Multiple Choice Questions

Soil Microbiology
1) In relation to bacterium's optimal growth requirements, which group would you
expect to be most likely involved in decomposition of compost piles
a) Acidophiles
b) Psychrophiles
c) Mesophiles
d) Thermophiles
2) Because the soil primarily is an environment; the elements, such as carbon,
nitrogen, sulfur and iron, will tend to be in the state in the soil.
a) Aerobic; oxidized
b) Aerobic; reduced
c) Anaerobic; oxidized
d) Anaerobic; reduced
3) is the process in which microorganisms are used as a food source resulting in
nitrogen and phosphorous mineralization?
a) Nitrogen fixation
b) Ammonification
c) Microbivory
d) Eutrophication
4) The is where organisms that are found on and in the aerial surface plants are
growing.
a) Rhizosphere
b) Rhizoplane
c) Phyllosphere
d) Microfilm
5) The function of growth promoting rhizobacteria is to
a) Inhibit competing bacteria by producing antibiotics
b) Enhance mycorrhizal activity.
c) Produce biologically active substance.
d) Promote plant growth by producing chemical signals
6) Which of the following genera synthesizes Nod factors in order to activate a plant to
allow development of an infection thread
a) Agrobacterium
b) Pseudomonas
c) Frankia
d) Rhizobium
7) The nitrogen-fixation form of the Rhizobium bacterium is called a
a) Infection thread
b) T-plasmid
c) Symbiosome.
d) Bacteroid.
8) Methanotrophic bacteria
a) Oxidize methane gas
b) Produce methane gas
c) Utilize methane as the electron source for reduction processes
d) Are responsible for the greenhouse effect

9) I. The rate of flux of oxygen in air

 II.The rate of flux of oxygen in water.
a) I is exactly or approximately equal to II
b) II is greater than I
c) I is greater than II
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
10) The concentration of CO2 in air.
II. The concentration of CO2 in soil atmospheric spaces
a) I is greater than II
b) II is greater than I
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
11) The ability of lignin to be degraded in aerobic environments
II. The ability of lignin to be degraded in anaerobic environments
a) I is greater than II
b) II is greater than I
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
12) The function of mycorrhizae is to
I. Increase the availability of nutrients to plants.
II. aid in water uptake for plants in arid environments
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
c) Both I and II are true
d) Neither I nor II are true
13) Members of the genus Frankia are
I. Capable of nitrogen fixation for trees and shrubs.
II. readily cultivated bacteria
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
c) Both I and II are true
d) Neither I nor II are true
14) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
a) The length of time it takes for a population of cells to double.
b) The maximum rate of doubling divided by the initial count.
c) The duration of log phase.
d) The time it takes for nuclear division
15) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations
did the cells go through?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 32
d) 64
16) A culture of bacteria produces 5 generations in 2 hours. What is the generation time
for this bacterium under those conditions?

a) 15 minutes
b) 24 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
17) An organism is completely dependent on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is
a(n)
 a) Osmotolerant.
b) Acidophile
c) Facultative anaerobe
d) Obligate aerobe.
18) An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very
high. This organism is a(n)
a) Osmotolerant
b) Acidophile
c) Neutrophile
d) Aerotolerant anaerobe
19) The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
a) Requires less oxygen than is present in air.
b) Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent.
c) Is killed by oxygen.
d) Doesn’t use oxygen but tolerates it.
20) The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism that
a) Doesn’t use oxygen but tolerates it
b) Is killed by oxygen.
c) Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent.
d) Requires less oxygen than is present in air.
21) The term aero-tolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that
a) Doesn’t use oxygen but can grow in the presence oxygen.
b) Is killed by oxygen.
c) Requires less oxygen than is present in air.
d) Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when absent.
22) If it is noticed that a culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear
throughout the rest of the tube. What could be concluded
a) Organism are aerobes.
b) Organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber.
c) Organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/or catalase.
d) Organism cannot tolerate oxygen.
23) Who first described microorganisms such as bacteria?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Fannie Hesse
d) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
24) What was the first successful solid medium for colony purification of bacteria?
a) Agar
b) Potato
c) Meat
d) Gelatin Meat
25) The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The
microbiological term describing this shape is
a) Coccus
b) Bacillus
c) Pleomorphic
d) None of these
26) Another common bacterial shape is that of a rod, often called
a) Coccus
b) Bacillus
c) Pleomorphic
d) None of these
27) Gram positive cells
a) Have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
b) Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
c) Have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
d) Have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
28) Adenosine triphosphate is a type of
a) Fatty acid.
b) Enzyme
c) Amino acid.
d) Nucleotide
29) A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called the site
a) Coenzyme
b) Substrate
c) Active
d) Cofactor
30) Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
a) Proper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway.
b) Improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway
c) Loss of the enzyme's proper shape.
d) Formation of the enzyme's proper shape.
31) ATP is required to do
a) Chemical work
b) Transport work.
c) Mechanical work.
d) All of the above types of work.
32) The prokaryote does not have a well defined
a) Classification
b) Nucleus
c) Structure
d) Cell membrane
33) PCR stands for Polymerase chain
a) Residues
b) Resistance
c) Recycling
d) Reaction.
34) The term metabolism refers to the sum total of the biochemical reactions that occur
within
a) Living cells
b) Plant cells
c) Animal cells
d) Microbes
35) N in NO3 has an oxidation state of
a) -5
b) +5
c) +2
d) -3
36) Sites where enzymes are bound with the reactants are called sites of
enzymes.
a) Energy
b) Active
c) Concentrated
d) Feedback sites
37) Sites around the plant roots where food for microbes is more abundant is called

a) Enriched soil
b) Rhizosphere
c) Rhizoplane
d) All these
38) . Commensalisms is an interaction.
a) Neutral
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Passive
39) Main classes of plant growth regulators are
a) Thee
b) Five
c) Two
d) Nine
40) C/N ration determines whether nitrogen would be
a) Lost
b) Leached
c) Volatilized
d) Mineralized or immobilized.

