2022 JEE Main Home Practice Test - 8 - Paper (@vmclectures On Telegram)
2022 JEE Main Home Practice Test - 8 - Paper (@vmclectures On Telegram)
2022 JEE Main Home Practice Test - 8 - Paper (@vmclectures On Telegram)
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other question apart
from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the five previously
answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25,
0.08)
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. If the volume of a gas is doubled either isothermally or adiabatically, in which case change in mean free
path is more.
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isothermal (C) Same in both (D) No change
2. In the given circuit, one of the capacitors was connected to a voltage V0 and then at the moment t = 0
was shorted by means of the switch. Find the amount of heat generated.
1 1 1
(A) CV02 (B) CV02 (C) CV02 (D) CV02
5 3 4
3. A simple telescope consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5
cm is focused on a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from eye lens. If the object
subtends an angle of 2° at the objective, the angular width of the image is (Let tan assuming
small).
(A) 10° (B) 24° (C) 50° (D) (1/6)°
4. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west.
When it is projected towards north with a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 towards
west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are:
ma0 3ma0 ma0 2ma0
(A) east, down (B) west, up
e ev0 e ev0
ma0 2ma0 ma0 3ma0
(C) west, down (D) east, up
e ev0 e ev0
11. In meter bridge experiment AB is wire of 1m of uniform cross section area. If resistivity of AB wire is ,
null point is obtained at a point ‘ l1 ’ distance from A. If resistivity is 2, null point will be ‘ l2 ’ from A
and if left half of the wire has resistivity and right half has resistivity 2, then null point is at ‘ l3 ’.
Choose the correct statement:
12. A non-conducting spherical shell of radius R surrounds a point charge q (q at center). The electric flux
through a cap of the shell of half angle is:
2q q q(2) q
(A) (B) (1 cos ) (C) (D)
0 2 0 40 20
13. The critical angle between a certain transparent medium and air is . A ray of light travelling through air
enters the medium at an angle of incidence equal to its Brewster angle . Therefore, the angle of
refraction is
(A) tan 1 (sin ) (B) tan 1 (sin ) (C) sin 1 (tan ) (D) sin 1 (tan )
14. Two rods are joined between fixed supports as shown in the figure.
Condition for no change in the lengths of individual rods with the increase
of temperature will be.
( 1 , 2 linear expansion co-efficient, A1 , A2 Area of rods,
Y1 , Y2 Young modulus)
A1 1Y1 A1 L11Y1 A1 L22Y2 A1 2Y2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A2 2Y2 A2 L22Y2 A2 L11Y1 A2 1Y1
15. A hollow metallic sphere, the outer and inner diameters of which are d1 and d 2 , floats on the surface of
a liquid. The density of metal is 1 and the density of liquid is 2 . What weight must be added inside the
sphere in order for it to float below the level of liquid?
3
(A) [d13 (2 1 ) d 231 ]g (B) [d1 (2 1 ) d231 ]g
6
4 3 4 3
(C) [d1 (2 1 ) d231 ]g (D) d1 (1 2 ) g
3 3
16. If (i) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, (ii) A = B = C = 1, (iii) A = B = C = 0 and (iv) A = 1 = B, C = 0 then which one
of the following options will satisfy the expression, X A.B.C B.C. A C. A.B.
(A) (1, 0, 1, 1) (B) (1, 0, 1, 0) (C) (0, 1, 1, 1) (D) (1, 1, 1, 0)
17. A very long straight conductor and an isosceles triangular conductor lie in a
plane and are separated from each other as shown in the figure. If a = 10 cm,
b = 20 cm, and h = 10 cm find the coefficient of mutual induction.
(A) 2 107 [1 ln 2] (B) 4 108[1 ln 2]
(C) 4 109 [1 ln 2] (D) 2 1010 [1 ln 2]
20. A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in the
figure. P is a point on the plane of the chord. The gravitational field at P
due to the upper part is I1 and that due to the lower part is I 2 . What is
the relation between them?
(A) I1 I 2 (B) I1 I 2
(C) I1 I 2 (D) No definite relation
SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
21. When at t = 0, a particle at (1, 0, 0) moves towards (4, 4, 12) with a constant speed of 65 m/s.
The position of the particle is measured in meters and time in sec. Assuming constant velocity, the x
co-ordinate of the particle at t = 2 sec is:
22. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest. The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If half of
the kinetic energy is lost by impact, the values of e 4 (where e is coefficient of restitution).
23. In a Wheatstone bridge, three resistance, P, Q and R are connected in the three arms and fourth arm is
formed by two resistance S1 and S 2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced for
P
ratio is (given R 10, S1 6, S 2 3 ).
Q
24. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other.
If lenses are made of different materials of refractive index 1 4/3 and 2 6/5 and R = 40 cm is the
radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of combination
(in meters) is.
