CAREER POINT .

AIPMT - 2008

AIPMT - 2008
Q.1 A particle of mass m is projected with velocity Q.7 A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a
v making an angle of 45º with the horizontal charge + Q. The electric field at the centre O of
from level ground. When the particle lands on the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of
the level ground the magnitude of the change in the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due
its momentum will be - to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is -
(1) mv 2 (2) zero A
K
(3) 2 mv (4) mv/ 2
C B
Q.2 A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current O
of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the
solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb. The self-inductance of D
the solenoid is - (1) E along KO (2) 3E along OK
(1) 1.0 henry (2) 4.0 henry (3) 3 E along KO (4) E along OK
(3) 2.5 henry (4) 2.0 henry
Q.8 Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio
Q.3 A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities
energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic would be -
→
(1) (3)1/3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
field of induction B . After 3 seconds the (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
kinetic energy of the particle will be -
(1) T (2) 4 T Q.9 If M (A, Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of
(3) 3 T (4) 2 T the nucleus A
, proton and neutron
ZX
respectively in units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV/C2)
Q.4 The distance travelled by a particle starting
and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV,
from rest and moving with an acceleration
then -
4 –2
ms , in the third second is - (1) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
3 (2) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE/C2
10 19 (3) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE/C2
(1) m (2) m
3 3 (4) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE
(3) 6m (4) 4m
Q.10 A particle moves in a straight line with a
Q.5 A particle of mass 1 mg has the same constant acceleration. It changes its velocity
wavelength as an electron moving with a from 10 ms–1 to 20 ms–1 while passing through a
velocity of 3 × 106 ms–1. The velocity of the distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is -
particle is : (1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 1.8
(mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (2) 2.7 × 10–21 ms–1 Q.11 A particle shows distance-time curve as given in
–18 –1
(3) 2.7 × 10 ms (4) 9 × 10–2 ms–1 this figure. The maximum instantaneous
velocity of the particle is around the point :
Q.6 Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the
rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the D
Distance

belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s S C

will be -
Mv A B
(1) newton (2) zero
2 t Time
(3) Mv newton (4) 2 Mv newton
(1) D (2) A (3) B (4) C

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Q.12 An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. Q.18 Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass
How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water through a region at the same time in the same
from temperature 20ºC ? The temperature of direction. the sum of the maximum and
minimum intensities is -
boiling water is 100ºC.
(1) 12.6 min (2) 4.2 min (1) ( I1 – I 2 )2 (2) 2(I1 + I2)
(3) 6.3 min (4) 8.4 min (3) I1 + I2 (4) ( I1 + I 2 )2

Q.13 In the phenomenon of electric discharge through Q.19 If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat
gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the added, change in internal energy and the work
tube appears as a result of - done by a closed cycle process, then :
(1) collisions between the charged particles (1) E = 0 (2) Q = 0
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of (3) W = 0 (4) Q = W = 0
the gas
(2) collision between different electrons of the Q.20 In the circuit shown, the current through the 4Ω
atoms of the gas resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are
(3) excitation of electrons in the atoms connected to a D.C. voltage source. The
(4) collision between the atoms of the gas potential difference between the points M and N
is -
Q.14 The circuit is equivalent to - 4Ω
NOR NAND NOT

3Ω
P• •M
(1) NOR gate (2) OR gate
(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate •
0.5Ω N 1Ω
Q.15 If the error in the measurement of radius of a
sphere is 2 % then the error in the determination 0.5Ω
of volume of the sphere will be - (1) 0.5 volt (2) 3.2 volt
(1) 8 % (2) 2 % (3) 1.5 volt (4) 1.0 volt
(3) 4 % (4) 6 %
Q.21 On a new scale of temperature (which is linear)
Q.16 A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling
points of water are 39º W and 239º W
midpoint into two halves so that the angle
respectively. What will be the temperature on
between them is 90º. The moment of inertia of
the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of
the bent rod about an axis passing through the
39ºC on the Celsius scale ?
bending point and perpendicular to the plane
(1) 200ºW (2) 139ºW
defined by the two halves of the rod is - (3) 78ºW (4) 117ºW
ML2 2 ML2
(1) (2)
6 24 Q.22 The wave described by y = 0.25 sin (10 πx –
ML2
ML2 2πf), where x and y are in metres and t in
(3) (4) seconds, is a wave travelling along the -
24 12
(1) + ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and
Q.17 A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a wavelength λ = 0.2 m
(2) –ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and
band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of
wavelength λ = 0.2 m
the radiation that can be absorbed by the
(3) – ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
material is nearly :
(4) + ve x direction with frequency π Hz and
(1) 1 × 1014 Hz (2) 20 × 1014 Hz
14 wavelength λ = 0.2m
(3) 10 × 10 Hz (4) 5 × 1014 Hz

