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1. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 6. A heavenly body is receding away from the earth such
a,the first minimum is observed at an angle 30∘ when that the fractional change in λ is 1, then its velocity is :
light of wavelength 5000 Ȧ is incident on the slit. The (1) C
3C
first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of (2) 5
(a) sin−1 ( 23 ) (b) sin−1 ( 12 ) (3)
C
5
2C
(c) sin−1 ( 4 ) (d) sin−1 ( 14 ) (4)
3
5
2. Interference was observed in interference chamber 7. In the adjacent diagram, CP represents a wavefront
when the air was present, now the chamber is evacuated and AO & BP, the corresponding two rays. What would
and if the same light is used, a careful observer will see be the condition on θ for constructive interference at P
(1) No interference between the ray BP and reflected ray OP?
(2) Interference with bright bands
(3) Interference with dark bands
(4) Interference in which width of the fringe will be
slightly increased
3. In Young's double slit experiment, if the slit widths

are in the ratio 1 : 9, then the ratio of the intensity at
minima to that at maxima will be:
1. 1
2. 1/9
3. 1/4
4. 1/3
(1) cosθ = 3λ/2d
4. In a biprism experiment, by using light of wavelength (2) cosθ = λ/4dθ
5000 Å, 5 mm wide fringes are obtained on a screen 1.0 (3) secθ – cosθ = λ/d
m away from the coherent sources. The separation (4) secθ – cosθ = 4λ/d
between the two coherent sources is
(1) 1.0 mm 8.
(2) 0.1 mm Sound waves do not show the phenomenon of:
(3) 0.05 mm 1. interference
(4) 0.01 mm 2. diffraction
3. refraction
5. In Young's double slit experiment, the angular width 4. polarisation
of fringe is 0.20∘ for sodium light of wavelength 5890 Å
. The angular width of fringe, if the complete system is
dipped in water, will be: 9. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of
∘ wavelength λ, diffraction is produced by a single slit
1. 0.11
2. 0.15∘ whose width a is much greater than the wavelength of
3. 0.22∘ the light. If D is the distance of the screen from the slit,
4. 0.30∘ the width of the central maxima will be:
2Dλ Dλ
1. 2.
a a
Da 2Da
3. 4.
λ λ
Page: 1
10. Two waves are given by y1 = asin (ωt − kx) and 13. Two waves, each of intensity i0 and wavelength 0.2
y2 = acos (ωt − kx) . The phase difference between the m, start from sources A and B and meet at point P as
two waves is: shown in the figure. If AP = 0.5 m, BP = 0.8 m, then
π
1. 4 intensity at P is:
2. π
π
3. 8
π
4. 2
1. 2i0 2. i0
11. The figure shows the position of a wavefront in two
3. i0 /2 4. zero
media. The phase angles corresponding to points a, b, c,
and d are ϕa , ϕb , ϕc and ϕd respectively. Then choose
the incorrect alternative:
14. Wavefront is:
1. locus of all adjacent points at which the phase of
vibration of a physical quantity associated with the wave
in the same
2. locus of all adjacent points at which the electric field
is the same
3. series of points on the wave with the same amplitude
4. series of points on the wave with the same frequency
15. The wavefront due to linear source is:

1. ϕa = ϕb 1. Plane
2. ϕc = ϕd 2. Spherical
3. ϕa − ϕc = ϕb − ϕd 3. Cylindrical
4. ϕb − ϕc > ϕa − ϕd 4. None of these
12. In Young's double slit experiment, a slit is covered 16. Which of the following is not true?
with a thin film so that the optical path difference The speed of light is dependent on the colour of the
introduced between coherent waves is 5λ. Then the new 1. light.
position of central maxima will be at
The speed of violet light is less than the speed of the
1. The initial position of 5th maxima 2.
red light in glass.
2. The initial position of 3rd minima
3. The initial position of 2nd minima The frequency of light never depends upon the
3.
4. The initial position of 3rd maxima property of the medium.
When the light diverges from a point source, the
4.
shape of the wavefront is plane.
Page: 2
17. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls 22. In diffraction pattern due to single slit of width a, the
on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is first minimum is observed at an angle 30∘ when light of
observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the wavelength 500 nm is incident on the slit. The first
first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the center secondary maxima is observed at an angle of:
of the screen. The width of the slit is: 1. sin−1 ( 14 )
1. 0.43 mm
2. 0.57 mm 2. sin−1 ( 12 )
3. 0.13 mm
3. sin−1 ( 23 )
4. 0.2 mm
4. sin−1 ( 4 )
3
18. Fringe width in a particular Young's double-slit

experiment is measured to be β. What will be the fringe
width if the wavelength of the light is doubled, the 23. A Young's double-slit setup is first performed in air
separation between the slits is halved and the separation and then in a liquid of refractive index µ. At a particular
between the screen and slits is tripled? location on the screen, the 10th bright fringe in air and
1. 10 times the 12th bright fringe in liquid coincide. Then µ =
2. 11 times 1. 1.8
3. Same 2. 1.54
4. 12 times 3. 1.67
4. 1.2
19. For a crystal with λ = 1 Å and Bragg's angle
θ = 60∘ , the second-order diffraction, d (distance 24. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because:
between two consecutive atomic layers) will be: 1. it reduces the light intensity to half on account of
1. 1.15 Å polarisation
2. 0.75 Å 2. it is fashionable
3. 0.55 Å 3. it has good colour
4. 2.1 Å 4. it is cheaper
20. When light is refracted into a medium then, 25. Young's double-slit experiment is performed with
1. its wavelength and frequency both increase. identical slits separated by a distance d, and with light of
its wavelength increases but frequency remains wavelength λ. The screen is placed at a point which is at
2. a distance D from the double-slit, as usual. A convex
unchanged.
its wavelength decreases but frequency remains lens of focal length f is inserted between the double-slit
3. and the screen, very close to the double slit. The screen
unchanged.
is adjusted (i.e. the value of D is slowly varied) until a
4. its wavelength and frequency both decrease.
clear interference pattern is formed. The fringe width
equals:
λf
1.
21. Which of the following sources gives the best d
2λf
monochromatic light? 2. d
1. a candle 3.
λf
2d
2. a bulb λf
3. a mercury tube 4.
d√2
4. a laser
Page: 3
26. A monochromatic light of frequency 500 THz is 30. A Young's double-slit experiment is set up, as shown
incident on the slits of a Young's double slit experiment. in the figure. The fringes formed on the screen are
If the distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen indicated by the variation in intensity. The notation used
is placed at a distance 1 m from the slits, the width of is standard. The fringes, each, subtend an angle of 1∘ at
10 fringes will be: the location of the double-slit. The wavelength of light
1. 1.5 mm (λ) is:
2. 15 mm
3. 30 mm
4. 3 mm
27. Which one of the following statements is true for

Young's double-slit experiment?
1. fringe width is proportional to wavelength λ.
2. fringe width is proportional to slit width d.
fringe width is inversely proportional to screen
3.
distance D.
fringe width is proportional to the position of fringe
4.
from the central maximum.
πd 180d
1. 2. π
180
28. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm falls D d
normally on a slit of width a. What should the value of a 3. 4.
180 180
so that the first-order diffraction minimum occurs at an
angle of 30∘ ?
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29. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, light of
wavelength, λ = 600 nm is used and the first minimum
is observed at an angle, θ = 30∘ . The width of the slit
(a) is:
1. 1.2 µm 2. 1.5 µm
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1. From the following, which is the most basic 7. The spin only magnetic moment of [ZCl4]2- is 3.87
hydroxide? BM where Z is
1. Ce(OH)3 1. Mn
2. Lu(OH)3 2. Ni
3. Yb(OH)3 3. Co
4. Tb(OH)3 4. Cu
2. The correct electronic configuration of 8. The increasing order of oxidising power among the
Gadolinium(Atomic number = 64) is : following species is :
1. VO2 + < Cr2 O7 2− < MnO4 −
1. [Xe]4f86d2
2. VO2 + < MnO4 − < Cr2 O7 2−
2. [Xe]4f95s1
3. Cr2 O7 2− < VO2 + < MnO4 − ,
3. [Xe]4f75d16s2
4. Cr2 O7 2− < MnO4 − < VO2 +
4. [Xe]4f65d26s2
9. Incorrect statement among the following is :
3. The reason for lanthanoid contraction is: 1. La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
1. Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
2. In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions
2. Increasing nuclear charge
decreases.
3. Decreasing nuclear charge
3. La is actually an element of transition metal series
4. Decreasing screening effect
rather than lanthanide series.
4. Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of
4. Which one of the following statements is not correct
lanthanide contraction.
1. Nickel forms Ni(CO)4
2. All the transition metals form mono-metallic 10. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in
carbonyls
+3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5: Atomic number for the
3. Carbonyl are formed by transition metals
element X is :
4. Transition metals form complexes
1. 25
2. 26
5. Which of the following statements is false?
3. 27
On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, 4. 24
1.
a milky colour is observed.
Na Cr O is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric 11. Which of the following ions show a higher spin-only
2. 2 2 7
analysis. magnetic moment value?
3+
K Cr
3. 2 2 7 O solution in an acidic medium is orange. a. Ti
b. Mn2+
K Cr O solution becomes yellow in increasing the
4. 2 2 7 c. Fe2+
pH beyond 7 d. Co3+
Choose the correct option
1. (a, b)
3+
6. The unpaired electron in Eu will be the same in: 2. (b, c)
1. Yb 2+ 3. (c, d)
2. Ho3+ 4. (a, d)
3. Sm2+
4. Gd3+
Page: 1
12. Which of the following compounds cannot act as an 17. The basic character of the transition metal
oxidising agent? monoxides follows the order:
1. CrO3 2. CrO2− (Atomic nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
4
3. WO3 4. Both 1 and 2 1. VO > CrO > TiO > FeO 2. CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
3. TiO > FeO > VO > CrO 4. TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
13. Match the properties given in Column I with the

