CPP-06

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Electromagnetic Induction

1. An ideal conducting rod is moving under the 4. The ratio of initial and final (steady state) current of
influence of a constant force between two parallel the circuit is
ideal conducting rails. There is a capacitor
L
connected between the ends of the two rails. A
uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to the
plane of the rails. Neglecting all kinds of dissipative
t=0 s R
forces and gravity, identify the correct statement E (emf) r

x x x
F=constant
C R r
(1) (2)
x x x r Rr

Rr R
(1) the velocity of the rod becomes constant after (3) (4)
r Rr
a certain duration
(2) the acceleration of the rod becomes zero after
certain instant x x
x
(3) the acceleration of the rod becomes constant 5. x A x  = 2 rad/s
immediately after the start of motion O B R = 1m
x x x B = 1T
(4) both (1) and (2)
2. The self inductance of a toroid of radius R (>>r) and x x
total number of turns N is (r = radius of each turn)
The e.m.f. induced between points A and B of the
 Nr 2  Nr 2 rod which is being rotated with constant angular
(1) 0 (2) 0 velocity in uniform magnetic field is (Point A is mid
R 2R
point of rod)
 0N2r 2 40Nr
(3) (4) 1 3
2R R (1) volt (2) volt
4 4
3. Two inductors of inductances 9H and 4H are coupled
in series. The separation between them and relative 1
orientation is fixed and once they are connected in (3) 3 volt (4) volt
2
configuration A and then in configuration B as below
6. If the current in long straight current carrying wire
increases with the time then direction of induced
(A) current in circular loop is

(B)
If the maximum and minimum equivalent inductance
of the combination is found to be 16H and 3H, the
coupling constant is
12 13 (1) Clockwise
(1) (2)
13 12 (2) Anticlockwise
(3) First clockwise and then anticlockwise
13 13
(3) (4) (4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
24 22

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Electromagnetic Induction Aakash Institute
7. In the given figure shown below, a conducting 10. A vertical conducting ring of radius R falls vertically
circular loop of radius ‘l’ is placed in a uniform and in horizontal uniform magnetic field of magnitude B.
perpendicular magnetic field B. A metal rod OA is The direction of B is perpendicular to plane inward.
pivoted at centre ‘O’ of the loop. The other end A When speed of ring is v
of rod touches the loop. The rod OA and loop are
resistanceless but a resistance ‘R’ is connected C
between O and fixed point ‘e’ of loop. The rod is
rotated with angular velocity . The current in
resistance R is A B D

A E

(1) Current flows in the ring

(2) A and D are at the same potential

O
R (3) C and E are different potential
e
(4) The potential difference between A and D is
2BRV, with D at a higher potential

11. Figure shows the top view of a rod that can slide
Bl2 Bl2 without friction. The resistor is 6.0 and a 2.5T
(1) (2)
R 2R uniform magnetic field is directed perpendicularly
downward into paper. If length of moving rod is 1.2m
and it moves with a constant speed of 2 m/s then
B 2l B 2l2 the rate at which energy is delivered to the resistor
(3) (4)
R 2R is

8. Keeping number of turns constant, self inductance B

‘L’ of solenoid varies with its length ‘l’ is (Cross-
sectional area remains unchanged) R
 F
1
(1) L  l (2) L
l
(1) 12 W (2) 6 W

1 (3) 3 W (4) 20 W
(3) L  l2 (4) L
l2
12. A pair of coils of turns n1 and n2 are kept close
9. In the following circuit, the magnetic energy stored together. Current passing through the first is
reducing at rate r, and e.m.f 3 mV is developed
in inductor in steady state is
across the other coil. If the second coil carries
current which is then reduced at the rate 2r, the
V R1 emf produced across the first coil will be

R2
6n1 6n2
(1) mV (2) mV
n2 n1

3
(3) 6 mV (4) mV
L 2

13. Two coils of self inductance 4mH and 9mH are

2 2 placed such that flux of one coil is partially linked
1  V  1  V with other coil. If mutual inductance of the system
(1) L L
2  R1  R2 
(2)
2  R1  is 3mH, then coefficient of coupling of the two
circuits is
2 2 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
1  V 1 2  R1  R2 
(3) L V L
2  R2 
(4)
2  R1R2  (3) 0.75 (4) .90

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Aakash Institute Electromagnetic Induction
14. A rod of length  m moves in x-y plane with a 17. Two inductors having self inductance ‘L1’ and ‘L2’ are
arranged as shown in the given figure. If ‘M’ be the
 

velocity v  2i  3j m/s in a magnetic field mutual inductance for the given pair of coils, then
find the equivalent inductance between

 
B  i  j  k T. The magnitude of induced e.m.f. A and B (assume that the sense of coiling is same
for both)
along the rod is
B
y L1 L2
(0,4m) A
rod
(3m,0)
x (1) L1 + L2 – M (2) L1 + L2 + 2M

(1) 12 V (2) 15 V L1  L2 

(3) L1 + L2 – 2M (4) M
2
(3) 17 V (4) 1 V

15. The magnetic flux  decreases linearly with time 18. A current carrying straight conductor of infinite
according to the given  - t graph. Which of the length is placed at distance ‘x’ from a rectangular
conducting loop having side length ‘a’ and ‘b’. The
following graphs represents variation of emf
mutual inductance of the given system is
induced(E) against time (t) ?

i b
t x
t0
a

E E

(1) (2) o a a x

t (1) ln  
t 2  a 
t0 t0

o b  x  a 
(2) ln  
2  x 
E E

to o b xa
(3) (4) (3) ln  
t t 2  a 
to

o a a x
16. Two conducting rings of radii r and 2r are moving in (4) ln  
2  x 
opposite direction with velocities 2v and v
respectively, as shown in figure on a conducting
19. For the given R–L circuit, the time constant is
surface S. There is a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude B existing perpendicular to the plane of R 2R
the rings. The potential difference between the
L
highest points of the two rings is
2R R

