A Guide Book for Various Competitive Exams Preparation

All Central Government and State Government Exam Guide Book

Copyright © 2024 by Mr. Sanjeeb Das All rights reserved.
No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any
form or by any means—electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise—
without the prior written permission of the publisher, except for brief quotations used in
critical articles or reviews.

Disclaimer:

The information provided in this book is intended for educational and informational purposes
only. While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the
content, the author and publisher assume no responsibility for errors, omissions, or damages
resulting from the use of this information.

The procedures and guidelines presented are based on current knowledge and standards
available at the time of publication. However, due to the rapid pace of technological change,
some information may become outdated or not applicable to newer systems or software.

The author and publisher do not endorse or recommend any specific software, hardware, or
other products mentioned in this book. All trademarks, registered trademarks, and product
names are the property of their respective owners.

Use this book at your own risk. The author and publisher are not responsible for any losses,
damages, or issues arising from the implementation of the techniques or methods described
herein.

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Contents
Introduction To Computer ...................................................................................................................... 3
MS Word ............................................................................................................................................... 15
MS Excel ................................................................................................................................................ 33
MS Power point .................................................................................................................................... 53
MS Access.............................................................................................................................................. 69
Internet ................................................................................................................................................. 87
Computer Programming ..................................................................................................................... 109
Artificial Intelligence ........................................................................................................................... 127
Computer Hardware & Networking .................................................................................................... 139

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 Introduction To Computer
1. What does CPU stand for?
A) Central Processing Unit
B) Computer Processing Unit
C) Control Processing Unit
D) Central Process Unit
Answer: A
2. Which of these is an input device?
A) Monitor
B) Keyboard
C) Printer
D) Speaker
Answer: B
3. What is the main function of the ALU?
A) Store data
B) Perform arithmetic and logical operations
C) Manage memory
D) Display output
Answer: B
4. RAM is an example of which type of memory?
A) Volatile
B) Non-volatile
C) Flash
D) External
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is an example of software?
A) Hard drive
B) Mouse
C) Microsoft Word
D) Printer
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT an operating system?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) Photoshop
D) macOS
Answer: C
7. Which language is known as the 'mother of all programming languages'?
A) C
B) Python
C) Java
D) Fortran
Answer: A
8. The part of a computer that retains data after the power is turned off is called:
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) ROM

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 D) Cache
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a storage device?
A) Scanner
B) Hard Disk
C) Keyboard
D) Speaker
Answer: B
10. What does URL stand for?
A) Universal Resource Locator
B) Uniform Resource Locator
C) Uniform Resource Link
D) Universal Resource Link
Answer: B
11. What is the main component of the computer that processes data?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) CPU
D) GPU
Answer: C
12. The binary number system uses which two symbols?
A) 1 and 2
B) A and B
C) 0 and 1
D) X and Y
Answer: C
13. Which of these is considered the brain of the computer?
A) Monitor
B) CPU
C) Keyboard
D) Hard Disk
Answer: B
14. What does ROM stand for?
A) Random Online Memory
B) Read-Only Memory
C) Read Online Memory
D) Real Operating Memory
Answer: B
15. In which type of computer network are all computers connected to a single
cable?
A) Bus network
B) Star network
C) Ring network
D) Mesh network
Answer: A
16. Which of the following is not a type of computer virus?
A) Worm
B) Trojan

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 C) Spyware
D) Malware
Answer: C
17. A gigabyte is approximately equal to:
A) 1,000 bytes
B) 1,000 kilobytes
C) 1,000 megabytes
D) 1,000 terabytes
Answer: C
18. What is the shortcut key to 'copy' in Windows?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Ctrl + C
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: B
19. Which device is used to connect a computer to a network?
A) RAM
B) NIC
C) ROM
D) HDD
Answer: B
20. The temporary memory of a computer is also known as:
A) Hard Disk
B) Cache
C) RAM
D) ROM
Answer: C
21. Which of these is not an input device?
A) Mouse
B) Keyboard
C) Monitor
D) Microphone
Answer: C
22. Which programming language is primarily used for web development?
A) Python
B) JavaScript
C) C++
D) Swift
Answer: B
23. What is the main purpose of an operating system?
A) Perform arithmetic operations
B) Control hardware and manage software applications
C) Connect to the internet
D) Store data permanently
Answer: B
24. Which type of software is used to browse the internet?
A) Operating System
B) Web Browser

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 C) Antivirus
D) Word Processor
Answer: B
25. The smallest unit of data in a computer is a:
A) Byte
B) Bit
C) Nibble
D) Kilobyte
Answer: B
26. Which protocol is used to transfer web pages over the internet?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SMTP
D) TCP
Answer: B
27. Which of the following is a valid file extension for an image file?
A) .txt
B) .jpg
C) .doc
D) .exe
Answer: B
28. Which device is used to permanently store large amounts of data?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Hard Disk
D) CPU
Answer: C
29. Which shortcut key is used to 'paste' in Windows?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Ctrl + C
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + Z
Answer: C
30. What does PDF stand for?
A) Portable Data Format
B) Portable Document Format
C) Predefined Document Format
D) Printer Document Format
Answer: B
31. Which part of the computer displays the output?
A) Monitor
B) CPU
C) Keyboard
D) Mouse
Answer: A
32. Which type of software protects computers from viruses?
A) Antivirus
B) Word Processor

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 C) Operating System
D) Database
Answer: A
33. Which language is widely used for Android app development?
A) C
B) Java
C) Swift
D) PHP
Answer: B
34. Which of these is a temporary storage device?
A) Hard Disk
B) RAM
C) SSD
D) DVD
Answer: B
35. What is the full form of HTML?
A) Hyper Text Markup Language
B) Hyperlink Text Markup Language
C) High Text Markup Language
D) Hyperlink and Text Markup Language
Answer: A
36. Which of these is a system software?
A) Word Processor
B) Spreadsheet
C) Operating System
D) Presentation Software
Answer: C
37. Which of the following stores instructions to start the computer?
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) ROM
D) Hard Disk
Answer: C
38. Which of the following is a type of malware?
A) Trojan
B) Compiler
C) HTML
D) OS
Answer: A
39. What is the name of the main directory in a file system?
A) Home
B) Root
C) Base
D) Master
Answer: B
40. Which device converts digital signals to analog signals?
A) Router
B) Modem

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 C) Hub
D) Switch
Answer: B
41. What is the primary purpose of a firewall?
A) To store data
B) To block unauthorized access to a network
C) To run programs faster
D) To manage files
Answer: B
42. Which of these is an example of application software?
A) Windows
B) macOS
C) Microsoft Excel
D) Linux
Answer: C
43. The shortcut key for 'undo' in Windows is:
A) Ctrl + U
B) Ctrl + X
C) Ctrl + Y
D) Ctrl + Z
Answer: D
44. Which of the following is a web server?
A) Apache
B) Excel
C) Photoshop
D) PowerPoint
Answer: A
45. What does LAN stand for?
A) Local Area Network
B) Large Area Network
C) Light Area Network
D) Live Area Network
Answer: A
46. Which of these programming languages is used for data science?
A) R
B) Java
C) HTML
D) CSS
Answer: A
47. In which type of network is data sent directly from one computer to another
without a central hub?
A) Star network
B) Ring network
C) Mesh network
D) Bus network
Answer: C
48. A kilobyte contains how many bytes?
A) 100

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 B) 512
C) 1,024
D) 2,048
Answer: C
49. What is the purpose of a URL?
A) To display graphics
B) To save data
C) To access web resources
D) To execute programs
Answer: C
50. Which file extension is commonly associated with Word documents?
A) .pdf
B) .docx
C) .exe
D) .txt
Answer: B
51. What does GUI stand for?
A) Graphical User Interface
B) General User Interface
C) Graphical User Integration
D) General Usage Interface
Answer: A
52. Which device is used to print documents?
A) Monitor
B) Printer
C) Scanner
D) Modem
Answer: B
53. Which component acts as the primary storage in a computer?
A) CPU
B) GPU
C) Hard Disk
D) Motherboard
Answer: C
54. Which device is used to take photographs in digital format?
A) Scanner
B) Printer
C) Camera
D) Mouse
Answer: C
55. Which programming language is used to create web pages?
A) CSS
B) Python
C) HTML
D) C++
Answer: C
56. Which storage medium is considered volatile?
A) Hard Disk

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 B) ROM
C) DVD
D) RAM
Answer: D
57. Which network device forwards data between networks?
A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Repeater
Answer: B
58. Which of the following is a cloud storage service?
A) Google Drive
B) Microsoft Word
C) Windows
D) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: A
59. Which software application is used for spreadsheets?
A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Microsoft Access
D) Microsoft PowerPoint
Answer: B
60. Which key is used to open the Start menu in Windows?
A) Alt
B) Ctrl
C) Win
D) Esc
Answer: C
61. Which protocol is primarily used for secure communication over a computer
network?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) HTTPS
D) SMTP
Answer: C
62. Which algorithm is commonly used for data encryption?
A) SHA-256
B) RSA
C) SQL
D) FTP
Answer: B
63. Which type of database uses tables, rows, and columns to store data?
A) NoSQL
B) XML Database
C) Relational Database
D) Flat File
Answer: C
64. In networking, what does TCP/IP stand for?

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 A) Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
B) Transfer Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
C) Transmission Code Protocol / Information Protocol
D) Transfer Code Protocol / Internet Protocol
Answer: A
65. What is the purpose of the 'ping' command in networking?
A) To measure bandwidth
B) To check the reachability of a host
C) To establish a secure connection
D) To configure network settings
Answer: B
66. Which database language is used to retrieve and manipulate data in a relational
database?
A) SQL
B) HTML
C) CSS
D) Python
Answer: A
67. What is a 'firewall' used for in computer networking?
A) To compress data
B) To enhance network speed
C) To monitor and block unauthorized access
D) To backup data
Answer: C
68. Which of these is a popular NoSQL database?
A) MySQL
B) Oracle
C) MongoDB
D) PostgreSQL
Answer: C
69. Which part of the computer is responsible for interpreting and executing
instructions?
A) ALU
B) CPU
C) RAM
D) GPU
Answer: B
70. In object-oriented programming, which concept allows a subclass to inherit
properties and behaviors from a superclass?
A) Encapsulation
B) Polymorphism
C) Inheritance
D) Abstraction
Answer: C
71. What does the acronym 'SQL' stand for?
A) Structured Query Language
B) Simple Query Language
C) Sequential Query Language

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 D) System Query Language
Answer: A
72. Which of the following is used to uniquely identify each row in a relational
database table?
A) Foreign Key
B) Primary Key
C) Index
D) Constraint
Answer: B
73. Which command in Linux is used to list files and directories?
A) cd
B) ls
C) dir
D) list
Answer: B
74. In programming, which loop is best suited when the number of iterations is
predetermined?
A) while loop
B) for loop
C) do-while loop
D) infinite loop
Answer: B
75. What does API stand for in computing?
A) Application Programming Interface
B) Applied Program Interface
C) Automated Protocol Interface
D) Active Programming Interface
Answer: A
76. Which network topology connects all computers to a central hub?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: B
77. Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run on a single physical
machine?
A) Virtualization
B) Multitasking
C) Parallel Processing
D) Pipelining
Answer: A
78. In cybersecurity, what is phishing?
A) Attempting to steal personal information via fake emails or websites
B) Scanning the network for vulnerabilities
C) Injecting malware into a system
D) Encrypting data for security
Answer: A
79. What is an IP address primarily used for?

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 A) To identify a device on a network
B) To encrypt data during transmission
C) To assign a name to a device
D) To store files on the internet
Answer: A
80. Which of the following HTTP methods is used to submit data to be processed to
a server?
A) GET
B) POST
C) PUT
D) DELETE
Answer: B
81. Which programming language is known for its use in artificial intelligence?
A) JavaScript
B) R
C) Lisp
D) C++
Answer: C
82. In database management, what does ACID stand for?
A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
B) Access, Control, Integration, Data
C) Add, Commit, Integrate, Delete
D) Asynchronous, Concurrent, Immediate, Durable
Answer: A
83. In Java, what is the purpose of the 'this' keyword?
A) Refers to the current object
B) Calls a static method
C) Defines a new object
D) Accesses a global variable
Answer: A
84. Which technology is used to provide security for a Wi-Fi network?
A) SSL
B) WPA2
C) FTP
D) HTTP
Answer: B
85. Which tool is commonly used for version control in software development?
A) Docker
B) Git
C) Node.js
D) Maven
Answer: B
86. Which JavaScript function is used to log messages to the console?
A) print()
B) alert()
C) log()
D) console.log()
Answer: D

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 87. In relational databases, what is a 'JOIN' operation used for?
A) To merge data from two or more tables based on a related column
B) To add a new row to a table
C) To delete data from a table
D) To update existing data
Answer: A
88. What is the primary purpose of DNS in networking?
A) To assign IP addresses
B) To translate domain names to IP addresses
C) To control network traffic
D) To monitor network activity
Answer: B
89. Which type of malware locks the user's data and demands payment to unlock it?
A) Trojan
B) Worm
C) Ransomware
D) Spyware
Answer: C
90. What is the purpose of load balancing in computer networks?
A) To prioritize certain data over others
B) To distribute workloads evenly across multiple servers
C) To secure the network from cyber attacks
D) To increase data storage capacity
Answer: B
91. What does the term 'Big Data' refer to?
A) Large files in a system
B) Massive volumes of structured and unstructured data
C) Data stored on cloud servers
D) Large binary files
Answer: B
92. Which of the following is a popular cloud computing platform?
A) SQL Server
B) Amazon Web Services (AWS)
C) Oracle
D) GitHub
Answer: B
93. In software engineering, what does the SDLC stand for?
A) Software Data Leveling Cycle
B) System Development Life Cycle
C) Software Development Life Cycle
D) System Deployment Life Cycle
Answer: C
94. What is the role of a compiler in programming?
A) To interpret code at runtime
B) To convert high-level code into machine code
C) To manage program memory
D) To execute code directly
Answer: B

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 95. Which cybersecurity practice involves creating a secure “tunnel” between two
devices over the internet?
A) Encryption
B) Firewalling
C) VPN (Virtual Private Network)
D) Multi-factor authentication
Answer: C
96. What is JSON primarily used for in web development?
A) Formatting web pages
B) Styling web pages
C) Structuring and transmitting data
D) Compressing files
Answer: C
97. In Python, which keyword is used to define a function?
A) func
B) function
C) define
D) def
Answer: D
98. In databases, what is a foreign key used for?
A) To identify rows in a single table
B) To link data between two tables
C) To remove duplicates
D) To enforce a primary key
Answer: B
99. Which command-line interface tool is commonly used for package management
in Linux?
A) apt
B) ls
C) mkdir
D) rm
Answer: A
100. Which type of software testing ensures that new code changes do not
adversely affect existing functionality?
A) Unit testing
B) Integration testing
C) Regression testing
D) Load testing
Answer: C

MS Word
1. What is the default file extension for a Word document?
A) .docx
B) .txt

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 C) .doc
D) .rtf
Answer: A) .docx
2. How can you move a paragraph in a Word document?
A) Cut and paste it
B) Drag and drop
C) Use the Undo command
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
3. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Word interface?
A) Ribbon
B) Title Bar
C) Taskbar
D) Document Area
Answer: C) Taskbar
4. Which keyboard shortcut is used to save a document in Word?
A) Ctrl + S
B) Ctrl + P
C) Ctrl + O
D) Ctrl + N
Answer: A) Ctrl + S
5. What is the purpose of the "Track Changes" feature in Word?
A) To track edits made by different users
B) To track the cursor position
C) To track spelling mistakes
D) To track word count
Answer: A) To track edits made by different users
6. Which of the following view modes is used for editing a document?
A) Read Mode
B) Web Layout
C) Print Layout
D) Draft
Answer: C) Print Layout
7. How do you insert a hyperlink in Word?
A) Right-click and select "Insert Link"

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 B) Use the Insert Tab
C) Press Ctrl + K
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
8. What does the 'Bold' button in the toolbar do?
A) Makes text italic
B) Underlines text
C) Makes text thicker
D) Changes the font size
Answer: C) Makes text thicker
9. Which of the following is used to add a header to a Word document?
A) Insert > Table
B) Insert > Header & Footer
C) Design > Page Layout
D) View > Header
Answer: B) Insert > Header & Footer
10. How can you change the font size in Word?
A) Right-click the text and choose Font
B) Use the Font Size box in the Home tab
C) Press Ctrl + Shift + P
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
11. What is the purpose of the "Find and Replace" feature?
A) To find specific text
B) To replace specific text
C) To search for specific formatting
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
12. What is the shortcut key to undo an action in Word?
A) Ctrl + Z
B) Ctrl + Y
C) Ctrl + U
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: A) Ctrl + Z
13. How can you add a bullet list in Word?

