Insight 2019

YEAR 12 Trial Exam Paper
2019
BIOLOGY
Written examination
Reading time: 15 minutes
Writing time: 2 hours 30 minutes
STUDENT NAME:
QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK

Structure of book
Section Number of Number of questions Number of
questions to be answered marks
A 40 40 40
B 11 11 80
Total 120
 Students are permitted to bring pens, pencils, highlighters, erasers, sharpeners and rulers into
the examination.
 Students are NOT permitted to bring blank sheets of paper and/or correction fluid/tape into
the examination.
 Calculators are NOT allowed in this examination.
Materials provided
 Question and answer book of 51 pages
 Answer sheet for multiple-choice questions
Instructions
 Write your name in the box provided above and on the multiple-choice answer sheet.
 Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.
 All written responses must be in English.
At the end of the examination
 Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice questions inside the front cover of this book.
Students are NOT permitted to bring mobile phones and/or any other unauthorised electronic
devices into the examination room.
This trial examination produced by Insight Publications is NOT an official VCAA paper for the 2019 Biology written
examination. Every effort has been made to gain permission to reproduce any images and texts herein; failure to do so is not
intended to limit the rights of the owner. The Publishers assume no legal liability for the opinions, ideas or statements
contained in this trial examination. This examination paper is licensed to be printed, photocopied or placed on the school
intranet and used only within the confines of the purchasing school for examining their students. No trial examination or part
thereof may be issued or passed on to any other party, including other schools, practising or non-practising teachers, tutors,
parents, websites or publishing agencies without the written consent of Insight Publications.
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019
2019 BIOLOGY EXAM 2
SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions
Instructions for Section A

Answer all questions in pencil on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions.
Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question.
A correct answer scores 1; an incorrect answer scores 0.
Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.
No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.
Question 1
The diagram below shows the structure of a nucleotide, which is the sub-unit of a nucleic
acid.
Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. All nucleotides are chemically identical.
B. This nucleotide could contain the amino acid thymine.
C. The nucleotide shown in the diagram can only be found in DNA.
D. Adjacent nucleotides are joined together as a result of a condensation reaction.
Question 2
Which one of the following best describes the quaternary structure of a protein?
A. the sequence of amino acids in the protein
B. the bonding between amino acids that make up the protein
C. the bonding between two polypeptides to make a single functional unit
D. the folding that occurs within the protein causing it to assume a three-dimensional shape
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

3 2019 BIOLOGY EXAM
Question 3
A group of students conducted an experiment to determine the solute concentration of cytosol
inside potato cells. They accomplished this by placing cylinders of potato into solutions with
differing concentrations of sodium chloride.
Their results are shown in the graph below.
30
% change in mass of potato cylinders
20
10
0
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5
–-10
–-20
–-30
sodium chloride concentration (%)
Based on the information in the graph, which one of the following is an appropriate
explanation for these results?
A. Cytosol in potatoes must contain 1.25% sodium chloride.
B. Active transport occurs when the concentration of sodium chloride is above 1.25%.
C. The potato cylinders change in mass as a result of the net movement of water
molecules.
D. The loss of mass from potato cells is caused by the movement of sodium chloride from
the potato cells into the surrounding solution.
SECTION A – continued
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 TURN OVER
2019 BIOLOGY EXAM 4
Question 4
Proteins are exported from cells by the process of exocytosis, which is a sequential process.
Several of the stages that occur during the export of proteins are listed below.
I The secretory vesicle moves through the cytosol towards the plasma membrane.
II The Golgi apparatus produces a secretory vesicle containing the protein.
III The secretory vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane.
IV The contents of the vesicle are released into the extracellular fluid.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events?

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, III, IV
C. III, IV, II, I
D. I, III, II, IV
Question 5
A researcher is investigating the effect that the size and polarity of substances has on their
ability to diffuse across a plasma membrane. The researcher prepares several solutions
containing water and a radioactively labelled solute. Information about each of the solutes is
shown below.
Solution Description
1 The solute is small and polar.
2 The solute is large and polar
3 The solute is small and non-polar.
4 The solute is large and non-polar.
The researcher then exposes separate samples of cells to each of the solutions. At the end of
the experiment, each cellular sample is tested to determine its level of radioactivity.
Which of the cell samples would be expected to exhibit radioactivity?
A. the cells in solutions 1 and 3 only
B. the cells in solutions 3 and 4 only
C. the cells in solutions 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. the cells in solutions 1, 3 and 4 only

