ĐỂ SỐ 15

UBND HUYỆN QUẾ SƠN

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 TOÀN HUYỆN

Năm học 2009-2010

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC SỐ PHÁCH
Vòng 2 (Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm ghi)
.
..... ..........
Đề thi này gồm 06 trang(1-6). Thí sinh kiểm tra cẩn thận số trang trong đề trước khi làm bài.

PHẦN GHI ĐIỂM DÀNH CHO GIÁM KHẢO

Grammar&Vocab (7.0 đ) Số câu đúng
SECTION I Điểm
Q.1(2.0đ). 16 câu x 0.125 đ
Q.2 (1.25đ).10 câu x 0.125 đ ............. .............
Q.3 (1.25đ).10 câu x 0.125 đ

Q.4 (2.5 đ). 10 câu x 0.25đ

Reading (5.0 đ) Số câu đúng Điểm

SECTION II Q.1 (2.5đ). 10 câu x 0.25 đ
Q.2 (2.5đ). 10 câu x 0.25 đ ............. .............

SECTION III Writing (6.0 đ) Số câu đúng Điểm

Q.1 (2.0đ). 8 câu x 0.25 đ
Q.2 (2.0đ). 8 câu x 0.25 đ ............. .............
Q.3 (2.0đ)
Listening (2.0đ)
SECTION IV Số câu đúng Điểm
Q.1 (1.0đ). 4 câu x 0.25đ
Q.2 (1.0đ). 4 câu x 0.25đ ............. .............
Tổng điểm bài thi:

Điểm ghi bằng chữ:.............................................

Chữ ký giám khảo 1:..................................; Chữ ký giám khảo 2:..................................
...........................................Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi này...................................................
SECTION I: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7.0 PTS)
Question 1: Choose the one whose underlined part is incorrect. (2.0 pts):
Example: 0. Nam were very tired, so he didn’t come to the club.
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 A B C D
1. If you drank less, you will feel better.
A B C D
2. They live independent of their parents.
A B C D
3. During late 1900's, many companies invested heavily in digital communications
A B C D
systems.
4. My parent allowed me to go camping with my friends.
A B C D
5. The most common languages after English in Australia are Chinese, Italy, Greek,
A B C D
Vietnamese, and Arabic.
6. Europe has many of the world's oldest and more respected universities.
A B C D
7. All the students are looking forward spending their free time relaxing in the sun this summer. A
B C D
8. Uniform is a style of clothing that identifies people as members of a group or as workers in a
particularly field. A B C
D
9. You should try your better to pass the exam.
A B C D
10. Many kinds of tigers are at danger now.
A B C D
11. Our environment is being damaged, thus something should do.
A B C D
12. She didn’t find it easily to keep the children amused.
A B C D
13. Each of student should write the lesson carefully.
A B C D
14. If he does a mistake, will he feel sorry for it?
A B C D
15. There were interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Japan.
A B C D
16. Many experts group the language of the world into nine major language families.
A B C D
Question 2: Unscramble the letters to make suitable adjectives describing personality to complete the
sentences. 0 is an example. (1.25 pts):
0. He is a kind (idnk) person. He is willing to help everyone.
1. Sue is so _______________ (ventouadurs). She’s planning to travel around the world on her own.
2. I wish I was more _______________ (tapeitn). I get angry very easily.
3. I’m not _______________(misibtaou). I want an easy job and an easy life.
4. Tom is very _______________ (recavtie). He can paint, he can play the piano, and now he’s learning
the violin.
5. Don’t be so _______________ (ssyob)! I can decide for myself what I want to do.
6. She was very _______________ (oipslt) when she was a child. Her parents gave her everything she
wanted.
7. Helen is so _______________(ifeshsl). She only thinks about herself.
8. Nam is very_______________(revlec). He always gets good marks at school.
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9. Sally is a very _______________(lderaxe) person. She never seems to worry about anything.
10. You are so -_______________ (ompcetveiti)! You always want to win!
Question 3: Five of these sentences are wrong. Put a tick (P) next to the ones that are right and
correct the ones that are wrong. 0 and 00 are examples. (1.25 pts):
0. I always go to work by bus. (
00. She is very interested on sports. on = in
1. Helen speaks three different languages. ..............................
2. I would go on holiday for a year if I win a lot of money. ...............................
3. The Internet has increasingly developed and become part of our life. ...........................
4. Michael is going swimming twice a week. ...............................
5. Suddenly I was hearing a noise. ...............................
6. I think it would be better if we use banana leaves instead of plastic bags to wrap
food. ..............................
7. My car is in the garage, so I’m going to work by bus this morning. .............................
8. I will intend to go back home when I finish my education. ...............................
9. The phone rung while I was washing the dishes. ...............................
10. I was thinking about you when you phoned. ..................................
Question 4: Finish each of the following sentences with one suitable preposition. (2.5 pts).
1. He sent a copy of his will to his bank _______ safe keeping.
2. Although I practise quite a lot, I never seem to win very often _______ tennis.
3. Nam's brothers are very fond _______ team sports.
4. Most people think the government is to blame _______ rising unemployment.
5. There has been a sharp increase _______ house prices in recent months.
6. Do you know of a cure _______ baldness?
7. Could you come back in half an hour? Mr. Baston’s -_______ lunch at the moment.
8. I know _______ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
9. She intended to post my letter, but she forgot all -_______ it.
10. After the war, several people were tried for crimes _______ humanity.