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 A) Use the Bullets button in the Home tab
B) Press Ctrl + Shift + L
C) Right-click and select Bullets
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
14. Which of the following is the default page orientation in Word?
A) Landscape
B) Portrait
C) Custom
D) Wide
Answer: B) Portrait
15. How do you insert a table in Word?
A) Use the Insert > Table option
B) Use the Table button in the Home tab
C) Use Ctrl + T
D) Both A and C
Answer: A) Use the Insert > Table option
16. Which tab is used to adjust the page margins in Word?
A) Insert
B) Layout
C) Design
D) Review
Answer: B) Layout
17. What is the shortcut to paste copied content in Word?
A) Ctrl + C
B) Ctrl + X
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + P
Answer: C) Ctrl + V
18. How can you insert page numbers into a Word document?
A) Insert > Page Numbers
B) Layout > Page Setup
C) View > Header and Footer
D) File > Print
Answer: A) Insert > Page Numbers

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19. Which of the following is NOT a type of alignment for text in Word?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Center
D) Wrap
Answer: D) Wrap
20. How do you change the line spacing in Word?
A) Use the Line and Paragraph Spacing button in the Home tab
B) Right-click the text and select "Paragraph"
C) Use the Paragraph dialog box
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
21. What does the 'Italic' button do?
A) Makes text bold
B) Makes text slanted
C) Changes text color
D) Underlines text
Answer: B) Makes text slanted
22. How do you insert a picture into a Word document?
A) Insert > Picture
B) Insert > Clip Art
C) Use the Copy and Paste option
D) Both A and B
Answer: A) Insert > Picture
23. What is the purpose of the "Header" in Word?
A) To display a title at the top of each page
B) To show the page number
C) To include author's name
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
24. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Word Ribbon?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) File

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 D) Review
Answer: C) File
25. How do you create a new Word document?
A) Press Ctrl + N
B) Go to File > New
C) Right-click on the desktop and select New > Microsoft Word Document
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
26. How do you change the background color of a Word document?
A) Insert > Background Color
B) Design > Page Color
C) Page Layout > Color Scheme
D) View > Color Options
Answer: B) Design > Page Color
27. How do you add a page break in Word?
A) Press Ctrl + Enter
B) Go to Insert > Page Break
C) Both A and B
D) Right-click and select Insert Break
Answer: C) Both A and B
28. What is the function of the "Comments" feature in Word?
A) To add notes or remarks in a document
B) To delete parts of the document
C) To track spelling errors
D) To add page numbers
Answer: A) To add notes or remarks in a document
29. How do you remove a hyperlink from text?
A) Right-click and select Remove Hyperlink
B) Press Ctrl + Shift + F9
C) Both A and B
D) Delete the text
Answer: C) Both A and B
30. Which tab is used to spell check a document?
A) Review
B) Home

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 C) View
D) Insert
Answer: A) Review
31. How can you apply a pre-designed style to text in Word?
A) Use the Styles group on the Home tab
B) Right-click and select "Apply Style"
C) Use the Format Painter
D) Both A and B
Answer: A) Use the Styles group on the Home tab
32. Which of the following is a correct way to zoom in or out on a Word document?
A) Use the Zoom slider in the bottom-right corner
B) Use Ctrl + Scroll Wheel
C) Both A and B
D) Use the Zoom tool in the View tab
Answer: C) Both A and B
33. What is the purpose of the "Word Count" tool?
A) To count the number of words in a document
B) To count the number of pages
C) To check spelling errors
D) To check grammar mistakes
Answer: A) To count the number of words in a document
34. How do you add a footnote in Word?
A) References > Insert Footnote
B) Insert > Footnote
C) Page Layout > Footnote
D) View > Footnote
Answer: A) References > Insert Footnote
35. Which of the following is used to create a numbered list in Word?
A) The Numbering button in the Home tab
B) Press Ctrl + N
C) Use the Bullets button
D) Press Ctrl + Shift + N
Answer: A) The Numbering button in the Home tab
36. How can you check for spelling and grammar errors in Word?
A) Use the Spelling & Grammar button in the Review tab

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 B) Press F7
C) Both A and B
D) Right-click and select "Check Spelling"
Answer: C) Both A and B
37. What is the function of the "Find" feature in Word?
A) To find a word or phrase in the document
B) To replace a word or phrase
C) To find text formatting
D) All of the above
Answer: A) To find a word or phrase in the document
38. Which of the following is used to format paragraph spacing in Word?
A) Page Layout
B) Home > Line and Paragraph Spacing
C) Insert > Text Box
D) View > Zoom
Answer: B) Home > Line and Paragraph Spacing
39. How do you create a table of contents in Word?
A) Use the Table of Contents button in the References tab
B) Manually add entries and format them
C) Use the Insert > Table option
D) Use the Table tool in the Home tab
Answer: A) Use the Table of Contents button in the References tab
40. What is the default font in Word 2016 and later versions?
A) Times New Roman
B) Calibri
C) Arial
D) Courier New
Answer: B) Calibri
41. How do you insert a comment in Word?
A) Review > New Comment
B) Insert > Comment
C) Right-click and select Add Comment
D) Both A and B
Answer: A) Review > New Comment
42. Which of the following is the shortcut for cutting text in Word?

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 A) Ctrl + C
B) Ctrl + X
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + P
Answer: B) Ctrl + X
43. Which of the following file formats can Word save a document as?
A) .doc
B) .txt
C) .pdf
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
44. How can you insert a symbol in Word?
A) Insert > Symbol
B) Press Alt + Code
C) Use the Insert > Special Character
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
45. Which of the following commands is used to center-align text?
A) Ctrl + E
B) Ctrl + L
C) Ctrl + R
D) Ctrl + J
Answer: A) Ctrl + E
46. What is the shortcut to open the Find and Replace dialog box in Word?
A) Ctrl + F
B) Ctrl + H
C) Ctrl + R
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
47. How do you add a watermark to a Word document?
A) Design > Watermark
B) Insert > Text Box
C) Layout > Page Background
D) Review > Watermark
Answer: A) Design > Watermark

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48. What does the "Format Painter" feature do in Word?
A) Copies formatting from one place and applies it to another
B) Changes font size and color
C) Removes text formatting
D) Converts text to a different style
Answer: A) Copies formatting from one place and applies it to another
49. How do you insert a page break in Word?
A) Press Ctrl + Enter
B) Use Insert > Page Break
C) Both A and B
D) Use Layout > Breaks
Answer: C) Both A and B
50. How do you create a custom shortcut key in Word?
A) File > Options > Customize Ribbon
B) Home > Keyboard Shortcuts
C) File > Options > Customize Keyboard
D) View > Customize Shortcuts
Answer: C) File > Options > Customize Keyboard
51. How do you adjust the document's margins in Word?
A) File > Page Setup
B) Layout > Margins
C) Home > Paragraph
D) Insert > Margins
Answer: B) Layout > Margins
52. What feature does the "Thesaurus" tool provide in Word?
A) Spelling check
B) Synonyms and antonyms for words
C) Grammar check
D) Sentence suggestions
Answer: B) Synonyms and antonyms for words
53. Which of the following is the function of the "Find" feature in Word?
A) To find and highlight specific text
B) To replace text
C) To search for a specific formatting

24 | P a g e Mr. Sanjeeb Das

 D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
54. How do you change the paragraph spacing before and after a paragraph in Word?
A) Use the Paragraph dialog box
B) Press Ctrl + 1 for single spacing
C) Press Ctrl + 2 for double spacing
D) Use the Line and Paragraph Spacing button
Answer: A) Use the Paragraph dialog box
55. Which of the following is the default font color in Word?
A) Black
B) Blue
C) Red
D) White
Answer: A) Black
56. Which of the following actions can be performed using the "Insert" tab in Word?
A) Inserting tables
B) Inserting pictures
C) Inserting headers and footers
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
57. Which keyboard shortcut is used to select all text in a Word document?
A) Ctrl + A
B) Ctrl + S
C) Ctrl + C
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: A) Ctrl + A
58. How do you split a document into multiple columns?
A) Layout > Columns
B) Insert > Text Box
C) Review > Split Text
D) Home > Columns
Answer: A) Layout > Columns
59. How do you create a hyperlink in Word?
A) Use Insert > Link
B) Use Ctrl + K

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 C) Right-click and select "Hyperlink"
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
60. Which of the following options allows you to insert a table in Word?
A) Insert > Table
B) View > Table
C) Layout > Insert Table
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C
61. How do you change the style of a Word document's heading?
A) Use the Heading Styles group in the Home tab
B) Use the Font group in the Home tab
C) Right-click and select Heading Style
D) Both A and B
Answer: A) Use the Heading Styles group in the Home tab
62. How can you convert text to uppercase in Word?
A) Press Shift + F3
B) Right-click and select "Convert to Uppercase"
C) Use the Change Case button in the Home tab
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
63. How can you add a drop cap to a paragraph in Word?
A) Insert > Drop Cap
B) Home > Font
C) Page Layout > Drop Cap
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C
64. What is the purpose of the "Insert Citation" feature in Word?
A) To insert footnotes
B) To insert references in a bibliography
C) To insert page numbers
D) To insert an image
Answer: B) To insert references in a bibliography
65. Which feature allows you to automatically create a bibliography in Word?
A) Table of Contents

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 B) Citation & Bibliography
C) References Tab
D) Endnotes
Answer: B) Citation & Bibliography
66. What is the default number of recent documents shown in the Word Start Screen?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer: B) 10
67. How do you insert a caption for an image in Word?
A) Right-click on the image and select Insert Caption
B) Insert > Text Box > Caption
C) Use the References tab > Insert Caption
D) All of the above
Answer: C) Use the References tab > Insert Caption
68. Which of the following is the shortcut for inserting a page number in Word?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Alt + N
C) Insert > Page Number
D) Both B and C
Answer: C) Insert > Page Number
69. How do you remove all formatting from text in Word?
A) Press Ctrl + Space
B) Use Clear Formatting in the Home tab
C) Use the Format Painter
D) Right-click and select "Remove Formatting"
Answer: B) Use Clear Formatting in the Home tab
70. Which of the following is used to create a new paragraph style in Word?
A) Styles > New Style
B) Format > Styles
C) Home > Paragraph Styles
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Styles > New Style

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71. What is the maximum number of words that can be added to a Word document's
title?
A) 50
B) 100
C) No limit
D) 255
Answer: C) No limit
72. What is the purpose of the "Show/Hide ¶" button in Word?
A) To reveal paragraph marks and formatting symbols
B) To hide the header and footer
C) To insert a new paragraph
D) To reveal comments in the document
Answer: A) To reveal paragraph marks and formatting symbols
73. How do you create a custom header in Word?
A) Insert > Header > Edit Header
B) Design > Header
C) View > Headers
D) Right-click and select "Header"
Answer: A) Insert > Header > Edit Header
74. How can you merge multiple cells in a table in Word?
A) Right-click the cells and select "Merge Cells"
B) Use the Layout tab > Merge Cells
C) Press Ctrl + Shift + M
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
75. How can you remove all hyperlinks in a Word document?
A) Right-click and select "Remove Hyperlink"
B) Press Ctrl + Shift + F9
C) Use the Hyperlink tool in the Insert tab
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
76. What is the shortcut key for increasing font size in Word?
A) Ctrl + Shift + >
B) Ctrl + Alt + >
C) Ctrl + >

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 D) Alt + Shift + >
Answer: A) Ctrl + Shift + >
77. How do you remove a page break in Word?
A) Select the page break and press Delete
B) Press Ctrl + Z
C) Use the Insert tab > Remove Break
D) Right-click and select "Remove Page Break"
Answer: A) Select the page break and press Delete
78. Which tool is used to check document compatibility with earlier versions of Word?
A) File > Info > Check for Issues > Check Compatibility
B) File > Tools > Compatibility Check
C) View > Compatibility Mode
D) File > Review > Compatibility Check
Answer: A) File > Info > Check for Issues > Check Compatibility
79. Which of the following can be adjusted in the "Page Setup" dialog box?
A) Margins
B) Orientation
C) Paper size
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
80. How do you access the document properties in Word?
A) File > Info
B) File > Properties
C) Review > Document Properties
D) View > Properties
Answer: A) File > Info
81. Which view in Word is used to display a document as it would appear printed on
paper?
A) Print Layout
B) Web Layout
C) Outline View
D) Draft
Answer: A) Print Layout
82. How do you change the size of a picture in Word?
A) Select the picture and drag the sizing handles

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 B) Use the Picture Tools tab > Format > Size group
C) Right-click and select "Size"
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
83. How do you insert a text box in Word?
A) Insert > Text Box
B) Home > Insert Text Box
C) Layout > Text Box
D) View > Text Box
Answer: A) Insert > Text Box
84. What is the purpose of the "SmartArt" feature in Word?
A) To add graphic elements such as diagrams and charts
B) To add text boxes
C) To insert images
D) To create tables
Answer: A) To add graphic elements such as diagrams and charts
85. How do you remove a border from a paragraph in Word?
A) Home > Borders
B) Design > Paragraph Borders
C) Right-click and select "Remove Borders"
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C
86. How do you insert a date in Word?
A) Insert > Date & Time
B) Home > Date
C) Insert > Text Box
D) Review > Date
Answer: A) Insert > Date & Time
87. Which of the following is a valid way to create a numbered list in Word?
A) Use the Numbering button in the Home tab
B) Press Ctrl + N
C) Use the Paragraph group on the Home tab
D) Right-click and select "Number List"
Answer: A) Use the Numbering button in the Home tab
88. How do you insert a shape in Word?

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 A) Insert > Shapes
B) Design > Shapes
C) View > Shapes
D) Layout > Shapes
Answer: A) Insert > Shapes
89. How do you insert a chart into a Word document?
A) Insert > Chart
B) Use the Insert > Picture option
C) Right-click and select Insert > Chart
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C
90. How do you protect a Word document with a password?
A) File > Info > Protect Document > Encrypt with Password
B) Review > Password Protection
C) Layout > Protect
D) Both A and B
Answer: A) File > Info > Protect Document > Encrypt with Password
91. How do you insert a page border in Word?
A) Design > Page Borders
B) Insert > Page Border
C) Layout > Borders
D) Review > Page Border
Answer: A) Design > Page Borders
92. How do you insert a section break in Word?
A) Layout > Breaks
B) Insert > Section Break
C) View > Breaks
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
93. What is the purpose of the "Paste Special" command?
A) To paste content with special formatting
B) To paste without formatting
C) To paste content in a different format (e.g., text, image)
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

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94. How do you add a table caption in Word?
A) Insert > Caption
B) References > Insert Caption
C) Right-click the table and select "Insert Caption"
D) All of the above
Answer: B) References > Insert Caption
95. How do you create an index in Word?
A) References > Index
B) Insert > Index
C) Review > Create Index
D) References > Mark Entry
Answer: D) References > Mark Entry
96. How do you insert an equation in Word?
A) Insert > Equation
B) Layout > Equation
C) Review > Equation
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
97. How do you adjust the column width in a table?
A) Drag the column borders
B) Use the Layout tab > Cell Size group
C) Right-click and select "Table Properties"
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
98. How do you display the ruler in Word?
A) View > Ruler
B) View > Show Ruler
C) Layout > Ruler
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
99. How can you add a page color to a Word document?
A) Design > Page Color
B) Layout > Page Color
C) Insert > Background

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 D) File > Background
Answer: A) Design > Page Color
100. What is the default page size in Word?
A) A4
B) Letter
C) Legal
D) Custom
Answer: B) Letter

MS Excel
1. What is the default file extension for Excel 2016 workbooks?
a) .xls
b) .xlsx
c) .xlsm
d) .xlr
Answer: b) .xlsx
2. Which of the following is a valid Excel formula?
a) =SUM(A1)
b) SUM(A1)
c) =SUM(A1, A10)
d) SUM(A1)
Answer: a) =SUM(A1)
3. How can you add a new worksheet in Excel?
a) Right-click on a sheet tab and select "Insert"
b) Click on the “New Worksheet” button in the ribbon
c) Press “Ctrl + N”
d) Click the "+" icon next to the sheet tabs
Answer: d) Click the "+" icon next to the sheet tabs
4. Which of the following shortcuts will select the entire column in Excel?
a) Ctrl + A
b) Shift + Space
c) Ctrl + Space

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 d) Alt + Space
Answer: c) Ctrl + Space
5. Which formula is used to find the average of a range of numbers in Excel?
a) =AVG(A1)
b) =MEAN(A1)
c) =AVERAGE(A1)
d) =MID(A1)
Answer: c) =AVERAGE(A1)
6. What does the “IF” function do in Excel?
a) Finds the highest number in a range
b) Performs a conditional test and returns different values based on the result
c) Adds up a range of numbers
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Performs a conditional test and returns different values based on the
result
7. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type in Excel?
a) Text
b) Number
c) Date/Time
d) Image
Answer: d) Image
8. What is the function of the VLOOKUP function in Excel?
a) To search for a value in a row and return a corresponding value from a column
b) To calculate the average of a range of cells
c) To concatenate two or more text strings
d) To sort data in ascending order
Answer: a) To search for a value in a row and return a corresponding value from
a column
9. Which of the following is NOT a valid cell reference in Excel?
a) A1
b) R1C1

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 c) $A$1
d) C1
Answer: d) C1
10. What does the "Merge & Center" button do in Excel?
a) Merges multiple cells into one large cell and centers the content
b) Aligns text to the center of a cell
c) Merges rows and columns together
d) Centers all text in a worksheet
Answer: a) Merges multiple cells into one large cell and centers the content
11. What does the “Freeze Panes” feature do?
a) Locks the worksheet so it cannot be edited
b) Locks rows and columns for easy scrolling
c) Prevents certain cells from being deleted
d) Makes all rows and columns visible
Answer: b) Locks rows and columns for easy scrolling
12. Which function would you use to count the number of cells in a range that
contain numbers?
a) COUNT()
b) COUNTA()
c) COUNTIF()
d) COUNTBLANK()
Answer: a) COUNT()
13. What is the shortcut key to open the "Find and Replace" dialog box in Excel?
a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + H
c) Ctrl + R
d) Ctrl + P
Answer: a) Ctrl + F
14. What does the term "Conditional Formatting" refer to in Excel?
a) Formatting the worksheet based on user selection
b) Changing cell appearance based on cell values

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 c) Formatting cells with formulas
d) Adding borders to cells based on conditions
Answer: b) Changing cell appearance based on cell values
15. Which of the following options will remove all the content in a cell without
deleting the cell itself?
a) Clear Contents
b) Delete
c) Remove Format
d) Clear All
Answer: a) Clear Contents
16. Which chart type would you use to display data as parts of a whole in Excel?
a) Line Chart
b) Pie Chart
c) Bar Chart
d) Scatter Plot
Answer: b) Pie Chart
17. Which of the following Excel chart types is best suited for showing trends over
time?
a) Bar Chart
b) Line Chart
c) Pie Chart
d) Column Chart
Answer: b) Line Chart
18. How can you change the data range for a chart in Excel?
a) Click the chart and drag the corners of the data range
b) Right-click on the chart and select “Edit Data”
c) Double-click the chart to open the data range window
d) Select the chart, go to the "Data" tab, and click "Select Data"
Answer: d) Select the chart, go to the "Data" tab, and click "Select Data"
19. What happens when you click the "Delete" button after selecting a chart in
Excel?
a) The entire worksheet is deleted
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 b) The chart is deleted, but the data remains
c) The chart and the data are deleted
d) The chart formatting is removed
Answer: b) The chart is deleted, but the data remains
20. Which of the following is used to find the highest number in a range of cells in
Excel?
a) =MIN(A1)
b) =MAX(A1)
c) =AVERAGE(A1)
d) =SUM(A1)
Answer: b) =MAX(A1)
21. What does the COUNTIF function do in Excel?
a) Counts the number of cells with numbers in a range
b) Counts the number of non-empty cells in a range
c) Counts the number of cells in a range that meet a specific condition
d) Counts the number of blank cells in a range
Answer: c) Counts the number of cells in a range that meet a specific condition
22. What is the correct syntax for the CONCATENATE function in Excel?
a) =CONCATENATE(A1, B1)
b) =CONCAT(A1, B1)
c) =CONCATENATE(A1+B1)
d) =TEXTJOIN(A1, B1)
Answer: a) =CONCATENATE(A1, B1)
23. Which Excel function can be used to look up a value in a table and return a
corresponding value in the same row?
a) VLOOKUP
b) HLOOKUP
c) INDEX
d) MATCH
Answer: a) VLOOKUP
24. Which function is used to return the current date in Excel?