B×
2v v
L 3L
S (1) (2)
4R 4R

(1) Zero (2) 2Bvr

L L
(3) (4)
(3) 4rvB (4) 8rvB 3R R
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Electromagnetic Induction Aakash Institute
20. For the given R–L circuits the current through the 23. Consider a thin metallic sheet perpendicular to the
cell just after switch is closed plane of the paper moving with speed ‘v’ in a
uniform magnetic field ‘B’ going into the plane of
3R 3R the paper (see fig.). If charge densities 1 and 2
are induced on the left and right surfaces,
S
M N respectively of the sheet then (Ignore fringe effects)
E (emf)
6R 3R
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
L x x x1 x

x x
x x x x2 x x
The current through cell at t = 0 is o vB o vB
(1) 1 = , 2 =
2 2
E
(1) (2) 1 = ovB, 2 = –ovB
18R
 o vB  o vB
(3) 1 = , 2 =
10E 2 2
(2)
18R (4) 1 = 2 = ovB

24. In a solenoid, when number of turns is doubled

5E
(3) within same length and cross-section of solenoid,
18R then inductance becomes

(1) 4 times (2) 2 times

2E
(4)
9R (3) 8 times (4) No change

21. A circular ring of radius 1m is placed in a time 25. In an L-R circuit with dc source of emf, the rate at
 which energy is stored in the inductor is plotted
dB against time during the growth of the current in the
varying magnetic field,  2T/s. The potential
dt cirucit, which of the following best represent the
resulting curve ?
difference between P and Q is [where POQ = 90°]

Rate
x x
x x x dB (1)
O = 2T/S time
dt
x x
x
P Q
x Rate
x
1
(1) 1 volt (2) volt (2)
2
time

(3) 2 volt (4) 2 2 volt

Rate
22. Two similar coaxial circular loops carry equal current
in the same direction. On moving loops further
(3)
apart, the electric current will
time
(1) Increase in both
Rate
(2) decrease in both

(3) remain unaltered

(4)
time
(4) Increase in one and decrease in second
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Aakash Institute Electromagnetic Induction
26. Magnetic field in a cylindrical region is given by 30. The maximum mutual inductance of the two coils is
B = t. A positive charge +q of mass m is 8 H. One of the coil has a self inductance of 16 H.
projected from point P as shown Then the self inductance of the other coil is

(1) 8 H (2) 16 H

(3) 4 H (4) 2 H
v
31. A magnetic flux of 500 Wb per turn passing through
P a 200 turns coil is reversed in direction in
R 20 × 10–3 second. The average emf induced in the
coil is

(1) 2.5 V (2) 5 V

The deBroglie wavelength of the charge
(3) 10 V (4) 75 V
(1) increases
32. A straight conductor of length 2.0 m is moving with
(2) decreases speed 2 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field
of induction 1.0 T. The induced emf across the ends
(3) remains unchanged
of the conductor is
(4) remains unchanged irrespective of direction of
(1) 2 volt (2) 4 volt
projection

27. A closed conducting loop is moved with acceleration (3) 8 volt (4) Zero
as shown in the figure. The induced current in the
33. The circular wire loop of radius R is placed in the
loop will be
x–z plane with the centre at the origin. Another
circular loop of radius r (r<<R) having 32 turns is

placed with its centre at y= 3 R . The plane of the
second loop makes an angle of 60° with the y-axis.
The mutual inductance between the loop is
i

– y
60° n

(1) Clockwise and increasing with time 3R

(2) Clockwise and decreasing with time

x
(3) Anti-clockwise and increasing with time R

(4) Anti-clockwise and decreasing with time

z
28. The magnetic flux through a coil of resistance 10 

t3 3 2
varies as  (in weber) =  t  10t  5 . The  0 r 2
3 2 (1)
current in the circuit is zero at R

(1) t = 2 unit (2) t = 5 unit

0r 2
(2)
(3) t = 4 unit (4) t = 0 unit R
29. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal
cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, then acceleration 0r 2
of the magnet, when it is accelerating will be (3)
R
(1) Zero (2) More than g
 0 2r 2
(3) Less than g (4) Equal to g (4)
R

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Electromagnetic Induction Aakash Institute
34. The periphery of an insulating disc of radius R and 36. In an A.C. generator initially (at t=0) the plane of
mass M is charged uniformly and has linear charge the coil is parallel to the magnetic field. Which
density . The disc is rotating freely with constant graph best represents the variation of induced emf
angular velocity 0 about a vertical axis as shown. E with time?
Uniform magnetic field B 0 extends over entire
circular region of disc, pointing downward. If the E E
magnetic field is switched off, then find the value of
B0 for which the disc stops. (1) t (2) t

