8th April Evening

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This Test Paper consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct
response.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response 1 mark i.e. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the Answer Box.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.3 for correct response of each
question. One mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction
from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer box.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Marked up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marked up for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Apr-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
1. A solid sphere and solid cylinder of identical radii approach an incline with the same
linear velocity (see figure). Both roll without slipping all throughout. The two climb
h
maximum heights hsph and hcyl on the incline. The radio sph is given by:
hcyl
4
(A) 1 (B)
5
2 14
(C) (D)
5 15
2. In the circuit shown, a four wire potentiometer is made of a 400 cm long wire, which
extends between A and B. The resistance per unit length of the potentiometer wire is r =
0.01 /cm. If an ideal voltmeter is connected as shown with jockey J at 50 cm from end
A, the expected reading of the voltmeter will be:
(A) 0.75V (B) 0.20V

(C) 0.25V (D) 0.50V
3. A parallel plate capacitor has 1 F capacitance. One of its two plates is given + 2 C
charge and the other plate, +4 C charge. The potential difference developed across the
capacitor is:
(A) 3V (B) 1V
(C) 5V (D) 2V
4. If Surface tension (S), Moment of Inertia (I) and Planck’s constant (h), were to be taken
as the fundamental units, the dimensional formula for linear momentum would be:
(A) S1 / 2 I1 / 2 h0 (B) S1 / 2 I3 / 2 h 1
(C) S3 / 2 I1 / 2 h0 (D) S1 / 2 I1 / 2 h 1
5. Two magnetic dipoles X and Y are placed at a separation d, with their axes
perpendicular to each other. The dipole moment of Y is twice that of X. A particle of
charge q is passing through their mid-point P, at angle = 450 with the horizontal line as
shown in the figure. What would be the magnitude of force on the particle at that instant?
(d is much larger than the dimensions of the dipole)
M
(A) 0
3
q (B) 0
4 d/2
2M M
(C) 0
3
q (D) 2 0
3
q
4 d/2 4 d/2
6. A damped harmonic oscillator has a frequency of 5 oscillations per second. The

amplitude drops to half its value for every 10 oscillations. The time it will take to drop to
1
of the original amplitude is close to:
1000
(A) 10s (B) 100s
(C) 50s (D) 20s
7. A convex lens (of focal length 20 cm) and a concave mirror, having their principal axes
along the same lines, are kept 80 cm apart from each other. The concave mirror is to the
right of the convex lens. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm to the left o the
convex lens, its image remains at the same position even if the concave mirror is
removed. The maximum distance of the object for which this concave mirror, by itself
would produce a virtual image would be:
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 20 cm
8. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power
delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:
(A) R = 0.001 r (B) R = 1000 r
(C) R = 2r (D) R = r
9. In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of acceleration due to gravity (g),

time taken for 20 oscillations is measured by using a watch of 1 second least count. The
mean value of time taken comes out to be 30s.. The length of pendulum is measured by
using a meter scale of least count 1 mm and the value obtained is 55.0 cm. The
percentage error in the determination of g is close to:
(A) 0.7 % (B) 3.5%
(C) 6.8% (D) 0.2%
10. The temperature, at which the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules equals
their escape velocity from the earth is closest to:
[Boltzmans Constant kB 1.38 10 23 J / K
Avogadro number NA 6.02 10 26 / kg
Radius of Earth: 6.4 10 6 m
Gravitation acceleration on Earth = 10 ms-2]
(A) 800k (B) 104 K
(C) 3 105 (D) 650 K
11. A particle starts from origin O from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration along the
positive x – axis. Identify all figures that correctly represent the motion qualitatively.
(a = acceleration, v = velocity, x = displacement, t = time)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(A) a, b, c (B) a
(C) b, c (D) a, b, d
12. The election field in a region is given by E Ax B î where E is in NC-1 and x in

meters. The values of constants are A = 20 SI unit and B = 10 SI unit. If the potential at x
=1 is V1 and that at x = – 5 is V2 then V1 – V2 is:
(A) 320 V (B) – 48 V
(C) – 520 V (D) 180 V
13. Young’s moduli of two wires A and B are in the ratio 7 : 4. Wire A is 2 m long and has
radius R. Wire A is 2 m long and has radius R. Wire B is 1.5 m long and has radius 2
mm. If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given load, then the value of R is
close to:
(A) 1.3 mm (B) 1.5 mm
(C) 1.7 mm (D) 1.9 mm
14. A body of mass m1 moving with an unknown velocity of v1î undergoes a collinear
collision with a body of mass m2 moving with a velocity v 2 î . After collision m1 and m2
move with velocities of v î and v î respectively.
3 4
If m2 = 0.5 m1 and v3 = 0.5 v1 then v1 is:

v2 v2
(A) v 4 (B) v 4
2 4
(C) v 4 v 2 (D) v 4 v2
40
15. The ratio of mass densities of nuclei of Ca and 16 O is close to:
(A) 0.1 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 1
16. A rectangles solid box of length 0.3 m is held horizontally, with one of its sides on the
edge of a platform of height 5.. When released, it slips off the table in a very short time =
0.01 s, remaining essentially horizontal. The angle by which it would rotate when it hits
the ground will be (in radians) close to:
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6

(C) 0.02 (D) 0.28
17. An electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges q with separation d. The
charges the same mass m. It is kept in a uniform electric field E. If it slightly rotated from
its equilibrium orientation, then its angular frequency is:
qE 2qE
(A) (B)
2md md
qE qE
(C) (D) 2
md md
18. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:

Wb
B 1.6 10 6 cos 2 107 z 6 1015 t 2iˆ ˆj 2
2
The associated electric field will be:
(A) E 4.8 102 cos 2 107 z 6 1015 t î 2jˆ V
m
V
(B) E 4.8 10 cos 2 10 z 6 10 t 2ˆj 2tˆ
2 7 15
m
V
(C) E 4.8 10 cos 2 10 z 6 10 t î 2jˆ
2 7 15
m
V
(D) E 4.8 102 cos 2 107 z 6 1015 t 2iˆ ˆj
m
19. A common emitter amplifier circuit, built using an npn transistor, is shown in the figure.
Its dc current gain is 250, RC = 1k and VCC = 10V. What is the minimum base current
for VCE to reach saturation?
(A) 7 A (B) 40 A
(C) 10 A (D) 100 A
20. A positive point charge is released from rest at a distance r0 from a positive line charge
with uniform density. The speed (v) of the point charge, as a function of instantaneous
distance r from line charge, is proportional to
r /ro r
(A) v e (B) v In
r0
r r
(C) v In (D) v
r0 r0
21. Let A 1 3, A 2 5, and A 1 A2 5. The value of 2A 1 3A 2 3A 1 2A 2 is:

(A) –106.5 (B) –112.5
(C) –118.5 (D) –99.5
22. In the figure shown, what is the current (in Ampere) drawn from the battery? You are
given
R1 15 ,R2 10 , R3 20 , R4 5 ,R5 25 , R6 30 , E 15V
(A) 13/24 (B) 7/18

(C) 9/32 (D) 20/3
23. In a line of sight radio communication, a distance of about 50 km is kept between the
transmitting and receiving antennas. If the height of the receiving antenna is 70m, then
the minimum height of the transmitting antenna should be: (Radius of the Earth =
6.4 10 6 m)
(A) 32 m (B) 40 m
(C) 51 m (D) 20 m
24. A rocket has to be launched from each in such a way that it never returns. If E is the
minimum energy delivered by the rocket launcher, what should be the minimum energy
that the launcher should have if the same rocket is to be launched from the surface of
the moon? Assume that the density of the earth and the moon are equal and that the
earth’s volume is 64 times the volume of the moon.
E E
(A) (B)
32 16
E E
(C) (D)
64 4
25. A circuit connected to an ac source of emf e = e0 sin (1000t) with t in seconds, gives a
phase difference of between the emf e and current i. Which of the following circuits
4
will exhibit this?
(A) RC circuit with R = 1 k and C = 1 F (B) RL circuit with R = 1 k and L = 10 mH
(C) RL circuit with R = 1 k and L = 1 mH (D) RC circuit with R = 1 k and C = 10 F
26. A nucleus A, with a finite de – broglie wavelength A, undergoes spontaneous fission

into two nuclei B and C of equal mass. B flies in the same direction as that of A, while C
flies in the opposite direction with a velocity equal to half of that of F. The de – Broglie
wavelength B and C of B and C are respectively :
(A) A , 2 A (B) 2 A , A
(C) A , A
(D) A
, A
2 2
27. Calculate the limit of resolution of a telescope objective having a diameter of 200 cm, if it
has to detect light of wavelength 500 nm coming from a star.
(A) 457.5 10 9 radian (B) 610 10 9 radian
9 9
(C) 305 10 radian (D) 152.5 10 radian
28. Two very long, straight and insulated wires are kept at 900 angle from each other In xy –
plane as shown in the figure.
These wires carry currently of equal magnitude I, whose directions are shown in the
figure. The met magnetic field at point P will be:
I 0I
(A) 0 xˆ yˆ (B) ẑ
2 d d
0I
(C) Zero (D) xˆ yˆ
2 d
29. The given diagram shows four processes i.e., isochoric, isothermal and adiabatic. The
correct assignment of the processes, in the same order is given by:
(A) a d c b (B) a d b c
(C) d a c b (D) d a b c
30. A uniform rectangular thin sheet ABCD of mass M has length a and breadth b, as shown
in the figure. If the shaded portion HBGO is cut off, the coordinates of the centre of mass
of the remaining portion will be:
5a 5b 2a 2b
(A) , (B) ,
3 3 3 3
3a 3b 5a 5b
(C) , (D) ,
4 4 12 12
PART –B (CHEMISTRY)
31. The statement that is INCORRECT about the interstitial compound is:
(A) they have metallic conductivity (B) they have high melting points
(C) they are chemically reactive (D) they are very hard
32. The major product of the following reaction is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. The major product of the following reaction is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected from a metal surface after the
irradiation of light having wavelength , then for (A)5 p momentum of the photoelectron,
the wavelength of the light should be:
(Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be very high in comparison to work
function)
3 1
(A) (B)
4 2
4 2
(C) (D)
9 3
35. The ion that has sp3d2 hybridization for the central atom is:
(A) IF6 – (B) ICI4 –
(C) ICI2 –
(D) BrF2 –
36. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
k k
37. For a reaction scheme. A 1
B 2
C if the rate of formation of B is set to be zero
then the concentration of B is given by
k1
(A) A (B) k1 k2 A
k2
(C) k1k 2 A (D) k1 k 2 A
38. For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given:

S s O2 g SO2 g ;K1 1052
2S s 3O2 g 2SO3 g ;K 2 10129
The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO2 g O2 g 2SO3 g is:
(A) 1077 (B) 1025
(C) 10181 (D) 10154
39. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in which following reaction takes
place:
Fe2 aq Ag aq Fe3 aq Ag s
Given that:
E 0 Ag'/ Ag xV
E 0Fe2 /Fe
yV
0
E Fe3 /Fe
zV
(A) x – z (B) x + y – z
(C) x – y (D) x + 2y – 3z
40. The covalent alkaline earth metal halide

