General Instructions

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.

2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other question apart
from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the five previously
answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25,
0.08)
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
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SUBJECT I : PHYSICS Suggested Time: 60 Minutes 100 MARKS

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. Temperature of source is 327C . Temperature of sink is changed in order to increase the efficiency of
1 1
engine from to , by
5 4
(A) 30K (B) 303K (C) 603K (D) 60K

2. Two sources of sound are moving in opposite directions with velocities V1 and V2 V1  V2  . Both are
moving away from a stationary observer. The frequency of both the source is 1700 Hz. What is the value
of V1  V2  so that the beat frequency observed by the observer is 10 Hz. Vsound  340 m / s and assume
that V1 and V2 both are very much less than Vsound .
(A) 1m/ s (B) 2 m/s (C) 3m/s (D) 4 m/s

3. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed  about its perpendicular bisector.
A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between two ends of
the rod is

1 1
(A) B l 2 (B) Bl 2 (C) Bl 2 (D) zero
2 8

4. The average power of the pump which lifts 20 kg of water per second from a well 10m deep and


projects it with a velocity 10m / s is g  10 m / s 2 
(A) 9kW (B) 4.5 kW (C) 2.5 kW (D) 3kW

5. Two discs have same mass and thickness. Their materials are of densities 1 and  2 . The ratio of their
moment of inertia about central axis will be
(A) 1 :  2 (B) 12 :1 (C) 1: 1 2 (D)  2 : 1

6. What are the dimensions of electrical permittivity?

(A) ML2T 2Q 2 (B) M 1L2T 3Q 1 (C) M 1L3T 2Q 2 (D) M 1L3T 2Q 2

1
7. The radioactivity of an element becomes th of its original value in 60 seconds. Then the half life
64
period of element is
(A) 5sec s (B) 10sec s (C) 20sec s (D) 30sec s

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8. The voltage across a bulb is decreased by 2%. Assuming that the resistance of the filament remains
unchanged, the power of the bulb will
(A) decrease by 2% (B) increase by 2%
(C) decrease by 4% (D) increase by 4%

9. A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 15cm in air. When lens is placed in a medium of
refractive index  4 / 3 , focal length will be now
(A) 30cm (B) 60cm (C) 60cm (D) 30cm

10. In a Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.90mm apart and the fringes are observed
one meter away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from the central fringe, the
wavelength of monochromatic light used would be
(A) 6  107 cm (B) 1  107 cm (C) 10  105 cm (D) 6  10 5 cm

11. A hydrogen atom is in an excited state of principle quantum number n. It emits a photon of wavelength
 when returns to the ground state. The value of n is ( R  Rydberg constant)
(R  1) R
(A) R(R  1) (B) (C) (D) ( R  1)
R R  1

12. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 1  1014 Hertz is propagating along z-axis. The amplitude of
electric field is 4 V / m. If 0  8.8  10 12 C 2 / N  m2 , then average energy density of electric field will
be:
(A) 35.2  1010 J / m3 (B) 35.2  1011 J / m3
(C) 35.2  1012 J / m3 (D) 35.2  1013 J / m3

13. The magnetic field inside a 2.0mH inductor coil becomes 0.8 of its maximum value in 20S , when the
inductor is jointed to the battery. Find the resistance of the circuit.
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 160

14. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of TK does 6R joules of work adiabatically. If the
ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5 / 3, the final
temperature of gas will be
(A) (T  2.4) K (B) (T  2.4) K (C) (T  4) K (D) (T  4) K

15. A non-viscous liquid of constant density 103 kg / m3 flows in streamline motion along a vertical tube
PQ of variable cross-section. Height of P and Q are 2m and 2.5m respectively. Area of tube at Q is
three time area of tube at P. Find the work done per unit volume by pressure as liquid flows from P to

Q. Speed of liquid at P is 3 m / s g  10 m / s 2 . 

(A) 2000 J / m3 (B) 1000 J / m3 (C) 1575 J / m3 (D) 9000 J / m3

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16. There is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of paper. A

positive charged particle enters in the region perpendicularly, moves in a
circle of radius a and collides inelastically at point Q to the rigid wall
MN . If coefficient of restitution e  0.5, then particle
(A) Retraces its path (B) Strikes at point O
(C) Strikes at point M (D) strikes at point N

17. In the figure, potential difference between A & B is

(A) 5V (B) 10V (C) 15V (D) 20V

18. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are given below.