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Q.23 The electric potential at a point in free space Q.30 A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing
due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. Sunlight on a piece of paper using an
The electric field at that point is - equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The
(1) 4πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its
(2) 12πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m.
What is the diameter of the Sun’s image on the
(3) 4πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m
paper ?
(4) 12πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m (1) 6.5 × 10–5 m (2) 12.4 × 10–4 m
–4
(3) 9.2 × 10 m (4) 6.5 × 10–4 m
Q.24 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a
medium of permittivity ε0 and permeability µ0 is Q.31 A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed
given by : in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
1 µ0 forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2
(1) (2) and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the
µ 0ε0 ε0 paper and along the directions shown, the force
ε0 on the segment QP is :
(3) (4) µ0ε0 Q
µ0
P
Q.25 Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and
15 m from the source of oscillation. The period F1 F3
of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the
wave is 300 m/s. What is the phase difference
between the oscillations of two points ? S R
(1) π (2) π/6 (3) π/3 (4) 2π/3
F2
Q.26 Two simple Harmonic Motions of angular (1) (F3 − F1 ) − F22 (2) F3 – F1 – F2
2

frequency 100 and 1000 rad s–1 have the same

(3) F3 – F1 – F2 (4) (F3 − F1 ) 2 + F22
displacement amplitude. The ratio of their
maximum accelerations is - Q.32 A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly
(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104 by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific
(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102 resistance become respectively -
(1) both remain the same
Q.27 If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure (2) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
is 3.6 Å, then the atomic radius in fcc crystal is - (3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(1) 2.92 Å (2) 1. 27 Å (4) 1.21 times, same
(3) 1.81 Å (4) 2.10 Å
Q.33 Curie temperature is the temperature above
Q.28 Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of which -
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to (1) paramagnetic material becomes
frictional forces are 10 % of energy. How much ferromagnetic material
power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 (2) ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
material
m/s2)
(3) ferromagnetic material becomes
(1) 12.3 kW (2) 7.0 kW
paramagnetic material
(3) 8.1 kW (4) 10.2 kW (4) paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
material
Q.29 The energy required to charge a parallel plate
condenser of plate separation d and plate area of Q.34 Which two of the following five physical
cross-section A such that the uniform electric parameters have the same dimensions ?
field between the plates is E, is : (a) Energy density (b) Refractive index
1 (c) Dielectric constant (d) Young’s modulus
(1) ε0E2 Ad (2) ε0E2 Ad
2 (e) Magnetic field
1 (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (e)
(3) ε0 E2/Ad (4) ε0E2/Ad (3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (e)
2
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Q.35 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 3

–13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first (1) N (2) 3N
4
excited state, its excitation energy is -
(3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 N
(1) 10.2 eV (2) zero
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
Q.41 A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2Ω
Q.36 The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9 % resistor shown in the circuit. The power
negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain dissipated in the 5Ω resistor is -
without feedback will be - 2Ω
(1) 1.25 (2) 100 (3) 90 (4) 10
4Ω
Q.37 A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected
to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of
1Ω 5Ω
2950 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 30
divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In
order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, (1) 1 watt (2) 5 watt
the resistance in series should be - (3) 4 watt (4) 2 watt
(1) 6050 Ω (2) 4450 Ω
(3) 5050 Ω (4) 5550 Ω Q.42 Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have
decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. If
Q.38 A shell of mass 200 g is ejected from a gun of initially they have the same number of nuclei,
mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to
kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is - 1
(1) 40 ms–1 (2) 120 ms–1 that of X2 will be after a time -
–1
e
(3) 100 ms (4) 80 ms–1 1 e 1
(1) (2) (3) λ (4) λ
4λ λ 2
Q.39 In an A.C. circuit the emf (e) and the current (i)
at any instant are given respectively by :
Q.43 The work function of a surface of a
e = E0 sin ωt
photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The
i = I0 sin (ωt – φ) wavelength of the incident radiation for which
The average power in the circuit over one cycle the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the :
of A.C. is - (1) Infrared region (2) X-ray region
E I (3) Ultraviolet region (4) Visible region
(1) 0 0 cos φ (2)E0I0
2
E I E I Q.44 A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of
(3) 0 0 (4) 0 0 sin φ
2 2 period T and the equation of motion is given by
x = a sin (ωt + π/6). After the elapse of what
Q.40 Three forces acting on a body are shown in the fraction of the time period the velocity of the
figure. To have the resultant force only along point will be equal to half of its maximum
the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum velocity ?
additional force needed is - (1) T/3 (2) T/12
y (3) T/8 (4) T/6
1N
4N Q.45 Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in
contact and coaxial. The power of the
30º combination is -
f + f2 f + f2
60º (1) 1 (2) 1
x 2 f1f 2
f1 f2
(3) (4)
2N f2 f1

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Q.46 At 10ºC the value of the density of a fixed mass Q.52 If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At indicates that :
110ºC this ratio is - (1) kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
10 283 (2) number of the molecules of gas increases
(1) x (2) x
110 383 (3) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
383 (4) pressure of the gas increases
(3) x (4) x
283
Q.53 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can
Q.47 A roller coaster is designed such that riders be represented as :
experience "weightlessness" as they go round 2AB2 (g) 2AB(g) + B2(g)
the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small
20m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is compared to 1. The expression relating the
between - degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium
(1) 16 m/s and 17 m/s (2) 13 m/s and 14 m/s constant Kp and total pressure P is -
(3) 14 m/s and 15 m/s (4) 15 m/s and 16 m/s (1) (2Kp/P)1/2 (2) (Kp/P)
(3) (2Kp/P) (4) (2Kp/P)1/3
Q.48 A circular disc of radius 0.2 metre is placed in a
1  Wb  Q.54 The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid
uniform magnetic field of induction   solution is represented by this equation.
π  m2 
in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60º CH3COCH3(aq.) + Br2(aq.) →
→ CH3COCH2Br(aq.) + H+ (aq.) + Br– (aq.)
with B . The magnetic flux linked with the disc These kinetic data were obtained from given
is - reaction concentrations.
(1) 0.08 Wb (2) 0.01 Wb Initial concentrations, (M)
(3) 0.02 Wb (4) 0.06 Wb [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
0.30 0.05 0.05
Q.49 The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular 0.30 0.10 0.05
disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass 0.30 0.10 0.10
and radius around their respective axes is - 0.40 0.05 0.20
(1) 2 :1 (2) 2 : 3 Initial rate, disappearance of Br2, Ms–1
5.7 × 10–5
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
5.7 × 10–5
1.2 × 10–4
Q.50 A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 3.1 × 10–4
cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and Based on these data, the rate equation is :
without being short circuited through a (1) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
resistance of 10 Ω. Its internal resistance is - (2) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
(1) 2.0 ohm (2) zero (3) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [H+]
(3) 1.0 ohm (4) 0.5 ohm (4) Rate = k[CH = COCH3] [Br2]