X CI,Br,I is:
(A) BeX2 (B) CaX2
(C) SrX2 (D) MgX2
41. The structure of Nylon – 6 is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. The IUPAC symbols for the element with atomic number 119 would be:
(A) uun (B) uue
(C) unh (D) une
43. Which of the following compounds will show the maximum ‘enol’ content?
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) CH3COCH2CONH2
(C) CH3COCH2COCH3 (D) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
44. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in 100 cm3 of hexane. 10 mL of this
solution was added dropwise to the surface of water in a round watch glass. Hexane
evaporates and a monolayer is formed. The distance from edge to centre of the watch
glass is 10 cm. What is the height of the monolayer?
[Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm-3, = 3]
(A) 10-4 m (B) 10-8 m
-2
(C) 10 m (D) 10-6 m
45. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in methane is:

(A) 80% (B) 20%
(C)75% (D) 25%
46. The Mond process is used for the:
(A) Extraction of Mo (B) Extraction of Zn
(C) Purification of Zr and Ti (D) Purification of Ni
47. Which one of the following alkenes when treated with HCI yields majorly an anti
Markovnikov product?
(A) H2N – CH = CH2 (B) F3C – CH = CH2
(C) CH3 O – CH = CH2 (D) CI – CH = CH2
48. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo reversible compression till its
temperature becomes 200 K. If C V 28 JK 1 mol 1 , calculate U and pV for this
process. (R = 8.0 J K–1 mol-1)
(A) U 2.8kJ; pV 0.8kJ (B) U 14 kJ; pV 4kJ
(C) U 14kJ; pV 18kJ (D) U 14kJ; pV 0.8J
49. The calculated spin only magnetic moments (BM) of the anionic and cationic species of
Fe H2O 6
and Fe CN 6
, respectively, are:
2
(A) 0 and 5.92 (B) 2.84 and 5.92
(C) 0 and 4.9 (D) 4.9 and 0
50. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by:

(A) Benedict’s test (B) Fehling’s test
(C) Barfoed’s test (D) Seliwanoff’s test
51. The major product in the following reaction is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. Polysubstitution is a major drawback in:

(A) Friedel Craft’s alkylation (B) Reimer Tiemann reaction
(C) Acetylation of aniline (D) Friedel Craft’s acylation
53. The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H2 O 2 is: [Given that molar mass of H = 1 g mol-1
and O = 16 g mol-1]
(A) 3.4% (B) 1.7%
(C) 13.6% (D) 34%
54. For the solution of the gases w, x, y and z in water at 298 K, the Henrys law constants
(KH) are 0.5, 2 35 and 40 kbar, respectively. The correct plot for the given data is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. Among the following molecules / ions

C 22 ,N22 ,O 22 ,O 2 which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest bond length?
(A) O 22 (B) C 22
(C) O2 (D) N22
56. The major product obtained in the following reactions is”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is:

(A) 0.5 ppm (B) 3 ppm
(C) 5 ppm (D) 0.05 ppm
58. The correct statement about ICI5 and ICI4 is:

(A) ICI5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICI4 is tetrahedral
(B) ICI5 is square pyramidal and ICI4 is square planar
(C)ICI5 is square pyramidal and ICI4 is tetrahedral
(D) Both are isostructural
59. The compound that inhibits the growth of tumors is:

(A) trans - Pd CI 2 NH3 2 (B) trans - Pt CI 2
NH3 2
(C) cis - Pd CI 2
NH3 2
(D) cis - Pt CI 2
NH3 2
60. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solid 1 and 2 with the position of atoms as shown
below. The radius of atom B is twice that of atom A. The unit cell edge length is 50%
more in solid 2 than in 1. What is the approximate packing efficiency in solid 2?
(A) 90% (B) 75%

(C) 65% (D) 45%
PART–C (MATHEMATICS)
61. Let S x, y : y 2 x,0 and A is area of the regions S . If for a
,0 4, A : A 4 2 : 5 then equals:
1 1
2 3 2 3
(A) 4 (B) 2
5 5
1 1
4 3 4 3
(C) 4 (D) 2
25 25
x x
62. Let f x g t dt, were g is a non zero even function. If f(x+5) =g(x) , then f t dt
0 0
equals
5 x 5
(A) g t dt (B) 2 g t dt
x 5 5
x 5 5
(C) g t dt (D) 5 g t dt
5 x 5
63. Suppose that the points (h, k), (1, 2) and (–3, 4) lie on the line L1. If a line L2 passing
k
through the points (h, k) and (4, 3) is perpendicular to L1, then equals:
h
1 1
(A) (B)
7 3
(C) 3 (D) 0
64. Let f x ax a 0 be written as f x f1 x f2 x , where f1 x is an even function

and f2 x is an odd function. Then f1 x y f1 x y equals
(A) 2f1 x f2 y (B) 2f1 x f1 y
(C) 2f1 x y f2 x y (D) 2f1 x y f1 x y
65. Let f : 1,3 R be defined as

x x , 1 x 1
f x x x, 1 x 2
x x, 2 x 3
where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then, ƒ is
discontinuous at:
(A) four or more points (B) only one point
(C) only two points (D) only three points
3 i 9
66. If z i 1 , then 1 iz z5 iz8 is equal to:
2 2
(A) –1 (B) 1
(C) (–1 + 2i)9 (D) 0
67. Which one of the following, statements is not a tautology:

(A) p v q pv q (B) p v q p
(C) p pvq (D) p ^ q p vq
2y
68. Given that the slope of the tangent to a curve y = y(x) at any point (x, y) is . If the
x2
curve passes through the centre of the circle x 2 y2 2x 2y = 0, then its equation is:
(A) x loge y x 1 (B) x loge y 2 x 1
2
(C) x loge y 2 x 1 (D) x loge y 2 x 1
2
69. If f 1 1,f ' 1 3 , then the derivative of f f f x f x at x = 1 is:
(A) 33 (B) 15
(C) 9 (D) 12
70. The number of four – digit numbers strictly greater than 4321 that can be formed using
the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (repetition of digits is allowed) is:
(A) 360 (B) 288
(C) 310 (D) 306
71. If a point R (4, y, z) lies on the line segment joining the points P (2, –3, 4) and Q (8, 0,
10), then the distance of R from the origin is:
(A) 53 (B) 6
(C) 2 14 (D) 2 21
72. If the system of linear equations

x 2y kz 1
2x y z 2
3x y kz 3
Has a solution (x, y, z) 0, then (x, y) lies on the straight line whose equation is:
(A) 3x – 4y – 1 = 0 (B) 4x – 3y – 4 = 0
(C) 4x – 3y – 1 = 0 (D) 3x – 4y – 4 = 0
73. A student score the following marks in five tests : 45, 54, 41, 57, 43. His score is not
known for the sixth test. If the mean score is 48 in the six tests, then the standard
deviation of the marks in six tests is:
10 100
(A) (B)
3 3
100 10
(C) (D)
3 3
74. The vector equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z =
1 and 2x + 3y + 4z = 5 which is perpendicular to the plane x – y + z = 0 is:
(A) r î kˆ 2 0 (B) r. î kˆ 2 0
(C) r. î kˆ 2 0 (D) x î kˆ 2 0
75. If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are in A.P. and the greatest angle is double the
smallest, then a ratio of lengths of the sides of this triangle:
(A) 4:5:6 (B) 5:6:7
(C) 3:4:5 (D) 5:9:13
76. In an ellipse, with centre at the origin, if the difference of the lengths of major axis and
minor axis is 10 and one of the foci is at (0, 5 3 ), then the length of its latus rectum is:
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 8 (D) 10
77. The minimum number of times one has to toss a fair coin so that the probability; of
observing at least one head is at least 90% is:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
78. If the eccentricity of the standard hyperbola passing, through the point (4, 6) is 2, then
the equation of the tangent to the hyperbola at (4, 6) is:
(A) 2x – 3y + 10 = 0 (B) x – 2y + 8 = 0
(C) 2x – y – 2 = 0 (D) 3x – 2y = 0
79. The number of integral values of m for which the equation

1 m2 x 2 2 1 3m x 1 8m 0 has no real root is:
(A) infinitely many (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 1
20
1
80. Then sum k is equal to:
k 1 2k
11 11
(A) 2 (B) 1
219 220
21 3
(C) 2 (D) 2
220 217
81. Let a 3iˆ 2ˆj xkˆ and b î ˆj k,

ˆ for some real x. Then a b r is possible if:
3 3 3
(A) r 5 (B) 3 r 5
2 2 2
3 3 3
(C) r 3 (D) 0 r
2 2 2
82. Then tangent and the normal lines at the point 3,1 to the circle x 2 y2 4 and the x
– axis form a triangle. The area of this triangle (in square units) is:
1 4
(A) (B)
3 3
1 2
(C) (D)
3 3
83. The tangent to the parabola y2 = 4x at the point where it intersects the circle x2 + y2 = 5
in the first quadrant, passes through the point:
1 4 3 7
(A) , (B) ,
3 3 4 4
1 1 1 3
(C) , (D) ,
4 2 4 4
84. The height of a right circular cylinder of maximum volume inscribed in a sphere of radius
3 is:
(A) 3 (B) 6
2
(C) 2 3 (D) 3
3
1 1 1
85. Let the numbers 2, b, c be in an A.P and A 2 b c . If det A 2,16 then ce lies
2 2
4 b c
in the interval
(A) 3,2 22/4 (B) 2 23/4 , 4
(C) {2,3) (D) [4, 6]
86. Let f : R R be a differentiable function satisfying f’’(3) + f’(2) = 0. Then

1
1 f 3 x f 3 x
lim is equal to:
x 1 f 2 x f 2
(A) e2 (B) 1
(C) e (D) e–1
1
dx
87. If 2/3
xf x 1 x 6 3
C where C is a constant of integration, then the
x3 1 x 6
function f(x) is equal to:
1 1
(A) (B)
2x 2 2x 3
1 3
(C) (D) 2
2x 3 x
88. Two vertical poles of heights, 20 m and 80m stand a apart on a horizontal plane. The
height (in meters) of the point of intersection of the lines joining the top of each pole to
the foot of the other, from his horizontal plane is:
(A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 15
6
1
1
89. If the fourth term in the binomial expansion of x 12
is equal to 200, and x >
x1 log10 x
1, then the value of x is:
(A) 104 (B) 100
(C) 103 (D) 10
90. If three distinct number a, b, c are in G.P. and the equations ax2 + 2bc + c = 0 and
dx2 + 2ex + f = 0 have a common root, then which one of the following statements is
correct?
d e f
(A) , , are in A.P (B) d, e, f are in A.P
a b c
d e f
(C) , , are in G.P (D) d, e, f are in G.P
a b c
JEE (Main) – 2019

ANSWERS
PART A – PHYSICS
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. D
9. C 10. B 11. D 12. D
13. C 14. C 15. D 16. A
17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. C 23. A 24. B
25. D 26. D 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. D
PART B – CHEMISTRY
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C

35. B 36. B 37. A 38. B
39. D 40. A 41. C 42. B
43. C 44. D 45. B 46. D
47. B 48. B 49. C 50. D
51. B 52. A 53. A 54. D
55. B 56. D 57. B 58. B
59. D 60. A
PART C – MATHEMATICS
61. C 62. A 63. B 64. B
65. A 66. A 67. A 68. D
69. A 70. C 71. C 72. B
73. D 74. C 75. A 76. B
77. C 78. C 79. A 80. A
81. A 82. D 83. B 84. C
85. D 86. B 87. B 88. C
89. All options are incorrect 90. A
HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

PART A – PHYSICS
1. For solid sphere
1 1 2 v2
mv 2 mR 2 2 mghsph
2 2 5 R
For solid cylinder

1 1 1 v2
mv 2 mR 2 2 mghcyl
2 2 2 R
hsph 7 / 5 14
hcyl 3/2 15
2. Resistance of wire AB = 400 × 0.01 = 4

3
i 0.5 A
6
Now voltmeter reading = i (Resistance of 50 cm
length)
= (0.5 A) (0.01 × 50) = 0.25 volt
3. Charges at inner plates are 1 C and –1 C.