SECTION II: READING (5.0 PTS)

Question 1: Read the text and use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that
fits in the space in the same line. (0) is an example. (2.5 pts)
The (0) original Olympic Games began in Ancient Greece in 776 BC ORIGIN
in
Olympia. The Games were very popular and were held (1)_____________ REGULAR
every four years until AD 393 when they were stopped by the Roman
Emperor. The (2)____________ games were started again in Athens in 1896. MODERNIZE
The Games have become the World’s most important international athletics
(3) _______________, in which the best athletes spend years training in COMPETE
(4)________________ for this great event. Sports range from basketball to PREPARE
horse riding. Perhaps the most (5)________________ track and field event is CHALLENGE
the decathlon. Athletes take part in ten (6)_______________ running, jumping DIFFER
and throwing events.
Almost every nation sends a team to the Olympic Games and one of the
ideas is that the Games encourage (7)_______________ between countries. FRIEND
(8)________________ sports lovers travel thousands of miles to watch the DEDICATE
Games and most (9)______________ athletes want the chance of winning an AMBITION

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Olympic medal. Such an (10)___________ can make them known throughout ACHIEVE
the world.

Question 2: Read the passage below and select the best answer. (2.5 pts)
HUNGRY POP STARS
Valerie Jones runs a company called Peanuts whose job is to look after pop stars and pop
groups when they go on tour. She is the person who feeds the stars and she’s been doing it for the past
ten years.
When the stars are playing at a festival, Valerie may have to cook for up to a thousand people
which includes all the crew and the people who work backstage. She erects a marquee-a huge tent-and
the food is served buffet style from a central serving area. She has to cater for different tastes, so there
are normally four or more choices of menu. She also has to look after people who may be on special
diet or some singers don’t eat dairy food before a concert.
She drives an enormous truck full of kitchen equipment and hires at least three walk-in
refrigerators, a dishwashing unit and portable cabins which act as storerooms and office.
All the bands have to queue up to be served and everyone has to have a meal ticket. The stars
are usually more relaxed when they are eating as no one is bothering them for autographs, although
Valerie says that sometimes the security men and the stars’ managers are more trouble than the stars
themselves.
There are certain things which she always has to keep in stock like herbal teas and her own
particular mixture of honey, lemon and ginger which singers like to keep in flasks on stage with them
when they are singing. Years ago bands used to drink quite a lot of alcohol, but these days they’re
much healthier. Most bands drink fresh fruit juice and prefer to eat salads.
A lot of people in the bands are quite young and they’re not used to very expensive food, so
Valerie prepares plain food unless a band sends her a “rider”. This is a list of special requirements.
When people are tired, unwell or homesick they like to have familiar” comfort” food so she keeps a
stock of people’s requirements just in case. As a result of all this Valerie says she has become an
expert shopper and in less than an hour in a supermarket she can spend £1000.
A lot of bands won’t eat before a concert because they’re too nervous, so Valerie and her staff
can end up working very long hours as they have to be around to provide what people want at two or
three in the morning. One thing Valerie has noticed is that the more mad a band is on stage, the more
normal they are when they are off it. She says she is amazed at the change in behaviour. A really wild
singer can turn out to be really quiet and polite off stage.
1. Peanuts is the name of
A. a pop band B. a pop star C. a pop concert D. a company
2. Valerie has to provided a range of food because
A. people are very fussy about what they eat
B. people are used to eating in restaurants
C. there is such a wide variety of preferences
D. there is such a demand for special menus
3. The singers are less nervous when they are eating because
A. their security men are with them B. there are no fans hanging around
C. their managers fuss over them D. the bands enjoy eating together.
4. Why does Valerie have to keep a supply of certain drinks?
A. the bands really rely on a special recipe B. the bands like to drink alcohol
C. the bands prefer herbal tea to coffee D. the bands take fruit juice on stage
5. What do most bands like best to eat?
A. rich food B. cheap food C. junk food D. simple food
6. What does “just in case” in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. Valerie’s supply of more expensive food
B. Valerie’s list of “riders” from the different bands
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C. Valerie’s supply of special food for various people
D. Valerie’s understanding of people feeling sick
7. Why do you think Valerie has become an “expert shopper”?
A. She has a lot of money to spend each week
B. She has learnt to find what individuals want
C. she has to buy as much as possible for £ 1000
D. She has to shop very quickly in a supermarket
8. Why is a band likely to be hungry after playing?
A. They feel more relaxed after the concert
B. They work long hours with little food
C. They only have a snack before a concert
D. They like to wait until they eat together
9. What does Valerie think about the singers?
A. They are completely crazy on and off stage.
B. They behave differently on and off stage
C. They are less rude when they are off stage
D. They are normally more noisy on stage
10. How does Valerie feel about the behaviour of the singers
A. surprised B. angry C. uncomfortable D. pleased