Q.51 Which one of the following arrangements does Q.55 If the concentration of OH– ions in the reaction,
not give the correct picture of the trends Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+ (aq.) + 3OH– (aq.)
indicated against it ? 1
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Bond dissociation energy is decreased by times, then equilibrium
4
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Electronegativity concentration of Fe3+ will increase by -
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Oxidizing power (1) 64 times (2) 4 times
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Electron gain enthalpy (3) 8 times (4) 16 times

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Q.56 What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at Q.63 If uncertainty in position and momentum are
0ºC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely one equal, then uncertainty in velocity is -
litre, of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the (1) 1/m (h / π) (2) ( h / π)
same conditions ?
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L (3) 1/2m (h / π) (4) (h / 2π)
(3) 7 L (4) 6 L
Q.64 How many stereoisomers does this molecule
Q.57 Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 have ?
and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
ion concentration in the mixture ? (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 3.7 × 10–3 M (2) 1.11 × 10–3 M
Q.65 On the basis of the following Eº values, the
(3) 1.11 × 10–4 M (4) 3.7 × 10–4 M
strongest oxidizing agent is :
[Fe(CN)6]4– → [Fe(CN)6]3– + e–1, Eº = – 0.35 V
Q.58 The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–1, Eº = – 0.77 V
towards nucleophilic substitution are in the
(1) Fe3+ (2) [Fe(CN)6]3–
order of - (3) [Fe(CN)6] 4–
(4) Fe2+
(1) acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
(2) acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide Q.66 The correct order of decreasing second
(3) acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide ionization enthalpy of Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24
(4) ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride and Mn = 25 is -
(1) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
Q.59 In DNA, the complementary bases are - (2) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(1) adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine (3) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(2) uracil and adenine, cytosine and guanine (4) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(3) adenine and thymine, guanine and cytosine
Q.67 Which one of the following is most reactive
(4) adenine and thymine, guanine and uracil
towards electrophilic attack ?
Cl
Q.60 Base strength of - OH
Θ Θ
(i) H3 C CH 2 (ii) H2C = C H and (1) (2)
Θ
(iii) H–C ≡ C CH2OH NO2
is in the order of - (3) (4)
(1) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (2) (i) > (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
Q.68 Four diatomic species are listed below in
Q.61 Equimolar solutions of the following were different sequences. Which of these presents the
correct order of their increasing bond order ?
prepared in water separately. Which one of the
solutions will record the highest pH ? (1) C 22− < He +2 < NO < O −2
(1) MgCl2 (2) CaCl2 (2) He +2 < O −2 < NO < C 22−
(3) SrCl2 (4) BaCl2 (3) O −2 < NO < C 22− < He +2

Q.62 The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous (4) NO < C 22− < O −2 < He +2
solutions is -
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+ Q.69 How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be
formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
and 3.2 g of HCl ?
(3) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(1) 0.011 (2) 0.029
(4) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ (3) 0.044 (4) 0.333

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Q.70 The stability of carbanions in the following : Q.75 Which one of the following statements is not
Θ
Θ
•• true ?
(i) R–C ≡ C (ii) (1) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and
styrene
Θ Θ
(iii) R2C= C H (iv) R3C– C H 2 (2) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of isoprene
is in the order of : (3) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur
(1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) bridges between different chains make
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) rubber harder and stronger
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (4) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
every double bond

Q.71 Acetophenone when reacted with a base,

Q.76 In a reaction of aniline a coloured product (C)
C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has
was obtained.
the structure : NH2
CH3 CH3 NaNO2
(B)
HCl
C C (A)
(1) CH3
OH OH N
CH3
(C)
CH CH Cold
(2) The structure of (C) would be -
OH OH CH3
C CH C NH NH N
(3) (1) CH3
CH3 O
CH3
(4) CH CH2C N N N
(2) CH3
CH3 O
N N CH2 N
Q.72 Volume occupied by one molecule of water (3)
CH3
(density = 1g cm–3) is :
CH3 CH3
(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3 (2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3 (4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3 (4) N N

