Gas Technician 2 Exam

Answer Key

1. Fuses serving motor circuits should be:

a) Quick blow type

b) Time delay type
c) Oversized by 2.5%
d) Oversized by 3.5%

2. This symbol is a:

a) Normally closed float switch that opens on rise,

b) Normally open temperature switch that closes on fall,
c) Normally open flow switch that closes on flow,
d) Normally closed pressure switch that opens on fall.

3. This symbol is a:

a) Normally open pressure switch that closes on rise,

b) Normally closed temperature switch that opens on fall,
c) Normally open flow switch that closes on flow,
d) Normally closed humidity switch that opens on fall.

4. This symbol is a:

a) Normally closed float switch that opens on rise,

b) Normally open temperature switch that closes on fall,
c) Normally open flow switch that closes on flow,
d) Normally closed pressure switch that opens on fall.

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5. As the length of an electrical run increases, it may be necessary to:

a) Increase the wire size,

b) Use a different type of conductor,
c) Decrease the fuse size,
d) Increase the fuse size.

6. Millivolt wiring should be isolated from line voltage wiring because:

a) The line voltage wire will overheat the low voltage wiring,
b) The resistance of the millivolt wiring will be increased,
c) The current in the low voltage wire will be reduced to that of the millivolt wire,
d) The line voltage will induce a voltage into the millivolt wiring.

7. Which tool is used to determine if the windings on an electric motor have shorted?

a) Voltmeter
b) Ammeter
c) Ohmmeter
d) Wattmeter

8. On an electrical schematic diagram, the safety controls are typically drawn:

a) To the right of the loads,

b) Above the loads,
c) Below the loads,
d) To the left of the loads.

9. Which of the following types of wire must be used in damp locations?

a) NMD
b) NMW
c) LVT
d) BX

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10. On an electrical schematic, all operating controls are drawn:

a) In their energized positions,

b) In their de-energized positions,
c) Normally closed,
d) Normally open.

11. An inline ammeter is connected:

a) In series with the device being checked,

b) In parallel with the device being checked,
c) With the system power off,
d) Across the load.

12. As the length of a conductor increases, the voltage drop along the conductor:

a) increases,
b) Decreases,
c) Remains the same,
d) Should be as flexible as possible.

13. When a new appliance is to be installed in a typical residential basement and the
supply wiring to it is to be concealed, which of the following types of wire is acceptable,
and most cost effective:

a) NMW
b) NMD
c) BX
d) LVT

14.When checking a circuit of unknown voltage using an analog meter with 0-30V, 0-125V,
0-250V, and 0-600V, which scale should be selected?

a) 0-30 volts
b) 0-125 volts
c) 0-250 volts
d) 0-600 volts

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15. A 120 volt power supply for a residential electrical circuit is taken form the:

a) Line side of one branch circuit breaker and a ground lug,

b) Load side of one main circuit breaker and the line side of a second breaker,
c) Load side of one main breaker and the load side of the second main breaker,
d) Load side of one branch circuit breaker and a neutral lug.

16. A receptacle mounted ground fault circuit interrupter protects against:

a) Appliance overloading,
b) Dead shorts,
c) Short circuits,
d) Current flow to ground.

17. An electrical pictorial diagram is used to:

a) Show component location,

b) Indicate how the system works,
c) Indicate part numbers of the devices,
d) Determine wiring sizes for the appliance.

18. When using an ohmmeter, the most important thing to remember is to:

a) Zero the meter before using it,

b) Ensure the battery is good,
c) Power up the circuit prior to testing,
d) De-energize the circuit.

19. A zero ohmmeter reading taken between the casing of a solenoid and a disconnected
wire to the solenoid indicates that:

a) The coil is good,

b) The coil is shorted to the casing of the device,
c) The coil wire is broken
d) All of the above.

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20. The instrument used to determine potential difference in an electrical circuit is the:

a) voltmeter,
b) Ohmmeter,
c) Ammeter,
d) Potentiometer.

21. When the voltage has been determine to be approximately 120 volts, which scale
on an analog meter should be selected for most accuracy?

a) 0-30 volts
b) 0-125 volts
c) 0-250 volts
d) 0-600 volts

22. The resistance of a thermistor … as its temperature rises:

a) Increases,
b) Decreases,
c) Remains the same,
d) Fluctuates.

23. A hot surface igniter requires how many volts to operate properly.

a) 24 to 30 mV,
b) 24 to 30 mV,
c) 115 to 125 VAC,
d) 190 to 240 VAC.

24. It is permissible to use gas piping as an electrical ground if:

a) The piping is 1 inch in diameter or larger,

b) The piping has welded joints,
c) The voltage is less than 120 volts,
d) It is used in the flame safeguard circuit.

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25. A thermopile or powerpile generates:

a) 0 to 20 millivolts,
b) 20 to 30 millivolts,
c) 30 to 90 millivolts,
d) Hundreds of millivolts.

26 . How is the heat anticipator setting determined for a thermostat with an

adjustable anticipator?

a) By the supply air temperature,

b) By measuring the current drawn by the components in the circuit being feed
directly by the thermostat,
c) By the current rating stamped on the gas valve,
d) By the VA rating of the 24 volt control transformer.

27. A fan control is a:

a) Normally open temperature control that closes on temperature rise,

b) Normally open temperature control that opens on temperature fall,
c) Normally closed temperature control that opens on temperature rise,
d) Normally closed temperature control that opens on temperature rise.

28 . As the temperature of a thermistor increases, the current flow through it …

a) increases,
b) Decreases,
c) Remains the same,
d) Fluctuates.

29. A thermostat with a single mercury bulb which controls a single stage
heat, single stage cool unit is a … control

a) SPST (single pole single throw),

b) SPDT (single pole double throw),
c) DPST (double pole single throw),
d) DPDT (double pole double throw).

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30. A thermostat serving a unit which has separate heating and cooling control transformers
and has one stage of heating and one stage of cooling is a … control.

a) SPST,
b) SPDT,
c) DPST,
d) DPDT.