metals given in Column II: 18. Transition metals and their many compounds act as
Column I - (Property) Column II - (Metal) good catalysts due to :
Element with highest second 1. Variable oxidation states 2. Unstable intermediate
A. 1. V 3. Provide a suitable surface 4. All of the above
ionisation enthalpy
Element with highest third
B. 2. Cr
ionisation enthalpy
19. In an aqueous solution, coloured ions would be:
C. M in M(CO)6 is 3. Cu
1. Ti3+ , V3+ , Cu+
Element with the highest heat of 2. Sc3+ , Mn2+ , Fe3+
D. 4. Zn
atomisation
3. Ti3+ , V3+ , Mn2+ , Fe3+ , Co2+
4. None of the above.
A B C D
1. 3 4 1 2 20. Which of the following statements is false?
2. 3 4 2 1 Cr2+ is strongly oxidizing while manganese(III) is
1.
3. 1 2 4 3 strongly reducing.
4. 3 2 4 1 Cobalt(II) is stable in an aqueous solution but in the
2. presence of complexing reagents, it is easily
oxidized.
14. Which of the following is amphoteric oxide ? 3. The d1 configuration is very unstable in ions.
1. V2 O5 , Cr2 O3 2. Mn2 O7 , CrO3 4. None of the above.
3. CrO , V2 O5 4. V2 O5 , V2 O4
21. The correct statement(s) regarding the oxidation

15. The actinoid that can show oxidation states up to +7 state of transition elements is/are:
is: 1. The oxidation state can vary from +1 to +7
1. Am 2. Variable oxidation states are possible.
2. Th 3. Both (1) and (2)
3. U 4. None of the above
4. Np
16. Ion that gives color with water is:

1. Cu+
2. Cr3+
3. Na+
4. None of the above.
Page: 2
22. The incorrect statement among the following is: 26. Select the correct decreasing order for the radii of
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat the given lanthanides:
1.
and electricity. 1. Nd > Pr > Ce > La
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when 2. Ce > Pr > Nd > La
2. 3. La > Ce > Pr > Nd
finely divided.
4. La > Ce > Nd > Pr
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element
3.
than Lanthanoid contraction.
27. Yellow colour of potassium dichromate in the basic
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in
4. medium is due to the presence of:
the solid-state.
1. Cr2 O2−
7
2−
2. CrO4
3+
23. The transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of 3. Cr
atomisation because- 4. CrO5
1. It has stronger interatomic interaction
28. The pair of lanthanoids with exceptionally high 3rd
2. It has stronger hydrogen bonding
ionization enthalpy than neighbour elements are:
3. It has paired electrons
1. Lu and Yb
4. It has strong vanderwaal interaction 2. Eu and Gd
3. Eu and Yb
4. Dy and Yb
24.
For an exothermic reaction, the value of 29. In which medium does the oxidation state of Mn in
Assertion (A): Kc decreases on increasing the KMnO4 experience a change of 3 units?
temperature. 1. Strongly acidic.
Rate constant for a backward reaction 2. Strongly basic.
Reason (R): increases more than the increase in the 3. Aqueous neutral.
rate constant for a forward reaction. 4. Weakly acidic.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 30. Identify the reactions among the following that are
1. explanation of (A). involved in the process of preparing potassium
dichromate:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. (I) 4FeCr2 O4 + 8Na2 CO3 + 7O2 →
explanation of (A).
(II) Na2 CrO4 + H2 SO4 →
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. (III) Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2KCl →
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 1. (I) and (II)
2. (II) and (III)
3. (I) and (III)
25. Atomic number of the heaviest natural radioactive 4. (I), (II), and (III)
actinoid is
1. 91
2. 92
3. 93
4. 94
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1. 5. A concave lens of focal length 25 cm can produce an

1
image 10 th the size of the object. The distance of the
Two identical glass (µg = 3/2) equi-convex lenses of
object from the lens is:
focal length f each are kept in contact. The space 1. 225 cm
between the two lenses is filled with water (µw = 4/3). 2. 250 cm
The focal length of the combination is 3. 150 cm
(a) f/3 (b) f 4. 175 cm
4f 3f
(c) 3 (d) 4
6. A biconvex lens has power P . It is cut into two
symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal
axis. The power of one part will be:
2. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a P
1. 0 2.
straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part of 2
the objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of P
3. 4. P
this line. The length of this image is l. The magnification 4
of the telescope is:
(1)L/l+1
7. In normal adjustment, the angular magnification of an
(2)L/l-1 astronomical telescope is 39. If the length of the tube is
2 m, then the focal length of the objective and eyepiece
(3)L+1/L-1 are respectively,
(1) 195 cm, 5 cm
(4)L/l (2) 190 cm, 10 cm
(3) 20 cm, 180 cm
3. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a (4) 10 cm, 190 cm
piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length
10 cm. The diameter of the sun is 1.39 ×109 m and its 8. A thin lens whose power is +2D is cut into two pieces
mean distance from the earth is 1. 5 × 1011 m. What is perpendicular to the principal axis. The focal length of
the diameter of the sun's image on the paper? each part will be
1. 9. 2 × 10−4 m (1) 1 m
2. 6. 5 × 10 m−4 (2) 0.1 m
−5
3. 6. 5 × 10 m (3) 75 cm
4. 12. 4 × 10−4 m (4) 0.05 m
4. A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece of 9. In case of a compound microscope, the image formed
paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and a by the objective lens is
refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should (1) Virtual, erect and diminished
the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again? (2) Real, erect and magnified
1. 1 cm upward (3) Virtual, inverted and enlarged
2. 4.5 cm downward (4) Real, inverted and enlarged
3. 1 cm downward
4. 2 cm upward 10. A converging spherical wavefront is obtained from
(1) Light emerging from a convex lens when a point
source is placed at its focus
(2) A parallel beam of light incident on the convex lens
(3) Light converging at a point
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Page: 1
11. A concave lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has 15. In the diagram shown below, the image of the point
both surfaces of the same radius of curvature R. On object O is formed at l by the convex lens of focal length
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will 20 cm, where F1 and F2 are foci of the lens. The value
have as a of x′ is:
1. Divergent lens of focal length 3R
2. Divergent lens of focal length 4R
3. Convergent lens of focal length 3.5R
4. Convergent lens of focal length 5R
12. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are

separated co-axially by a distance d. The power of the
combination will be zero if d equals to 1. 10 cm 2. 20 cm
1. √f1 f2 3. 30 cm 4. 40 cm
2. f1 + f2
f1 −f2
3. 2
f1 +f2 16. A man with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book
4. 2 with small print using a magnifying glass: a thin convex
lens of focal length 5 cm. What is the ratio of maximum
13. The angle of a distant object formed at the objective and the minimum angular magnification (magnifying
of a telescope is 2 minutes. If the focal length of power) possible using the above simple microscope?
objective and eyepiece of the telescope is 200 cm and 20 6 5
cm, then the size of the image formed by the objective is 1. 2.
5 6
approximately 3 2
1. 20 cm 3. 4.
2 3
2. 0.12 cm
3. 0.4 cm
4. 12 cm 17. A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1 mm2
is being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a
14. We combined a convex lens of focal length f1 with a magnifying glass (a converging lens of focal length
concave lens of focal length f2 and their combined focal 10 cm) held close to the eye. What is the magnification
length is F. The combination of these lenses will behave produced by the lens?
like a concave lens, if 1. 11 2. 9
1. f1 > f2
3. 10 4. 12
2. f1 < f2
3. f1 = f2
4. f1 ≤ f2
18. The radius of curvature of curved
surface at a thin planoconvex lens is
10 cm and the refractive index is 1.5.
If the plane surface is silvered, then
the focal length will be,
1. 5 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 15 cm
4. 20 cm
Page: 2
19. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double 23. A parallel beam of width 20 mm is incident onto a
convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. Its focal length is 12 lens and the width of the emerging beam decreases at a
cm. What is the refractive index of glass? rate of 1 mm as it travels every 3 cm. The lens has a
1. 1.3 focal length of:
2. 1.2 1. 30 cm 2. 60 cm
3. 1.5 20 40
4. 1.4 3. cm 4. cm
3 3
20. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a

convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were 24. Given below are two statements:
put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a Transmission Electron Microscope
distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed Assertion (A): (TEM) provides two-dimensional
images.
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
Reason (R):
provides three-dimensional images.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
at a distance of: 1.
explanation of (A).
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
1. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
image. 2.
explanation of (A).
20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
2. 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
image.
3. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image. 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
25. Which, of the following, does not suffer from

