Science MS - 2019

ICSE
Analysis of Pupil
Performance
SCIENCE
Research Development and Consultancy Division

Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations
New Delhi
Year 2019
__________________________________________________________________________________
Published by:
Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD)
Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations
Pragati House, 3rd Floor
47-48, Nehru Place
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FOREWORD
This document of the Analysis of Pupils’ Performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10
Examination is one of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to
schools in terms of the strengths and weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations.
We commend the work of Mrs. Shilpi Gupta (Deputy Head) of the Research Development and
Consultancy Division (RDCD) of the Council and her team, who have painstakingly prepared this
analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the
performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and
students for the effective transaction of the syllabus.
We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its
utility and quality.
Gerry Arathoon
October 2019 Chief Executive & Secretary

PREFACE
The Council has been involved in the preparation of the ICSE and ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance
documents since the year 1994. Over these years, these documents have facilitated the teaching-learning
process by providing subject/ paper wise feedback to teachers regarding performance of students at the
ICSE and ISC Examinations. With the aim of ensuring wider accessibility to all stakeholders, from the year
2014, the ICSE and the ISC documents have been made available on the Council’s website www.cisce.org.
The documents include a detailed qualitative analysis of the performance of students in different subjects
which comprises of examiners’ comments on common errors made by candidates, topics found difficult or
confusing, marking scheme for each question and suggestions for teachers/ candidates.
In addition to a detailed qualitative analysis, the Analysis of Pupil Performance documents for the Examination
Year 2019 also have a component of a detailed quantitative analysis. For each subject dealt with in the
document, both at the ICSE and the ISC levels, a detailed statistical analysis has been done, which has been
presented in a simple user-friendly manner.
It is hoped that this document will not only enable teachers to understand how their students have performed
with respect to other students who appeared for the ICSE/ISC Year 2019 Examinations, but also provide
information on how they have performed within the Region or State, their performance as compared to other
Regions or States, etc. It will also help develop a better understanding of the assessment/ evaluation process.
This will help teachers in guiding their students more effectively and comprehensively so that students prepare
for the ICSE/ ISC Examinations, with a better understanding of what is required from them.
The Analysis of Pupil Performance document for ICSE for the Examination Year 2019 covers the following
subjects: English (English Language, Literature in English), Hindi, History, Civics and Geography (History
and Civics, Geography), Mathematics, Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology), Commercial Studies,
Economics, Computer Applications, Economic Applications, Commercial Applications.
Subjects covered in the ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance document for the Year 2019 include English
(English Language and Literature in English), Hindi, Elective English, Physics (Theory), Chemistry (Theory),
Biology (Theory), Mathematics, Computer Science, History, Political Science, Geography, Sociology,
Psychology, Economics, Commerce, Accounts and Business Studies.
I would like to acknowledge the contribution of all the ICSE and the ISC examiners who have been an integral
part of this exercise, whose valuable inputs have helped put this document together.
I would also like to thank the RDCD team of Dr. M.K. Gandhi, Dr. Manika Sharma, Mrs. Roshni George and
Mrs. Mansi Guleria who have done a commendable job in preparing this document.
Shilpi Gupta
October 2019 Deputy Head - RDCD
ii

CONTENTS
Page No.
FOREWORD i
PREFACE ii
INTRODUCTION 1
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS – SCIENCE 3
QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS
 Physics (Paper-1) 10
 Chemistry (Paper-2) 33
 Biology (Paper–3) 54

INTRODUCTION
This document aims to provide a comprehensive picture of the performance of candidates in the
subject. It comprises of two sections, which provide Quantitative and Qualitative analysis results in
terms of performance of candidates in the subject for the ICSE Year 2019 Examination. The details
of the Quantitative and the Qualitative analysis are given below.
Quantitative Analysis
This section provides a detailed statistical analysis of the following:
 Overall Performance of candidates in the subject (Statistics at a Glance)

 State wise Performance of Candidates
 Gender wise comparison of Overall Performance
 Region wise comparison of Performance
 Comparison of Region wise performance on the basis of Gender
 Comparison of performance in different Mark Ranges and comparison on the basis of Gender for
the top and bottom ranges
 Comparison of performance in different Grade categories and comparison on the basis of Gender
for the top and bottom grades
The data has been presented in the form of means, frequencies and bar graphs.
Understanding the tables
Each of the comparison tables shows N (Number of candidates), Mean Marks obtained, Standard
Errors and t-values with the level of significance. For t-test, mean values compared with their
standard errors indicate whether an observed difference is likely to be a true difference or whether it
has occurred by chance. The t-test has been applied using a confidence level of 95%, which means
that if a difference is marked as ‘statistically significant’ (with * mark, refer to t-value column of the
table), the probability of the difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. In other words, we are
95% confident that the difference between the two values is true.
t-test has been used to observe significant differences in the performance of boys and girls, gender
wise differences within regions (North, East, South and West), gender wise differences within marks
ranges (Top and bottom ranges) and gender wise differences within grades awarded (Grade 1 and
Grade 9) at the ICSE Year 2019 Examination.
The analysed data has been depicted in a simple and user-friendly manner.

Given below is an example showing the comparison tables used in this section and the manner in
which they should be interpreted.
The table shows comparison

between the performances of boys
and girls in a particular subject.
Comparison on the basis of Gender
The t-value of 11.91 is significant at
Gender N Mean SE t-value 0.05 level (mentioned below the
Girls 2,538 66.1 0.29 table) with a mean of girls as 66.1
11.91*
Boys 1,051 60.1 0.42 and that of boys as 60.1. It means
*Significant at 0.05 level
that there is significant difference
between the performance of boys
and girls in the subject. The
probability of this difference
occurring by chance is less than 5%.
The mean value of girls is higher
than that of boys. It can be
interpreted that girls are performing
significantly better than boys.
The results have also been depicted

pictographically. In this case, the girls
performed significantly better than the
boys. This is depicted by the girl with a
medal.
Qualitative Analysis
The purpose of the qualitative analysis is to provide insights into how candidates have performed in
individual questions set in the question paper. This section is based on inputs provided by examiners
from examination centres across the country. It comprises of question wise feedback on the
performance of candidates in the form of Comments of Examiners on the common errors made by
candidates along with Suggestions for Teachers to rectify/ reduce these errors. The Marking Scheme
for each question has also been provided to help teachers understand the criteria used for marking.
Topics in the question paper that were generally found to be difficult or confusing by candidates,
have also been listed down, along with general suggestions for candidates on how to prepare for the
examination/ perform better in the examination.

QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of
Candidates: 1,75,719
Mean Marks: Highest Marks: 100
66.6 Lowest Marks: 05

PERFORMANCE (STATE-WISE & FOREIGN)
West Bengal 66.8

Uttarakhand 64.4
Uttar Pradesh 62.8
Tripura 62.2
Telangana 67.6
Tamil Nadu 70.2
Sikkim 54.5
Rajasthan 70.9
Punjab 61.4
Puducherry 71.7
Odisha 64.8
New Delhi 61.6
Nagaland 58.7
Meghalaya 60.4
Manipur 53.7
Maharashtra 76.9
Madhya Pradesh 59.8
Kerala 72.3
Karnataka 70.8
Jharkhand 62.2
Himachal Pradesh 64.6
Haryana 71.0
Gujarat 67.4
Goa 74.7
Chhattisgarh 58.6
Chandigarh 71.3
Bihar 64.3
Assam 68.7
Arunachal Pradesh 48.6
Andhra Pradesh 63.7
Foreign 80.8
The States of Maharashtra, Goa and Kerala secured highest mean

marks. Mean marks secured by candidates studying in schools
abroad were 80.8.

GENDER-WISE COMPARISON
GIRLS BOYS
Mean Marks: 67.5 Mean Marks: 65.8
Number of Number of
Candidates: 79,593 Candidates: 96,126
Comparison on the basis of Gender

Gender N Mean SE t-value
Girls 79,593 67.5 0.06 19.78*
Boys 96,126 65.8 0.06
Girls performed
significantly better than
boys.

REGION-WISE COMPARISON
East North
Mean Marks: 65.1 Mean Marks: 62.8
Number of Number of
Highest Marks: 100 Highest Marks: 100

Lowest Marks: 16 Lowest Marks: 05
Mean Marks: 69.9 REGION Mean Marks: 75.4
Number of Number of
Highest Marks: 100 Mean Marks: 80.8 Highest Marks: 100

Lowest Marks: 18 Lowest Marks: 20
Number of
South Candidates: 367 West
Highest Marks: 100

Lowest Marks: 34
Foreign

Mean Marks obtained by Boys and Girls-Region wise
80.6 81.0
76.3 74.7
71.0 68.9
64.0 65.5 64.7
61.9
North East South West Foreign
Comparison on the basis of Gender within Region

Region Gender N Mean SE t-value
Girls 27,400 64.0 0.11
North (N) 14.21*
Boys 35,413 61.9 0.10
Girls 24,479 65.5 0.12
East (E) Boys 29,905 64.7 0.11
4.76*
Girls 18,416 71.0 0.12
South (S) Boys 18,523 68.9 0.13
12.11*
Girls 9103 76.3 0.17
West (W) 6.90*
Boys 12,113 74.7 0.16
Girls 195 80.6 1.14
Foreign (F) Boys 172 81.0 1.27
-0.21
REGION (N, E, S, W)

MARK RANGES :
COMPARISON GENDER-WISE
Comparison on the basis of gender in top and bottom mark ranges

Marks Range Gender N Mean SE t-value
Girls 23,588 89.3 0.03
Top Range (81-100) Boys 26,967 89.5 0.03
-3.69*
Girls 6 18.8 0.54
Bottom Range (0-20) Boys 23 18.2 0.68
0.76
Boys Girls All Candidates
Marks Range (81-100) 89.5

81 - 100 89.3
89.4
70.4
61 - 80 70.5
70.5
Marks Range (81-100)
50.8
41 - 60 51.1
50.9
35.3
21 - 40 35.8
35.5
Marks Range (0-20)
18.2
0 - 20 18.8
18.3

GRADES AWARDED :
COMPARISON GENDER-WISE
Comparison on the basis of gender in Grade 1 and Grade 9
Grades Gender N Mean SE t-value

Girls 11,373 93.9 0.03
Grade 1 Boys 13,480 94.0 0.02
-1.69
Girls 6 18.8 0.54
Grade 9 Boys 23 18.2 0.68
0.76
Boys Girls All Candidates

94.0
1 93.9
No significant difference was 93.9
observed between the average 84.6

2 84.6
84.6
performance of girls and boys.
75.5
3 75.5
75.5
66.5
4 66.5
66.5
56.4
5 56.5
56.5
47.5
6 47.7
47.6
38.1
7 38.3
38.2
26.2
8 26.4
26.3
18.2
9 18.8
18.3

PHYSICS (PAPER-1)
SECTION I (40 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Section
Question 1
(a) The diagram below shows a claw hammer used to remove a nail: [2]
Claw hammer
Nail
(i) To which class of lever does it belong?

(ii) Give one more example of the same class of lever mentioned by you in (i) for
which the mechanical advantage is greater than one.
(b) Two bodies A and B have masses in the ratio 5:1 and their kinetic energies are in the [2]
ratio 125:9. Find the ratio of their velocities.
(c) (i) Name the physical quantity which is measured in calories. [2]
(ii) How is calorie related to the S.I unit of that quantity?
(d) (i) Define couple. [2]
(ii) State the S.I. unit of moment of couple.
(e) (i) Define critical angle. [2]
(ii) State one important factor which affects the critical angle of a given medium.
10

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most of the candidates could identify the class
of lever but some could not identify the Suggestions for teachers
position of fulcrum hence made a mistake. - Explain the types of levers with real
(ii) Gave example of class two levers. Some gave life examples with respect to the
example of class I lever, but its mechanical positions of Fulcrum, Load and
advantage was not greater than 1. Effort, their mechanical advantage,
velocity ratio etc.
(b) Many candidates could not do substitution in the
- Give enough practice of ratio based
ratio form. Some candidates did not express the numerical to the students.
final answer in the ratio form with lowest term. - Clarify the difference between a unit
(c) (i) Most candidates named the physical quantity and a physical quantity to the
which is measured in calories correctly. But students.
some wrote the physical quantity such as - Train students to focus on key words
work or energy. Some of them even wrote as in definitions. Explain them the
joule as they were confused between physical meaning of a definition with key
words or without key words.
quantity and unit.
- Differentiate between factors
(ii) Most of the candidates wrote the relation affecting total internal reflection and
between calorie and the S.I unit of that conditions of total internal reflection
quantity correctly but some of them reversed clearly with the help of a diagram or
it and wrote it as 1 J = 4.2/4.186 calorie. by using a media file.
Some even wrote
1 cal = 0.4 j/1J/41.8j/373K/336j
(d) (i) In many answer scripts key words/terms such
as two, equal, parallel, opposite, not acting along the same line etc. were missing which made
the definition incomplete or meaningless. Some of them defined moment of couple or torque
instead of couple.
(ii) Many candidates wrote the SI. unit of moment of couple correctly, but some candidates wrote
joule in place of Nm or N or dyn or N/m or N m-1
(e) (i) Many candidates defined critical angle correctly. But quite a number of candidates made
following errors.
• key words such as rarer, denser were missing.
• did not make it clear that it is the angle of incidence.
• 900 was missing.
(ii) Many candidates wrote it correctly but quite a number of candidates wrote
• conditions of total internal reflection.
• factor as angle of incidence/frequency.
• additional point/s which were incorrect.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(a) (i) Class I lever
(ii) Crow bar / pliers / any other correct example/diagram with name (only scissors not
accepted) , explanation to imply M A > 1.
(b) E 1 /E 2 = 1/2 m 1 v 1 2 /1/2m 2 v 2 2 = (m 1 /m 2 ) × (v 1 /v 2 )2
125/9 = (5/1) x (v 1 /v 2 )2
11