0
E E
+ + + +
+ (3) t (4) t
+
+ +
+ + + +
37. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
B0 field which is directed into the plane of the paper.
The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate.
The directions of induced currents in wires AB and
CD are
40M
(1)
R x x
x x x x x
C
20M xAx x x x x x
(2)
R x x x x x x x
B
D
0M x x x x x x x
(3)
R
(1) B to A and D to C
0M (2) A to B and C to D
(4)
2R
(3) A to B and D to C
35. A conducting rod of length l, mass m and of
(4) B to A and C to D
negligible resistance slides without friction on two
parallel vertical conducting rails, connected at the 38. Two parallel wires AL and BM placed horizontally at
top through a resistor of resistace R. The rails are a distance W are connected by a resistor R and
also of negligible resistance. A uniform magnetic placed in a magnetic field B which is perpendicular
field B 0 exists, perpendicular to the plane of the to the plane containing the wire. Another wire CD
rails, pointing inward. After a long time, the heat now connects the two wires perpendicularly and
dissipated in the resistor per second is made to slide with constant velocity v. Find power
supplied by external agent while moving rod with
constant velocity V(Friction is absent)
R
A C
L
R X w
B0 B v
B M
D
m2 g2 m2 g2R
(1) (2)
2B2l 2R B2 l 2 B2 w B2 w 2 v
(1) v (2)
R R
2m2 g2R m2 g2 BWv B2 W 2 v 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
B2 l 2 RB2l 2 R R
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Aakash Institute Electromagnetic Induction
39. A circular coil of 500 turns of wire has an enclosed 44. The armature coil of a generator has 20 turns and
area of 0.1m2 per turn. It is kept with its plane its area is 0.127m2. How fast should it be rotated
perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 0.2T in magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2 so that the peak
and rotated by 180° about a diameter perpendicular value of emf induced in it is 160 Volt
to the field in 0.1s. How much charge will pass
when the coil is connected to a galvanometer with (1) 60 rps (2) 100 rps
a combined resistance of 50 ?
(3) 50 rps (4) 120 rps
(1) 0.1C (2) 0.4C
45. The self inductance of a coil is L. Keeping the
(3) 0.3C (4) 0.56C length and area same, the number of turn in coil is
40. Bulb 1 and Bulb 2 are identical. Key is closed at increased to four times. The self inductance of the
t=0 and after the bulbs start glowing with their full coil will now be
intensities, the key is opened. W hich of the L
(1) 16 L (2)
following is correct ? 4
1
2 (3) 4L (4) L
key 46. A small square loop of wires of side b is placed
inside a large square loop of wire of side a > > b
(1) At t=0, both bulbs glows with equal intensities as shown in figure, the loops are coplanar and their
centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the
(2) At t=0, no bulb glows
system is proportional to
(3) At t=0, only bulb 1 glows a
(4) After key is opened, both bulb glows with equal
b
intensities any time
41. The current in a coil is changed from 5A to 10A in
10–2s. An emf of 50 mV is induced in another coil
near by it. The mutual inductance of two coils is
(1) 100 H (2) 200 H
b b2
(3) 300 H (4) 400 H (1) (2)
a a
42. At an instant current in this network is 5A. Find
potential difference between points A and B if the a a2
(3) (4)
current is increasing at 1A/sec b b
47. As shown in figure a conducting circular loop of
A B radius a placed in a uniform perpendicular magnetic
5A 1 15V 5H field B. A metal rod OA is pivoted at centre O of the
loop. The other end A of the rod touches the loop.
(1) 15V (2) 25V
The rod OA and the loop are resistanceless but a
(3) 1V (4) 10V resistor having resistance R is connected between
O and a fixed point C on the loop. The rod OA
43. Consider the circuit shown. The switch is closed at
made to rotate anticlockwise at a small but uniform
t = 0, currents in various branches are marked.
angular speed  by an external force. The current
Which of the following is correct ?
in the resistance R is
1
2
3 × × ×
 R 2R
R L C O 
× × ×
S
R A
 
(1) At t = 0, 1 = , 3 =
3R 3R C
 
× × ×
(2) At t = 0, 1 = , 3 = Ba 2
B22a2
4R 3R (1)  (2) 
2R 2R
 
(3) At t = , 1 = ,  =
2R 2 2R Ba2 B22a2
(3)  (4) 
(4) Both 1 and 3 R 2R
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Electromagnetic Induction Aakash Institute
48. A uniform but time varying magnetic field B(t) exist 51. A semicircular loop of radius R is located on the
in a cylindrical region of radius a and is directed boundary of a uniform magnetic field B. The loop is
into in the plane of the paper, as shown. The set into rotation with a constant angular
magnitude of the induced electric field at point P at acceleration  about an axis O at t=0. Which of
distance r from the centre of the circular region the following graph is between emf induced vs time

x x x
B
× × × P x x x
× × × ×
× × × × x x x
× × × × x x x
× × a× ×
×× ×
 

(1) t (2) t
(1) is zero (2) decreases as 1/r

(3) increases as r (4) decreases as 1/r2

 
49. A loop ABCD containing two resistors is placed in
a uniform magnetic field B directed outwards to the (3) (4)
t
plane of page. A sliding conductor EF of length  t
and of negligible resistance moves to right with
uniform velocity V. Find potential difference across
B and C 52. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin
insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A
= 10 cm2 and length 20 cm. If one of the solenoids
A E B has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual
B inductance is
V B
R1 R2 (1) 1.2 × 10–4 H (2) 5 × 10–4 H

D F C (3) 2.4 × 10–4 H (4) 1.3 × 10–4 H

53. A line charge of linear density  is pasted uniformly

BVR 2 on the rim of a wheel of mass M and radius R. The
(1) (2) Zero wheel has light non conducting spokes and is free
R1
to rotate about a vertical axis. A uniform magnetic
field extends over a circular region centered at the
BV 
(3) R2  R1  (4) BV centre of wheel given by B   Bo k for r < a, and
R1  
B  O for r > a
50. A long conducting wire AH is moved over a o
conducting triangular wire CDE with a constant Z
 + + +
velocity V in a uniform magnetic field B directed xx x xx
into the plane of the paper. Resistance per unit + +
a
length of each wire is . Then, + +
D R
X B
F G
A H What is angular velocity acquired by the wheel as
V
the field is suddenly switched off
C E

(1) Induced emf in the loop remains constant aB a2B

(1) (2)
(2) Induced emf increases with time
MR MR

(3) Induced emf decreases linearly with time

a2B 2a2B
(3) (4)
(4) May increase or decrease 2MR MR

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Aakash Institute Electromagnetic Induction
54. A closed conducting loop is moved towards right 57. A wooden stick of length 3l is rotated about an end
with retardation as shown in the figure. The induced with constant angular velocity  in a uniform
current in the loop will be magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of
1
 motion. If the upper of its length is coated with
3
copper, the potential difference across the coated
length of the stick is
i

l 
–
3l

(1) Clockwise and increasing with time

(2) Clockwise and decreasing with time 9B l2 4B l2

(1) (2)
(3) Anti-clockwise and increasing with time 2 2

(4) Anti-clockwise and decreasing with time

5B l2 B l2
(3) (4)
55. The magnetic flux through a coil kept in a 2 2
magnetic field perpendicular to its plane and
directed into the paper is varying according to the 58. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
relation  = 5t2 + 10t + 5 milliweber. What is the complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current
emf induced in the loop at t = 5 second? i is 5A and is decreasing at rate of 103A/s the VA
– VB is
(1) 0.06 V (2) 0.03 V

(3) 0.04 V (4) 0.05 V

A 1 5mH B
15V
56. A rod of length l and resistance r rotates about one
end as shown in figure. Its other end touches a (1) –5V (2) –10V
conducting ring of negligible resistance. A resistance
R is connected between centre and periphery. Find (3) –15V (4) –20V

current through the resistance R. [as shown B = 59. A rectangular loop with a side wire of length l is
uniform magnetic field in figure) kept in uniform magnetic field as shown in figure.
The Resistance of slider is R. Neglecting self-
B inductance of the loop, find current through the
conductor during its motion with velocity v

