STEP - UP FOR IIT - JEE

PHYSICS
DUAL NATURE AND ATOM

Section 1

● This section contains six (06) questions.

● Each question has four options (A),(B),(C) and (D). Only one of these four options is
the correct answer.

● For, each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

● Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full marks : +4 If only the correct option is chosen;

Zero marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen ( i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative marks : -1 in all other cases.

1. A photoelectric material having work-function ϕ0 is illuminated with

ℎ𝑒
light of wavelength λ(λ< ϕ ). The fastest photoelectron has a
0

de-Broglic wavelength λd. A change in wavelength of the incident light

by Δλ result in a change Δλd in λd. Then the ratio Δλd/Δλ is
proportional to
2 2 3 3 2
A. λd/λ B. λ𝑑/λ C. λ𝑑/λ D. λ𝑑/λ

2. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths

248 nm and 310 nm. The maximum speeds of the photoelectrons
corresponding to these wavelengths are u and u , respectively. If the
1 2

ratio u : u = 2 : 1 and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is

1 2

nearly
 A. 3.7 eV B. 3.2 eV C. 2.8 eV D. 2.5 eV

3. Which one of the following statements is WRONG in the context of

X-rays generated from a X-ray tube?
A. Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic
number of the target increases.
B. Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic
number of the target.
C. Intensity of the characteristics X-rays depends on the electrical
power given to the X-ray tube.
D. Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy
of the electrons in the X-ray tube.
4. A heavy nucleus Q of half-life 20 minutes undergoes alpha-decay with
probability of 60% and beta-decay with probability of 40%. Initially, the
number of Q nuclei is 1000. The number of alpha-decays of Q in the first
one hour is
A. 50 B. 75 C. 350 D. 525

5. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition of a certain

amount of radioactive material of half-life 18 days inside the laboratory.
Tests revealed that the radiation was 64 times more than the permissible
level required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is the minimum
number of days after which the laboratory can be considered safe for
use?
A. 64 B. 90 C. 108 D. 120

6. In a radioactive sample,4019K nuclei either decay into stable 4020Ca

nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 10-10 per year or into stable 4018Ar nuclei
with decay constant 0.5 × 10-10 per year. Given that in this sample all the
stable 4020Ca and 4018Ar nuclei are produced by the 4019K nuclei only. In
time t × 109 years, if the ratio of the sum of stable 4020Ca and 4018Ar nuclei
to the radioactive 4019K nuclei is 99, the value of t will be
 [Given : ln 10 = 2.3]
A. 9.2 B. 1.15 C. 4.6 D. 2.3

Section 2

● This section contains six (06) questions.

● Each question has four options (A),(B),(C) and (D). One or more than one of these
four option(s) is (are) the correct answer(s).

● For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
● Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full marks : +4 only if (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;

Partial marks : +3 if all the four options are correct but only three
options are chosen, both of which are correct;

Partial marks : + 2 if three or more options are correct but only two
option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero marks : 0 if unanswered;

Negative marks : -2 in all other cases.

7. Light of wavelength λph falls on a cathode plate inside a vacuum tube as

shown in the figure. The work function of the cathode surface is ϕ and the
anode is a wire mesh of conducting material kept at a distance d from the
cathode. A potential difference V is maintained between the electrodes. If
the minimum de-Broglie wavelength of the electrons passing through the
anode is λe, which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
 A. λ𝑒 increases at the same rate as λ𝑝ℎ for λ𝑝ℎ< hc/ϕ
B. λ𝑒 is approximately halved, if d is doubled
C. λ𝑒 decreases with increase in ϕ and λ𝑝ℎ
D. For large potential difference (v >> ϕ/𝑒), λ𝑒 is approximately halved if
V is made four times

8. Using the expression 2dsin⁡θ = λ, one calculates the values of d by

measuring the corresponding angles θ in the range 0 to 90o. The
wavelength λ is exactly known and the error in θ is constant for all values
of θ. As θ increases from 0o
A. The absolute error in d remains constant
B. The absolute error in d increases
C. The fractional error in d remains constant
D. The fractional error in d decreases
9. For photo-electric effect with incident photon wavelength λ, the stopping
1
potential is V0. Identify the correct variation(s) of V0 with λ and λ
.

A.

B.

C.