(v 1 /v 2 )2 = (125/9) x (1/5) = 25/9
(v 1 /v 2 ) = 5/3
(c) (i) Heat energy
(ii) 1 calorie = 4.2 J / 4.186 J / 4.18 J
(d) (i) Two equal and opposite parallel forces, not acting along the same line, form a couple.
(ii) N m
(e) (i) Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of
refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
(ii) Colour / wavelength of light and temperature / refractive index/ optical density of the
medium/material/nature of the medium/ pairing media /speed of light.
Question 2
(a) An electromagnetic radiation is used for photography in fog. [2]
(i) Identify the radiation.
(ii) Why is this radiation mentioned by you, ideal for this purpose?
(b) (i) What is the relation between the refractive index of water with respect to air ( a µ w ) [2]
and the refractive index of air with respect to water ( w µ a ).
5
(ii) If the refractive index of water with respect to air ( a µ w ) is .
3
Calculate the refractive index of air with respect to water ( w µ a ).
(c) The specific heat capacity of a substance A is 3,800 Jkg-1K-1 and that of a substance B [2]
is 400 Jkg-1K-1. Which of the two substances is a good conductor of heat? Give a reason
for your answer.
(d) A man playing a flute is able to produce notes of different frequencies. If he closes the [2]
holes near his mouth, will the pitch of the note produced, increase or decrease? Give a
reason.
(e) The diagram below shows a light source P embedded in a rectangular glass block ABCD [2]
of critical angle 42o. Complete the path of the ray PQ till it emerges out of the block.
[Write necessary angles.]
12

(a) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the name of the Suggestions for teachers
correct radiation but some candidates wrote
- Explain the phenomena scattering,
incorrect name of the electromagnetic radiation reflection, refraction dispersion etc.
used for photography in fog. Some wrote infar exhaustively to the students.
instead of infra. - Teach electromagnetic radiations,
(ii) In some scripts, the reasons for mentioned radiation their properties, uses and the
were as follows: methods of detection intensively to
• high penetrating power the students and frequently revise the
• used generalized irrelevant words such as topic.
deviation, penetrate, dispersion etc. - Clarify principle of reversibility
1
• gave uses of infrared radiations. involved in the relation a𝜇𝜇b= 𝜇𝜇 to
𝑏𝑏 𝑎𝑎
the students. Insist on expressing the
(b) (i) Many candidates wrote separate expression or
final answer in decimal.
definition for each a𝜇𝜇 w and w𝜇𝜇 a but did not give the - Train students to interpret the natural
relation between the two. phenomena involving specific heat
(ii) In spite of writing an incorrect answer in the first capacities of the substances and
part, most of the candidates were able to give a consequences of high specific heat
correct answer in the second part. capacity. Use the given table of
Some candidates wrote the equation of refractive specific heat capacities of different
index in terms of speed of light, substituted values substances.
and then obtained the answer through long - Teach students to apply the relation
1
calculations. Some of the candidates also wrote 𝑓𝑓 ∝ in case of different musical
𝑙𝑙
answer as 1. instruments involving air columns.
(c) A large number of candidates did not name the good Demonstrate experimentally this by
using tuning fork of different
conductor of heat out of the two given substances.
frequencies and resonating them
Also, many were unable to write the reason for with different lengths of the air
naming one of the given substances as a good column.
conductor of heat on the basis of their specific heat - Drill students in completing the path
capacities. of the ray through different optical
(d) Very few candidates answered it correctly. Many media. Also, train them to calculate
the angle of incidence when the ray
candidates could not write the reason about the holes
strikes at every new surface and then
present on the flute and its relation with the frequency complete the path of the ray.
(pitch) of the sound produced. Some of them even - Instruct students to mark arrow in all
related it to the loudness. Some of them answered ray diagrams.
first part of the question correctly but failed to give - Spell out the concept of total internal
the explanation. reflection to the students intensely.
(e) Many candidates could complete the path of first
reflected ray correctly but made a mistake in
completing the path of the second ray after total
internal reflection.
Following lapses were observed in the diagram:
• Assuming 420 as the angle of incidence some candidates showed the first refracted ray along
the surface.
• Many candidates did not calculate the angle of incidence at the new surface they showed
incorrect path (refracting out or going along the normal) of the second ray.
• Angle of incidence was not marked and written.
• Arrows were missing on the rays.
13

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) (i) Infra-Red
(ii) They have long wavelength hence less scattered and can travel through the fog.
(b) (i) They are inversely propotional.
Or
1
𝑎𝑎µ𝑤𝑤 =
𝑤𝑤µ𝑎𝑎
1 3
(ii) 𝑤𝑤µ𝑎𝑎 = = 5 = 0.6
𝑎𝑎µ𝑤𝑤
(c) Substance B is a good conductor of heat

Because specific heat capacity of B is less than that of A and specific heat capacity is the
heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C, so substance
B gets heated faster.
(d) Decrease
Frequency is inversely proportional to the length of the air column.
(e)
Question 3
(a) (i) If the lens is placed in water instead of air, how does its focal length change? [2]
(ii) Which lens, thick or thin has greater focal length?
(b) Two waves of the same pitch have amplitudes in the ratio 1:3. [2]
What will be the ratio of their:
(i) intensities and
(ii) frequencies?
(c) How does an increase in the temperature affect the specific resistance of a: [2]
(i) Metal and
(ii) Semiconductor?
14

(d) (i) Define resonant vibrations. [2]
(ii) Which characteristic of sound, makes it possible to recognize a person by his

voice without seeing him?
(e) Is it possible for a hydrogen ( 11H) nucleus to emit an alpha particle? [2]
Give a reason for your answer.
(a) (i) Many candidates could not comprehend the Suggestions for teachers
question correctly. Some candidates answered
that focal length changes, but they could not - Demonstrate an increase in the focal
give the correct reason. Several candidates length of a convex lens when it is
could not write about the effect on the focal placed in water.
length of the lens due to change in the - Devise an activity to show the
refractive index of the outside medium. relation between radius of curvature
(ii) While many candidates answered it correctly, and the focal length of a lens clearly.
quite a few could not comprehend it. They - Teach students the relation between
the intensity of a wave and its
wrote convex lens as a thicker lens and concave
amplitude or frequency clearly. Give
lens as a thinner lens. Some candidates wrote enough practise on related
thicker lens has greater focal length. numerical.
(b) Most of the candidates answered it correctly but - Instruct students that a fraction
some of the candidates made following errors in cannot be accepted in place of a ratio.
both the sub parts (i) and (ii). Stress upon expressing final answer
• expressed the same ratio. in the asked form in the question like
• expressed the answer in the fractional form. in ratio or in decimal form up to
• wrote reverse ratio. required decimal places or
significant figures etc.
(c) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the effect of an - Explain the difference between a
increase in the temperature on the specific semiconductor and a metal and effect
resistance of a metal, increases which was a of temperature on the specific
correct answer. But following answers were resistance of metals and
also observed that is the specific resistance of a semiconductors.
metal does not change or decreases. - Stress upon writing the key words
while defining the scientific
(ii) Most of the candidates answered it correctly
terms/key words.
but some candidates wrote that with the - Discuss the characteristics of sound
increase in temperature, the specific resistance with a number of examples.
of a semiconductor increases or remains the - Discuss the terms nucleus, its
same. structure, atomic number, mass-
(d) (i) In the definition of resonant vibrations number, radioactivity, changes
within the nucleus in detail giving
following glitches were observed
ample number of examples.
• keyword such as increase in amplitude
was missing.
• natural frequency matching with forced
vibration was written instead of frequency of
forced vibration.
(ii) Many candidates wrote it correctly as Quality but quite a number of candidates also wrote as
loudness, pitch, frequency.
(e) Most of the candidates wrote first part correctly as ‘No’ barring some of them who wrote
‘Yes’. But they found it difficult to give reason for the same. Various reasons were observed
15

such as Hydrogen is not a radioactive substance, after Alpha emission atomic number
decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4, Hydrogen has one proton and one neutron
or hydrogen has one proton and one electron. Some candidates gave irrelevant explanation.
Very few candidates attempted it to explain with a nuclear reaction.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) (i) The focal length of the lens will increase in water
(Focal length of the lens depends on the refractive index of the material of lens relative
to its surrounding medium)
(ii) thinner
(b) (i) I 1 /I 2 = (a 1 /a 2 )2 = (1/3)2 = 1/9 ∴ I 1 : I2 = 1 : 9
(ii) 1:1 (because pitch is same)
(c) (i) Increases
(ii) Decreases
(d) (i) Vibrations of greater amplitude when frequency of forced vibration is equal to the
frequency of free vibration.
(ii) Quality / Timbre
(e) No.
The nucleus does not contain two protons and two neutrons
Question 4
(a) Calculate the effective resistance across AB: [2]
5Ω 4Ω
8Ω
A B
3Ω
(b) (i) State whether the specific heat capacity of a substance remains the same when [2]
its state changes from solid to liquid.
(ii) Give one example to support your answer.
16

(c) A magnet kept at the centre of two coils A and B is moved to and fro as shown in the [2]
diagram. The two galvanometers show deflection.
Soft Soft
iron iron
State with a reason whether:

x>y
or
x < y. [x and y are magnitudes of deflection.]
(d) (i) Why is a nuclear fusion reaction called a thermo nuclear reaction? [2]
(ii) Complete the reaction:
3
He 2 + 2H 1 4
He 2 + ……………. + Energy
(e) State two ways to increase the speed of rotation of a D.C. motor. [2]
(a) Majority of the candidates answered this subpart Suggestions for teachers
correctly. However, some candidates were confused
in understanding the series and parallel combination - Give sufficient practice of numerical
of resistors. Some made calculation errors. Some of problems based on series and parallel
combination of resistors.
them wrote an incorrect expression at stage
1 - Explain the meaning of specific heat
1(instead of 𝑅𝑅 as L.H.S they wrote R) hence, in the capacity of a substance in detail
last step mathematical result was incorrect. Some giving some examples.
candidates left the final answer in improper fraction. - Discuss the values of specific heat
capacity of water and specific heat
(b) (i) Most of the candidates answered it correctly but capacity of ice and explain why these
some of them made the following errors: values are different.
• wrote specific heat capacity remains the - Clarify to the students the difference
same. between a coil and number of turns
of coil.
• got confused with latent heat and specific - Revise conceptual questions based
heat capacity. on electromagnetic induction in the
• got confused between specific heat capacity class through oral questioning and
and specific resistance. regular written tests.
(ii) Some of them wrote example of water and ice - Familiarize students with the
but they did not mention the values. Those who technical terms and insist on its use
said specific heat capacity remains the same on in the answers.
changing the state of a substance, validated the
17

same even in examples. Several candidates made
mistakes while stating the units of the values of - Interpret nuclear fusion
specific heat capacities. comprehensively to the students.
(c) Almost all the candidates answered it correctly. But - Drill students to write nuclear
while giving reason some candidates wrote the reactions.
statement which was not conveying the correct - Teach in depth to the students about
meaning. the DC motor like purpose, principle,
main parts, brief description, and the
(d) (i) Majority of the candidates wrote about large ways to increase the speed of rotation
amount of heat energy being released during the of a DC motor.
reaction but did not talk about the reaction taking
place at very high temperature. Some candidates
explained nuclear fusion reaction in terms of heat
released.
(ii) Some candidates could balance the reaction correctly but majority of them could not do so.
They could not apply the principle of conservation of mass number and atomic number in
completing the reaction. Some candidates wrote He in place of H.
(e) Many candidates could answer correctly but the following errors were observed:
• Use of correct technical terms was missing
• Some got confused with the induction.
• wrote number of coils in place of number of turns of a coil
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) 9×3
𝑅𝑅1 =
9+3
27 9
= = Ω
12 4
9 32 + 9 41
∴ 𝑅𝑅 = 8 + = = = 10.25 Ω
4 4 4
(b) (i) No, it changes
(ii) Specific heat capacity of ice = 2.1 J/g oC and that of water is 4.2 J/g oC
(c) x<y
Induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the number of turns of the coil.
(d) It requires extremely high temperature to take place.
3
He 2 + 2H 1  4He 2 + 1H 1 + Energy
(e) – increasing the number of turns of the coil.
– increasing the strength of the magnetic field.
– increasing the area of the coil.
– increasing the current through the coil
(Any two points)
18

SECTION II (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 5
(a) A body of mass 10 kg is kept at a height of 5 m. It is allowed to fall and reach the [3]
ground.
(i) What is the total mechanical energy possessed by the body at the height of 2 m
assuming it is a frictionless medium?
(ii) What is the kinetic energy possessed by the body just before hitting the ground?
Take g = 10 m / s2.
(b) A uniform meter scale is in equilibrium as shown in the diagram: [3]
(i) Calculate the weight of the meter scale.
(ii) Which of the following options is correct to keep the ruler in equilibrium when
40 gf wt is shifted to 0 cm mark?
F is shifted towards 0 cm.

or
F is shifted towards 100 cm.
(c) The diagram below shows a pulley arrangement: [4]
Load
(i) Copy the diagram and mark the direction of tension on each strand of the string.
(ii) What is the velocity ratio of the arrangement?
19