Q.73 Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl

are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol–1 respectively. Q.77 For the gas phase reaction,
Enthalpy of formation of HCl is - PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(1) –93 kJ mol–1 (2) 245 kJ mol–1 Which of the following conditions are correct ?
(1) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
(3) 93 kJ mol–1 (4) –245 kJ mol–1
(2) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
(3) ∆H = 0 and ∆S < 0
Q.74 Which of the following complexes exhibits the
(4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(1) [Co(OX)2 (OH)2]– Q.78 The measurement of the electron position is
(2) [Ti (NH3)6]3+ associated with an uncertainty in momentum,
(3) [V(gly)2 (OH)2(NH3)2]+ which is equal to 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The
(4) [Fe (en) (bpy) (NH3)2]2+ uncertainty in electron velocity is :
Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and (Mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28 g)
(1) 1 × 105 cm s–1 (2) 1 × 1011 cm s–1
bpy = bipyridyl moities 9 –1
(3) 1 × 10 cm s (4) 1 × 106 cm s–1
(Atomic number Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

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Q.79 The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) Q.85 Green chemistry means such reactions which -
consists of - (1) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(1) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(2) study the reactions in plants
(2) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(3) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds (3) produce colour during reactions
(4) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds (4) reduce the use and production of hazardous
chemicals
Q.80 Percentage of free space in a body centered
cubic unit cell is -
Q.86 Which of the following statements is not
(1) 34 % (2) 28 %
(3) 30 % (4) 32 % correct ?
(1) The number of carbon atoms in an unit cell
Q.81 The value of equilibrium constant of the of diamond is 4
reaction,
(2) The number of Bravais lattices in which a
HI(g) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2I2 (g) is 8.0.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction, crystal can be categorized is 14
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) will be - (3) The fraction of the total volume occupied by
(1) 16 (2) 1/8 the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48
(3) 1/16 (4) 1/64
(4) Molecular solids are generally volatile

Q.82 The value of K p1 and K p2 for the reactions

Q.87 In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
X Y+Z ....(1) and
A 2B ....(2) R–Br+Cl– DMF
→ R–Cl+Br–
are in ratio of 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of Which one of the following has the highest
X and A be equal, then total pressure at
relative rate ?
equilibrium (1) and (2) are in the ratio :
(1) 36 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 CH 3
|
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 9 (1) CH3– C – CH 2 Br (2) CH3CH2Br
|
Q.83 Which one of the following is an amine CH 3
hormone ? (3) CH3–CH2–CH2Br (4) CH3 – CH–CH2Br
(1) Insulin (2) Progesterone |
(3) Thyroxine (4) Oxypurin CH3
Q.88 The correct order of increasing bond angles in
Q.84 Kohlrausch's Law states that at : the following triatomic species is :
(1) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to conductance of an (1) NO +2 < NO 2 < NO −2
electrolyte whatever be the nature of the
(2) NO 2+ < NO 2− < NO 2
other ion of the electrolyte
(2) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite (3) NO 2− < NO 2+ < NO 2
contribution to equivalent conductance of
an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the (4) NO 2− < NO 2 < NO +2
other ion of the electrolyte
(3) finite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to equivalent conductance of Q.89 With which one of the following elements
an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of
other ion of electrolyte semiconductor?
(4) infinite dilution each ion makes definite
(1) Selenium (2) Boron
contribution to equivalent conductance of
an electrolyte depending on the nature of (3) Germanium (4) Arsenic
the other ion of electrolyte

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Q.90 H3C—CH—CH=CH2+HBr (X) Q.96 Number of moles of MnO −4 required to oxidize

CH3 one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
Here (X) (predominantly) is : medium will be :
(1) CH3—CH—CH—CH3 (1) 7.5 mole (2) 0.2 mole
Br CH3 (3) 0.6 mole (4) 0.4 mole
(2) CH3—CH—CH—CH3
Q.97 The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different
CH3 Br
reactions are 1016.e–2000/T and 10.15.e–1000/T,
(3) CH3—CH—CH2—CH2 Br
respectively, the temperature at which k1=k2,, is:
CH3 (1) 2000K (2) 1000/2.303 K
Br (3) 1000 K (4) 2000/2.303 K

(4) CH3—C—CH2CH3
Q.98 A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen from:
CH3 (1) ketone (2) alkane
(3) alkene (4) amine
Q.91 An organic compound contains carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis Q.99 Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol)
gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical
formula of the compound would be : at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for H2O(l),
(1) CHO (2) CH4O CO2(g) and pentane(g) respectively The value
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O of Eοcell for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is:
(1) 1.0968 V (2) 0.0968 V
Q.92 In which of the following co-ordination entities
the magnitude of ∆O (CFSE in octahedral field) (3) 1.968 V (4) 2.0968 V
will be maximum?
(1) [Co(CN )6 ]3− [
(2) Co(C 2 O 4 )3 ]3− Q.100 If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic

(3) [Co(H 2 O )6 ]3+ (4) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]

3+ systems : simple cubic, body centered cubic and
face centered cubic, then the ratio of radii of the
(Atomic number of Co=27)
spheres in these systems will be respectively.
Q.93 The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the l 3 2
direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The (1) a: a: a (2) la : 3a : 2a
2 2 2
thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in
which of the following orders? l 3 l l l
(3) a: a: a (4) a : 3a : a
(1) NaH>LiH>KH>RbH>CsH 2 4 2 2 2 2
(2) LiH>NaH>KH>RbH>CsH
(3) CsH>RbH>KH>NaH>LiH
(4) KH>NaH>LiH>CsH>RbH Q.101 A competitive inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase is :
Q.94 Which of the following are not state functions?
(1) α-ketoglutarate (2) malate
(I) q+w (II) q
(III) w (IV) H-TS (3) malonate (4) oxaloacetate
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (IV) (4) (II), (III) and (IV) Q.102 Senescence as an active developmental cellular
process in the growth and functioning of a
Q.95 In the hydrocarbon,
6 5 4 3 2 1 flowering plant, is indicated in:
CH3—CH=CH—CH2—C≡CH (1) Annual plants
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 (2) Floral parts
are in the following sequence :
(1) sp,sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp2, sp (3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation
2 3
(3) sp , sp,sp (4) sp, sp3, sp2 (4) Leaf abscission