5 2019 BIOLOGY EXAM
Question 6
The CTBP1 gene codes for the CTBP1 protein, which acts as a transcriptional repressor and
plays a role in cellular proliferation during foetal development.
Which one of the following attributes would the CTB1 protein be expected to have?
A. It can change shape, enabling it to act as a repressor.
B. It plays a structural role by contributing to cellular proliferation.
C. It contains a regulatory region that enables it to bind to developing cells.
D. It plays a regulatory role by determining the number of foetal cells that need to be
produced.
Question 7
The diagram below shows an example of a metabolic pathway in which substance 1 is the
initial substrate and substance 4 is the final product.
Enzyme X Enzyme Y Enzyme Z
1 2 3 4
Two experiments were carried out using this pathway, and in both cases the same high
concentration of substance 1 was used.
 In experiment 1, the concentrations of enzymes X, Y and Z were identical.
 In experiment 2, the concentration of enzyme X was double that of enzymes Y and Z.
How would the rate of the production of substance 4 be affected in experiment 2 compared
with experiment 1?
A. In experiment 2, the reaction would cease to occur.
B. The same amount of product 4 would be produced in both experiments.
C. The amount of product 4 would be higher in experiment 2 than in experiment 1.
D. The amount of product 4 would be higher in experiment 1 than in experiment 2.
2019 BIOLOGY EXAM 6
Question 8
The structure of two substances is shown in the diagram below. Substance A is the substrate
in an enzyme-catalysed reaction. A student noticed that the rate of the reaction decreased
when substance B was placed into the same test tube as substance A.
Enzyme Substance A Substance B
Considering this information, the most likely reason for the decrease in the reaction rate is
that substance B
A. formed a complex with the enzyme, causing the enzyme to change shape.
B. changed the pH of the environment causing the enzyme to denature.
C. is a repressor that has bound to the regulatory region of the enzyme.
D. is a competitive inhibitor and has bound to the active site of the enzyme.

7 2019 BIOLOGY EXAM
Question 9
For the electron transport chain to occur, it is necessary for the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase
to transport electrons to oxygen, the terminal acceptor, as shown in the following diagram.
Cyanide is a toxin that prevents this process from occurring.

What is the maximum amount of ATP that can be produced aerobically if an individual has
been poisoned with cyanide?
A. 0 ATP
B. 4 ATP
C. net 2 ATP
D. 32–34 ATP
Question 10
A student is studying the mode of cellular transport of a specific chemical. They observe that
the rate at which this substance is transported decreases when the cells are exposed to a
substance that inhibits energy production.
This means that the substance is most likely to be entering the cell by the process of
A. osmosis.
B. active transport.
C. simple diffusion.
D. facilitated diffusion.
2019 BIOLOGY EXAM 8
Question 11
Consider the processes of cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
Which one of the following statements applies to both processes?
A. Both occur in all plant cells.
B. Both use an electron transport chain to produce ATP
C. Both processes are endergonic, requiring an input of energy.
D. Both processes involve the use of the carrier molecule NADH.
Question 12
Two types of cells were each placed into a solution inside a sealed flask. All of the oxygen
was removed from the flasks. Both samples of cells were supplied with all required nutrients,
including glucose. A data logger inside each of the sealed flasks was used to monitor the
concentration of carbon dioxide.
The graphs below show the change in the concentration of carbon dioxide in each of the
solutions over the same period of time.
Type 1 cells Type 2 cells
Based on the information supplied, which one of the following conclusions is the most
accurate?
A. The cells came from different organs in the same organism.
B. Both types of cell are carrying out aerobic cellular respiration.
C. The type 1 cells are from an animal and the type 2 cells are from a plant.
D. Both types of cell continue to produce carbon dioxide after being placed into the
solution.

9 2019 BIOLOGY EXAM
Question 13
A student completed an experiment to determine the effect that changing carbon dioxide
concentration would have on the rate of photosynthesis. They used their results to produce the
following graph.
Rate of
photosynthesis
Carbon dioxide concentration
The rate of photosynthesis becomes constant after the point indicated by the arrow because
A. the plant is unable to produce oxygen.
B. oxygen concentration has become a limiting factor.
C. carbon dioxide concentration has become a limiting factor.
D. carbon dioxide concentration has ceased to be a limiting factor.
Question 14
Human growth hormone (HGH) is an example of a hydrophilic signalling molecule.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Cells that receive HGH will respond by increasing in size.
B. The receptor for HGH is located in the cytosol of all target cells.
C. Reception of HGH will activate a second messenger inside the target cell.
D. HGH will form a complex with the receptor, which will migrate to the nucleus and bind
to a specific region of DNA.
2019 BIOLOGY EXAM 10
Question 15
Bax and Bak are proteins that respond to cellular stress by changing their shape and forming
pores that pierce the outer membrane of mitochondria, as shown in the diagram below.
Which cellular process would be initiated by the action of these proteins?

A. apoptosis
B. active transport
C. signal transduction
D. cellular respiration

11 2019 BIOLOGY EXAM
Question 16
Liver cells play a vital role in blood glucose regulation. As shown in the diagram below, these
cells are able to take up glucose from the bloodstream, convert it to glycogen and then store it.
Liver cells are also able to convert glycogen back into glucose and then release it into the
bloodstream.
Source: ‘Effect of insulin on glucose uptake and metabolism’ by User Meiquer

available at https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Insulin_glucose_metabolism.jpg
under a Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 license.
Full terms at https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/deed.en.
The ability of liver cells to carry out both processes means that
A. a single signalling molecule has bound to two different receptors.
B. a single signalling molecule triggered different second messengers, inducing the
different cellular responses.
C. the signal to take up glucose came from the external environment and the signal to
release glucose originated inside the liver cells.
D. liver cells have several receptors that enable them to receive and respond to different
signalling molecules.
Question 17
‘Complement’ is the term applied to a set of over 30 different proteins that play a role in the
immune system.
Which one of the following identifies a role played by complement proteins?
A. They trigger clonal expansion.
B. They facilitate the production of antibodies.
C. They facilitate and enhance the process of phagocytosis.
D. They act as a barrier, preventing pathogens from entering cells.
Question 18
A student is confused regarding the difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer
cells. The student asks several people for assistance and is provided with a range of answers.
Which one of the following answers is correct?
A. Cytotoxic T cells carry out specific responses; natural killer cells carry out non-specific
responses.
B. Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells play similar roles; they both produce antibodies
that act against viruses.
C. There is no difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells; both terms
apply to the same type of cell.
D. Cytotoxic T cells produce toxins that act against pathogens; natural killer cells kill
pathogens by engulfing them.