(iii) If the tension acting on the string is T, then what is the relationship between T
and effort E?
(iv) If the free end of the string moves through a distance x, find the distance by which
the load is raised.
(a) (i) A large number of candidates answered
correctly. However, in some scripts the
following mistakes were observed:
Suggestions for teachers
• For calculation of potential energy height - Give adequate practice of numerical
problems based on the principle of
was taken as 2 m in place of 5 m.
conservation of energy.
• Did not mention about the use of principle - Teach students conversion of units.
of conservation of energy. - Stress upon the concept of clockwise
• Calculated kinetic energy and potential and anticlockwise moment.
energy separately but for finding velocity - Instruct students to read the question
they took the distance travelled to be 2 m carefully and answer as per the
in place of 3 m. They added this to get the requirement of the question.
total mechanical energy which was asked - Explain in detail about the pulley
in the second part and therefore, even the system. Also, discuss diagram-based
second answer went incorrect. questions on Pulley system.
(ii) Some candidates made mistakes due to - Drill students in drawing labelled
improper conversion of units. i.e. mass was diagrams of pulley systems.
taken in gram in place of kg. - Discuss the procedure to obtain the
Some adopted the longer way by calculating the relation between the tension in the
velocity at the bottom and then calculating the strand and Load as well as Effort for
different pulley systems.
kinetic energy.
Some candidates calculated 200 J in subpart (i),
by applying the principle of conservation of
energy, and stated the same answer in subpart
(ii).
Some candidates substituted 5 metre in place of velocity and calculated kinetic energy
1
using 2 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2 .
(b) (i) Many candidates used 100 cm in place of 50 cm for the calculation of the torque on the other
side. Some candidates got confused between the unit of mass and weight that is g and gf.
(ii) Some candidates wrote that F is shifted towards 100 cm. They failed to understand that since
the forces are same, the moment can be equalised by adjusting their torque arms.
(c) (i) Most of them marked arrows correctly but some of them marked the arrows in two different
directions on the two strands.
(ii) Majority of the candidates answered correctly. Some of them derived and obtained the
answer.
(iii) Most of them answered it as E = T but some of them due to lack of clarity answered it as
E = 2T. Some even answered using inequality.
𝑥𝑥
(iv) Many candidates answered correctly as 2 but some of them wrote it as 2𝑥𝑥. Some wrote in
terms of L. The concept that the velocity ratio depends upon the number of strands supporting
the load was missing.
20

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) (i) Total mechanical energy possessed by the body at the height 2 m
= P.E at the maximum height or pr. of conservation of energy implied.
= 10 x 10 x 5 = 500 J
(ii) K.E possessed by the body just before hitting the ground
= P.E at the maximum height = 500 J
(b) (i) By pr. of moments

40 × 25 = 𝑤𝑤 × 20
40 × 25
∴ 𝑤𝑤 = = 50 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
20
(ii) F is shifted towards 0 cm
(c) (i)
B
T
T T
E
Load
(ii) V.R. = No. of stands supporting load = 2

(iii) E=T
𝑑𝑑 𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥
(iv) V.R. = 𝑑𝑑𝐸𝐸 ∴ 2 = 𝑑𝑑𝐿𝐿
∴ 𝑑𝑑𝐿𝐿 = 2
𝐿𝐿
Question 6
(a) How does the angle of deviation formed by a prism change with the increase in the [3]
angle of incidence?
Draw a graph showing the variation in the angle of deviation with the angle of
incidence at a prism surface.
(b) A virtual, diminished image is formed when an object is placed between the optical [3]
centre and the principal focus of a lens.
(i) Name the type of lens which forms the above image.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics.
(c) An object is placed at a distance 24 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. [4]
(i) What is the nature of the image so formed?
21

(ii) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens.
(iii) Calculate the magnification of the image.
(a) (i) Most candidates answered this subpart Suggestions for teachers
correctly. However, a few made following
errors: - Allow students to have first-hand
• gave incorrect relation between the angle experience of verifying the variation
of incidence and the angle of deviation. in the angle of deviation with the
angle of incidence at a prism surface
• drew diagram of prism instead of graph.
experimentally.
• incorrect graph showing the variation in - Clarify students that while drawing
the angle of deviation with the angle of the graph, label the axes correctly.
incidence - Advise students to read the question
• incorrect labelling on the graph. prudently taking note of all the
(b) Many candidates named the type of lens correctly information given in the question.
as a concave lens. Some candidates were tricked by - Instruct students to practice the ray
diagrams keeping in mind that arrow
the words ‘object between the optical centre and
should be marked before and after
the principal focus of a lens as well as virtual refraction and virtual image should
image’ and they did not pay attention to the be shown by a dotted line. Apparent
characteristic that image is virtual and diminished. intersection of the rays should be
Those who identified the lens correctly drew shown by dotted lines.
correct ray diagram but those who identified the - Explain the sign convention properly
lens incorrectly, draw incorrect ray diagram. Some to the students. Give adequate
candidates did not draw arrows on the rays in the practice of the lens related problems.
diagram. - Instruct students to express the final
answer in decimal form or in ratio
(c) (i) Many candidates identified the nature of image form but not to leave it as a fraction.
correctly but some of the candidates wrote as
real and virtual or real and erect or real and
magnified.
(ii) Several candidates applied mirror formula in
finding the distance of the image from the lens. Many candidates were not clear about the
sign convention. In the final answer unit was also missing.
(iii) Many candidates got this part incorrect because their previous answer was incorrect. Some
candidates made calculation errors. Several candidates expressed answer in fraction.
22

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) Angle of deviation decreases, reaches to minimum value and then increases.
∠d
∠c
(b) (i) Concave lens
(ii) Correct ray diagram with one ray passing through optical centre which goes undeviated
Another ray parallel to the principal axis undergoing refraction and appears to pass
through the principal focus.
(Dotted line for virtual image and extended refracted rays & arrows marked on the
rays)
(c) (i) Real, inverted diminished

(ii) 1 / v - 1 / u = 1 / f
1 / v = 1 / 8 + 1 / (-24)
1 / v = 3 – 1 / 24
v = 24 / 2 = 12 cm
(ii) m = +v / -u = 12 / -24 = -1/2 = –0.5
Question 7
(a) It is observed that during march-past we hear a base drum distinctly from a distance [3]
compared to the side drums.
(i) Name the characteristic of sound associated with the above observation.
(ii) Give a reason for the above observation.
(b) A pendulum has a frequency of 4 vibrations per second. An observer starts the [3]
pendulum and fires a gun simultaneously. He hears the echo from the cliff after 6
23

vibrations of the pendulum. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, find the distance
between the cliff and the observer.
(c) Two pendulums C and D are suspended from a wire as shown in the figure given [4]
below. Pendulum C is made to oscillate by displacing it from its mean position. It is
seen that D also starts oscillating.
wire
C D
(i) Name the type of oscillation, C will execute.
(ii) Name the type of oscillation, D will execute.
(iii) If the length of D is made equal to C then what difference will you notice in
the oscillations of D?
(iv) What is the name of the phenomenon when the length of D is made equal to
C?
Comments of Examiner
(a) (i) Some candidates answered it correctly as
loudness but majority of them wrote pitch or
quality. It seems candidates were unaware Suggestions for teachers
about base drums and side drums. - Explain characteristics of sound
(ii) Very few could relate the answer to the surface comprehensively relating them with
areas of the two drums and therefore the examples from daily life.
difference in the loudness, but majority of the - Clarify the basic mathematics
candidates wrote vague answers. required to solve the numerical
(b) Many candidates attempted it correctly but, in problems related to reflection of
sound waves.
some scripts, following errors were noticed:
• could not calculate the time taken from the - Give enough practice in numerical of
number of oscillations of the pendulum. different types to the students.
𝑑𝑑 2𝑑𝑑
• formula applied 𝑣𝑣 = 𝑡𝑡 𝑖𝑖n place of 𝑣𝑣 = 𝑡𝑡 . - Stress upon the importance of unit.
• did not write the unit. - Demonstrate to the students about
• velocity of sound was substituted as 320 m s-1 the free vibrations, forced vibrations
instead of 340 m s-1. and resonance for better
understanding of the concept.
(c) (i) Many candidates could identify it as free
oscillations but some of them wrote it forced
oscillations.
(ii) Several candidates answered it correctly as
forced oscillation but some of them wrote it resonance. But for others conceptual
understanding was missing between free and forced oscillations.
24

(iii) Many candidates failed to write about increased amplitude but talked about increase in
frequency. Some also mentioned that oscillations remain the same. Some of them missed the
keyword amplitude.
(iv) Almost all the candidates wrote correctly as resonance but some of them wrote it forced
oscillations.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) (i) Loudness
(ii) Base drum has greater surface area compared to the side drums.
Loudness is increased with the increase in surface area of vibration.
(b) ∵ 4 vibrations in 1s
6 3
∴ 6 vibrations =? ∴t = 4 = 2 = 1.5 𝑠𝑠
2𝑑𝑑 2𝑑𝑑
𝑉𝑉 = ∴ 340 =
𝑡𝑡 1.5
340 × 1.5
∴ 𝑑𝑑 = = 255 𝑚𝑚
2
(c) (i) Free vibration / damped vibrations

(ii) Forced vibrations
(iii) D vibrates with the same amplitude as C or C and D vibrate with maximum amplitude
alternately.
(iv) Resonance.
Question 8
(a) (i) Write one advantage of connecting electrical appliances in parallel [3]
combination.
(ii) What characteristics should a fuse wire have?
(iii) Which wire in a power circuit is connected to the metallic body of the
appliance?
(b) The diagram below shows a dual control switch circuit connected to a bulb. [3]
(i) Copy the diagram and complete it so that the bulb is switched ON.
(ii) Out of A & B which one is the live wire, and which one is the neutral
wire?
25

(c) [4]
The diagram above shows a circuit with the key k open. Calculate:
(i) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is open.
(ii) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is open.
(iii) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is closed.
(iv) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is closed.
(a) (i) Many candidates wrote one advantage of
connecting electrical appliances in parallel Suggestions for teachers
combination correctly. However, some - Explain clearly to the students about
candidates supplied vague answers like the advantages of connecting the
• advantages of series combination. appliances in parallel combination
• current received is 220 volts. - Interpret the difference between
• work on the same current in place of current and voltage clearly to the
voltage. students.
• wrote about advantages of ring system of - Teach clearly to the students:
wiring. • The characteristics of a fuse
wire.
• same thickness of wire can be used.
• working of dual control switches
• monthly Power bill is reduced. with the diagrams.
(ii) A large number of candidates wrote • the connections of live, neutral
characteristics of a fuse wire correctly but and earth wire to the appliance.
some of the candidates wrote only one point. - Point out the difference between the
Some candidates answered high melting point open circuit and the open key with
reference to the different circuit
and low resistivity. Some even expressed
diagrams.
about good conductance or low specific heat - Give ample practice to the students
capacity which was irrelevant. to solve the numerical problems
(iii) Many candidates answered correctly as Earth based on the topic electricity.
wire. It was also observed that some of the
candidates had written about neutral and live
wire and their combinations. Quite a few
candidates had answered as fuse wire.
(b) (i) Several candidates copied the diagram of dual control switch circuit connected to a bulb
correctly and also completed the circuit correctly but many of them kept the circuit incomplete
or completed it incorrectly.
26

(ii) Some candidates answered correctly as A - live wire and B - neutral wire. Quite a few
candidates interchanged this answer. Some candidates made careless errors by interchanging
the markings A and B while copying the diagram.
(c) Some candidates solved this question correctly but many of them could not comprehend it
properly. Candidates did not take into consideration the position of the key in the circuit. They
did not realise that when the key is closed and when it is open, the resistance present in the circuit
differs, so the resistance of the circuit is different in both cases and therefore, the current is also
different in both the cases. Many candidates blindly wrote current is zero when the key k is open.
The difference between open circuit and open key was not clear to the candidates. Some of the
candidates did not write the units for the answers. It was also observed in some scripts that
candidates were not trained in dealing with the internal resistance.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) (i) Each appliance will be working at the same potential; each appliance can operate
independently.
(ii) high resistivity and low melting point.
(iii) earth wire.
(b) (i)
Or
(ii) A – Live and B – Neutral

(c) (i) R = 5 + 0.5 = 5.5 Ω
3.3 3
(ii) 𝐼𝐼 = 5.5 = 5 = 0.6 𝐴𝐴
5×5
(iii) 𝑅𝑅1 = 5+5 = 2.5 Ω
∴ R = 2.5 + 0.5 = 3 Ω
3.3
(iv) 𝐼𝐼 = = 1.1 𝐴𝐴
3
Question 9
(a) (i) Define Calorimetry. [3]
(ii) Name the material used for making a Calorimeter.
(iii) Why is a Calorimeter made up of thin sheets of the above material answered in
(ii)?
27

(b) The melting point of naphthalene is 80°C and the room temperature is 30°C. A [3]
sample of liquid naphthalene at 100°C is cooled down to the room temperature. Draw
a temperature time graph to represent this cooling. In the graph, mark the region
which corresponds to the freezing process.
(c) 104 g of water at 30°C is taken in a calorimeter made of copper of mass 42 g. When [4]
a certain mass of ice at 0°C is added to it, the final steady temperature of the mixture
after the ice has melted, was found to be 10°C. Find the mass of ice added. [Specific
heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1°C-1; Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1;
Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg-1°C-1]
Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teacher

(a) (i) Several candidates in the definition of
- Emphasise on
calorimetry wrote the key word study in place
• keywords/terms in the definition.
of measurement. In many scripts candidates
• difference between calorimeter
stated the principle of calorimetry.
and calorimetry.
(ii) Almost all the candidates answered the name • reason for making the copper
of the material used for making a Calorimeter calorimeter of thin sheet.
correctly. Very few candidates gave options - Train students to read the question
other than copper such as wood, mercury, iron carefully to utilise judiciously every
and steel. bit of information given in the
(iii) Many candidates answered this subpart of the question while answering.
question correctly. Some candidates wrote the - Explain the heating curve to the
answer as good conductor of electricity students thoroughly and its science
instead of good conductor of heat. They also of reasoning to draw on the basis of
missed the keyword Heat capacity. They did information given.
- Teach students the logic of framing
not take into consideration the word thin
equations involving change of state
sheet. and principle of mixtures as well as
(b) Majority of the candidates could not attempt this substitution in the equation
question correctly. The graph drawn was not exhaustively. Also, interpret the use
correct. Some candidates drew the graph of heating curve to construct an
correctly. Some candidates have even shown the equation.
graph line being parallel to x-axis three times. - Instruct students to express final
(c) A large number of the candidates solved this answer with correct unit.
numerical correctly. However, following errors
were noticed in many scripts:
• substitution errors
• substitution was correct but made mistakes in calculation.
• for ice considered only melting and not increase in the temperature there after.
• did not take into consideration the heat absorbed by the calorimeter.
• did not write unit for the final answer.
28