O P
R ×B

R v R
Bl 2
B l 2

(1) I (2)
2(R  r) 2(R  r)
2Blv 3Blv
(1) (2)
B l2
Bl2 3R 2R
(3) (4)
2(R  r) 2R
Blv Blv
(3) (4)
2R R



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Electromagnetic Induction Aakash Institute

CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)

22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)

29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (2)

36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (2)

43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)

50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (1)

57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (1)



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 CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - General Principles of Isolation

1. Correct decreasing order of carbon content in 5. The method of refining process represented by the
different forms of iron is following equation is
(1) Wrought iron > pig iron > cast iron
Ti  s   2I2  g 
523K
 TiI4  g  
1700K
Ti  s   2I2  g 
(2) Cast iron > pig iron > wrought iron Impure  Pure 

(3) Pig iron > cast iron > wrought iron (1) Cupellation (2) Zone refining
(4) Cast iron > wrought iron > pig iron (3) Van-Arkel Process (4) Mond’s Process
2. Select the correct match 6. W hich of the following pair of reactions is not
Metals Ores related to self reduction process ?
(a) Siderite (i) Copper (1) 2HgS + 3O2  2HgO + 2SO2
2HgO + HgS  3Hg + SO2
(b) Azurite (ii) Zinc (2) 2PbS + 3O2  2PbO + 2SO2
2PbO + 2C  2Pb + CO2
(c) Sphalerite (iii) Iron
(3) 2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2

(d) Pyrolusite (iv) Manganese 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv) 3

(4) PbS + O  PbO + SO2
(2) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv) 2 2
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) 2PbO + PbS  3Pb + SO2
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) 7. Extraction of Cu by smelting uses silica in order to
3. The chemical composition of slag formed during remove
smelting process in the extraction of copper is (1) FeS (2) Cu2O
(1) Cu2O+FeS (2) FeSiO3 (3) FeO (4) Cu2S
(3) CuFeS2 (4) Cu2S+FeO 8. During extraction of Fe, slag obtained is
4. Consider the following Ellingham diagram (1) FeO (2) FeSiO3
(3) CaSiO3 (4) CaCO3
A 9. During cyanide process for extractio of Ag from
kJ 4 Al  O 
2
Gf 3
2
3
Al2O3
Ag 2S, the oxidising agent and reducing agents
mol used respectively are
O (1) HNO3 and CO
2 Mg
+O 2
2 Mg (2) HNO3 and Zn dust
(3) O2 and CO
Temperature 1673K (4) O2 and Zn dust
W hich of the following statement is/are correct 10. Which method is incorrectly matched for refining of
considering for the above diagram crude metal ?
(1) Below 1673 K Mg can reduce Al2O3 to Al (1) Distillation : Zn and Hg
(2) Above 1673K Al can reduce MgO to Mg (2) Mond’s process : Pb
(3) At point A, no reduction take place (3) Van - Arkel process : Zr
(4) All of these (4) Liquation : Sn

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General Principles of Isolation Aakash Institute
11. Gun metal contains Select the better reducing agent for the reduction of
(1) Cu, Ni (2) Cu, Ni, Fe ZnO to Zn

(3) Cu, Sn, P (4) Cu, Sn, Zn (1) C (2) CO

12. In froth flotation method, sodium xanthate is used (3) CO2 (4) Not predictable
as 20. Select the reactions that occurs in slag formation
(1) Frother (2) Depressant zone in blast furnace for the extraction of iron

(3) Collector (4) Activator (1) Fe2O3+3C2Fe+3CO

(2) CO2+C2CO
13. Which of the following reations show negative slope
in G vs T plot of Ellingham diagram? (3) FeO+SiO2FeSiO3
(4) CaO+SiO2CaSiO3
(1) C  O2  CO2 (2) 2C  O 2  2CO 21. Which is/are purified by zone refining method?
1 (1) Si (2) Ge
(3) 2CO  O 2  2CO (4) Zn  O2  ZnO
2 (3) Ga (4) All of these
14. Metal that can be extracted by smelting is 22. Upto 1073 K in the extraction of Fe, the reducing
Agent is/are
(1) Al (2) Na
(1) CO2 (2) CO
(3) Mg (4) Fe
(3) C (4) All of these
15. Auto-reduction process is used in the extraction of
23. Mac-Arthur Forrest cyanide Method is used to
(1) Zn and Hg (2) Cu and Pb extract
(3) Cu and Al (4) Fe and Pb (1) Fe (2) Ag
16. The percentage of carbon in cast iron is (3) Hg (4) Cu

(1) about 10% (2) about 1% 24. In Ellingham diagram a sudden increase in slope
indicates
(3) about 3% (4) about 4%
(1) Only vapourisation can take place
17. Gold is extracted by Mac-Arthur process based on
(2) Forward Reaction
its properties
(3) Backward Reaction
(1) Of being electropositive
(4) Phase change take place
(2) Of being less-reactive
25. Hydrometallurgy process is used in the extraction
(3) To form complex which are water soluble of
(4) To form salt which are water soluble (1) Ag (2) Hg

18. W hich acts as depressant in froth floatation (3) Na (4) Fe

process of galena containing ZnS inpurity ? 26. Mond process is used to purify
(1) Sodium eye xanthate (2) Pine oil (1) Mn (2) Nu
(3) CuSO4 solution (4) NaCN (3) Np (4) Ni
19. Consider the following Ellingham diagram 27. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?
(1) Pine oil is added in froth flotation method
because it enhances the non-wettability of the
–200 mineral particles
O2
C
–300 CO (2) Magnetite is ore of Iron
CCO2
–400
kJ (3) The reduction of a metal oxide is difficult if the
G of –500
mol nO
–600 Z n Z C
CO
metal is formed in liquid state at the
temperature of reduction
–700
(4) Cinnabar are is concentrated by frothfloatation
500°C 1000°C 1500°C 2000°C
T
process