Question 19
After a previously sensitised person is exposed to pollen, mast cells degranulate, as shown in
the image below. Histamine is released and binds to histamine receptors, causing cellular
responses that result in the person experiencing symptoms such as inflammation, production
of tears and a runny nose.
Source: ‘The degranulation process in a Mast cell’ by Paweł Kuźniar available at

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Degranulation#/media/File:Allergy_degranulation_processes_01.svg
under a Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 license. Full terms at
https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/deed.en.
An experimental drug was created to stop the symptoms.

Which one of the following attributes should this drug have to prevent the exposed person
from developing symptoms?
A. It should prevent pollen antibodies from binding to mast cells.
B. It should bind to mast cells, preventing them from releasing histamine.
C. It should bind to histamine receptors, blocking the binding of histamine.
D. It should bind to IgE antibodies, preventing them from binding to mast cells.
Question 20
Blood samples were taken from a person over a 26-day period to determine their antibody
concentration. The results were used to create the following graph.
30
25
Antibody concentration
(arbitrary units)
20
15
10
0
0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28
Time (days)
Which one of the following conclusions could be drawn from this graph?
A. The response after day 11 could have been due to a booster shot.
B. The person must have been exposed to the same pathogen twice.
C. The person must have experienced the worst symptoms on day 16.
D. This graph shows an example of artificially acquired passive immunity.

Question 21
The fossil of an ammonite, such as the one in the image below, was determined to be
approximately 200 million years old.
Source: ‘Dactylioceras commune fossil ammonite (Whitby Formation, Lower

Jurassic; Yorkshire coast, England)’ by James St. John available at
https://www.flickr.com/photos/47445767@N05/15053793770 under a Creative
Commons Attribution 2.0 Generic license. Full terms at
https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/2.0/deed.en.
Which one of the following methods could have been used to determine the absolute age of
the fossil?
A. analysing the fossil using radiocarbon dating
B. analysing the fossil using potassium-to-argon dating
C. determining the structural similarity of the ammonite to other fossils
D. comparing the position of the ammonite to that of other fossils found in other rock strata
Question 22
Which one of the following is an indication that a mass extinction occurred?
A. A rock stratum contains charcoal, indicating that a fire occurred.
B. Rock layers dated as being 3.5 billion years old do not contain any fossils.
C. A rock stratum that originated in a prehistoric lake contains fossils of few species.
D. A rock stratum containing few fossils is located between two strata that contain many
fossils.
Question 23
Which one of the following statements correctly represents evolution?
A. Changes in allele frequencies occurred over many generations.
B. Modern organisms are more complex than their prehistoric counterparts.
C. New species have developed as biologically fit individuals survive and reproduce.
D. Individual members of a population develop new adaptations as a result of responding
to environmental changes.
Question 24
Claytonia virginica is an herbaceous plant that produces flowers that vary in colour between
white and bright pink. It was determined that the hue of the flowers affected their
reproductive success, with bees preferring to pollinate the plants that produced pink flowers.
Ten generations of plants were produced. During this time, bees were removed and
pollination was carried out by organisms that had no colour preference.
Which one of the following would be most likely to occur?
A. The incidence of pink flowering plants would increase.
B. The incidence of white flowering plants would increase.
C. There would be no change in the incidence of pink and white flowering plants.
D. Equal numbers of white flowering and pink flowering plants would be produced.
Question 25
The following information shows the sequence of an allele in an individual with a genetic
condition compared to an individual who does not have the condition.
Affected individual: ATGCAGGTCAACGAG

Unaffected individual: ATGCACGGTCAACGAG
The genetic condition occurs because

A. the mutation caused the production of a new allele.
B. the genetic mutation caused the protein to denature.
C. the condition was caused by an addition mutation.
D. the mutation prevented the affected individual from expressing the gene.

CONTINUES OVER PAGE
Question 26
The diagram below shows the range of different species of finches that Charles Darwin
observed on the Galapagos Islands. These finches are all genetically different and have
become specialised to consume different food sources.
Which one of the following is the first stage that would have resulted in the evolution of the
range of different finch species?
A. Genetic equilibrium was achieved.
B. Geographic isolation was achieved on different islands.
C. Competition occurred between the different species of finch.
D. A founding population reached one island from the mainland.

Question 27
Beak size and shape in Darwin’s finches is heavily influenced by the degree of expression of
two genes: CaM and BMP4.
Low BMP4 expression leads to the formation of a narrow beak.