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) (i) The measurement of the quantity of heat is called Calorimetry
(ii) Copper
(iii) Specific heat capacity of copper is low and by making the vessel thin its mass and
heat capacity becomes low therefore it takes a negligible amount of heat from the
contents to attain the temperature.
(b)
Temperature (co)
Time (s)
(c) By principle of mixtures
m ice L + mice c w t = m w c w (t i -t f ) + mcu c cu (t i -t f )
m (336 + 4.2 × 10) = 104 × 4.2 × (30 – 10) + 42 × 0.4 × (30 – 10)
∴ m × 4.2 (80 + 10) = 4.2 × (104 + 4) × 20

108×20
∴m= = 24𝑔𝑔
90
Question 10
(a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of an A.C. generator. [3]
(b) (i) Define nuclear fission. [3]
(ii) Rewrite and complete the following nuclear reaction by filling in the atomic
number of Ba and mass number of Kr:
235
92𝑈𝑈 + 10𝑛𝑛 �⎯⎯⎯⎯� 144
........𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 + ....... 1
36𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 + 3 0𝑛𝑛 + 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
(c) The diagram below shows a magnetic needle kept just below the conductor AB which [4]
is kept in North South direction.
29

(i) In which direction will the needle deflect when the key is closed?
(ii) Why is the deflection produced?
(iii) What will be the change in the deflection if the magnetic needle is taken just
above the conductor AB?
(iv) Name one device which works on this principle.
(a) Some candidates drew correct diagram of an A.C.
generator but in many scripts the following
anomalies were noticed: Suggestions for teacher
• drew battery in place of load. - Train students to differentiate
• in place of slip ring they showed split rings. between AC generator and DC
• drew transformer diagram. motor.
• drew slip rings correctly but labelled them as - Explain principle of conservation of
split ring. atomic number and mass number
involved in balancing the nuclear
• drew DC motor diagram. equations clearly to the students.
(b) (i) Many candidates defined nuclear fission - Give intensive practice in balancing
correctly but the common errors observed in the nuclear equations.
many scripts were - Demonstrate Oe7rsted’s experiment
on the magnetic effect of electric
• related it to the size of the nucleus
current in the laboratory to make
instead of the mass of the nucleus students clear about the effect of the
• splitting of an atom instead of nucleus. magnetic field on the magnetic
• defined nuclear fusion. needle.
- Discuss application-based questions
(ii) A large number of candidates wrote atomic
on the magnetic effect of the current
number and mass number correctly. By and with the students frequently.
large, it was observed that majority of them
found the atomic number correctly, but while
finding the mass number, did not take into
consideration mass of three neutrons.
(c) (i) Majority of the candidates could not apply right hand thumb rule correctly and instead of
writing towards east, various incorrect answers for example, North-South, South-East, West,
North, clockwise etc. were observed.
(ii) Many candidates identified it as magnetic effect of current but quite a number of candidates
wrote:
• that current is flowing through the conductor.
• about electromagnetic induction.
• about Lorentz Force.
• about electric field instead of magnetic field.
(iii)This part of the question was dependent on the first part, therefore, the candidates who wrote
opposite or reversed or towards west were benefited. But several candidates wrote other
answers which were incorrect.
(iv) Almost all the candidates had given correct example which means that they had identified
the magnetic effect of current but failed to apply it in the given situation.
30

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
(a)
(b) (i) Combination of two or more lighter nuclei to form heavier nucleus.
235 144 89
(ii) 92𝑈𝑈 + 10𝑛𝑛 �⎯⎯⎯� 56𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 + 36𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 + 3 10𝑛𝑛 + 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
(c) (i) Towards east

(ii) Magnetic effect of current
(iii) Deflection in the opposite direction / towards west
(iv) Electric Bell, Electromagnet
Note: For questions having more than one correct answer/solution, alternate correct
answers/solutions, apart from those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted.
31

GENERAL COMMENTS
• Understanding of lever of class 1 with M.A. greater than 1 and class 2 lever.
Topics • Physical quantity and unit.
• Specific heat capacity and Specific resistance
found
• Ratio concept in solving numerical.
difficult/ • Factors affecting critical angle and conditions for total internal reflection.
confusing by • Correlation between the holes present on the flute and the frequency of sound
candidates produced.
• Connection of live, neutral and earth wire with the appliance.
• Nuclear fusion reaction is called as thermonuclear reaction?
• Identification of lenses when virtual images are formed.
• Change in the focal length when the refractive index of the outside medium
changes.
• The diagram of AC generator and DC motor.
• Difference between the number of turns of the coil and just coils.
• Underline the keywords in the definition or in answering reasoning questions.

• Always write the correct unit for the final answer and express the final answer as
Suggestions per the requirement of the question.
for • Express the answer only in SI units unless otherwise asked.
candidates • Comprehend the key terms/technical terms/ keywords, laws and principles before
memorisation.
• Practise concept based and application-based questions regularly.
• Practise numerical problems starting from simple to complex that is from direct
formula based to application/understanding based.
• Give more emphasis on solving numerical problems with understanding.
• Emphasise on practice by writing rather than just reading.
• Practise diagrams regularly.
• Think logically before drawing ray diagrams.
• Discourage yourself from drawing rough hand sketches when diagram is asked in
the question.
• Use first 15 minutes of reading time judiciously to understand what is asked in
the question. Keep in mind or note every bit of information given in the question.
• Write to the point rather than beating around the bush.
• Do not change the numbering system given in the question paper while writing
the answers on the answer sheet.
• Practise beginning a new question on a fresh page, or after leaving 8 to 10 lines.
• Practise solving previous years’ ICSE question papers.
32

CHEMISTRY (PAPER-2)

Question 1
(a) Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [5]
(i) An electrolyte which completely dissociates into ions is:
A. Alcohol
B. Carbonic acid
C. Sucrose
D. Sodium hydroxide
(ii) The most electronegative element from the following elements is:
A. Magnesium
B. Chlorine
C. Aluminium
D. Sulphur
(iii) The reason for using Aluminium in the alloy duralumin is:
A. Aluminium is brittle.
B. Aluminium gives strength.
C. Aluminium brings lightness.
D. Aluminium lowers melting point.
(iv) The drying agent used to dry HCl gas is:
A. Conc. H 2 SO 4
B. ZnO
C. Al 2 O 3
D. CaO
(v) A hydrocarbon which is a greenhouse gas is:
A. Acetylene
B. Ethylene
C. Ethane
D. Methane
33

(b) Fill in the blanks with the choices given in brackets: [5]
(i) Conversion of ethanol to ethene by the action of concentrated sulphuric

acid is an example of ____________. (dehydration / dehydrogenation /
dehydrohalogenation)
(ii) When sodium chloride is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid below
200oC, one of the products formed is ____________. (sodium hydrogen
sulphate / sodium sulphate / chlorine)
(iii) Ammonia reacts with excess chlorine to form ____________. (nitrogen /
nitrogen trichloride / ammonium chloride)
(iv) Substitution reactions are characteristic reactions of ____________.
(alkynes / alkenes / alkanes)
(v) In Period 3, the most metallic element is ____________. (sodium /

magnesium / aluminium)
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following reactions: [5]
(i) Reduction of copper (II) oxide by hydrogen.
(ii) Action of dilute sulphuric acid on sodium hydroxide.
(iii) Action of dilute sulphuric acid on zinc sulphide.
(iv) Ammonium hydroxide is added to ferrous sulphate solution.
(v) Chlorine gas is reacted with ethene.

(d) State one observation for each of the following: [5]
(i) Concentrated nitric acid is reacted with sulphur.
(ii) Ammonia gas is passed over heated copper (II) oxide.
(iii) Copper sulphate solution is electrolysed using copper electrodes.
(iv) A small piece of zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
(v) Lead nitrate is heated strongly in a test tube.
(e) (i) Calculate: [5]
1. The number of moles in 12g of oxygen gas. [O = 16]
2. The weight of 1022 atoms of carbon.
[C = 12, Avogadro’s No. = 6 x 1023]
34

(ii) Molecular formula of a compound is C 6 H 18 O 3 . Find its empirical
formula.
(f) (i) Give the IUPAC name of the following organic compounds: [5]
1.
2.
(ii) What is the special feature of the structure of ethyne?
(iii) Name the saturated hydrocarbon containing two carbon atoms.
(iv) Give the structural formula of Acetic acid.
(g) Give the appropriate term defined by the statements given below: [5]
(i) The formula that represents the simplest ratio of the various elements
present in one molecule of the compound.
(ii) The substance that releases hydronium ion as the only positive ion when
dissolved in water.
(iii) The tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself when combined
in a covalent compound.
(iv) The process by which certain ores, specially carbonates, are converted to
oxides in the absence of air.
(v) The covalent bond in which the electrons are shared equally between the
combining atoms.
(h) Arrange the following according to the instructions given in brackets: [5]
(i) K, Pb, Ca, Zn. (In the increasing order of the reactivity)
(ii) Mg2+, Cu2+, Na1+, H1+ (In the order of preferential discharge at the
cathode)
(iii) Li, K, Na, H (In the decreasing order of their ionization potential)
(iv) F, B, N, O (In the increasing order of electron affinity)
35

(v) Ethane, methane, ethene, ethyne. (In the increasing order of the molecular
weight) [H = 1, C = 12]
36

(a) (i) This question was attempted well by majority
of the candidates. Some candidates selected Suggestions for teachers
Carbonic acid instead of Sodium hydroxide. - Teach the concept of complete
(ii) Most of the candidates answered this question ionization and partial ionization with
correctly. A few chose Sulphur over Chlorine. examples to give the thorough
(iii) A few candidates made the error of selecting understanding of strong and weak
the option Aluminium is brittle. Most electrolytes.
candidates chose the correct option. - Explain the trends in the properties
(iv) A few candidates got confused between the of elements across a period/group
drying agent of ammonia and HCl gas and with reference to the variation in
selected CaO instead of conc.H2SO4. electronic configuration.
(v) Most candidates answered correctly, but some - Familiarise students with the role of
chose Ethane over Methane. each metal used in an alloy.
(b) (i) Several candidates were confused between - Make students aware of the impact of
dehydration and dehydrogenation. various gases on our environment.
(ii) Many candidates wrote Chlorine instead of - Explain the meaning of the terms
Sodium hydrogen Sulphate. with relevant examples.
Some made errors in writing the correct name - Emphasise on the variation of
by missing out the third word ‘sulphate’ which products when temperature
was printed on the next line. conditions change.
(iii) A large number of candidates did not select the - Advise students to reproduce the
correct option. word correctly from the choices
(iv) Most candidates answered correctly but some given.
wrote alkenes instead of alkanes. - Explain the logic behind the products
(v) Almost all candidates attempted this subpart formed in the reaction between
correctly. ammonia and chlorine with the
varying conditions, as to, which one
(c) (i) Most candidates wrote the balanced chemical
is in excess.
equation correctly. However, a few made the
- Explain the concept of saturation and
error of writing CuO 2 for copper (II) oxide
unsaturation to give them the
(CuO) and 2H instead of H 2 .
understanding of the type of reaction
(ii) Some candidates wrote the formula of the
(addition or substitution) that a
product as NaSO 4 .
particular organic substance would
(iii) Several candidates represented Zinc sulphide
undergo.
incorrectly as ZnSO 3 or ZnSO 4 .
- Ensure students have clarity
Some carelessly used HCl instead of H 2 SO 4 .
regarding molecules, moles and
(iv) A large number of candidates made errors in
molecular weight.
writing the formula of ammonium sulphate or
- Acquaint students with the following
ferrous sulphate. In several cases, the equation
terms: number of moles, Avogadro’s
was not balanced.
numbers of atoms/molecules,
(v) Some candidates wrote the product as
C 2 H 2 Cl 2 instead of C 2 H 4 Cl 2 in the chemical Relative atomic mass (RAM),
equation. Relative molecular mass (RMM),
molar mass, molar volume, etc.
(d) (i) Many candidates either wrote the equation or
named the product formed instead of stating
the observation.
37