21. A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii
chromatic aberration?
R and refractive index m = 1.5. We have:
1. convex lens
1. f = R/2
2. f = R 2. plano-convex lens
3. f = −R 3. concave lens
4. f = 2R 4. concave mirror
22. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal

parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If
the power of the original lens was 4 D, the power of a
cut-lens will be
1. 2 D
2. 3 D
3. 4 D
4. 5 D
Page: 3
26. Given below are two statements: 29. A parallel beam of light is brought to focus on its
Image produced by the eye-piece of a axis at F , by a lens, as shown in the figure. The focal
Assertion (A):
telescope is virtual and erect. length of the lens is f. The intensity of the refracted
The eyepiece of a telescope works as a beam is proportional to:
Reason (R): (x is the distance from lens where intensity is measured)
simple microscope.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
27. If a convex lens made of glass (µglass = 1.5) is 1. x2

dipped in honey (µhoney = 1.7) then it behaves: 1
2. 2
1. as a convergent lens with larger focal length x
3. (f − x)2
2. as a convergent lens with shorter focal length 1
3. as a divergent lens 4.
(f−x)2
4. as a mirror
30. Given below are two statements:
A convex lens made of glass (µ = 1.5),
28. A magnifying glass is held in front of a manuscript when placed in a liquid of refractive
Assertion (A):
and it is observed that the letters are enlarged by 5 times index µ = 3, functions like a diverging
(linearly). The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. The lens lens.
is held at a distance of (from the manuscript): The focal length of the lens is
1. 1 cm determined by the expression:
2. 4 cm
= (µr − 1)( ) which
1 1 1
3. 6 cm
−
Reason (R): f R1 R2
4. 1.25 cm depends on the relative refractive index
of the material of the lens with respect
to that of the external medium.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
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1. Consider the following statements: 6. Decomposers are

I. The rate of production of organic matter during 1. Animalia and Monera
photosynthesis is called as gross primary productivity of 2. Protista and Animalia
an ecosystem. 3. Fungi and Plantae
II. The available biomass for the consumption of 4. Bacteria and Fungi
heterotrophs is called secondary productivity
III. The low productivity of the oceans can mainly be 7. Highest value in g/m2 /yr of a grassland ecosystem
attributed to limited availability of nitrogen would be
Which of the above statements are true? 1. Gross primary production
1. I and II only 2. Net primary production
2. I and III only 3. Secondary production
3. II and III only 4. Tertiary production
4. I, II and III
8. The rate of formation of new organic matter by
2. The important step in the process of decomposition in consumers in an ecosystem is known as:
order is: 1. Gross Primary productivity
Catabolism → Fragmentation → Leeching → 2. Net Primary productivity
1.
Humification → Mineralization 3. Secondary productivity
Catabolism → Fragmentation → Humification → 4. Non-productivity
2.
Leeching → Mineralization
Fragmentation → Humification → Catabolism →
3.
Leeching → Mineralization 9. In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of
Fragmentation → Leeching → Catabolism → energy flows through the:
4.
Humification → Mineralization 1. DFC 2. GFC
3. Either of DFC or GFC 4. Nither of DFC nor GFC
3. Primary production is expressed in terms of-

1. Grams 10. Identify the correct statements:
2. Grams/year
Only a few individuals can be taken into account at
3. Gram/m2 I: any trophic level and the deductions may be
4. Gram/m2/year generalised.
Trophic level is a functional level and does not
4. The standing crop is measured as the- II:
represent a species.
1. Mass of living organisms in a unit area.
A given species may occupy more than one trophic
2. The number of living organisms in a unit area. III:
level in the same ecosystem at the same time.
3. Calculated from the net primary productivity
4. Both 1 and 2.
1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III
5. The amount of living matter present in a component 3. Only II and III 4. I, II, III and IV
population at any time in an ecosystem is called as
1. Standing state
2. Standing quality
3. Standing crop
4. Immobilized nutrients
Page: 1
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 16. On the land, almost all primary production is
(a) The entire sequence of communities that performed by:
successively change in a given area is called sere. 1. Phytoplanktons 2. Algae
(b) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock. 3. Mosses and Liverworts 4. Vascular plants
(c) Ecological pyramids do not accommodate food web.
1. Only statement (a) is correct.
2. Only statement (b) is correct. 17. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a
3. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct. particular time is known as:
4. All (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.
1. Standing state
12. Read the statements given below and choose the
correct option 2. Primary Productivity
Statement I: Decomposition is purely an anaerobic 3. Secondary Productivity
process. 4. Standing crop
Statement II: The rate of decomposition is controlled by
chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
1. Only statement I is correct. 18. Which of the following is not correct regarding the
2. Only statement I is incorrect. decomposition of wastes?
3. Both statements I and II are correct. (a) Low temperature inhibits decomposition
4. Both statements I and II are incorrect (b) Warm and moist environment favors the process
(c) The process is anaerobic
13. Mark the incorrect statement (with respect to
humus) It is slower if detritus is rich in proteins and
(d)
1. Dark coloured amorphous substance carbohydrates
2. Highly resistant to microbial action Detritus is degraded into simpler inorganic
(e)
3. Reservoir of nutrients substance by fungal and bacterial enzymes
4. Cannot be degraded further
14. In a food chain, the transition from an earlier trophic Choose the correct answer from the options given
level to the next trophic level will lead to: below:
1. a gain of 50% of energy 2. a gain of 1% of energy
1. (b) and (c) only 2. (c), (a) and (d) only
3. a loss of 90% of energy 4. a loss of 10% of energy
3. (c) and (d) only 4. (c), (d) and (e) only
15. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Vertical distribution of different
1. Stratification
species occupying different levels
Mass of living material at a particular
2. Standing crop
time at each trophic level
Rate of formation of new organic Net primary
3.
matter by consumers productivity
The rate of production of organic Gross primary
4.
matter during photosynthesis productivity
Page: 2
19. Consider the given two statements: 24. Consider the given two statements:
Temperature and soil moisture are the Organisms at each trophic level depend
most important climatic factors that Assertion (A): on those at the lower trophic level for
Assertion (A):
regulate decomposition through their their energy demands.
effects on the activities of soil microbes. The amount of energy decreases at
Reason (R):
Temperature and soil moisture affect the successive trophic levels.
Reason (R):
activities of soil microbes.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains
1.
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. the (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 2. (A) is true but (R) is false
2.
explain (A). 3. (A) is false but (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly
3. 4.
(A). explain the (A).
25. Consider the given two statements:

20. Rate of formation of new organic matter by Assertion Measurement of biomass in terms of fresh
consumers is called as: (A): weight is more accurate.
1. Gross primary productivity The standing crop is measured as the mass of
2. Net primary productivity Reason
living organisms
3. Secondary productivity (R):
(biomass) or the number in a unit area.
4. Tertiary productivity
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
21. In tropical rain forest most of the energy in 1.
(A).
ecosystem flows through
1. Grazing food chain 2. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Detritus food chain 3. (A) is False but (R) is True
3. Parasitic food chain Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
4. Both (1) & (3) explain (A).
22. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living

material at a particular time called as the:
1. Standing state
2. Primary Productivity
3. Secondary Productivity
4. Standing crop
23. The trophic level occupied by zooplankton in an

aquatic ecosystem is:
1. First 2. Second
3. Third 4. Fourth
Page: 3
26. Consider the given two statements: 30. Decomposition rate:

Pyramid of energy is always upright, I: is faster, if detritus is rich in in lignin and chitin.
Assertion (A):
can never be inverted. II: is slower in anaerobic conditions.
When energy flows from a particular 1. Only I is correct
trophic level to the next trophic level, 2. Only II is correct
Reason (R):
some energy is always lost as heat at 3. Both I and II are correct
each step. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1.
(A). Fill OMR Sheet*
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
4.
explain (A).
27. Humus:
1.
is formed by humification of detritus as the first step
of decomposition in an ecosystem.
CLICK HERE to get
2. is highly prone to rapid microbial action. FREE ACCESS for 2
3. serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
4. is never degraded further in an ecosystem.
course
28. Regarding the given two statements:
Statement I: Herbivores are primary consumers.
Statement Primary carnivores are secondary
II: consumers.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
29. In most ecosystems, which of the following

pyramids are upright?
I: pyramid of number
II: pyramid of energy
III: pyramid of biomass
1. Only II
2. Only I and III
3. Only I and II
4. I, II and III
Page: 4
:
Print
1. The technique not used for transformation of plant 8. There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco
cells in recombinant procedures is: RI. What does the 'co' part in it stand for?
1. Biolistics 1. Coelom
2. Agrobacterium mediation 2. Coenzyme
3. Use of viruses 3. Coli
4. Micro-injection 4. Colon
2. The natural genetic engineer of plants is 9. DNA precipitation, out of a mixture of biomolecules,
can be achieved by treatment with:
(1) Armillaria ostoyae 1. Chilled chloroform
(2) Agrobacterium tumefacians 2. Isopropanol
(3) Argemonaria geneticis 3. Chilled ethanol
(4) Nuclearia incorporate 4. Methanol at room temperature
10. Given below are four statements pertaining to the

separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis.
3. EcoRI comes from
Identify the incorrect statements:
1. Escherichia coli RY13
DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is
2. Escherichia coli RY16 I.
loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
3. Escherichia coli RY19
4. Escherichia coli RY12 DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel
II. whose concentration does not affect the movement
4. Pvu II restriction site is present in pBR322 at? of DNA.
1. rop Smaller the size of the DNA fragment larger the
III.
2. Tetracycline resistance gene distance it travels through it.
3. Ampicillin resistance gene Pure DNA can be visualised directly by exposing
IV.
4. Ori UV- radiation.
5. The precipitation of DNA out of the solution is done

by adding Select the correct option from the following:
1. Organic Acid 1. I, III and IV
2. HCl 2. I, II and III
3. Ethanol 3. II, III and IV
4. Ketone 4. I, II and IV
6. The synthesis of DNA in PCR will be in