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Aakash Institute General Principles of Isolation
28. To obtain chromium from chromium oxide, the 32. Choose the incorrect statement
method used is
(1) Cast iron contain highest % of carbon in
(1) Smelting comparison to steel and wrought iron
(2) Self reduction (2) Surface of wrought iron can be easily polished
(3) Alumino-thermic process as compared to cast iron

(4) Electrolytic reduction (3) Purest form of iron is cast iron

29. Aluminium is extracted from alumina by (4) Cast iron is very hard
electrolysis of a molten mixture of 33. In the equation 4M + 8CN – + 2H 2 O + O 2 
(1) Al 2O3+HF+NaAlF4 4[M(CN)2 ]– + 4OH–, the metal M may be
(2) Al2O3+CaF2+NaAlF4 (1) Cu (2) Fe
(3) Al2O3+Na3AlF6+CaF2 (3) Au (4) Zn
(4) Al 2O3+KF+Na3AlF6 34. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by
Van Arkel method ?
30. Poling is used to purify
(1) Ni and Fe
(1) Cu (2) Fe
(3) A (4) Zn (2) Ga and In

31. W hich of the following metal is extracted by (3) Zr and Ti

thermite process ? (4) Ag and Au
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Pb (4) Cr

  

(3)
General Principles of Isolation Aakash Institute

CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)

22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (3)

  

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 CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Microbes in Human Welfare
1. Find the mismatched pair with respect to microbes 7. Find the odd one out with respect to use of
and dairy products microbes in soyabean formentation
(1) Lactobacillus acidophilus – Curd (1) Tempeh (2) Dosa
(2) Propionibacterium – Swiss cheese (3) Tofu (4) Sufu
sharmanii 8. Which one is not a technique involved in IPM ?
(3) Lactobacillus cremoris – Yoghurt (1) Summer ploughing
(4) Penicillium roqueforti – Roquefort cheese (2) Late planting
2. Steptokinase, the clot buster, is obtained from (3) Excess use of pesticide
(1) Trichoderma (2) Streptococcu (4) Quarantine measures
(3) Monascus (4) Rhizopus 9. W hich liquor is not produced from fermented
3. An immuno Immunosuppressive agent, obtained cereals?
from Trichoderma polysporum, is called (1) Beer (2) Whisky
(1) Cephalosporin (2) Azadorachtin (3) Gin (4) Vodka
(3) Cyclosporin-A (4) Statins 10. Read the statements carefully and find the incorrect
4. Find how many are associated with secondary option with respect to discovery of penicillin
treatment in STP from the given box (1) Fleming found the growth of mould inhibited the
growth of Staphylococcus in culture plate
Primary sludge,Aeration tank, Flocs,
(2) Fleming found that the chemical was produced
Sequential filtration, UV ray treatment,
Reverse osmosis, Anaerobic sludge digesters, by the mould Penicillium notatum and named it
Decrease in BOD, Chlorination Penicillin
(3) Penicillin acts on cell wall of plant cells
(1) 8 (2) 6
(4) Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded Nobel
(3) 4 (4) 2 prize for this discovery
5. Read the statements carefully and choose the 11. Read the statements carefully and choose correct
correct option option with respect to organic acids from microbes
(A) Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis is used as (A) Aspergillus niger and Penicillium can produce
bioinsecticide gluconic acid
(B) It controls butterfly caterpillars (B) Gluconate is used in preservation of food
(1) Both are correct and B is the correct explanation (1) Both are correct and B is correct explanation
of A of A
(2) Both are correct (2) Both are correct
(3) Only A is correct (3) Only A is correct
(4) Both are incorrect (4) Both are incorrect
6. Flocks are used in the sewage treatment at the 12. Cyclosporin A is
stage of
(1) Blood - cholesterol lowering agent
(1) Primary treatment
(2) Immunosuppresive agent
(2) Secondary treatment
(3) Clot buster
(3) Tertiary treatment
(4) Produced by yeast-Monascus purpureus
(4) Physico-chemical treatment

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Microbes in Human Welfare Aakash Institute
13. Clearing of fruit juice is done by the products from (3) Lipase
(1) Aspergillus niger (4) More than one option is correct
(2) Mortierella renispora 21. Besides paddy fields Cyanobacteria are also found
(3) Geotrichum candidum inside vegetative part of

(4) Both 1 and 2 (1) Equisetum (2) Cycas

14. W hich treatment of urban sewage can remove (3) Psilotum (4) Pinus
pathogens and pesticides completely? 22. Prokaryote that is considered as source of SCP is
(1) Primary treatment (1) Streptococcus (2) Frankia
(2) Secondary treatment (3) Spirullina (4) Rhizobium
(3) Biological treatment 23. Which of the following microbe is used for ripening
(4) Tertiary treatment of swiss cheese?

15. Cyanobacteria help farmers by (1) Penicillium roqueforti

(1) Reducing alkalinity of soil (2) P. camemberti

(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(2) Waterlogging
(4) Streptomyces griseus
(3) Reducing acidity of soil
24. The product of Monascus purpureus has been
(4) by denitrification commercialised as
16. Select odd one with respect to source of (1) Immunosuppressive agent
antibiotics
(2) Blood-cholesterol lowering agent
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Clot buster
(3) Actinomycetes (4) Protozoans (4) Clearing agent of bottled juices
17. Enzyme TPA or streptokinase is used for 25. Secondary sludge (w.r.t. STP)
(1) Dissolve blood Clot (1) is product of primary treatment
(2) Clearing Juices (2) contain flocs

(3) Maintain plasma content (3) is an undecomposed matter

(4) Stimulating thromboplastin production (4) Contains grid

26. Clostridium butylicum is the source for
18. Treatment of waste water is done by
(1) Butyric acid (2) Citric acid
(1) Chemoautotrophic microbes already present in
sewage (3) Lactic acid (4) Acetic acid
(2) Heterotrophic microbes inoculated in sewage from 27. Mark the odd one w.r.t. Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV)
outside only (1) Narrow spectrum herbicide
(3) Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in (2) Species-specific
sewage
(3) Bioinsectide
(4) Photoautotrophic microbes present in sewage
(4) Nucleoprotein particles
19. Which of the following is not a symbiotic nitrogen
fixing bacteria? 28. Alcoholic beverage with maximum alcohol content
is
(1) Rhizobium
(1) Beer (2) Brandy
(2) Clostridium and protease
(3) Whisky (4) Gin
(3) Amglase 29. Mark incorrect pair
(4) Streptokinase (1) Dragonfly – Biocontrol agent
20. The bottled juices are clarified by use of (2) Anaerobic sludge digestor – Biogas
(1) Protease (3) Oscillatoria – increase alkalinity of soil