(ii) Several candidates incorrectly wrote the colour of copper as red or reddish or brown.
(iii) While most candidates answered correctly, some
common incorrect responses were as follows: - Drill in the minds of the students that
- Cathode diminishes in size. the Empirical formula can be
- Blue colour of copper sulphate fades. obtained from the Molecular formula
In a few cases, the change was noted without by reducing it to the simplest ratio.
mention of the electrode. Give relevant examples.
(iv) Instead of stating the test for the gas evolved, a - Point out to students that the carbon
large number of candidates identified it as H 2 . atom C with the double or triple bond
Some candidates stated that the gas burns with a or functional group, must be
blue flame instead of stating that a burning splint expressed in the lowest number.
is put off with a pop sound. - Stress on the difference between
(v) On heating lead nitrate strongly in a test tube, structural formula of alcohol and that
products formed were listed by many candidates of aldehyde. Give practice for
without any noticeable observations. greater clarity.
(vi) Some candidates wrote yellow precipitate of - Emphasise on the differences
PbO is obtained instead of yellow residue.
between saturated and unsaturated
(e) (i) Many candidates took the mass of one mole of compounds /that saturated have all
oxygen gas as 16 instead of 32 and hence, could single bonds and unsaturated ones
not calculate number of moles correctly. either have double or triple bonds.
In a number of cases, calculations for weight of - Advise students to draw comparative
1022 atoms of carbon were incorrect indicating tables which include name,
inadequate understanding of the concept. molecular formula, condensed
(ii) Many candidates attempted well barring some formula and structural formula of
who carried out elaborate calculations using various compounds differing in
percentage composition but ultimately could not functional groups.
write the empirical formula. - Advise students to use standard
(f) (i) (1) Most candidates attempted this part well. abbreviations and symbols only in
However, some were confused between answering the questions.
“yne” and “ene”. - Draw the attention of the students to
(2) In writing IUPAC name of the organic the two ways in which bond pair of
compound, many candidates wrote ethanol electrons is shared, with relevant
(alcohol) which was incorrect. examples.
(ii) Some candidates mentioned the presence of a - Advise students to read the questions
linear planar structure or three covalent bonds carefully, answer specifically, with
rather than presence of triple covalent bond. reference to what has been asked and
Some gave incorrect answers such as, to use the option given in the
unsaturated compound or, undergoes addition question paper while writing the final
reaction and so on. answer.
(iii) Most candidates answered correctly while some
stated it as ethene or ethyne instead of ethane.
A few candidates gave the general name for the
homologous series instead of specific name.
(iv) Several candidates wrote the structural formula of acetic acid correctly. However, some
candidates wrote the condensed formula of CH 3 and COOH.
(g) (i) Most candidates answered this question correctly. Some candidates wrote the abbreviation as
EF.
38

(ii) Instead of stating the general term ‘Acid’ many candidates gave the specific name of an acid
which were not acceptable.
(iii) Most candidates gave the appropriate term as electron affinity instead of electronegativity.
Some candidates simply written the abbreviation form of electronegativity.
(iv) Most candidates mentioned the process correctly. However, a few candidates confused it with
roasting.
(v) Many candidates incorrectly termed it as polar covalent bond.
(h) In subparts (i) – (v), several candidates used the greater than (>) or less than (<) symbols
incorrectly to arrange the given items according to the instructions given in the question, which
was not required.
Some candidates simply arranged the items given in subparts (i) – (v), in reverse order.
In subpart (v), some candidates made unnecessary use of formula instead of choosing the names
given.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(a) (i) D or Sodium Hydroxide or NaOH
(ii) B or Chlorine or Cl 2
(iii) C or Aluminium brings lightness
(iv) A or Concentrated H 2 SO 4
(v) D or Methane or CH 4
(b) (i) Dehydration
(ii) Sodium hydrogen sulphate or NaHSO 4
(iii) Nitrogen trichloride or NCl 3
(iv) Alkanes
(v) Sodium
(c) (i) CuO + H 2  Cu + H 2 O
(ii) 2NaOH + H 2 SO 4  Na 2 SO 4 + 2H 2 O
(iii) ZnS + H 2 SO 4  ZnSO 4 + H 2 S ↑
(iv) FeSO 4 + 2NH 4 OH  (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 + Fe (OH) 2
(v) H 2 C = CH 2 + Cl 2  H 2 C – CH 2
| |
Cl Cl
Or
C 2 H 4 + Cl 2  C 2 H 4 Cl 2
39

(d) (i) Reddish brown or brown gas of nitrogen dioxide is formed.
(ii) The black copper (II) oxide turns into a pink or reddish-brown substance.
(iii) The colour of the electrolyte remains blue / anode diminishes in size or becomes
thinner / cathode becomes thicker.
(iv) Brisk effervescence / A gas given out extinguishes burning splinter and itself burns
with pop sound.
(v) A decrepitating sound is heard / A reddish brown gas is given out / A yellow residue
is left behind.
(e) 12
(i) 1. Number of moles in 12 g of oxygen gas = 32 = 0.375 moles
12 ×1022
2. Weight of 1022 atoms of C = = 0.2 g
6 × 1023
(ii) Its empirical formula is C 2 H 6 O
(f) (i) 1. Propyne
2. Ethanal
(ii) Triple bond between 2 carbon atoms / H – C ≡ C – H
(iii) Ethane
(iv)
(g) (i) Empirical formula

(ii) Acid
(iii) Electronegativity
(iv) Calcination
(v) Non-polar covalent bond
(h) (i) Pb, Zn, Ca, K
(ii) Cu2+, H1+, Mg2+, Na1+
(iii) H, Li, Na, K
(iv) B, N, O, F
(v) Methane, ethyne, ethene, ethane
40

SECTION II (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 2
(a) Draw the electron dot structure of: [3]
(i) Nitrogen molecule [N = 7]
(ii) Sodium chloride [Na = 11, Cl = 17]
(iii) Ammonium ion [N = 7, H = 1]
(b) The pH values of three solutions A, B and C are given in the table. Answer the [3]
following questions:
Solution pH value
A 12
B 2
C 7
(i) Which solution will have no effect on litmus solution?
(ii) Which solution will liberate CO 2 when reacted with sodium carbonate?
(iii) Which solution will turn red litmus solution blue?
(c) Study the extract of the Periodic Table given below and answer the questions [4]
that follow. Give the alphabet corresponding to the element in question.
DO NOT repeat an element.
A
C D E
B G F
(i) Which element forms electrovalent compound with G?
(ii) The ion of which element will migrate towards the cathode during
electrolysis?
(iii) Which non-metallic element has the valency of 2?
(iv) Which is an inert gas?
41

(a) While a number of candidates drew the electron
dot structures asked for correctly, others
committed the following errors: - Clarify the difference between
(i) Candidates drew the orbit structure or showed electron dot and orbital diagram and
electron pairs along with the bonds. Some explain that after bonding, each atom
forgot the lone pair of electrons of N. must have an octet structure.
(ii) Electrons of sodium were not differently Compare dot structure with
represented from chlorine; transfer of electron structural formula for shared pairs.
and ion formation was not shown. A few Emphasise that lone pair must not be
candidates drew the orbital diagram instead of missed out.
the electron dot diagram. - Ask students to differentiate between
(iii) Coordinate bond was not shown by some
electrons of unlike atoms. Lay
candidates. Overall positive charge was not
emphasis on writing the positive
shown on the ion in a few cases. Some drew
the structure of ammonia instead of charge on the ion.
ammonium. - Show the association between pH
scale and the nature of substances
(b) Most candidates answered the pH value related
clearly to the students. Explain
questions correctly. However, some candidates
clearly the properties of acids and
failed to associate the nature of the substance with
the correct pH value. Some attached names to the alkalis.
solutions instead of using the symbols A, B and - Instruct students to read the
C. questions carefully and answer as per
instructions given. Guided practice
(c) Some candidates identified the elements instead
will assist students in performing
of using the given letters of alphabets. In a few
cases, the position of metals and non-metals was better.
not clear. Despite the clear instructions not to
repeat elements some candidates repeated certain
elements.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b) (i) C / pH 7
(ii) B / pH 2
(iii) A / pH 12
42

(c) (i) B
(ii) A
(iii) E
(iv) F
Question 3
(a) Name the particles present in: [3]
(i) Strong electrolyte
(ii) Non- electrolyte
(iii) Weak electrolyte

(b) Distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using the reagent given in [3]
the bracket.
(i) Manganese dioxide and copper (II) oxide. (using concentrated HCl)
(ii) Ferrous sulphate solution and ferric sulphate solution. (using sodium hydroxide
solution)
(iii) Dilute hydrochloric acid and dilute sulphuric acid. (using lead nitrate solution)
(c) Choose the method of preparation of the following salts, from the methods given in [4]
the list:
[List: A. Neutralization B. Precipitation
C. Direct combination D. Substitution]
(i) Lead chloride
(ii) Iron (II) sulphate
(iii) Sodium nitrate
(iv) Iron (III) chloride
43

(a) Majority of the candidates named the particles
present in Strong electrolyte, Non-electrolyte and Suggestions for teachers
Weak electrolyte correctly. However, some - Discuss in detail the types of
candidates listed examples instead of stating the electrolytes on the basis of
presence of ions or molecules depending on the dissociation /ionization whether
type of electrolyte. complete/partial or no
(b) (i) Some of the candidates gave the equation dissociation/ionization.
instead of writing the observation to - Ask students to specify the effect of
distinguish between the given pairs of the reagent on both the substances
compounds. With the reagent given, the result when a single test is used.
of adding it to one substance was specified by - Supplement theory adequately with
several candidates but not for the other practical work, which may be done
substance. by the students themselves or
(ii) Some candidates interchanged the colours of through demonstration. Instruct
the two ions, ferrous and ferric. students to record observations.
(iii) White precipitate was mentioned by several - Never disregard the importance of
candidates but the effect of heat on both was practical work.
not mentioned.
(c) (i) Several candidates incorrectly chose
neutralization instead of precipitation.
(ii) Some candidates erred by writing precipitation instead of substitution.
(iii) This subpart of the question was attempted correctly by most candidates.
(iv) Most candidates attempted this subpart correctly.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) (i) Only ions
(ii) Only molecules
(iii) Both molecules and ions
(b) (i) On adding concentrated hydrochloric acid if a greenish yellow gas is evolved it is
Manganese dioxide.
If no gas is evolved it is CuO.
(ii) On adding sodium hydroxide solution if a dirty green precipitate is formed it is ferrous
sulphate solution.
If a reddish-brown precipitate is formed, it is Ferric sulphate solution.
(iii) On adding lead nitrate solution, if white precipitate is formed which dissolves on
heating, then it is dilute HCl.
If white precipitate formed does not dissolve on heating, it is dilute H 2 SO 4 .
(c) (i) B or Precipitation
(ii) D or Substitution
(iii) A or Neutralization
(iv) C or Direct combination
44

Question 4
(a) Complete the following equations: [3]
(i) S + conc. HNO 3 
(ii) C + conc. H 2 SO 4 
(iii) Cu + dil. HNO 3 
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the preparation of: [3]
(i) Ethene from bromoethane
(ii) Ethyne using calcium carbide
(iii) Methane from sodium acetate.
(c) Name the following organic compounds: [4]
(i) The compound with 3 carbon atoms whose functional group is a

carboxyl.
(ii) The first homologue whose general formula is C n H 2n .
(iii) The compound that reacts with acetic acid to form ethyl ethanoate.
(iv) The compound formed by complete chlorination of ethyne
45

(a) (i) A large number of candidates made errors in
balancing of the equation and/or writing the Suggestions for teachers
products. Many candidates wrote SO 2 as a - Give adequate practice in writing of
product instead of H 2 SO 4. balanced chemical equations with
(ii) Although CO 2 was the product, several necessary conditions. Use of
candidates wrote H 2 CO 3. structural formulae for organic
(iii) Many candidates wrote NO 2 as a product
compounds will help students to
instead of NO.
write equations correctly.
(b) (i) In writing a balanced chemical equation for - Ask students to prepare a chart on
the preparation of Ethene from bromoethane, various homologous series with the
the formula for bromoethane was written as first member listed along with other
C 2 H 6 Br in place of C 2 H 5 Br by some properties.
candidates. - Ensure that students know the
Several candidates used chloroethane instead common names along with the
of bromoethane. IUPAC names, wherever possible.
(ii) In writing a balanced chemical equation for
the preparation of Ethyne using calcium
carbide, some candidates wrote the product as
CaO instead of Ca (OH) 2 .
(iii) The formula of sodium acetate was written incorrectly by some candidates.
(c) (i) Some candidates incorrectly drew the structural formula when the name of the organic
compound was asked.
(ii) Several candidates gave incorrect answers like, alkene, ethyne or acetylene.
(iii) For the compound that reacts with acetic acid to form ethyl ethanoate, reactants listed by
many candidates were incorrect.
(iv) Most candidates answered this subpart correctly. However, some candidates wrote incorrect
numbering of the C atoms having the chlorine atoms.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) (i) S + 6HNO 3  H 2 SO 4 + 6NO 2 + 2H 2 O
(ii) C + 2H 2 SO 4  CO 2 + 2SO 2 + 2H 2 O
(iii) 3Cu + 8HNO 3  3Cu (NO 3 ) 2 + 2NO + 4H 2 O
(b) (i) C 2 H 5 Br + KOH  C 2 H 4 + KBr + H 2 O

(alc.)
(ii) CaC 2 + 2H 2 O  C 2 H 2 + Ca (OH) 2
(iii) CH 3 COONa + NaOH  CH 4 + Na 2 CO 3
(c) (i) Propanoic acid
(ii) Ethene or ethylene
(iii) Ethanol or ethyl alcohol
(iv) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetra chloro ethane
46

Question 5
(a) Give the chemical formula of: [3]
(i) Bauxite
(ii) Cryolite
(iii) Sodium aluminate
(b) Answer the following questions based on the extraction of aluminium from [3]
alumina by Hall-Heroult’s Process.:
(i) What is the function of cryolite used along with alumina as the electrolyte?
(ii) Why is powdered coke sprinkled on top of the electrolyte?
(iii) Name the electrode, from which aluminium is collected.
(c) Match the alloys given in column I to the uses given in column II: [4]
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(i) Duralumin A. Electrical fuse
(ii) Solder B. Surgical instruments
(iii) Brass C. Aircraft body
(iv) Stainless Steel D. Decorative articles
(a) In writing the chemical formula of bauxite, many Suggestions for teachers
candidates either wrote incorrect number of water - Give regular practice through class
molecules or did not write them at all. tests, games, quizzes to ensure that
In subparts(ii) and (iii), some candidates wrote students learn the details.
incorrect formulae. - Teach students metallurgy in detail.
(b) Most candidates answered this question correctly. - Frequently revise names of common
(c) Some candidates mismatched Column I and ores of aluminium, iron and zinc.
Column II, as they were not sure of the uses of - Discuss the questions based on the
alloys. extraction of aluminium from
alumina by Hall-Heroult’s process in
class.
47