High BMP4 expression leads to the formation of a beak with a high depth.
Low CaM expression leads to the formation of a short beak.
High CaM expression leads to the formation of an elongated beak.
The warbler finch shown in the image below is characterised as having a short, narrow beak.
Source: ‘Wood Warbler (Phylloscopus sibilatrix)’ by Steve Garvie available at

https://www.flickr.com/photos/rainbirder/4649168731/ under a Creative
Commons Attribution-Share Alike 2.0 Generic license. Full terms at
Which one of the following would be expected to cause this?

A. high CaM, low BMP4
B. low CaM, high BMP4
C. low CaM, low BMP4
D. high CaM, high BMP4
Question 28
The following diagram is an example of a phylogenetic tree.
A B C D
If DNA hybridisation were carried out using DNA from these species, which one of the
following DNA hybrids would have the lowest melting temperature?
A. the hybrid containing DNA from species B and D
B. the hybrid containing DNA from species B and C
C. the hybrid containing DNA from species C and D
D. the hybrid containing DNA from species A and D

Question 29
The image below shows the fossilised tooth of an extinct megalodon shark compared with
two teeth from a modern great white shark. Like all modern sharks, the megalodon was an
example of cartilaginous fish, which have skeletons that consist of cartilage and connective
tissue. It is not known exactly what this shark looked like because teeth are the only remains
that have been found.
‘Megalodon tooth with great white sharks teeth’ by Brocken Inaglory available at
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Megalodon_tooth_with_great_white_shark
s_teeth.jpg. Ruler added by Parzi,
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Megalodon_tooth_with_great_white_sharks_teeth-
3-2.jpg. Used under a Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported
license. Full terms at https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/deed.en.
Which one of the following is the correct reason that fossils of other megalodon body parts
have not been found?
A. Cartilage is a soft tissue and does not tend to fossilise.
B. All megalodons died in conditions that did not promote fossilisation.
C. Fossils of the bodies of megalodons have all been broken down due to their extreme
age.
D. Megalodon sharks lived in deep water and we have not been able to retrieve any fossils
from these depths.
Question 30
As new information becomes available, ideas relating to modern humans (Homo sapiens) and
Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis) have also changed.
Which one of the following statements is not currently supported by research?
A. Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis were contemporaries.
B. Homo sapiens are direct descendants of Homo neanderthalensis.
C. Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis both derived from a common ancestor.
D. The majority of Homo sapiens currently alive have some genes derived from Homo
neanderthalensis.
Question 31
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) was extracted from 151 mummies to determine familial
relationships.
Identifying an unknown male would be best accomplished by comparing his mtDNA from an
individual believed to be
A. his father.
B. his daughter.
C. his sister’s daughter.
D. his maternal grandfather.
Question 32
Histone residues from four different species were compared with those taken from a human.
The amino acid sequences are shown below.
Human K K A S K P K K A A S K A P T V
Species 1 K R A S K P K K A A S K A P V K
Species 2 K K A S L P K K A A S K A P T V
Species 3 K K S S P P K K A I S K A N T V
Species 4 K K A S K F K K A R S K L P T V
The organism that is most likely to be a chimpanzee is

A. species 1.
B. species 2.
C. species 3.
D. species 4.
Question 33
Significant changes in life forms have occurred during the earth’s geological history. It was
necessary for some events to occur before others.
Which one of the following shows the correct chronology?
A. Flowering plants appeared before vascular plants.
B. Photosynthetic bacteria were the first organisms to appear.
C. Eukaryotic organisms appeared before prokaryotic organisms.
D. Nucleated cells appeared before endosymbiosis is thought to have occurred.

Question 34
Scott Kelly is a retired American astronaut who spent 340 consecutive days in space. Prior to
his trip he was the same height as his identical twin brother, Mark. However, on his return he
was found to have increased in height by 5 cm, an effect that was only temporary.
Based on this information it could be concluded that
A. Scott’s children will be taller than Mark’s.
B. this is an example of acclimatisation to a different environment.
C. Scott’s increase in height was due to being exposed to a selection pressure.
D. the increase in height was caused by a mutation induced by exposure to radiation.
Question 35
Modern humans are believed to be the sole remaining hominin species; however, we share a
range of characteristics with hominoids and primates.
Which one of the following traits are unique to modern humans?
A. The presence of a definite chin.
B. The presence of a foramen magnum in the base of the skull.
C. Thigh bones extend at a 90 angle between the hips and the knees.
D. Modern humans are pentadactyl, having five digits on their hands and feet.
Question 36
Many of the cultural activities carried out by modern humans and our ancestors required the
ability of speech. Evidence indicates that members of the Homo genus were the first hominins
to develop this ability.
Which of the following evidence supports this theory?
A. Hominins lived in social groups.
B. Tools were developed for specific tasks.
C. Burial rites and ceremonies were carried out.
D. Hunting and gathering were carried out by groups.
Question 37
Recombinant DNA is produced by
A. combining DNA with a protein.
B. combining DNA from two different sources.
C. extracting DNA from a cell and inserting it into another cell.
D. using reverse transcriptase to produce DNA from an mRNA template.
Question 38
When carrying out DNA manipulation, a vector is used to
A. provide a binding site for primers.
B. cut a piece of DNA into fragments.
C. anneal fragments of DNA together.
D. transport recombinant DNA into a target cell.
Question 39
The table below shows the recognition sequences of four restriction enzymes.
Enzyme Recognition sequence Cut site