41) Biostimulation is addition of to stimulate indigenous

microorganisms.
a) Water
b) Gasses
c) Growth regulators
d) Nutrients

42) is defined as use of plants to remove, contain or transform

contaminants.
a) Bioremediation
b) Phytoremediation
c) Bioaugmentation
d) Biostimulation
43) Composting is use of---------thermophilic microorganisms.
a) Anaerobic
b) Aerobic and anaerobic
c) Aerobic
d) Facultative anaerobic
44) A substance that promotes the rate of reaction is called-------
a) Catalyst
b) Stimulant
c) Enhancer
d) Regulator
45) is the microbial production of nitrate from the oxidation of reduced
N compounds?
a) Nitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Volatilization
d) Mineralization
46) L-Tryptophan is a precursor of
a) Cytokinin
b) Kinetin
c) IAA
d) Auxin
47) Covalently bound enzymes are called groups.
a) Intracellular
b) Intercellular
c) Constitutive
d) Prosthetic
48) Enzymes needed for fundamental cellular processes are called
enzymes.
a) Intracellular
b) Intercellular
c) Constitutive
d) Prosthetic
49) An enzyme that catalyzes biochemical reaction occurring within cell are called
enzyme.
a) Intracellular
b) Intercellular
c) Constitutive
d) Prosthetic
50) Luciferin is an aromatic compound found naturally in
a) Fireflies
b) Basmati rice
c) Onion
d) None of these
51) Process where internally produced organic electron donors and acceptors are used is
called
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Anaerobic respiration
d) Fermentation
52) In anaerobic respiration nitrate, sulfate, and carbon dioxide act as an
a) Electron acceptor
 b) Electron donor
c) Electron carrier
d) Electron sink
53) The utilization of carbon dioxide as a terminal electron acceptor to produce methane
is called
a) Methylation
b) Methanogenesis
c) Carboxylation
d) All these
54) Light pigment in plants is called
a) Chlorophyll
b) Xanthophylls
c) Photosynthates
d) Energy carrier
55) DNA stands for
a) Deoxyribonucleic acid
b) Derivative nucleotides
c) Derivative nucleic acid
d) Double ribonucleic acid
56) Nucleotides are composed of sugar, phosphate and
a) Purine
b) Pyrimidine
c) Purine or pyrimidine
d) Purine and pyrimidine
57) Mesophiles grow at temperature of

a) 20-35 Celsius
b) 20-35 Fahrenheit
c) At freezing
d) At boiling
58) PCR is used for
a) DNA extraction
b) DNA replication
c) Gene identification
d) DNA amplification
59) Microbes that tolerate high salt concentration are said to be
a) Osmotolerant
b) Mesotolerant
c) Salt inhibitor
d) Rhizosphere bacteria
60) Conversion of NH4 to NO3 is called
a) Ammonification
b) Nitrification
c) Mineralization
d) Immobilization
61) Most common type of interaction among soil microbes is
a) Symbiosis
b) Competition
c) Commensalisms
d) No interaction
62) Bacteria may have negative effect on other microbes by producing
 a) Antibiotics
b) Hormones
c) Enzymes
d) Amino acids
63) Bacteria influence plant growth by producing
a) Hormones
b) Toxins
c) Hormones or toxins
d) Spores
64) Microbes living in water filled pores are called
a) Mesophiles
b) Aquatic microbes
c) Aerobic
d) Xerophiles
65) Legume-rhizobium is an example of
a) Mutualism
b) Commensalisms
c) Predation
d) Symbiosis
66) Leguminous plants form mutalistic symbiosis with bacteria of genera

a) Rhizobium
b) Azotobacter
c) Azospirilum
d) Bacillus
67) Rhizobium invade plant via to make nodule
a) Rhizoid
b) Stem
c) Pericycle
d) Root hair
68) Root nodule is a structure
a) Multicellular
b) Unicellular
c) Tricellular
d) Bicellular
69) Bacteria can fix nitrogen gas into
a) Nitrate
b) Nitric oxide
c) Ammonia
d) Amino acid
70) In symbiosis plant supplies bacteria
a) Fats
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Reduced carbon
71) Feeding of one organism upon other is called
a) Mutualism
b) Commensalisms
c) Predation
d) Symbiosis
72) Most of the soil microbes live in
 a) Rhizosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Rhizoplane
d) Root niches
73) All compounds coming out of roots are called
a) Lysates
b) Exudates
c) Excretions
d) None of these
74) Compounds in exudates include
a) Sugars,
b) Amino acids
c) Vitamins
d) All these
75) Concentration of carbon in rhizosphere as the distance
from roots increases
a) Declines
b) Increases
c) Remain unchanged
d) Become neutral
76) Breaking of seed coat is called
a) Stratification
b) Liquefaction
c) Scarification
d) Purification
77) Microbes can produce iron-chelating compounds called
a) Inoculum
b) Humus
c) Siderophores
d) None of these
78) Microbial population that colonize the of root are called endophytes
a) Interior
b) Exterior
c) Surface
d) Tip
79) Narrow C:N ratio results in net
a) Mineralization
b) Immobilization
c) Nitrification
d) Denitrification
80) Wide C:N ratio results in
a) Mineralization
b) Immobilization
c) Nitrification
d) Denitrification
81) Hemicelluloses are to decompose than sugars
a) Difficult
b) Easier
c) Comparable
d) Faster
82) Conversion of organic compound to ammonium is called
 a) Ammonification
b) Immobilization
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Aminization
83) Conversion of NO3 to NO2 is called
a) Ammonification
b) Immobilization
c) Denitrification
d) Aminization
84) Volatilization of N can be a severe hazard to
a) Water bodies
b) Agriculture
c) Industry
d) Environment
85) NO3 can leach down from soil and pollute the
a) Ground water
b) Environment
c) Air
d) All these
86) is/are involved in nitrification process
a) Nitrosomonas
b) Nitrobacter
c) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
d) Nitrosomonas or Nitrobacter
87) There are major classes of plant growth regulators.
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Five
d) Three
88) Composting is a better option to handle as compared to other
techniques.
a) Waste
b) Radioactive waste
c) Household garbage
d) Industrial waste
89) is used for sterilization of media in lab
a) Autoclave
b) Oven
c) Water bath
d) Incubator
90) is an enzyme involved in BNF?
a) Nitrogenase
b) Lipase
c) Urease
d) Phosporylase
91) Nitrogen fixation is often measured by stable method
a) Isotope 15N
b) Isotope 16N
c) Radioactive nitrogen
d) Standard
92) N2 fixation is often evident in old plants.
 a) 30 days old plants
b) 60 days old plant
c) 15 days old plant
d) 10 days old plant
93) During inoculation, should adhere well to the seed.
a) Inoculum
b) Peat
c) Sugar
d) Broth
94) Nitrification rate is often low in soil below pH
a) 10
b) 14
c) 9.5
d) 4.5
95) Clover nodules are
a) Club shaped
b) Spherical
c) Triangular
d) Circular
96) Soybean nodules are
a) Spherical
b) Club shaped
c) Triangular
d) Angular
97) HUP+ diazotrophs have BNF efficiency compared to HUP- ones
a) More
b) Less
c) Similar
d) Parallel
98) SO4 reduction by adding organic matter.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain unchanged
d) May increase or decrease
99) Calvin cycle was first described in
a) Bacteria
b) Plants
c) Animals
d) Green algae.
100) The of fungus is called thallus.
a) Vegetative body
b) Root
c) Seed
d) Fruit
101) Obligate anaerobic bacteria obtain energy either by anaerobic respiration or