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Q.103 Which one of the following statements is Q.109 The length of different internodes in a culm of
incorrect about menstruation? sugarcane is variable because of:
(1) At menopause in the female, there is (1) size of leaf lamina at the node below each
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic internode
hormones (2) intercalary meristem
(2) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation
(3) shoot apical meristem
is called menarche
(4) position of axillary buds
(3) During normal menstruation about 40 ml
blood is lost
(4) The menstrual fluid can easily clot Q.110 Which one of the following is not observed in
biodiversity hotspots ?
Q.104 Which one of the following conditions in (1) Lesser inter-specific competition
humans is correctly matched with its (2) Species richness
chromosomal abnormality/linkage? (3) Endenism
(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis (4) Accelerated species loss
— X-linked
(2) Down syndrome — 44 autosomes + XO Q.111 Which one of the following is the correct
(3) Klinfelter's syndrome percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
— 44 autosomes + XXY
greenhouse gases that contribute to the total
(4) Colour-blindness — Y-linked
global warming ?
(1) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
Q.105 In leaves of C-4 plants malic acid synthesis
during CO2 fixation occurs in: (2) Methane 20%, N2O 18%
(1) bundle sheath (2) guard cells (3) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(3) epidermal cells (4) mesophyll cells (4) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%

Q.106 What is true about the isolated small tribal Q.112 The two subunits of ribosome remain united at a
populations? critical ion level of :
(1) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles (1) magnesium (2) calcium
in their life time pass their character on to (3) copper (4) manganese
their progeny
(2) There is no change in population size as they
Q.113 Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
have a large gene pool
modes of action (1-4) in achieving
(3) There is a decline in population as boys
contraception. Select their correct matching
marry girls only from their own tribe
(4) Hereditary disease like colour-blindness do from the four options that follow:
not spread in the isolated population Method Mode of Action
(1) The pill (a) Prevents sperms
Q.107 The Replum is present in the ovary of flower of: reaching cervix
(1) sunflower (2) pea (2) Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(3) lemon (4) mustard (3) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovaulation
(4) Copper-T (d) Semen contains no sperms
Q.108 Unisexuality of flowers prevents: Answer codes :
(1) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy (1) 1 = (c), 2 = (d), 3 = (a), 4 = (b)
(2) autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) 1 = (b), 2 = (c), 3 = (a), 4 = (d)
(3) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(3) 1 = (c), 2 = (a), 3 = (d), 4 = (b)
(4) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(4) 1 = (d), 2 = (a), 3 = (b), 4 = (c)

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Q.114 The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of Q.119 World Summit on Sustainable Development
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that (2002) was held in:
Adenosine Tri-Phosphate (ATP) is formed (1) Argentina (2) South Africa
because: (3) Brazil (4) Sweden
(1) A proton gradient forms across the inner
membrane Q.120 Darwin's Finches are an excellent examples of:
(2) There is a change in the permeability of the (1) brood parasitism (2) connecting links
inner mitochondrial membrane toward (3) adaptive radiation (4) seasonal migration
Adenosine Di-Phosphate (ADP)
(3) High energy bonds are formed in Q.121 Polysome is formed by:
mitochondrial proteins (1) a ribosome with several subunits
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the (2) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
intermembrane space arrangement
(3) several ribosomes attached to a single
Q.115 The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with mRNA
the plasmid vector became possible with:
(4) many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Exonucleases
endoplasmic reticulum
(3) DNA ligase (4) Endonucleases
Q.122 Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
Q.116 The rupture and fractionation do not usually
bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids
the category mentioned against it?
during the ascent of sap because of :
(1) Guanine, Adenine — Purines
(1) weak gravitational pull
(2) Adenine, Thymine — Purines
(2) transpiration pull
(3) Thymine, Uracil — Pyrimidines
(3) lignified thick walls
(4) Uracil, Cytosine — Pyrimidines
(4) cohesion and adhesion

Q.117 Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita Q.123 The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior
are examples of: ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in :
(1) vestigial organs (1) guava (2) cucumber
(2) retrogressive evolution (3) pomegranate (4) orange
(3) analogous organs
(4) homologous organs Q.124 Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo
in the seed of:
Q.118 Consider the following four measures (1-4) that (1) pea (2) maize
could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in (3) coconut (4) castor
an area where bacterial blight disease is
common: Q.125 In the DNA molecule:
(i) Spray with Bordeaux mixture (1) the proportion of adenine in relation to
(ii) Control of the insect vector of the disease thymine varies with the organism
pathogen (2) there are two strands which run antiparallel
(iii) Use of only disease-free seeds one in 5' → 3' direction and other in 3' → 5'
(iv) Use of varieties resistant to the disease (3) the total amount of purine nucleotides and
Which two of the above measures can control pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
the disease? (4) there are two strands which run parallel in
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iv) the 5' → 3' direction
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)