1. 5’-3’
2. 3’-5’ 11. If the recombinants grow in ampicillin containing
3. It won't be depending on the direction medium and not on that containing tetracycline. It means
4. For one strand 5’-3’ in another opposite to it that foreign DNA is inserted in
(1) Site of origin of replication
7. The piece of equipment, that introduces DNA into (2) Rop site
cells via DNA-coated microprojectiles is known as (3) Tetracycline selective marker site
1. laser (4) Ampicillin selective marker site
2. DNA probe
3. gene gun
4. inoculating needle
Page: 1
12. In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the 16. Which of the following is a direct method of gene
bacterial cells must first be made competent to take up transfer?
DNA. This is done by treating them with specific. (1) Plasmid vector
(1) Concentration of divalent cation such as calcium (2) Cosmid
(2) Incubating cell on ice, heat shock and back on ice (3) Ti-plasmid based vector
(3) Low concentration of monovalent ions followed by (4) Chemical mediated genetic transformation in which
increase in temperature certain chemical like polyethylene glycol help in uptake
(4) Both (1) & (2) of foreign DNA
13. Amplification of gene of interest by using DNA 17. Select the incorrect match
polymerase may go up to: (1) Agarose - Gel electrophoresis
(1) 0.1 million times - Stained DNA can be
(2) 1.0 million times (2) Ethidium bromide
seen in visible light
(3) 1.0 billion times
- Precipitates DNA for
(4) 1.0 trillion times (3) Chilled ethanol
spooling
(4) Chitinase - Disrupts fungal cell wall
14. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation
of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given
options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
18. Read the following statements

Statement-A : Restriction enzymes are obtained only
from eukaryotes.
Statement-B : The first discovered restriction
endonuclease was EcoRI.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements are correct
1. ori - original restriction enzyme
(2) Both statements are incorrect
2. rop-reduced osmotic pressure
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
3. Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
(4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
4. ampR, tetR- antibiotic resistance genes
19. Thermus aquaticus is the source bacterium of:
15. Restriction enzymes do not act on the DNA of the
1. a heat-resistant enzyme used in PCR
host cell in which they are produced, because :
2. an acid-resistant enzyme used in biological detergents
1. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes 3. a reporter enzyme used in recombinant procedures
2. Restriction enzymes are ineffective on host DNA 4. a key enzyme involved in ELISA
Host DNA does not have the restriction site for the
3.
restriction enzymes. 20. In agar gel electrophoresis, the restriction fragments
4. Restriction site of host DNA is methylated. produced by restriction enzymes:
1. move towards cathode
2. do not move at all
are separated according to size with smaller
3.
fragments moving farther
4. are transported onto a nitrocellulose membrane
Page: 2
21. Assertion(A): Restriction enzymes cut the strand of 25. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation
DNA to produce sticky ends. of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis.
Reason(R): Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action
of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
22. Which of the following methods can be used for

making the bacterial cell “competent”? Choose the correct option.
1. Treating with specific concentration of divalent cation
DNA fragments move towards anode because they
(Ca+2) 1.
are positively charged
2. Treating with specific concentration of monovalent
Separation of DNA fragments occurs due to sieving
cation (K+) 2.
effect in gel
3. Heat shock at 42°C
Larger DNA fragment move faster than smaller
4. Heat shock at 94°C 3.
fragments
23. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning 4. DNA fragments are visualized after staining with
because they bromoethane in green light
1. Alter the pH of host chromosomal DNA
2. Are never resistant to antibiotics
3. Are incomplete RNA molecules 26. Introduction of an alien DNA into plant host cell is
4. Are small circular DNA molecules with their own ori achieved by making them
sequence 1. Competent with bivalent ions
2. Using microinjections
24. Read statements A and B and select the correct 3. Using gene gun
option given below. 4. Using lysozymes and chitinase
Statement DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, thus it
A: cannot pass through cell membrane. 27. The genetic material of all organisms without
exception is:
Electroporation creates transient microscopic
Statement 1. DNA
pores in cell membrane making entry of DNA
B: 2. RNA
molecules into the cell easier.
3. Nucleic acid
1. Both statements A and B are correct
4. Nucleotide
2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
4. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
Page: 3
28. How many of the given statements are correct?

Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which Fill OMR Sheet*
raw materials are biologically converted into
I:
specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
microbial plant, animal or human cells. where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for
achieving the desired product by providing
II:
optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH,
substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
III:
The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring
type. CLICK HERE to get
1. 0
2. 1
FREE ACCESS for 2
3. 2
4. 3
29. In agarose gel electrophoresis the separated DNA
course
fragments can be visualized only after staining the DNA
with a compound known as:
1. Polyethylene glycol
2. Janus Green
3. DEC
4. Ethidium bromide
30. The ‘sticky ends’ produced in the fragments of DNA

produced by some restriction enzymes are composed of:
1. methyl groups
2. telomeres
3. unpaired bases
4. Guanine rich repeats
Page: 4
:
Print
1. In general, which of the following is not an adaptation 7. Which type of association is found between
seen in parasites in accordance with their life style? entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?
1. Loss of unnecessary sense organs 1. Mutualism 2. Commensalism
2. Presence of adhesive organs 3. Cooperation 4. Co-evolution
3. Low reproductive capacity
4. Loss of digestive system
8. Cuscuta is an example of
2. Mycorrhizae are the example of 1. predation.
(1) fungistasis 2. endoparasitism.
(2) amensalism 3. ectoparasitism.
(3) antibiosis 4. brood parasitism.
(4) mutualism
9. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger
3. Why does the exotic species become invasive and reserves is often based on:
start spreading fast?
1. Pug marks 2. Cub count
1. It gets better nutrition there.
2. Because of the lack of competition from other exotic 3. Area allocation 4. Collar position
plants
3. Because of the lack of natural predator
4. Because of the successful establishment of the food 10. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with
web. one or two blanks.
Bears go into __(i)__ during winter to __(ii)__ cold
A.
4. MacArthur's Warblers could coexist due to weather
1. Behavioral differences in their foraging activities A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents
B.
2. Temporal differences in their foraging activities __(iii)__ human population
3. Spatial differences in their foraging activities A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of
4. Both 1 and 3 C.
__(iv)___
An area with high levels of species richness is
5. Endoparasites have a complex life cycle D.
known as __(v)___
1. Because of extreme morphological adaptations
2. Because of extreme specialization.
1. (ii) - Stable (iv) Commensalism, (v) Marsh
3. Because of extreme anatomical adaptation
4. Because of less reproductive potential (i) - Aestivation, (v) - Escape, (iii) - Stable,
2.
(iv) - Mutualism
6. Parasites evolved special adaptations in accordance 3. (iii) - Expanding, (iv) - Commensalism,
with their lifestyles choose the odd one out with respect (v) Biodiversity park
to these adaptations (i)- Hibernation, (ii) - Escape, (iii) - Expanding,
4.
1. High reproductive capacity (v) Hot spot
2. Simple life cycle and complex morphological,
anatomical features
3. Loss of unnecessary sense organs 11. Select the wrongly matched pair
4. Loss of the digestive system 1. Predator - Herbivore.
2. Brood parasitism - Cuckoo.
3. Commensalism - Barnacles on the whale.
4. Mutualism - Sea anemone on a hermit crab.
Page: 1
12. The sum of the environmental factors that tend to 17. Two different species cannot live for a long duration
restrict the biotic potential of an organism is called in the same niche or habitat. This is:
environmental resistance. In the logistic growth equation 1. Allen's law
dN/dt = rN[K-N/K], the environmental resistance is 2. Gloger's rule
represented by: 3. Competitive exclusion principle
1. r 2. N 4. Weismann's theory
3. K 4. [K-N]/K
18.
Bell shape age pyramid confirms a stable
Assertion:
13. Regarding competition find out the wrong statement population.
1. Unrelates species could compete for the same The proportion of individuals in
resource reproductive age-group is greater than the
Reason:
2. In competition fitness of one species is lowered in individuals in pre-reproductive age-group.
presence of other species
3. Abingdon tortoise became extinct due to competitor
starfish Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
1.
4. Balanus led to exclusion of Chathamalus from rocky the correct explanation of the assertion
coasts of Scotland Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
2.
not the correct explanation of the assertion
14. Population density
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
1. Measured as biomass is generally most appropriate
4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. For tiger is estimated usually by total numbers
3. Is measured necessarily as relative densities
4. Measured as total number is not easily adaptable
measure for larger population 19. An epiphyte is a plant that:
I: grows on other plants for physical support
15. Biocontrol of crop pests is often based on which of II: affects the host negatively
the following interspecific interactions ?
1. Competition 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
2. Amensalism 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Predation
4. Commensalism
20. Predators:
16. In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in
act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic
a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died during the 1.
levels
year. Using exponential equation, the number of people
present in 2015 is predicted as 2. do not include herbivores in broad ecological context
1. 25 millions 3. indiscriminately kill their prey
2. 17 millions 4. have a very high biotic potential
3. 20 millions
4. 18 millions
Page: 2
21. 23. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