31. Separate heating and cooling, therefore double pole and double stage for heating
and cooling therefore double throw. Which of the following heating systems would be
expected to cause problems due to the “distribution effect”?

a) A direct vent furnace,

b) A convectional vent type boiler,
c) A forced air furnace with no return air openings in the furnace room,
d) A forced air furnace with a return air opening in the furnace room.

32. The recommended range of relative humidity in a house to control indoor air
contaminates, increase comfort, and maintain the structural integrity of the house is:

a) 0% to 20%
b) 30% to 50%
c) 60% to 80%
d) 90% to 100%

33.From the following list, which action will have the greatest effect on reducing
mold growth in a house?

a) Reducing relative humidity to approximately 10%,

b) Increasing relative humidity to approximately 80%,
c) Filtering the air in the house,
d) Covering earthen floors and open water surfaces (sumps, aquariums etc.) .

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34. After a direct vent radiant heating system is installed in a new house, the
customer complains that, “the walls and windows are wet.” What is the most
reasonable response?

a) After confirming that the heat exchanger is not cracked, advise the customer to
call somebody else,
b) Recommend that a window be left open a bit,
c) Advise the customer that the problem will disappear when the building dries out,
d) Recommend the installation of a mechanical ventilation system.

35. Which is the most common cause of flue gas spillage from gas appliances?

a) Positive air pressure caused by mechanical systems,

b) Negative air pressure caused by mechanical systems,
c) Cracked or leaking heat exchangers,
d) Chimneys which are too short.

36 . There are two appliances in a 10ft x 10ft x 20 ft structure which has an equivalent
leakage area greater than 0.05 square meters. A furnace has a draft hood and an input
of 50,000 Btuh. The second appliance has an input of 75,000 Btuh, and does not have a
draft hood. The required combustion air opening size is:

a) 0 square inches (0 mm2)

b) 7 square inches (4500 mm2)
c) 9 square inches (5800 mm2)
d) 11 square inches (7000 mm2)

37. Air enters a house through a process called …

a) infiltration,
b) Exfiltration,
c) Aspiration,
d) Expriation.

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38 . Two hot water boilers each firing at 750,000 Btuh, 1 water heater firing at 270,000 Btuh
and 1 water heater firing at 30,000 Btuh. These appliances are contained in a room with a
cutout and a grill with 80% free area. What size in square inches should the grill be?

a) 120 square inches

b) 240 square inches
c) 200 square inches
d) 1080 square inches

39. What is the minimum size of a combustion air opening from outdoors for an appliance
without a draft hood and having an input of 125,000Btuh installed in a structure that has a
continuous vapour barrier and has an equivalent leakage area of 0.05 m2 at a differential
pressure of 10 pascals and dimensions of 10ft x 10ft x 20ft?

a) 9 square inches
b) 11 square inches
c) 18 square inches
d) 22 square inches

40. What is the minimum size of the combustion air opening from outdoors for an appliance
without a draft hood and with an input of 50,000Btuh installed in a structure which has an
equivalent leakage area greater than 0.05 m2 and dimensions of 10ft x 10ft x 20ft?

a) 0 square inches,
b) 4 square inches,
c) 7 square inches,
d) 11 square inches.

41. If the relative humidity of a room is increased, the temperature in the room must be
increase to maintain the same level of comfort.

a) True
b) False

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42. As the number of occupants in a tightly constructed building increases, the:

a) Relative humidity increases,

b) Carbon monoxide level increases,
c) Relative humidity decreases,
d) Carbon monoxide level decreases.

43. The best way to remove odours from a house is to:

a) Filter the air in the house,

b) Ventilate the house,
c) Install mechanical attic ventilation,
d) Humidify the air in the house.

44. The main purpose of the building skin is to:

a) Protect the underlying materials,

b) Reduce heat gain,
c) Improve resistance to vapour flow,
d) Maintain the depressurization limit

45. There is a new forced air furnace equipped with an induced draft fan beside a conventional water
heater in a basement. The customer has decided to enclose the area to make a separate furnace room.
The house is approximately 25 years old and has a door separating the basement from the upper levels.
Furnace input is 100,000Btuh with a Water Heater input of 25,000 Btuh. The enclosure is 10ft x 20ft x 7ft. The
structure dimensions are 20ft x 30ft x 7ft x 3 levels. What size opening will be required in the furnace
room door for combustion air?

a) 0 square inches
b) 9 square inches
c) 18 square inches
d) 125 square inches

46 . The most important element required for proper combustion in a gas appliance is:

a) Carbon dioxide,
b) Air,
c) Nitrogen,
d) Water vapour.

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47. When a baffle is required to prevent the direct entry of rain into an air supply opening,
by how much can the baffle reduce the required free area of the opening?

a) 0%
b) 1%
c) 3%
d) 5%

48 . Vapour barriers should be installed on:

a) The inside of the insulation,
b) The outside of the insulation,
c) The cold side of the insulation,
d) The warm side of the insulation.

49. What device is used to prove a dryer motor is running?

a) Motor safety switch,

b) Motor sensor switch,
c) High limit switch,
d) Centrifugal switch.

50. If too many lava rocks are placed in the rack of a barbeque:

a) The burner will burn out prematurely,

b) The food will cook faster,
c) The food will cook slower,
d) Delayed ignition will occur.

51. What is the mimimum clearance from the sides of a domestic dryer to combustible
materials, unless otherwise specified?

a) 1 inch,
b) 3 inches,
c) 6 inches,
d) 9 inches.

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52. How long may a corrugated flexible connector be when installed on a range?

a) 2 feet,
b) 6 feet,
c) 8 feet,
d) No maximum.

53. Which device shuts off the spark igniter in a spark ignition dryer after proper ignition?

a) Spark sensor,
b) Ignition sensor,
c) Limit switch,
d) Main burner switch.