(2) Pectinase (4) VAM – Biofertilizer

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Aakash Institute Microbes in Human Welfare
30. Read the following statements carefully 39. Which one is not used as a biopesticide ?
(a) Curd is more nutritious than milk (1) Xanthomonas compestris

(b) Cheese is a partially degraded concenterate of (2) Bacillus thuringiensis

milk fat and caesin (3) Nucleopolyhedro virus
(c) Swelling of dough during bread making is called (4) Trichoderma
leavening
40. During waste water treatment methanogenic
(d) Wine and beer are produced without distillation bacteria used for
How many statements are correct (1) Primary treatment

(1) Two (2) Four (2) Secondary aerobic treatment

(3) Secondary anaerobic treatment
(3) Three (4) One
(4) Tertiary treatment
31. Germinating barley seeds are used in preparation of
41. Which of following insecticides is of plant origin ?
(1) Wine (2) Beer
(1) Ecdyson (2) Parathione
(3) Cheese (4) Whisky (3) Rotenone (4) Malathione
32. Flocs are 42. A common biocontrol agent for control of plant
disease is
(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria
(1) Baculovirus (2) Trichoderma
(2) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Glomus
(3) Mass of aerobic microbes and fungal filaments
43. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found
(4) Mass of Cyanobacteria inside vegetative part of
33. W hich of the following fern is an excellent (1) Cycas (2) Equisetum
biofertilizer? (3) Pinus (4) Psilotum
(1) Marsilea (2) Pteridium 44. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option using the order given below.
(3) Azolla (4) Salvinia
Column-I Column-II
34. W hich of the following microbe is most active
(A) Swiss Cheese (i) Clostridium
nitrogen fixer in rice fields in India?
(B) Dosa (ii) Streptomyces
(1) Rhizobium (2) Aulosira
(C) Erythromycin (iii) Propionibacterium
(3) Rhodospirillum (4) Frankia sharmanii
35. Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help of (D) Butyric acid (iv) Leuconostoc

(1) Lactobacillus (2) Acetobacter A B C D

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Azotobacter (4) Rhizobium (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
36. Citric acid is obtained from (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
45. A heterotrophic filamentous nitrogen fixer that
(3) Penicillium (4) Clostridium shows symbiotic association with non legumes is
37. Technology of biogas production was developed in (1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia
India mainly due to efforts of
(3) Azospirillum (4) Nostoc
(1) IARI (2) KVIC
46. Find the correct match from the following enlisted
(3) ICAR (4) Both (1) and (2) industrial products

38. An immunosuppressive agent used in organ (1) Streptokinase – Streptococcus

transplant patients is (2) Amylase – Candida lipolytica
(1) Streptokinase (2) Statin (3) Statin – Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Cyclosporin-A (4) Lipase (4) Cyclosporin A – Monascus purpureus

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Microbes in Human Welfare Aakash Institute
47. Municipal waste water is called A B C
(1) Sewage (2) Compost (1) Zymase Amylase Maltase
(3) Manure (4) Effluent (2) Zymase Maltase Amylase
48. Which enzyme is used in detergent industry (3) Amylase Maltase Zymase
(1) Ligases (2) Proteases (4) Maltase Amylase Zymase
(3) Pectinases (4) Lipases 57. Match the columns correctly
49. Organic farming aims at / involves Column-I Column-II
(1) Raising of crops through the use of biofertilizers (a) Toddy (i) Caryota urens
(2) Reducing dependence on chemical fertilizers (b) Yoghurt (ii) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(3) Using genetically modified crops (c) Butter milk (iii) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(4) Both (1) and (2) (d) Curd (iv) Streptococcus cremoris
50. Find the incorrect match amongst the following (1) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)
biocontrol agents
(2) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(iv) (d)(ii)
(1) Ladybird – Aphids
(3) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
(2) Dragonflies – Mosquitoes
(4) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii)
(3) Baculovirus - Plants
58. The nutrient medium for beer is
(4) Opuntia – Cochineal insect
(1) Barley malt (2) Fermented rice
51. Find the incorrect match .w.r.t. single cell protein
(3) Cashew-apple (4) Potato
(1) BGA : Spirulina
59. Find the incorrect match from the following
(2) Fungi : Fusarium
(1) Removing oily stain from laundry - Protease
(3) Bacteria : Methylophilus
(2) Clarifying fruit juice - Pectinase
(4) Algae : Candida
(3) Immunosuppressive agent - Cyclosporin A
52. Statins are competitive inhibitor of (4) Statins - Blood-Cholesterol lowering agents
(1) Pectinase (2) Streptokinase 60. A : Tertiary treatment of waste water is done to make
(3) HMG CoA reductase (4) Cellulase this fit for domestic use
53. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of B : This treatment removes DDT, pesticides,
pathogens from the waste water
(1) Algae (2) Bacteria
(1) A and B are correct
(3) Fungi (4) Actinomycetes
(2) A and B are correct
54. Statins are products of fermentation activity of
_______ (3) Only A is correct
(1) Streptococcus (2) Trichoderma (4) Only B is incorrect

(3) Candida (4) Monascus 61. Natural insecticide __A__ is obtained from roots of
Derris elliptica while __B__ is obtained from bacillus
55. During sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed thuringiensis.
to sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is
called as (1) Azadirachtin ; sporeine

(1) Activated sludge (2) Primary sludge (2) Rotenone ; thurioside

(3) Anaerobic sludge (4) Primary effluent (3) Pyrethrum ; thurioside

56. Correctly identify the enzymes (A), (B) and (C) of (4) Nicotin ; sporeine
yeast during leavening process of bread making 62. Select the odd one w.r.t biofertilizers
W heat flour starch 
 Maltose 
(A)
 (B) (1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
Glucose 
(C)
 Ethyl alcohol + CO2 (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Viruses

