Chapter 14: Personality

100 MCQs

1.
How did personality theory start as a branch of psychology?

A.
Freud’s psychoanalytic approach
B.
Allport’s trait approach
C.
Kelly’s phenomenological approach
D.
Skinner’s behavioural approach

2.
During the last century a number of different approaches to personality have developed.
Which of the following is NOT one of these?

A.
Phenomenological approaches.
B.
Developmental approaches.
C.
Social–cognitive approaches.
D.
Biological and genetic approaches.

3.
Hippocrates believed that different personality types are caused by _______.

A.
Unconscious processes
B.
A balance of bodily fluids
C.
Human experience
D.
Genetics

4.
Which is NOT one of the personality types developed by Hippocrates?

A.
Phlegmatic
B.
Sanguine
C.
Neurotic
D.
Melancholic

5.
According to Hippocrates, if you had high levels of yellow bile, what would you be?

A.
Happy
B.
Depressed
C.
Optimistic
D.
Irritable

6.
Which of these statements about the various types of personality theory are accurate? (Please
highlight all correct answers.)

A.
Psychoanalytic theorists have been concerned with the labelling and measurement of
personality dimensions.
B.
Humanistic theorists emphasize human experience and positive aspects of behaviour.
C.
Trait theorists focus on unconscious processes and the impact of early childhood experience.
D.
Social–cognitive theories provide an explanation for differences in personality in terms of the
ways we process information and perceive our social world.

7.
Which statement is NOT an accepted part of the definition of personality?

A.
Personality is an internal process that guides behaviour
B.
Biological and genetic phenomena have an impact on personality
C.
Personality is stable, and does not change dramatically within a person
D.
None of the above
8.
Which is NOT a model developed by Freud to show how the mind works?

A.
Topographic model
B.
Structural model
C.
Developmental model
D.
Psychogenetic model

9.
One of these statements relating to the structural model of personality is correct – but which
one?

A.
The structural model of personality involves the id, the ego and the hyperego.
B.
The id has two drives.
C.
Thanatos involves a drive for growth and self-preservation.
D.
The ‘pleasure principle’ is the idea that all needs have to be satisfied immediately, regardless
of pain.

10.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the topographic model of the psyche?

A.
The conscious.
B.
The unconscious.
C.
The preconscious.
D.
The postconscious.

11.
Psychoanalysis is a _______.

A.
Theory of the mind or personality
B.
Method of investigating unconscious processes
C.
Method of treatment
D.
All of the above

12.
According, to the psychoanalytic approach, what is central to determining behaviour?

A.
Conscious mental processes
B.
Unconscious mental processes
C.
Sexual urges
D.
Irrational behaviour

13.
Which part of the consciousness contains everything that you could become aware of but are
not currently thinking about?

A.
Preconscious
B.
Unconscious
C.
Ego
D.
Superego

14.
Which part of the conscious holds all the urges, thoughts and feelings that might cause us
anxiety, conflict and pain?

A.
Conscious
B.
Unconscious
C.
Id
D.
Superego

15.
The id is ________.

A.
Developed by the ego and superego
B.
Functions in the preconscious
C.
The primitive core
D.
Not tied to biological processes

16.
How does the id discharge tension?

A.
Reflex responses
B.
Primary process thinking
C.
Creating hallucinatory images of desired objects
D.
All of the above

17.
Eros is NOT the drive for _____.

A.
Growth
B.
Sex
C.
Aggression
D.
Life

18.
What is the problem with entertaining the primary processes?

A.
It does not meet the needs of the organism
B.
It will make you always angry
C.
The organism would be unable to much more then act reflexively
D.
None of the above
19.
Which of the following is NOT true of the ego?

A.
The ego, as a source of rationality, conforms to the ‘reality principle’.
B.
The ego has moral and practical sense.
C.
The ego engages in secondary process thinking.
D.
The superego has two sub-systems: conscience and ego ideal.