54. What is the maximum supply pressure allowed in a single family dwelling downstream
of the utility termination?

a) 14 inches W.C.,
b) 2 psig,
c) 5 psig,
d) 20 psig.

55. A natural gas service regulator is normally set to deliver pressure from:

a) Pounds to 7 inches W.C.,

b) Ounces to 7 inches W.C.,
c) Pounds to 11 inches W.C.,
d) Ounces to 11 inches W.C.

56 . The gas meter test dial can be used for:

a) Final billing purposes,

b) Checking system pressures,
c) Checking the input of an appliance,
d) Adjusting the relief setting.

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57. Can a shut-off valve be installed upstream of a relief valve to allow for the removal
of the relief valve for servicing without having to empty the contents of a tank?

a) No,
b) No, unless the thank is less than 1,000 USWG,
c) Only if it is installed by a certified propane technician,
d) Only with the permission of the propane company.

58 . A one-half cubic foot test dial on a meter makes one revolution ever 22 seconds.
Approximately how much heat is being generated?

a) 11,000 Btuh,
b) 41,000 Btuh,
c) 60,000 Btuh,
d) 82,000 Btuh.

59. A pressure regulator is a device that:

a) Measures gas flow,

b) Reduces gas pressure from inlet to outlet,
c) Increases gas pressure from inlet to outlet,
d) Maintains a minimum outlet pressure.

60 . Gas meters must be maintained in the upright position …

a) While being moved into position,

b) While being transported only,
c) At all times, including when connected for service,
d) At all times except when connect for service.
.

61 . When propane is to be used in the construction repair or improvement of a building,

how many 100lb cylinders may be manifolded together and used indoors?

a) 2,
b) 3,
c) 5,
d) 7.

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62 . When should a relief valve on a regulator operate?

a) When the system pressure falls below the regulator set point,
b) When it senses pressure at 4 times the regulator set point,
c) When there is excessive pressure in the supply piping,
d) Where the inlet pressure drops below set point.

63. A leak limiting device on a regulator:

a) Allows a controlled, safe amount of leakage if the diaphragm ruptures,

b) Shuts off completely if the diaphragm ruptures,
c) Routes all leaking gas back into piping system if the diaphragm ruptures,
d) Shuts off all pilot lights if the diaphragm ruptures.

64.The most accurate way to determine the amount of propane in a large storage
tank is by the use of a:

a) Float gauge,
b) Pressure gauge,
c) Fixed liquid level gauge,
d) Roto gauge or slip tube gauge.

65. What is the maximum permitted filling density of a cylinder with liquid propane
(relative density = 0.51) by liquid volume?

a) 42%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 90%

66. The closing force in a gas pressure regulator is the:

a) Adjustable spring above the diaphragm,

b) Pressure downstream of the regulator,
c) Inlet pressure to the regulator,
d) Pressure drop across the regulator.

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Use the fiqure below to answer the following questions.

67. Which symbol represents a gas solenoid?

a) 4,
b) 5,
c) 6,
d) 7.

68. Which symbol represents the dryer heat thermostat?

a) 1,
b) 2,
c) 3,
d) 7.

69. Which symbol represents a dryer high limit?

a) 1,
b) 2,
c) 3,
d) 7.

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70.Which symbol represents a dryer centrifugal switch?

a) 1,
b) 4,
c) 6,
d) 7.

71. Which symbol represents a dryer pilot switch?

a) 1,
b) 2,
c) 3,
d) 7.

72. Which symbol represents a timer motor?

a) 4,
b) 5,
c) 6,
d) 7.

73. 3 hot water boilers each firing at 500MBH, 2 hot water heaters each firing at 270MBH and 1
domestic hot water heater firing at 30MBH. Consider the grill to have 80% free air space. What size
should the grill be?

a) 275 sq in
b) 300 sq in
c) 1200 sq in
d) 240 sq in

74. A one cubic foot test dial on a NG meter makes one revolution every 22 seconds.
Approximately how many BTUH are being generated?

a) 164MBH
b) 41MBH
c) 75MBH
d) 82MBH

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75. A used appliance can be re-installed if:

a) all parts are original

b) inspected and deemed safe
c) within 10 years of manufacture
d) within 15 years of manufacture

76 . What is the best method of adjusting and setting the pressure on an appliance regulator?

a) Adjust the regulator set point by observing the appliance flame.

b) Adjusting the regulator set point using a manometer to the appliance rating.
c) Adjusting the regulator set point to within 10% above the appliance rating.
d) Adjusting the regulator set point to within 10% below the appliance rating.

77. What are the main components of a gas-fired refrigerator?

a) generator, evaporator, radiator, absorber

b) generator, evaporator, capacitor, absorber
c) generator, evaporator, compressor absorber
d) generator, evaporator, absorber, condenser

78. Is it permissible to use the propane side of a refrigerator in a recreational vehicle while
in the vehicle is in motion?

a) No
b) No, unless the vehicle is only being moved to a more level location.
c) Yes
d) Yes, if the vehicle is being moved 1 mile or less

79. Which of the following are used in an absorption refrigeration cycle?

a) Ammonia and helium

b) Ammonia and hydrogen
c) Ammonia and propane
d) Ammonia and butane.

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 80. What materials are approved for joining single wall vent connectors?

a) Duct tape.
b) Pop rivets.
c) Sheet metal screws.
d) Silicone or adhesive.

81. Net stack temperature is the flue gas temperature:

a) Downstream of the draft hood.

b) Upstream of the draft hood.
c) Plus the ambient temperature.
d) Minus the ambient temperature.

82. Two undesirable products of incomplete combustion are:

a) Carbon monoxide and aldehydes

b) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen.
c) Carbon dioxide and aldehydes.
d) Carbon dioxide and heat.

83. When using a flue gas analyser which measures CO2 and you are in doubt as to the
accuracy of the reading, how would you verify the accuracy of the instrument?

a) By comparing it to a second sample.

b) By comparing it to a known sample.
c) By checking it against the gas meter test dial.
d) By checking it against the appliance manufacturers maximum input rating.