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Aakash Institute Microbes in Human Welfare
63. Read the following statements A and B carefully 67. Observe the given diagram and name the labelled
and choose the correct option A, B and C
A: Curd is more nutritious than milk
B: LAB present in curd checks growth of disease
causing microbes
(1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(B)
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (C) ____
Sludge
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct and B
is correct explanation of A
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct but B is
not the correct explanation of A
64. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for
(1) Biological control of plant diseases (A)

(2) Killing insects

(3) Controlling butterfly caterpillars
(1) A – Aerobic digester (2) A – Biogas plant
(4) Producing antibiotics
B – Gas B – Gas
65. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
C – Dung water C – Aerobic digester
(1) VAM – Phosphate absorption
(3) A – Anaerobic (4) A – Gobar gas plant
(2) Soyabean – Smoother crop
digester
(3) Ozone gas – Primary treatment
B – Gas holder B – Anaerobic digester
(4) Rotenone – Natural insecticide
C – Slurry C – Dung water
66. Catalytic converters possess which one of the
following metals as catalyst? 68. Which of the following material takes the longest
time for biodegradation?
(1) Platinum (2) Palladium
(1) Cotton (2) Paper
(3) Rhodium (4) All of the above
(3) Bone (4) Jute



(5)
Microbes in Human Welfare Aakash Institute

CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4)

15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)

22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)

29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)

36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (2)

43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (4)

50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (3)

57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (4)

64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (3) 68. (3)



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 CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Animal Husbandry

1. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by all 8. Cross breed of cattle developed by NDRI, Karnal is
except
(1) Karan Swiss – breeding between Sahiwal cows
(1) Out-crossing with semen of Brown Swiss
(2) Mating animals with not common ancestors upto (2) Sunandini – Local cows crossed with any exotic
4-6 generations breed
(3) Outbreeding (3) Karan Fries – Cross between Tharparkar and
(4) Mating closely related animals Jersey
2. Which of the following is correct for Pashmina ? (4) Hisardale – Cross between Bikaneri ewes and
Merino rams
(1) High milk yielding cattle
9. All of the following are the disease of poultry except
(2) Underfur from kashmiri goat
(1) Rinderpest (2) Pullorum
(3) Finest wools of Tibetian antelope
(4) Wool obtained from Rabbit (3) Ranikhet (4) Coccidiosis

3. High milk yielding varieties of cow can be obtained 10. Select the incorrect
by (1) More than 70% of the world livestock population
(i) AI (ii) MOET is in India and China
(iii) Outbreeding (2) Ghee from cow fed on abundant green fodder is
more yellow than fed on dry food
(1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) Dr. Kurien is considered as father of white
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
revolution in India
4. Continuous close inbreeding increases
(4) Cows are better than buffaloes as they are more
(1) Heterozygosity (2) Homozygosity resistant to diseases and give more milk
(3) Productivity (4) Fertility 11. Which one is incorrect with reference to MOET ?
5. Which is correct explanation of degumming ? (1) Hormones with FSH-like activity are given to cow
(1) Rearing of fingerlings for super ovulation
(2) Moulting of larva of silk worm (2) Cow is either mated with a best bull or is artificially
inseminated
(3) Removal of sericin from silk fibres
(3) The embryos at 32 – 64 cell stage are recovered
(4) Formation of gums by silk worm
and transferred to surrogate mother
6. Which synthetic hormone is given to sterile cows to
induce lactation ? (4) Genetic mother thus becomes free and is made
available for another super ovulation
(1) Progesterone (2) Stilbesterol
12. Select the incorrect match
(3) Sorbitol (4) Prolactin
(1) Isinglass – obtained from air bladder of bony
7. Select the incorrect statement fishes
(1) The H5N1 virus causes bird flu (2) Shagreen – skin of shark, rays having placoid
(2) Anthrax spreads through contaminated food, scale
water and pastures
(3) Sericin – gummy substances to cement filament,
(3) Layers are female fowls raised mainly for meat secreted in pupa stage
production
(4) Bee wax – secreted by worker bees’ abdominal
(4) Ranikhet disease is also called Newcastle glands
disease

(1)
Animal Husbandry Aakash Institute
13. Hisardale is a A , produced by B . (4) Sahiwal and Brown Swiss
A B 19. What is wrong w.r.t. queen bee?
(1) Cattle cross-breeding
(1) It is diploid fertile female
(2) Sheep out-crossing
(2) It has no ovipositor
(3) Buffalo inbreeding
(3) Lays both fertilized and unfertilised eggs
(4) Sheep cross-breeding
(4) Its life span is 2-5 yrs.
14. Which of the following is not a freshwater fish?
20. Which of the following is the source of silk fibres?
(1) Common carp fish (2) Mackerel
(1) Pupa (2) Larva
(3) Rohu (4) Catla
(3) Cocoon (4) Adult moth
15. Read the following statements(A-F):
A. In super ovulation, the cow produces 6-8 eggs 21. ‘Apiculture’ is best defined as

B. Continuous inbreeding cannot result in inbreeding (1) Bee keeping for honey production
depression. (2) Maintenance of hives of honeybees for the
C. IVRI is located in Izzatnagar in UP where first production of honey and bees wax
A.I. was started. (3) Breeding of the honeybees for obtaining honey
D. For MOET a cow is administered with FSH like
(4) Obtaining of honey and bees wax from bee hives
hormone.
E. Bees increase pollination of apple, pear, sunflower 22. Select the incorrect statement
etc. (1) Word ‘Poultry’ is used to refer to the meat of fowls
F. Mastitis is caused by viruses in cattles only