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) (i) Al 2 O 3 .2H 2 O
(ii) Na 3 AlF 6
(iii) NaAlO 2
(b) (i) Cryolite reduces the fusion temperature of the mixture / Cryolite increases the
mobility of the ions / increases the conductivity of the electrolyte / Acts as solvent
for alumina.
(ii) Powdered coke protects the graphite rods of the anode from oxidation by oxygen
released at the anode / Powdered coke prevents the loss of heat from the electrolyte.
(iii) Cathode
(c) (i) Duralumin: C or Aircraft body.
(ii) Solder: A or Electrical fuse
(iii) Brass: D or Decorative articles
(iv) Stainless Steel: B or surgical instruments
Question 6
(a) Identify the substances underlined: [3]
(i) The catalyst used to oxidise ammonia.
(ii) The organic compound which when solidified, forms an ice like mass.
(iii) The dilute acid which is an oxidizing agent.
(b) Copper sulphate solution reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to form a [3]
precipitate of copper hydroxide according to the equation:
2NaOH + CuSO 4  Na 2 SO 4 + Cu(OH) 2 ↓
(i) What mass of copper hydroxide is precipitated by using 200 gm of sodium

hydroxide?
[H = 1, O = 16, Na = 23, S = 32, Cu = 64]
(ii) What is the colour of the precipitate formed?
(c) Find the empirical formula and the molecular formula of an organic [4]
compound from the data given below:
C = 75.92%, H = 6.32% and N = 17.76%
The vapour density of the compound is 39.5.
[C = 12, H = 1, N = 14]
48

(a) (i) Most candidates identified the catalyst used Suggestions for teachers
to oxidise ammonia correctly. However, a
few candidates mentioned incorrect catalyst - Maintain a comparative chart for the
such as Fe/ V 2 O 5 /CaO. various processes consisting of
reactants, catalysts, temperature /
(ii) Almost all candidates answered correctly.
pressure condition, equation, etc.
(iii) Many candidates listed HCl or H 2 SO 4 as an
- Teach students the fact that only
oxidising agent instead of nitric acid.
nitric acid in dilute and concentrated
(b) (i) Some candidates used Gay Lussac’s law form can act as an oxidizing agent.
instead of mole concept or calculated the - Train students to answer the molar
molecular mass incorrectly. Some candidates relationship using the coefficients in
failed to use the stoichiometric coefficients the equation and compute the answer
i.e. 2 in the case of NaOH. accurately.
(ii) Most of the candidates attempted this part - Instruct students to focus on practical
well. work and the noting of results.
Some candidates incorrectly wrote the colour - Insist on stepwise working of
of the precipitate as brown or white. numerical problems and give
(c) Many candidates determined the empirical adequate practice.
formula correctly but failed in calculating the
value of n and hence, erred in the molecular
formula.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) (i) Platinum or Pt.
(ii) Acetic acid or ethanoic acid or CH 3 COOH
(iii) HNO 3 or nitric acid.
(b) (i) RMW of NaOH = 40, Cu(OH) 2 = 98
∴ 2 x 40 g precipitate = 98 g
98×200
∴ 200 g precipitate = 80
= 245 g
(ii) Pale blue
49

(c) Element % Atomic Relative no. of Simplest Ratio
composition weight atoms
C 75.92 12 75.92/12 = 6.32 6.32/1.26 = 5
H 6.32 1 6.32/1 = 6.32 6.32/1.26 = 5
N 17.76 14 17.76/14 = 1.26 1.26/1.26 = 1

Empirical formula is: C 5 H 5 N
Empirical formula weight = 60+5+14 = 79
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑡𝑡 2×39.5 79

n = 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑡𝑡 = 79
= 79 = 1
Molecular formula = C 5 H 5 N
Question 7
(a) Name the gas evolved in each of the following cases: [3]
(i) Alumina undergoes electrolytic reduction.
(ii) Ethene undergoes hydrogenation reaction.
(iii) Ammonia reacts with heated copper oxide.
(b) Study the flow chart given and give balanced equations to represent the reactions [3]
A, B and C:
B
A
Mg 3 N 2 NH 3 NH 4 Cl
C
(c) Copy and complete the following table which refers to the industrial method for [4]
the preparation of ammonia and sulphuric acid:
Catalytic equation
Name of the compound Name of the process
(with the catalyst)
Ammonia (i)__________ (ii)__________
Sulphuric acid (iii)__________ (iv)__________
50

(a) (i) Some candidates wrote the name of the gas
evolved on electrolytic reduction of alumina as Suggestions for teachers
CO 2 instead of O 2 . A few candidates wrote the
symbol of nascent oxygen, that was not - Train students to learn the reactions
acceptable. in terms of reactants, products,
(ii) Several candidates wrote H 2 is evolved in the conditions, equations and
hydrogenation reaction of ethene, which was an observations.
incorrect answer. - Give enough practice to students in
(iii) In the reaction of ammonia with heated copper writing the different types of
oxide, the gas evolved was incorrectly written as balanced chemical reactions.
N, NO or NO 2. - Explain to students that a metal
(b) After studying the given flow chart, many candidates nitride with warm water gives metal
gave correct balanced equations to represent hydroxide and ammonia; an
reactions A, B and C. However, in some scripts ammonium salts reacts with an alkali
following errors were noticed: and gives NH3 gas.
• For reaction A, MgO was written as the product - Motivate students to prepare
instead of Mg (OH) 2 comparative charts, power point
• For reaction C, some candidates failed to use an presentations or quizzes, etc to study
alkali. facts.
(c) The table referring to the industrial method for the - Clarify industrial methods for the
preparation of ammonia and sulphuric acid was preparation of ammonia and
completed correctly by a number of candidates. sulphuric acid thoroughly.
Some common errors made by candidates: - Give frequent revision tests.
(i) Name of the process was incorrectly written as
Ostwald’s process/Baeyer’s process
(ii) The catalyst listed was platinum/nickel, etc.
(iii)Haber’s Process was written instead of Contact
Process.
(iv) Incorrect equation was given.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) (i) Oxygen gas or O 2
(ii) Ethane gas or C 2 H 6
(iii) Nitrogen or N 2
(b) A. Mg 3 N 2 + 6H 2 O  3Mg(OH) 2 + 2NH 3

B. NH 3 + HCl  NH 4 Cl
Or
8NH 3 + 3Cl 2  6NH 4 Cl + N 2
C. NH 4 Cl + NaOH  NaCl + NH 3 + H 2 O Or with any other alkali.
(c) (i) Haber’s Process

𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹
(ii) N 2 + 3H 2 �⎯⎯� 2NH 3
(iii) Contact Process
𝑉𝑉2 𝑂𝑂5 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
(iv) 2SO 2 + O 2 �⎯⎯⎯⎯� 2SO 3 Or 2SO 2 + O 2 �⎯⎯� 2SO 3
51

GENERAL COMMENTS
• Observations based on practical chemistry.
Topics found • Writing correct balanced chemical equations.
difficult/ • Methods of preparation of salts.
confusing by • Structural formulae of compounds with functional groups and IUPAC
nomenclature.
candidates • Distinguishing between substances on the basis of test/reagent given.
• Numerical problems based on mole concept.
• Conversion of molecular formula to empirical formula.
• Electron dot diagram.
• Arranging elements as per the trends in properties across a period and down
a group.
• Difference between the terms dehydration and dehydrogenation.
• Identification of terms such as electronegativity etc. on the basis of
descriptions given.
• Catalysts used in various industrial processes.
• Components of alloys and their application.
• Difference in structure of an aldehyde and alcohol.
• Connecting the type of solution to its pH value based on certain
observations.
52

• Avoid selective study.
Suggestions • Learn definitions and highlight key words.
for • Learn symbols of elements and their valencies. Practice writing balanced
candidates chemical equations with necessary conditions.
• Practice drawing of dot diagrams.
• Practice drawing of Structural formulae of organic compounds.
• Create charts with a comparative study on Hydrocarbons – alkanes, alkenes
and alkynes including the equations and conditions and various industrial
processes.
• Learn trends in properties across a period and draw a group.
• Be thorough with observations in practical chemistry and use colours to
highlight observations along with tests to differentiate between substances.
• In a chemical equation, write an acid with its strength(dilute/concentration)
Name organic chemical compounds only using IUPAC nomenclature.
• Select only one reagent when distinguishing between substances and state the
result with each substance.
• Follow confirmatory test for colourless gases.
• Focus on observations such as specific smell or specific colour of precipitate
or change in colour between reactants and products.
• Understand the role of substances used in the extraction of metals in
metallurgy.
• Practice numerical problems regularly, solve numericals stepwise with correct
formula and write the answer with correct unit.
• Pay special attention to reactions involving variations in products formed
when conditions change using the same reactants.
• Solve the previous years’ papers to become familiar with the mode of
questioning and marking system.
• Read the questions carefully and then answer accordingly what has been asked.
53

BIOLOGY (PAPER-3)

Question 1
(a) Name the following: [5]
(i) The layer of the eyeball that provides nourishment to the eye.
(ii) One gaseous compound which depletes the ozone layer.
(iii) The structure which connects the placenta and the foetus.
(iv) A pair of corresponding chromosomes of the same shape and size and derived one
from each parent.
(v) The compound formed when haemoglobin combines with carbon dioxide in blood.
(b) Correct and rewrite the statements by changing the biological term that is underlined for [5]
each statement:
(i) The theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters was proposed by Watson and
Crick.
(ii) The protective sac which develops around the developing embryo is called the
Pericardium.
(iii) Maintaining balance of the body and coordinating muscular activities is carried out
by the cerebrum.
(iv) The kidney is composed of number of neurons.
(v) The part of the eye which can be donated from a clinically dead person is the Retina.
54

(c) Give suitable biological reasons for the following statements: [5]
(i) The birth rate in India is very high.
(ii) Carbon monoxide is dangerous when inhaled.
(iii) Root hairs become flaccid and droop when excess fertilizers are added to the moist
soil around them.
(iv) Acid rain is harmful to the environment.
(v) All life on Earth is supported by Photosynthesis.
(d) Match the items given in Column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and [5]
REWRITE the correct matching pairs:
Column A Column B
(i) Cranial nerves – Testosterone
(ii) Leydig cells – Natural reflex
(iii) Acetylcholine – 12 pairs
(iv) Spinal nerves – Prolactin
(v) Sneezing – Neurotransmitter
– 18 pairs
– 31 pairs
– Conditioned reflex
(e) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below: [5]
(i) While recording the pulse rate, where exactly does a doctor press on our wrist?
A. Nerve
B. Vein
C. Artery
D. Capillary
(ii) In a human male, a sperm will contain:

A. Both X and Y chromosomes
B. Only Y chromosome
C. Only X chromosome
D. Either X or Y chromosome
55

(iii) A muscular wall is absent in:
A. Capillary
B. Venule
C. Arteriole
D. Vein
(iv) On which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?
A. 5th day
B. 28th day
C. 14th day
D. 1st day
(v) Which one of the following does not affect the rate of transpiration?
A. Light
B. Humidity
C. Wind
D. Age of the plant
(f) Identify the ODD term in each set and name the CATEGORY to which the remaining [5]
three belong:
Example: glucose, starch, cellulose, calcium
Odd term: calcium
Category: others are different types of carbohydrates.
(i) Addison’s disease, Cushing’s Syndrome, Acromegaly, Leukemia.
(ii) Insulin, Adrenaline, Pepsin, Thyroxine.
(iii) Axon, Dendron, Photon, Cyton.
(iv) Chicken pox, Colour blindness, Haemophilia, Albinism.
(v) Polythene bag, Crop residue, Animal waste, Decaying vegetable.
(g) Expand the following biological abbreviations: [5]
(i) ABA
(ii) IAA
(iii) ATP
(iv) DNA
(v) TSH
56

(h) Study the picture given below and answer the following questions: [5]
(i) Identify the type of pollution.
(ii) Name one pollutant that causes the above pollution.
(iii) Mention the impact of this pollution on human health.
(iv) State one measure to control this pollution.
(v) What is a ‘Pollutant’? Explain the term.
(a) (i) Most candidates named the layer of the eyeball Suggestions for teachers
that provides nourishment to the eye correctly. - Advise students to read the
However, some candidates could not spell it instructions given for each question
correctly. carefully.
(ii) Majority of the candidates performed well barring - Explain the parts and functions of eye
some who were not sure and wrote CO 2 . and brain using charts, models and
(iii) Many candidates attempted this sub-part of the interactive boards.
question well. However, some spelt it as ‘Amblical - Clarify the difference between
cord’. carboxyhaemoglobin and
(iv) Most candidates answered it correctly. However, carbaminohaemoglobin, Endosmosis
some wrote Homozygous instead of Homologous. and Exosmosis.
(v) Incorrect answer was written by most candidates. - Emphasise on the discoveries made
They wrote carboxyhaemoglobin instead of by Watson and Crick, Mendel,
carbaminohaemoglobin. Lamarck and Darwin.
(b) (i) Most candidates wrote Mendel and Darwin - Acquaint students with the hormones
instead of Lamarck. secreted by endocrine glands and the
(ii) This was a well attempted question. disorders caused due to their Hypo
(iii) Most candidates answered this sub-part of the and Hyper secretions.
question correctly. However, in several scripts
spelling errors were noticed.
(iv) Answered correctly by most candidates.
57