Assertion The female anopheles mosquito is not Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(A): considered a parasite Plant-animal interactions often involve
Assertion (A):
The bite of the female anopheles mosquito co-evolution of the mutualists.
Reason
injects infective stage of malarial parasite The mutually beneficial system should
(R): Reason (R):
into human blood be safeguarded against ‘cheaters’.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct appropriate answer from the options given below :
1.
explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explain (A).
2.
explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False explains (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
22. The given picture shows cattle egret and the cattle in
close association. This is an example of: 24. Assertion(A): Monarch butterfly is highly tasteful to
its predator.
Reason(R): It has a special chemical that is acquired in
its caterpillar stage.
Choices for Assertions and reasons:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
25. For chemical defense against

herbivores, Calotropis has
1. Cardiac glycosides 2. strychnine
1. Competition 2. Commensalism 3. toxic ricin 4. distasteful quinine
3. Mutualism 4. Parasitism
26. The integral form of exponential growth equation

will be
1. N0 = Nt ert
2. Nt − N0 = ert
3. Nt = N0 ert
Nt
4. N = e1rt
0
Page: 3
27. Important attributes belonging to a population but

not to an individual are: Fill OMR Sheet*
(i) Birth rate and death rate
(ii) Male and Female *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
(iii) Birth and Death where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
(iv) Sex-ratio
Select the correct option from the given options:
1. (i) only
2. (ii) only
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (iv) CLICK HERE to get
28. An abandoned field has luxuriant growth of FREE ACCESS for 2
Calotropis but cattle and goats are not seen browsing in
this field because Calotropis produces: days of ANY NEETprep
1. stipules
2. thorns course
3. mustard oils
4. cardiac glycosides
29. Co-existence between competing species can be

promoted by:
1. Resource partitioning
2. Periodic migration
3. Aestivation
4. Reproductive isolation
30. To evolve the desired traits, natural selection

operates at the level of:
1. Organism
2. Population
3. Species
4. Biological community
Page: 4
:
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1. 5. For the fermentation of which of the following

Column-I Column-II options, microbes are not used?
Microbial biocontrol
I. Methanogens A. (1) Fish
agent
(2) Soyabean
II. Organic wastes B. Penicillin (3) Bamboo leaves
Bacillus Biochemical oxygen (4) Cheese
III. C.
thuringiensis demand
IV. Penicillium notatum D. Methanobacterium
Which of the combinations is correct?
6. The activated sludge is
I II III IV
(1) B A D C (1) Pumped back into aeration tanks
(2) C D A B (2) Pumped into large anaerobic sludge digesters
(3) D C A B (3) Pumped into primary settling tank
(4) D B A C (4) Both A and B
2. Lactic Acid Bacteria grow in

7. Methane, Hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide are
(1) Milk produced in
(2) Curd
(1) Aerobic settling tanks
(3) Water
(2) Anaerobic sludge digesters
(4) Juice
(3) Aeration tanks
(4) Primary settling tanks
3. The dough of bread is fermented by

8. The dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
soft and spongy because of
(2) Saccharomyces sharmani
1. Fermentation
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
2. Cohesion
(4) Baker's bacteria
3. Osmosis
4. Absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
4. The oldest food item in which microbes are used is 9. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
method used for:
(1) Cheese 1. estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage
(2) Juices water.
(3) Breads 2. working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile
(4) Both A and C engines.
3. measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in
producing curd on a commercial scale.
4. working out the efficiency of RBCs about their
capacity to carry oxygen.
Page: 1
10. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional 15. Consider the two statements:
value by increasing the amount of? Indirectly, BOD is a measure of the organic matter
I:
1. Vitamin D present in the water.
2. Vitamin A The greater the BOD of wastewater, the more its
3. Vitamin B12 II:
polluting potential.
4. Vitamin E
1. Both I and II are correct
11. 2. Only I is correct
Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? 3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. Rhizobium
2. Nostoc
3. Mycorrhiza
4. Agrobacterium 16. During biological treatment of sewage water the
term activated sludge refers to?
12. Name the product formed by Trichoderma 1. Activated charcoal which is used for purification
polysporum and give its use. 2. Masses of aerobic bacteria and fungal filament which
1. Statins which are used as blood cholesterol lowering is sedimented
agent. 3. Different biochemical’s that comes with polluted
2. Cyclosporin A that is used as immunosuppressive water
agent. 4. It is digested solid waste which can be used as active
3. Statins which are used as clot buster. fertilizer
4. Cyclosporin A that is used to inhibit the enzyme
responsible for cholesterol synthesis. 17. During the secondary or biological treatment of
sewage water:
13. Select the mismatch: The BOD of the wastewater gets reduced
I.
1. Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza significantly.
2. Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer The activated sludge contains aerobic micro-
3. Rhizobium - Alfalfa II.
organisms that can clump together.
4. Frankia - Alnus The entire activated sludge is pumped into
III.
anaerobic sludge digesters.
14. What important nutrient is added to the curd that is
produced with the help of LAB [Lactic Acid Bacteria]? 1. Only I is correct
1. Vitamin A 2. Cyanocobalamin 2. Only I and II are correct
3. Essential amino acids 4. Essential fatty acids 3. I, II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are incorrect
18. Bioactive molecule used as immunosuppressant in

organ transplant patients is
1. Cyclosporin-A
2. Statins
3. Streptokinase
4. TPA
Page: 2
19. Mark the mis-matched pair 23. Identify the colonies labelled as A and B.
1. Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
2. Nucleopolyhedrovirus - Narrow spectrum
weedicide
3. Blue green algae - Important biofertiliser in
paddy fields
4. Glomus - Mycorrhiza
20. Find a correct match

1. Trichodema - Statins
2. Monascus - Cyclosporin A 1. A-Fungal; B-Bacterial
3. Propionibacterium - Camembert cheese 2. A-Bacterial; B-Fungal
4. Cactoblastis - Eradication of opuntia 3. A-Algal; B-Viral
4. A-Fungal; B-Algal
21. Select the correct match with respect to microbes
and their product 24. Baculoviruses can play an important role in overall
Column l Column ll Integrated Pest Management in an ecologically sensitive
(Microbes) (Product) area because:
a. Aspergilius niger i. Ethanol 1. They are effective against a large number of insects
b. Acetobacter aceti ii. Butyric acid
Their use can help in the conservation of beneficial
c. Clostridium butylicum iii. Citric acid 2.
insects
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae iv. Acetic acid
1. a (i), b (iv), c (iii), d (ii) They do not have any adverse effects on human
3.
2. a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i) health
3. a (iv), b (i), c (ii), d (iii) They are cost-effective and can be easily applied as
4.
4. a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i) sprays by the farmer
22. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for:

Species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal 25. In a sewage treatment plant (STP), the primary
1. treatment is a (A) which involves removal of
applications
Species-specific, broad-spectrum insecticidal small and large particles from sewage through (B)
2. and (C) .
applications
3. Biocontrol of fungal diseases A B C
4. Biocontrol of aphids and mosquitoes 1. Physical process Filtration Sedimentation
2. Chemical process Filtration Sedimentation
Filtration
3. Biological process Sedimentation
sedimentation
Microbial
4. Biological process Sedimentation
digestion
Page: 3
26. 29. Consider the given two statements:

Most of the orchid species seedlings The use of pathogens like baculoviruses
Assertion (A): cannot proceed with development in the Assertion (A): as biocontrol agent in ecologically
absence of symbiotic fungi. sensitive areas should be avoided.
Lichens contain symbiotically Baculoviruses are broad spectrum
Reason (R): Reason (R):
associated fungi. general insecticides.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains
1. 1.
explanation of (A) the (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
2.
explanation of (A) 3. (A) is False; (R) is False
3. (A) is true, (R) is false Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
4. (A) is false, (R) is true explain the (A).