These materials are used to make magnets for electric generation transformer core and electromagnet
core. Then it is proper to use:
(A) A for electric generators and transformers
(B) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators
(C) A for transformers and B for electric generators
(D) B for electromagnets and transformers

19. A block of mass 20 kg is balanced by three strings A, B & C as shown in figure. Ratio of tensions in
strings AC and BC TA / TB  is

5 5 3 5 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 8 6 5

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1
20. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is th of that on the surface of earth and the
6
diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and moon will be
6 3
(A) (B) 24 (C) 3 (D)
2 2

SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the  sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
21. A simple potentiometer circuit is shown in the figure. The internal
resistance of the 4V battery is negligible. AB is a uniform wire of
length 100cm and resistance 2. What would be the length AC for
zero galvanometer deflection (in mm)?

22. A solid cube is placed on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between them is   0.25. A
variable horizontal force is applied on the cube’s upper face, perpendicular to one edge and passing
through the mid-point of edge, as shown in figure. The maximum acceleration with which it can move
without toppling is (take g  10m / s 2 )

23. The maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors are 23 units and 7 units
respectively. If these two vectors are acting at right angles to each other, the magnitude of their resultant
will be

24. If m is the minimum amount of steam of 100C required to melt 12gm ice completely, then find the
value of 10m.

25. A capacitor of capacitance 4F is charged to 80V and another capacitor of capacitance 6 F is
charged to 30V are connected to each other using zero resistance wires such that the positive plate of one
capacitor is connected to the positive plate of the other. The energy lost by the 4 F capacitor in the
process in X *10 4 J . Find the value of X .

26. If the readings of V1 and V3 are 100 volt each, then reading of V2 is____ .

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.
27. A part of a long wire carrying a current i is bent into a circle of
radius r as shown in figure. If net magnetic field at the centre O of
0i
the circular loop is (  n ), then the value of n is___ .
2 r

14
28. In a effort to date a piece of bone, its count rate due to C is computed and found to be only 0.048 that
of a similar fresh piece of bone. If age of the bone is 2.50  10 2 n , then the value of n is____ .
14
(Half-life of C is 5700 years)

29. If the potential energy in ground state of a hydrogen atom is considered to be zero, then the total energy in
first excited state in unit electron volt is____ .

30. We have a 25watt source of monochromatic light of wavelength 6600 Å. Then the photoelectric current
in ampere assuming 3% efficiency for photoelectric effect is____ .

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY Suggested Time: 45 Minutes 100 MARKS

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Bond order of NO is 2.5 II. Bond order of NO  is 3.0
III. Bond order of O 2 is 1.5 IV. Bond order of CO is 3.0
(A) I,II,III (B) I,II,IV
(C) I,III,IV (D) II,III,IV

2. Select correct statement:

(A) kinetic energy of O2 is zero at 0C
3  8.314  300
(B) rms velocity of O 2 at 27C is m / s2
32
(C) distribution of molecules is very small when u  0 or u  
(D) all the statements are correct

3. What is the number of asymmetric carbon atoms present in -D-glucopyranose molecule?

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five

4. Which of the following compounds is expected to exhibit optical isomerism?

[en  ethylenediamine]
(A) cis  Co  en 2 Cl2  (B) cis   Pt  NH 3 2 Cl 2 

(C) trans  Co  en 2 Cl2  (D) trans   Pt  NH 3 2 Cl 2 

5. A 0.001 molal solution of Pt  NH3 4 Cl4 in water had a freezing point depression of 0.0054C. If
K f for water is 1.80, the correct formula for the above compound assuming its complete dissociation is:
(A)  Pt  NH 3 4 Cl3  Cl (B)  Pt  NH 3 4 Cl 2  Cl 2
   