84. How is a high limit tested on a forced warm air furnace?

a) By disconnecting the air circulating blower.

b) By disconnecting the wire to the limit control.
c) By disconnecting one wire on the thermostat when the furnace is warm.
d) By shutting off the gas control so that the furnace will cool down.

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 85. What type of burner is used in conversion burners?

a) Ribbon burner
b) Flash burner
c) Purge burner
d) Inshot burner

86 . What will be the result if too large a fire pot is used in a converted furnace or boiler?

a) Pulsation will occur.

b) There will be poor efficiency.
c) The limit control will be ineffective.
d) The high limit switch will open.

87. When the installation of an appliance constitutes a conversion from another form of
energy to gas, the installer must:

a) Advise the user in writing of the procedures to be followed to discontinue the supply of the
former form of energy.
b) Remove all aspects of the previous installation.
c) Remove the electrical supply wiring from the panel.
d) Advise the previous energy supplier of the change.

88. What is the minimum clearance to combustibles from the top of the plenum of a
converted forced warm air furnace?

a) 1”
b) 3”
c) 6”
d) 12”

89. An exhaust pipe shall discharge into :

a) a gas vent
b) a chimney that has a temperature rating less than the maximum temperature
of the exhaust gas
c) a chimney that serves another appliance.
d) none of the above

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90. What is the minimum service clearance vertical of a boiler?

a) 18”
b) 24”
c) 36”
d) 4”

91. Gross stack temperature is the flue gas temperature:

a) Downstream of the draft hood.

b) Upstream of the draft hood.
c) Plus the ambient temperature.
d) Minus the ambient temperature.

92. As the outlet temperature decreases from a water heater to the heating loop in a
combination heating system, the:

a) Heating output from the air handler decreases.

b) Heating output from the air handler increases.
c) Rate of heat transfer from the water to the air increases.
d) Greater the temperature drop through the heating loop.

93. The discharge piping from the temperature and pressure relief valve on a water heater
shall terminate not more than ___ From the floor.

a) 3”
b) 6”
c) 12”
d) 18”

94. Which of the following statements is correct concerning a combination heating system
employing a water heater to supply domestic hot water and space heating?

a) An air handler can be concealed in a space just like ductwork.

b) Check valves must be installed in both the supply and return line of the heating loop.
c) The T&P valve must be removed from the water heater.
d) Isolation valves should be installed in both the supply and return line of the heating loop.

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95. A gurgling sound coming from a firing water heater may be a symptom of:

a) Low gas pressure.

b) Overfiring.
c) Too low a water temperature, erratic temperature control.
d) A situation where deliming is required.

96. “Temperature rise”, when applied to a hot water heater is the:

a) Difference between outdoor temperature and the flue gas temperature.

b) Water temperature difference across the heater.
c) Temperature difference between the bottom and top of the heater.
d) Height of the hot water piping system.

97. The temperature of the water returning from the heating loop in a combination system
employing a water heater for domestic hot water and space heating must be:

a) Higher than the outlet temperature from the water heater.

b) No more than 5 degrees C below the outlet temperature from the water heater.
c) Lower than the minimum temperature required to activate the burner.
d) At least the set temperature of the domestic hot water supply.

98. The components of a copper fin tube, instantaneous water heater are a/an:

a) anti-scald device and a pump control.

b) Pump, pump control, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve,
and a limit control.
c) E.C.O., temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and a dip tube.
d) Temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and a limit control.

99. Net stack temperature is the flue gas temperature:

a) Downstream of the draft hood

b) Upstream of the draft hood
c) Plus the ambient temperature
d) Minus the ambient temperature.

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100. Two undesirable products of incomplete combustion are:

a) Carbon monoxide and aldehydes

b) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen.
c) Carbon dioxide and aldehydes
d) Carbon dioxide and heat.

101. When using a flue gas analyser which measures CO2 and you are in doubt as to the
accuracy of the reading, how would you verify the accuracy of the instrument?

a) By comparing it to a second sample.

b) By comparing it to a known sample.
c) By checking it against the gas meter test dial.
d) By checking it against the appliance manufacturers maximum input rating.

102. How is a high limit tested on a forced warm air furnace?

a) By disconnecting the air circulating blower

b) By disconnecting the wire to the limit control
c) By disconnecting one wire on the thermostat when the furnace is warm
d) By shutting off the gas control so that the furnace will cool down.

103. What type of burner is used in conversion burners?

a) Ribbon burner
b) Flash burner
c) Purge burner
d) Inshot burner

104. What will the result be if too large a fire pot is used in a converted furnace or boiler?

a) Pulsation will occur.

b) There will be poor efficiency.
c) The limit control will be ineffective.
d) The high limit switch will open.

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105. When the installation of an appliance constitutes a conversion from another form of
energy to gas, the installer must:

a) Advise the user in writing of the procedures to be followed to discontinue the supply
of the former form of energy.
b) Remove all aspects of the previous installation
c) Remove the electrical supply wiring from the panel
d) Advise the previous energy supplier of the change

106. What is the minimum clearance to combustibles from the top of the plenum of a
converted forced warm air furnace?

a) 1”
b) 3”
c) 6”
d) 12”

107. What is the minimum service clearance in front of a boiler?

a) 18”
b) 24”
c) 36”
d) 48”

108. A dryer shall have a minimum___ front clearance from combustible material

a) 12"
b) 16"
c) 18"
d) 36"

109. As the outlet temperature decreases from a water heater to the heating loop in
a combination heating system, the:

a) Heating output from the air handler decreases

b) Heating output from the air handler increases
c) Rate of heat transfer from the water to the air increases
d) Greater the temperature drop through the heating loop.