SECTION III: WRITING (6.0 PTS)

Question 1. Make all the changes and additions necessary to make a complete letter from the
following sets of words and phrases.(2.0 pts):
Dear Kiet,
1.Thank you/ much/ your letter/ arrive/ few days ago/.
……………......…………………………………………………………………….
2. It/ be lovely/ hear/ you/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
3. I/ be sorry/ I/ not write/ for/ long time/ but I/ be/ very busy/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
4. As you know/ we/ buy/ new house/ last September/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
5. Trang and I/ decide/ give/ house warming party/ February 20th/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
6. Would/ you/ like/ come/ us/?
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
7. Please/ let/ know/ you/ can/ make it/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
8. I/ really/ look/ forward/ see you again/.
…………..………………………………………………………………………….
Love, Thuy

Question 2. Use the word given in bold in brackets to finish the second sentence so that it has the
similar meaning to the first one. Don’t change the forms of the given words (2.0 pts):
Example: Mary couldn’t stay here any longer. (had)
Mary had to go.
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1. My brother usually washes the dishes. (washing)
My brother ………………....……………………………………………………….
2. I met her during my stay in London last summer. (staying)
I met... ………………………………………………………………………………
3. We had a choice of three main courses for dinner. (choose)
We could ..………………………………………………………………………….
4. We have to go to bed early. (allowed)
We……………………………………………………………………..……………
5. Could you speak English when you were younger? (able)
When you were ……....…………………………………………………………….
6. Three hundred students entered the swimming competition last year. (part)
Three hundred students ......…………………………………………………………
7. My sister doesn’t like computer games very much. (keen)
My sister……………………………………………………………games.

8. I was really bored by the film last night. (boring)

I found…………………………………………………………………………….

Question 3: Tet holiday is coming. What are you planning to do during Tet holiday? Write a
paragraph using 100 or 120 words. (2.0 pts):
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................

SECTION IV: LISTENING (2.0 PTS)

Question 1: Listen to 4 young people talking about changes they have made to their lives. Match the
speakers to the results A-D. You will hear the tape twice. (1.0 pt)
A. their behaviour improved
B. they became more confident
C. their friends made fun of them
D. they became more active
Speaker 1: _______ . Speaker 2: _______ .
Speaker 3: _______ . Speaker 4: _______ .