(v) Majority of the candidates answered correctly. - Explain the number of cranial and
However, a few candidates wrote Choroid instead of spinal nerves.
Retina. - Advise students to practice the
(c) (i) Most candidates wrote the correct biological reason diagrams of stomatal apparatus and the
for the given statement. experiment to prove that O2 is released
(ii) Most of the candidates were vague in their answers. by green plants during photosynthesis.
Supply of oxygen to tissues being cut off, was not - Insist upon learning the correct
mentioned by many candidates. spellings of the biological terms with
(iii) Many candidates wrote the correct reason. However, their correct meaning.
some could not explain using technical terms. - Explain to the students to differentiate
(iv) A valid reason was given by most candidates. between
(v) Majority of the candidates wrote the correct reason. • placenta and umbilical cord.
A few could not give the significance of food and • homologous chromosomes and
O 2 provided by green plants. homozygous condition along with
the meanings of ‘zygous’ and
(d) Most candidates wrote correct matching pairs of items ‘logous.’
given in column A and B. However, a few candidates
• the location of amnion and
were not sure of the number of Cranial nerves and
amniotic fluid.
Spinal nerves. • Neuron and Nephron by drawing
(e) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the correct option. the attention of the students to the
Some wrote vein instead of artery. fact that Neuron is the fundamental
(ii) Majority of the candidates wrote incorrect options. unit of the nervous system while,
They were unaware that sperms are of two types. Nephrons are units of the kidney.
(iii) Most candidates chose the correct answer from the - Discuss in detail the concept of
given options. osmosis, exosmosis and endosmosis.
(iv) The correct answer was written by most candidates. with relevant examples of plant cells
(v) All candidates wrote the correct option. being subjected to hypertonic and
hypotonic mediums/solutions.
(f) (i) Most candidates were able to identify the odd term
- Point out the difference between the
but could not identify the category correctly.
natural reflexes and conditioned
(ii) Most candidates answered correctly.
reflexes giving relevant examples.
(iii) Answered correctly by most candidates.
- Giving application-based problems in
(iv) The odd term was identified correctly, but the
the class regularly.
category was mentioned as eye diseases by many
- Clarify to the students that all ova/egg
candidates.
contain only X chromosome, while,
(v) This subpart of the question was well attempted.
sperms may contain either X or Y
(g) (i) Many candidates could not spell Abscisic acid chromosome. Thus, teach the concept
correctly. of sex determination in humans
(ii) Many candidates were not sure of the abbreviation clearly.
IAA and hence wrote Indone for Indole and did not - Clarify menstrual cycle with all the
mention the number ‘3’. four phases with appropriate diagrams.
(iii) Most candidates wrote the correct answer. - Teach clearly the difference between
(iv) Several candidates wrote the correct answer. communicable diseases and hereditary
However, some candidates wrote dioxy for deoxy. diseases.
(v) Majority of the candidates answered correctly.
However, a few wrote Thyroxine for Thyroid.
58

(h) (i) The type of pollution was identified correctly by all candidates.
(ii) This subpart of the question was answered correctly by most candidates.
(iii) Most candidates answered correctly.
(iv) Majority of the candidates answered correctly.
(v) Most of the candidates could not explain the term pollutant. ‘Causes Pollution’ was the vague
answer written by many candidates.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(a) (i) Choroid
(ii) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) or carbon tetrachloride
(iii) Umbilical cord
(iv) Homologous chromosomes
(v) Carbaminohaemoglobin/HbCO 2
(b) (i) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(ii) Amnion
(iii) Cerebellum
(iv) Nephrons/ Uriniferous tubules
(v) Cornea
(c) (i) Illiteracy, children are a gift of God, sign of prosperity, due to high infant mortality, more
helping hands for family income, do not accept family planning methods, desire for a
male child, lack of recreation.
(ii) Easily combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin which cuts off supply
of oxygen to tissues.
(iii) Formation of hypertonic solution which results in plasmolysis / exosmosis.
(iv) Pollutes soil, damages vegetation, buildings, statues, monuments, kills fish and aquatic
animals.
(v) All organisms depend directly or indirectly on green plants for food, beginning of all
food chains, provides oxygen for respiration. (Any alternate correct answer)
(d) (i) Cranial nerves – 12 pairs
(ii) Leydig cells – Testosterone
(iii) Acetylcholine – Neuro transmitter
(iv) Spinal nerves – 31 pairs
(v) Sneezing – Natural reflex
(e) (i) C. Artery
(ii) D. Either X or Y chromosome
(iii) A. Capillary
(iv) C. 14th day
(v) D. Age of the plant
59

(f) (i) O – Leukemia
C – Hormonal / Endocrinal disorders
(ii) O – Pepsin
C – Hormones
(iii) O – Photon
C – Parts of neuron / nerve cell
(iv) O – Chicken pox
C – Genetic diseases
(v) O – Polythene bag
C – Biodegradable wastes
(g) (i) Abscisic acid
(ii) Indole 3-acetic acid
(iii) Adenosine triphosphate
(iv) Deoxyribo nucleic acid
(v) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(h) (i) Water pollution/ Marine pollution
(ii) Detergents, sewage, domestic waste, oil spills from tankers, industrial wastes, hot water
from thermal power plants, polythene covers, plastic bottles, dead bodies, insecticides,
etc.
(iii) Enters food chain to harm health, cause diseases like typhoid, dysentery, jaundice, skin
allergies, etc.
(iv) Treating industrial wastes and sewage before letting into water bodies, recycling plastic,
metal and glass material
(v) Any constituent that harms the environment / deteriorates the natural quality of air,
water, soil. (Any alternate correct answer)
Question 2
(a) Given below is an experimental setup to demonstrate a particular tropic movement in [5]
germinating seeds. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
2
Perforated trough
Moist sawdust
Germinating seed
1
Brick
60

(i) Label the parts 1 and 2.
(ii) Name the tropic movement shown by part 1.
(iii) Part 1 is affected by two stimuli. Name them.

Which one of the two is stronger?
(iv) What is Thigmotropism? Give one example.
(v) What is meant by ‘Positive’ and ‘Negative’ tropic movements in plants?
(b) Mention the exact location of the following: [5]
(i) Testis
(ii) Incus
(iii) Thylakoids
(iv) Amniotic fluid
(v) Corpus callosum
(a) (i) Most of the candidates labelled the parts 1 and 2 Suggestions for teachers
correctly. However, some candidates labelled the
- Give a simplified explanation of
parts as, root and shoot, respectively.
Tropic movements in plants.
(ii) The tropic movement shown by part 1 was
- Explain the difference between
named correctly by most candidates.
Tropic movement and stimulus,
(iii) Most candidates wrote the tropic movements
Positive and negative tropic
instead of the stimuli.
movements.
(iv) Most of the candidates answered this subpart
- Give suitable examples for tropic
correctly. However, some candidates wrote the
movements.
example of Nastic movements which was
- Emphasise on the importance of
incorrect.
prepositions while teaching the exact
(v) Majority of the candidates answered correctly. A
few were unable to give a clear differentiation location of organs and structures.
between the ‘Positive’ and ‘Negative’ tropic - Clarify to the students the difference
movements in plants. between
• radicle and root, plumule and
(b) In sub-parts(ii)-(iv), most of the candidates wrote the shoot.
exact location of the asked questions. However, in • corpus callosum and corpus
sub-parts (i), and (v), many candidates could not give luteum.
the exact location. They wrote vague answers such
as, outside the abdomen in subpart (i) and in the
brain, in the cerebrum in subpart (v)
61

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) (i) 1. Radicle
2. Plumule
(ii) Hydrotropism
(iii) Gravity, water / moisture
Water is stronger
(iv) Movement of plant in response to touch stimulus.
Pea, Vines, Cuscuta, cucumber
(v) Movement towards stimulus is positive.
Movement away from stimulus is negative.
(b) (i) Inside scrotal sac
(ii) Middle ear / between malleus and stapes
(iii) In chloroplast
(iv) Between amnion and foetus / surrounds the foetus
(v) Between the cerebral hemispheres.
Question 3
(a) The diagram given below represents an experiment to prove the importance of a factor [5]
in photosynthesis. Answer the questions that follow:
Paper
Black Paper
Clip
(i) Name the factor studied in this experiment.
(ii) What will you observe in the experimental leaf after the starch test?
(iii) Explain the process of Photosynthesis.
62

(iv) Give a balanced chemical equation to represent the process of photosynthesis.
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of an experimental setup to show that oxygen is
released during photosynthesis.
(b) State the main functions of the following: [5]
(i) Medulla Oblongata
(ii) Cytokinins
(iii) Tears
(iv) Coronary Artery
(v) Seminal Vesicles
(a)(i) Most candidates did not name the factor studied in
the asked experiment. They wrote the process
instead of the factor.
(ii) Many candidates could not give a clear explanation - While teaching starch test in
of the starch test. They did not specify the colour Photosynthesis emphasise on the
change in the covered and uncovered parts of the colour change in the parts of the
experimental leaf. experimental leaf.
(iii) Majority of the candidates explained the process of - Advise students to practice the
chemical equation for
Photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis.
(iv) Most candidates wrote the correct equation. A few
- Guide students that any factor tested
balanced it by taking 6H 2 O instead of 12H 2 O.
for an experiment needs to be proved
(v) Most candidates drew an incorrect diagram using a at the end. Hence, using a mouse and
mouse and bell jar instead of taking a hydrilla plant plant under a bell jar cannot prove
submerged in water. the release of O2 during
(b) (i) Few candidates stated the main function of Medulla photosynthesis since oxygen cannot
Oblongata correctly. Majority of them confused it be tested. Instruct students to setup
the experiment using twigs of
with the function of cerebellum.
hydrilla to prove the release of
(ii) Most candidates answered correctly.
oxygen.
(iii) This was correctly answered by most candidates.
- Clarify the difference between the
(iv) Most candidates wrote incomplete answers. They factor and the process studied in an
did not specify oxygenated blood. experiment.
(v) Majority of the candidates wrote the correct - Ensure that students are clear about
answer. A few wrote the function of testis instead the main functions of the structures
of seminal vesicles. asked in the question paper.
63

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) (i) Sunlight
(ii) – Part of leaf covered by black paper turns brown, absence of starch.
– Parts of leaf exposed to sunlight turns blue black, presence of starch.
(iii) Plant cells having chlorophyll, use water and carbon dioxide to produce glucose in the
presence of sunlight.
(iv) 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6H 2 O + 6O 2

Sunlight
Chlorophyll
(v) Sunlight
Oxygen gas
Water
Bubbles of oxygen
Hydrilla plant
(b) (i) Regulates activities of internal organs like breathing, heartbeat, peristalsis.
(ii) Stimulates cell division, plant growth, prevents ageing,expansion of cotyledons in
seeds,breaks seed dormancy, promotes synthesis of chloroplasts, delays senescence.
(iii) Lubricates surface of eye, washes away dust, kill germs, keeps surface of eye moist,
lysozyme kills bacteria.
(iv) Supplies oxygenated blood to the walls of the heart.
(v) Activates sperms, forms a medium for transportation of sperms.
64

Question 4
(a) The diagram given below represents an organ system in the human body. [5]
Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Identify the system.

(ii) Label the parts marked 2 and 4. Mention the function of part 5.
(iii) Name the structural and functional units of the part marked 1.
(iv) What is the fluid that accumulates in part 3?
Which is the main nitrogenous waste present in it?
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram showing the longitudinal section of part 1.
(b) The diagram given below represents an endocrine gland in the human body. Study the [5]
diagram and answer the following questions:
Infundibulum
Anterior lobe
Posterior lobe
(i) Identify the endocrine gland. Where is it located?

(ii) Why is the above gland referred to as the ‘Master gland’?
65

(iii) Name the hormone which in deficiency causes Diabetes Insipidus.
How does this disorder differ from Diabetes Mellitus?
(iv) Explain the term ‘Hormone’.
What is the role of Tropic hormones in the human body?
(v) Which lobe of the above gland secretes:
1. Oxytocin
2. ACTH
3. Growth hormone
(a) (i) Most candidates identified the system correctly.
‘Urinogenital system’ was written as an incorrect
answer by a few candidates. Suggestions for teachers
(ii) Most candidates labelled part 2 and 4 and - Familiarise students with the parts and
mentioned the function of part 5 correctly. functions of the Urinary system.
However, a few did not study the diagram - Encourage students to draw neat,
carefully and labelled part 4 as urethra. labelled and accurate diagrams
(iii) This part of the question was answered correctly showing all parts clearly.
by most candidates. - Explain the location of the Pituitary
(iv) Majority of the candidates wrote the name of the gland with the help of a
fluid that accumulates in part 3 correctly. suitable/interactive board.
However, some candidates could not mention the - Interpret the differences between the
main nitrogenous waste present in urine. two types of Diabetes with respect to
(v) The longitudinal section of part 1 was drawn hormones and symptoms. Also clarify
correctly by most candidates. However, a few the keywords mellitus and insipidus.
candidates could not show a clear differentiation - Explain to the students the difference
between renal cortex and medulla. between an organ and an organ
(b) (i) Most candidates identified the endocrine gland system.
correctly. However, a large number of candidates - Give a list of organic and inorganic
could not give the exact location of the gland. constituents of urine.
(ii) Most candidates answered this subpart correctly. - Give a comparison of the four
(iii) This subpart was attempted well by most endocrine glands, their secretion,
candidates. disorders caused due to hyposecretion
(iv) Majority of the candidates explained the term and hypersecretion.
‘Hormone’ correctly but were unable to give the
role of Tropic hormones in the human body.
(v) Many candidates wrote incorrect answers as they
were uncertain of the hormones secreted by the
two lobes of the Pituitary gland.
66

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) (i) Excretory system/Urinary system
(ii) 2 – Ureter
4 – Sphincter
5 – Expels urine
(iii) Nephrons
(iv) Urine
Urea
(v)
(Any other correct labelling)

(b) (i) Pituitary gland
Hangs from hypothalamus
(ii) Controls the secretions of other endocrine glands/regulates the activities of other
endocrine glands.
(iii) Vasopressin / ADH
Diabetes mellitus is due to deficiency of insulin/ high level of sugar in blood, urine has
sugar.
Diabetes insipidus: Normal sugar in blood, urine free of sugar / urine loaded with water.
(iv) It is the secretion of an endocrine gland, which is transported by blood and acts on target
organs or cells.
Secreted by pituitary gland and stimulates other endocrine glands to secrete their
hormones.
(v) 1 – Posterior/ neurohypophysis
2 – Anterior / adenohypophysis
3 – Anterior /adenohypophysis
67