(C)  Pt  NH3 4 Cl  Cl3 (D)  Pt  NH3 4 Cl 4 
   

6. A mixed solution of potassium hydroxide and sodium carbonate required 15mL of a N / 20 HCl
solution when titrated with phenolphthalein as an indicator. But the same amount of the solution when
titrated with methyl orange as an indicator required 25 mL of the same acid. Calculate the amount of
KOH present in the solution.
(A) 0.014g (B) 0.14g (C) 0.028g (D) 1.4g

7. If cell constant is 0.40 cm1 , the conductivity of 0.015 M NaCl solution having R  1850 ohm is equal
to
(A) 1.08  104 Scm 1 (B) 4.32  104 Scm 1
(C) 2.16  104 Scm 1 (D) 5.04  105 Scm 1

8. Bond energy of covalent O  H bond in water is

(A) Greater than bond energy of H  bond (B) Equal to bond energy of H  bond
(C) Less than bond energy of H  bond (D) None of these

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d[B] d [ D]
 k  B D . The expression for 
2
9. For the reaction B 2D  3T,  will be
dt dt
2k  B D  1 / 2  k  B D 2
2
(A) (B)

4k  B D  1 / 4  k  B D 2
2
(C) (D)

10. The compound C 2 H 4 Cl2 has 2 isomers and they can be distinguished by the reaction with
(A) aq. KOH (B) alc.KOH
(C) bromine water (D) NaNH 2

11. Identify the product  P  in the following reaction

(A) (B)

(C) (D) All of these

12. A glassy bead formed by heating borax on a platinum wire loop is

(A) sodium tetraborate
(B) sodium metaborate
(C) sodium metabarate and boric anhydride
(D) sodium tetraborate and boric anhydride

13. Which of the following process is used in the extractive metallurgy of magnesium?
(A) Fused salt electrolysis (B) Self reduction
(C) Aqueous solution electrolysis (D) Thermite reaction

14. Which of the following compounds is a weaker acid as compared to benzoic acid?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

15. KMnO 4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the reaction :

2KMnO4  5C2O42  16H 

 2Mn 2  10CO2  8H2O
Then, 20 mL of 0.1M KMnO 4 is equivalent to:
(A) 30 mL of 0.5M H 2 C 2 O 4 (oxalic acid) (B) 50mL of 0.1 M H 2 C2 O 4 (oxalic acid)
(C) 20mL of 0.5M H 2 C 2 O 4 (oxalic acid) (D) 10 mL of 0.1M H 2 C2 O 4 (oxalic acid)

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16. An alkyl halide with molecular formula, C6 H13 Br on treatment with alcoholic KOH gave two isomeric
alkenes, A and B . Reductive ozonolysis of the mixture gave the following compounds:
CH3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO, CH 3CH 2CHO and  CH3 2 CHCHO
The alkyl halide is
(A) 2  Bromohexane (B) 3  Bromo 2  methylpentane
(C) 2, 2  Dimethyl 1  bromobutane (D) 2  Bromo 2,3  dimethylbutane

17. The correct increasing order of bond dissociation energy for N 2 ,O 2 , F2 ,Cl2 is
(A) N 2  O 2  F2  Cl2 (B) F2  Cl2  O 2  N 2
(C) F2  Cl2  N 2  O 2 (D) N 2  Cl2  F2  O 2

18. H 2 O 2 on treatment with chlorine gives:

(A) H2 (B) Oxygen
(C) Hypochlorous acid (D) ClO 2

19. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines cannot be distinguished by the action of
(A) CS2 / HgCl 2 (B) NaNO 2 / HCl
(C) CHCl3 / KOH (D) X 2 / NaOH

20. The decreasing order of ease of dehydration in the following compounds is

(A) I  III  IV  II (B) II  I  III  IV

(C) II  I  III  IV (D) III  I  II  IV

SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the  sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)

21. The enthalpy changes at 298K in successive breaking of O  H bonds of water are

H2O  g  
 H  g   OH  g  ; H  498 kJ mol1

OH  g  
 H g   O g  ; H  428 kJ mol1
The bond enthalpy of O  H bond is:

22. To an acidified dichromate solution, a pinch of Na 2 O 2 is added and shaken.

 2  A   5  B  5H2O.
Na 2Cr2O7  4Na 2O2  5H2SO4 

Compound  A  is blue coloured

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The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule of (A) and (B) is

23. The coagulation of 100ml of colloidal solution of gold is completely prevented by addition of 0.25g of a
substance "X" to it before addition of 10ml of 10% NaCl solution. The gold number of "X" is

24. The number of Oxygen atoms in one molecule of “Aspartame” is ________

25. If pK a   log K a  4 and K a  Cx 2 then van’t Hoff factor for weak monobasic acid when C  0.01M
is :
26. How many of the followings are diamagnetic?
O2 , O22 , O 22 , B22 , C 22 , C 22 , C 2 , N 2 , N 2

27. The temperature coefficient of a cell whose operation is based on the reaction
Pb(s)  HgCl2 (aq) 
 PbCl2 (aq)  Hg(l ) is:
 dE  4 1
   1.5  10 VK at 298 K ; 1 F = 96500 C
 dT p
The change in entropy (in J/K mol) during the operation is:
28. If 50 mL of 0.2 M KOH is added to 40 mL of 0.5 M CH 3COOH, the pH of the resulting solution is:
(K a  1.8  105 , log 18  1.26)

29. Equal volumes of 1.0 M KCl and 1.0 M AgNO 3 are mixed. The depression of freezing point of the
resulting solution will be x. Then report your answer as 100 x.
( K f (H 2O)  1.86 K kg mol 1, Assume: 1 M = 1m)

30. How many substrates will show rearrangement during S N 1 reaction?

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SUBJECT III: MATHEMATICS Suggested Time: 75 Minutes 100 MARKS

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
 z2
1. If ' z ' lies on the circle z  2i  2 2, then the value of arg   is equal to
 z 2
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 6 2
2. The line 2 x  y  1  0 is a tangent to the circle at the point  2,5 and the centre of the circle lies on
x  2 y  4. Then radius of the circle is
(A) 5 3 (B) 3 5 (C) 2 5 (D) 5 2
3. In  0,1 , Langrange’s mean value theorem is NOT applicable to
 1 1
 2  x, x  sin x
, x0
 2 
(A) f  x   2 (B) f  x   x
 1  x  , x  1  1, x0
 2 
 2
(C) f  x  x x (D) f  x  x
x2 y 2
4. If a tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse   1 is normal to the circle x 2  y 2  4 x  1  0, then the
a 2 b2
maximum value of ab is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) Can not be found
5. Let AB be a line segment of length 4 unit with the point A on the line y  2 x and B on the line y  x.
Then locus of middle point of all such line segment is
(A) 25 x 2  13 y 2  36 xy  4  0 (B) 25 x 2  13 y 2  36 xy  4  0
(C) 13x 2  25 y 2  36 xy  4  0 (D) 13x 2  25 y 2  36 xy  4  0
The coefficient of x 50 in the expansion of 1  x   2 x 1  x   3x 2 1  x 
1000 999 998
6.  ........  1001x1000
1000 1001 1002
(A) C50 (B) C50 (C) C50 (D) 21001
 3 4 3
7. If A   2 5 7  then Adj  Adj A  
1 2 3 
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 256
8. Consider the following statements.
P : Suman is brilliant
Q : Suman is rich
R : Suman is honest
The negation of the statement “Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich” can be
expressed as
(A) ~  Q   P ~ R   (B) ~ Q ~ P  R
(C) ~  P ~ R   Q (D) ~ P   Q ~ R 

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9. In a sequence of  4n  1 terms the first  2n  1 terms are in AP whose common difference is 2, and the

last  2n  1 terms are in GP whose common ratio is 0.5. If the middle terms of the AP and GP are
equal, then the middle term of the sequence is
n.2n 1 n.2n 1
(A) (B) (C) n2n (D) none of these
2n  1 22 n 1