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 a) =NOW()
b) =TODAY()
c) =DATE()
d) =CURRENTDATE()
Answer: b) =TODAY()

25. What is a Pivot Table in Excel used for?

a) To create dynamic charts
b) To summarize large data sets
c) To sort data
d) To filter out duplicates
Answer: b) To summarize large data sets
26. Which of the following would you use to protect an Excel worksheet from being
edited?
a) Password Protect
b) Lock Cell
c) Hide Cells
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
27. In Excel, how do you add a comment to a cell?
a) Right-click on the cell and select "Insert Comment"
b) Press Ctrl + Shift + C
c) Use the "Review" tab and click "New Comment"
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
28. What is the shortcut to insert a new row in Excel?
a) Ctrl + R
b) Ctrl + Shift + "+"
c) Shift + F10
d) Ctrl + Shift + R
Answer: b) Ctrl + Shift + "+"

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 29. Which Excel function is used to remove extra spaces from text?
a) TRIM()
b) REMOVE()
c) CLEAN()
d) SPACE()
Answer: a) TRIM()
30. Which of the following would you use to quickly filter data in Excel?
a) Data Validation
b) AutoFilter
c) Sorting
d) Pivot Table
Answer: b) AutoFilter
31. In Excel, how can you sort a range of data alphabetically?
a) Use the SORT function
b) Select the range and click the "Sort A-Z" button in the Ribbon
c) Right-click and choose "Sort"
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
32. What does the Excel "Remove Duplicates" tool do?
a) Deletes duplicate cells in a range
b) Removes duplicate rows in a range
c) Highlights duplicate entries
d) Filters out duplicates from a list
Answer: b) Removes duplicate rows in a range
33. Which of the following is a correct Excel formula for adding all numbers in cells A1
to A10?
a) =SUM(A1)
b) =ADD(A1)
c) =TOTAL(A1)
d) =SUM(A1+A10)
Answer: a) =SUM(A1)

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 34. Which chart type is most appropriate to display the relationship between two
variables in Excel?
a) Line Chart
b) Column Chart
c) Scatter Plot
d) Pie Chart
Answer: c) Scatter Plot
35. How do you change the chart type in Excel?
a) Right-click the chart and select "Change Chart Type"
b) Select the chart, go to the "Chart Tools" tab, and click "Change Chart Type"
c) Double-click on the chart
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
36. What does the "Data Labels" option in Excel charts do?
a) Shows the data points on the chart
b) Displays the actual values for each data point
c) Labels the chart with the data range
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
37. Which of the following charts would be best for comparing the proportions of
different categories in a data set?
a) Line Chart
b) Pie Chart
c) Column Chart
d) Bar Chart
Answer: b) Pie Chart
38. In Excel, what is the function of the "Sparkline" feature?
a) Creates a mini chart within a single cell to show trends
b) Creates a trendline in a chart
c) Summarizes data into smaller sets
d) Highlights specific data points in a chart

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 Answer: a) Creates a mini chart within a single cell to show trends
39. What does the "LEFT" function do in Excel?
a) Extracts a specific number of characters from the right side of a text string
b) Extracts a specific number of characters from the left side of a text string
c) Converts a text string to lowercase
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Extracts a specific number of characters from the left side of a text string
40. Which function would you use to join two text strings together in Excel?
a) CONCATENATE()
b) COMBINE()
c) JOIN()
d) CONCAT()
Answer: a) CONCATENATE()
41. In Excel, the formula =ROUND(9.876, 2) will return what result?
a) 9.88
b) 9.87
c) 9.876
d) 10
Answer: a) 9.88
42. Which of the following functions returns the current time in Excel?
a) =NOW()
b) =TIME()
c) =CURRENTTIME()
d) =TODAY()
Answer: a) =NOW()
43. Which Excel function is used to count the number of non-empty cells in a range?
a) COUNT()
b) COUNTA()
c) COUNTIF()
d) COUNTBLANK()

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 Answer: b) COUNTA()
44. Which Excel function returns the position of a value within a range?
a) MATCH()
b) INDEX()
c) LOOKUP()
d) VLOOKUP()
Answer: a) MATCH()
45. How can you apply a formula to an entire column in Excel?
a) Drag the fill handle (the small square at the bottom-right corner of the cell) down the
column
b) Copy and paste the formula to the other cells
c) Use the "Fill Down" option from the ribbon
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
46. What is the function of the "Group" feature in Excel's "Data" tab?
a) It allows you to create subgroups within a set of data for easier management
b) It groups data into pivot tables
c) It merges columns and rows together
d) It groups identical values together
Answer: a) It allows you to create subgroups within a set of data for easier management
47. Which Excel feature is used to display data in an interactive table that summarizes
large data sets?
a) Pivot Table
b) Data Validation
c) Power Query
d) Flash Fill
Answer: a) Pivot Table
48. What is the function of the "What-If Analysis" tool in Excel?
a) It forecasts future data trends
b) It allows you to test different scenarios based on your data
c) It performs regression analysis on data sets

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 d) It creates charts for data analysis
Answer: b) It allows you to test different scenarios based on your data
49. In Excel, how can you protect a workbook from being modified?
a) By setting a password for the entire workbook
b) By locking individual cells and protecting the worksheet
c) By making the workbook read-only
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
50. Which of the following is used to analyze a set of data in Excel using a statistical
approach?
a) Data Analysis Toolpak
b) Solver
c) Power Pivot
d) Flash Fill
Answer: a) Data Analysis Toolpak
51. What is the purpose of the "Solver" tool in Excel?
a) To find the optimal solution to a problem by changing variables within constraints
b) To create summary statistics
c) To generate random data sets for analysis
d) To create pivot tables
Answer: a) To find the optimal solution to a problem by changing variables within
constraints
52. Which of the following can be used to hide a worksheet in Excel?
a) Right-click on the sheet tab and select "Hide"
b) Use the "Review" tab to hide the sheet
c) Use the "View" tab to hide the sheet
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
53. In Excel, what is the use of the "Flash Fill" feature?
a) To automatically complete a column of data based on a pattern
b) To flash a message when a cell is edited

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 c) To create quick summaries of large data sets
d) To fill a range with random data
Answer: a) To automatically complete a column of data based on a pattern
54. Which of the following is the shortcut to copy the selected cell(s) in Excel?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + X
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + Z
Answer: a) Ctrl + C
55. What is the shortcut for opening the "Format Cells" dialog box in Excel?
a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + Shift + F
c) Ctrl + 1
d) Ctrl + T
Answer: c) Ctrl + 1
56. What shortcut is used to quickly save a workbook in Excel?
a) Ctrl + S
b) Ctrl + P
c) Ctrl + N
d) Ctrl + O
Answer: a) Ctrl + S
57. Which keyboard shortcut is used to undo the last action in Excel?
a) Ctrl + Z
b) Ctrl + Y
c) Ctrl + U
d) Ctrl + X
Answer: a) Ctrl + Z
58. Which function would you use to find the smallest value in a range of cells?
a) =MAX(A1)
b) =SMALL(A1)

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 c) =MIN(A1)
d) =LOWEST(A1)
Answer: c) =MIN(A1)
59. Which of the following formulas will count the number of blank cells in a range?
a) =COUNTA(A1)
b) =COUNTBLANK(A1)
c) =COUNTIF(A1, "")
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
60. In Excel, which of the following is a correct formula for calculating the square root
of a number?
a) =SQRT(A1)
b) =ROOT(A1)
c) =SQUARE(A1)
d) =SQUARE(SQRT(A1))
Answer: a) =SQRT(A1)
61. What does the Excel function "NOW()" return?
a) The current date
b) The current date and time
c) The current time only
d) The current month
Answer: b) The current date and time
62. How would you calculate the interest on a loan in Excel using the PMT function?
a) =PMT(interest_rate, number_of_periods, loan_amount)
b) =PMT(loan_amount, interest_rate, number_of_periods)
c) =PMT(number_of_periods, loan_amount, interest_rate)
d) =PMT(number_of_periods, interest_rate, loan_amount)
Answer: a) =PMT(interest_rate, number_of_periods, loan_amount)
63. What does the "LEN" function do in Excel?
a) Returns the length of the text in a cell
b) Returns the first letter of the text

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 c) Counts the number of words in the text
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Returns the length of the text in a cell
64. In Excel, which function can be used to extract a specific number of characters
from a text string, starting at a specified position?
a) LEFT()
b) MID()
c) RIGHT()
d) TEXT()
Answer: b) MID()
65. Which of the following Excel functions returns the highest value in a given range?
a) =LARGE(A1, 1)
b) =MAX(A1)
c) =HIGH(A1)
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
66. What does the formula =IF(A1>100, "Yes", "No") do?
a) Checks if the value in A1 is greater than 100 and returns "Yes" or "No"
b) Returns "Yes" if A1 is greater than 100, otherwise returns "0"
c) Checks if the value in A1 is less than 100 and returns "Yes"
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Checks if the value in A1 is greater than 100 and returns "Yes" or "No"
67. What is the purpose of the "Text to Columns" feature in Excel?
a) To separate data in a column into multiple columns
b) To split a text string into different rows
c) To join two columns into one
d) To convert text data into numbers
Answer: a) To separate data in a column into multiple columns
68. What type of data validation would you use to allow only dates after January 1,
2020, in a cell?
a) Whole Number

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 b) List
c) Date
d) Custom
Answer: c) Date
69. In Excel, what happens when you apply "Data Validation" to a cell?
a) It sets rules for what can be entered into that cell
b) It prevents anyone from entering data in the cell
c) It creates a drop-down list of possible entries
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
70. How do you remove filters from a table in Excel?
a) Click the "Clear Filter" option under the "Data" tab
b) Right-click on the filtered column header and select "Clear Filter"
c) Go to the "Data" tab and click the "Filter" button again
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
71. What is the maximum number of rows allowed in Excel 2016 and later versions?
a) 65,536
b) 1,048,576
c) 2,097,152
d) 4,294,967,296
Answer: b) 1,048,576
72. Which chart type would be most appropriate to show the distribution of data in
Excel?
a) Pie Chart
b) Column Chart
c) Histogram
d) Line Chart
Answer: c) Histogram
73. How can you change the color of a data series in an Excel chart?
a) Right-click the data series and select "Format Data Series"

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 b) Use the "Chart Tools" in the ribbon to modify the color
c) Click the data series, and select "Fill" under the Format options
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
74. What is the purpose of a "Trendline" in Excel?
a) To visualize the relationship between two variables in a scatter plot
b) To display the distribution of values in a pie chart
c) To show the statistical trends and patterns in a data series
d) To add labels to a chart
Answer: c) To show the statistical trends and patterns in a data series
75. Which keyboard shortcut is used to display the "Format Cells" dialog box in Excel?
a) Ctrl + F1
b) Ctrl + Shift + F
c) Ctrl + 1
d) Alt + F1
Answer: c) Ctrl + 1
76. Which of the following is the shortcut to add a new worksheet in Excel?
a) Ctrl + N
b) Ctrl + Shift + N
c) Shift + F11
d) Alt + N
Answer: c) Shift + F11
77. What is the shortcut for pasting values (without formatting) in Excel?
a) Ctrl + V
b) Ctrl + Alt + V
c) Ctrl + Shift + V
d) Ctrl + Shift + C
Answer: b) Ctrl + Alt + V
78. What does the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Shift + L do in Excel?
a) Applies the "Bold" format

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 b) Inserts a link
c) Toggles AutoFilter on or off
d) Opens the "Format Cells" dialog
Answer: c) Toggles AutoFilter on or off
79. Which of the following is an example of a 3D reference in Excel?
a) =SUM(Sheet1!A1)
b) =SUM(Sheet1!A1)
c) =SUM(A1)
d) =AVERAGE(Sheet1!A1, Sheet2!A1)
Answer: b) =SUM(Sheet1!A1)
80. Which of the following tools would you use to analyze a data set in Excel by finding
an optimal solution subject to constraints?
a) Solver
b) Goal Seek
c) Power Query
d) Power Pivot
Answer: a) Solver
81. What is the maximum number of columns allowed in Excel 2016 and later
versions?
a) 256
b) 512
c) 1,024
d) 16,384
Answer: d) 16,384
82. What is the purpose of the "Power Pivot" feature in Excel?
a) To generate random data for analysis
b) To perform complex calculations and analysis on large data sets
c) To create dynamic tables based on different variables
d) To clean up data in a worksheet
Answer: b) To perform complex calculations and analysis on large data sets
83. Which of the following functions will convert text to uppercase in Excel?

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 a) =UPPER()
b) =LOWER()
c) =PROPER()
d) =TEXT()
Answer: a) =UPPER()
84. What does the formula =IF(A1=10, "Yes", "No") return if A1 contains the value 10?
a) Yes
b) No
c) 10
d) Error
Answer: a) Yes
85. In Excel, which function is used to calculate the sum of the squares of a range of
numbers?
a) =SUMSQ()
b) =SQUARE()
c) =SUM()
d) =SQR()
Answer: a) =SUMSQ()
86. Which of the following formulas will return the current date in Excel?
a) =CURRENTDATE()
b) =DATE()
c) =TODAY()
d) =NOW()
Answer: c) =TODAY()
87. What does the "AND" function do in Excel?
a) Returns TRUE if any condition is true
b) Returns TRUE if all conditions are true
c) Returns the average of a set of numbers
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Returns TRUE if all conditions are true

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 88. Which of the following functions is used to combine text from multiple cells in
Excel?
a) =TEXTJOIN()
b) =CONCATENATE()
c) =CONCAT()
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
89. In Excel, the formula =ROUND(123.456, 1) will return which result?
a) 123.4
b) 123.45
c) 123
d) 123.5
Answer: a) 123.4
90. Which Excel function is used to return the value of a cell based on a lookup value in
another cell?
a) VLOOKUP()
b) HLOOKUP()
c) INDEX()
d) MATCH()
Answer: a) VLOOKUP()
91. What is the purpose of the "Find and Replace" feature in Excel?
a) To search for specific text and replace it with another
b) To sort data in alphabetical order
c) To filter data based on a set condition
d) To delete specific rows or columns
Answer: a) To search for specific text and replace it with another
92. How would you change the data type of a cell from text to number in Excel?
a) Use the "Text to Columns" feature
b) Apply a number format from the "Number" tab
c) Right-click the cell and select "Format Cells"
d) Both b and c

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 Answer: d) Both b and c
93. In Excel, what is the shortcut to open the "Find and Replace" dialog box?
a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + R
c) Ctrl + H
d) Ctrl + P
Answer: a) Ctrl + F
94. How can you merge multiple cells into one in Excel?
a) Use the "Merge & Center" option under the "Home" tab
b) Right-click and select "Merge Cells"
c) Use the "Merge Cells" option under the "Insert" tab
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Use the "Merge & Center" option under the "Home" tab
95. Which of the following options is used to filter data based on specific criteria in
Excel?
a) Data Validation
b) AutoFilter
c) Conditional Formatting
d) Pivot Table
Answer: b) AutoFilter
96. In Excel, how do you add a trendline to a chart?
a) Right-click the data series and select "Add Trendline"
b) Use the "Insert" tab to insert a trendline
c) Select the chart, go to the "Chart Tools" tab, and click "Add Trendline"
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
97. Which of the following chart types would be most suitable for showing trends over
time in Excel?
a) Line Chart
b) Bar Chart
c) Pie Chart

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 d) Area Chart
Answer: a) Line Chart
98. In Excel, what is the purpose of a "Data Series" in a chart?
a) It represents a set of related data points plotted on the chart
b) It is used to label the chart categories
c) It is the chart title
d) None of the above
Answer: a) It represents a set of related data points plotted on the chart
99. What is a "Pivot Table" used for in Excel?
a) To summarize, analyze, and explore large sets of data
b) To create complex formulas
c) To create visual charts
d) To sort data
Answer: a) To summarize, analyze, and explore large sets of data
100. Which Excel feature is used to analyze a data set by finding the optimal
solution based on specific criteria and constraints?
a) Solver
b) Goal Seek
c) Power Pivot
d) Power Query
Answer: a) Solver

MS Power point
1. What is the default file extension for a PowerPoint 2016 presentation?
A) .ppt
B) .pptx
C) .pps
D) .ppx
Answer: B) .pptx
2. Which view in PowerPoint allows you to see all the slides in your presentation?
A) Slide Show
B) Slide Sorter