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Q.126 Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of Q.131 Which one of the following pairs of codons is
a single loop of human cochlea: correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular amino acid?
A (1) AUG, ACG — Start/Methionine
B
(2) UUA, UCA — Leucine
C (3) GUU, GCU — Alanine
A D (4) UAG, UGA — Stop

Which one of the following options correctly Q.132 Select one of the following pairs of important
represents the names of three different parts? features distinguishing Gnetum form Cycas and
(1) D:Sensory hair cells, A:Endolymph, Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms:
B:Tectorial membrane
(1) perianth and two integuments
(2) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane,
(2) embryo development and apical meristem
C: Endolymph
(3) absensce of resin duct and leaf venation
(3) B:Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph,
D:Secretory cells (4) presence of vessel elements and absence of
(4) C:Endolymph, D:Sensory hair cells, archegonia
A:Serum
Q.133 Earthworms have no skeleton but during
Q.127 Which type of white blood cells are concerned burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and
with the release of histamine and the natural acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to:
anti-coagulant heparin? (1) gut peristalsis (2) setae
(3) coelomic fluid (4) blood
(1) Eosinophils (2) Monocytes
(3) Neutrophils (4) Basophils
Q.134 Which one of the following is the true
description about an animal concerned?
Q.128 Thermococcus, Methanococcus and (1) Rat — Left kidney is slightly
Methanobacterium exemplify: higher in position than
(1) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively the right one
supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as (2) Cockroach — 10 pairs of spiracles
well as mitochondria (2 pairs on thorax and
(2) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and 8 pairs on abdomen)
ribosomes (3) Earthworm — The alimentary canal
(3) archaebacteria that contain protein consists of a sequence
of pharynx, oesophagus,
homologous to eukaryotic core histones
stomach, gizzard and
(4) archaebacteria that lack any histones
intestine
resembling those found in eukaryotes but (4) Frog — Body divisible into
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled. three regions-head, neck
and trunk
Q.129 Which one of the following is being tried in
India as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels? Q.135 Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
(1) Musa (2) Aegilops prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
(3) Jatropa (4) Azadirachta uterus?
(1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion
(3) Chorion (4) Allantois
Q.130 Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary is: Q.136 About 70% of total global carbon is found in:
(1) berry (2) cremocarp (1) Oceans (2) Forests
(3) caryopsis (4) cypsela (3) Grasslands (4) Agroecosystems

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Q.137 Human insulin is being commercially produced Q.144 Consider the following four statements (1-4) about
from a transgenic species of: certain desert animals such as kangaroo-rat.
(1) Rhizobium (2) Saccharomyces (i) They have dark colour and high rate of
(3) Escherichia (4) Mycobacterium reproduction and excrete solid urine
(ii) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow
Q.138 Vacuole in a plant cell: rate to conserve water and have their body
(1) lacks membrane and contains air covered with thick hairs
(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and (iii) They feed on dry seeds and do not required
excretory substances drinking water
(iv) They excrete very concentrated urine and do
(3) is membrane-bound and contains storage
not use water to regulate body temperature
proteins and lipids
Out of these four, which two are correct-
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and
(1) (iii) and (i) (2) (i) and (ii)
excretory substances
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)

Q.139 Quercus species are the dominant component in: Q.145 Which one of the following is NOT a
(1) Scrub forests characteristic of phylum Annelida?
(2) Tropical rain forests
(1) Pseudocoelom
(3) Temperate deciduous forests
(2) Ventral nerve cord
(4) Alpine forests
(3) Closed circulatory system
(4) Segmentation
Q.140 Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
from:
Q.146 In human adult females oxytocin:
(1) periblem (2) dermatogen (1) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(3) phellogen (4) plerome (2) causes strong uterine contractions during
parturition
Q.141 Gel electrophoresis is used for: (3) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining (4) stimulates growth of mammary glands
with cloning vectors
(2) isolation of DNA molecule Q.147 The most active phagocytic white blood cells
(3) cutting of DNA into fragments are:
(4) separation of DNA fragments according to (1) eosinophils and lymphocytes
their size (2) neutrophils and monocytes
(3) neutrophils and eosinophils
Q.142 Which one of the following pairs of organs (4) lymphocytes and macrophages
includes only the endocrine glands?
(1) Thymus and testes Q.148 In which one of the following, male and female
gametophytes do not have free-living
(2) Adrenal and ovary
independent existence?
(3) Parathyroid and adrenal (1) Polytrichum (2) Cedrus
(4) Pancreas and parathyroid (3) Pteris (4) Funaria

Q.143 Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies Q.149 What is vital capacity of our lungs?
than the diploids. This is because: (1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
(1) haploids are more abundant in nature than reserve volume
diploids (2) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(2) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive (3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
are expressed in haploids
(4) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve
(3) haploids are reproductively more stable than
diploids volume
(4) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
Q.150 Which one of the following is hetero-sporous?
effectively than in diploids
(1) Adiantum (2) Equisetum
(3) Dryoptris (4) Salvinia