25. A vibrating tuning fork of frequency n is placed near the open end of a long cylindrical tube. The tube has
a side opening and is also fitted with a movable reflecting piston. As the piston is moved through 8.75 cm,
26. Two Carnot engines A and B work in cascade such that engine A absorbs heat from a reservoir at 800
K. All the heat rejected by engine A to sink is absorbed by engine B, which rejects heat to a reservoir at
1
300 K. If the efficiency of engine A is , the efficiency of engine B is _____ .
2
27. A rectangular metal plate is made of a non-isotropic material such that its coefficient of linear expansion
along a direction parallel to its length is 1.2 105 C 1 and its coefficient of linear expansion along a
direction parallel to its breadth is 8 106 C 1 . The area of the plate at temperature 30 C is 40cm2 .
When the plate is heated to temperature 80 C , its area increases by ________ cm2 .
28. A small bob of mass 0.2 kg hangs in equilibrium from a massless string of length 0.1 m, whose other end
is fixed. Now, the bob is given a horizontal velocity u such that it starts moving in a circular path in the
2
vertical plane. The bob leaves the circular path when the string makes an angle cos 1 with the
3
vertical. Then, u ________ m/s [Take g 10 m/s2 ]
29. A magnet is moved towards a conducting ring such that a constant current of 10 mA is induced in it. The
total resistance of the ring is 0.5 . During an interval of 5 sec, the magnetic flux through the ring
changes by_____ 103Wb .
30. Light of frequency 8 1015 Hz is incident on a substance of photoelectric work function 6 eV. The
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is ____ eV.
[Take: h 6.6 1034 J . s, e 1.6 1019 C ]
SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. The complex that can show optical isomerism is:
(A) cis- [CrCl2 (ox) 2 ]3 (B) trans- [CrCl2 (ox) 2 ]3
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Neither (A) and (B)
2. The inter-molecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is
(A) ion-ion interaction (B) ion-dipole interaction
(C) London force (D) covalent bond
3. The major products X and Y in the following reaction are
, HBr X
Y
(A) X= Y= (B) X= Y=
(C) X= Y= (D) X= Y=
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(A) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV) (B) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(C) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III) (D) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
7. The third ionization enthalpy is maximum for
(A) Co (B) Ni (C) Mn (D) Zn
8. The number of -bonds between P and O atom in H 4 P2 O7 and number of bonds between P and P atom
in white phosphorus, respectively are
(A) 6 and 4 (B) 8 and 6 (C) 8 and 7 (D) 7 and 4
11. An organic reaction is carried out at 500 K. If the same reaction carried out in the presence of a catalyst
at the same rate, the temperature required is 400 K. What is the activation energy of the uncatalysed
reaction if catalyst lowers the Ea by 20 kJ/mol?
(A) 110 kJ/mol (B) 10 kJ/mol (C) 100 kJ/mol (D) 1000 kJ/mol
1
12. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from n i 8 to n f n, the plot of wave number against 2 will
n
be [ R H = Rydberg constant (in wave number unit)]
(A) Non-linear (B) Linear with slope R H
(C) Linear with slope R H (D) Linear with intercept R H
14. The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be –0.2°C, while it should have been –0.5°C for
pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the diluted sample?
(A) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk (B) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk
(C) 3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk (D) 1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk
15. The correct set of species responsible for photochemical smog is:-
(A) N 2 , NO 2 and hydrocarbons (B) CO 2 , NO 2 , SO 2 and hydrocarbons
(C) NO, NO 2 , O3 and hydrocarbons (D) N 2 , O 2 , O3 and hydrocarbons
16. In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as Fe (II) and NO rather than Fe (III) and NO. These forms
can be differentiated by
(A) Estimating the concentration of iron
(B) Measuring the concentration of CN
(C) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment
(D) Thermally decomposing the compound
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. Which of the following compounds may give blood red colouration while performing Lassaigne's test for
nitrogen?
19. The molar solubility of Cd(OH) 2 is 1.84 105 M in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH) 2 in a
buffer solution of pH = 12 is
2.49
(A) 1.84 105 M (B) 109 M (C) 6.23 1011 M (D) 2.49 1010 M
1.84
20. Which of the following represents correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se,
and Ar?
(A) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (B) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(C) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (D) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
21. Consider the following cell reaction
2
2Fe(s) O 2(g) 4H (aq.)
2Fe(aq.) 2H 2O( l ) E° = 1.67 V
At [Fe 2 ] 103 M, P(O 2 ) 0.1 atm and pH 3, the cell potential at 25°C is ……
2.303RT
Use 0.059
F
22. 10 ml of 1 millimolar surfactant solution forms a monolayer covering 0.24 cm 2 on a polar substrate.
If the polar head is approximated as a cube. Consider the surfactant is adsorbed only on one face of the
cube. What is the edge length of cube? (Answer should be in pm and assume Avogadro’s number
= 6 10 23 ).
23. When the following aldohexose exists in its D-configuration, the total number of stereoisomers in its
pyranose form is.
24. For an element, Cp = 23 + 0.01 T (JK 1mol1 ) . If temperature of 3 moles of that element is raised from
300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of H will be ______ kJ.
25. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton unit) of [Cr(CO) 6 ] is _______ BM.