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C) Notes Page
D) Outline View
Answer: B) Slide Sorter
3. What is the shortcut key to start a PowerPoint presentation from the beginning?
A) F5
B) F7
C) F9
D) Shift + F5
Answer: A) F5
4. Which of the following is not a view in PowerPoint?
A) Slide Master
B) Notes Master
C) Print Master
D) Handout Master
Answer: C) Print Master
5. Which tab would you use to insert a table in PowerPoint?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Design
D) Transitions
Answer: B) Insert
6. Which of the following is a valid way to insert a new slide in PowerPoint?
A) Right-click the slide pane and select 'New Slide'
B) Press Ctrl + N
C) Click the Insert tab and choose 'New Slide'
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Right-click the slide pane and select 'New Slide'
7. In PowerPoint, which tool can be used to add animations to an object on a slide?
A) SmartArt
B) Animations
C) Transitions
D) Shapes
Answer: B) Animations
8. Which of the following is a feature of PowerPoint that helps to add a professional look to
your slides?
A) Slide Master
B) Animation Pane
C) Design Ideas
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

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9. In which section of the PowerPoint ribbon can you find the 'Slide Show' options?
A) Insert
B) Animations
C) Transitions
D) Slide Show
Answer: D) Slide Show
10. Which of the following is the default layout for a new slide in PowerPoint?
A) Title Slide
B) Title and Content
C) Blank
D) Two Content
Answer: B) Title and Content
11. What is the function of the ‘Slide Sorter’ view in PowerPoint?
A) To add text to slides
B) To organize the slide order
C) To create animations for slides
D) To print slides
Answer: B) To organize the slide order
12. Which of the following views is best for creating and editing the master slide layout?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Normal
C) Slide Master
D) Reading View
Answer: C) Slide Master
13. How can you insert a chart into a PowerPoint slide?
A) Click the Chart button in the Insert tab
B) Right-click the slide and choose Insert Chart
C) Press Ctrl + C
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Click the Chart button in the Insert tab
14. What does the "Slide Show" tab allow you to do?
A) Insert new slides
B) Add transitions
C) View and start a slideshow
D) Format text
Answer: C) View and start a slideshow
15. What is the purpose of the "Custom Animations" feature?
A) To create a slide design
B) To add animations to elements on a slide

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C) To adjust the slide order
D) To print slides
Answer: B) To add animations to elements on a slide
16. Which PowerPoint feature allows you to quickly apply a set of design elements to all
slides?
A) Slide Master
B) Themes
C) Transitions
D) Animations
Answer: B) Themes
17. How do you duplicate a slide in PowerPoint?
A) Press Ctrl + C, then Ctrl + V
B) Right-click the slide thumbnail and select "Duplicate Slide"
C) Use the "Insert" tab
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Right-click the slide thumbnail and select "Duplicate Slide"
18. What is the purpose of a "Transition" in PowerPoint?
A) To apply effects to text
B) To change the slide background
C) To control how slides move from one to another during the presentation
D) To add animations to objects
Answer: C) To control how slides move from one to another during the presentation
19. Which feature allows you to add background music or sound effects to your
presentation?
A) Animations
B) Insert Audio
C) Transitions
D) Design Ideas
Answer: B) Insert Audio
20. Which PowerPoint feature helps you practice your presentation and see slide timings?
A) Presenter View
B) Rehearse Timings
C) Slide Sorter
D) Presenter Notes
Answer: B) Rehearse Timings
21. Which tab would you go to in PowerPoint to add shapes to your slides?
A) Insert
B) Design
C) Format
D) View

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Answer: A) Insert
22. Which of the following is the function of the "Rehearse Timings" feature in PowerPoint?
A) To practice your speech
B) To add audio to the presentation
C) To set automatic timings for each slide
D) To adjust the slide layout
Answer: C) To set automatic timings for each slide
23. How do you access the PowerPoint Slide Master?
A) Go to the View tab and click Slide Master
B) Right-click the slide and select Slide Master
C) Use the Slide Sorter
D) Use the Slide Show tab
Answer: A) Go to the View tab and click Slide Master
24. Which of the following is the correct way to add a hyperlink to a PowerPoint slide?
A) Select the text or object, right-click, and choose Hyperlink
B) Use the Insert tab and click Hyperlink
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Both A and B
25. Which is the best view to work on the details of your slide content and edit text?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Normal View
C) Slide Show View
D) Outline View
Answer: B) Normal View
26. What does the "Presenter View" allow you to do?
A) See the current slide and the next one, along with your speaker notes
B) View the entire presentation at once
C) Record your presentation
D) Format the slides
Answer: A) See the current slide and the next one, along with your speaker notes
27. Which of the following is NOT a way to add a new slide in PowerPoint?
A) Right-click the slide pane and select "New Slide"
B) Press Ctrl + M
C) Click the Insert tab and select "New Slide"
D) Use the Slide Sorter view to add a slide
Answer: D) Use the Slide Sorter view to add a slide
28. What is the shortcut to undo the last action in PowerPoint?
A) Ctrl + Z
B) Ctrl + Y

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C) Ctrl + U
D) Ctrl + A
Answer: A) Ctrl + Z
29. Which tab in PowerPoint lets you apply different slide layouts?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Design
D) Transitions
Answer: A) Home
30. Which of the following is NOT a part of a slide master layout?
A) Title
B) Footer
C) Speaker Notes
D) Background
Answer: C) Speaker Notes
31. How do you add a video to a PowerPoint slide?
A) Click Insert > Video > Video on My PC
B) Right-click the slide and select Insert > Video
C) Use the Animations tab
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
32. Which option allows you to add notes to a specific slide in PowerPoint?
A) Notes Pane
B) Slide Master
C) Slide Sorter
D) Animation Pane
Answer: A) Notes Pane
33. Which PowerPoint feature automatically adjusts the position of slide objects when you
add new objects or text?
A) Smart Guides
B) AutoFit
C) Slide Master
D) Animation Pane
Answer: A) Smart Guides
34. Which of the following is NOT a type of transition effect in PowerPoint?
A) Fade
B) Wipe
C) Zoom
D) Slide Panel
Answer: D) Slide Panel

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35. Which feature in PowerPoint is used to change the overall design of a presentation,
including colors, fonts, and backgrounds?
A) Themes
B) Layouts
C) Transitions
D) Animations
Answer: A) Themes
36. Which key is used to exit the Slide Show view in PowerPoint?
A) Esc
B) F5
C) Ctrl + F5
D) Alt + Tab
Answer: A) Esc
37. What is the purpose of the 'Action Button' in PowerPoint?
A) To create custom animations
B) To link slides to actions or trigger events such as hyperlinks
C) To control slide transitions
D) To add text boxes
Answer: B) To link slides to actions or trigger events such as hyperlinks
38. Which tab is used to apply a slide transition effect in PowerPoint?
A) Design
B) Slide Show
C) Transitions
D) View
Answer: C) Transitions
39. Which of the following can you NOT do with the Slide Master in PowerPoint?
A) Change fonts and colors for the entire presentation
B) Edit the background of the slides
C) Add speaker notes
D) Modify slide layouts
Answer: C) Add speaker notes
40. Which option would you choose to save a presentation as a video?
A) Save As > .pptx
B) Save As > .mp4 or .wmv
C) Export > Create a Video
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
41. What does the 'Format Painter' tool do in PowerPoint?
A) It changes the format of the text
B) It copies formatting from one object and applies it to another

59 | P a g e Mr. Sanjeeb Das

C) It adds transitions to slides
D) It resizes an object
Answer: B) It copies formatting from one object and applies it to another
42. What is the maximum number of slides you can insert in PowerPoint?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 500
D) There is no defined limit
Answer: D) There is no defined limit

43. What is the default transition effect applied to slides in PowerPoint?

A) Fade
B) Wipe
C) Push
D) None (no transition is applied)
Answer: D) None (no transition is applied)
44. Which of the following can be used to create a flowchart or diagram in PowerPoint?
A) SmartArt
B) Shapes
C) Charts
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
45. Which of the following is the primary purpose of Presenter View?
A) To display notes to the presenter while the audience sees the slides
B) To insert new slides
C) To add animations to slides
D) To create hyperlinks in slides
Answer: A) To display notes to the presenter while the audience sees the slides
46. What does the 'Align' feature in PowerPoint help you do?
A) Align slides vertically or horizontally
B) Align objects to the slide or other objects
C) Align text within a text box
D) All of the above
Answer: B) Align objects to the slide or other objects
47. Which tool in PowerPoint can be used to animate the entrance, emphasis, or exit of an
object?
A) Slide Transitions
B) Animation Pane
C) Action Settings
D) SmartArt

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Answer: B) Animation Pane
48. What happens when you apply a "Custom Animation" to an object in PowerPoint?
A) The object is automatically resized
B) The object’s position on the slide changes
C) The object appears, moves, or disappears in a particular way
D) The object is moved to a different slide
Answer: C) The object appears, moves, or disappears in a particular way
49. How can you quickly insert a hyperlink to a website in PowerPoint?
A) Right-click on text or an object and select Hyperlink
B) Use the Insert tab and select Hyperlink
C) Press Ctrl + K
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
50. Which PowerPoint feature allows you to save and reuse a slide from one presentation in
another?
A) Slide Master
B) Copy-Paste
C) Reuse Slides
D) Template
Answer: C) Reuse Slides
51. What does the 'Crop' tool do in PowerPoint?
A) Cuts out part of an image to remove unwanted areas
B) Resizes the entire image
C) Adds borders to the image
D) Changes the format of the image
Answer: A) Cuts out part of an image to remove unwanted areas
52. How do you make an image transparent in PowerPoint?
A) Use the 'Format Picture' option and adjust the transparency slider
B) Apply a fade animation
C) Right-click and select 'Transparent'
D) Insert a transparent image file
Answer: A) Use the 'Format Picture' option and adjust the transparency slider
53. Which of the following is a way to add a table to a PowerPoint slide?
A) Click Insert > Table
B) Use the Draw Table tool in the Slide Layout
C) Press Ctrl + T
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
54. In PowerPoint, which of the following actions can be undone using the Undo button?

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A) Moving an object on a slide
B) Typing text
C) Inserting a slide
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
55. How can you change the orientation of your slides from landscape to portrait in
PowerPoint?
A) Go to the Design tab and select Page Setup
B) Right-click the slide and choose Layout
C) Go to the View tab and select Orientation
D) Click the Slide Show tab and change the settings
Answer: A) Go to the Design tab and select Page Setup
56. What is the purpose of 'Animation Painter' in PowerPoint?
A) To copy and apply animations from one object to another
B) To change the color scheme of a presentation
C) To apply a background to a slide
D) To change the slide layout
Answer: A) To copy and apply animations from one object to another
57. Which of the following is a method of adding a new slide in PowerPoint?
A) Press Ctrl + N
B) Use the Insert tab and select "New Slide"
C) Right-click the slide pane and select "New Slide"
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
58. Which PowerPoint tool allows you to make quick edits to your slides while in the Slide
Show view?
A) Handwriting Tool
B) Pen and Laser Pointer Tools
C) Notes Pane
D) Slide Sorter
Answer: B) Pen and Laser Pointer Tools
59. Which of the following options can be used to change the background of a slide in
PowerPoint?
A) Design > Format Background
B) View > Slide Master
C) Insert > Picture
D) Animations > Background
Answer: A) Design > Format Background
60. What happens when you apply an animation to an object in PowerPoint?

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A) The object appears on the slide
B) The object moves or changes in some way
C) The object disappears
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
61. Which of the following is a feature in PowerPoint to organize your presentation’s
structure and content?
A) Slide Master
B) Outline View
C) Presenter View
D) Slide Show View
Answer: B) Outline View
62. What does the "Insert Chart" option allow you to do in PowerPoint?
A) Add a diagram to explain data
B) Add a graph or chart to represent data
C) Add a table to display information
D) Create a new slide layout for charts
Answer: B) Add a graph or chart to represent data
63. Which of the following is NOT a valid slide layout in PowerPoint?
A) Title Slide
B) Title and Content
C) Content Slide
D) Custom Layout
Answer: C) Content Slide
64. Which option is used to create a new custom layout in PowerPoint?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Slide Master
C) Themes
D) Layouts
Answer: B) Slide Master
65. How do you insert a hyperlink to another slide in the same presentation?
A) Select text or object, right-click and select Hyperlink, then choose "Place in This
Document"
B) Use the Insert tab to create a hyperlink to an external website
C) Press Ctrl + K to insert a link to an external file
D) Right-click the slide and select "Link to Slide"
Answer: A) Select text or object, right-click and select Hyperlink, then choose "Place in This
Document"
66. What is the default animation type for text in PowerPoint?
A) Fade
B) Fly In

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C) Appear
D) Bounce
Answer: C) Appear
67. What is the shortcut for duplicating a slide in PowerPoint?
A) Ctrl + D
B) Ctrl + C
C) Ctrl + M
D) Ctrl + P
Answer: A) Ctrl + D
68. Which view allows you to see the presentation in full-screen mode for the audience?
A) Presenter View
B) Reading View
C) Slide Show View
D) Normal View
Answer: C) Slide Show View
69. How do you insert speaker notes in PowerPoint?
A) Use the Notes Pane at the bottom of the screen
B) Go to the View tab and click Notes
C) Right-click the slide and select 'Insert Notes'
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
70. Which of the following actions can be performed using the "Merge Shapes" tool in
PowerPoint?
A) Combine two shapes into a single shape
B) Create a group of objects
C) Align objects on a slide
D) Change the color of a shape
Answer: A) Combine two shapes into a single shape
71. Which option in PowerPoint allows you to quickly apply a predefined design to your
presentation?
A) Layouts
B) Themes
C) Transitions
D) Background Styles
Answer: B) Themes
72. What is the purpose of the "Gridlines" feature in PowerPoint?
A) To align text
B) To improve the appearance of a slide
C) To help position and align objects on the slide
D) To create a grid for drawing shapes

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Answer: C) To help position and align objects on the slide

73. What does the 'Reorder' option do in PowerPoint’s Animation Pane?

A) Changes the order in which animations are applied to objects
B) Changes the order of slides
C) Adds new animations to the objects
D) Deletes animations from the slide
Answer: A) Changes the order in which animations are applied to objects

74. What is the function of the 'Slide Show' tab in PowerPoint?

A) To add new slides
B) To record your presentation
C) To start, configure, and control the slide show
D) To edit the slide master
Answer: C) To start, configure, and control the slide show
75. Which of the following is NOT a feature in the 'Transitions' tab in PowerPoint?
A) Fade
B) Wipe
C) Zoom
D) Text Direction
Answer: D) Text Direction
76. What does the "Fit to Text" option in PowerPoint do?
A) Resizes the text box automatically to fit all the content
B) Changes the font size to fit the available space
C) Automatically adds text effects
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
77. How do you change the duration of a slide transition in PowerPoint?
A) Use the 'Duration' box in the 'Transitions' tab
B) Right-click the slide and select 'Change Duration'
C) Press Ctrl + D
D) Slide transitions cannot have durations changed
Answer: A) Use the 'Duration' box in the 'Transitions' tab
78. What feature in PowerPoint allows you to add interactive elements to your
presentation, such as buttons to navigate to specific slides?
A) Hyperlinks
B) Action Buttons
C) Slide Sorter
D) Animation Pane

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Answer: B) Action Buttons
79. What is the function of the 'Drawing Tools' tab in PowerPoint?
A) To insert a table
B) To apply drawing effects to shapes and objects
C) To add transitions between slides
D) To create hyperlinks
Answer: B) To apply drawing effects to shapes and objects
80. Which of the following is the correct way to add a footer in PowerPoint?
A) Click the Insert tab and select Footer
B) Use the Slide Master to add a footer to all slides
C) Add it manually on each slide
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
81. Which view in PowerPoint allows you to adjust the layout of the entire presentation?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Slide Show
C) Slide Master
D) Notes Page
Answer: C) Slide Master
82. How can you add a new slide layout to an existing presentation in PowerPoint?
A) Go to the Home tab and choose Layout
B) Click the Slide Master tab
C) Right-click on the slide thumbnail and select New Layout
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
83. Which feature in PowerPoint allows you to automatically adjust the size of your content
when you add more text or graphics to a slide?
A) AutoFit
B) Smart Guides
C) Slide Master
D) Align
Answer: A) AutoFit
84. Which option allows you to add a specific time delay between each slide in PowerPoint?
A) Slide Show > Set Up Slide Show
B) Rehearse Timings
C) Animation Pane
D) Slide Transition Duration
Answer: B) Rehearse Timings
85. How do you make a slide appear automatically after a certain time during a slide show in
PowerPoint?

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A) Set the time for the transition in the Transitions tab
B) Use the Rehearse Timings feature
C) Manually change the slide order
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
86. Which key allows you to start a slide show from the current slide in PowerPoint?
A) F5
B) Shift + F5
C) F10
D) Ctrl + F5
Answer: B) Shift + F5
87. How do you change the background of a specific slide in PowerPoint?
A) Use the Format Background option under the Design tab
B) Right-click the slide and select Format Background
C) Both A and B
D) Backgrounds cannot be changed for individual slides
Answer: C) Both A and B
88. What does the 'Rehearse Timings' feature in PowerPoint help you do?
A) Practice delivering your presentation
B) Add audio to your slides
C) Set automatic timings for slide transitions
D) Review the slide order
Answer: C) Set automatic timings for slide transitions
89. Which of the following is used to apply a design template to a slide in PowerPoint?
A) Layout
B) Design Ideas
C) Themes
D) Slide Master
Answer: C) Themes
90. What happens when you choose the "Hide Slide" option in PowerPoint?
A) The slide is removed from the presentation permanently
B) The slide is still in the presentation but will not appear during the slide show
C) The slide will be duplicated
D) The slide is moved to a different presentation
Answer: B) The slide is still in the presentation but will not appear during the slide show
91. What happens if you use the 'Reset' button on a slide in PowerPoint?
A) The slide is deleted
B) The slide layout is reset to the original design template
C) All content on the slide is cleared
D) The slide's animations are removed

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Answer: B) The slide layout is reset to the original design template
92. Which feature in PowerPoint allows you to add a summary of key points or ideas on a
slide?
A) Notes Pane
B) Title Slide
C) Text Box
D) SmartArt
Answer: C) Text Box
93. How can you animate text so that each letter appears one after the other in
PowerPoint?
A) Apply the 'By Letter' animation effect
B) Use the 'Fly In' effect
C) Use the 'Wipe' effect
D) Apply a 'Text Fill' animation
Answer: A) Apply the 'By Letter' animation effect
94. In PowerPoint, which of the following actions is used to change the order of slides?
A) Drag the slide thumbnail to a new position in the Slide Sorter view
B) Right-click and select 'Move Slide'
C) Use the 'Arrange' option in the Home tab
D) Use the 'Reorder' option in the Slide Show tab
Answer: A) Drag the slide thumbnail to a new position in the Slide Sorter view
95. What is the use of the 'Slide Show' tab in PowerPoint?
A) To design slides
B) To manage and customize slide transitions and timings
C) To add text and shapes to slides
D) To change slide layouts
Answer: B) To manage and customize slide transitions and timings
96. Which option is used to print slides with notes in PowerPoint?
A) Print Slides with Notes in the Print dialog box
B) Use 'Handouts' under the Print options
C) Use 'Outline' view for printing
D) Use 'Notes Pages' in the Print options
Answer: D) Use 'Notes Pages' in the Print options
97. In PowerPoint, what does the 'Rehearse Timings' feature do?
A) Adjusts the time each slide is displayed automatically during the slide show
B) Allows the presenter to practice their presentation with set timings
C) Changes the time of transition effects
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
98. How do you add a hyperlink to a specific slide in a PowerPoint presentation?