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Q.151 The blood calcium level is lowered by the Q.156 In the light of recent classification of living
deficiency of: organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
(1) both calcitonin and parathormone archaea and eukarya), which one of the
(2) calcitonin following statements is true about archaea?
(3) parathormone (1) Archaea completely differ from both
(4) thyroxine
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q.152 The C4 plants are photosynthetically more (2) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
efficient than C3 plants because: (3) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(1) the CO2 efflux is not prevented (4) Archaea have some novel features that are
(2) they have more chloroplasts absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(3) the CO2 compensation point is more
(4) CO2 generated during photorespiration is Q.157 Which one of the following proved effective for
trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase biological control of nematodal disese in plants?
Q.153 Which one of the following phyla is correctly (1) Gliocladium virens
matched with its two general characteristic? (2) Paecilomyces lilacinus
(1) Echinoderamata — Pentamerous radial (3) Pisolithus tinctorius
symmetry and
mostly internal (4) Pseudomonas cepacia
fertilization
(2) Mollusca — Normally oviparous and Q.158 A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of
development through fishes within a few days. Consider the following
a trochophore or reasons for this?
veliger larva
(i) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were
(3) Arthropoda — Body divided into head,
thorax and abdomen used in the crops in the vicinity
and respiration by (ii) the area was sprayed with DDT by an
tracheae aircraft
(4) Chordata — Notochord at some (iii) The lake water turned green and stinky
stage and separate (iv) Phytoplankton populations in the lake
anal and urinary declined initially thereby greatly reducing
openings to the photosynthesis
outside Which two of the above were the main causes
of fish mortality in the lake?
Q.154 In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded (1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii)
exclusively in the: (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv)
(1) peroxisomes (2) mitochondria
(3) proplastids (4) glyoxysomes
Q.159 The table below gives the populations
Q.155 Which one of the following is the correct (in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas
difference between Rod cells and Cone cells of (a-d) consisting of the number of habitats given
our retina? within brackets against each. Study the table
Rod cells Cone cells and answer the question which follows:
(1) Overall function Vision in Colour Area and Species, and their populations (in thousands) in the
poor light vision and Number areas
detailed of
A B C D E F G H I J
vision in Habitats
bright light a (11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6.0 - 3.1 1.1 9.0 - 10.3
b (11) 10.2 - 0.62 - 1.5 3.0 - 8.2 1.1 11.2
(2) Distribution More Evenly
c (13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
concent- distributed d (12) 3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11.3 2.1
rated in all over
centre of retina Which area out of a to d shows maximum
retina
species diversity?
(3) Visual acuity High Low
(4) Visual pigment lodopsin Rhodopsin (1) d (2) a
contained (3) b (4) c

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Q.160 During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the Q.165 Which one of the following is incorrect about
action potential results from the movement of: the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
(1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic
extracellular fluid origin of life?
(2) Na+ ions from extracelluar fluid to (1) They were partially isolated from the surru-
intracellular fluid ounding
(3) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to (2) They could maintain an internal environ-
intracellular fluid ment
(4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to (3) They were able to reproduce
extracellular fluid (4) They could separate combinations of mole-
cules from the surroundings
Q.161 Consider the following statements concerning
food chains: Q.166 In humans, blood passes from the post caval to
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:
in greatly increased growth of vegetation (1) stimulation of the sino auricular node
(ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted (2) pressure difference between the post caval
in an increased population of deers and atrium
(iii) The length of food chains is generally (3) pushing open of the venous valves
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy (4) suction pull
loss
(iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2 Q.167 Which one of the following is resistant to
to 8 trophic levels enzyme action?
(1) (i), (iv) (2) (i), (ii) (1) Pollen exine (2) Leaf cuticle
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv) (3) Cork (4) Wood fibre

Q.162 Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations Q.168 According to Central Pollution Control Board
of: (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in
(1) thermoacidophiles (2) thermophiles micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible
(3) acidophiles (4) alkaliphiles for greatest harm to human health?
(1) 1.0 or less (2) 5.2-2.5
Q.163 What is antisense technology? (3) 2.5 or less (4) 1.5 or less
(1) When a piece of RNA that is complementary
in sequence is used to stop expression of a Q.169 Cellulose is the major component of cell walls
specific gene of :
(2) RNA polymerase producing DNA (1) Pseudomonas (2) Saccharomyces
(3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for (3) Pythium (4) Xanthomonas
synthesis of antigens
(4) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue Q.170 What does the filiform apparatus do at the
cultures entrance into ovule?
(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
Q.164 Cornea transplant in humans is almost never (2) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
rejected. This is because: (3) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
(1) It is composed of enucleated cells synergid
(2) It is a non-living layer (4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen
(3) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria tube into the embryo sac
(4) It has no blood supply