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Question 2: Listen to 4 people talking in different situations and circle the letter of the best answer
to each question in italic. You will hear the tape twice. (1.0 pt):
1. You hear a young woman talking about an experience she had. Where was she at the time?
A. at home B. in a hotel C. at school D. at a friend’s house
2. You hear someone talking. Who is it?
A. a tour guide B. a driver C. a visitor D. a writer
3. You overhear this conversation between two friends. What happened to Maria?
A. She saw a ghost B. she had an accident
C. She met a friend D. She broke her legs
4. You hear a woman talking on the telephone. What did she do last weekend?
A. She spent the day on a beach B. She had a picnic in a park.
C. She went shopping D. She went for a walk in a forest

……….. The end ………..

UBND HUYỆN QUẾ SƠN
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 TOÀN HUYỆN

Năm học 2009-2010

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể giao đề)
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Vòng 1

- Ở Question 1,2,3 trong Section I, mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,125 điểm.
- Ở question 2 trong Section III (Writing), mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,5 điểm
- Trong các phần còn lại, mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,25 điểm.
* Sau khi chấm các câu đúng xong, giám khảo quy đổi các câu có điểm 0,125 và 0,5 thành 0,25 để dễ
tính điểm tổng cộng.
SECTION I: (7 đ)
Question 1: (16 câu x 0.125đ)
1D; 2C; 3B; 4D; 5A; 6B; 7D; 8D;
9B; 10A; 11C; 12A; 13C; 14A; 15B; 16C

Question 2: (10 câu x 0.125đ)

1B; 2D; 3D; 4D; 5B; 6B; 7B; 8B; 9D; 10A

Question 3: (10 câu x 0.125đ)

1. pick 2. Descipline 3. take 4. violinist 5. cart
6. move 7. review 8. complain 9. behave 10. charge

Question 4: (10 câu x 0,25đ)

1. will have 2. would … do 3. would call 4. used to smoke
5. is being repaired 6. was taken 7. has … been given
8. check in 9. are … seen 10. will/may get

SECTION II: (5.5 đ)

Question 1: (12 câux 0,25 đ)
1.means; 2.food; 3. example; 4. living; 5. unless; 6. rid
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7. starve 8. words; 9. let’s;10. work 11. hope; 12. accounts

Question 2: (10 câux 0,25 đ)

1B; 2A; 3C; 4C; 5B; 6B; 7C; 8B; 9C; 10B

SECTION III: (5.5 đ)

Question 1: (8 câu x 0,25đ). Đúng hoàn toàn mới cho điểm.
1. “Are you a member of this club?”, the receptionist said to me.
The receptionist asked (me) if I was a member of that club.
2. It’s a pity that we don’t have a video camera.
I wish I had a video camera.
3. If possible, you should keep the car in a garage at night.
If possible, your car should be kept in a garage at night.
4. Cheaper tickets are available from some travel agents.
Some travel agents sell/ offer/ have cheaper tickets/ make cheaper tickets available.
5. There are usually long waits at the airport.
You usually have to wait a long time at the airports.
6. We spent five hours getting to London .
It took us five hours to get to London.
7. My father hasn’t smoked since he was thirty.
My father gave up smoking when he was thirty.
8. Mary is the most intelligent girl in her class.
No one is as intelligent as Mary in her class.

Question 2: (7 câu x 0,5đ). Mỗi câu được tính bằng 2 lần các câu khác. Nếu sai một lỗi chính tả hoặc
thiếu một thành tố không quan trọng trong mỗi câu thì đạt 0,25 đ. Sai Thì hoặc 2 lỗi trở lên thì không
cho điểm.
1. Nam/ Mary/ be/ pen pals/ over four years/.
Nam and Mary have been pen pals for over four years.
2. I/ use/ walk/ past/ temple/ on/ way/ primary school/ when/ little boy/.
I used to walk past this/the temple on my/the way to primary school when I was a little boy.
3. It/ very difficult/ Vietnamese students/ study/ abroad/.
It is very difficult for Vietnamese students to study abroad.
4. new stadium/ build/ this area/ next month/.
The/ A new stadium is going to/ will be built in this area next month.
5. After/ finish/ degree/ English,/ she/ went on/ study/ Law/ Harvard university/.
After finishing a/the/her degree in English, she went on studying Law at Harvard university.
6. The book/ you/ read/ last night/ write/ Charles Dickens/.
The book (which) you read last night was written by Charles Dickens.
7. They/ spend/ all day/ practise/ song/ they/ sing/ Lan’s next birthday/.
They spent all day practising the song which they will sing on Lan’s next birthday.