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110. The discharge piping from the temperature and pressure relief valve on a water heater shall
terminate not more than how high from the floor.

a) 3”
b) 6”
c) 12”
d) 18”

111. Which of the following statements is correct concerning a combination heating system
employing a water heater to supply domestic hot water and space heating?

a) An air handler can be concealed in a space just like ductwork

b) Check valves must be installed in both the supply and return line of the heating loop
c) The T&P valve must be removed from the water heater
d) Isolation valves should be installed in both the supply and return line of the heating loop.

112. A gurgling sound coming from a firing water heater may be a symptom of:

a) Low gas pressure

b) Overfiring
c) Too low a water temperature, erratic temperature control
d) A situation where deliming is required.

113. Temperature rise, when applied to a hot water heater is the:

a) Difference between outdoor temperature and the flue gas temperature

b) Water temperature difference across the heater
c) Temperature difference between the bottom and top of the heater
d) Height of the hot water piping system.

114. The temperature of the water returning from the heating loop in a combination system
employing a water heater for domestic hot water and space heating must be:

a) Higher than the outlet temperature from the water heater

b) No more than 5dC below the outlet temperature from the water heater
c) Lower than the minimum temperature required to activate the burner
d) At least the set temperature of the domestic hot water supply

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115. The components for a copper fin tube, instantaneous water heater are a/an:

a) anti-scald device and a pup control

b) Pump, pump control, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve, and a limit control
c) E.C.O. temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and a dip tube
d) Temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and a limit control.

116. The most likely cause of an intermittent hissing sound “like water dripping on something hot”
coming from a water heater is:

a) An intermittent leak in the flue that seals once the tank heats up.
b) Condensation in the flue passage caused by drawing water from the tank when the hot water
has been depleted
c) Condensation in the flue passage caused by high humidity in the combustion air supply to the
water heater
d) Condensation in the flue passage caused by high moisture content in the gas supply.

117. Most thermostatically controlled domestic hot water heaters utilize:

a) bi-metallic sensing
b) Rod and tube sensing
c) Liquid filled sensors
d) Vapour filled sensors.

118. When determining the position of an air handler and a water heater to be connected for
combination heating use, the most important factor to consider from the following list is:

a) Venting of the water heater

b) Water piping for the water heater
c) Duct design for the air handler
d) Water piping to the air handler

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119. A customer complains that the pilot goes out every once in a while. This is the
second service call for this problem this month. When the pilot is reestablished, the closed
circuit millivolt test stays steady at 14mV, the magnet drops out at 4mV,
what should be done next?

a) Replace the gas valve because the magnet is weak

b) Clean and adjust the pilot and burners
c) Replace the thermocouple
d) Check for another problem such as down draft or pilot position.

120. Which of the following is required to determine the size of a circulator pump to be used on a
combination heating system employing a water heater?

a) The temperature of the water and the amount of lift in the system
b) The required water flow rate and the head pressure in the complete heating loop
c) The diameter and length of the straight piping in the entire system
d) The temperature and the velocity of the water in both the domestic plumbing system and
heating system.

121. When diluting muriatic acid with water:

a) Add the acid to the water

b) Add the water to the acid
c) Add water to the acid one drop at a time for 10 drops then add the full amount
d) Add acid to the water one drop at a time for 10 drops then add the full amount.

122. What should be done if a relief valve is leaking?

a) Remove the valve and clean off the calcium deposits

b) Replace the valve seat and check for the cause of the activation
c) Replace the relief valve and check for the cause of the activation
d) Open a tap and relieve the tank pressure until the flow stops at the relief valve.

123. The flow rate of the water passing through a heating coil of an air handler is controlled by the:

a) Aquastat on the water heater

b) Balancing valve on the heating loop
c) Mixing vale on the heating loop
d) Mixing valve on the domestic hot water system.

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124. Which instrument is used to determine the speed of a direct drive fan motor?

a) A voltmeter
b) A manometer
c) An anemometer
d) A tachometer.

125. Which of the following applies if a furnace is used for temporary heat in a residence under
construction?

a) The connection from the furnace to rigid pipe is made with a flex connector not exceeding 6 ft in
length.
b) Plenums must not be installed until construction is complete
c) The furnace must be installed on a finished concrete floor or slab at least 4” thick and 6” larger
than the base of the furnace.
d) The furnace must be wired in accordance with the electrical code except that an “on” and “off”
switch is not required until construction is completed.

126. From the following list, what is the most probably cause of a service call where a combustion gas
odour is detected in the heated space whenever the circulating blower activates?

a) Cracked heat exchanger

b) A problem in the air circulating or distribution system
c) The vent or chimney is plugged
d) The filter requires cleaning or replacement.

127. The high temperature limit switch in the circuitry of a conventional residential furnace is wired in
series with the:

a) Fan motor
b) Manual fan switch
c) Gas valve
d) Summer/winter switch.

128. Which of the following is the best procedure to increase the furnace blower speed?

a) Close up the motor pulley

b) Open up the motor pulley
c) Increase the size of the return air duct
d) Install a higher horsepower fan motor.

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129. There is a no heat call for the system, use the following…

Terminals at the thermostat reads 24V

Gas valve coil reads 0V
Gas Coil to gas coil common reads 24V
Points across high limit read 0 volts.

Determine which component is open…

a) Gas valve coil

b) Thermostat
c) High limit
d) Transformer

130. There is a no heat call for the system. Using the following…

Thermostat terminals read 0V

Gas valve coil terminals read 0V
High limit terminals read 110V
L & N terminals read 110V

Determine which component is open:

a) Gas valve coil

b) Thermostat
c) High limit
d) Motor

131. There is a no heat call for the system, use the following…

Thermostat terminals read 0V

Gas valve coil terminals read 24V
Gas valve (thermostat side) to common terminals read 0V
Gas valve (transformer side) to common terminals read 24V

Determine which component is open:

a) Gas valve coil
b) Thermostat
c) High limit
d) Transformer

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132. What is the recommended location for a cooling coil on a suspended or horizontal furnace?

a) On the return air side

b) On the supply air side
c) On either side of the air circulating blower
d) Cooling coils are not recommended in these applications.