D.
10. A heavy nucleus N, at rest, undergoes fission N → P + Q, where P and Q
are two lighter nuclei. Let δ = MN − MP − MQ, where MP, MQ and MN are the
masses of P, Q and N, respectively. EP and EQ are the kinetic energies of P
and Q, respectively. The speeds of P and Q are vP and vQ, respectively. If c is
the speed of light, which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
A. EP + EQ = c2δ

B. EP = ( 𝑀𝑃
𝑀𝑃+𝑀𝑄 )
c2δ
𝑣𝑃 𝑀𝑄
C. 𝑣𝑄
= 𝑀𝑃

D. The magnitude of momentum for as well Q is c 2µδ, where µ =

𝑀𝑃𝑀𝑄
(𝑀𝑃+𝑀𝑄)

11. In a radioactive decay chain,23290Th nucleus decays to 21282Pb nucleus.

Let Nα and Nβ be the number of α and β− particles, respectively, emitted in
this decay process. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
A. Nα = 5 B. Nα = 6 C. Nβ = 2 D. Nβ = 4

12. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom is 4.5a0,

3ℎ
where a0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is 2π
. It is given
that h is Planck constant and R is Rydberg constant. The possible
wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is(are)
9 9 9 4
A. 32𝑅
B. 16𝑅
C. 5𝑅
D. 3𝑅
 Section 3

● This section contains two (02) matching list sets.

● Each set has one multiple choice question.

● Each set has two lists : List-I and List-II.

● List-I has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has five entries (1), (2), (3), (4)
and (5).

● Four options are given in each multiple choice question based on List-I and List-II
and only one of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the multiple
choice question.

● Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking

scheme:
Full marks : +3 only if the option corresponding to the correct
combination is chosen;
Zero marks : 0 if none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative marks : -1 in all other cases.

13. List-I List-II

+
P23892U → 23491Pa 1 one α particle and one β particle
−
Q21482Pb → 21082Pb 2 three β particles and one α particle
−
R21081Tl → 20682Pb 3 two β particles and one α particle
−
S22891Pa → 22488Ra 4 one α particle and one β particles
+
5 one α particle and two β particles

A. P→ 4, Q→ 3, R→ 2, S→ 1
B. P→ 4, Q→ 1, R→ 2, S→ 5
 C. P→ 5, Q→ 3, R→ 1, S→ 4
D. P→ 5, Q→ 1, R→ 3, S→ 2

14. Column I Column II

A. Nuclear fusion P Absorption of thermal

neutrons by 23592U
B. Fission in a nuclear reactor Q6027Co nucleus
C. β -decay R Energy production in stars via
hydrogen conversion to helium
D. γ -ray emission S Heavy water
T Neutrino emission

A. a - q,r,s,t; b - s,t; c - r; d - q,r,s,t;

B. a - t; b - s; c - q; d - q,r,s,t;
C. a - r,t; b - p,s; c - q,t; d - r;
D. A - q,r,s,t; b - r; c - s; d - t;

Section 4

● This section contains two (02) questions.

● The answer to each question is a non- negative integer.

● For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer.

● Answer to each question will be evaluated:

Full marks : +4 if only the correct integer is entered;

Zero marks : 0 in all other cases.

15. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is suspended

from an insulating thread in free-space. It is under continuous illumination
of 200 nm wavelength light. As photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets
charged and acquires a potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons
emitted from the spheres is A × 102 (where 1 < A < 10). The value of Z is
_____________.

16. Consider a hydrogen atom with its electron in the nth orbital. An
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 90 nm is used to ionize the atom.
If the kinetic energy of the ejected electron is 10.4 eV, then the value of n is
(hc = 1242 eV nm)
 STEP-UP FOR IIT JEE /NEET
CHEMISTRY

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks:20)

i) This section contains THREE (05) questions.
ii) Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
iii) For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
iv) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered); Negative Marks : −2 In all
other cases.
v) For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers,
then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get −2 marks.

1.In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products

The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R, and S is (are):

(A) P and Q are monomers of polymers dacron and glyptal, respectively.
(B) P, Q and R are dicarboxylic acids.
(C) Compounds Q and R are the same.
(D) R does not undergo aldol condensation and S does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
2.In the reaction scheme shown below Q, R and S are the major products.
The correct structure of
(A) S is

(B)Q is

(C)R is

(D)S is

3.In the following reactions,P, Q, R, and S are the major products.