20.
What is the purpose of the ego?

A.
To keep the id morally grounded
B.
To meet the fundamental needs of the organism
C.
The immediate reduction of tension
D.
All of the above

21. Identify the correct statement from those given below:

A.
Freud viewed a ‘weak’ superego as the consequence of self-indulgence and criminality.
B.
According to Freud, the ego mediates between id impulses, superego directives and the real
world.
C.
Conflicts arising as part of the ego mediation process can lead to five different types of
anxiety.
D.
All of the above.

22.
What is the basis for guilt?

A.
Conscience
B.
Ego ideal
C.
Id
D.
Ego

23.
Which is NOT a type of anxiety that conflicts between the unconscious processes can lead
to?

A.
Neurotic
B.
Imaginary
C.
Moral
D.
Reality

24.
Which type of anxiety is concerned that the id will get out of control?

A.
Conscience
B.
Reality
C.
Neurotic
D.
Ego ideal

25.
Reality anxiety is concerned about _______.

A.
The superego taking to much control
B.
Immoral behaviour
C.
Dangers in the environment
D.
Changes through development

26.
Which of the following is an INACCURATE description of a Freudian defence mechanism?

A.
Displacement – substituting an acceptable behaviour for an anxiety-inducing one.
B.
Regression – reverting to modes of behaviour from childhood in order to avoid conflict.
C.
Projection – projecting the threatening thing on to others.
D.
Reaction formation – transforming emotional or affective drives into rational intentions.

27.
Defense mechanisms do NOT_______.

A.
Alter reality
B.
Deny reality
C.
Release tensions caused by anxiety
D.
Appear immediately obvious

28.
Which is NOT a stage of Freud’s psychogenetic model of development?

A.
Oral
B.
Anal
C.
Pubic
D.
Latency

29.
Which of the assertions given below is NOT true of Freud’s psychogenetic model of
development?

A.
Child development proceeds through a series of stages related to physical development.
B.
Adult personality is influenced by how crises are resolved at each stage of personal
development.
C.
The psychogenetic model of development proposes that personality develops in adulthood.
D.
Excessive gratification or frustration at any one stage can result in the fixation of libido and
subsequent disruption to normal personality development.
30.
Which statement concerning the early phase of the oral stage is FALSE?

A.
Pleasure is derived from swallowing and sucking
B.
Fixated people overeat, smoke, and drink
C.
It lasts from about birth to 18 months
D.
Fixated people are referred to as oral-sadistic

31.
People who are fixated in the later part in the oral stage are not _____.

A.
Nail-biters
B.
Sarcastic
C.
Fixated between the ages of 18 months – 3 years
D.
Oral-aggressive

32.
Being anal-retentive is NOT _______.

A.
Caused by being controlled to much in the anal stage
B.
The same as being anal-expulsive
C.
Caused by taking pleasure in retaining your faeces
D.
Developed while children are between the age of 18 months and 3 years

33.
During the Freudian phallic stage: (please highlight all correct answers)

A.
Boys resent the presence of their mother.
B.
Girls experience the Oedipus complex.
C.
Boys identify with their fathers to protect themselves against castration anxiety.
D.
Girls cannot resolve their penis envy until they have a female child.

34.
Which statement about the phallic stage is FALSE?

A.
Boys experience the Electra complex
B.
Children discover pleasure from touching their genitals
C.
They are aware that they are in competition with others for attention
D.
Fixation leads to later relationship difficulties

35.
Which statement about the latency stage is FALSE?

A.
It occurs between the ages of 6-12 years
B.
At the end of it, personality is formed
C.
Sexual impulses are rechannelled
D.
Children begin playing sports, learning and engaging in social activities

36.
In what stage do people focus their libido on the opposite sex?

A.
Phallic
B.
Latency
C.
Genital
D.
Adulthood

37.
A number of notable theorists followed Freud, one of whom was Carl Jung. But which of
these statements does NOT apply to Jung?

A.
He was one of the first prominent analysts to break away from Freud.
B.
He was viewed by Freud as the disciple who would carry on the Freudian tradition.
C.
D.
He saw humans as being guided as much by aims and aspirations as by sex and aggression.
One of his major contributions was his challenge to Freud's treatment of women.