a) Symbiosis
b) Fermentation
c) Photosynthesis
d) Photorespiration
102) are most abundant microorganisms in soil?
 a) Bacteria
b) Fungus
c) Virus
d) Beneficial bacteria
103) The basis of living matter is
a) Cell
b) Energy
c) DNA
d) RNA
104) Bacteria those can tolerate dry conditions are called
a) Osmotoleran
b) Mesotolerant
c) Desert bacteria
d) Xerophiles
105) cycling is the driving force behind nearly all nutrient cycling
reactions.
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Phosphorus
d) Potassium
106) is the dominant high energy phosphorus compound in the cell.
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) NAH
d) NADPH
107) Rod shaped bacterial cells are called
a) Cocci
b) Gram positive
c) Gram negative
d) Bacilli
108) Bacteria possess small DNA called
a) Bacteriod
b) Plasmid
c) Miniature DNA
d) PseudoDNA
109) Aerotolerant bacteria obtain energy exclusively by
a) Symbiosis
b) Fermentation
c) Photosynthesis
d) Photorespiration
110) Bacteria that can tolerate high salts concentration are called
a) Halophiles
b) Mesotolerant
c) Desert bacteria
d) Xerophiles
111) Plant carbon on an average has of lignin
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 50-60%
d) 10-30%
112) As plant decomposition proceeds, C: N ratio
 a) Become stagnant
b) Rises
c) Falls
d) Fluctuate
113) NH3 oxidizers are responsible for lowering of soil.
a) pH
b) Moisture
c) Redox potential
d) Organic matter
114) The nitrogen fixing bacteria responsible for nodulation on stem are called

a) Rhizobium
b) Azorhizobium
c) Bradyrhizobium
d) Azotobacter
115) Inoculation of contaminated soil with microbes is called
a) Bioventing
b) Biostimulation
c) Bioaugmentation
d) Enrichment
116) is process where gaseous stimulants are added during
bioremediation.
a) Bioventing
b) Biostimulation
c) Bioaugmentation
d) Bioradiation
117) Spreading and mixing of on soil is called landfarming.
a) Mulch
b) Contaminants
c) Seed
d) Fertilizer
118) Atrazine degradation is possible by
a) Bioremediation
b) Phytoremediation
c) Bioremediation and Phytoremediation
d) Bioreactors
119) During composting high temperature pathogens.
a) Can kill
b) Cannot Kill
c) Can increase
d) Can modify
120) produced by microbes are measured as IAA equivalents.
a) Precursors
b) Enzymes
c) Ethylene
d) Auxins
121) is a gaseous hormone.
a) Ethylene
b) Auxins
c) Cytokinin
d) Kinetin
122) has specific role in fruit ripening.
a) Ethylene
b) Auxins
c) Cytokinin
d) Kinetin
123) Compost can be enriched with
a) Nitrogen
b) PGRs.
c) Phosphorus
d) All these
124) Organic matter in soil can decrease the effect of
a) Nitrogen
b) Toxins
c) Phosphorus
d) Growth regulators
125) Phosphatase enzyme can solubelize
a) Phosphorus
b) DAP
c) SSP
d) TSP
126) is/are greenhouse gases.
a) CO2
b) Methane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) CO2, methane and nitrous oxide
127) Eutrofication is a process where excessive enter in to water.
a) Pestisides
b) Herbisides
c) Nutrients
d) Hormones
128) is/are the primary causes of acid rain.
a) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen
129) Acid rain is measured by measuring
a) pH
b) Redox potential
c) Carbonic acid
d) Hydrogen peroxide
130) With the increase of global warming sea level would
a) Drop
b) Rise
c) Be unchanged
d) Fluctuate
131) In soil competition exists among enormous variety of organism for
 a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Micronutrients
d) All Nutrients
132) Fitness of organism to survive in a particular environment is called
a) Evolution
b) Tolerance
c) Acclimatization
d) Variation
133) Bacteria, actinomycetes, Fungi and algae are referred to collectively as

a) Microfauna
b) Macrofauna
c) Microflora
d) Archaea
134) Inventor of microscope Leeuwenhoek was from _
a) France
b) Netherlands
c) Germany
d) USA
135) Resistant structure produced by bacteria is called
a) Endosperm
b) Angiosperm
c) Sporidium
d) None of these
136) Microbiologists define species a group of similar individual that are
a) Also similar to other groups
b) Not similar to other groups
c) Similar in genetic character
d) Similar in physical appearance
137) To grow a particular group of microorganism’s media is used.
a) Simple
b) Selective
c) Nutrient
d) Nitrogen free media
138) All of the following are true about releasing untreated sewage into a river
except
a) It is a health hazard.
b) It increases the BOD.
c) It decreases the dissolved oxygen.
 d) It kills bacteria.
139) Which of the following statements is true?
a) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
b) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
c) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together & benefiting from each other.
d) A parasite is not in a symbiosis with its host.
140) Higher plants most often absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of
a) N2
b) Nitrites
c) Ammonia
d) Nitrites
141) Recalcitrant remain is soil for period
a) Prolong
b) Short
c) Minimum
d) Dry
142) Broad types of soil are mineral and
a) Organic soil
b) Fine textured soils
c) Loamy soils
d) Moist soils
143) soil is required for the functions of organisms.
a) Water logged
b) Aerated
c) Cultivated
d) Salt affected soils
144) The zone of soil under the influence of plant roots is called

a) Rhizoplane
b) Rhizosphere
c) Biosphere
d) Enriched soil
145) refers to biochemical reactions that occur within living cells.
a) Metabolism
b) Catabolism
c) Anabolism
d) Intercellular reaction
146) Biochemical reactions in metabolism yielding energy are called
reactions.

a) Exergonic
b) Endergonic
c) Catalytic reaction
d) Enzymatic reaction
147) ATP stands for
a) Adenosine tri phosphate
b) Adenosine triple phosphate
c) Adenosine terminal phosphate
d) Active transport phosphate
148) In biochemical reactions acts as an electron carries.
a) ATP
 b) NAD
c) ADP
d) AMP
149) Most organisms obtain cellular energy from the biodegradation of energy rich

a) Organic compounds
b) Inorganic compound
c) Recalcitrant compounds
d) Radioactive compounds
150) Anabolism and catabolism are functions.
a) Similar
b) Different
c) Complementary
d) Energy requiring
151) Photosynthetically active algae could be referred as
a) Photolithoautotroph
b) Autotroph
c) Heterotroph
d) Parasite
152) Reduction refers to the of electron.
a) Giving
b) Acceptance
c) Giving and taking
d) Partial charges
153) H2→2H+2e- is an example of
a) Reductions
b) Oxidation
c) Hydration
d) Hydrolysis
154) Enzymes are specialized
a) Fats
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Carbohydrates
155) In enzymatic reactions feedback inhibition and end-product inhibition are two

a) Different processes
b) Similar process
c) Energy releasing reactions
d) Energy requiring reaction

156) In respiration alternate electron acceptors are used.

