CURRICULUM & IMPLEMENTATION DIVISION

DIAGNOSTIC ASSESSMENT
GRADE 11-GENERAL BIOLOGY 2

QUESTIONNAIRE
DIRECTION: Read each statement carefully and SHADE the circle that
correspond to the letter of your answer on the answer sheet.

1. What refers to the artificial manipulation, modification, and recombination of DNA or

other nucleic acid molecules in order to modify an organism or population of
organisms?
A. Biolistics
B. Genetic Engineering
C. Gene Mapping
D. Gene Therapy

2. What in-vitro method stimulates DNA replication in vivo?

A. PCR Test
B. PCR Genome
C. PCR Detection
D. PCR Amplification

3. What era was believed to end by a comet or asteroid colliding with Earth, causing
huge cloud of dust and smoke to rise into the atmosphere, blocking out the sun.
A. Cenozoic Era
B. Mesozoic Era
C. Paleozoic Era
D. Pre-Cambrian Era

4. Which of the following statements support Mesozoic Era?

A. Ice age began.
B. First birds appeared in this Era.
C. Pangea was formed during the Permian Period.
D. Silurian is one of the periods under Mesozoic Era.

5. What involves the movement of genes into or out of a population?

A. Gene Flow
B. Genetic Drift
C. Mutation
D. Natural Selection
6. Which occurs when members of a population that initially occupy the same habitat
within the same range diverge into two or more different species?
A. Allopatric Speciation
B. Geographic Speciation
C. Parapatric Speciation
D. Sympatric Speciation

7. Two frogs lived in the same pond but breed during different seasons. What prezygotic
mechanisms prevent fertilization from the given scenario?
A. Behavioral Isolation
B. Gametic Isolation
C. Geographic Isolation
D. Temporal Isolation

8. Who developed the theory of gradualism?

A. Charles Darwin
B. Georges Cuvier
C. James Hutton
D. Thomas Malthus

9. Which of the following is an important concept in Darwin’s theory of evolution by

natural selection?
I. Struggle for existence
II. Survival of the Fittest
III. Descent with modification
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III

10. Which of the following does NOT provide evidence that living things have been
evolving for millions of years?
A. natural variation within species
B. geographical distribution of living things
C. homologous structures of living organisms
D. similarities in early development

11. Which of the following shows the evolutionary relationships among a group of
organisms?
A. Binomial nomenclature
B. Cladogram
C. Molecular clock
D. Taxon

12. Which of the following occurs when individuals with certain genotypes are more
likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other genotypes, and thus to pass
on their alleles to the next generation?
A. Gene Flow C. Mutation
B. Genetic Drift D. Natural Selection
13. The similarities in structures in a human arm and a bird’s wing is an example of what
evidence of evolution?
A. Analogous structure
B. Genetic structure
C. Homologous structure
D. Vestigial structure

14. If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably true?
A. Species A and B shared a relatively recent common ancestor.
B. Species A evolved independently of species B for a long period.
C. Species A and B are the same species.
D. Species A is older than species B.

15. Which among the following taxon is a division of a class?

A. Family
B. Genus
C. Order
D. Phylum

16. Bacteria are the oldest and the most abundant organisms on earth. The maintenance of
life depends on them, since they play a vital role both in productivity and in cycling
the substances essential to all other life forms. The only organisms capable of fixing
atmospheric nitrogen are bacteria. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. All bacteria reproduce asexually by binary fission.
B. Bacteria are always single celled.
C. Bacteria are much less diverse metabolically than eukaryotes and hence can
survive only in very limited range of habitats under very special circumstances.
D. Certain bacteria, capable of living in an environment containing H2 rather than O2

17. Plants are derived from an aquatic ancestor, but the evolution of their conducting
tissues, cuticle, stomata, and seeds has made them progressively less dependent on
water. The common ancestor of plants is a green alga. Which of the following
statements is FALSE?
A. Ferns produce pollen grains.
B. Fruits contain parental sporophytic tissue.
C. Plants exhibit an alternation of generations in their life cycle.
D. The embryo sac of angiosperm normally contains eight nuclei & seven cells.

