steels contain large amounts of d. 0.60
chromium.
b. There are three basic types of 153. For a rectangular beam under
stainless steels: martensitic, transverse (bending) loading, where is the
austenitic, and ferritic. location of maximum shear stress?
c. The nonmagnetic stainless steels a. at the top edge
contain large amounts of nickel. b. at the bottom edge
d. Stabilization of the face-centered cubic c. at the neutral axis
crystal structure of stainless steels d. at a location between the top edge and
imparts a nonmagnetic characteristic to the neutral axis
the alloy,
DYNAMICS
147. For a completely corrosion-resistant 154. How many degrees of freedom does a
stainless steel, what minimum percentage of coin rolling on the ground have?
chromium in the alloy is required? a. one
a. 1.1% b. two
b. 3.2% c. three
c. 8.3% d. five
d. 5.6%
155. What is the definition of instantaneous
MECHANICS OF MATERIALS
velocity?
148. Where do stress concentration occur? a. 𝑣 = 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑡
i. near the points of application of b. 𝑣 = ∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑡
concentrated loads c. 𝒗 =
𝒅𝒙
𝒅𝒕
ii. along the center length of a ∆𝑡
d. 𝑣 = lim
highly distributed loads ∆𝑡→0 ∆𝑥
iii. at discontinuation
a. i and ii 156. Which of the following statements is
b. i and iii FALSE?
c. Ii and iii a. The time rate of change of the angular
d. i, ii, and iii momentum about a fixed point is equal
to the total moment of the external
149. What is the definition of normal strain, forces acting on the system about the
ϵ? point.
a. 𝜖 =
𝐿+𝛿 b. The coefficient of restitution can be
𝐿
𝐿+𝛿 less than zero.
b. 𝜖 = c. The frictional force always acts to resist
𝛿
𝛿
c. 𝜖 = 𝐿+𝛿 motion.
𝜹 d. Momentum is conserved during elastic
d. 𝝐 = 𝑳
collisions.

150. Under which type of loading does 157. Which of the following statements is
fatigue occur? FALSE?
a. static load
b. plane load
c. high load
Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 13
 a. Kinematics is the study of the effects of
motion, while kinetics is the study of the
causes of motion.
b. The radius of gyration for a mass of
uniform thickness is identical to
theradius of gyration for a planar area
of the same shape.
c. Angular momentum for rigid bodies may
be regarded as the product of angular
velocity and inertia.
d. The acceleration of any point
within a homogenous body rotating
with a constant angular velocity is
proportional to the distance of that
point to the center of mass.

Additional ESAS Objectives Questions with Answers Page 14