a) Anaerobic
b) Aerobic
c) Photo
d) Cuticle
157) In anaerobic respiration energy is produced as compared to
aerobic respiration.
a) More
b) Less
c) Equivalent
 d) Zero
158) is reduction of nitrate to gaseous products.
a) Denitrification
b) Nitrification
c) Mineralization
d) Immobilization
159) shaped cells are called bacilli.
a) Rod
b) Spherical
c) Club
d) Irregular
160) Gram-positive bacteria have a thick cell wall and
a) Thick outer membrane
b) Thin outer membrane
c) No outer membrane
d) Double outer membrane
161) After gram staining Gram-negative bacteria appear as
a) Pink
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Colorless
162) Substances that are required in large quantity are called
a) Macronutrient.
b) Micronutrients
c) Secondary nutrients
d) Essential nutrients
163) Actinomycetes often predominate in soils subjected to prolonged

a) Wetting
b) Drying
c) Anoxia
d) Freezing
164) is produced by a group of microbes known as methanogens.
a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Ethylene
d) Ethyl alcohol
165) Bacillus is a bacterium.
a) Gram negative
b) Gram positive
c) Endophyte
d) Halophyte
166) Dilution plate technique is used to bacteria.
a) Count
b) Classify
c) Identify
d) Modify
167) Selective media contain ingredients which allow_ type of bacteria
to grow.
a) All
b) Specific
 c) Nitrogen fixing
d) ACC deaminase
168) is easiest portion in organic matter to be decayed.
a) Lignin
b) Cellulose
c) Hemicellulose
d) Sugar
169) Use of N2 fixing crops also has the potential to reduce the contamination of
ground water with
a) Nitrate
b) Ammonium
c) Nitrites
d) Aminoacids
170) Blue green algae and frankia can fix nitrogen as
a) Symbiosis
b) Free living
c) Associative symbiosis
d) Host guest symbiosis
171) Actinomycetes are usually found in habitats.
a) Soil
b) Freshwater
c) Marine
d) All of these.
172) Actinomycetes form spores that are
a) They do not form spores
b) Both asexual and sexual
c) Are used for sexual reproduction
d) Asexual
173) Most probable number is also a method to
a) Enumerate soil organisms
b) Analyse data
c) Know probability
d) Make an inoculum
174) Which of the following terms describes organisms that thrive in the cold?
a) Mesophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Psychrophiles
d) Aerophiles
175) Which of the following refers to the addition of microorganisms to the diet in
order to provide health benefits beyond basic nutritive value?
a) Prebiotics
b) Adjuvants
c) Probiotics
d) Antibiotics
176) Continuous feed during fermentation is used to maintain
a) Temperature
b) Water level.
c) Product concentration.
d) Substrate concentration.
177) Which of the following have NOT been used in various bioconversions?
a) Yeasts
 b) Viruses
c) Actinomycetes
d) Unicellular bacteria
178) Which of the following best describes biodegradation?
a) A minor change in an organic molecule
b) Fragmentation of a complex organic molecule
c) Complete transformation of the organic molecule to mineral forms
d) All of the above
179) - corroding organisms are becoming very problematic.
a) Titanium
b) Gold
c) Aluminum
d) Iron
180) Nonbiological foreign chemicals are termed:
a) Antibiotics
b) Xenobiotics
c) Prebiotics
d) Probiotics
181) seem to be the most efficient at degradation of nonbiological
chemicals.
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Animals
182) Microbial growth is the outcome of reactions occurring in
cell.
a) Hundreds of chemicals
b) A few
c) Enzymatic
d) Catalytic
183) Oligotrophs grow much better at concentration of substrate
a) Low
b) High
c) Very high
d) Medium
184) Root nodule is a structure.
a) Single cell
b) Multicellular
c) Bicellular
d) Tricellular
185) Surface of plant roots is called _
a) Rhizosphere
b) Rhizoplane
 c) Phyllosphere
d) Microfilm
186) Rhizosphere pH
a) May fluctuate
b) Remain permanent
c) Remain acidic
d) Always basic
187) Crop enhances beneficial microbes
a) Age
b) Rotation
c) Maturity
d) Size
188) from roots is difficult to calculate
a) Exact rate of exudation
b) Mass
c) Moisture
d) Lysates
189) Increased exudation can result from extreme temperature and

a) Water logging
b) Water stress
c) Hormones
d) PGPR
190) are substrates for microbial growth.
a) Plant roots
b) Plant exudates
c) Plant lysates
d) None of these
191) Competition for nutrients is more in soil.
a) Rhizosphere than non-rhizosphere
b) Non-rhizosphere than rhizosphere
c) Grassland
d) Forest
192) Who first described microorganisms such as bacteria?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
c) Fannie Hesse
d) Robert Koch
193) Who first developed the process of colony purification on solid media?
a) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
b) Fannie Hesse
c) Robert Koch
d) Louis Pasteur
194) The primary use of Koch's postulates is to
a) Develop vaccines for specific diseases.
b) Demonstrate that a disease is caused by a microorganism.
c) Isolate microorganisms from diseased animals.
d) Clearly identify and characterize a particular microorganism.
195) Which of the following is not part of Koch's postulates?
a) The microorganism must secrete a toxin in culture.
 b) The microorganism must cause disease in healthy animals.
c) The microorganisms is always found in diseased animals.
d) The microorganism is never found in healthy animals.
196) Plant growth promoting rhizobacteria
a) Exophytic
b) Exophytic
c) May be exophytic or entophytic
d) Neither exophytic nor entophytic
197) Inoculation with more than one strain is called
a) Co-inoculation
b) Multiple inoculation
c) Enriched inoculation
d) None of these
198) Humus is a decomposed form of
a) Soil organic matter
b) Hormones
c) Soil microbes
d) Hemicellulose
199) Thermophilic bacteria can live in
a) High temperature
b) At low temperature
c) At freezing temperature
d) Water logged soils
200) The storage product of cyanobacteria is like.
a) Protein
b) Starch
c) Fat
d) Lipid