2 sin  cos x   cos sin x  dx

5 /2
1 1
10. The value of the definite integral is equal to

2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
8 4 2

3
11. The area bounded by y  2  2  x , y  is
x

 5  4ln 2   2  ln 3 
(A)   sq unit (B)   sq unit
 3   2 
 4  3ln 3 
(C)   sq unit (D) none of these
 2 

n
12. If ,  are roots of 375 x 2  25 x  2  0 and sn   n  n , then lim
n 
 sr is
r 1

7 1 29
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
116 12 358

13. If two events A and B are such that P  A   0 and P  B   1, then P  A / B  is equal to

(A) 1 P A / B (B) 1 P A / B

1  P  A  B P  A
(C) (D)
PB PB

14. An n digit number is a positive number with exactly n digits. Nine hundred distinct n digit numbers are
to be formed using only the three digits 2, 5 and 7. The smallest value of n for which is possible is
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

15. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying f  xy   f  x  . f  y  .x  0, y  0 and

f  x
f 1  x   1  x 1  g  x , where lim g  x   0 then  f '  x dx is equal to
x 0

x2 x3 x3 x2
(A) C (B) C (C) C (D) C
2 2 3 3
 1  y6 
16. If 1  x   1  y   a  x
6 6 3

 y3 and
dy
 f  x, y   6 
 , then
dx  1 x 
(A) f  x, y   y / x (B) f  x, y   y 2 / x2

(C) f  x, y   2 y 2 / x2 (D) f  x, y   x2 / y 2

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 Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
 p  x 
17. Let p  x  be a polynomial of degree 4 having extremum at x  1, 2 and lim 1  2   2. Then, the
x 0
 x 
value of p  2  is
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2

Let an  be a GP such that

a4 1
18.  and a2  a5  216. Then a1 is equal to
a6 4
108 54
(A) 12 or (B) 10 (C) 7 or (D) None of these
7 7

19. 
General solution of 2 x  10 y 3  dy
dx
 y  0, is

(A) 2x 2 y  y 5  C (B) 2xy 2  y 5  C

(C) xy 2  2 y 5  C (D) xy 2  y 5  C

20. If a , b , c are three non-coplanar non-zero vectors and r is any vector in space, then

 a  b    r  c   b  c    r  a   c  a    r  b  is equal to
(A) 2 a b c  r (B) 3 a b c  r

(C) a b c  r (D) None of these

 
SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the  sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)

21. If the system of equations 3x  2 y  z  0, x  14 y  15z  0, x  2 y  3z  0 have a non trivial solution,

then the value of  2 must be
22. The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observations valued 16 is
deleted and three new observations valued 3,4 and 5 added to the data, then the mean of the resultant
data is



 1  sin 3 x 
, x

 3cos x 2
2
 
23. If f  x    a, x
 2
 b 1  sin x  
 , x
    2 x 
2
2
5/3
 b
is continuous at x  , then the value of   is
2 a
24. Find the value of [a] if the lines
x  2 y  4 z 1 x  1 y 1 z  a
  &   are coplanar (where [] denotes greatest integer function)
3 2 5 2 3 4

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 Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
25. If A and B are two sets containing 2 elements and 4 elements, respectively. Then, the number of
subsets of A  B having 3 or more elements, is :
26. If the focii of an ellipse touching the co-ordinate axes are (1, 1) and (3, 3). If the area of the director
circle of the ellipse is k , find 20k.
x3
cos 2 x  cos x  e x cos x  e x 
27. The integer n for which the lim 2 is a finite non-zero number is.
x 0 xn
5
28. Find the value of for which the system of equations 6 x  5 y  z  0, 3x – y + 4z = 0 and
4
x + 2y – 3z = 0 has non-trivial solution.
29. If the number of ways of selecting 4 cards from the pack of 52 playing cards such that 2 cards are red
13!
and 2 cards are black but all the 4 cards are of different denominations is k . , find k.
10!
30. The quadratic function f (x) is such that f (x) – f (x + 1) = 2x – 1,  x  R. If the greatest value of f (x) in
(, 0] is 2, then the value of f (1) is____ .

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