38.
Which is NOT a name that theorists have called themselves to differentiate themselves from
Freud?

A.
Neo-analytic
B.
Post-Freudian
C.
Psychodynamic
D.
Psychoanalytic

39.
Analytical psychology is NOT ________.

A.
A theory developed by Jung
B.
A theory in which people are striving towards self-actualization
C.
Characterized by demands between the individual and society
D.
Characterized by opposing forces within the individual

40.
Karen Horney was one of a number of theorists who followed Freud. Which of the following
is true of Horney?

A.
She adopted a more pessimistic view of human life than Freud.
B.
She concentrated on early childhood development, and her work formed the basis of much
later work in this area.
C.
She always agreed with Freud that women were most likely to be affected by the absence of a
penis.
D.
None of the above.

41.
Karen Horney ______.

A.
Concentrated on adult stages
B.
Believed women were affected by social and cultural oppression
C.
Followed closely basic Freudian principles
D.
De-emphasized self-realization

42.
Which is NOT an accurate criticism of Freud’s theories?

A.
The unconscious is a thoroughly untestable concept
B.
The theory is based on undocumented therapy sessions
C.
Is a pseudoscience because it is inherently untestable
D.
The logic of the theory is circular

43.
In the humanistic theory of personality __________.

A.
People are viewed as victims of their motivations
B.
People are viewed as experiencing beings
C.
A person’s personality is derived from conflict
D.
The unconscious experience is very important

44.
Which is NOT an important emphasis of the Humanistic approach?

A.
Individual experiences
B.
Relationships
C.
Preconscious
D.
Understanding the world
45.
Which statement about the Humanistic Approach is FALSE?

A.
Everyone’s experience is unique
B.
An individual’s perception is critical to behaviour
C.
Humanistic theories form the basis of many therapeutic techniques
D.
None of the Above

46.
Which TWO of the statements below are true? Carl Rogers:

A.
Developed personal construct theory.
B.
Saw humans as intrinsically good and as having an innate desire for self-improvement.
C.
Believed that how we feel about ourselves is determined by how others react to or approve of
us.
D.
Claimed that activities that are self-actualizing are perceived as unsatisfying.

47.
According to Carl Rogers, where does the self-concept come from?

A.
Childhood experiences and anxieties
B.
Innate self-conceptions
C.
The child’s perceptions of parental approval
D.
Biological mechanisms

48.
Rogers did not believe that _____.

A.
All people have a basic need for approval and love
B.
Conditions of worth are formed through internal forces
C.
Conditions of worth are essential for social development
D.
People are sensitive to whether or not they gain approval

49.
How can conditions of worth interfere with personal development?

A.
If our sole objective is to gain approval from others
B.
If our sole objective is to work on personal development
C.
It prevents us from socializing
D.
None of the above

50.
What does experiencing unconditional positive regard do?

A.
Keeps our core tendency in check
B.
Enables us to grow
C.
Diminishes the self and expand social aspects
D.
Subverts our natural capacities

51.
Which is NOT a criticism of the tendency to self-actualize?

A.
We do not all have the same ability to self-actualize
B.
It is vague and untestable
C.
The form of actualization is unique, and therefore impossible to examine
D.
It does not have objective criteria for measurement

52.
One of Carl Rogers’ most important contributions to psychology was his attempt to evaluate
client-centred therapy. But which of the following is NOT the case?

A.
Client-centred therapy offers a central role to the therapist’s unconditional positive regard for
the client.
B.
Rogers argued that client-centred therapy helps the individual in therapy to return to an
actualizing state.
C.
Rogers and Dymond set out to examine changes in the discrepancy between present self-
concept and the ideal self.
D.
Rogers and Dymond used a P-sort technique to examine the changes in discrepancy.

53.
In client-centered therapy, what must the therapist be in order to help a client untangle his/her
emotions?

A.
Trusting
B.
Accepting
C.
Empathic
D.
All of the above

54.
How does the personal construct theory view people?

A.
A victim of desires
B.
An inactive bystander
C.
Hypothesis-generators
D.
A slave to impulses

55.
Personal construct theory states that people are NOT _________.

A.
Continually categorizing themselves and their world
B.
Locatable on a personality theorist’s trait dimensions
C.
Generating constructs
D.
Anticipating and controlling the events of our lives
56.
According to personal construct theory, people are ____.