The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are 30. Baculoviruses can play a crucial role in ecologically
due to production of a large amount of sensitive area primarily because:
Statement I:
CO2 by a bacterium named 1. They are inexpensive to produce
Propionibacterium shermanii. They are narrow spectrum, species specific
2.
The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by insecticides
Statement II: growing a specific bacteria on them, They are non-specific insecticides for broad spectrum
3.
which gives them a particular flavour. applications
4. They do not work in ecologically stable areas
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Fill OMR Sheet*
28. A blood cholesterol lowering agent can be isolated where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
from:
1. Trichoderma polysporum
2. Trichoderma harzianum
3. Monascus purpureus
4. Penicillium notatum
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1. Adenosine deaminase (ADA deficiency) could be 6. Basmati rice is distinct because of it's
permanently cure, if the gene isolated from marrow cells
producing ADA is introduced into cell at (1) Unique Aroma
(1) early embryonic stages (2) Unique flavor
(2) Late embryonic stages (3) Unique size
(3) early childhood (4) Both A and B
(4) None of the above
2. Which step proved to be the main challenging

7. Eli Lilly an American company is famous for
obstacle in the production of human insulin by genetic
(1) Producing GH (growth hormone) synthesised by
engineering?
recombinant DNA technology
(1) Splitting A and B polypeptide chains
(2) Preparing two DNA sequences corresponding to A
(2) Addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin
and B chains of human insulin and introduced them in
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
the plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains
(4) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
(3) Producing pest resistant plants, by RNA interference
(4) Producing vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice
3. Probes are molecules of
(1) DNA 8. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus

(2) RNA thuringiensis is:
(3) Proteins 1. Acidic pH of stomach
(4) All of the above 2. High temperature
3. Alkaline pH of gut
4. Mechanical action in the insect gut
4. Which of the following diptera is killed by proteins
produced by a particular strain of Bacillus
thuringienesis? 9. Golden rice is:
A variety of rice grown along the yellow river in
1.
(1) Mosquitoes China
(2) Beetles 2. Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(3) Tobacco budworm 3. A transgenic rice having a gene for β - carotene
(4) Armyworm
4. Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains
5. Transgenic animals are created not to study which of 10. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the
the following options use of:
1. RNAi only 2. antisense RNA only
(1) The regulation of genes 3. both RNAi and antisense RNA 4. none of the above
(2) Study of disease
(3) For biological products
(4) Diagnostics
Page: 1
11. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that 15. To obtain a pathogen-free plant from a diseased plant
contain insecticidal protein. This protein: through tissue culture, the best technique is
does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself 1. Anther culture
1.
resistant to this toxin. 2. Meristem culture
binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest 3. Embryo culture
2. 4. Protoplast fusion
ultimately killing it.
3. is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
16. 'Rosie' a transgenic cow is known to produce a type
is activated by the acid pH of the foregut of the insect
4. of milk which has all the following charcteristics, except
pest.
1. Protein content of 2.4 g/L
2. Human α-lactalbumin
3. More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies
12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the use of 4. Was produced for first time in year 2001
RNAi for creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to
Meloidogyne incognita: 17. The name Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to transform the [GEAC] has been changed to:
1.
plant cells 1. Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
Double-stranded RNA was introduced into the plant 2. Genetic Engineering Appellate Committee
2.
cells
3. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
Double-stranded RNA was formed in the plant cells
3. 4. Genetic Engineering Arbitration Committee
that initiated RNAi
A specific mRNA of the nematode was silenced with
4.
the help of dsRNA
18. Probe is
1. Radioactive dsDNA
2. Radioactive dsRNA
13. Match the following 3. Radioactive ssDNA or ssRNA
Column I Column II 4. Non-radioactive dsDNA
(A) α-1 antitrypsin (i) SCID
(B) C-peptide (ii) Emphysema 19. A crop gets infected with a certain virus and the
(C) Human lactalbumin (iii) Rosie farmers of the area suffer immense financial loss. You
(D) ADA deficiency (iv) Proinsulin have been asked to help the farmers and you decide to
A B C D improve the crop by raising virus-free plants through
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) plant tissue culture. The explant you will choose must
2. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) be:
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
1. Meristem 2. Anther
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. Embryo 4. Internode
14. In RNAi, which of the following molecules binds to
and prevents translation of the specific
mRNA? 20. India successfully protected itself against biopiracy
1. dsDNA in a case where in late 1997, the United States Patent
2. ssDNA and Trademark Office granted a patent to:
3. ssRNA 1. Co-667
4. dsRNA 2. Sharbati Sonora
3. Lerma Rojo
4. Basmati
Page: 2
21. Genetically modified tobacco plants were produced 24. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
using Agrobacterium vectors. Which properties of Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Agrobacterium help in carrying nematode specific genes Conventional breeding is not the answer
into the host plant? Assertion (A): if we want to increase yield in the
1. Infectious for monocot plants; has Ti plasmid existing crop varieties.
2. Infectious for dicot plants; has Ti plasmid The existing crop varieties have evolved
3. Infectious for plants and animals; has Ti plasmid Reason (R): into new species and traditional
4. Infectious for monocot and dicots; has cry genes hybridisation is not possible now.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
22. Read the following statements carefully. appropriate answer from the options given below :
PCR is used to detect mutations in genes in 1. Both (A) and (R) are False.
(i)
suspected cancer patients.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
A direct method to insert a foreign gene into plant 2.
(ii) explain (A).
cells is micro-injection.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human
(iii) 4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
protein-enriched milk, i.e., 5.4 grams per litre.
RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
(iv)
method of cellular defense.
25. All the following are possible today with the use of
How many of the above statements are correct? GM crops except:
1. 1
1. More tolerance to abiotic stresses
2. 2
3. 3 2. Alternative resources to industries
4. 4 3. Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants
4. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
23. With regard to insulin choose the incorrect
statement(s).
C-peptide is found attached with both A and B chains 26. ‘Rosie’ is a transgenic cow which produces milk rich
a.
of insulin with the help of disulphide bonds. in than normal cow. Select the option which fills the
In 1983, both A and B chains were produced by blank correctly
b. introducing alien genes in plasmid of same E.coli by 1. α1-antitrypsin
Eli Lilly. 2. Streptokinase
A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected 3. Human α-lactalbumin
c. 4. Hirudin
by peptide bonds in mature insulin.
Insulin from an animal source may cause allergy or
d. 27. During conversion of proinsulin to insulin
other types of reactions in some diabetic patients.
1. A and B chains are joined by disulphide linkages to
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
form one single polypeptide
1. (a) and (b) only
2. C-peptide is removed
2. (c) and (d)
3. C-peptide is added to chain B
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. Rearrangement in position of A, B and C chains is
4. (d) only
observed.
Page: 3
28. Toxin present in Bt cotton in form of protoxin, gets

converted into active toxin by Fill OMR Sheet*
1. The action of saliva of insec
2. Alkaline pH in gut of insect *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
3. Acidic pH in gut of insect where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
4. Action of microorganisms in gut of insect
29. RNA interference involves silencing of a specific

mRNA due to a complementary:
1. dsRNA molecule 2. ssRNA molecule
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Transgenic mice are being developed for
Assertion (A):
use in testing the safety of oral polio
vaccines before they are used on
course
humans
Mice are immune to infection by the
Reason (R):
polio virus.
1.
(A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
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1. The current through the 5 Ω resistor is: 4. In circuit shown below, the resistances are given in
ohms and the battery is assumed ideal with emf equal to
3 volt. The voltage across the resistance R4 is:
1. 3.2 A 2. 2.8 A
3. 0.8 A 4. 0.2 A 1. 0.4 V
2. 0.6 V
3. 1.2 V
2. A copper wire has a square cross-section, 2.0 mm on a 4. 1.5 V
side. It carries a current of 8 A and the density of free
electrons is 8 × 1028 m–3. The drift speed of electrons is 5. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is
equal to connected to a variable resistor R as shown below.
–3
(1) 0.156 × 10 m.s –1 Which one of the following is true?
(2) 0.156 × 10–2 m.s–1
(3) 3.12 × 10–3 m.s–1
(4) 3.12 × 10–2 m.s–1
3. In the arrangement of resistances shown below, the

effective resistance between points A and B is
Potential difference across the terminals of the battery

1.
is maximum when R = r.
Power delivered to the resistor is maximum when
2.
R = r.
3. Current in the circuit is maximum when R = r.
(1) 20 Ω
4. Current in the circuit is maximum when R >> r.
(2) 30 Ω
(3) 90 Ω
(4) 110 Ω
Page: 1
6. If VAB = 4V in the given figure, then resistance X 8. A cell having an emf ε internal resistance r
will be: is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased,
the plot of potential difference V across R is given
by
(a)
(b)
1. 5 Ω
2. 10 Ω
3. 15 Ω
4. 20 Ω
7. The current in a conductor varies with time t as (c)