Short Key Soil Microbiology

1(d), 2(a), 3(c), 4(c), 5(c), 6(d), 7(c), 8(a), 9(c), 10(b), 11(a), 12(c), 13(a), 14(a), 15(a),
16(b), 17(d), 18(b), 19(b), 20(b), 21(a), 22(a), 23(d), 24(b), 25(a), 26(b), 27(b), 28(d),
29(c), 30(c), 31(d), 32(b), 33(d), 34(a), 35(b), 36(b), 37(b), 38(b), 39(b), 40(d), 41(d),
42(b), 43(c), 44(a), 45(a), 46(d), 47(d), 48(c), 49(a), 50(a), 51(d), 52(a), 53(b), 54(a),
55(a),
56(c), 57(a), 58(d), 59(a), 60(b), 61(b), 62(a), 63(c), 64(b), 65(d), 66(a), 67(d), 68(a),
69(c),
70(d), 71(c), 72(a), 73(b), 74(d), 75(a), 76(c), 77(c), 78(a), 79(a), 80(b), 81(d), 82(a),
83(c),
84(d), 85(a), 86(c), 87(c), 88(a), 89(a), 90(a), 91(a), 92(c), 93(a), 94(d), 95(a), 96(a),
97(a),
98(a), 99(d), 100(a), 101(b), 102(a), 103(a), 104(d), 105(a), 106(a), 107(d), 108(b),
109(b),
110(a), 111(d), 112(c), 113(a), 114(b), 115(c), 116(a), 117(b), 118(c), 119(a), 120(d),
 121(a), 122(a), 123(d), 124(b), 125(a), 126(d), 127(c), 128(a), 129(a), 130(b), 131(d),
132(a), 133(c), 134(b), 135(a), 136(b), 137(b), 138(d), 139(c), 140(b), 141(a), 142(a),
143(b), 144(b), 145(a), 146(a), 147(a), 148(b), 149(a), 150(b), 151(a), 152(b), 153(b),
154(b), 155(b), 156(a), 157(b), 158(a), 159(a), 160(c), 161(a), 162(a), 163(b), 164(b),
165(b), 166(a), 167(b), 168(d), 169(a), 170(b), 171(a), 172(d), 173(a), 174(c), 175(c),
176(d), 177(b), 178(d), 179(d), 180(b), 181(b), 182(a), 183(a), 184(a), 185(b), 186(a),
187(b), 188(a), 189(b), 190(b), 191(a), 192(b), 193(c), 194(b), 195(a), 196(c), 197(a),
198(a), 199(a), 200(b)

Multiple choice questions (Saline Agriculture)

1. Sampling of soils in which a no. of samples are bulked together is called

a) Grid sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Stratified
d) Composite sampling
2. Measure of conductance of a substance to electrical current is
a) Resistance
b) Conductance
c) Resistivity
d) Electrical conductivity
3. Repulsion of like charges is known as
a) Electrostatic repulsion
b) Thermostatic repulsion
c) Hydrostatic repulsion
d) Electrical repulsion
4. A state in which free standing water occurs on the soil surface is termed as
a) Field capacity
b) Permanent wilting point
c) Available water
d) Flooding
5. Gypsum is also called
a) Hydrated calcium sulphate
b) Pyrite
c) Brucite
d) Anhydrous mica
6. plants are capable of growth at high salt concentrations
a) Glycophytes
b) Hydrophytes
c) Halophytes
d) Non-halophytes
7. is an example of halophyte plants
a) Maize
b) Salt bush
c) Rice
d) Wheat
8. Volume of the soil occupied by the plant roots is called
a) Bulk soil
 b) Root zone
c) Canopy
d) Hydrosphere
9. Conversion of inorganic form into organic form is called
a) Immobilization
b) Mineralization
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
10. of organic form into inorganic form is called mineralization
a) Inversion
b) Conversion
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
11. is an approach of production from salt affected lands by growing salt
tolerant plants
a) Saline agriculture
b) Soil chemistry
c) Soil physics
d) Microbiology
12. is the measure of concentration of salts in a soil or solution
a) Sodicity
b) Acidity
c) Alkalinity
d) Salinity
13. Sodic soils are the soils with excess salts of
a) Sodium
b) Chloride
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
14. SAR stands for
a) Sodium adsorption ratio
b) Sodium absorption ratio
c) Silicon acquisition rate
d) Sample analysis rate
15. Permanent wilting point is the lower limit of
a) Available water
b) Field capacity
c) Capillary water
d) Saturation percentage
16. pH of soil is also known as
a) Soil reaction
b) Porosity
c) Bulk density
d) None of these
17. RSC stands for
a) Residual sodium carbonate
b) Resistant sodium and carbon
c) Relative sodium carbamate
d) Resistant Sulphur compounds
18. Total soluble salts are synonymous of
a) Electrical conductivity
b) Cation exchange capacity
c) Anion exchange capacity
d) Total dissolved salts
_
19. Cl is an example of
a) Anion
b) Cation
c) Molecule
d) Neutral atom
20. Calculation used for determination of sodicity of soils is
a) Residual sodium carbonate
b) Sodium adsorption ratio
c) Exchangeable sodium percentage
d) Electrical conductivity
21. What is the soil extract taking by sucking water from saturated soil paste?
 a) Soil saturation extract
b) Extract
c) Soil solution
d) Soil suspension
22. Most important effect of is decrease in Availability of O2
a) Salinity
b) Water-logging
c) Photosynthesis
d) Respiration
23. Rice can withstand flooding due to development of tissue
a) Aerenchyma
b) Parenchyma
c) Sclarenchyma
d) Epidermal
24. Layer of salts and soil particles found on the surface of dry saline soils is
a) Salt crust
b) Soil crust
c) Hard-pan
d) Surface crust
25. is the atomic weight, formula weight or molecular weight expressed in
grams
a) Mole
b) Gram equivalent
c) Mole fraction
d) Normality
26. Relative proportion of different soil separates is called
a) Structure
b) Texture
c) Bulk density
d) Pore space

27. Water-logging is a condition in which soil pores are filled with

a) Air
b) Water
c) Air and water
d) Fluid
28. The surface below which the soil is saturated with water is known as
a) Water-logging
b) Water table
c) Rhizosphere
d) Rhizoplane
29. The climate of Pakistan is
a) Tropical
b) Arid
c) Semi-arid
d) Both b and c
30. Accumulation of salts at the soil surface is characteristic of
areas
a) Humid
 b) Sub-humid
c) Tropical
d) Arid and semi-arid
31. Natural salinity is also known as
a) Primary salinity
b) Indiginous
c) Insitu
d) Secondary salinity
32. Secondary salinity is a result of activities of
a) Rodents
b) Plants
c) Human
d) Other animals
33. The approach using drainage schemes from reclamation of saline soils is
a) Engineering approach
b) Scientific approach
c) Saline agriculture
d) Farmer’s approach
34. Use of amendments and heavy irrigation for improving soil conditions is
a) Engineering approach
b) Scientific approach
c) Reclamation approach
d) Farmer’s approach
35. SCARP stands for
a) Salinity control and reclamation project
b) Salinity control and reclamation programme
c) Salt control agri. research plan
d) Both b and c
36. Methyl orange is the indicator used for the determination of
a) CO3
b) HCO3
c) Na
d) K
37. is the moles of solute per Kg of solvent
a) Molarity
b) Normality
c) Molality
d) Percentage
38. A soil having pH less than 7 is
a) Alkaline soil
b) Normal soil
c) Acidic soil
d) Neutral soil
39. Acidic soil has pH
a) 7
b) 9.5
c) 10
d) Less than 7
40. Clay particles have charge
a) Negative
b) Positive
 c) Neutral
d) None of these
41. Anion exchange capacity is usually represented as
a) AEC
b) aec
c) Aec
d) AeC
42. Dehydration is of water
a) Addition
b) Removal
c) Substitution
d) Both a & b
43. SCARP was monitored by
a) WAPDA
b) PIDA
c) NIAB
d) AARI
44. Reclamation approach include the use of
a) Gypsum
b) Acid
c) Heavy irrigation
d) All of the above
45. Halophytes are also known as
a) Salt loving plants
b) Salt sensitive plants
c) Salt excluders
d) Herbaceous
46. The local name for saline soils is
a) Thur
b) Bara
c) Thur-bara
d) Shor
47. Sodic soils are termed as
a) Black alkali
b) Grey alkali
c) Calcareous
d) Natric
48. Sand particles have the diameter of
a) Less than 0.002mm
b) More than 0.002mm
c) 0.002mm
d) Between 0.02-2.0 mm
49. Saline-sodic soils have characteristics of
a) Saline soils
b) Sodic soils
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
50. Saline soils are also known as
a) White alkali
b) Grey alkali
c) Calcareous
 d) Natric
51. The local name for sodic soils is
a) Thur
b) Bara
c) Thur-bara
d) Shor
52. The soils are difficult to reclaim without using
amendments
a) Saline
b) Sodic
c) Saline-sodic
d) Productive
53. Saline-sodic soils initially have permeability
a) Good
b) Poor
c) No so good
d) No