A.
Not aware of how their psychological world is constructed
B.
Not able to determine how they construe the world
C.
Understandable, if we can understand how they perceive things
D.
Able to be anticipated in regards to their behaviour

57.
What role does role-playing have in therapy in according to the personal construct theory?

A.
Help people gain new perspectives
B.
Find more convenient ways of living
C.
To identify disorders
D.
Both A and B

58.
Select the FALSE statement from those given below. George Kelly:

A.
Proposed the notion of constructive alternativism – the idea that there is no reality, reality is
only what we perceive it to be.
B.
Believed that the therapeutic process should be exclusively concerned with diagnosis and
categorization.
C.
Viewed the individual as being capable of enacting many different roles.
D.
Suggested that anxiety occurs when our construct system provides no means for dealing with
an experience.

59.
Constructive alternativism shows us that _______.

A.
We are always able to change events
B.
That people perceive events in the same way
C.
We can construe events differently
D.
There is only ever one course of action

60.
Taking on a ‘role’ in personal construct theory is _____.

A.
Something that people are not capable of doing
B.
An attempt to see another person through that person’s constructs
C.
Guided by your own viewpoint
D.
Guided by the perceptions of the therapist

61.
How does personal construct theory explain guilt?

A.
Discrepancies with ideal self and action
B.
When we fail to strive towards self-actualization
C.
Are parents teach us about guilt
D.
When thanatos is controlling our drives

62.
Which of the following is NOT one of Sheldon’s (1954) body types?

A.
Ectomorphic.
B.
Mesomorphic.
C.
Endomorphic.
D.
Metamorphic.

63.
Traits are NOT _______.

A.
Labels given to aspects of personality
B.
Categorized into discrete entities
C.
Viewed as a continuous dimensions
D.
Independent of body type

64.
Which statement about traits is FALSE?

A.
People tend to rate ‘high’ or ‘low’ on a particular dimension
B.
Most traits form a normal distribution
C.
People are can be ‘sociable’ or ‘unsociable’
D.
None of the above

65.
Report cards and military conduct reports are examples of what kind of data?

A.
Q-data
B.
L-data
C.
Traits
D.
Types

66.
What type of data have you acquired when you collect T-data?

A.
Ratings by friends
B.
Self-ratings
C.
Records of behaviour
D.
Psychometric data

67.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A.
Raymond Cattell made the first comprehensive attempt to develop a framework to describe
personality using traits.
B.
Factor analysis is a tool for summarizing the relationships among sets of variables by
identifying those that co-vary and are different from other groups of variables.
C.
In personality theory, factor analysis can be used to identify which sets of variables most
simply and accurately reflect the structure of human personality.
D.
The lexical criterion of importance proposes that an aspect of personality described by many
words in the vernacular is likely to be more important than one described by just a few.

68.
Which of the following numbers associated with Cattell’s trait dimensions is accurate?

A.
Found 100 key trait names after removing synonyms
B.
Investigations yielded 25 trait dimensions
C.
Collated 4500 trait names before removing synonyms
D.
Yielded 5 types of data

69.
Cattell’s investigations into traits yielded THREE types of data – but which three?

A.
L-data.
B.
Q-data.
C.
T-data.
D.
V-data.

70.
Which is NOT a trait dimension defined by Cattell’s model?

A.
Sober-happy-go-lucky
B.
Introversion-extroversion
C.
Placid-apprehensive
D.
Relaxed-tense

71.
Which of these is NOT one of Eysenck’s supertraits?

A.
Extraversion.
B.
Psychoticism.
C.
Neuroticism.
D.
Openness.

72.
People who are touchy, aggressive and changeable, fall where According to Eysenck’s
supertraits?

A.
High neuroticism, high extraversion
B.
High neuroticism, low extraversion
C.
High introversion, low stability
D.
Low introversion, high stability

73.
Which is NOT a characteristic of someone scoring high on psychoticism?

A.
Egocentric
B.
Anxious
C.
Impulsive
D.
Unempathetic

74.
Eysenck’s personality model divides personality into various units, which is NOT one of
them?

A.
Traits
B.
Habits
C.
Thoughts
D.
Actions

75.
Which of the following are factors in the five factor model of personality or ‘Big Five’?
(Please highlight all correct answers.)