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A) Right-click on the text or object, select "Hyperlink," and then choose "Place in This
Document"
B) Use the Insert tab and select 'Link'
C) Use the Action Button feature under the Insert tab
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
99. How can you access the Slide Master in PowerPoint?
A) Click on the View tab and select 'Slide Master'
B) Right-click the slide and select 'Master View'
C) Go to the Design tab and choose 'Slide Master'
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Click on the View tab and select 'Slide Master'
100. What can you do with the "Presenter View" in PowerPoint?
A) Display the slides on one screen and speaker notes on another screen
B) Control the timing of each slide during the presentation
C) View the slide show while remaining in control of the presentation
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

MS Access
1. Which of the following is used to store data in MS Access?
a) Forms
b) Queries
c) Tables
d) Reports
Answer: c) Tables
2. What is a primary key in MS Access?
a) A key that uniquely identifies each record in a table
b) A key used for encryption
c) A key that can be used multiple times
d) A key to open the database
Answer: a) A key that uniquely identifies each record in a table
3. Which view is used to enter data directly into a table in MS Access?
a) Design View
b) Datasheet View
c) Query View
d) Report View
Answer: b) Datasheet View

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4. What is the file extension for an MS Access database?
a) .docx
b) .xlsx
c) .mdb
d) .accdb
Answer: d) .accdb
5. Which of the following objects can be used to display data from one or more tables?
a) Forms
b) Queries
c) Reports
d) Tables
Answer: b) Queries
6. What does the "Sort" option in MS Access do?
a) Filters data
b) Organizes data in ascending or descending order
c) Removes duplicates
d) Changes data format
Answer: b) Organizes data in ascending or descending order
7. What is a relationship in MS Access?
a) A method of linking data between tables
b) A link to external data
c) A way to create reports
d) A feature for sorting data
Answer: a) A method of linking data between tables
8. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type in MS Access?
a) Text
b) Date/Time
c) Binary
d) Memo
Answer: c) Binary
9. What is the purpose of the "Query Design" window?
a) To create and modify table structures
b) To design and run queries
c) To format reports
d) To enter data in a table

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Answer: b) To design and run queries
10. Which of the following is used to print data in MS Access?
a) Forms
b) Queries
c) Reports
d) Tables
Answer: c) Reports
11. Which SQL keyword is used to retrieve data from a database in MS Access?
a) SELECT
b) INSERT
c) UPDATE
d) DELETE
Answer: a) SELECT
12. In MS Access, which of the following helps to avoid duplicate entries in a table?
a) Validation Rule
b) Data Type
c) Primary Key
d) Lookup Field
Answer: c) Primary Key
13. Which of the following views allows you to modify the design of a query?
a) Design View
b) Datasheet View
c) Report View
d) Form View
Answer: a) Design View
14. Which of the following operators is used to compare two values in MS Access?
a) &&
b) =
c) ++
d) //
Answer: b) =
15. How can you ensure that a field contains only valid data in MS Access?
a) By using a validation rule
b) By using a query

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c) By setting a field as a primary key
d) By using a form
Answer: a) By using a validation rule
16. What is the purpose of a "Foreign Key" in a table?
a) To uniquely identify each record
b) To link two tables together
c) To store encrypted data
d) To store the main key of a table
Answer: b) To link two tables together
17. Which of the following is a predefined set of records that can be accessed in MS Access?
a) Macro
b) Query
c) Report
d) Form
Answer: b) Query
18. Which MS Access object is used to create a custom user interface for entering,
displaying, and modifying data?
a) Query
b) Form
c) Report
d) Table
Answer: b) Form
19. What does the “AND” operator do in a query?
a) Combines two conditions that must both be true
b) Combines two conditions where only one must be true
c) Filters the data
d) Sorts the data
Answer: a) Combines two conditions that must both be true
20. What is the maximum number of fields in a table in MS Access 2019?
a) 100
b) 255
c) 500
d) 2000
Answer: b) 255
21. Which data type is used for monetary values in MS Access?

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a) Currency
b) Decimal
c) Integer
d) Number
Answer: a) Currency
22. Which of the following statements is true about the "Group By" clause in MS Access?
a) It aggregates data into groups
b) It sorts data
c) It filters data
d) It updates data
Answer: a) It aggregates data into groups
23. Which function is used to count the number of records in MS Access?
a) SUM()
b) COUNT()
c) AVG()
d) MAX()
Answer: b) COUNT()
24. Which of the following statements is true about MS Access forms?
a) Forms are used to enter, edit, and display data
b) Forms cannot display data from multiple tables
c) Forms are not editable
d) Forms can only display data
Answer: a) Forms are used to enter, edit, and display data
25. What does the "Update Query" do in MS Access?
a) Deletes records
b) Modifies existing records
c) Retrieves data from a table
d) Creates new records
Answer: b) Modifies existing records
26. In MS Access, a "Macro" is used to:
a) Create reports
b) Automate repetitive tasks
c) Enter data into a table
d) Design a query
Answer: b) Automate repetitive tasks

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27. Which of the following is true about a subquery in MS Access?
a) A subquery is a query within another query
b) A subquery can only be used in "Update" queries
c) Subqueries are not allowed in MS Access
d) A subquery can only return a single value
Answer: a) A subquery is a query within another query
28. Which of the following is used to calculate the total of a numeric field in MS Access?
a) AVG()
b) COUNT()
c) SUM()
d) MAX()
Answer: c) SUM()
29. What is the purpose of the "Lookup Wizard" in MS Access?
a) To create a query
b) To create a lookup field for selecting data from another table
c) To create a relationship between tables
d) To design forms
Answer: b) To create a lookup field for selecting data from another table
30. Which function is used to return the current date in MS Access?
a) NOW()
b) TODAY()
c) CURDATE()
d) DATE()
Answer: a) NOW()
31. Which of the following is a required element of a relational database?
a) Foreign Key
b) Query
c) Macro
d) Form
Answer: a) Foreign Key
32. What happens when you delete a record in MS Access?
a) The record is hidden but still exists in the database
b) The record is removed from the table permanently
c) The record is moved to another table
d) The record is archived

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Answer: b) The record is removed from the table permanently
33. Which of the following is NOT a valid MS Access object?
a) Query
b) Table
c) Subform
d) Formula
Answer: d) Formula
34. Which of the following is a way to restrict data entry in MS Access?
a) Using a validation rule
b) Using an Update Query
c) Using a form
d) Using a report
Answer: a) Using a validation rule
35. Which of the following is NOT a type of relationship in MS Access?
a) One-to-One
b) One-to-Many
c) Many-to-Many
d) Many-to-One
Answer: d) Many-to-One
36. Which of the following is used to summarize data in a report in MS Access?
a) Form Control
b) Grouping
c) Filter
d) Table Control
Answer: b) Grouping
37. Which option is used to display only records that meet certain criteria in a query?
a) Filter
b) Sort
c) Group
d) Format
Answer: a) Filter
38. What does the "Expression Builder" in MS Access allow you to do?
a) Create forms
b) Build complex expressions for calculations or conditions

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c) Create tables
d) Design queries
Answer: b) Build complex expressions for calculations or conditions
39. What is a report used for in MS Access?
a) To calculate totals
b) To summarize and print data
c) To enter new data
d) To create new tables
Answer: b) To summarize and print data
40. In a query, the "*" symbol is used to:
a) Select all fields from a table
b) Exclude certain fields
c) Sort data
d) Filter data
Answer: a) Select all fields from a table
41. Which of the following is true about a "Combo Box" in a form?
a) It displays multiple columns of data
b) It allows the user to select from a list of options
c) It is used for entering numeric values only
d) It can only display one value at a time
Answer: b) It allows the user to select from a list of options
42. What is the default view when you open a query in MS Access?
a) Datasheet View
b) Design View
c) Report View
d) Print Preview
Answer: a) Datasheet View
43. Which of the following is NOT an action type in a query?
a) Update
b) Append
c) Delete
d) Copy
Answer: d) Copy
44. Which of the following is used to store the structure of a database without any data in
MS Access?

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a) Template
b) Blank Database
c) Macro
d) Report
Answer: b) Blank Database
45. Which of the following is true about an "Append Query" in MS Access?
a) It is used to delete records from a table
b) It is used to update records in a table
c) It is used to add records to an existing table
d) It is used to create a new table
Answer: c) It is used to add records to an existing table
46. What is the purpose of the "Compact and Repair Database" option in MS Access?
a) To create backups of the database
b) To reduce the size of the database and repair any corruption
c) To generate reports
d) To update outdated data
Answer: b) To reduce the size of the database and repair any corruption
47. Which of the following is used to calculate a field based on other fields in MS Access?
a) Expression
b) Formula
c) Query
d) Report
Answer: a) Expression
48. Which of the following is a feature of MS Access Forms?
a) They allow data entry, editing, and navigation
b) They are used to create tables
c) They are used only for viewing data
d) They are only used for sorting data
Answer: a) They allow data entry, editing, and navigation
49. Which of the following types of queries allows you to view and edit data simultaneously
in MS Access?
a) Select Query
b) Action Query
c) Update Query
d) Crosstab Query

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Answer: a) Select Query
50. What is a "Crosstab Query" in MS Access?
a) A query that allows multiple tables to be combined
b) A query that summarizes data in a matrix format
c) A query that only retrieves specific columns
d) A query that adds new records to a table
Answer: b) A query that summarizes data in a matrix format
51. Which function in MS Access is used to extract the year from a date field?
a) YEAR()
b) MONTH()
c) DAY()
d) DATEPART()
Answer: a) YEAR()
52. Which of the following can be used to automatically perform a task in MS Access?
a) Macro
b) Table
c) Query
d) Report
Answer: a) Macro
53. What does the "Import" function do in MS Access?
a) It exports data from Access to another format
b) It imports data from external sources into Access
c) It creates a backup of the database
d) It imports a query from an external file
Answer: b) It imports data from external sources into Access
54. Which of the following is a valid relationship between two tables in MS Access?
a) One-to-One
b) Many-to-One
c) One-to-Many
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
55. In MS Access, which object is used to store a series of commands for performing
automated tasks?
a) Table
b) Query

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c) Macro
d) Report
Answer: c) Macro
56. Which of the following is NOT a type of filter in MS Access?
a) Filter by Selection
b) Filter by Form
c) Filter by Query
d) Filter by Record
Answer: d) Filter by Record
57. Which of the following statements is true about MS Access Reports?
a) Reports cannot be printed
b) Reports are used for formatting, calculating, and printing data
c) Reports can only display data in a table format
d) Reports cannot include summaries or totals
Answer: b) Reports are used for formatting, calculating, and printing data
58. What happens when you use the "Delete Query" in MS Access?
a) It deletes data from a table based on certain criteria
b) It deletes a table from the database
c) It deletes the entire database
d) It deletes only the columns
Answer: a) It deletes data from a table based on certain criteria
59. Which of the following describes a "Parameter Query" in MS Access?
a) A query that returns records based on user input
b) A query that updates records in a table
c) A query that creates new tables
d) A query that calculates summary data
Answer: a) A query that returns records based on user input
60. Which of the following is a method to increase the security of your MS Access database?
a) Use a password to protect the database
b) Compact and repair the database regularly
c) Use forms for data entry
d) Use relationships to link tables
Answer: a) Use a password to protect the database
61. Which of the following is the maximum number of characters allowed in a "Text" field in
MS Access 2016?

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a) 255 characters
b) 1000 characters
c) 65,535 characters
d) 32,767 characters
Answer: a) 255 characters
62. Which of the following objects in MS Access is used to store the definitions of queries?
a) Queries
b) Tables
c) Forms
d) Reports
Answer: a) Queries
63. What is the purpose of a "Join" in a query?
a) To group records by a specific field
b) To combine records from two or more tables based on a related field
c) To create a new table
d) To calculate total values in a table
Answer: b) To combine records from two or more tables based on a related field
64. Which of the following is true about the "Design View" in MS Access?
a) It is used to enter data directly into a table
b) It allows you to modify the structure of a table or query
c) It is used to print reports
d) It is used to run a query
Answer: b) It allows you to modify the structure of a table or query
65. What is a "Record" in MS Access?
a) A set of rules for validating data
b) A single row in a table that contains data for a specific entry
c) A collection of queries
d) A group of related fields
Answer: b) A single row in a table that contains data for a specific entry
66. Which of the following is true about MS Access "Datasheet View"?
a) It is used to modify the structure of a table
b) It is used to view and edit data in a table
c) It is used to design reports
d) It is used to write SQL queries
Answer: b) It is used to view and edit data in a table

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67. What is the default value of a field in MS Access?
a) A constant value that the field will always contain
b) A value that can only be changed by a query
c) A field that is automatically populated when a new record is created
d) The field’s calculated value
Answer: a) A constant value that the field will always contain
68. Which of the following is NOT a field property in MS Access?
a) Field Size
b) Format
c) Validation Rule
d) Query Condition
Answer: d) Query Condition
69. Which type of query is used to add new records to an existing table?
a) Append Query
b) Select Query
c) Update Query
d) Delete Query
Answer: a) Append Query
70. What is the maximum number of characters in a "Memo" field in MS Access?
a) 255
b) 32,768
c) 1,000,000
d) Unlimited
Answer: b) 32,768
71. Which of the following is a correct way to set a "Validation Rule" in MS Access?
a) It ensures that a field contains only specific values
b) It automatically updates data
c) It creates a relationship between tables
d) It compresses a database
Answer: a) It ensures that a field contains only specific values
72. Which of the following can be included in an MS Access report to summarize data?
a) Controls and expressions
b) Queries only
c) Tables and forms
d) Macros

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Answer: a) Controls and expressions
73. In MS Access, what is the default size of a "Memo" field?
a) 255 characters
b) 32,768 characters
c) 1,000 characters
d) Unlimited characters
Answer: b) 32,768 characters
74. What is the purpose of the "Calculated" field type in MS Access?
a) To calculate and display values based on other fields in a table
b) To store numeric values for calculations
c) To store static values
d) To create a lookup field
Answer: a) To calculate and display values based on other fields in a table
75. Which of the following is used to define a relationship between two tables in MS
Access?
a) Foreign Key
b) Primary Key
c) Data Type
d) Expression
Answer: a) Foreign Key
76. Which of the following functions would you use to retrieve the current time in MS
Access?
a) NOW()
b) CURTIME()
c) TIME()
d) TODAY()
Answer: a) NOW()
77. What does a "Delete Query" do in MS Access?
a) Removes data from a table permanently based on specific conditions
b) Deletes the structure of a table
c) Updates existing data in a table
d) Adds new records to a table
Answer: a) Removes data from a table permanently based on specific conditions
78. Which of the following is true about the "Split Form" in MS Access?

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a) It allows the user to see a form and a datasheet at the same time
b) It is used to run SQL queries
c) It is used to create reports
d) It is used to automatically delete records
Answer: a) It allows the user to see a form and a datasheet at the same time
79. Which of the following objects is NOT part of a database schema in MS Access?
a) Tables
b) Queries
c) Forms
d) Calculations
Answer: d) Calculations
80. Which of the following is the main purpose of the "Report" object in MS Access?
a) To display data in a printable format
b) To store data
c) To create new relationships
d) To update data in a table
Answer: a) To display data in a printable format
81. Which of the following can be set as a "Default Value" for a field in MS Access?
a) A calculated expression
b) A constant value that is automatically inserted when a new record is added
c) A lookup field
d) A validation rule
Answer: b) A constant value that is automatically inserted when a new record is added
82. Which of the following queries allows you to view data without modifying the underlying
table?
a) Action Query
b) Select Query
c) Update Query
d) Delete Query
Answer: b) Select Query
83. Which of the following is true about "Referential Integrity" in MS Access?
a) It ensures that relationships between tables are consistent
b) It is used to calculate totals
c) It is used to update data
d) It controls user access

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Answer: a) It ensures that relationships between tables are consistent
84. Which of the following is a valid "Join" type in MS Access?
a) Inner Join
b) Outer Join
c) Left Join
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
85. What is the main purpose of the "Lookup Wizard" in MS Access?
a) To create a relationship between tables
b) To define a primary key
c) To create a field where users can select values from a predefined list or table
d) To store large text data
Answer: c) To create a field where users can select values from a predefined list or table
86. Which of the following is true about "AutoNumber" data type in MS Access?
a) It is used to store unique numeric values automatically generated by Access
b) It is used to store fixed-length text
c) It allows you to store formatted text only
d) It is used to store large binary files
Answer: a) It is used to store unique numeric values automatically generated by Access
87. What is the maximum number of characters that can be stored in a "Short Text" field in
MS Access?
a) 500
b) 255
c) 65,535
d) 1,000,000
Answer: b) 255
88. Which of the following is a valid data type for a field in MS Access?
a) Hyperlink
b) Image
c) Video
d) Document
Answer: a) Hyperlink
89. Which of the following is used to filter records in a table or query based on certain
criteria in MS Access?