54. Growth of Salt sensitive plants is sensitive to even of salts

a) Moderate concentration
b) High concentration
c) Low concentration
d) Very high concentration
55. For soil analysis of normal crop growing areas, soil samples are taken up to
a) 15cm b) 30cm c) 50cm d) 100cm
56. The local name for saline-sodic soils is
a) Thur
b) Bara
c) Thur-bara
d) Shor
57. The unit of electrical conductivity is
a) dSm-1
b) molesm-3
c) ohm
d) meL-1
58. Clay particles have the diameter of
a) Less than 0.002mm
b) More than 0.002mm
c) 0.002mm
d) 2.0 mm
59. Salinity is the measure of concentration of in a soil or solution
a) Salts
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Both b and c
60. Silt particles have the diameter of
a) Less than 0.002mm
b) More than 0.002mm
c) 0.002mm
 d) 2.0 mm
61. Sand particles have charge
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral
d) None of these
62. Soil structure is the tendency of soil to form
a) Aggregates
b) Clods
c) Bricks
d) Rock
63. Plants cannot grow if they are irrigated with water of
a) High salinity
b) Low salinity
c) Medium salinity
d) Normal salinity
64. The parameters used for determining fitness of irrigation water is
a) TSS
b) SAR
c) RSC
d) All of these
65. Sodium adsorption ratio is commonly written as
a) SdAR
b) SAdR
c) SAR
d) SdAdR
66. In a no. of samples are bulked together
a) Grid sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Stratified
d) Composite sampling
67. Electrical conductivity is a measure of conductance of a substance to
a) Voltage
b) Ampere
c) Electromotive force
d) Electrical current
68. of like charges is known as electrostatic repulsion
a)Attraction
b) Repulsion
c) Binding
d) Bonding
69. refers to the zone of Earth crust
a) Hydrosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Atmosphere
70. A mineral is substance
a) Organic
b) Inorganic
c) Both a and b
 d) None of
71. Organic matter is usually written as
a) om
b) Om
c) oM
d) OM

72. m.o. stands for

a) Molecular oxygen
b) Micro-organism
c) Molecular oxidation
d) Membrane of organism
73. Plant available water is the difference between field capacity and
a) Dry soil
b) Permanent wilting point
c) Available water
d) Flooding
74. 16 elements are essentially required for growth of
a) Trees only
b) Crops only
c) Bush only
d) All plant species
75. Nutrients are taken up by the plants through the process of
a) Diffusion
b) Mass flow
c) Osmosis
d) Root interception
76. Silt fraction is rich in
a) K
b) Ca
c) Mg
d) Fe
77. of individual soil particles into small groups is called flocculation
a) Dispersion
b) Aggregation
c) Separation
d) Degradation
78. Washing out of the soluble materials from the root zone is
a) Flushing
b) Leaching
c) Drainage
d) Seepage
79. Hydrated calcium sulphate is also called
a) Gypsum
b) Pyrite
c) Brucite
d) Mica
80. Halophytes plants are capable of growth at
a) Medium salt concentrations
b) No salts
c) Highly fertilized conditions
 d) High salt concentrations
81. Salt-bush is an example of
a) Salt sensitive plants
b) Moderately tolerant plants
c) Halophyte plants
d) Glycophyte plants
82. Root zone is the volume of the soil occupied by
a) Plant roots
b) Bulb
c) Rhizome
d) Tuber
83. Saline agriculture is an approach of production from salt affected lands by growing
a) Salt tolerant plants
b) Leguminous crops
c) Salt sensitive plants
d) None of these
84. A nutrient required by plants in lower concentration is
a) Micronutrient
b) Essential
c) Non-essential
d) Macronutrient
85. A nutrient required by plants in concentration is macronutrient
a) High
b) Low
c) Very low
d) Smaller
86. Molarity is the moles of solute per
a) Kg of solvent
b) Litre of solution
c) Kg of solution
d) Kg of solution
87. Normality is the no. of gram equivalents of solute per
a) Kg of solvent
b) Litre of solution
c) Kg of solution
d) Kg of solution
88. Residual sodium carbonate is represented by
a) RSC
b) Rsc
c) RSc
d) rSC
89. Total dissolved salts is also known as
a) Electrical conductivity
b) Cation exchange capacity
c) Anion exchange capacity
d) Total soluble salts
90. is an example of cation
a) Cl-
b) SO4-2
c) NH4+
 d) Both a and b
91. Sodium adsorption ratio is used for determination of of
soils
a) Acidity
b) Alkalinity
c) Sodicity
d) Salinity
92. maintain growth at low salt concentration but their growth is decreased at
higher salt concentration
a) Glycophytes
b) Pteridophytes
c) Gymnosperms
d) Halophytes
93. Soil saturation extract is the soil extract taking by sucking water from
a) Dry soil
b) Saturated soil paste
c) Soil solution
d) Soil suspension
94. Salt crust is the layer of salts and soil particles found on of dry
saline soil
a) Depth
b) Subsurface
c) Root zone
d) Surface
95. Soil texture is the relative proportion of different
a) Soil separates
b) Rocks
c) Minerals
d) Elements
96. is a condition in which soil pores are filled with water
a) Salinity
b) Water-logging
c) Sodicity
d) Alkalinity
97. The major reason/reason for salinity in Pakistan is/are
a) Low rainfall b) High temperature c) Heavy rains d)
both a and b
98. The of Pakistan is arid to semi-arid
a) Location
b) Altitude
c) Latitude
d) Climate
99. is the ability of a soil to produce certain yield of a crop
a) Soil fertility
b) Soil productivity
c) Soil ability
d) Soil reaction
100. of salts at the soil surface is characteristic of arid to semi-arid areas
a) Accumulation
b) Leaching
c) Flushing
d) Removal
101. Primary salinity is also known as
a) Manmade salinity
b) Indigenous
c) Insitu
d) Natural salinity
102. salinity is a result of activities of man
a) Primary
b) Fossil
c) Natural
d) Secondary
103. Engineering approach is using drainage schemes from reclamation of
a) Saline soils
b) Acidic soils
c) Normal soils
d) None of these
104. Reclamation approach is the use of amendments and for
improving soil conditions
a) Heavy irrigation
b) Drip irrigation
c) Sprinker irrigation
d) No irrigation
105. Salinity control and reclamation project is commonly known as
a) Scarp
b) SCARP
c) scarp
d) Both b and c
106. WAPDA monitored
a) SCARP
b) PIDA
c) NIAB
d) AARI
107. particles have no charge
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
108. approach include the use of gypsum, acid and heavy
irrigation
a) Reclamation
b) Saline agriculture
c) Engineering
d) All of these
109. are also known as salt loving plants
 a) Glycophytes
b) Pteridophytes
c) Gymnosperms
d) Halophytes
110. Thur is the local name for soils
a) Saline b) Sodic c) Water-logged d) Saline-sodic
111. soils are termed as white alkali soils
a) Saline
b) Sodic
c) Water-logged
d) Saline-sodic
112. soils have characteristics of saline and sodic soils
a) Fertile
b) Waterlogged
c) Saline-sodic
d) None of these
113. pH of soils is more than 8.0
a) Indian
b) Iranian
c) Japenese
d) Pakistani
114. Sodic soils are also known as
a) White alkali
b) Grey alkali
c) Calcareous
d) Black alkali soils
115. Bara is the local name of
a) Saline soils
b) Sodic soils
c) Water-logged soils
d) Saline-sodic soils