The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R, and S is(are):

(A) Both P and Q have asymmetric carbon(s)
(B) Both Q and R have asymmetric carbon(s)
(C) Both P and R have asymmetric carbon(s)
(D) P has symmetric carbon(s), S does not have any asymmetric carbon.

4.Columns 1, 2 and 3 contain starting materials, reaction conditions, and type of reactions, respectively.
 Column 1 Column Column 3
2

(I) Toluene (i) NaOH/Br2 (P) Condensation

(II) Acetophenone (ii) Br2/hv (Q) Carboxylation

(III) Benzaldehyde (iii) (CH3CO)2O/ (R) Substitution

CH3COOK

(IV Phenol (iv) NaOH/CO2 (S) Haloform

The only CORRECT combination that gives two different carboxylic acids is :
(A) (II) (iv) (R) (B) (IV) (iii) (Q) (C) (III) (iii) (P) (D) (I) (i) (S)

5. The major product in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks:15)

i) This section contains FOUR (05) questions.
ii) Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
iii) For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer. iiv)Answer to each
question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered); Negative Marks
:-1 In all other cases.
1.List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions. List-II gives
structures of compounds that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final products from the
reactions of List-I.

Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (II), (P), (S), (U) (B) (I), (Q), (T), (U) (C) (II), (P), (S), (T) (D) (I), (S), (Q), ®
2. The correct order of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is

(A) III > II > I > IV (B) I > II > III > IV (C) II > I > IV > III (D) I > III > II > IV

3.The desired product X can be prepared by reacting the major product of the reactions in LIST-I with
one or more appropriate reagents in LIST-II (given, order of migratory aptitude: aryl > alkyl > hydrogen)

The correct option is

(A) P - 1; Q - 2,3; R - 1,4; S - 2,4 (B) P - 1,5; Q - 3,4; R - 4,5; S - 3
(C) P - 1,5; Q - 3,4; R - 5; S - 2,4 (D) P - 1,5; Q - 2,3; R - 1,5; S - 2,3
4.The reaction of compound P with CH3MgBr (excess) in (C2H5)2O followed by addition of H2O
gives Q. The compound Q on treatment with H2SO4 at 00C gives
R. The reaction of R with CH3COCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 in CH2Cl2 followed by
treatment with H2O producess compound S. [Et incompound P is ethyl group]

The reaction, Q to R and R to S, are

(A) Dehydration and Friedel — Crafts acylation
(B) Aromatic sulfonation and friedel — Crafts acylation
(C) Friedel — Crafts alkylation, dehydration and Friedel – Crafts acylation
(D) Friedel — Crafts alkylation and Fridel — Crafts acylation

5.The reaction (s) leading to the formation of 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene is (are)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SIX (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

1.Amongst the following, the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is _________.
2.Among the following the number of reactions that produces benzaldehyde is
_________.

3.Consider all possible isomeric ketones including stereoisomers of MW = 100. All

these isomers are independently reacted with NaBH4 (Note : stereoisomers are also
reacted separately). The total number of ketones that give a racemic product(s)
is/are
4.The total number of carboxylic acid groups is the product P is _________.

5.In the scheme given below, the total number of intra molecular aldol condensation
products formed from Y is ____________.

6.In the following reaction, compound Q is obtained from compound P via an ionic
intermediate

What is the degree of unsaturation of Q?

7.In the reaction given below, the total number of atoms having sp2 hybridization in
the major product P is _________.

8.Complete reaction of acetaldehyde with excess formaldehyde, upon heating with conc. NaOH
solution, gives P and Q. Compound P does not give Tollens' test, whereas Q on acidification
gives positive Tollens' test. Treatment of P with excess cyclohexanone in the presence of
catalytic amount of p-toluenesulfonic acid (PTSA) gives product R.Sum of the number of
methylene groups (−CH2−) and oxygen atoms in R is __________.
 STEP - UP FOR IIT - JEE / NEET

DEFINITE INTEGRATION

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains FOUR (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B),
(C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer. For each question,
choose the option corresponding to the correct answer. Answer to each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : 04 If ONLY the
correct option is chosen; Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered); Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases

Single correct answer Type

3 3
(1) Let a, b, c be non - zero real numbers such that ∫ ( 3ax2 + 2bx + c )dx = ∫ ( 3ax2 +
0 1
2bx + c )dx . Then the line ax + by + c = 0 passes through the fixed point
(A) (1,2) (B) (2,1)
(C) (1,1) (D) (2,2)