Potential difference across capacitor
q 1 C 1 10 6 C
= 1V
c 1 F 1 10 6 Farad
4. p = k saIbhc
Where k is dimensionless constant
MLT–1 = (MT–2)a(ML2)b(ML2T–1)c
a+b+c=1
2b + 2c = 1
–2a – c = –1
1 1
a b c 0
2 2
S1/2II/2h0
5. M 2M
B1 2 0
; B2 0
4 (d / 2)3 4 (d / 2)3
B1 = B2
Bnet is at 45° ( = 45°)
Velocity of charge and Bnet are parallel so

by
F q(b B) force on charge particle is
zero.
6. A = A0e– t
A0
A after 10 oscillations
2
After 2 seconds
A0
A 0 e (2) ; 2 = e2
2
n2
n2 2 ;
2
– t
A = A0e
A0 n2
n t ; n1000 t
A 2
3 n10 6 n10
2 t ; t
n2 n2
t = 19.931 sec
t 20 sec
7. Image formed by lens

1 1 1 1 1 1
;
v u f v 30 20
v = +60 cm
If image position does not change even
when mirror is removed it means image
formed by lens is formed at centre of
curvature of spherical mirror.
Radius of curvature of mirror = 80 – 60 = 20
cm.
Focal length of mirror f = 10 cm for
virtual image, object is to be kept
between focus and pole.
Maximum distance of object from
spherical mirror for which virtual image
is formed, is 10 cm.
E
8. Current i =
r R
Power generated in R
P = i2R
E2R
P
(r R)2
dP
For maximum power 0
dR
(r R)2 1 R 2(r R)
E2 0
(r R)4
r=R
30 sec 1
9. T T sec,
20 20
L = 55 cm L = 1 mm = 0.1 cm
2
4 L
g=
T2
percentage error in g is
g L 2 T
100 100%
g L T
1
2
0.1 20
= 100% 6.8%.
55 30
20
3RT
10. v rms v escape 2gRe
m
v rms v escape
3RT
2gRe
m
23
3 1.38 10 6.02 10 26
10 103 104 k
2
11. Given initial velocity u = 0 and acceleration

is constant
At time t
v = 0 + at
v = at
1
Also x = 0(t) + at 2
2
1 2
x at
2
Graph (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
12. E (20x 10)iˆ

1
V1 V2 (20x 10)dx
5
V1 V2 (10x 2 10x)1 5
V1 – V2 = 10(25 – 5 – 1 – 1)
V1 – V2 = 180 V
13. Given:
YA 7
LA = 2m AA = R2
YB 4
LB = 1.5 m AB = (2mm))2
F
Y
A L
AY
given F and are same is same
L
A A YA A B YB
LA LB
7
( R2 ) YB
4 (2 mm)2 YB
2 1.5
R = 1.74 mm
14. Applying linear momentum conservation

m1v1î m 2 v 2 î m1v 3 î m 2 v 4 î
m1v 1 0.5 m1v 2 m1(0.5 v1 ) 0.5 m1v 4
0.5 m1v1 = 0.5 m1(v4 – v2)
v1 = v 4 – v2
15. Mass densities of all nuclei are same so their ratio is 1.
16. Angular impulse = change in angular momentum.

t= L
m 2
mg 0.01
2 3
3g 0.01 3 10 0.01 1
= = 0.5 rad/s
2 2 0.3 2
Time taken by rod to hit the ground

2h 2 5
t = 1 sec.
g 10
In this time angle rotate by rod
= t = 0.5 × 1 = 0.5 radian
17. Moment of inertia

2
d md2
(I) m 2
2 2
Now by = I
md2
(qE) (d sin ) =
2
2qE
sin for small
md
2qE
md
2qE
Angular frequency
md
18. If we use that direction of light propagation will be along E B. Then (A) option is
correct.
Magnitude of E = CB
E = 3 × 108 × 1.6 × 10–6 × 5
E = 4.8 × 102 5
E and B are perpendicular to each other
E B =0
Either direction of E is î 2ˆj or î 2ˆj from given option
Also wave propagation direction is parallel to E B which is k̂
E is along ( î 2ˆj)
19. At saturation state, VCE becomes zero

10V
iC = 10 mA
1000
iC
Now current gain factor
iB
10 mA
iB = 40 A
250
1
20. mV 2 q(Vf Vi )
2
E
2 0 r
r0
V n
2 0 r
1 q r0
mv 2 n
2 2 0 r
r
v n
r0
21. A1 3, A 2 5, and A1 A2 5.
2 2
A1 A2 A1 A2 2 A 1 A 2 cos
3
cos
10
2A 1 3A 2 3A 1 2A 2
2 2
= 6 A1 9A1 A 2 4A 1 A 2 6 A2
= –118.5
22.
25 45 25 90 160
Req 15 30
3 3 3
E 15 3 9
I amp.
Req 160 32
23. Range = 2RhT 2RhR

50 103 2 6400 103 hT 2 6400 103 70
By solving hT = 32 m.
24. Minimum energy required (E) = – (Potential energy of

object at surface of earth)
GMm GMm
R R
Now Mearth = 64 Mmoon
4 3 4 3
Re 64 Rm Re = 4Rm
3 3
E Mmoon Rearth 1 4
Now moon
E earth Mearth Rmoon 64 1
E
Emoon
16
25. Given phase difference = and = 100 rad/s