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SECTION IV: LISTENING (2 đ)
Question 1: (8 câu x 0,25đ)
1. Lars Carlsson is from Sweden.
2. He has been a make-up artist since 1989.
3. He began his career by working with actors in the theatre.
4. He has worked in many different areas including TV, films and opera.
5. Carlsson seems to change people’s personality by changing their appearance.
6. He can make actors look kind, confident or shy.
7. Carlsson’s techniques include using make-up and false teeth.
8. Carlsson is both a make-up artist and a hair stylist.

……………..The end ……………..

UBND HUYỆN QUẾ SƠN

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 TOÀN HUYỆN

Năm học 2009-2010

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể giao đề)
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Vòng 2
- Ở Question 1,2,3 trong Section I, mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,125 điểm.
- Trong các phần còn lại, mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,25 điểm.
* Sau khi chấm các câu đúng xong, giám khảo quy đổi các câu có điểm 0,125 thành 0,25 để dễ tính
điểm tổng cộng.

SECTION I: (7 đ)

Question 1: (16 x 0,125đ)

1B; 2B; 3A; 4A; 5D; 6C; 7C; 8D;
9B; 10C; 11D; 12B; 13A; 14A; 15A; 16B

Question 2: (10 câu x 0.125đ)

1. adventurous 2. patient 3. ambitious 4. creative 5. bossy
6. spoilt 7. selfish 8. clever 9. relaxed 10. competitive

Question 3: (10 câu x 0.125đ)

1. P 2. would = will hoặc win = won 3. P 4. is going = goes
5. was hearing = heard 6. P 7. P 8. will = 0 9. rung = rang 10. P

Question 4: (10 câu x 0,25đ)

1. for 2. at 3. of 4. for 5. in
6. for 7. at 8. from9. about 10. against
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SECTION II: (5.0 đ)
Question 1: (10 câux 0,25 đ)
1. regularly 2.modern 3. competition 4. preparation 5. challenging
6. different 7. friendship 8. dedicated 9. ambitious 10. achievement

Question 2: (10 câux 0,25 đ)

1D; 2C; 3B; 4A; 5D; 6C; 7B; 8A; 9B; 10A.

SECTION III: (6 đ)
Question 1: (8 câu x 0,25đ)
1. Thank you very much for your letter which arrived a few days ago.
2. It was lovely to hear (from) you.
3. I am sorry I have not written for a long time but I have been very busy.
4. As you know we bought a new house last September.
5. Trang and I decided to give a house warming party on February 20th.
6. Would you like to come with us?
7. Please let me know if/ whether you can make it.
8. I am really looking forward to seeing you again.
Love, Thuy
Question 2: (8 câu x 0,25đ)
1. My brother usually washes the dishes. (washing)
My brother usually does the washing up.
2. I met her during my stay in London last summer. (staying)
I met her while I was staying in London last summer.
3. We had a choice of three main courses for dinner. (choose)
We could choose from three main courses for dinner.
4. We have to go to bed early. (allowed)
We aren't allowed to stay up/ go to bed late.
5. Could you speak English when you were younger? (able)
When you were younger, were you able to speak English?
6. Three hundred students entered the swimming competition last year. (part)
Three hundred students took part in the swimming competition last year.
7. My sister doesn’t like computer games very much. (keen)
My sister isn't very keen on computer games.

8. I was really bored by the film last night. (boring)

I found the film (last night) really boring (last night).

Question 3: 2.0 đ (Có thể quy đổi thành 8 câu x 0,25 đ):
Giám khảo có thể quy đổi số điểm đạt được thành số câu 0,25 đ để dễ cộng với các phần khác.
Tổ chấm thống nhất điểm thành phần của bài luận theo những điểm đề nghị sau:
- Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (0,25đ)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (0,5đ)
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- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh
hoạt (đơn, phức..) (0,5đ)
- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (0,5đ)
- Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0,25đ)

SECTION IV: LISTENING (2.0 đ)

Question 1: (4 câu x 0,25đ)
Speaker 1: B. Speaker 2: C
Speaker 3: D. Speaker 4: A
Question 2: (4 câu x 0,25đ)
1B 2A 3C 4D
……………..The end ……………..

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