26. Total number of localized lone pairs in histamine are ______.
27. In 100ml of 5M H 2SO 4 (aq) solution, ‘x’ ml of H 2 O( ) is added. If 20 ml of this diluted H 2SO 4
solution is completely neutralized by 100 ml of 0.4 M NaOH solution, then find numerical value of x.
28. The activity of a sample of a radioactive isotope was found to be 2144 disintegration per minute. After 6
hours, the activity dropped to 1340 disintegration per minute. What is the half-life of radioactive isotope?
(log10 2 0.3)
29. When a system is taken from state A to B along path ACB, as shown in
figure, 8J of heat flows into the system and system does 3J of work. How
much heat flows into the system along the path ADB, if the work done by
the system is 4J?
30. Find out the maximum number of total atoms that can lie in a molecular plane of complex compound of
[Ni(dmg) 2 ] .
SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
8. If mean deviations about median of x, 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x, 8x, 9x, 10x is 30, then | x | equals:-
(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 9
9. The solution of differential equation x 2 ( xdy ydx) ( xy –1) 2 dx is (where c is an arbitrary constant)
1 1 1 1
(A) xy – 1 = cx (B) xy 1 cx 2 (C) c (D) 3 c
xy 1 x ( xy 1) 3
x
1
(A) k = 100, m = 1 (B) k = 99, m
2
1
(C) k = 99, m = 1 (D) k = 100, m
2
x–2 y–4 z2
11. If line is parallel to planes x 3 y – 2 z d 0 and x 2y z 0, then value of
3 4 1
and are
2
(A) 4, (B) 6, 2
3
10 1 10 1
(C) , (D) ,
3 2 3 2
q1 q2 q3
12. If q1 , q2 , q3 are roots of the equation x 64 0, then the value of q2
3
q3 q1 is:-
q3 q1 q2
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 0
13. If two events A and B are such that P(A) > 0 and P( B) 1, then P( A/B ) is equal to:
1 P( A B) P ( A)
(A) 1 – P(A/B) (B) 1 P( A/B) (C) (D)
P( B ) P( B )
14. P is a point lying on line y = x then maximum value of |PA – PB|, (where A (1,3), B (5,2) ) is
3
(A) 5 (B) 2 2 (C) 17 (D)
2
15. If the shortest distance between 2 y 2 – 2 x 1 0 and 2 x 2 – 2 y 1 0 is d then the number of solution of
sin 2 2 d ([,2]) is.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these
16. If the function f :[2, ) [1, ) is defined by f ( x) 3x ( x 2) , then f 1 ( x ) is
(A) 1 1 log3 x (B) 1 1 log3 x
(C) 1 1 log3 x (D) Does not exist
x 12
17. Let f ( x) ,1 x 3.9.[.] denotes the greatest integer function. Then
[ x]
(A) f (x) is increasing function (B) f (x) is decreasing function
1
(C) The greatest value of f (x) is 16.21 (D) The least value of f (x) is 2
3
1
18. If f ( x) 2sin 1 1 x sin 1(2 x(1 x)) where x 0, then f ( x ) has the value equal to
2
2 2
(A) (B) Zero (C) (D)
x(1 x) x(1 x)
19. The point on the ellipse x 2 2 y 2 6 which is nearest to the line x y 7 is
6 3
(A) , (B) (2, –1) (C) (–2, 1) (D) (–2, –1)
5 5
20. The term independent of x in (1 x x 2 x 3 )10 is n then the last digit of (n 2) n is
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 9
SECTION 2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is
an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive
values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
23. For a parabola y 2 2 y 4 x 9 0, the tangent at some point B is 3y = x + 10, where the normal at some
other point K is 27y – 9x + 10 = 0. Let , are the segments of the chord BK cut by the axes of the
parabola. Find the number of integral values of ‘a’ for which the equation 3x 2 – ( ) x
2 353
a 5a 0 has its roots real and distinct.
27
24. A man firing a distant target has 20% chance of hitting the target in one shot. If P be the probability of
hitting the target in atmost ‘n’ attempts where 20P2 –13P 2 0, then maximum value of n is.
12 22 32 ... r 2 n
1
25. If tr
1 2 3 ... r
3 3 3 3
, S n (1) r tr , then lim Sn
n 3
r 1
2 x 24 x 10
26. lim is equal to______.
x 3 2 x /3 22 x
27. If the sum of the coefficients of all powers of x of form '4k ' where k is a positive integer in the product
(1 x 2 x 4 ....x 4n )(1 x 2 x 4 x6 ..... x 4 n ) is 152, then n is equal to_____.
28. The standard deviation of first five odd integers is a b where a and b are prime numbers, then 3a b is
equal to______.
29. Let A(3, 2) , B(8, 5) and C (1, 1) be the vertices of triangle ABC. If P is point inside the triangle ABC
such that the triangles APC, APB and BPC have equal areas, then length of line segment PQ, where Q is
the point (9, 10) is _____.
30. Let S be the set of points where the function f ( x) | x | 1 , x R , is not differentiable. Then,