9 3
(2) If f(x) is continuous and ∫ f(x)dx = 4 , then the value of integral ∫ x. f(x2)dx is
0 0
(A) 2 (B) 18
(C) 16 (D) 4

(3) The number of solutions of the equation

𝑥
π
∫ | cos x| dx = 0 , 0 < x < 2
, is
−2
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
 𝑥
(4) Let f(x) = ∫ | t -2 | dt . Now ,consider the following two statements ;
−1
2
−𝑥 5
S1 : f(x) = 2
+ 2x + 2
for -1< x < 2
2
𝑥 13
S2 : f(x) = 2
- 2x + 2
for x≥2
Then
(A) Only S1 is true
(B) Only S2 is true
(C) Both S1 and S2 are false
(D) Both S1 and S2 are true

π
𝑠𝑖𝑛 6𝑥
(5) ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥
dx =
0
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 6π

π/2
(6) ∫ sin x sin 2x sin 3x sin 4x dx =
0
π π
(A) 4
(B) 8
π π
(C) 16
(D) 32
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains THREE (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A),
(B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s). For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct
answer(s). Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme: Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct; Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY
one option is chosen and it is a correct option; Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered; Negative
Marks : - 2 In all other cases. For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the
ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then choosing ONLY (A), (B) and
(D) will get ൅4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get ൅2 marks; choosing ONLY (A)
and (D) will get ൅2marks; choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get ൅2 marks; choosing
ONLY (A) will get ൅1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get ൅1 mark; choosing ONLY (D)
will get ൅1 mark; choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0
marks and choosing any other option(s) will get െ2 marks.
Multiple correct answer type

𝑛π
(7) If ∫ [ sin x ] dx = - 20π, n ϵ N , then the possible value(s) of n is/are
0
(A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 40 (D) 41

(8) If f and g are two continuous functions being even and odd , respectively , then the
𝑎
𝑓(𝑥)
value of ∫ 𝑔(𝑥) dx is ( a being any non - zero number and b is positive number but
−𝑎 𝑏 +1

not equal to 1 )
(A) independent of f (B) independent of g
(C) dependent of f (D) dependent of g

𝑥
(9) If f(x) = ∫ f(t2 - 3t +4 )dt , then
2
(A) f(2) = 0 (B) f(-2) = 0
(C) f’(2) = 0 (D) f’(2) = 2

𝑥 1
(10) If ∫ f(t) dt = ex - ae2x ∫ f(t)e -t dt , then
0 0
1
(A) a= 3 − 2𝑒
(B) f(X) = ex - 2e2x
1
(C) 𝑎 = 𝑒 (D) f(x) =ex - e-x

𝑥
(11) A function f(x) satisfies f(x) = sin x + ∫f ‘(t) (2sin t - sin2 t) dt. Then
0
π
(A) f( ) =1
6
𝑥
(B) g(x) = ∫ f(t) dt is an increasing function on ( 0, π )
0
(C) f (0) = 0
(D) f(x) is increasing on ( 0, π )

𝑥 𝑡
𝑒
(12) If f(x) = ∫ 𝑡
dt ( x>0) , then e-a [ f( x + a ) - f( 1 + a ) ]=
0
 𝑥 𝑡 𝑥 𝑡
𝑒 𝑒
(A) ∫ (𝑡 +𝑎)
dt (B) ∫ (𝑡 +𝑎)
dt
0 1
𝑥+𝑎 𝑡 𝑥 𝑡− 𝑎
-a 𝑒 𝑒
(C) e ∫ 𝑡
dt (D) ∫ (𝑡 +𝑎)
dt
1+𝑎 0

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a
NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER. For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding
to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme: Full Marks : ൅4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
(13)
 3
(14) Let f be a continuous periodic function with period 3 , such that ∫ f(x) dx = 1 .
0
8
Then the value of ∫ f(2x) dx is …………..
−4

39
(15) The value of ∫ ( {x}2 + 3 (sin2πx ))dx is.( where {x} denotes the fractional part
15
function ) ………………..

1
(16) If f (x) is a differentiable function satisfying 6x ∫ f(tx) dt= 2x3 - 3x2 + 6x + 5 , then the
0
least value of 36f(x) is …………….

1
(17) The value of ∫ 4x3 (d2/dx2)(1 – x2)5 dx is
0

1+ 3
(18) The value of 1
2 6 4
(( 𝑥 + 1 ) ( 1 − 𝑥 ) )