4
Reactance (X) = Resistance (R)
Now by checking option.
Option (A)
1
R = 1000 and XC 6
= 104
10 100
Option (B)
R = 103 and XL = 10 × 10–3 × 100 = 1
Option (C)
R = 103 and XL = 10–3 100 = 10–1
Option (D)
1
R = 103 and XC = 103
10 10 6 100
26.
Let mass of B and C is m each. By momentum conservation

mv
2mv 0 mv
2
v = 4v0
PA = 2mv0 pB = 4mv0 pc = 2mv0
h
De-Broglie wavelength
p
h h h
A
; B ; C
2mv 0 4mv 0 2mv 0
1.22
27. Limit of resolution of telescope =
D
9
1.22 500 10
= 305 × 10—9 radian
200 10 2
28. Magnetic field at point P

0i ˆ 0i ˆ =0
Bnet ( k) (k)
2 d 2 d
29. isochoric Process d

Isobaric Process a
Adiabatic slope will be more than isothermal so
Isothermal Process b
Adiabatic Process c
Order dabc
30. aM 3a
M
x 24 4
M
M
4
a 3a 3a 5a
= 2 16 4 16 5a
3 3 12
4 4
b M 3b
M
5b
y= 2 4 4
M 12
M
4
PART B – CHEMISTRY
31. In case of interstial compounds there is presence of small atoms (or impurity) in the
lattice of metal. So interstial compounds are hard, high melting point and chemically
inert.
32.
O O
t BuO
t BuOH
Cl Cl
O
H OH
O
O-H
33. Reaction involves free radical chlorination followed by hydrolysis.

(a)
Cl2 h Cl Cl
(b)
Cl CH3 Cl Cl CH2 HCl
(c)
Cl CH2 Cl Cl CH2Cl
(d) H2O
Cl CH2Cl Cl CH2OH
(e)
Cl2 /H2O
Cl CH2OH Cl CHO
O
1 1 m 2u2 1 P2
34. K.E mu2
2 2 m 2 m
hc 1 P2
Wo K.E 1
Wo
1 2m
2
hc 1 1.5P
Wo K.E 2
Wo
2 2 m
On solving
4
2 1
9
Since the K.E is very high is comparison to work function, then we can assume that
K.E + Wo = K.E
35. [ICl4]– sp3d2

–
[IF6] sp3d2
–
[ICl2] sp3d
[BrF2]– sp3d
36.
37. Applying steady state of approximation

d
B K1 A K 2 B
dt
O K1 A K 2 B
K1
A B
K2
38. 2SO2 g O2 g 2SO3 g

2
SO3
K eq 2
O 2 SO 2
K2 10129
1025
K1 10104
39. Oxidation
! " #
'% () *+ () '% () *+ , -$%&& "
Reduction
Given:
E0 Ag'/ Ag x 1
E0Fe2 /Fe
y 2
0
E Fe3 /Fe
z 3
Using equation:
G0 nFE0
G01 Fx
0
G 2 2Fy
0
G 3 3Fz
2
Fe 2e Fe 2Fy
Fe3 3e Fe 3Fz
Fe2 Fe3 e 2Fy 3Fz

Ag e Ag Fx
0
GTotal 2Fy 3Fz Fx FECell
E0Cell x 2y 3z
40. The % covalent character can be predicted by using Fajan’s rule

% of covalent character .
/(01231/ 4(516,
!
7%
!
8+
!
$(
!
94
Size
41. The direct monomer of Nylon-6 is caprolactum which polymerises to give Nylon-6 as
follows:
H
N O
533 K
N2 inert
Nylon-6
42 The IUPAC name of element having atomic number 119 is “Ununennium”. So its symbol
is uue.
43. O O
C C
H3C CH2 CH3
Due to presence of active methylene group and stabilization of enol by intramoelcular H
bond forming 6 membered ring structure.
44. Mass of fatty acid = 0.027 g

Radius of plate = 10 cm
Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g/cm3
0.027
Volume of fatty acid = 0.03 cm3
0.9
Area of plate = r2 = 3 102 = 300 cm2
Volume 0.03
Height of fatty acid = 10 4 cm 10 6 m
Area 300
45. In CH4
Mole of carbon nC = 1
Mole of hydrogen = nH = 4
% of nC = 3$ .
.## .## !#;
3$ 3: <
46. The mond’s process is used for refining of nickel as per following reaction.
Ni CO g 330 350K
Ni CO 4
450 470K
Ni s 4CO g
Impure
Pure
47. In this case antimarkonikov product will be formed as major product because
carbocation formed at a double bonded carbon having lesser number of H atom will be
unstable due to presence of an electron withdrawing group (CF3) attached to it.
HCl
F3C CH CH2 CF3 CH CH3 CF3 CH2 CH2
min or major
Cl
CF3 CH2 CH2 CF3 CH2 CH2
Cl
(major product)
48. vm
=5 28 100 = 14 kJ
=5 8 100 = 4 kJ
49. [Fe(CN)6]4– [Fe(H2O)6]2+

Fe2 3d6 Fe2 3d6
t 62geg0 t 42geg2
n n 2 n n 2 24 4.9BM
=0
50. Barfoed’s test

Fehling’s test
Benedict’s test sugars
Seliwanoff’s test
51. NH2 NH2
N N
N N
CH3 I
Base
N N N N
H (Adenine) CH3
The nitrogen atom marked with * contain high electron density. It is attached to one H-
atom which can be removed by base OH– and the CH3 group gets attached there.
52. Polysubstitution is a major drawback of Friedal craft’s alkylation. It is so because

activating behaviour of benzene ring increases with increase in number of alkyl group on
benzene ring.
53. 2H2O2 2H2O O 2

68 g/L 22.4 of O 2 STP
11.2 L of O2 is given by 34 g of H2O2 present in 1 L of H2O2 solution.