Question 5
(a) Given below is an apparatus which was setup to investigate a physiological process in [5]
plants. The setup was placed in bright sunlight. Answer the questions that follow:
Bell Jar
Water Drops
Plant
Rubber sheet
Glass Plate Vaseline
(i) Name the process being studied. Define the process.
(ii) Why was the pot enclosed in a rubber sheet?
(iii) Mention two external factors which can accelerate the above process.
(iv) List two adaptations in plants to reduce the above process.
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a stomatal apparatus.
(b) Given below are two stages in the evolution of man. [5]
Study them and answer the questions that follow:
A B
(i) Identify Australopithecus and Neanderthal man from the above pictures.
68

(ii) Mention two characteristic features each for the two stages.
(iii) Who proposed the theory of ‘Natural Selection’?
(iv) Name the organism used as an example to explain ‘Industrial Melanism’.
(v) Give two examples of Vestigial organs in humans.
(a) (i) Most candidates answered correctly. However, a Suggestions for teachers
few wrote Photosynthesis instead of Transpiration.
(ii) Few candidates could attempt this subpart - Train students in conceptual
correctly. Most of them wrote that transpiration learning. Advise students to take
occurs in soil, which is incorrect. practical work seriously, to
(iii) Though most candidates wrote the external factors, understand the difference between
they failed to mention their intensity which will Transpiration and Photosynthesis.
accelerate the process. Insist on drawing complete
(iv) Majority of the candidates listed the two diagrams.
adaptations in plants correctly. - Clarify the importance of epidermal
(v) Few candidates drew a neat, labelled diagram of a cells surrounding guard cells.
stomatal apparatus. Most candidates did not draw - Instruct students to express the
epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells. acceleration of physiological
processes in plants using adverbs
(b)(i) Most candidates identified the pictures correctly.
such as “more or less”.
(ii) Most candidates wrote the two characteristic
- Advise students to comprehend what
features each for the two stages correctly.
is asked in the question before
(iii) Many candidates were unsure of the name of the
answering.
scientist who proposed Natural Selection. They
- Explain the difference between a
wrote Lamarck instead of Darwin.
duct and a tubule.
(iv) Most candidates could not write the common name
- Teach Human Evolution giving basic
or scientific name of the organism.
characteristics of each stage.
(v) Most candidates wrote the two examples of
Illustrate each stage using pictorial
Vestigial organs in humans correctly.
representation of models of
evolution of man exhibiting the
characteristic feature of the various
stages of human evolution.
- Spell out Lamarck’s and Darwin’s
contribution towards study of
evolution clearly.
- Explain the meaning of vestigial
organ clearly with many examples
pertaining to human beings.
69

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) (i) Transpiration
It is the loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant.
(ii) To prevent evaporation of water from the pot/ soil.
(iii) Bright sunlight, high temperature, high velocity of wind, low humidity.
(iv) Thick cuticle, loss of leaves, narrow leaves, fewer stomata, sunken stomata, leaves
modified into spines, multiple layers of epidermal cells.
(v)
(b) (i) A – Neanderthal man

B – Australopithecus
(ii) A – absolute bipedalism, large head, broad, flat, sloping forehead, less hair on body,
large cranial capacity 1,500 cm3,
B – Protruding face, Chin absent, prominent eyebrow ridges, flat nose, projecting face,
cranial capacity (450- 600 cm3).
(Any other correct characteristic feature.)
(iii) Charles Darwin
(iv) Peppered moth / Biston betularia
(v) Pinna of ear, wisdom teeth, vermiform appendix, coccyx or tailbone, arrector pili, plica
semilunaris, body hair, male nipples.
70

Question 6
(a) In Mendel’s experiments, tall pea plants (T) are dominant over dwarf pea plants (t). [5]
(i) What is the phenotype and genotype of the F 1 generation if a homozygous tall plant
is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant?
(ii) Draw a Punnett square board to show the gametes and offspring when both the
parents are heterozygous for tallness.
(iii) What is the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio of the above cross in (ii)?
(iv) State Mendel’s Law of Dominance.
(v) What is a Dihybrid Cross?
(b) Given below is a diagram representing a stage during the mitotic cell division. Study [5]
the diagram and answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the stage by giving a suitable reason.
(ii) Is it a plant or an animal cell? Give a reason to support your answer.
(iii) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the stage which follows the one shown in the
diagram.
(iv) How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after the completion of the
above division?
(v) Name the four nitrogenous bases.
71

(a) (i) Most candidates answered correctly. However, a Suggestions for teachers
few mentioned shapes of seed and position of - Train students to clearly distinguish
flower instead of height of plant. between Chromosome and
(ii) Many candidates drew the Punnett square. A few Chromatid.
used a criss-cross method to answer. - Draw diagrams on the blackboard to
(iii)Most candidates wrote phenotypic ratio and help students comprehend and
genotypic ratio of the above cross in (ii) develop the required skill.
correctly. - Give a clear understanding of
(iv) Majority of the candidates stated Mendel’s Law technical terms like Phenotype,
of Dominance correctly. Genotype, Phenotypic ratio and
(v) Most candidates could explain Dihybrid cross. Genotypic ratio.
However, a few confused it with Monohybrid - Stress upon the difference between
cross. Monohybrid and Dihybrid cross, F1
(b) (i) Majority of candidates could identify the stage and F2 generations.
during the mitotic cell division correctly but - Explain the stages of mitosis with the
could not give a valid reason. help of well labelled diagrams.
(ii) This part of the question was answered correctly - Lay importance on the position and
by most candidates number of chromosomes in the
(iii) Many candidates did not draw the correct diagrams.
diagram of Telophase. Daughter nuclei with - Train students to draw labelled
nuclear membrane was not shown. diagrams of the phases of mitosis in
(iv) Majority of the candidates wrote 46 animal cells and plant cells.
chromosomes instead of 4 as they did not - Instruct students to maintain number
observe the diagram properly. of chromosomes in the diagrams
(v) Most candidates named the four nitrogenous drawn for mitosis.
bases correctly. A few wrote Thiamine and - Give regular practice by giving
Adenosine as incorrect answers. similar type of questions in unit
tests/terminal examinations and
clarify the errors.
72

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) (i) Phenotype – all are tall plants
Genotype – All are hybrid / heterozygous dominant
T t
(ii) T TT Tt
t Tt tt
(iii) Phenotypic ratio – 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
(iv) Out of a pair of contrasting characters, the one that is expressed is dominant
and the one that is not expressed is recessive.
(v) It is breeding plants taking two pairs of contrasting characters.
(b) (i) Anaphase

Chromatids are being pulled towards the opposite poles.
(ii) Animal cell
Cell wall is absent, centrioles are present, asters are present.
(iii)
Chromosome
Nuclear Membrane
Centriole
Aster
Furrow
(iv) 4
(v) Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine.
73

Question 7
(a) Answer the following questions briefly: [5]
(i) How are the cytons and axons placed in the brain and the spinal cord?
(ii) Which part of the human ear gives ‘Dynamic balance’ and ‘Static balance’ to the
body?
(iii) Explain how the human eye adapts itself to bright light and dim light.
(iv) What is Parthenocarpy? Give one example.
(v) Mention any two objectives of ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’.
(b) The diagram given below represents a system in the human body. [5]
Study the diagram and answer the following questions:
(b) (i) Identify the system. [5]

(ii) Label the parts marked 5 and 6.
(iii) Name the two hormones secreted by 1.
(iv) Mention the number and the name of the part involved in fertilization and
implantation from the above diagram.
(v) Mention the surgical methods of contraception in:
1. Human males.
2. Human females.
74

(a) (i) Most candidates wrote incorrect answers. They
were unsure of the placement of cytons and axons
in brain and spinal cord. - Give a clear understanding of the
(ii) Majority of the candidates answered this sub part structure and functions of the parts of
of the question correctly. ear and eye using charts, models and
interactive boards.
(iii) Few candidates wrote correct answers. Many
- Explain the arrangement of Cytons
candidates did not write the role of rhodopsin for
and Axons, Grey matter and white
adaptation of eye.
matter in brain and spinal cord.
(iv) Most candidates could not give a clear - Teach the functions of sensory cells
explanation of the term ‘Parthenocarpy’. of retina, emphasising on the
However, the example was written correctly by pigments of rods and cones and their
some candidates. function in bright and dim light.
(v) Most candidates mentioned the two objectives of - Advise students to comprehend the
‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ correctly. definitions/ operative terms and then
(b) (i) Most candidates wrote the correct answer. A few learn.
candidates did not mention the word female while - Use neatly labelled diagrams and
identifying the system. charts to explain the parts of the male
(ii) Majority of the candidates labelled part 5 and female reproductive system.
correctly. However, part 6 was identified as Stress on the location and function of
Vagina instead of Cervix. various parts.
- Teach in detail the definition, site
(iii) Most candidates wrote the names of the two
and physiology of fertilization,
hormones secreted by 1 correctly.
implantation and gestation.
(iv) Majority of the candidates did not write the
number and name of the part involved in - Clarify Vasectomy and Tubectomy
fertilization and implantation. with suitable illustrations.
(v) Most candidates answered correctly the surgical

methods of contraception in Human males and
females.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) (i) Brain - Outer, grey matter has cytons and inner white matter has axons.
Spinal Cord - Outer, white matter has axons and inner grey matter has cytons.
(ii) Dynamic - semi-circular canals/ducts/tubes
Static - utriculus, sacculus, utricle, saccule, vestibule
(iii) Bright light - Pupils constrict, Rhodopsin is bleached.
Dim light - Pupils dilate, Rhodopsin is regenerated.
75

(iv) Formation of fruit without fertilisation e.g. grapes, water melon, banana, papaya.
(v) – To clean roads, streets and buildings in cities and towns.
– To eliminate open defecation
– To build and monitor the use of latrines
– To manage solid and liquid waste
(b) (i) Female reproductive system

(ii) 5 – Oviducal funnel
6 – Cervix
(iii) Oestrogen, Progesterone.
(iv) Fertilisation – 2, Oviduct/Fallopian tube
Implantation – 3, Uterus
(v) 1 – Vasectomy
2 – Tubectomy
Note: For questions having more than one correct answer/solution, alternate correct
answers/solutions, apart from those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted.
76

• Parts of eyeball and their functions.
Topics found • Gases causing depletion of ozone layer.
difficult / • Difference between carbaminohaemoglobin and Carboxyhaemoglobin.
• Discoveries of Mendel, Watson, and Crick, Lamarck and Darwin.
confusing by • Parts of brain and their functions.
candidates • Experiments on Photosynthesis and significance of Photosynthesis.
• Number of Cranial and Spinal nerves.
• Chromosomes in sperm.
• Disorders caused due to Hypo and Hypersecretion of hormones.
• Genetic diseases.
• Abbreviations.
• Difference between Stimulus and Tropic movement.
• Location of Testis and Corpus callosum.
• Functions of blood vessels and male accessory glands.
• Diagram of Stomatal apparatus.
• Organism for industrial melanism.
• Monohybrid and dihybrid cross.
• Placement of Cytons and Axons in brain and spinal cord.
• Fertilization and Implantation in female reproductive system.
• Read the scope and syllabus prescribed for ICSE Biology.

• Revise the topics repeatedly for better understanding of concepts.
Suggestions • Prepare a list of abbreviations you come across the syllabus, absorb them
for mentally.
• Learn the keywords/biological terms/definitions with conceptual clarity.
candidates
• Practise drawing neat and labelled diagrams.
• Give importance to biological and technical terms.
• Revise previous years question papers.
• Use the 15 minutes reading time to understand and assimilate the
questions.
• Read the rubric attentively and choose the questions as per the rubrics,
plan and organize your thoughts accordingly to give your best.
• Follow carefully the instructions given for each question.
• Attempt only the number of questions asked for in the question paper.
• Write the correct question number before answering.
• Be methodical and organized while answering.
• Do not separate the subsections of the question.
• Write in a neat and legible handwriting.
• Be confident and rely only on yourself.
77

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Tel: (011) 26413820/26411706

© Copyright, Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations

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QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS – SCIENCE 3

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 Overall Performance of candidates in the subject (Statistics at a Glance)

Understanding the tables

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The table shows comparison

The results have also been depicted

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Mean Marks: Highest Marks: 100

66.6 Lowest Marks: 05

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West Bengal 66.8

The States of Maharashtra, Goa and Kerala secured highest mean

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Comparison on the basis of Gender

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Highest Marks: 100 Highest Marks: 100

Mean Marks: 69.9 REGION Mean Marks: 75.4

Highest Marks: 100 Mean Marks: 80.8 Highest Marks: 100

Highest Marks: 100

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North East South West Foreign

Comparison on the basis of Gender within Region

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Comparison on the basis of gender in top and bottom mark ranges

Boys Girls All Candidates

Marks Range (81-100) 89.5

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Comparison on the basis of gender in Grade 1 and Grade 9

Grades Gender N Mean SE t-value

Boys Girls All Candidates

observed between the average 84.6

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SECTION I (40 Marks)

(i) To which class of lever does it belong?

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(c) Substance B is a good conductor of heat

(ii) Which lens, thick or thin has greater focal length?

(i) intensities and

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(ii) Which characteristic of sound, makes it possible to recognize a person by his

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State with a reason whether:

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(b) A uniform meter scale is in equilibrium as shown in the diagram: [3]

(i) Calculate the weight of the meter scale.

F is shifted towards 0 cm.

(c) The diagram below shows a pulley arrangement: [4]