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a) Report
b) Form
c) Filter
d) Macro
Answer: c) Filter
90. What is the purpose of the "Normalize" process in MS Access?
a) To improve data redundancy
b) To ensure that data is stored efficiently and in a non-redundant manner
c) To generate reports
d) To run queries
Answer: b) To ensure that data is stored efficiently and in a non-redundant manner
91. What is the primary function of the "Update Query" in MS Access?
a) It adds new records to a table
b) It changes existing data in a table based on a specific condition
c) It deletes records from a table
d) It creates new tables
Answer: b) It changes existing data in a table based on a specific condition
92. In MS Access, a "Field" is best described as:
a) A row of data
b) A column in a table that stores a single type of data
c) A collection of tables
d) A visual representation of the data
Answer: b) A column in a table that stores a single type of data
93. Which of the following statements is true about "Wildcard Characters" in MS Access?
a) Wildcards are used to perform pattern matching in queries
b) Wildcards are used to delete records
c) Wildcards are used to format data in tables
d) Wildcards are used to create relationships
Answer: a) Wildcards are used to perform pattern matching in queries
94. Which of the following query types is used to group and summarize data in MS Access?
a) Select Query
b) Update Query
c) Group By Query
d) Delete Query
Answer: c) Group By Query

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95. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type for a field in MS Access?
a) Integer
b) Currency
c) Image
d) Decimal
Answer: c) Image
96. Which of the following is an example of an aggregate function in MS Access?
a) COUNT()
b) MAX()
c) AVG()
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
97. What is the maximum number of tables that can be linked in an MS Access query?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 50
d) There is no specific limit
Answer: d) There is no specific limit
98. In MS Access, which of the following types of fields is used to store large amounts of text
data?
a) Memo
b) Short Text
c) Long Text
d) Hyperlink
Answer: c) Long Text
99. Which of the following is NOT an MS Access Object?
a) Table
b) Query
c) View
d) Report
Answer: c) View
100. Which of the following is true about "Subdatasheets" in MS Access?
a) They display related records from a related table in a datasheet view
b) They are used to store reports
c) They are used to design queries
d) They only display summary data

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Answer: a) They display related records from a related table in a datasheet view

Internet
1. What does the acronym "URL" stand for?

A) Uniform Resource Locator

B) Uniform Resource Link

C) Universal Resource Locator

D) Universal Resource Link

Answer: A) Uniform Resource Locator

2. Which protocol is used to transfer files over the internet?

A) HTTP

B) FTP

C) SMTP

D) TCP
Answer: B) FTP

3. What does "HTTP" stand for?

A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

B) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

C) Hyper Terminal Transport Protocol

D) Hyper Text Transport Protocol

Answer: A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

4. What is the main purpose of the DNS (Domain Name System)?

A) To convert domain names into IP addresses

B) To encrypt data

C) To transfer files

D) To check email
Answer: A) To convert domain names into IP addresses

5. Which of the following is the fastest internet connection type?

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A) DSL

B) Fiber optic

C) Cable

D) Satellite
Answer: B) Fiber optic

6. What is the full form of "Wi-Fi"?

A) Wireless Fidelity

B) Wireless Field

C) Wired Fidelity

D) Wireless Internet
Answer: A) Wireless Fidelity

7. What does the "IP" in "IP Address" stand for?

A) Internet Process

B) Internet Protocol

C) Internal Program

D) International Protocol
Answer: B) Internet Protocol

8. Which protocol is responsible for securely transmitting data over the internet?

A) FTP

B) HTTP

C) HTTPS

D) POP3
Answer: C) HTTPS

9. What is a web browser?

A) A search engine

B) A device for browsing files

C) A software used to access websites

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D) A type of web server
Answer: C) A software used to access websites

10. What does "LAN" stand for in networking?

A) Local Area Network

B) Long Area Network

C) Local Access Network

D) Long Access Network

Answer: A) Local Area Network

11. Which is the largest search engine on the internet?

A) Yahoo

B) Bing

C) Google

D) DuckDuckGo
Answer: C) Google

12. What does "SSL" stand for in internet security?

A) Secure Server Layer

B) Secure Sockets Layer

C) Secure System Layer

D) System Security Layer

Answer: B) Secure Sockets Layer

13. What is the primary function of a router in a network?

A) To store files

B) To connect different networks

C) To process data

D) To encrypt data
Answer: B) To connect different networks

14. What does "VPN" stand for?

A) Virtual Private Network

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B) Virtual Public Network

C) Variable Private Network

D) Virtual Port Network

Answer: A) Virtual Private Network

15. What is an example of a search engine?

A) Bing

B) Twitter

C) Facebook

D) YouTube
Answer: A) Bing

16. What does "DNS" stand for in networking?

A) Domain Name System

B) Digital Network System

C) Domain Network Server

D) Data Name Server

Answer: A) Domain Name System

17. What is the main purpose of a firewall in networking?

A) To increase internet speed

B) To prevent unauthorized access

C) To route internet traffic

D) To store website data

Answer: B) To prevent unauthorized access

18. What is the internet address for Google?

A) google.com

B) google.net

C) google.org

D) google.co
Answer: A) google.com

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19. What does "HTML" stand for?

A) Hyper Text Markup Language

B) Hyper Transfer Markup Language

C) Home Text Markup Language

D) Hyper Tool Markup Language

Answer: A) Hyper Text Markup Language

20. Which of the following is used to identify a website’s address?

A) IP address

B) URL

C) SMTP

D) MAC address
Answer: B) URL

21. What is the full form of "FTP"?

A) File Transfer Protocol

B) Fast Transfer Protocol

C) File Transport Protocol

D) File Transaction Protocol

Answer: A) File Transfer Protocol

22. Which internet protocol is responsible for sending emails?

A) SMTP

B) POP3

C) FTP

D) HTTP
Answer: A) SMTP

23. What does "ISP" stand for?

A) Internet Server Provider

B) Internet Service Provider

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C) Integrated Service Provider

D) International Service Provider

Answer: B) Internet Service Provider

24. What is the full form of "MAC" in networking?

A) Main Address Code

B) Media Access Control

C) Machine Access Code

D) Mobile Access Control

Answer: B) Media Access Control

25. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband connection?

A) DSL

B) Fiber Optic

C) Dial-up

D) Satellite
Answer: C) Dial-up

26. What is the standard port for HTTP?

A) 21

B) 22

C) 80

D) 443
Answer: C) 80

27. What does "SEO" stand for in internet marketing?

A) Search Engine Optimization

B) Social Engagement Optimization

C) Server Engagement Optimization

D) Search Engine Operation

Answer: A) Search Engine Optimization

28. Which type of file does the "PDF" extension represent?

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A) Text document

B) Image file

C) Audio file

D) Portable Document Format

Answer: D) Portable Document Format

29. What is an IP address used for?

A) To locate a website

B) To identify a device on a network

C) To send emails

D) To transfer files
Answer: B) To identify a device on a network

30. Which of the following is the main purpose of the HTTP protocol?

A) Secure email transfer

B) Transfer files between systems

C) Transfer web pages over the internet

D) Handle network traffic

Answer: C) Transfer web pages over the internet

31. What is a "cookie" in the context of the internet?

A) A small file stored by a website on a user's computer

B) A software used to access websites

C) A type of malware

D) A code that is used to secure internet connections

Answer: A) A small file stored by a website on a user's computer

32. What is the primary function of an email server?

A) To send and receive emails

B) To store files

C) To route traffic over the internet

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D) To host websites
Answer: A) To send and receive emails

33. Which of these is a characteristic of IPv6 over IPv4?

A) Shorter address length

B) Larger address length

C) No security

D) Slower performance
Answer: B) Larger address length

34. What is the maximum speed of a typical fiber optic internet connection?

A) 10 Mbps

B) 100 Mbps

C) 1 Gbps

D) 10 Gbps
Answer: D) 10 Gbps

35. What is the primary difference between the internet and the web?

A) The internet refers to all hardware, while the web is just a collection of websites.

B) The internet refers to websites, while the web is the physical infrastructure.

C) The internet is more secure than the web.

D) There is no difference between the two.

Answer: A) The internet refers to all hardware, while the web is just a collection of
websites.

36. What does "2FA" stand for in internet security?

A) Two-Factor Authentication

B) Two File Authentication

C) Two Firewall Authentication

D) Two-Factor Authorization
Answer: A) Two-Factor Authentication

37. What does the acronym "URL" typically represent in a web browser?

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A) Uniform Resource Locator

B) Uniform Response Locator

C) Unified Resource Locator

D) Uniform Resource Link

Answer: A) Uniform Resource Locator

38. Which company developed the web browser "Internet Explorer"?

A) Mozilla

B) Microsoft

C) Google

D) Apple
Answer: B) Microsoft

39. What is the purpose of "HTTPS" in a website URL?

A) It indicates the website is encrypted and secure.

B) It makes the website load faster.

C) It provides a faster browsing experience.

D) It shows that the website has no advertisements.

Answer: A) It indicates the website is encrypted and secure.

40. Which protocol is used for email retrieval from a mail server?

A) FTP

B) HTTP

C) POP3

D) IMAP
Answer: C) POP3

41. What does "WIFI" stand for?

A) Wireless Fidelity

B) Wireless Internet Frequency Interface

C) Web Internet Functioning Interface

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D) Wide Internet Frequency Interface
Answer: A) Wireless Fidelity

42. Which of the following is a popular video streaming platform?

A) Vimeo

B) LinkedIn

C) Pinterest

D) Spotify
Answer: A) Vimeo

43. What does "BPS" stand for in internet speed measurement?

A) Bits Per Second

B) Bytes Per Second

C) Bandwidth Per Second

D) Broadband Per Second

Answer: A) Bits Per Second

44. Which one of the following is NOT a top-level domain (TLD)?

A) .com

B) .org

C) .info

D) .sys
Answer: D) .sys

45. What does "FTP" primarily stand for in networking?

A) Fast Transfer Protocol

B) File Transfer Protocol

C) File Transmission Protocol

D) Frequency Transfer Protocol

Answer: B) File Transfer Protocol

46. Which of the following is a function of an IP address?

A) To identify a website on the internet

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B) To identify devices within a local network

C) To encrypt data over the internet

D) To control data flow between servers

Answer: B) To identify devices within a local network

47. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a web server?

A) Process email

B) Store web pages and provide access to them over the internet

C) Analyze web traffic

D) Store and manage files for file-sharing services

Answer: B) Store web pages and provide access to them over the internet

48. Which of the following is a commonly used video conferencing platform?

A) Zoom

B) MySpace

C) Blogger

D) Craigslist
Answer: A) Zoom

49. Which encryption protocol is used to secure data sent over HTTPS?

A) SSL/TLS

B) RSA

C) DES

D) AES
Answer: A) SSL/TLS

50. What is the maximum number of IP addresses in IPv4?

A) 2^32

B) 2^128

C) 2^64

D) 2^256
Answer: A) 2^32

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51. What is an example of a peer-to-peer file sharing network?

A) HTTP

B) BitTorrent

C) FTP

D) SSL
Answer: B) BitTorrent

52. Which of the following is used to protect a website from DDoS attacks?

A) VPN

B) Web Application Firewall (WAF)

C) Proxy server

D) SSL certificate
Answer: B) Web Application Firewall (WAF)

53. Which of the following is a common purpose of an API (Application Programming

Interface)?

A) Encrypt data

B) Enable software applications to communicate with each other

C) Host a website

D) Manage email traffic

Answer: B) Enable software applications to communicate with each other

54. What is "cloud computing"?

A) Using local servers to store data

B) Using remote servers to store and process data over the internet

C) Storing data on a hard drive

D) A technology that only supports video streaming

Answer: B) Using remote servers to store and process data over the internet

55. Which of the following is a widely used social media platform?

A) LinkedIn

B) Bing

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C) Yahoo

D) Dropbox
Answer: A) LinkedIn

56. Which of these is a popular cloud storage service?

A) Google Drive

B) Spotify

C) GitHub

D) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: A) Google Drive

57. Which of the following is true about HTTPS compared to HTTP?

A) HTTPS encrypts data for secure communication

B) HTTPS does not work in browsers

C) HTTPS is used only for file transfers

D) HTTPS is a faster protocol than HTTP

Answer: A) HTTPS encrypts data for secure communication

58. Which of the following is an example of a search engine besides Google?

A) Bing

B) Facebook

C) Instagram

D) Amazon
Answer: A) Bing

59. Which of these protocols is primarily used to receive emails?

A) SMTP

B) POP3

C) DNS

D) HTTP
Answer: B) POP3

60. What is the typical function of a load balancer in networking?

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A) To route traffic to the correct server based on demand

B) To manage IP addresses

C) To monitor network security

D) To store website data

Answer: A) To route traffic to the correct server based on demand

61. Which of the following is a typical function of a proxy server?

A) To store websites

B) To filter and forward internet requests

C) To route data across networks

D) To secure email communication

Answer: B) To filter and forward internet requests

62. Which of these is a method to prevent unauthorized access to a network?

A) IP Address Filtering

B) Port Scanning

C) Ping Testing

D) DNS Spoofing
Answer: A) IP Address Filtering

63. Which protocol is primarily used for transferring web pages over the internet?

A) FTP

B) SMTP

C) HTTP

D) POP3
Answer: C) HTTP

64. What does a VPN provide to the user on the internet?

A) Access to encrypted and secure networks over the internet

B) Faster internet speeds

C) Unlimited storage space

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D) Direct connection to a server
Answer: A) Access to encrypted and secure networks over the internet

65. What is the main purpose of "cloud storage" services like Dropbox or Google Drive?

A) To store files online for easy access and sharing

B) To speed up internet browsing

C) To provide free email services

D) To create websites
Answer: A) To store files online for easy access and sharing

66. What does "Wi-Fi" allow users to do?

A) Send email

B) Connect wirelessly to the internet

C) Transfer files

D) Stream videos
Answer: B) Connect wirelessly to the internet

67. Which of the following is an example of a web hosting provider?

A) Amazon Web Services (AWS)

B) Google Search

C) Yahoo Mail

D) Netflix
Answer: A) Amazon Web Services (AWS)

68. What is a "botnet" in the context of cybersecurity?

A) A network of compromised computers controlled by a hacker

B) A system used to send emails

C) A type of antivirus software

D) A type of network for video conferencing

Answer: A) A network of compromised computers controlled by a hacker

69. Which of these is a well-known online payment service?

A) PayPal

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B) Amazon

C) Yahoo

D) GitHub
Answer: A) PayPal

70. Which of the following is an online marketplace platform?

A) Amazon

B) Reddit

C) LinkedIn

D) Pinterest
Answer: A) Amazon

71. What is "phishing" in internet security?

A) A method of fishing for sensitive information by impersonating trustworthy entities

B) A type of malware designed to steal files

C) A system for encrypting communications

D) A process for creating strong passwords

Answer: A) A method of fishing for sensitive information by impersonating trustworthy
entities

72. Which of the following is a common method of user authentication on websites?

A) CAPTCHA

B) Proxy servers

C) DNS resolution

D) Data encryption
Answer: A) CAPTCHA

73. What is the primary function of DNS in networking?

A) To convert domain names into IP addresses

B) To encrypt data

C) To manage email communications

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D) To transfer files over the internet
Answer: A) To convert domain names into IP addresses

74. What is a “meme” in internet culture?

A) A digital virus

B) A viral idea, behavior, or trend spread through the internet

C) A type of web browser

D) A password encryption method

Answer: B) A viral idea, behavior, or trend spread through the internet

75. Which of these is a widely used social media platform?

A) Facebook

B) WordPress

C) Gmail

D) Dropbox
Answer: A) Facebook

76. Which of the following is NOT a type of computer network?

A) LAN (Local Area Network)

B) WAN (Wide Area Network)

C) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

D) FAN (Fiber Area Network)

Answer: D) FAN (Fiber Area Network)

77. What is the primary role of a "web crawler"?

A) To crawl the internet for malware

B) To index content for search engines

C) To optimize website speed

D) To filter spam emails

Answer: B) To index content for search engines

78. Which of these is a well-known cloud computing service provider?

A) AWS (Amazon Web Services)

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B) GitHub

C) Adobe Acrobat

D) Spotify
Answer: A) AWS (Amazon Web Services)

79. Which of the following is an example of a peer-to-peer protocol used in file sharing?

A) FTP

B) HTTP

C) BitTorrent

D) SMTP
Answer: C) BitTorrent

80. What is a "public IP address"?

A) An IP address that is assigned to a specific device within a local network

B) An IP address that can be accessed directly over the internet

C) A private, non-routable IP address used inside a local network

D) An address used only for intranet purposes

Answer: B) An IP address that can be accessed directly over the internet

81. Which of these is an example of a cloud-based file storage service?

A) Dropbox

B) Windows 10

C) MySQL

D) Cisco
Answer: A) Dropbox

82. What does "cookies" mean in web browsing?

A) Small text files stored by a browser to track user activity

B) A type of software used to enhance security

C) The software used to encrypt user passwords

D) A type of virus affecting web browsers

Answer: A) Small text files stored by a browser to track user activity

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83. What is the primary function of the HTTP method "POST"?

A) To request data from a server

B) To send data to a server

C) To upload files to a server

D) To delete data from a server

Answer: B) To send data to a server

84. What is "JavaScript" used for in web development?

A) To style web pages

B) To structure web pages

C) To make web pages interactive

D) To store web page content

Answer: C) To make web pages interactive

85. Which of the following is a security risk where a website is tricked into delivering
confidential information to attackers?