5’GAATTA 5’ G AATTC 3’
EcoRI 3’ CTTAAG 3’ CTTAA G 5’
5’ GGATCC 5’ G GATCC 3’
BamHI 3’ CCTAGG 3’ CCTAG G 5’
5’ AAGCTT 5’ A AGCTT 3’
HindIII 3’ TTCGAA 3’ TTCGA A 5’
5’ GATC 5’ GA TC 3’
Sau3A 3’ CTAG 3’ CT AG 5’
EcoRI is used to cut around a gene of interest for insertion into a plasmid.
Which one of the following correctly identifies the enzyme or enzymes that should be used to
cut the plasmid open?
A. Only EcoRI should be used to cut the plasmid open.
B. Only Sau3A should be used to cut the plasmid open.
C. Any of the enzymes could be used to cut the plasmid open.
D. Only EcoRI, BamHI or Hind III should be used to cut the plasmid open.
Question 40
Which one of the following must apply to all drugs produced using rational drug design?
A. The drug must bind to the active site of an enzyme.
B. Use of the drugs must provide a therapeutic benefit.
C. The drugs must be able to be used to combat bacterial and viral infections.
D. The drug must be chemically identical to the pathogen it was constructed to act against.
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 END OF SECTION A

CONTINUES OVER PAGE

SECTION B
Instructions for Section B

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Write using a blue or black pen.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.
Question 1 (7 marks)
The COL1A1 gene provides instructions for synthesising collagen proteins, such as the one
shown below. Collagens are a family of proteins that strengthen and support many tissues in
the body, including cartilage, bone and skin. The COL1A1 gene is 18 kb (18 000 base pairs)
in length and codes for the production of a protein that is made up of 1464 amino acids. The
image below shows an example of the structure of collagen.
‘Structure of the COL9A1 protein’ by Emw available at

https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Protein_COL9A1_PDB_2uur.png under a
Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license. Full terms at
a. Identify the sub-units that make up type I collagen and explain how these sub-units are
linked together to form type I collagen.
2 marks
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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – Question 1 – continued

b. Based on the information provided, calculate the length of the mRNA that was
translated to produce the type I collagen. Explain how this answer was determined.
2 marks
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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Two students are discussing the information provided and they conclude that the mRNA is
much shorter than expected compared with the DNA.
c. Use the information provided to explain how they reached this conclusion.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
d. Produce an annotated diagram to describe how and why the difference between the
length of the DNA and the mRNA occurred. Refer to appropriate cellular processes in
your answer.
2 marks
SECTION B – continued
Magnesium deficiency has been identified as an issue of concern in crop plants. This occurs
when plants do not obtain sufficient magnesium ions (Mg2+) from the soil. The physiological
responses to magnesium deficiency include the accumulation of sugars and starches in the
leaves, a reduction in the size of the roots, a decline in the rate of photosynthesis, an increase
in the ageing rate of leaves, and the development of yellow patches on the leaves.
Diagram of a chloroplast from a Diagram of a chloroplast from a plant with

magnesium-deficient plant. sufficient magnesium.
a. The images above show diagrams of chloroplasts from plants provided with different
amounts of magnesium.
Use this information to explain why magnesium-deficient plants experience a decline in
the rate of photosynthesis compared with plants provided with sufficient magnesium.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. The yellowing of the leaves of the magnesium-deficient plant indicates that these plants
are less able to produce chlorophyll than plants with sufficient magnesium. Studies have
found that magnesium ions are required for chlorophyll to function effectively.
State whether magnesium ions are an example of a coenzyme or a cofactor. Provide a
justification for your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

Glucose is actively transported by the process of translocation. This occurs through phloem
vessels from the leaves to the rest of the plant. It has been found that phloem vessels contain
structures that enable them to take up magnesium ions. This process is essential for
translocation to occur.
c. Explain how magnesium deficiency contributes to the accumulation of sugars in the
leaves of affected plants.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
d. Consider the cellular processes that occur within cells.

Use this information to explain why the roots in affected plants are much smaller than
those of plants that have sufficient magnesium.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Yaks, such as shown in the image below, are bovines similar in size to domesticated cattle.
Yaks tend to live in high altitudes where it is cold, and there is low food availability and a
reduced oxygen concentration in the air. Yaks from these areas have red blood cells that are
much smaller than those of any other bovines, but they have approximately five times the
number of red blood cells as any other bovine.
a. Consider the environment in which yaks live and the role played by red blood cells.
The small size of the red blood cells increases their surface area to volume ratio, thereby
enabling more oxygen to bind to the haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
Explain the significance of the size of the blood cells with regard to the cellular
processes required to sustain life.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

A researcher hypothesised that the yak’s thick coat provided insulation and enabled the yak to
survive in cold temperatures. They took a range of temperatures from the surface of the Yak’s
skin, halfway through the fibre and at the end of the fibre.
The results are shown in the following graph.
30
25
20
15
10
5
Temperature
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
–-5
–-10
–-15
–-20
SkinSurface
Skin surface Fibre centre Fibre end
b. Identify one error in this graph and explain how this error could affect a reader’s
understanding of the information provided.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Identify a valid conclusion that could be based on this data.