34
So % strength of H2O2 = 100 3.4g / 100mL 3.4%
1000
54. From Henry’s law

Pgas = KH.Xgas
Pgas = KH 1 XH O
2
Pgas = KH – KH XH O
2
Comparing this equation with straight line equation y = mx + c
55. ! ! = ! ! = ! ! ! !
$! ., ., !, !, !A > !B? !B@
.# C
7DE " 51(F(+3%01/
!
! ! = ! ! = ! ! ! ! . = .
G! ., ., !, !, !A > !B? !B@ !A > !B?
.# H
7DE ! A(4(F(+3%01/
!
! ! = ! ! = ! ! ! ! ! = !
E! ., ., !, !, !B@ !A > !B? !A > !B?
.# I
7DE . 51(F(+3%01/
!
! = ! ! = ! ! ! ! . = .
E! ., ., !, !, !B@ !A > !B? !A > !B?
.# H
7DE ! A(4(F(+3%01/
!
56. The reaction involves carbylamine reaction of 1o amine with CHCl3/KOH followed by
reduction with Pd/C/H2.
NH2 NC
CHCl3 /KOH
CN O CN O
Pd/C/H2
N - CH3
CH2NH2 OH
57. Maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is 3 ppm. Above this
concentration water becomes toxic.
58.
Cl Cl
ICl4 sp3 d2 I
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl Cl
I
ICl5 sp3d2
Cl Cl
59. cis–[PtCl2(NH3)2] is used in chemotherapy to inhibits the growth of tumors
4
Vol. occupied by atom r3
60. % packing efficiency 100 3 3 100
Vol. of unit cell a
Let radius of corner atom is r and radius of central atom is 2r
So, 3a 2 2r 2r 6r
6r
a 2 3r
3
Now
4 4 3
3
r3 3
2r
% P.E = 3
100
2 3r
4
r3 8r 3
3
100
8 3 3 r3
4 9r 3
100 90.6% 90%
3 8 3 3 r3
PART C – MATHEMATICS
4 3/ 2
61. S 2 x dx
0 3
S 2 3/2
2
3/2
S 4 5 4 5
1/3 ( , 0)
4
4
25
62. Since g x is even with f 0 0

f x is odd function
g x f x 5
g x f x 5
g x f x 5
Replace x by x 5
f x g x 5
x x
f t dt g t 5 dt
0 0
x 5
g t dt
5
5
g t dt
x 5
63. Equation of L1 is x 2y 5 and equation

(–3, 4)
of L2 is 2x y 5
(h, k) (1, 2)
Their point of intersection is (3, 1)
k 1
h 3 (4, 3)
L1
L2
x x x x
a a a a
64. f1 x and f2 x
2 2
f1 x y f1 x y
1 x y
a a x y ax y a x y
2
1 x y
a a a y a x ay a y
2
ax a x ay a y
2.
2 2
2f1 x f1 y
x 1 x 1,0
x x 0,1
65. f x
2x x 1,2
x 2 x 2, 3
f x is discontinuous at x 0,1
i
3 i
66. z e6
2
9
1 iz z5 iz 8
/6 9
1 ei /2 ei /6
ei5 /6
ei /2ei8
11 9
i
i 2 /6 i5 /6
1 e e e 6
9
1 3 /3 9
i ei ei3 1
2 2
67.
(A) p q p ~q
~ p q p ~q
~p ~q p ~q
T
(B) p q p
~ p q p ~p ~q p
~p p ~q
=T
(C) ~ p p q
~p p q T
(D) ~ p q ~p q
~p ~q ~p q
~p T T
dy 2y
68.
dx x2
2
ny nC
x
Passes through (1, 1)
0 2 nC
2
ny 2
x
x ny 2 x 1
2
69. f f f f x f x
dy
f' f f x f' f x f' x 2f x f ' x
dx
Put x = 1
dy
27 6 33
dx
70. Starting with 5 63 216

Starting with 44 62 36
Starting with 45 62 36
Starting with 43 18 (Not using 0, 1, 2)
Starting with 432 = 4
Total = 310
x 2 y 3 z 4
71. Equation of PQ is
6 3 6
R (4, y, z) lies on this
1 y 3 z 4
3 3 6
R 4, 2, 6
QR 16 4 36 2 14
72. For infinitly many solution

1 2 k
2 1 1 0
3 1 k
1
k
2
Also consider
x 2y k 1 and 2x y z 2
2x 4y z 2
2x y z 2
4x 3y 4
41 45 54 57 43 x
73. AM = 48
6
x 48
2 1
482 412 452 542 572 432 482
6
2 14024
2304
6
100
3
74. P1 : x y z 1
P2 :2x 3y 4z 5
Required plane is P1 P2 0
1 2 x 1 3 y 1 4 z 1 5 …..(i)
which is perpendicular to x y z 0
1 2 1 3 1 4 0
1
3
(i) x z 2 0
r . î kˆ 2 0
75. Given 2b a c
Let A ,B 3 ,C 2
2 sinB sin A sin C
2 sin3 sin sin 2
2 3 4 sin2 1 2cos
8 cos2 2cos 3 0
3
cos
4
sin A :sinB :sin C
1: 4 3 sin2 :2 cos
5 6
1: :
4 4
4:5:6
76. be 5 3
b2 e2 75
b a b a 75 b a 15
b 10, a 5
2a2
LR 5
b
1 9
77. 1 n
2 10
1 1
10 2n
2n 10
n 4
x2 y2
78. Let equation of hyperbola be 1
a2 b2
passes through (4, 6)
16 36
1 (i)
a 2 b2
b2
Also e2 1 2 b2 3a 2 (ii)
a
From (i) and (ii)
a2 4, b2 12
x2 y2
Equation 1
4 12
y
Tangent at (4, 6) is x 1
2
Or
2x y 2
2
79. D 4 1 3m 4 1 m2 1 8m
4 1 9m2 6m 1 8m m2 8m3
8m 4m2 4m 1
2
8m 2m 1 0
Infinitely many values of m.
k
20
80. S k
k 1 2
1 2 3 20
S .....
2 22 23 220
1 1 2 20
S .......
2 22 23 221
1 1 1 1 1 20
S ......
2 2 22 23 220 221
1 1
1 20
2 2 20
1 221
2
21
1 21
2
11
s 2
219
î ˆj kˆ
81. a b 3 2 x
1 1 1
2 x î 3 x ˆj 5kˆ
a b 2 x2 x 19
2 1/4 5 3
2 x 1/ 2 19
2
1
82. Slope of OP
3
Equation of PQ is
P 3, 1
y 1 3 x 3
y 3x 4
4
Q ,0 O
3 Q
2
Area
3
83. x2 4x 5
x 5, x 1
P 1, 2 P (1, 2)
Tangent at P is y x 1
3 7
, lies on this.
4 4
84. h 2 3 cos 6 cos , r 3 sin