A.
Neuroticism.
B.
Intelligence.
C.
Psychoticism.
D.
Agreeableness.

76.
Which statement about the Big Five is FALSE?

A.
Tests have participants decide how characteristic an item is for them
B.
Most of the work has been conducted in North America
C.
Cross-cultural evidence shows some support
D.
It is a simplistic generalization of trait theory

77.
Which of the following is NOT the case regarding trait debates?

A.
Allport raised the issue of whether personality is nomothetic or idiographic.
B.
A nomothetic approach to personality emphasizes comparisons between individuals and
proposes that people are all governed by the same basic behavioural principles.
C.
An idiographic approach to personality proposes each individual is unique and cannot be
compared with another.
D.
Allport argued that behaviour is determined more by novel, formal and/or public situations,
and personality more by informal, familiar and/or private situations.
78.
According to which approach is comparing one person to another is meaningless?

A.
Nomothetic approach
B.
Trait approach
C.
Idiographic approach
D.
Five factor approach

79.
When are we best able to draw conclusions about a fellow student’s personality?

A.
In a lecture
B.
At the pub
C.
In a study group
D.
None of the above

80.
Which of these is a feature of Eysenck’s theories of inhibition and arousal?

A.
Eysenck redeveloped inhibition theory to formulate arousal theory.
B.
Arousal theory identifies the physiological systems underlying introversion–extraversion.
C.
In inhibition theory, Eysenck argued that individual differences in extraversion–introversion
cannot be explained by genetics.
D.
The differences in the behaviour of extraverts and introverts are traced to various parts of the
descending reticular activating system.

81.
According to inhibition and arousal theory, how do extrovert’s brains work?

A.
Strong inhibitory processes
B.
Weak excitatory processes
C.
Weak inhibitory processes
D.
Both A and C

82.
When studying, introverts _____.

A.
Take more study breaks than extroverts
B.
Look around the room more than extroverts
C.
Prefer study carrels or semi enclosed workplace
D.
Like situations where socialization is permitted

83.
Which of the following statements concerning inhibition and arousal is INCORRECT?

A.
Stelmack’s (1990) review highlighted the likelihood that extraverts and introverts differ in
terms of base rate levels of cortical activity, rather than in their sensitivity to stimulation.
B.
According to Eysenck, the adverse effects of anxiety on performance have been found to be
attributable to task-irrelevant processing activities.
C.
Zuckerman, Kolin, Price and Zoob (1964) identified four aspects of sensation-seeking.
D.
None of the above – all are correct.

84.
Which of the following statements about sensation seekers is FALSE?

A.
Are more likely to have more sexual partners
B.
Are more likely to take part in risky sports
C.
Have an optimal level of arousal in the catecholamine system
D.
Are less creative

85.
Which of the following are NOT aspects of sensation-seeking, according to Zuckerman,
Kolin, Price and Zoob (1964)? (Please highlight all incorrect answers.)
A.
Adventure-seeking.
B.
Experience-seeking.
C.
Relaxed attitude to life.
D.
High boredom threshold.

86.
Which statement about the role of genetics on personality is FALSE?

A.
Twin studies show that identical twins are more similar on personality tests than fraternal
twins
B.
Studies of parents and their adopted children show no similarity in personality traits
C.
Personality between adopted children and their biological parents show large similarities on
personality tests
D.
Parenting behaviour may have a genetic influence in terms of the parent’s and the child’s
personality

87.
Which of the following is NOT one of the cognitive–affective units in the personality system
specified by Mischel and Shoda (1995)?

A.
Thoughts.
B.
Expectancies.
C.
Encodings.
D.
Affects.

88.
If a student who fails an exam suffers from a persistent depressed mood, then you might
assume they had what kind of attribution style?