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Q.171 Match the disease in Column I with the Q.176 Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/ species of:
treatment) in Column II. (1) Alternaria (2) Erwinia
Column I Column II (3) Xanthomonas (4) Pseudomonas
(A) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema
pallidium
Q.177 Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
(B) Diphtheria (ii) Use only
microorganism for:
sterilized food
and water (1) gene transfer in higher plants
(C) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine (2) biological control of soil-borne plant
(D) Syphilis (iv) Use oval rehydration pathogens
therapy (3) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv) (4) reclamation of wastelands
(2) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(3) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv) Q.178 Which one of the following pairs of items
(4) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii) correctly belongs to the category of organs
mentioned against it?
Q.172 Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in
(1) Nephridia of earthworm — Excretory
plant storage organs. Which of the following
five (1-5) properties of starch make it useful as and malpighian tubules organs
a storage material? of cockroach
(1) Easily translocated (2) Wings of honeybee — Homologous
(2) Chemically non-reactive and wings of crow organs
(3) Easily digested by animals (3) Thorn of Bougainvillea — Analogous
(4) Osmotically inactive and tendrils of Cucurbita organs
(5) Synthesized during photosynthesis (4) Nictitating membrane — Vestigial
(1) (1), (3) and (5) (2) (1) and (5) and blind spot in organs
(3) (2) and (3) (4) (2) and (4) human eye
Q.173 The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in
Q.179 To which type of barriers under innate
nature is due to their:
(1) anaerobic environment around them immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the
(2) low cellulose content tears from the eyes, belong?
(3) low moisture content (1) Physiological barriers
(4) poor nitrogen content (2) physical barriers
(3) Cytokine barriers
Q.174 Cry1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus (4) Cellular barriers
thuringiensis are effective against:
(1) Nematodes (2) Boll worms Q.180 Which one of the following groups of three
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Flies
animals each is correctly matched with their one
Q.175 Consider the statements given below regarding characteristic morphological feature?
contraception and answer as directed thereafter: Animals Morphological feature
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) (1) Scorpion, Spider, — Ventral solid
during first trimester is generally safe Cockroach central nervous system
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil (2) Cockroach, — Metameric
until mother breast-feeds the infant upto
Locust, segmentation
two years
Taenia
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
effective contraceptives (3) Liver fluke, — Bilateral symmetry
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one Sea anemone,
week after coitus to prevent conception Sea cucumber
Which two of the above statement are correct? (4) Centipede, Prawn, — Jointed appendages
(1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii) Sea urchin
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv)

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Q.181 A transgenic food crop which may help in Q.186 The energy-releasing process in which the
solving the problem of night-blindness in substrate is oxidized without an external
developing countries is: electron acceptor is called:
(1) Bt. Soybean (1) aerobic respiration (2) glycolysis
(2) Golden rice (3) fermentation (4) photorespiration
(3) Flaver Saver tomatoes
(4) Starlink maize Q.187 The haemoglobin of a human foetus:
(1) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
Q.182 Which one of the following is the correct (2) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of
matching of the site of action on the given an adult
substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end (3) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of
product? an adult
(1) Small intestine — Proteins Pep
 sin
→ (4) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of
Amino acids an adult
(2) Stomach — Fats Lipase
→ Micelles
Q.188 Which one of the following pairs of plant
(3) Duodenum — Triglycerides Tryp
 sin
 →
structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
Monoglycerides
(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(4) Small intestine — Starch α−amylase
 → (2) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
Disaccharide (Maltose) (3) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(4) Egg cell and antipodal cells
Q.183 What will happen if the secretion of parietal
cells of gastric glands is blocked with an Q.189 Which one of the following items gives its
inhibitor? correct total number?
(1) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive (1) Types of diabetes —3
pepsinogen is not converted into the active (2) Cervical vertebrae in humans —8
enzyme pepsin (3) Floating ribs in humans —4
(2) Enterokinase will not be released from the (4) Amino acids found in proteins — 16
duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not
converted to trypsin
Q.190 Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
following statements is correct with respect to
the movement of lipids and proteins from one
Q.184 Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-
brought about by:
flop movement)?
(1) Frankia (2) Azorhizobium
(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
(3) Bradyrhizobium (4) Clostridium
(2) neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
Q.185 Which one of the following is the correct
(4) While lipids can rarely flip-flop proteins
statement regarding the particular psychotropic
drug specified? cannot
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions Q.191 Which one of the following is linked to the
(2) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular
euphoria fungicide?
(3) Hashish causes after thought perceptions (1) Loose smut of wheat
and hallucinations (2) Black rust of wheat
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system and (3) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
causes hallucinations (4) Downy mildew of grapes

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Q.192 Main objective of production/use of herbicide

resistant GM crops is to: Q.196 In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
(1) encourage eco-friendly herbicides division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the:
(2) reduce herbicide accumulation in food
(1) spermatids
articles for health safety (2) spermatogonia
(3) eliminate weeds from the field without the (3) primary spermatocytes
use of manual labour (4) secondary spermatocytes
(4) eliminate weeds from the field without the
Q.197 Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of
use of herbicides photosystem II are accepted first by:
(1) Quinone (2) Ferredoxin
Q.193 Which one of the following in birds, indicates (3) Cytochrome-b (4) Cytochrome-f
their reptilian ancestry?
(1) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in Q.198 Importance of day length in flowering of plants
their digestive tract was first shown in:
(2) Eggs with a calcareous shell (1) Cotton (2) Petunia
(3) Scales on their hind limbs (3) Lemna (4) Tobacco
(4) Four-chambered heart
Q.199 The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses
Q.194 Consider the following statements about a number of:
biomedical technologies, (1) berries (2) mericarps
(i) During open heart surgery blood is (3) achenes (4) samaras
circulated in the heart-lung machine
(ii) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed Q.200 Which one of the following scientist's name is
by angiography correctly matched with the theory put fourth by
(iii) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) him?
shows detailed internal structure as seen in (1) deVries — Natural selection
a section of body. (2) Mendel — Theory of pangenesis
(iv) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of (3) Weismann — Theory of continuity
organs like prostate glands and lungs of germplasm
Which two of the above statements are correct? (4) Pasteur — Inheritance of acquired
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) characters
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)

Q.195 Ascaris is characterized by :

(1) presence of true coelom but absence of
metamerism
(2) presence of true coelom and metamerism
(metamerisation)
(3) absence of true coelom but presence of
metamerism
(4) presence of neither true coelom nor
metamerism

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