133. What is the minimum distance that the vent from a 75,000 Btuh Category 3 furnace may terminate
from a door?

a) 1 foot
b) 3 feet
c) 6 feet
d) 10 feet

134. What is the minimum distance that the vent from a 175,000 Btuh Category 3 furnace may
terminate from a door?

a) 1 foot
b) 3 feet
c) 6 feet
d) 10 feet

135. A low water cut off device on an automatically fired hot water heating boiler rated at
350,000Btuh (102kW) is:

a) Not required if a limit control is installed

b) Not required if it is installed in an industrial application
c) Required when any portion of the circulating system is located below the boiler
d) Required only in commercial applications.

136. A low water cut off device on an automatically fired hot water heating boiler rated at
450,000Btuh is:
a) Not required if a limit control is installed
b) Not required if it is installed in an industrial application
c) Always required
d) Required only in commercial applications.

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137. A backflow preventer used in a boiler system should be located in the:

a) Over flow line connected to the drain

b) Return line close to the boiler
c) ¾ inch line connecting the boiler and cushion tank
d) Make up water line to the system

138. The external bypass valve is set by:

a) Shutting off the pump

b) Viewing the burner flame size
c) Determining the appliance input
d) Determining the temperature rise across the appliance

139. The relief valve for a low pressure steam system should be set at:

a) 14.7 psia
b) 15 psig
c) 30 psia
d) 30 psig

140. The relief valve for a low pressure hot water system should be set at:

a) 14.7 psia
b) 15 psig
c) 30 psia
d) 30 psig

141. Aquastats respond to changes in:

a) Flue gas temperature

b) Water temperature
c) Stack temperature
d) Air temperature.

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142. A fire tube boiler has:

a) Water outside the tubes and flue gases outside

b) Water inside the tubes and flue gases outside
c) Water inside the tubes and water outside
d) Water outside the tubes and flue gases inside.

143. If it has been determined that a steam boiler burner is on and the water gauge glass
indicates no water, what should be done immediately?

a) Shut off the fuel supply

b) Open the water supply
c) Notify the building owner
d) Adjust the high pressure limit control.

144. Which of the following is acceptable when a fireplace insert is installed?

a) A metal chimney liner

b) The existing fireplace flue
c) BW vent
d) A tile lined fireplace flue

145. What type of room heater may be installed in a bathroom?

a) Natural draft
b) Direct fired
c) Forced draft
d) Direct vent

146. What type of vent must be used when the vent of a wall furnace will be concealed
in a partition wall?

a) B vent
b) L vent
c) BH vent
d) BW vent

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147. Dirt pockets are required on:

a) Decorative appliances
b) Gas logs
c) Room heaters
d) None of the above.

148. Single wall vent connectors:

a) May pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided a metal thimble is used
b) May pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided the required minimum distance from
combustible materials is maintained
c) May pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided they are insulated
d) Shall not pass through floors, ceilings or roofs.

149. What is the minimum size of a single wall vent connector which could be used for a single
naturaldraft appliance having an input of 1,000,000Btuh where the vent connector length is 20
feet and the chimney height is 50 feet.

a) 8 inch diameter
b) 10 inch diameter
c) 12 inch diameter
d) 16 inch diameter

150. When sizing either a vent or a chimney which will vent more than one natural gas appliance,
whichof the following could be used in determining the size of the common vent?

a) The area of the common vent shall equal the total area of all the flue collars
b) The area of the common vent shall equal the area of the largest single flue collar
c) The area of the common vent shall equal area of either the largest draft control device outlet
or the largest flue outlet plus 50% of the sum of the outlet areas of the additional appliances
d) The area of the common vent shall equal the area of either the largest draft control device
outlet of the largest flue outlet plus 75% of the sum of the outlet areas of the additional
appliances.

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151. When a gas fired appliance is vented into a chimney flue serving an appliance which
burns a solidfuel in a commercial or industrial application, how shall the vent from the gas
appliance be installed?

a) Through a separate flue opening above the flue pipe connection from the other appliance
b) Through a separate flue opening below the flue pipe connector from the other appliance
c) Through a job fabricated branch fitting located not more than 30 inches from the flue entrance
to the chimney
d) Through a field fabricated branch fitting located not more than 60 inches from the flue entrance
to the chimney.

152. A water heater with a draft diverter is to be connected to a masonry chimney using a single wall
vent connector. The vent connector rise “R” will be 2 feet, “H” is determined to be 25 feet, the water
heater is rated at 50,000 Btuh and will be located 3 feet from the chimney. Determine the vent size and
maximum input of the vent if the house is 25 years old. (Do not use interpolation.)

a) 4 inch diameter, 73 cfh

b) 4 inch diameter, 67 cfh
c) 4 inch diameter, 68 cfh
d) 4 inch diameter, 81 cfh.

153. In a particular installation, the required air supply opening is 50 square inches. When using a grill
rated at 75% free area, what is the rough opening?

a) 37.5 square inches

b) 40 square inches
c) 62.5 square inches
d) 66.6 square inches.

154. A 60,000 Btuh water heater with no draft diverter is to be installed in a closet type enclosure and
all air is to be taken from indoors.

a) An 11 square inch lower opening only

b) An 11 square inch lower opening and an 11 square inch upper opening
c) A 60 square inch lower opening only
d) A 60 square inch lower opening and a 60 square inch upper opening.