1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
SECTION B – Question 3 – continued

d. Yaks living at higher altitudes have more red blood cells than yaks of the same species
living at lower altitudes.
Identify the process responsible for this difference and explain how this process caused
this difference.
3 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – continued

Di George syndrome (DGS) is an autoimmune condition caused by a mutation that occurs in
chromosome 22 of humans. This condition is also called 22q11.2 deletion syndrome because
over 90% of affected individuals have a deletion of approximately 3 million base pairs from
chromosome 22, leading to the loss of approximately 40 genes.
An example of a deletion mutation is shown in the diagram below.
Source: ‘Single Chromosome Mutations’ by

Richard Wheeler (vector version by NikNaks) available at
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Single_Chromosome_Mutations.svg under
a Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license.
Full terms at https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/deed.en.
The mutation is random and occurs spontaneously in the sperm or ova of the parents of an
affected individual.
Most affected individuals have the same genetic defect, but the presentation of the condition
varies. All affected individuals have thymus gland abnormalities, with most having a reduced
or missing thymus gland.
There is also a wide range of other abnormalities that affected individuals may or may not
develop, such as severe cardiac abnormalities
Diagnosis of DGS is frequently accomplished using the fluorescence in situ hybridisation
(FISH) test. Although FISH is considered to be the gold standard test, it is not 100% accurate
and is expensive to carry out.
a. A health professional stated that DGS is commonly underdiagnosed or misdiagnosed.
Use a piece of evidence from the information provided to support this statement. Justify
how this information is used to support the statement above.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

b. Explain why people with DGS develop T-lymphocyte deficiency.

1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Explain why people with DGS are more susceptible to viral infections than unaffected
individuals.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
d. The probes used in the FISH test are produced using a DNA amplification technique.
Name this technique.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
e. Genetic screening may be carried out in utero for some conditions, but this is not
possible for DGS. Instead, genetic testing is carried out on individuals who are deemed
as being at high risk.
Discuss one reason for performing genetic testing as soon as possible after an individual
is born.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
f. Identify an ethical issue associated with the genetic screening of babies.

1 mark
______________________________________________________________________


Cavendish bananas have been exposed to a human-made genetic bottleneck. There is a
concern that bananas may be wiped out by existing or emerging pathogens. This has become a
problem in Uganda, where bananas are a staple crop.
Extensive crops were affected by banana bacterial wilt (BBW), which is caused by a bacterial
pathogen, Xanthomonas campestris pv. musacearum. There is no effective chemical control
for this pathogen and no species of banana has immunity against this pathogen. BBW was
first reported in Uganda in 2001 and it spread from one district to 32 districts in four years,
during which time the crop yield decreased by one third. Currently, the spread of BBW is
controlled by destroying affected plants.
A genetically modified strain of bananas has been produced in Queensland, where it was
tested for several years, before undergoing further open field testing in Uganda.
Two genes were introduced into the genetically modified (GM) Cavendish bananas: a BBW
resistance gene from green peppers and a pro-vitamin A gene obtained from a species of
inedible bananas that grow in South-East Asia. The pro-vitamin A gene was introduced to
increase the ability of bananas to produce vitamin A.
This is an example of a genetic (population) bottleneck.
a. What impact does a genetic bottleneck have on the genetic diversity of a species?
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. A scientist expressed concern that an emerging pathogen could eliminate Cavendish

bananas.
Discuss why this could occur.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Identify a way in which humans could cause a genetic bottleneck.

1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

d. Considering the information provided, is BBW an epidemic or a pandemic? Provide a

reason to support your answer.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
e. Should these bananas be referred to as being genetically modified only, or should they
be referred to as genetically modified and transgenic?
Explain the difference between these terms and use the data to provide a reason to
support your answer.
3 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
f. Identify and discuss a benefit of using GM bananas.

2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B –Question 5 – continued

In 2017, the Ugandan parliament passed the National Biosafety Act, which approved the
large-scale field testing and commercial use of GM crops. Some have expressed the idea that
the passing of this bill is alarming because it opens the population up to unexamined risks.
g. Identify a social or biological issue raised by the use of the GM bananas and explain
why this issue could create a problem.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
In humans, Huntington’s disease is caused by a mutation to the Huntington’s gene. This gene
contains multiple repeats of the CAG sequence. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated 10
to 35 times within the gene. In people with Huntington’s disease, the CAG sequence is
repeated 36 to more than 120 times.
The alleles that cause the disease are dominant, with the offspring of an affected individual
having a 50% chance of inheriting the condition. Huntington’s disease is a serious condition,
eventually leading to death approximately 15 years after the onset of symptoms. However,
symptoms generally do not commence until adulthood.
a. Explain why there are multiple alleles of the Huntington’s gene.