116. The ability of a soil to adsorb and exchange is called anion

exchange capacity
a) Anion
b) Cation
c) Organic matter
d) Organic acids
117. Phenolphthalein is the indicator used for the determination of
a) CO3
b) Cl
c) Na
d) K
118. CEC stands for
a) Calcium exchange capacity
b) Carbon exchange capacity
c) Carbon-di oxide exchange capacity
d) Cation exchange capacity
119. Saline-sodic soils are difficult to reclaim without using
a) Amendments
 b) Heavy irrigation
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
120. is addition of water
a) Dehydration
b) Hydration
c) Hydrolysis
d) None of these
121. A chemical essentially required for normal growth and production of plants is
a) Secondary nutrient
b) Essential nutrient
c) Non-essential nutrient
d) Micro nutrient
122. Soil productivity is the ability of a soil to produce certain of a
crop
a) Biomass
b) Stem
c) Roots
d) Yield
123. soils initially have good permeability
a) Saline
b) Sodic
c) Water-logged
d) Saline-sodic
124. For soil analysis of growing areas, samples are taken upto 15cm
depth
a) Normal
b) Saline
c) Waterlogged
d) Sodic
125. Thur-bara is the local name for soils
a) Salt affected
b) Calcareous
c) Saline sodic
d) Shor
126. Mass flow is the movement of nutrients with overall flow of water to
a) Plant roots
b) Leaves
c) Stem
d) None of these
127. dSm-1 is the unit of
a) Resistance
b) Electrical conductivity
c) Conductance
d) Resistivity
128. Problem of in Thal is due to wind
a) Water-logging
b) Salinity
 c) Sodicity
d) Erosion
129. Hydrosphere refers to the zone of
a) Water
b) Air
c) Earth
d) Atmosphere
130. Arid is the region of climate that lack _for crop production
without irrigation
a) Irrigation
b) Sufficient moisture
c) Organic matter
d) Cover
131. Buffering capacity is the ability of a soil to resist a change in
a) EC
b) CEC
c) AEC
d) pH
132. particles have the diameter of < 0.002mm
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
133. Ammonification is the process of conversion of amino acids into
form of nitrogen
a) Nitrite
b) Nitrate
c) Ammonical
d) Nitrous oxide
134. particles have negative charge
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
135. is the process of conversion of amino acids into nitrate form of nitrogen
a) Ammonification
b) Nitrification
c) Eutrophication
d) Degradation
136. The ability of a soil to adsorb and exchange is called
cation exchange capacity
a) Anion
b) Cation
c) Organic matter
d) Organic acids
137. The ability of a soil to adsorb and exchange anions is
a) Cation exchange capacity
b) Anion exchange capacity
 c) Buffering capacity
d) Field capacity
138. can be used as an agent for binding
a) Organic matter
b) Cement
c) Plastic
d) None of these
139. The organic matter found in Pakistani soils is about
a) Less than 1%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 50%

140. particles have the diameter between 0.002-0.02 mm

a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
141. Erosion is removal of material from the of
soil
a) Plow pan
b) Subsoil
c) Core
d) Surface layer
142. Breakdown of mineral and organic material with chemical or biochemical
changes is called
a) Inversion
b) Conversion
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
143. The indicator used for the determination of CO3- is
a) Phenolphthalein
b) Methyl orange
c) Methyl red
d) EBT
144. particles have the diameter between 0.02-2.0 mm
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
145. fraction is rich in potash
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Quartz
146. is the tendency of soil to form aggregates
a) Soil texture
b) Soil structure
c) Bulk density
 d) Pore space
147. upper portion of earth crust is called soil
a) Hard
b) Unconsolidated
c) Stiff
d) None of these
148. Ability of a soil to supply nutrients is termed as
a) Soil fertility
b) Productivity
c) Chemistry
d) Dynamics
149. cannot grow if they are irrigated with water of high salinity
a) Animals
b) Plants
c) Wines
d) Microorganisms
150. TSS, SAR and RSC parameters are used for determining fitness of
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Atmosphere
d) Irrigation water
151. have increased growth at low salt concentration as compared to no salt
a) Glycophytes
b) Pteridophytes
c) Gymnosperms
d) Halophytes
152. Glycophytes maintain growth at low salt concentration but their growth is decreased
at
a) Higher salt concentration
b) High water contents
c) At high temperature
d) Low temperature
153. Growth of plants is sensitive to even low concentration of salts
a) Moderately tolerant
b) Salt tolerant
c) Salt resistant
d) Salt sensitive
154. Most important effect of water-logging is decrease in
a) Availability of O2
b) CO2 conc.
c) Increased NO3 conc.
d) Respiration
155. can withstand flooding due to development of aerenchyma tissue
a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Rice
d) Cotton
156. elements are essentially required for growth of all plant
 a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 32