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155. What is the minimum clearance required from combustible material when a single wall vent
connector is used to vent is used to vent a warm air furnace?

a) 1 inch
b) 3 inches
c) 6 inches
d) 8 inches

156. An appliance rated over 400,000 Btuh is installed in a boiler room. The combustion air opening is
calculated to be 90 square inches. What size ventilation air opening is required?

a) 9 square inches
b) 10 square inches
c) 100 square inches
d) 900 square inches

157. It has been determined that a free air opening of 152 square inches is required for an installation.
How large would the opening have to be if the grill has 75% free area?

a) 114 square inches

b) 122 square inches
c) 190 square inches
d) 203 square inches

158. When draft control is required, which of the following appliances would utilize a single acting type
draft regulator?

a) A batch oven
b) A steam boiler
c) An incinerator
d) An atmospheric gas generator

159. What is the minimum distance above a flat roof that a vent can terminate if it is 8 feet horizontally
from an adjoining building which is 4 feet higher than the top of the building on which the vent is
located.

a) 2 feet
b) 4 feet
c) 4 feet and 6 inches
d) 6 feet

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 160. 5 boilers with draft diverters are to be installed in an enclosed furnace room. The volume of the
room is 15,000 cubic feet. The input for each boiler is 300,000 Btuh. What size free air opening is
required?

a) 179 square inches

b) 207 square inches
c) 215 square inches
d) 500 square inches

161. An appliance vent shall terminate from any building mechanical air inlet by at least:

a) 1 foot
b) 3 feet
c) 6 feet
d) 10 feet

162. What will the result be if the 24 volt transformer for a power humidifier is wired in series with the
humidistat and the humidifier motor?

a) The humidifier motor will burn out

b) The humidifier motor will not be energized
c) The humidifier motor will operate properly
d) The humidifier motor will run at half speed.

163. What happens to the system in the cooling mode if the prefilter in an electronic air gets plugged
with dirt?

a) The fan motor cycles on overload

b) The cooling coil frosts
c) The furnace shuts off on high limit
d) The air cleaner freezes up.

164. Plate humidifiers operate:

a) All the time the fan is running

b) Only when the fan is on low speed
c) Only when the fan is on high speed
d) Only when the humidistat calls.

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165. What is the approximate secondary voltage range of an electronic air cleaner?

a) 120 – 240 volts

b) 600 – 1,000 volts
c) 2,000 – 5,000 volts
d) 9,000 – 12,000 volts

166. How many duct openings are required for a bypass humidifier?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

167. How are excessive levels of ozone produced?

a) Insufficient air flow

b) Excessive air flow
c) Insufficient secondary air flow
d) Excessive primary air flow.

168. What must be ensured before electronic cells are removed for cleaning?

a) Air proving switch must be open

b) Pre-filter must be removed
c) Cells must be de-energized and discharged
d) Fan switch must be in the automatic position.

169. A pressure reading of 14.7 psia is equivalent to:

a) 0 psig
b) 2.31 in W.C.
c) 24.7 psig
d) 27.78 in W.C.

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170. In domestic heat pump applications, what is the minimum volume of supply air (cfm) per ton of
cooling required?

a) 250
b) 300
c) 400
d) 450

171. What is the normal return air requirements for forced air furnaces?(cfm)

a) 700
b) 800
c) 900
d) 1000

172. What is the normal supply air volume for forced air furnaces in cfm.

a) 500
b) 600
c) 700
d) 800

173. Convection is:

a) Heat transfer through solid objects

b) Heat transfer through fluids
c) A wave form of heat transfer
d) A form of latent heat transfer.

174. Heat Conduction is:

a) Heat transfer through solid objects

b) Heat transfer through fluids
c) A wave form of heat transfer
d) A form of latent heat transfer.

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175. Radiant heat is:

a) Heat transfer through solid objects

b) Heat transfer through fluids
c) A wave form of heat transfer
d) A form of latent heat transfer

176. A British Thermal Unit is the amount of heat required to:

a) Raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit.
b) Raise the temperature of one pound of a substance by one degree Fahrenheit.
c) Change one pound of a substance from a liquid to a vapour.
d) Change one pound of ice to water at 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

177. If the fan compartment door of an appliance is left off the motor:

a) Voltage will decrease

b) Voltage will increase
c) Current will decrease
d) Current will increase

1788. In order to prevent condensation from forming on the outside of a duct, the
duct must be:

a) Insulated on the inside

b) Insulated on the outside
c) Connected with a flex connector
d) Wrapped with a moisture barrier

179. Air filtration devices are generally located in the:

a) Supply air plenum

b) Fresh air plenum
c) Return air plenum
d) Exhaust air plenum

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 180. A domestic air conditioner, what is the minimum supply air in CFM per ton of cooling required?

a) 250
b) 300
c) 400
d) 450

181. You are replacing an old natural gas fired furnace, the old furnace was firing at 140MBtuh.
The heat loss calculations determined that the house, 1200 square feet required 45 Btuh / square foot.
What size furnace should be installed?

a) 75 MBtuh
b) 50 MBtuh
c) 80 MBtuh
d) 100 MBtuh

182. You are replacing an old propane fired warm air furnace. The new furnace will be fired at 100
MBtuh, with a blower moving 1400 cfm. What size of return air duct should be installed on this new
furnace?

a) 8” x 36”
b) 10” x 29”
c) 12” x 24”
d) 10” x 36”

183. From the following, what is equivalent to 28” W.C.?

a) 0 psia
b) 14.7 psia
c) 15.7 psia
d) 1 psig

184. What is 0.5 psig in “inches W.C.”?

a) 7” W.C.
b) 21” W.C.
c) 14” W.C.
d) 3.5” W.C.

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 185. If 1 cubic foot of natural gas is 1000 Btuh, what is the ratio of combustion air?

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 30

186. A half cubic foot test dial on a natural gas meter makes one revolution every 60 seconds.
Approximately how many Btuh are being generated?

a) 30 MBtuh
b) 41 MBtuh
c) 60 MBtuh
d) 82 MBtuh

187. A one cubic foot test dial on a natural gas meter makes one revolution every 60 seconds.
Approximately how many Btuh are being generated?

a) 30 MBtuh
b) 41 MBtuh
c) 60 MBtuh
d) 82 MBtuh

188. If 1 cubic foot of propane gas is 2500 Btuh, what is the ratio of combustion air?

a) 10
b) 25
c) 5
d) 30

189. If 1 cubic foot of natural gas is 1000 Btuh, what is the ratio of dilution air?

a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 30

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190. If 1 cubic foot of natural gas is 1000 Btuh, what is the ratio of excess air?