1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. Define the term ‘gene pool’ and explain why the alleles that cause Huntington’s disease
have not been eliminated from the human gene pool.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

c. Individuals can be tested for the presence of an allele that causes Huntington’s disease
by analysing DNA samples using electrophoresis.
Explain why electrophoresis is an appropriate technique to produce data that can be
used to diagnose Huntington’s disease.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
d. Describe how a gel run of an individual with Huntington’s would appear different from
that of an unaffected individual. Why would this difference occur?
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
The prevalence of Huntington’s disease is approximately 1 per 10 000 people in the

Americas, Europe and Australasia. However, the prevalence of Huntington’s disease in the
region surrounding Lake Maraciabo in Venezuela is unusually high, about 1 in 5, with the
prevalence as high as 50 per cent in some villages. This has been traced to one woman who
arrived in the area about 200 years ago. This woman was a member of a small population and
had ten offspring.
e. Identify the terminology used to describe this phenomenon and explain how it causes an
unexpectedly high prevalence of the disease in this area.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Humans have a complex immune system in which several levels of defence are used to either
prevent infection or act against pathogens inside the body.
a. Identify two types of non-specific defence that act on pathogens after they have entered
the body.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. Like humans, plants also have physical and chemical barriers to limit or stop the
invasion of pathogens.
Identify an example of a physical or chemical barrier in plants and provide a specific
explanation as to how this barrier either prevents pathogens from invading a plant or
limits the spread of the pathogen.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. The third level of defence is referred to as being acquired and specific.

Complete the table below by naming three different cells or chemicals that play a role in
the third level of defence. Then state the role played by each cell or chemical.
3 marks
Cell or chemical Role

The lac operon is a method of gene regulation in some species of bacteria. It contains a series
of three genes that code for the production of enzymes that facilitate the ability of the bacteria
to metabolise lactose. These genes are switched on or off depending on whether lactose is
present or absent.
a. Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate how the lac operon regulates the expression of the
structural genes in the presence and absence of lactose.
2 marks
b. The lac operon is an example of gene regulation.

Explain how the bacterium benefits by being able to regulate the expression of the three
genes that code for the production of the enzymes that facilitate the metabolism of
lactose.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Outline the role played by structural and regulatory genes in the lac operon system.
Include a reference to the functional distinction between structural and regulatory genes
in your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
The phylogenetic tree below summarises the evolutionary relationships between modern
species of primates.
a. Use the information in the phylogenetic tree to provide an example of divergent

evolution. Justify your answer.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

In January 2018, a report was released that related to the identification and naming of a
previously unknown species of lemur, the Groves dwarf lemur (Cheirogaleus grovesi). The
Omaha zoo had several of these lemurs and proposed that they were a new species. When this
type of event occurs, the potential new species is labelled as a species nova until sufficient
evidence can be presented to support their contention.
b. It took approximately one year for sufficient evidence to be gathered and presented
before it was agreed that these lemurs were a new species.
Identify and discuss one piece of evidence that scientists would have used to prove that
the Groves dwarf lemur was a different species.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Most of the world’s 113 species of lemur are found in Madagascar. The Groves dwarf
lemur occupies a highly specific niche in two national parks in Madagascar.
Suggest a possible outcome for this species. Provide a reason to support your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Cheddar Man: Mesolithic Britain’s blue-eyed boy

by Kerry Lotzof
Cheddar Man was a Mesolithic hunter-gatherer (fully modern human) with dark skin and
blue eyes. He was about 166 centimetres tall and died in his twenties.
His skeleton was uncovered in 1903 during improvements to drainage for Gough’s Cave, a
popular tourist attraction.
When Cheddar Man was first found, there were claims that he was the long-sought earliest
Englishman, with an exaggerated age of 40,000–80,000 years. But subsequent radiocarbon
dating from the 1970s onwards suggests he lived around 10,000 years ago.
His skeleton shows a narrow pelvis shape. It’s uncertain whether a hole in his forehead was
from an infection or from damage at the time of excavation.
Like all humans across Europe at the time, Cheddar Man was lactose intolerant and was
unable to digest milk as an adult.
At the time Cheddar Man was alive, Britain was attached to continental Europe and the
landscape was becoming densely forested.
Cheddar Man belonged to a group of people who were mainly hunter-gatherers.
In addition to seeds and nuts, his diet would have consisted of red deer, aurochs (large wild
cattle) and freshwater fish.
While Cheddar Man was not found with any recorded animal or cultural remains, other
Mesolithic sites offer clues about his diet and the kind of cultural life he may have been
part of.
Star Carr was a Mesolithic settlement in North Yorkshire that predates Cheddar Man by
around 1,000 years.
There, archaeologists uncovered red deer skull-caps (which may have been worn as
headdresses); semiprecious stones including amber, hematite and pyrite; and an engraved
shale pendant known as the oldest Mesolithic art in Britain.
Modern-day British people share approximately 10% of their genetic ancestry with the
European population to which Cheddar Man belonged, but they aren’t direct descendants.
Current thinking is that the Mesolithic population that Cheddar Man belonged to was
mostly replaced by farmers who migrated into Britain later.
Source: ‘Cheddar Man: Mesolithic Britain's blue-eyed boy’, Natural History Museum UK website, 7 February 2018,
< http://www.nhm.ac.uk/discover/cheddar-man-mesolithic-britain-blue-eyed-boy.html>

a. According to the article, modern-day British people share approximately 10% of their
genetic ancestry with the European population to which Cheddar Man belonged.
Identify a piece of evidence that could be used to support this claim.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. A range of structural changes have occurred during the evolution of hominins.