157. are taken up by the plants through the process of mass flow
a) Gasses
b) Nutrients
c) Organic acids
d) Mineral compounds
158. Problem of erosion in Thal is due to
a) Rain
b) Fire
c) Wind
d) Atmosphere
159. refers to the zone of water
a) Hydrosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Atmosphere
160. Lithosphere refers to the zone of
a) Water
b) Air
c) Earth crust
d) Atmosphere
161. A is an inorganic crystalline substance
a) Mineral
b) Crystal
c) Mettaloid
d) Metal
162. The lower limit of available water is called
a) Permanent wilting point
b) Field capacity
c) Capillary water
d) Saturation percentage
163. of soil is also known as soil reaction
a) EC
b) TSS
c) ESP
d) pH
164. Average pH of Pakistani soils is
a) 6.0
b) 4.5
c) More than 8.0
d) 2.0
165. Part of soil in contact with root surface is
a) Lithosphere
b) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Rhizosphere
 166. Conversion of organic form into inorganic form is called
a) Immobilization
b) Mineralization
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
167. of inorganic form into organic form is called
Immobilization
a) Inversion
b) Conversion
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
168. O.M. stands for
a) Organic matter
b) Ordinary man
c) Original message
d) Office matter
169. O.M. can be used as an agent for
a) Dispersion
b) Binding
c) Decomposition
d) Degradation
170. contents in our soils are less than 1%
a) Sand
b) Silt
c) Clay
d) Organic matter
171. Our soils are soils
a) Organic
b) Mineral
c) Peat
d) Muck
172. Ancient remains of once living things,usually found preserved in rocks are
a) Finger-prints
b) Fossils
c) Off-springs
d) Metabolites
173. A nutrient is a that all living things need to live and
grow
a) Vital chemical substance
b) Compound
c) Solution
d) Mixture
174. is removal of material from the surface layer of soil
a) Erosion
b) Slipping
c) Splash
d) Degradation

175. of mineral and organic material with chemical or

 biochemical
Changes is called decomposition
a) Inversion
b) Conversion
c) Breakdown
d) Binding
176. Unconsolidated upper portion of earth crust is called
a) Soil
b) Earth
c) Land
d) None of these
177. Ability of a soil to supply is termed as soil fertility
a) Nutrients
b) Water
c) Air
d) Support
178. is the movement of nutrients with overall flow of water to plant roots
a) Convection
b) Diffusion
c) Mass flow
d) Osmosis
179. is the process of conversion of amino acids into ammonical form of
nitrogen
a) Ammonification
b) Nitrification
c) Eutrophication
d) Degradation
180. Nitrification is the process of conversion of amino acids into
form of nitrogen
a) Nitrite
b) Nitrate
c) Ammonical
d) Nitrous oxide
181. Normality is the no. of gram equivalents of solute per
a) Kg of solvent
b) Litre of solution
c) Kg of solution
d) Kg of solution
182. A soil having pH more than 7 is
a) Alkaline soil
b) Normal soil
c) Acidic soil
d) Neutral soil
183. is region of climate lacking sufficient moisture for crop production
without irrigation
a) Arid
b) Tropical
c) Sub-humid
 d) Humid
184. Ability of a soil to resist a change in pH is
a) Field capacity
b) Buffering capacity
c) Aggregation
d) Acidification
185. The ability of a soil to adsorb and exchange cations is
a) Cation exchange capacity
b) Anion exchange capacity
c) Buffering capacity
d) Field capacity
186. Cation exchange capacity is usually represented as
a) CEC
b) cec
c) Cec
d) CeC
187. AEC stands for
a) Ammonium exchange capacity
b) Ammonical exchange capacity
c) Amide exchange capacity
d) Anion exchange capacity
188. is removal of water
a) Dehydration
b) Hydration
c) Hydrolysis
d) None of these
189. Hydration is of water
a) Addition
b) Removal
c) Substitution
d) Both a & b
190. An essential nutrient is chemical required for normal of
plants
a) Growth and production
b) Low growth
c) Vegetative growth
d) Reproduction
191. Alkaline soil has pH
a) 7
b) 5.5
c) 6.0
d) More than 7
192. Aggregation of individual soil particles into small groups
a) Dispersion
b) Flocculation
c) Deflocculation
d) Degradation
193. Washing out of the soluble materials from the is called
leaching
 a) Root zone
b) Bulk soil
c) Adjacent areas
d) None of these
194. A nutrient required by plants in higher concentration is
a) Micronutrient
b) Essential
c) Non-essential
d) Macronutrient
195. A nutrient required by plants in concentration is micronutrient
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Highest
196. The indicator used for the determination of HCO3- is
a) Phenolphthalein
b) Methyl orange
c) Methyl red
d) EBT
197. is the moles of solute per litre of solution
a) Molarity
b) Normality
c) Molality
d) Percentage
198. is the no of gram equivalents of solute per liter of solution
a) Molarity
b) Normality
c) Molality
d) Percentage
199. Molality is the moles of solute per
a) Kg of solvent
b) Litre of solution
c) Kg of solution
d) Kg of solution
200. Soil colloids have charge
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) No
d) Low
 Key to MCQ'S(SARC)
28 b 78 b 128 b 178 c
1 d 51 a 101 d 151 d
29 d 79 a 129 a 179 a
2 d 52 c 102 d 152 a
30 d 80 d 130 b 180 b
3 a 53 a 103 a 153 d
31 a 81 c 131 d 181 b
4 d 54 c 104 a 154 a
32 c 82 a 132 b 182 a
5 a 55 a 105 b 155 c
33 a 83 a 133 c 183 a
6 c 56 c 106 a 156 c
34 c 84 a 134 b 184 b
7 b 57 a 107 a 157 b
35 a 85 a 135 b 185 a
8 b 58 a 108 a 158 c
36 b 86 b 136 b 186 a
9 a 59 a 109 d 159 a
37 c 87 b 137 b 187 d
10 b 60 d 110 a 160 c
38 c 88 a 138 a 188 a
11 a 61 c 111 a 161 a
39 d 89 d 139 a 189 a
12 d 62 a 112 c 162 a
40 a 90 c 140 c 190 a
13 a 63 a 113 d 163 d
41 a 91 c 141 d 191 d
14 a 64 d 114 d 164 c
42 a 92 a 142 c 192 b
15 a 65 c 115 b 165 d
43 a 93 b 143 a 193 a
16 a 66 d 116 a 166 b
44 d 94 d 144 a 194 d
17 a 67 d 117 a 167 b
45 a 95 a 145 c 195 b
18 d 68 b 118 d 168 a
46 a 96 b 146 b 196 b
19 a 69 b 119 a 169 b
47 a 97 d 147 b 197 a
20 a 70 d 120 b 170 d
48 d 98 d 148 b 198 b
21 a 71 b 121 b 171 b
49 c 99 b 149 b 199 a
22 b 72 b 122 d 172 b
50 a 100 a 150 d 200 b
23 a 73 b 123 d 173 a
24 a 74 d 124 a 174 a
25 a 75 b 125 c 175 c
26 b 76 a 126 a 176 a
27 b 77 b 127 b 177 a