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30

191. If 1 cubic foot of natural gas is 1000 Btuh, what is the ratio of total air?

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 30

192. What is the flame temperature for natural gas?

a) 1200 degrees Fahrenheit

b) 2400 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 3600 degrees Fahrenheit
d) 3800 degrees Fahrenheit

193. What is the flame temperature for propane gas?

a) 920 degrees Fahrenheit

b) 1200 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 1800 degrees Fahrenheit
d) 3600 degrees Fahrenheit

194. What is the flame speed for natural gas?

a) 5 inches / sec
b) 11 inches / sec
c) 12 inches / sec
d) 15 inches / sec

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195. What is the flame speed for propane gas?

a) 5 inches / sec
b) 11 inches / sec
c) 12 inches / sec
d) 15 inches / sec

196. What is the ignition temperature for natural gas?

a) 920 degrees Fahrenheit

b) 1000 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 1300 degrees Fahrenheit
d) 3600 degrees Fahrenheit

197. What is the ignition temperature for propane gas?

a) 920 degrees Fahrenheit

b) 1200 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 1800 degrees Fahrenheit
d) 3600 degrees Fahrenheit

198. What is the explosion limits for natural gas?

a) 2.4 to 9.5%
b) 1.9 to 8.5%
c) 4 to 15%
d) 5 to 10%

199. What is the explosion limits for natural gas?

a) 2.4 to 9.5%
b) 1.9 to 8.5%
c) 4 to 15%
d) 5 to 10%

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200. What is the explosion limits for propane gas?

a) 2.4 to 9.5%
b) 1.9 to 8.5%
c) 4 to 15%
d) 5 to 10%

201. What is the primary component of natural gas?

a) Ethanol
b) Methane
c) Propane
d) Butane.

202. When two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series, what is the net result?

a) 0 ohms
b) 5 ohms
c) 10 ohms
d) 20 ohms.

203. When two 10 ohm resistors are connected in parallel, what is the net result?

a) 0 ohms
b) 5 ohms
c) 10 ohms
d) 20 ohms

204. When two 10 microfarad capacitors are connected in series, what is the net result?

a) 0 mf
b) 5 mf
c) 10 mf
d) 20 mf.

205. When two 10 microfarad capacitors are connected in parallel, what is the net result?

a) 0 mf
b) 5 mf
c) 10 mf
d) 20 mf

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 206. State Ohms Law?

a) Resistance = current / voltage

b) Current = voltage / resistance
c) A potential of 2 volts across a resistance of 1 ohm will produce a current of 1 amp.
d) A potential of 1 volt across a resistance of 1 ohm will yield a flow of a 1 amp current.

207. What substance is added to natural gas to provide an odour to it?

a) Propane
b) Ethanol
c) Mercaptan
d) H2O

208. What is the boiling point of natural gas (the point at which it changes from a liquid to a
gaseous state)?

a) -40 degrees Fahrenheit

b) -258 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 0 degrees Fahrenheit
d) -32 degrees Fahrenheit.

209. The weight of gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of air is known as the
specific gravity of gas. What is the specific gravity of natural gas?

a) 0.51
b) 0.60
c) 1.00
d) 1.52

210. The weight of gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of air is known as the
specific gravity of gas. What is the specific gravity of propane gas?

a) 0.51
b) 0.60
c) 1.00
d) 1.52

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211. The weight of liquid propane is compared to the weight of an equal volume of water is known as
the specific gravity of liquid propane. What is the specific gravity of liquid propane?

a) 0.51
b) 0.60
c) 1.00
d) 1.52

212. A blue flame is the result of mixing primary air with gas prior to ignition. What is this type of flame
referred to as?

a) A Bunsen flame
b) A luminous flame
c) A gas rich flame
d) An air rich flame.

213. A yellow flame is the result where there is no premixing of primary air with gas prior to ignition.
What is this type of flame called?

a) A Bunsen flame
b) A luminous flame
c) A gas starved flame
d) An air starved flame.

214. There are two appliances in a 10ft x 20ft x 20 ft structure which has an equivalent leakage area
greater than 0.05 square meters. A furnace has a draft hood and an input of 50,000 Btuh. The second
appliance has an input of 100,000 Btuh, and does not have a draft hood. The required combustion air
opening size is:

a) 0 square inches (0 mm2)

b) 7 square inches (4500 mm2)
c) 9 square inches (5800 mm2)
d) 11 square inches (7000 mm2)

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215. When two or more gas overpressure relief valves are installed, they may be
connected into a single vent line, provided that:

a) the single vent line has an area equal to the largest relief valve opening plus 25%
of the total area of the other relief valve openings.
b) the single vent line has an area equal to the largest relief valve opening plus 75%
of the total area of the other relief valve openings.
c) the single vent line has an area equal to the largest relief valve opening plus 50%
of the total area of the other relief valve openings.
d) the single vent line has an area equal to the largest relief valve opening plus 44%
of the total area of the other relief valve openings.

216. in applications with frequent oeration of throttling of water flow you would use:

a) a ball valve
b) a globe valve
c) a gate valve
d) a valve

217. A furnace is found off on high imit, which is the most likly cause:

a) too much air supply

b) cracks in heat exchanger
c) overfired gas valve
d) return air too low

218. The ventor motor on a power vent water heater fails, this component
prevents operation:

a) Pressure relief valve

b) ECO switch
c) High limit switch
d) pressure switch

219. One way to check for leaks at a fitting is:

a) using a burning match

b) using a lighter
c) using mineral oil
d) Using soapy water

220. What must be done to piping or tubing passing through concrete?

a) it must be avoided
b) it must be sized one size larger
c) it must be sized one size smaller
d) it must be sleeved
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