A.
Unstable, specific
B.
Stable, global
C.
External, specific
D.
External, unstable

89.
Expectancies are the possible outcomes that we expect or anticipate in a given situation, and
how confident we are that we can perform a particular behaviour. But which of the following
is true of Mischel’s (1973/1990) three types of expectancy?

A.
Behaviour–outcome relations are defined as a person’s belief that s/he can bring about certain
outcomes.
B.
With stimulus–outcome relations, non-verbal behaviours can lead us to expect certain kinds
of behaviour.
C.
According to Bandura (1986), there are six determinants of self-efficacy beliefs.
D.
All of the above.

90.
Which TWO of the assertions given below about goals and values are correct?

A.
Subjective values act as motivating stimuli and incentives.
B.
Deci and Ryan (1985) made the distinction between predetermined and controlled actions.
C.
Studies have shown that offering reward for certain tasks always increases people’s
motivation to perform those tasks.
D.
Deci (1975) distinguished between two aspects of reward – controlling and informational.

91.
Research by Lazarus (1966, 1990) resulted in the concept of cognitive appraisal. Which of
the following is also true? Lazarus:

A.
Concluded that the amount of stress we are experiencing is more important than how we view
or appraise stress, cognitively.
B.
Suggested that, in our secondary appraisal of an event, we decide whether it is irrelevant to
our well-being, benign–positive, or stressful.
C.
Proposed that we employ various coping mechanisms before appraisal.
D.
Put forward escape–avoidance as a type of coping strategy.
92.
Which determinant of self-efficacy is based on how we relate ourselves to other people?

A.
Vicarious experiences
B.
Actual performance
C.
Verbal persuasion
D.
Emotional arousal

93.
Which of the following statements about self-efficacy is FALSE?

A.
Self-efficacy predicts coping with disease, phobias, and academic performance
B.
Self-efficacy is the belief that others will help with certain outcomes
C.
People differ in how effective they think they can be
D.
Self-efficacy can determine which behaviour will be selected

94.
According to the control theory of human functioning ______.

A.
The extent to which we attend to self aspects is not stable
B.
People use a metaphorical thermostat system to set standards for behaviour
C.
When we overreach a standard motivation will be set in motion to reduce the discrepancy
D.
There are no individual differences in the kinds of controls people use

95.
According to the control theory of human functioning, what happened when participants were
asked to make facial expressions?

A.
Participants experienced no mood change when asked to make positive faces
B.
Mood effects were reduced when participants viewed themselves in a mirror
C.
Participants experienced decreased moods when asked to make negative faces
D.
Effects were weaker for participants with private self-consciousness

96.
Identify the FALSE statement from those given below, in relation to self guides:

A.
The ‘ideal self’ represents the attributes that we would like to possess.
B.
The ‘ought self’ represents the attributes that we feel we should possess.
C.
The AI discrepancy makes a discrepancy between how we actually see ourselves and how we
ought to be.
D.
All children learn ideal and ought self guides.

97.
The ideal self guide _____.

A.
Represents attributes that we would like to possess
B.
Is associated with positive outcomes
C.
Is derived from positive affect associated with attaining standards
D.
All of the above

98.
Below are four statements about self-monitoring and competencies – but one is FALSE.
Which is it?

A.
We cannot yet measure how individuals regulate their behaviour in order to make a particular
social impression.
B.
Competencies are defined as the ability to generate particular cognitions and behaviours.
C.
Competencies are thought to be related to intelligence and social maturity.
D.
It has been argued that we develop abilities to create thoughts and actions.

99.
Which of the following statements about ‘optimist’ is FALSE?

A.
They feel little anxiety about achievement tasks
B.
They work hard to keep performance expectation high
C.
They set low expectations
D.
They avoid considering what might go wrong

100.
Which of the following is true of social intelligence?

A.
Cantor’s theory of social intelligence proposes that cognitive competencies are used to solve
tasks in everyday life.
B.
Norem identified a distinction between ‘optimists’ and ‘realists’.
C.
Research shows that Norem’s two types of student differ significantly in terms of academic
performance.
D.
None of the above.