A) Phishing

B) DDoS

C) XSS (Cross-site scripting)

D) Malware
Answer: C) XSS (Cross-site scripting)

86. What is the main difference between IPv4 and IPv6?

A) IPv4 is faster than IPv6

B) IPv6 provides a larger address space than IPv4

C) IPv4 supports more devices than IPv6

D) IPv6 is only used for video streaming

Answer: B) IPv6 provides a larger address space than IPv4

87. What is an SSL certificate used for on a website?

A) To enhance website design

B) To encrypt the connection between the website and the user

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C) To increase website traffic

D) To manage website content

Answer: B) To encrypt the connection between the website and the user

88. Which of these is a popular email protocol used for sending emails?

A) IMAP

B) SMTP

C) POP3

D) HTTP
Answer: B) SMTP

89. What is the primary role of a "domain registrar"?

A) To host websites

B) To provide email services

C) To register and manage domain names

D) To provide internet access

Answer: C) To register and manage domain names

90. What is the primary benefit of using a "Content Delivery Network" (CDN)?

A) It increases the storage capacity of a website

B) It improves website security by blocking hackers

C) It distributes website content across multiple servers to increase load times and
availability

D) It creates backups for website data

Answer: C) It distributes website content across multiple servers to increase load times
and availability

91. What is the most common use for the protocol HTTPS?

A) To transfer emails

B) To send instant messages

C) To securely access websites

D) To share large files

Answer: C) To securely access websites

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92. What does the term "e-commerce" refer to?

A) The process of creating web pages

B) Buying and selling goods and services over the internet

C) Editing and managing images online

D) Accessing information on the internet

Answer: B) Buying and selling goods and services over the internet

93. Which of the following is the most popular operating system for web servers?

A) Linux

B) Windows

C) macOS

D) Android
Answer: A) Linux

94. Which of these technologies is used for secure communication over the internet?

A) SSL/TLS

B) HTTP

C) DNS

D) FTP
Answer: A) SSL/TLS

95. What does the term "digital footprint" refer to?

A) The amount of digital storage you use

B) The traceable data you leave behind while using the internet

C) The hardware you use to access the internet

D) The digital signatures you create when sending an email

Answer: B) The traceable data you leave behind while using the internet

96. What is a "DNS server" responsible for?

A) Storing files on the internet

B) Resolving domain names into IP addresses

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C) Sending and receiving emails

D) Managing website content

Answer: B) Resolving domain names into IP addresses

97. What is the primary purpose of the "DMZ" (Demilitarized Zone) in network security?

A) To secure internal servers from external threats

B) To monitor all incoming and outgoing network traffic

C) To provide external access to a server without compromising internal systems

D) To store critical data in a secure location

Answer: C) To provide external access to a server without compromising internal systems

98. Which type of internet connection uses a modem to connect to the internet over
telephone lines?

A) Fiber optic

B) Cable

C) DSL

D) Satellite
Answer: C) DSL

99. What does "HTTP Status Code 404" indicate?

A) The request was successful

B) The server is down

C) The page was not found

D) The page is temporarily moved

Answer: C) The page was not found

100. Which of the following is a basic form of website protection from hackers?

A) Password protection

B) Regular software updates

C) Using SSL encryption

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

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 Computer Programming
1. What is the main purpose of a programming language?

a) To communicate with machines

b) To communicate with other programmers
c) To perform calculations
d) To automate tasks

Answer: a) To communicate with machines

2. Which of the following is NOT a programming language?

a) Python
b) Java
c) HTML
d) C++

Answer: c) HTML

3. In programming, what is an algorithm?

a) A program written in machine language

b) A step-by-step procedure to solve a problem
c) A collection of data structures
d) A programming language

Answer: b) A step-by-step procedure to solve a problem

4. What does IDE stand for?

a) Integrated Development Environment

b) Integrated Design Environment
c) Integrated Data Environment
d) Integrated Debugging Environment

Answer: a) Integrated Development Environment

5. Which of these is a valid Python variable name?

a) 2ndValue
b) Value_2
c) Value-2
d) @Value

Answer: b) Value_2

6. Which symbol is used for comments in Python?

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a) //
b) #
c) /*
d) <!--

Answer: b) #

7. What is the output of the following code in Python?

python

Copy code

print(2 + 3 * 4)

a) 14
b) 20
c) 24
d) 11

Answer: a) 14

8. Which of the following data types is NOT built into Python?

a) List
b) Dictionary
c) Set
d) Pointer

Answer: d) Pointer

9. What is the purpose of the 'if' statement in programming?

a) To repeat code until a condition is met

b) To create a loop
c) To make decisions based on conditions
d) To handle errors

Answer: c) To make decisions based on conditions

10. In which language would you typically use the keyword "def" to define a function?

a) Python
b) Java
c) C++
d) JavaScript

Answer: a) Python
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11. What is the correct syntax to create a function in Python?

a) function myFunction():
b) def myFunction():
c) create myFunction():
d) function: myFunction()

Answer: b) def myFunction():

12. Which of the following is a loop structure in programming?

a) for
b) while
c) do-while
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

13. In Python, what will the following code print?

python

Copy code

x = 10

y = 5

print(x // y)

a) 2
b) 2.0
c) 5
d) 5.0

Answer: a) 2

14. Which of the following is used to define a class in Python?

a) class
b) def
c) structure
d) function

Answer: a) class

15. Which of these is NOT a valid Python data structure?

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a) List
b) Tuple
c) Array
d) Dictionary

Answer: c) Array

16. What does the 'break' statement do in a loop?

a) Exits the current loop completely

b) Skips the rest of the current iteration
c) Starts the next iteration
d) Ends the program

Answer: a) Exits the current loop completely

17. What is a tuple in Python?

a) An unordered collection of values

b) A sequence of values that can be changed
c) A sequence of values that cannot be changed
d) A dictionary-like data structure

Answer: c) A sequence of values that cannot be changed

18. Which of the following is used to input data in Python?

a) print()
b) input()
c) read()
d) scan()

Answer: b) input()

19. What is the correct way to define a list in Python?

a) list(1, 2, 3)
b) [1, 2, 3]
c) {1, 2, 3}
d) (1, 2, 3)

Answer: b) [1, 2, 3]

20. In which language would you typically use the keyword "public" to define the visibility of
a class member?

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a) Python
b) Java
c) C++
d) JavaScript

Answer: b) Java

21. What does the 'continue' statement do in a loop?

a) Exits the current loop iteration

b) Skips the current iteration and continues to the next one
c) Ends the program
d) Breaks out of all loops

Answer: b) Skips the current iteration and continues to the next one

22. Which of the following is a key feature of Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)?

a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

23. Which of the following keywords is used for error handling in Python?

a) exception
b) error
c) try
d) catch

Answer: c) try

24. Which of the following is the correct way to write an 'if' statement in Python?

a) if x = 10
b) if x == 10:
c) if x 10:
d) if (x == 10)

Answer: b) if x == 10:

25. What is a method in object-oriented programming?

a) A function that operates on an object

b) A collection of data

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c) A class definition
d) A loop structure

Answer: a) A function that operates on an object

26. Which of the following statements will NOT result in an error in Python?

a) x = 10 + "hello"
b) x = 10 + 5
c) x = "hello" + 5
d) x = 5 - "hello"

Answer: b) x = 10 + 5

27. What is the default return value of a function in Python that does not explicitly return
anything?

a) None
b) 0
c) False
d) ""

Answer: a) None

28. What is an example of a logical operator in Python?

a) &&
b) and
c) +
d) **

Answer: b) and

29. In C++, which of the following is used to declare a function?

a) func
b) function
c) return
d) void

Answer: d) void

30. What does the 'else' block do in an 'if-else' structure?

a) Executes when the 'if' condition is True

b) Executes when the 'if' condition is False

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c) Initializes the condition
d) Skips the rest of the program

Answer: b) Executes when the 'if' condition is False

31. Which of the following is NOT an arithmetic operator in Python?

a) +
b) -
c) *
d) %

Answer: d) %

32. In Java, which method is used to print text to the console?

a) print()
b) echo()
c) println()
d) write()

Answer: c) println()

33. What does the 'return' statement do in a function?

a) Continues to the next iteration

b) Ends the current loop
c) Returns a value from the function
d) Calls the next function

Answer: c) Returns a value from the function

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a function in programming?

a) It is a reusable block of code

b) It executes automatically when the program starts
c) It cannot return values
d) It only operates on numbers

Answer: a) It is a reusable block of code

35. What will the following code output in Python?

python

Copy code

print(3 ** 2)

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a) 6
b) 9
c) 32
d) 3^2

Answer: b) 9

36. Which of the following operators is used to compare two values in Python?

a) =
b) ==
c) !=
d) Both b and c

Answer: d) Both b and c

37. What is the output of the following Python code?

python

Copy code

x = [1, 2, 3]

x.append(4)

print(x)

a) [1, 2, 3]
b) [1, 2, 3, 4]
c) (1,

51. Which of the following is used to exit a function in Python?

a) return
b) break
c) exit
d) stop

Answer: a) return

52. What is the output of the following Python code?

python

Copy code

x = "Hello"

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print(x[1])

a) H
b) e
c) l
d) o

Answer: b) e

53. What is the correct syntax for importing a module in Python?

a) import "module"
b) import module
c) include module
d) use module

Answer: b) import module

54. Which of the following is NOT a type of loop in programming?

a) while
b) for
c) until
d) do-while

Answer: c) until

55. In Python, how do you create a multi-line comment?

a) // comment
b) /* comment */
c) ''' comment '''
d) # comment

Answer: c) ''' comment '''

56. What does the term "variable" refer to in programming?

a) A fixed value in the code

b) A storage location with a name that can hold a value
c) A function that changes values
d) A method of performing calculations

Answer: b) A storage location with a name that can hold a value

57. Which of the following operators is used for logical AND in Python?

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a) &&
b) and
c) &
d) +

Answer: b) and

58. In C, which library function is used to read input from the user?

a) read()
b) scanf()
c) input()
d) get()

Answer: b) scanf()

59. In Java, which of the following is used to handle exceptions?

a) catch
b) error
c) try
d) throw

Answer: c) try

60. What is the output of the following code?

python

Copy code

x = [5, 10, 15]

x[1] = 20

print(x)

a) [5, 10, 15]

b) [5, 20, 15]
c) [20, 10, 15]
d) [5, 10, 20]

Answer: b) [5, 20, 15]

61. Which keyword is used to define a class in Java?

a) function
b) class

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c) struct
d) define

Answer: b) class

62. What is the primary function of an array in programming?

a) To store multiple values of different types

b) To store multiple values of the same type
c) To store single values
d) To perform mathematical operations

Answer: b) To store multiple values of the same type

63. What is the purpose of the 'pass' statement in Python?

a) To terminate the program

b) To skip the current iteration of a loop
c) To define a placeholder for a future code block
d) To create a function

Answer: c) To define a placeholder for a future code block

64. In JavaScript, which operator is used to concatenate two strings?

a) &
b) +
c) %
d) &&

Answer: b) +

65. Which of the following is NOT a valid loop structure in Python?

a) for
b) while
c) repeat
d) do-while

Answer: c) repeat

66. What is the result of the following Python code?

python

Copy code

x = [2, 4, 6]

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print(x[2])

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) Error

Answer: c) 6

67. Which of the following is the correct syntax for defining a function in C++?

a) void functionName()
b) functionName() void
c) function functionName()
d) def functionName()

Answer: a) void functionName()

68. Which of the following data types is used to store a single character in C++?

a) string
b) char
c) int
d) float

Answer: b) char

69. What is the output of the following JavaScript code?

javascript

Copy code

let x = 10;

let y = 5;

console.log(x + y);

a) 105
b) 15
c) x + y
d) Error

Answer: b) 15

70. Which of the following is a correct syntax for a for loop in Python?

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a) for i in range(10):
b) for (i = 0; i < 10; i++):
c) for i = 0 to 10:
d) loop for i in range(10):

Answer: a) for i in range(10):

71. What does the 'else' keyword do in Python?

a) Executes when an exception occurs

b) Executes when the 'if' condition is False
c) Initializes a function
d) Ends a loop

Answer: b) Executes when the 'if' condition is False

72. In Python, which of the following functions is used to convert a string to an integer?

a) str()
b) int()
c) float()
d) list()

Answer: b) int()

73. What does the term "syntax error" mean in programming?

a) An error in the logic of the program

b) An error in the syntax or structure of the code
c) An error in memory allocation
d) An error caused by incorrect input

Answer: b) An error in the syntax or structure of the code

74. What does the 'continue' statement do in Python?

a) Exits the program

b) Skips the rest of the current loop iteration and moves to the next iteration
c) Terminates the function
d) Breaks out of the loop

Answer: b) Skips the rest of the current loop iteration and moves to the next iteration

75. Which of the following is a valid Python data type for handling true/false values?

a) bool
b) integer

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c) char
d) string

Answer: a) bool

76. In C++, which of the following is used to include a standard library?

a) include()
b) <include>
c) #include
d) include<>

Answer: c) #include

77. What is the output of the following code in Python?

python

Copy code

x = 10

y = 3

print(x % y)

a) 3
b) 1
c) 0
d) 10

Answer: b) 1

78. In C, which of the following functions is used to print output to the console?

a) printf()
b) print()
c) output()
d) display()

Answer: a) printf()

79. In C++, which of the following is a valid variable declaration?

a) int x = 5;
b) 5 = int x;
c) x int = 5;
d) var int x = 5;

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Answer: a) int x = 5;

80. Which of the following is the correct syntax for a comment in JavaScript?

a) // This is a comment
b) # This is a comment
c) /* This is a comment */
d) Both a and c

Answer: d) Both a and c

81. What is the default value of an uninitialized variable in Java?

a) 0
b) null
c) Undefined
d) Garbage value

Answer: b) null

82. Which of the following is used to declare a constant in Python?

a) constant
b) const
c) final
d) Python does not have a keyword for constants

Answer: d) Python does not have a keyword for constants

83. What is the output of the following code?

python

Copy code

print(4 * 3 // 2)

a) 6
b) 5
c) 12
d) 7

Answer: a) 6

84. Which of the following can be used to perform bitwise AND in Python?

a) &&
b) &

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c) ||
d) or

Answer: b) &

85. Which operator is used for exponentiation in Python?

a) **
b) ^
c) *
d) %

Answer: a) **

86. In Java, what is the size of a byte?

a) 2 bits
b) 4 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 16 bits

Answer: c) 8 bits

87. Which data type does not allow duplicate elements in Python?

a) List
b) Tuple
c) Set
d) Dictionary

Answer: c) Set

88. In Java, what is used to handle exceptions?

a) try-catch block
b) if-else block
c) switch-case block
d) for-each loop

Answer: a) try-catch block

89. What is the primary purpose of a compiler in programming?

a) To check for syntax errors

b) To convert high-level code into machine code
c) To execute the program
d) To handle exceptions

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Answer: b) To convert high-level code into machine code

90. Which of the following is used to declare an array in C?

a) int[] arr = {1, 2, 3};

b) array arr = {1, 2, 3};
c) int arr[] = {1, 2, 3};
d) arr = [1, 2, 3];

Answer: c) int arr[] = {1, 2, 3};

91. Which of the following programming languages is dynamically typed?

a) C++
b) Java
c) Python
d) Swift

Answer: c) Python

92. What is the purpose of the 'final' keyword in Java?

a) To declare a constant
b) To define an unchangeable class
c) To define an unchangeable method
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

93. What is the size of an int in C++ (on most systems)?

a) 2 bytes
b) 4 bytes
c) 8 bytes
d) 16 bytes

Answer: b) 4 bytes

94. Which of the following is used to store a key-value pair in Python?

a) List
b) Tuple
c) Dictionary
d) Set

Answer: c) Dictionary

95. Which of the following is used to iterate over a sequence of elements in Python?
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a) while loop
b) for loop
c) range function
d) Both b and c

Answer: d) Both b and c

96. What is the correct syntax to create an instance of a class in Python?

a) new ClassName()
b) ClassName.new()
c) ClassName()
d) instance = ClassName.new()

Answer: c) ClassName()

97. Which of the following can be used to store a sequence of values in JavaScript?

a) array
b) tuple
c) list
d) object

Answer: a) array

98. Which of the following statements will result in an error in Python?

a) x = 10 + 5
b) x = "10" + 5
c) x = 10 * "hello"
d) x = 10 - "hello"

Answer: b) x = "10" + 5

99. Which of the following is the correct syntax for defining a class in Python?

a) class MyClass:
b) class = MyClass():
c) def MyClass():
d) class MyClass():

Answer: a) class MyClass:

100. What is the result of the following Python code?

python
Copy code
x = "100"

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print(int(x))
a) 100
b) "100"
c) Error
d) None
Answer: a) 100

Artificial Intelligence

1. What is the primary goal of Artificial Intelligence?

o A. To simulate human intelligence in machines
o B. To make computers faster
o C. To eliminate human jobs
o D. To create emotions in computers
Answer: A
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of AI?
o A. Narrow AI
o B. General AI
o C. Superintelligent AI
o D. Virtual Reality AI
Answer: D
3. Which programming language is most commonly used in AI research?
o A. JavaScript
o B. Python
o C. PHP
o D. C++
Answer: B
4. Which of these AI approaches is based on mimicking the human brain?
o A. Machine Learning
o B. Rule-Based Systems
o C. Neural Networks
o D. Evolutionary Computing
Answer: C

5. What is Machine Learning?

o A. A subset of AI focused on programming
o B. The science of getting computers to act without being explicitly
programmed
o C. A method to create physical robots
o D. None of the above
Answer: B
6. In supervised learning, what does the model learn from?
o A. Data without labels
o B. Data with labels
o C. Random data

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 oD. Pre-defined actions
Answer: B
7. Which type of machine learning is used when the model needs to find patterns
without labels?
o A. Supervised Learning
o B. Unsupervised Learning
o C. Reinforcement Learning
o D. Transfer Learning
Answer: B
8. Which of the following algorithms is used for classification problems?
o A. Linear Regression
o B. Decision Trees
o C. K-Means Clustering
o D. Gradient Descent
Answer: B

9. Which type of neural network is best suited for image recognition?

o A. Convolutional Neural Network (CNN)
o B. Recurrent Neural Network (RNN)
o C. Multilayer Perceptron (MLP)
o D. Support Vector Machine (SVM)
Answer: A
10. What does the term “backpropagation” refer to in neural networks?
o A. The process of training in batches
o B. The process of adjusting weights to minimize error
o C. The process of data normalization
o D. The process of forward propagation
Answer: B
11. In which scenario would you typically use a Recurrent Neural Network (RNN)?
o A. Image recognition
o B. Time-series analysis
o C. Clustering
o D. Sorting algorithms
Answer: B
12. Which activation function is most commonly used in hidden layers of a neural
network?
o A. Linear
o B. Sigmoid
o C. ReLU (Rectified Linear Unit)
o D. Tanh
Answer: C

13. Which of these tasks is NOT part of Natural Language Processing?

o A. Sentiment Analysis
o B. Image Recognition
o C. Machine Translation
o D. Text Summarization
Answer: B
14. Which NLP technique is used for identifying parts of speech, such as nouns and
verbs, in a sentence?