How many statements are incorrect? (2) Selection of disease free and suitable breed is
important
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) Milking of the cattle have now largely become a
(3) 2 (4) 6 mechanised process
16. Match the column A with column B and select the (4) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in a
correct option scientific manner
23. Read the statements A and B carefully and choose
Column A Column B
the correct option
a. Red Sindhi I. King of wools A. Newcastle disease is the disease of poultry

b. Tharparkar II. Kashmiri goat B. It is caused due to virus infection

Select the correct option
c. Pashmina III. Milch breed of cattle
(1) Only A is correct
d. Shahtoosh IV. General utility breed of cattle
(2) Only B is correct
(1) a - II, b - IV, c - I, d - III (3) Both A and B are correct
(2) a - III, b - IV, c - II, d - I (4) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) a - III, b - IV, c - I, d - II 24. Read the following statements
(4) a - IV, b - III, c - II, d - I A. Stilbestrol tablets are used for superovulation.
17. Mule is an example of B. Liquid nitrogen freezing (–196°C) can be used for
embryo preservation.
(1) Zygotic mortality (2) Hybrid inviability
C. Karan Swiss is a crossbreed of cattle
(3) F2 breakbown (4) Hybrid sterility
D. Buffalo milk is inferior to cow milk in fat and
18. Karan Fries is the cross breed between mineral content
(1) Tharparkar and Brown Swiss How many of the above statements are correct ?
(2) Sahiwal and Holstein- Friesian (1) One (2) Two
(3) Tharparkar and Holstein- Friesian (3) Three (4) Four

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Aakash Institute Animal Husbandry
25. Match the following and choose the correct option (iv) Angora wool is obtained from Kashmiri goat.
A. Hisardale (i) Cod liver oil
B. Isinglass (ii) Cross breed I II III IV
C. Angora (iii) Out cross
(1) F T T F
D. Mackerel (iv) Clarification of beer
(v) Rabbit (2) T F T F

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i (3) T T T T

(2) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii
(4) F T F T
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - v, D - i
(4) A - iii, B - i, C - v, D - ii 31. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option
26. Find the incorrect match.
(1) Tassar silk - Antheraea mylitta Statement A – A single outcross is used to
remove inbreeding depression.
(2) Muga silk - Excellent material for
embroidery Statement B – Continued inbreedings reduces
fertility and productivity.
(3) Mulberry silk - Moriculture
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Arundi silk - Antheraea assamensis
(2) Only statement B is correct
27. How many of the following are major carp ?
(3) Both statement A and B are incorrect
Labeo rohita, Labeo calbasu, Labeo batta, Catla
catla, Cirrhinus mrigala (4) Both statement A and B are correct
(1) Two (2) Three 32. Match the following and choose the correct option:
(3) Four (4) Five Column I Column II
(a) Isinglass (i) Used in polishing the
28. Which of the following steps immediately precedes
wood and other material
artificial insemination in MOET?
(b) Shagreen (ii) Used in preparation of
(1) Superovulation in superior breed of surrogate special cement and in
mother clarification of wine
(2) Non-surgical transfer of embryos at 8-32 cell (c) Cod liver oil (iii) Prepared from non
stage edible part of fish.
(d) Fish meal (iv) Natural resources of
(3) Mating with an elite bull vitamin A and D
(4) Injection of FSH- like hormone in genetic mother (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
29. Read the following statements : (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(i) The cows of milch breeds are good in milk
33. Mule is a sterile animal developed by crossing a horse
production
with a donkey thus is a result of
(ii) The milk yielding capacity of buffaloes is 3 times
more than cow (1) MOET

(iii) White Leghorn is a layer breed of fowl (2) Outcrossing

(iv) Plymouth rock is a broiler breed of fowl (3) Crossbreeding
How many of the above statements are true ? (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(1) 2 (2) 3 34. W hich among the following is not true for
(3) 4 (4) 1 inbreeding?

30. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) and (1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
choose the correct option (2) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes
(i) Bird flu is caused by a virus H5N1. (3) Continued inbreeding causes increased fertility
(ii) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity. and productivity

(iii) More than 70% of the world live stock population (4) It is necessary to evolve pureline in animals
is in India and China.
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Animal Husbandry Aakash Institute
35. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option 40. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) with
reference to MOET and choose the correct option
In MOET, a cow is administered hormones, with
____(i)___ like activity, to induce ___(ii)____ A. Hormone like FSH is given to cow for
superovulation
(i) (ii)
B. Cow is either mated with an elite bull or artificially
(1) FSH Ovulation inseminated
(2) LH Follicular maturation C. The embryos at 32-64 celled stage are recovered
(3) GnRH Fertilisation surgically and transferred to surrogate mother

(4) FSH Implantation D. Genetic mother becomes free and is available for
another superovulation
36. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing A B C D

(1) Bikaneri ram and Merino ewe (1) F T T F

(2) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe (2) F T F T

(3) Finn Dorset ram and Bikaneri ewe (3) T T F T

(4) Merino ram and Finn Dorset ewe (4) T F F T

37. Read the following statements (i–v) 41. Select the incorrect match

(i) “True product” of honey bee is wax (1) Isinglass – Obtained from air bladder of bony
fishes
(ii) Artificial insemination helps us to overcome
several problems of normal mating (2) Shagreen – Integument of shark

(iii) Interspecific hybridisation may lead to hybrid (3) Royal Jelly – Food prepared by Queen for
sterility young bees
(iv) Inbreeding depression can be overcome by (4) Beewax – Secreted by abdominal wax gland of
outcrossing worker bees
(v) Catla, Rohu and Hilsa are common freshwater 42. W hich of the following breeds of Indian sheep
fishes provide for wool used in army hosiery?
How many of the above statements are true ? (1) Nali (2) Deccani
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) Nellore (4) Patanwadi
(3) 2 (4) 5 43. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
38. Find the incorrect match Column-I Column-II
(1) Pashmina – Cashmere shawls (1) Inbreeding  Superior males and females
of different breeds
(2) Shahtoosh – King of wools
(2) Outcrossing  Males and females of same
(3) Angora – Superior carpet wool breed with common
ancestors in 4-6 generations
(4) Nali – Coarse wool and meat
(3) Cross-breeding  Males and females of
39. A queen honey bee lays eggs which include
different breeds of different
(1) One type from which all castes develop species

(2) Two types, one forming queen and worker and (4) Outcrossing  Males and females of same
another forming drones breed without common
ancestors in 4-6 generations
(3) Three types forming queen, drones and worker
(4) Unfertilized eggs that die and fertilized ones
form all castes

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Aakash Institute Animal Husbandry

CPP-06
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2)

15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)

22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (4)

29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (1)

36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (4)

43. (4)

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