I = 2t + 3t2 where I is in ampere and t in seconds. The
electric charge flowing through a section of the
conductor during t = 2 sec to t = 3 sec is :
(1) 10 C
(2) 24 C
(3) 33 C (d)
(4) 44 C
9. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which

of the following equation is a correct equation for it?
1. ε1 −(i1 + i2 )R − i1 r1 = 0
2. ε2 − i2 r2 − ε1 − i1 r1 = 0
3. −ε2 −(i1 + i2 )R + i2 r2 = 0
4. ε1 −(i1 + i2 )R + i1 r1 = 0
Page: 2
10. The potential difference VA − VB between the points 13. Three bulbs with individual power ratings of
A and B in the given figure is: 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as per
the circuit diagram below. Find the amount of heat
dissipated by each in 10 seconds.
1. −3 V 2. +3 V
3. +6 V 4. +9 V
11. Two electric bulbs, rated for the same voltage, have
powers of 200 W and 100 W, respectively. If their
resistances are r1 and r2 , respectively then :
1. r1 = 2r2
2. r2 = 2r1
3. r2 = 4r1
4. r1 = 4r2
1. 8 J, 1.33 J, 4 J
12. Figure (a) below shows a Wheatstone bridge in 2. 120 J, 20 J, 60 J
which P , Q, R, S are fixed resistances, G is a 3. 10 J, 0.277 J, 2.5 J
galvanometer, and B is a battery. For this particular case, 4. 12 J, 1.66 J, 5 J
the galvanometer shows zero deflection. Now, only the
positions of B and G are interchanged. as shown in 14. Current through the branch AO is-
figure (b). The new deflection of the galvanometer:
1. is to the left
1. 2A
2. is to the right
2. 4A
3. is zero 3. 1A
4. depends on the values of P , Q, R, S 4. Zero
Page: 3
15. In the network shown in the diagram, the switch is 18. There is a current of 1.0 A in the circuit
closed at t = 0. If the initial charge on the capacitor is shown below. What is the resistance of
Q0, then the charge on the capacitor after t = 2RC will P?
be:
1. 0.37Q0 1. 1.5 Ω
2Q0 2. 2.5 Ω
2. e
Q0 3. 3.5 Ω
3. e2 4. 4.5 Ω
4. Zero
16. A negligibly small current is passed through a wire

of length 15 m and uniform cross-section 6.0 × 10−7
m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is
the resistivity of the material at the temperature of the
experiment?
1. 1 × 10−7 Ωm 2. 2 × 10−7 Ωm
3. 3 × 10−7 Ωm 4. 1.6 × 10−7 Ωm
17. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5∘ C,

and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100∘ C. The temperature
coefficient of resistivity of silver is:
1. 0.0033∘ C−1
2. 0.039∘ C−1
3. 0.0039∘ C−1
4. 0.033∘ C−1
Page: 4
19. A battery consists of a variable number n of identical 20. In the diagrams, all light bulbs are identical, all cells
cells having internal resistance connected in series. The are ideal and identical. In which circuit will the bulbs be
terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the dimmest?
current I measured. Which one of the graph below
shows the relationship between I and n?
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
3.
4.
21. In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are identical.

Which bulb will glow the brightest?
4.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Page: 5
22. In a hot wire ammeter due to the flowing of the 26. A nichrome wire 50 cm long and 1 mm2 cross-
current, the temperature of the wire is increased by 5∘ C. section carries a current of 4 A when connected to a 2 V
If the value of the current is doubled, then the increase in battery. The resistivity of nichrome wire is:
temperature will be: 1. 1 × 10−6 Ω − m
1. 15∘ C 2. 4 × 10−7 Ω − m
2. 20∘ C 3. 3 × 10−7 Ω − m
3. 25∘ C 4. 2 × 10−7 Ω − m
4. 30∘ C
27. A Wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value
23. Electric conduction takes place in a discharge tube of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable
due to the movement of resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise
measurement of X, the resistances P and Q:
(a) positive ions
(b) negative ions
(c) electrons
(d) protons
Choose the correct option
1. (a),(b), (c)
2. (b), (c), (a)
3. (c),(d), (b)
4. (a), (d), (b)
24. What would be the potential difference between

points A and B in the given part of the circuit?
1. do not play any significant role.

2. should be approximately equal to 2X.
3. should be approximately equal and are small.
4. should be very large and unequal.
28. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 free

1. 28 V
electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for free
2. 42 V
electrons when 10 A current flows through the wire will
3. −32 V
be:
4. 36 V
(Given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
6.25 × 104
25. Two copper wires of length l and 2l have radii r and 1. m/s
π
2r respectively. What is the ratio of their specific 6.25
resistances? 2. × 103 m/s
π
1. 1 : 2 6.25
3. m/s
2. 2 : 1 π
3. 1 : 1 6.25 × 105
4. m/s
4. 1 : 3 π
Page: 6
29. The SI unit of current density is:

1. A/m3 2. A/m2
3. A/m 4. A-m
30. Choose the correct statement among the following:

Resistance of a material is independent of current
1.
passing through it.
Resistance of a material is its tendency to oppose the
2.
passage of free electrons.
3. Every material generally has resistance.
4. All of these
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1. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be 4. Which one of the following carbocations would you
most stable? expect to rearrange?
1. 2.
1.
3. 4.
2.
5. The most stable carbocation among the following is:
3.
1. 2.
4.
2. The most stable carbocation among the following is: 3. 4.
1. 2.
3. 4.
3. The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with a concentration

HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it:
1. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl.
2. Increases the solubility product of AgCl.
3. Increases the concentration of NO3- ions.
4. Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed.
Page: 1
6. 10. 0.1688 g organic compound when analyzed by

Assertion 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene is the most stable the Dumas method yields 31.7 mL of moist nitrogen
(A): alkene due to 12-α hydrogen atoms. measured at 14º C, and 758 mm mercury pressure. The
Reason % of nitrogen in the organic compound (Aqueous
H' is more electronegative than carbon. tension at 14 º C =12 mm) is-
(R):
In light of the above statements, choose the correct 1. 30.9%
answer from the options given below: 2. 10%
3. 40%
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 4. 21.9 %
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 11. The latest technique for isolation, purification and
2.
explanation of (A). separation of organic compounds is -
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 1. Crystallisation
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 2. Distillation
3. Sublimation
4. Chromatography
7. Paper chromatography is an example of:
1. Partition chromatography 12. Lassaigne's test can detect:
2. Thin layer chromatography 1. Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogens
3. Column chromatography 2. Nitrogen, Cyanides, Sulphur
4. Adsorption chromatography 3. Sodium, Sulphur, Halogens, Phosphorus
4. Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogens, Phosphorus
8. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
secondary butyl carbocation because- 13. Match the type of mixture of compounds in Column
1. + R effect of CH 3 groups I with the technique of separation/purification given in
2. −R effect of − CH3 groups column II.
3. Hyperconjugation Column I Column II
4. −l effect of −CH3 groups A. Two solids which have different
solubilities in a solvent and which do 1. Steam
9. Consider the following organic compound: not undergo a reaction when dissolved distillation
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 in it
CH3 − CH2 — CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
B. Liquid that decomposes at its 2. Fractional
To make it a chiral compound, the attack should be on
boiling point distillation
carbon:
1. 1 C. Steam volatile liquid 3. Crystallisation
2. 4 4. Distillation
D. Two liquids that have boiling
3. 3 under reduced
points close to each other
4. 7 pressure
Codes:
A B C D
1. 3 4 1 2
2. 1 2 3 4
3. 1 4 3 2
4. 4 1 3 2
Page: 2
14. An organic compound contains 69% carbon, and 19.

4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen. The A mixture of chloroform and aniline can
Statement I:
masses of carbon dioxide, and water produced when be separated by simple distillation.
0.20 g of this substance is subjected to complete When separating aniline from a mixture
combustion would be respectively - Statement II: of aniline and water by steam distillation
1. 0.506 g, 0.0864 g aniline boils below its boiling point.
2. 0.906 g, 0.0864 g The correct option is:
3. 0.0506 g, 0.864 g
1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
4. 0.0864 g, 0.506 g
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
15. H3 CO− ion is a- 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
1. carbocation 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. nucleophile
3. electrophile
4. carboanion 20. The order of stability of the following carbocations
is:
16. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic
compound, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the
compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen,
neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of
nitrogen in the compound is-
1. 46.0 % (I) (II) (III)
2. 51.0%
3. 56.0% 1. I > II > III
4. 49.0% 2. III > I > II
3. III > II > I
17. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.15 g of 4. II > III > I
an organic compound gave 0.12 g of AgBr.
The percentage of bromine in the compound is-
1. 39.05 %
2. 42.42 % 21. The distillation technique most suited for separating
3. 34.04% glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is :
4. 65.12 % 1. Steam distillation
2. Distillation under reduced pressure
18. In an estimation of bromine by the Carius method, 3. Fractional distillation
1.6 g of an organic compound gave 1.88 g of AgBr. The 4. Differential extraction
mass percentage of bromine in the compound is-
[Atomic mass, Ag=108, Br = 80 g mol−1 ]
1. 50 %
2. 55.5%
3. 60 %
4. 70 %
Page: 3
22. Following types of compounds (as I, II) 25. Which of the following species will
(I) CH3CH=CHCH3 show hyperconjugation:
1. C6 H5 − C − (CH3 )3 2.
(II)
are studied in terms of isomerism in: 3. 4.