What information is conveyed relating to the pelvis of Cheddar Man? Is this shape
expected in the pelvis of a member of the Homo sapiens species? Refer to information
regarding the trends in hominin evolution in your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

Genetic information indicates that Cheddar Man and his contemporaries could not digest milk
as an adult.
The graph below contains information relating to the prevalence of lactose intolerance in the
modern population.
Lactose intolerance rates by ethnicity

100
Percentage of the Population that are
90
80
70
Lactose Intolerant
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
Asian First Nations Hispanic African Caucasian
American
Data: Scrimshaw NS and Murray ED, ‘The acceptability of milk and milk products in
populations with high prevalence of lactose intolerance’, American Journal of Clinical Nutrition,
Vol. 48, Suppl. 4, 1988, pp. 1079-1159.
c. How does the prevalence of lactose intolerance differ in the modern Caucasian
population compared with that of Cheddar Man? Discuss a valid reason to explain why
the difference occurred.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
d. Identify an example of cultural evolution referred to in the article.

What does this information indicate about the cognitive ability of the people who
existed at this time?
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

CONTINUES OVER PAGE

In 2011, a research group conducted a study to determine whether it is better to blow-dry your
hair or whether it should be allowed to dry naturally.
The image below shows a cross-section of a human hair.
Source: Krome International. Reproduced with permission.
The cuticle scales are made up of hardened keratin. The cell membrane complex (CMC) is
made up of lipids and polysaccharides. It acts like a glue and holds the cuticle scales together.
The cortex and medulla are made up of softer keratin. The base of the hair is attached to the
skull by a follicle.
The research group identified that the main types of damage are damage to the cuticles, which
causes roughness and split ends, or damage to the CMC, which may cause loss of hair.
Samples of hair were divided into five groups as follows.
Group Treatment
1 No treatment
2 Drying without using a hair dryer (room temperature, 20°C)
3 Drying with a hair dryer for 60 seconds at a distance of 15 cm (47°C)

After treatment, all samples were left in the same environment for 24 hours before being
examined using a scanning electron microscope.
a. Group 1 is the control group.

Explain the purpose of using a control group.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
b. Each of the groups was exposed to the treatment 30 times.

Explain the purpose of carrying out the treatment multiple times.
1 mark
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
c. Consider the types of variables used in a fair test experiment.

Identify one way in which this experiment differs from a standard fair test. Use
examples to support your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

The results of the experiments are shown in the table below. Three possible areas of damage
were examined.
Group Description of hair Effect on CMC Effect on cortex

surface
1 No cracks No signs of damage No signs of damage
2 No cracks Extensive bulging No signs of damage
3 Multiple cracks No signs of damage No signs of damage
Multiple cracks and

4 some lifting of the No signs of damage No signs of damage
cuticle scales
Multiple cracks and
5 extensive lifting of the No signs of damage No signs of damage
cuticle scales
d. A student reviewed the article that was written based on these results and stated that the
results of the experiment were not valid due to the methods used.
Is this statement accurate? Provide a reason to support your answer.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
e. The extensive bulging of the CMC occurred due to prolonged exposure to water.
Identify the process that caused the bulging to occur and explain why it occurred.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

f. With reference to the purpose of this experiment and the data obtained, identify two
conclusions that this group could have made.
2 marks
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
END OF QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK
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YEAR 12 Trial Exam Paper

QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK

SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Instructions for Section A

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events?

1 The solute is small and polar.

2 The solute is large and polar

3 The solute is small and non-polar.

4 The solute is large and non-polar.

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Enzyme X Enzyme Y Enzyme Z

Enzyme Substance A Substance B

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Cyanide is a toxin that prevents this process from occurring.

Type 1 cells Type 2 cells

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Carbon dioxide concentration

Which cellular process would be initiated by the action of these proteins?

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Source: ‘Effect of insulin on glucose uptake and metabolism’ by User Meiquer

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Source: ‘The degranulation process in a Mast cell’ by Paweł Kuźniar available at

An experimental drug was created to stop the symptoms.

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Source: ‘Dactylioceras commune fossil ammonite (Whitby Formation, Lower

Affected individual: ATGCAGGTCAACGAG

The genetic condition occurs because

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

CONTINUES OVER PAGE

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Low BMP4 expression leads to the formation of a narrow beak.

Source: ‘Wood Warbler (Phylloscopus sibilatrix)’ by Steve Garvie available at

Which one of the following would be expected to cause this?

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

The organism that is most likely to be a chimpanzee is

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION A – continued

Enzyme Recognition sequence Cut site

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 END OF SECTION A

CONTINUES OVER PAGE

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 TURN OVER

Instructions for Section B

‘Structure of the COL9A1 protein’ by Emw available at

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – Question 1 – continued

Diagram of a chloroplast from a Diagram of a chloroplast from a plant with

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – Question 2 – continued

d. Consider the cellular processes that occur within cells.

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – Question 3 – continued

c. Identify a valid conclusion that could be based on this data.

SECTION B – Question 3 – continued

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – continued

Source: ‘Single Chromosome Mutations’ by

SECTION B – Question 4 – continued

b. Explain why people with DGS develop T-lymphocyte deficiency.

f. Identify an ethical issue associated with the genetic screening of babies.

Copyright © Insight Publications 2019 SECTION B – continued

Question 5 (11 marks)

b. A scientist expressed concern that an emerging pathogen could eliminate Cavendish

c. Identify a way in which humans could cause a genetic bottleneck.