2
V r h
4 sin2 6 cos
54 sin2 cos
1 log xr
dv
0 2 sin cos sin3 0
d 3
2 sin 3 sin3 0 h
2
sin
3
1
cos
3
6
h
3
1 1 1
85. 2 b c
4 b2 c2
C2 C2 C1, C3 C3 C1
1 0 0
2 b 2 c 2
2 2
4 b 4 c 4
1 1
b 2 c 2
b 2 c 2
A b 2 c 2 c b
2,b,c are in AP 2,2 d, 2 2d
A d 2d d 2d3 2, 16
3
d 1, 8
2d 2, 4
2 2d 4, 6
86. 1 Form
f 3 x f 2x f 3 f 2
k lim
x 0 x 1 f 2 x f 2
f' 3 x f' 2 x
lim
x 0 1 f 2 x f 2 xf' 2 x
0
ek 1
dx
87. I 2/3
x 1 x6
3
dx
2/3
1
x7 1
x6
6 dx dt
Put 1 x t
x7 6
1/3
1 dt 1 1
I 1 C
6 t 2/ 3 2 x6
1/3
6
1 1 x 1/3
x f x 1 x6 C
2 x2
1
f x
2x 3
h 20 h 80
88. ,
y x x y x
h y h x y
,
20 x 80 x
h h 80
1
20 80
100 h
h 1
1600
h 16
x–y y
6 3
89. C3 x 1 log x . x1/4 200
2
1 3
1 logx
x4 2
10
1 3
1 log10 x .log10 x 1
4 2
6t 2 5t 4 0, t log10 x
D 0
So no real solution
All options are incorrect
90. b2 ac
Also roots of ax 2 2bx c 0 are equal
b
x , common root
a
2
b b
d 2e 0
a a
db2 2aeb fa2 0, b2 ac
dac 2eab fa2 0
dc 7eb fa 0
Dividing by ac
d 2e f
0
a b c
d f e
2.
a c b

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Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

(A) 0.75V (B) 0.20V

6. A damped harmonic oscillator has a frequency of 5 oscillations per second. The

9. In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of acceleration due to gravity (g),

12. The election field in a region is given by E Ax B ˆi where E is in NC-1 and x in

If m2 = 0.5 m1 and v3 = 0.5 v1 then v1 is:

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6

18. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:

21. Let A 1 3, A 2 5, and A 1 A2 5. The value of 2A 1 3A 2 3A 1 2A 2 is:

(A) 13/24 (B) 7/18

26. A nucleus A, with a finite de – broglie wavelength A, undergoes spontaneous fission

32. The major product of the following reaction is:

33. The major product of the following reaction is:

36. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

38. For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given:

40. The covalent alkaline earth metal halide

45. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in methane is:

50. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by:

51. The major product in the following reaction is:

52. Polysubstitution is a major drawback in:

55. Among the following molecules / ions

56. The major product obtained in the following reactions is”

57. The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is:

58. The correct statement about ICI5 and ICI4 is:

59. The compound that inhibits the growth of tumors is:

(A) 90% (B) 75%

64. Let f x ax a 0 be written as f x f1 x f2 x , where f1 x is an even function

65. Let f : 1,3 R be defined as

67. Which one of the following, statements is not a tautology:

72. If the system of linear equations

79. The number of integral values of m for which the equation

81. Let a 3iˆ 2ˆj xkˆ and b ˆi ˆj k,

86. Let f : R R be a differentiable function satisfying f’’(3) + f’(2) = 0. Then

JEE (Main) – 2019

31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

For solid cylinder

2. Resistance of wire AB = 400 × 0.01 = 4

3. Charges at inner plates are 1 C and –1 C.

Velocity of charge and Bnet are parallel so

7. Image formed by lens

11. Given initial velocity u = 0 and acceleration

Graph (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

12. E (20x 10)iˆ

14. Applying linear momentum conservation

15. Mass densities of all nuclei are same so their ratio is 1.

16. Angular impulse = change in angular momentum.

Time taken by rod to hit the ground

17. Moment of inertia

19. At saturation state, VCE becomes zero

23. Range = 2RhT 2RhR

24. Minimum energy required (E) = – (Potential energy of

25. Given phase difference = and = 100 rad/s

Let mass of B and C is m each. By momentum conservation

28. Magnetic field at point P

29. isochoric Process d

33. Reaction involves free radical chlorination followed by hydrolysis.

35. [ICl4]– sp3d2

37. Applying steady state of approximation

38. 2SO2 g O2 g 2SO3 g