1. Chain isomerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Conformers
4. Stereisomerism
26. The total number of resonance structures (including
the given structure) that can be drawn for the following
carbocation is:
23.
A free radical is a paramagnetic
Assertion (A):
species.
A free radical is formed by the
Reason (R): homolytic fission of a covalent bond.
1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
1. 4. 4
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct 27. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
2.
explanation of (A). number of α−hydrogen:
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
24. In the four options given below, match the correct

stationary phase (S) and mobile phase (M) in paper
chromatography.
(i) (ii) (iii)
Options: S M 1. (i) > (ii) > (iii)
Chromatography 2. (ii) > (i) > (iii)
1. Solvent
paper 3. (ii) > (iii) > (i)
2. Solvent Water 4. (iii) > (ii) > (i)
3. Water Solvent
Chromatography
4. Solvent
paper
Page: 4
28. The maximum -I effect is shown by which one of the

following? Fill OMR Sheet*
1. −F
2. −NO2 *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
3. −CN where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
4. −OH
29. Which of the following groups attached to the

benzene ring can exhibit a +R effect?
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3. 4. All of the above
30. A neutral nucleophile among the following is:

1. CN−
2. AlCl3
3. H2 O
4. − OCH3
Page: 5
:
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1. Which of the following has maximum global 7. Sacred groves in India are found in:
biodiversity? 1. Jaintia hills of Karnataka
1. Angiosperms 2. Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu
2. Algae 3. Aravalli hills of Meghalaya
3. Lichens 4. Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh
4. Mosses
8. The reasons behind conserving biodiversity can be
2. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ group into categories which include :
conservation of threatened animals and plants? A. Narrowly utilitarian
1. Wildlife Safari parks B. Broadly utilitarian
2. Biodiversity hotspots C. Ethical
3. Amazon rainforest D. Not utilitarian
4. Himalayan region (1) A, B
(2) A, B, C
3. How many hotspots of biodiversity in the world have (3) B, C
been identified till date by Norman Myers? (4) D
(1) 17
(2) 34 9. Which of the following can be considered under
(3) 25 Ecological Diversity?
(4) 43
1. Deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs,
4. Which of the following represent maximum number wetlands,
of species among global biodiversity ? 2. Alpine Meadows
1. Algae 3. Estuaries
2. Lichens 4. All of these
3. Fungi
4. Mosses and ferns
10. Ecological Diversity
5. One of the ex situ conservation methods for
endangered species is (1) It is more in India compared to Scandinavian
(1) wildlife sanctuaries countries like Norway
(2) biosphere reserves (2) It is less in India comparative to Scandinavian
(3) cryopreservation countries like Norway
(4) national parks. (3) It is more in Australia comparative to India
(4) Both (1) and (3)
6. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
The desert area of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very

1.
high level of desert animals.
Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no
2.
adverse effect on biodiversity
Western Ghats have a very high degree of species
3.
richness and endemism
Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by
4.
the developed countries.
Page: 1
11. The total number of plant and animal species 16. Which one of the following is not a major
described so far is slightly more than 1.5 million. This characteristic feature of biodiversity hotspots?
is reported by 1. A large number of species
2. Abundance of endemic species
1. IUCN- 2004 3. Mostly located in the tropics
2. IUN-2006 4. Mostly located in the polar regions
3. IUCN-2006
4. IUN-2004 17. Which one of the following has maximum genetic
diversity in India?
1. Teak
2. Mango
12. If Z value is in between 0.6 to 1.2,This implies
3. Wheat
(1) Steeper slope 4. Tea
(2) More towards the horizontal axis
(3) The value of species richness decreases must faster 18. Wild populations of plants and animals and
than the area explored traditional life styles of tribals are protected in
(4) Plants of Britain can have this value (1) Biosphere reserve
(2) Sanctuary
(3) National Park
(4) None of these
13. Which of the following is not correct regarding the
extinction of species? 19. Identify the correct fact regarding the biodiversity
hot spots in the world:
(1) Some groups like fishes appear to be more The current total number is 25 and 3 of these cover
vulnerable to extinction 1.
India
(2) More than 15500 species worldwide are facing the
The current total number is 25 and 2 of these cover
threat of extinction 2.
India
(3) Presently, 12 percent of all bird species in the world
face the threat of extinction. 3.
India
(4) Both (2) and (3)
4.
India
14. Which of the following mass extinction is going on

20. The greatest biodiversity on earth is for
(1) 5th 1. Western Ghats
(2) 6th 2. Indo Burma region
(3) 4th 3. Forest of North East Himalayas
(4) 7th 4. Amazonian forest
15. Which among the following does not include Ex-

situ-conservation?
1. national parks
2. Wild life Safari parks
3. Zoological parks
4. More than one option is correct
Page: 2
21. Mark the incorrect statement (with respect to 25. David Tilman conducted long-term ecosystem
Amazonian rain forest) experiments using outdoor plots. His findings include:
1. Contributes 20% of the total oxygen Plots with more species showed less year-to-year
I:
2. Called as lungs of the planet variation in total biomass.
3. Home to more than 40,000 species of plants Increased biodiversity contributed to higher
4. Located in North America showing greatest II:
productivity.
biodiversity on earth
1. Only I 2. Only II
22. l. Higher latitude −
Biodversity increases 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
−−−−−−−−−−−→ Lower latitude
(Poles) (Equator)
Biodiversity decreases
ll. Higher latitude −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Lower latitude 26. Ex-situ conservation will be most applicable to the
(Poles) (Equator) animals placed in which of the following IUCN
Biodversity increases
lll. Higher altitude −−−−−−−−−−−−→ Lower altitude categories?
(Mountain top) (Sea level) 1. Vulnerable
Biodiversity decreases 2. Endangered
lV. Higher altitude −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Lower altitude
3. Threatened
(Mountain top) (Sea level)
4. Extinct in wild/Critically endangered
Which of the matches above is/are correct?
1. l and lll
27. Genetic Diversity is not
2. l and ll
1.India has more than 50000 genetically different strains
3. ll and lll
of rice
4. lll and lV
2.India has 10000 varieties of mango
3.A single species might show high diversity at the
genetic level over it's distributional range
23. The impacts of the loss of biodiversity may lead to:-
4.Genetically diverse plant Rawolfia vomitoria is found
(I) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbation.
in Himalayan ranges
(II) Decrease in plant production.
(III) Increase variability in ecosystem processes like आनुवंिशक िविवधता नहीं है
water use, pest/disease cycle, plant productivity. 1. भारत में 50000 से अिधक आनुवंिशक रूप से चावल के िविभन्न
(IV) Increase in plant production. उपभेद हैं
Choose the correct option:-
2. भारत में आम की 10000 से अिधक िविभन्न उपभेद हैं
1. I and II
2. I and IV 3. एक एकल प्रजाित आनुवांिशक स्तर पर उच्च स्तर िदखा सकती
3. I and III है, जो िवतरण की सीमा से अिधक है
4. I, II, and III 4. प्राकृितक रूप से िविवध पौधा रावोिल्फया वोिमटोिरया िहमालय
पवर्तमाला में पाया जाता है
24. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to
conserve the plant diversity of an area?
28. Sacred groves of Khasi and Jaintia hills are located
1. By tissue culture method
in:
2. By creating biosphere reserve
3. By creating botanical garden 1. Assam 2. Meghalaya
4. By developing seed bank 3. Manipur 4. Arunachal Pradesh
Page: 3
29. Parthenium, Lantana and Eicchornia are:

1. recently extinct species
2. species adapted to highly arid regions
3. examples of invasive species
4. capable of thriving in arctic and antarctic permafrost
30. The consequences of loss of biodiversity is least

likely to result in:
1. decline in primary production
2. increased resistance to environmental perturbance
3. increased variability in water use
4. increased variability in pest and disease cycle
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Target DPP Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3. In Young's double slit experiment, if the slit widths

Target DPP Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

15. The wavefront due to linear source is:

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18. Fringe width in a particular Young's double-slit

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27. Which one of the following statements is true for

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13. Match the properties given in Column I with the

21. The correct statement(s) regarding the oxidation

16. Ion that gives color with water is:

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Target DPP Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

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1. 5. A concave lens of focal length 25 cm can produce an

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12. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are

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20. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a

25. Which, of the following, does not suffer from

22. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal

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27. If a convex lens made of glass (µglass = 1.5) is 1. x2

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1. Consider the following statements: 6. Decomposers are

3. Primary production is expressed in terms of-

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15. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

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25. Consider the given two statements:

22. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living

23. The trophic level occupied by zooplankton in an

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26. Consider the given two statements: 30. Decomposition rate:

29. In most ecosystems, which of the following

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10. Given below are four statements pertaining to the

5. The precipitation of DNA out of the solution is done

6. The synthesis of DNA in PCR will be in

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18. Read the following statements

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22. Which of the following methods can be used for

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28. How many of the given statements are correct?

30. The ‘sticky ends’ produced in the fragments of DNA

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Target DPP Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Target DPP Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. 23. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

25. For chemical defense against

26. The integral form of exponential growth equation