18. A Biologist examines a group of cells of unknown origin under the microscope and
notices the presence of nuclei within the cells. Chemical tests also reveal that each
cell is surrounded by a wall composed of cellulose. These cells must come from an
origin that belongs to what kingdom?
A. Animalia
B. Fungi
C. Plantae
D. Protista
19. What is TRUE about using similarities to classify different species?
A. Even dissimilar species can be compared at the level of certain genes.
B. Genetic similarities are no indication of the relationship between two species.
C. Only similar species, such as two species of rabbits, can be meaningfully
compared.
D. Species are not compared for the purpose of classification.

20. The fungi are often considered as plants because they are nonmotile and they have
external cell walls. They absorb food from a living or nonliving organic source.
Therefore, what is the classification of fungi?
A. Eukaryotic decomposer
B. Eukaryotic producers
C. Prokaryotic decomposer
D. Prokaryotic producers

21. What part of the brain allows us to make decisions?

A. Brain Stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Medulla Oblongata

22. Which of the following body systems is responsible for transporting the nutrients and
oxygen to the different parts of the body?
A. Circulatory
B. Digestive
C. Respiratory
D. Reproductive

23. What term refers to the product of growth?

A. Development
B. Fertilization
C. Genes
D. Reproduction

24. What is the main functional unit of the respiratory system?

A. Alveoli
B. Bronchi
C. Larynx
D. Lungs

25. Which of the following structures absorbs the nutrients from foods in the small
intestine?
A. Duodenum
B. Epiglottis
C. Jejunum
D. Villi

26. What type of muscle is responsible for pumping blood?

A. Cardiac C. Smooth
B. Muscular D. Skeletal
27. What composition of the blood has the ability of blood clotting?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Plasma
D. Platelets

28. What part of the brain is the control center for recognition and analysis of hunger?
A. Brain Stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus

29. Aerobics metabolism requires oxygen and produces carbon dioxide. The process by
which the body as a whole requires oxygen and disposes carbon dioxide is called
respiration. Which of the following is not related to the function of the respiratory
system?
A. Air is a mixture of gasses
B. Each gas in the air exerts a partial pressure
C. Each gas in the air tends to move from areas of higher to lower partial
temperature
D. All of the above

30. In mammals, urine formation occurs in a pair of kidneys. Each human kidney contains
about a million tube-like blood filtering units called nephrons. Urine composition and
volume depend on three processes, namely filtration, reabsorption and secretion.
Which of the following does not match the process?
A. Filtration: Blood enters bowman’s capsule of glomerulus
B. Reabsorption: water and solutes selectively return to blood capillaries
C. Secretion: excess ions and some other substances move from blood capillaries into
nephron.
D. All of the above

31. What is the relationship between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?
A. Fertilization precedes pollinations.
B. If fertilization occurs, pollination would be unnecessary.
C. Pollination brings gametophytes together so that fertilization can occur.
D. Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species.

32. What happens when food reaches the stomach?

A. Juices mix with the food and stomach muscles squeeze it.
B. Nothing. No digestion occurs in the stomach because after eating you feel sleepy.
C. The food is completely digested and is absorbed by tiny blood vessels in the walls
of the stomach
D. The food moves quickly into the small intestine.

33. Osteoporosis is a disease that results in weak bones. What foods would you need to
eat to help prevent this disease?
A. Fish
B. Vegetables
C. Root Crops
D. Dairy Products
34. Which of the following best summarizes the purpose of the circulatory system?
A. to pump blood to the lungs
B. to bring oxygen to the lungs
C. to bring digested food to the health
D. to nourish the cell and carry away the waste

35. Which of the following processes in organisms keep internal conditions relatively
constant?
A. Feedback inhibition
B. Homeostasis
C. Positive feedback
D. Resting potential

36. Which is considered as the central processing of sensory stimuli into a meaningful
pattern involving awareness?
A. Perception
B. Sensation
C. Both A and B
D. None

37. Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
A. High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.
B. Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
C. They are antagonistic hormones.
D. They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.

38. What will happen to a cell if it is placed in a hypotonic solution?

A. The cell membrane shrinks.
B. The cell wall breaks.
C. The cytoplasm shrinks
D. The vacuole expands.

39. What will happen to the human red blood cells when placed in hypertonic solutions?
A. It will undergo crenation.
B. It will undergo phagocytosis.
C. It will undergo plasmolysis.
D. It will undergo turgidity.

40. If you skip meals, which of the following conditions would prevail?
A. Glucagon levels would rise.
B. Glucagon levels would rise and glycogen would be converted to glucose.
C. Insulin levels would rise.
D. Insulin levels would rise and glucose would be converted to glycogen.