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 o A. Word Embedding
o B. POS Tagging
o C. Text Summarization
o D. Named Entity Recognition
Answer: B
15. In NLP, which model is commonly used for language generation?
o A. Decision Trees
o B. CNN
o C. GPT (Generative Pre-trained Transformer)
o D. K-Means
Answer: C

16. Which of the following is a popular dataset used for image classification tasks?
o A. IMDB
o B. MNIST
o C. Reuters
o D. Gutenberg
Answer: B
17. What is “feature extraction” in computer vision?
o A. The process of categorizing text
o B. Identifying edges, shapes, or colors in images
o C. Converting text to vectors
o D. Filtering irrelevant data
Answer: B
18. Which type of neural network is primarily used in image processing?
o A. CNN (Convolutional Neural Network)
o B. RNN (Recurrent Neural Network)
o C. MLP (Multilayer Perceptron)
o D. KNN (K-Nearest Neighbors)
Answer: A

19. What is a significant ethical concern associated with AI?

o A. AI systems require high maintenance
o B. AI systems consume a lot of power
o C. AI could lead to biased or unfair decisions
o D. AI systems are costly to implement
Answer: C
20. What does “transparency” mean in the context of AI ethics?
o A. Making the code open-source
o B. Ensuring data used for training is visible to all
o C. Making AI decisions understandable to humans
o D. Revealing hardware specifications
Answer: C

21. Which of the following is an example of unsupervised learning?

o A. Decision Trees
o B. Clustering
o C. Linear Regression
o D. Random Forests
Answer: B

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 22. What is overfitting in machine learning?
o A. The model performs well on training data but poorly on new data
o B. The model performs equally on training and testing data
o C. The model performs poorly on both training and testing data
o D. The model has more features than needed
Answer: A
23. Which of the following algorithms is typically used for regression tasks?
o A. K-Means
o B. Linear Regression
o C. SVM (Support Vector Machine) for classification
o D. Naïve Bayes
Answer: B
24. Which algorithm is most appropriate for predicting binary outcomes?
o A. Linear Regression
o B. K-Means Clustering
o C. Logistic Regression
o D. PCA (Principal Component Analysis)
Answer: C
25. In decision trees, what criterion is commonly used to split nodes?
o A. Gini Impurity
o B. Support Vector
o C. k-Value
o D. Centroid
Answer: A
26. What type of data transformation is commonly used to handle categorical
variables?
o A. One-hot encoding
o B. Normalization
o C. Feature scaling
o D. Smoothing
Answer: A
27. Which machine learning method relies heavily on prior knowledge and
assumptions about data distributions?
o A. K-Nearest Neighbors
o B. Naïve Bayes
o C. Decision Trees
o D. Neural Networks
Answer: B
28. Which of these techniques helps to reduce the dimensionality of data?
o A. Gradient Descent
o B. Backpropagation
o C. Principal Component Analysis (PCA)
o D. Clustering
Answer: C
29. In ensemble learning, what is “bagging” short for?
o A. Bootstrapped Aggregating
o B. Big Aggregation
o C. Blocked Grouping
o D. Bagging Regression
Answer: A

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 30. What is “boosting” in machine learning?
o A. Combining weak learners to form a strong learner
o B. Randomly sampling subsets of data
o C. Dividing data into clusters
o D. Reducing features in the dataset
Answer: A

31. Which neural network architecture is best suited for sequential data?
o A. CNN
o B. RNN
o C. MLP
o D. GAN
Answer: B
32. In a neural network, which layer type is commonly used for non-linearity?
o A. Input Layer
o B. Activation Layer
o C. Pooling Layer
o D. Output Layer
Answer: B
33. Which of these deep learning techniques is used for generating new data
samples?
o A. CNN
o B. RNN
o C. GAN (Generative Adversarial Network)
o D. DNN (Deep Neural Network)
Answer: C
34. What is the primary purpose of dropout in neural networks?
o A. To add more neurons to the network
o B. To prevent overfitting
o C. To improve computational efficiency
o D. To increase the model's capacity
Answer: B
35. Which optimizer is commonly used for training deep neural networks?
o A. Adam
o B. Gradient Boosting
o C. Mean Shift
o D. Stochastic Gradient Clustering
Answer: A
36. What type of neural network is typically used in image recognition tasks?
o A. Recurrent Neural Network (RNN)
o B. Convolutional Neural Network (CNN)
o C. Decision Tree
o D. Random Forest
Answer: B
37. Which of the following is a type of pooling in CNNs?
o A. Average Pooling
o B. Density Pooling
o C. Weighted Pooling
o D. Distribution Pooling
Answer: A

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 38. In neural networks, what does the term “epoch” mean?
o A. A complete pass through the training data
o B. The initialization of weights
o C. A new node added to the network
o D. A step in backpropagation
Answer: A
39. Which deep learning model is used for image segmentation?
o A. U-Net
o B. RNN
o C. GAN
o D. SVM
Answer: A
40. What is the purpose of batch normalization in neural networks?
o A. To normalize inputs to each layer
o B. To reduce the network size
o C. To avoid local minima
o D. To scale all weights uniformly
Answer: A

41. What is the purpose of “tokenization” in NLP?

o A. To break text into individual words or phrases
o B. To convert text to numbers
o C. To remove stop words
o D. To detect languages
Answer: A
42. Which of the following is a widely used pre-trained NLP model by OpenAI?
o A. BERT
o B. GPT
o C. LSTM
o D. ELMo
Answer: B
43. What does “embedding” mean in NLP?
o A. Compressing text files
o B. Converting words to vectors
o C. Translating language
o D. Generating random sentences
Answer: B
44. Which NLP technique is used to extract specific information such as names,
dates, and locations from text?
o A. Tokenization
o B. Named Entity Recognition (NER)
o C. Sentiment Analysis
o D. Machine Translation
Answer: B
45. In NLP, what is “stemming”?
o A. Finding the root form of a word
o B. Removing punctuation
o C. Classifying sentiment
o D. Detecting the language
Answer: A

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 46. In reinforcement learning, what does the “agent” do?
o A. Learns from labeled data
o B. Takes actions in an environment to maximize reward
o C. Classifies input data
o D. Translates text
Answer: B
47. Which reinforcement learning algorithm is widely used for finding optimal
policies?
o A. Q-learning
o B. K-means
o C. SVM
o D. AdaBoost
Answer: A
48. What is the purpose of the “reward function” in reinforcement learning?
o A. To provide a measure of accuracy
o B. To guide the agent’s actions towards its goals
o C. To evaluate the efficiency of data preprocessing
o D. To select the best model parameters
Answer: B
49. Which approach allows an agent to act with some degree of randomness in order
to explore new states?
o A. Epsilon-Greedy Strategy
o B. Backpropagation
o C. Momentum-Based Strategy
o D. Cross-Validation
Answer: A
50. Which of these games was famously used to demonstrate deep reinforcement
learning by DeepMind?
o A. Chess
o B. Pac-Man
o C. Go
o D. Tetris
Answer: C

51. Which of these is a key principle in responsible AI?

o A. Exclusivity
o B. Transparency
o C. Closed Development
o D. Ignoring Bias
Answer: B
52. Which of these concerns relates to data privacy in AI?
o A. Personal data being used without consent
o B. Overfitting in machine learning models
o C. Poor algorithmic efficiency
o D. Lack of automation
Answer: A
53. What is a primary concern when using AI in decision-making for hiring?
o A. Low data storage costs
o B. Algorithmic bias
o C. Overfitting

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 o D. Expensive computation
Answer: B

51. What does “fairness” mean in the context of AI?

o A. AI should perform equally well across different demographic groups
o B. AI should always be open-source
o C. AI should be faster than human decision-making
o D. AI should be free for public use
Answer: A
52. What is a significant ethical challenge with facial recognition technology?
o A. High computational cost
o B. Privacy and surveillance concerns
o C. Low accuracy in high-light conditions
o D. Difficult integration with smartphones
Answer: B
53. Which concept describes the ability of AI systems to explain their decisions and
processes?
o A. Bias
o B. Explainability
o C. Predictability
o D. Flexibility
Answer: B
54. In the context of AI, what does GDPR primarily regulate?
o A. Data privacy and protection
o B. Model performance optimization
o C. System scalability
o D. Multi-language support
Answer: A
55. Which of the following ethical principles involves giving AI users control over
personal information?
o A. Accountability
o B. Consent
o C. Transparency
o D. Reliability
Answer: B
56. In AI ethics, what is the purpose of “accountability”?
o A. To ensure AI systems are error-free
o B. To identify responsible parties for AI actions
o C. To automate as many tasks as possible
o D. To enhance performance efficiency
Answer: B
57. Which organization released the AI Principles that emphasize human rights,
fairness, and transparency?
o A. DeepMind
o B. Google AI
o C. OpenAI
o D. OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development)
Answer: D

61. What is the main goal in reinforcement learning?

o A. Minimize cost

134 | P a g e Mr. Sanjeeb Das

 o B. Maximize cumulative reward
o C. Classify data
o D. Cluster similar data
Answer: B
62. What is a “policy” in reinforcement learning?
o A. A sequence of rewards
o B. A mapping from states to actions
o C. A method for tuning model parameters
o D. A subset of the training dataset
Answer: B
63. Which concept in reinforcement learning balances exploration and exploitation?
o A. Hyperparameter tuning
o B. Gradient descent
o C. Epsilon-Greedy
o D. Regularization
Answer: C
64. Which algorithm is based on learning the value of actions?
o A. Q-learning
o B. K-means
o C. PCA
o D. SVM
Answer: A
65. In a Markov Decision Process, what is a “state”?
o A. A possible action
o B. A position the agent can be in
o C. A policy
o D. A feature in data
Answer: B
66. Which of these describes “temporal difference” in reinforcement learning?
o A. A method to predict rewards based on the immediate reward and next state
o B. A type of deep learning architecture
o C. A random sampling of actions
o D. A fixed learning rate
Answer: A
67. Which reinforcement learning technique uses a “critic” to estimate value
functions?
o A. Actor-Critic method
o B. Random Forest
o C. GAN
o D. SVM
Answer: A
68. Which of the following is an example of a reward in reinforcement learning?
o A. Cumulative loss
o B. Accuracy percentage
o C. Immediate feedback signal for an action
o D. Gradient value
Answer: C
69. In reinforcement learning, “exploration” refers to:
o A. Trying new actions to discover rewards
o B. Repeating known actions for rewards
o C. Updating weights

135 | P a g e Mr. Sanjeeb Das

 o D. Collecting labeled data
Answer: A
70. Which of these is NOT a reinforcement learning concept?
o A. Reward function
o B. Policy function
o C. Clustering
o D. Value function
Answer: C

71. What is a “hidden layer” in a neural network?

o A. A layer with input data
o B. A layer between the input and output layers
o C. A layer that outputs the result
o D. A preprocessing step
Answer: B
72. Which activation function is commonly used in the output layer for binary
classification?
o A. Softmax
o B. ReLU
o C. Sigmoid
o D. Tanh
Answer: C
73. What is the main goal of convolutional layers in CNNs?
o A. To reduce the dimensionality of data
o B. To extract local features from input data
o C. To apply a non-linear transformation
o D. To prevent overfitting
Answer: B
74. In deep learning, a “vanishing gradient” problem can occur in:
o A. Shallow networks
o B. Deep networks
o C. Support Vector Machines
o D. Clustering algorithms
Answer: B
75. Which type of neural network is typically used for video processing?
o A. RNN
o B. LSTM
o C. 3D-CNN
o D. GAN
Answer: C
76. Which of these algorithms is based on the concept of “adversarial” training?
o A. Support Vector Machine
o B. Decision Tree
o C. Generative Adversarial Network (GAN)
o D. K-Means
Answer: C
77. What is the main purpose of the ReLU activation function?
o A. To handle negative input values by making them zero
o B. To apply linear transformations
o C. To reduce bias in predictions

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 o D. To standardize input data
Answer: A
78. In LSTMs, what is a “forget gate”?
o A. A mechanism to reset the memory cell
o B. A gate that keeps track of sequence length
o C. A mechanism to remove irrelevant information from the cell state
o D. A gate that increases accuracy
Answer: C
79. What type of data does a “Recurrent Neural Network” (RNN) work well with?
o A. Static data
o B. Sequential data
o C. Labeled data only
o D. Unsupervised data
Answer: B
80. What is the purpose of “pooling” in CNNs?
o A. To increase the number of features
o B. To reduce spatial dimensions and retain essential features
o C. To normalize data
o D. To improve model interpretability
Answer: B

81. What is a major ethical concern with AI-based decision-making?

o A. AI models are too accurate
o B. AI decisions can be biased
o C. AI models are too fast
o D. AI reduces manual labor
Answer: B
82. What is “data minimization” in AI ethics?
o A. Using as little personal data as possible
o B. Reducing the number of features
o C. Decreasing the data size for efficiency
o D. Avoiding all personal data
Answer: A
83. Which of the following is a risk of AI in cybersecurity?
o A. Higher energy consumption
o B. Increased transparency
o C. Potential for AI-enabled cyberattacks
o D. Reduced bias in threat detection
Answer: C
84. What does “algorithmic bias” mean in the context of AI?
o A. The algorithm performs slowly
o B. The algorithm provides biased or unfair outcomes for certain groups
o C. The algorithm is overly complex
o D. The algorithm learns too quickly
Answer: B
85. Which of these is a measure to increase AI transparency?
o A. Making models simpler
o B. Using explainable models
o C. Only using labeled data
o D. Removing training data
Answer: B

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 86. What is “model interpretability”?
o A. The ability to explain how a model makes its decisions
o B. The simplicity of a model’s code
o C. The number of features used by a model
o D. The accuracy of a model
Answer: A
87. What is an ethical concern related to AI in surveillance?
o A. Improving software efficiency
o B. Violation of personal privacy rights
o C. Increasing computing power
o D. Reducing monitoring costs
Answer: B
88. What does “inclusivity” mean in AI?
o A. AI should involve stakeholders from diverse backgrounds
o B. AI should maximize profit
o C. AI should be highly efficient
o D. AI should have minimal data requirements
Answer: A
89. What is a “black-box model” in AI?
o A. A model whose decision-making process is not transparent
o B. A model that predicts only binary outcomes
o C. A model with no labeled data
o D. A model with very high accuracy
Answer: A
90. What does “fairness” in AI aim to address?
o A. Model interpretability
o B. Ensuring AI outcomes are unbiased and equitable
o C. Simplifying AI algorithms
o D. Improving training speed
Answer: B

91. Which of the following is an application of AI in healthcare?

o A. Automated medical diagnostics
o B. Network security
o C. Game development
o D. Social media analytics
Answer: A
92. How is AI used in self-driving cars?
o A. Predicting user preferences
o B. Image and sensor analysis for navigation
o C. Recommending products
o D. Language translation
Answer: B

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 Computer Hardware & Networking

1. Which component is known as the "brain" of the computer?

o A) RAM
o B) CPU
o C) Hard Drive
o D) Motherboard
Answer: B) CPU
2. What does RAM stand for?
o A) Random Access Memory
o B) Read Access Memory
o C) Rapid Access Memory
o D) Real Access Memory
Answer: A) Random Access Memory
3. Which type of memory is volatile?
o A) ROM
o B) RAM
o C) Flash Memory
o D) EEPROM
Answer: B) RAM
4. The speed of a CPU is typically measured in:
o A) Bytes
o B) Hertz
o C) Pixels
o D) Watts
Answer: B) Hertz
5. What does BIOS stand for?
o A) Basic Input Output System
o B) Basic Internal Output System
o C) Binary Input Output System
o D) Binary Integrated Output System
Answer: A) Basic Input Output System

6. Which of the following is a primary storage device?

o A) SSD
o B) USB
o C) RAM
o D) CD
Answer: C) RAM
7. SSD stands for:
o A) Solid State Drive
o B) Simple Storage Device
o C) Super Speed Device
o D) Solid Speed Drive
Answer: A) Solid State Drive
8. Which device uses magnetic storage technology?
o A) HDD
o B) SSD

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 o C) RAM
o D) USB
Answer: A) HDD
9. Which of the following is considered an optical storage device?
o A) Hard Disk
o B) USB Flash Drive
o C) DVD
o D) RAM
Answer: C) DVD
10. The typical RPM (rotations per minute) of a standard HDD is:
o A) 7200
o B) 1000
o C) 2400
o D) 3600
Answer: A) 7200

11. Which component provides the foundation for all computer components to
communicate?
o A) CPU
o B) Motherboard
o C) PSU
o D) Network Card
Answer: B) Motherboard
12. A CPU socket is found on:
o A) Motherboard
o B) Hard Disk
o C) Power Supply
o D) RAM
Answer: A) Motherboard
13. What type of component is connected to a PCIe slot?
o A) Graphics Card
o B) Hard Disk
o C) RAM
o D) BIOS
Answer: A) Graphics Card
14. What does CMOS stand for?
o A) Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
o B) Central Memory Operating System
o C) Current Mode of System
o D) Control Memory Operating System
Answer: A) Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
15. The Northbridge on a motherboard primarily handles communication with the:
o A) CPU and RAM
o B) Hard Drive and SSD
o C) USB Ports
o D) Network Card
Answer: A) CPU and RAM

16. What does LAN stand for?

o A) Local Area Network

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 o B) Large Area Network
o C) Long Area Network
o D) Local Access Network
Answer: A) Local Area Network
17. Which of the following is a protocol for sending email?
o A) HTTP
o B) FTP
o C) SMTP
o D) IMAP
Answer: C) SMTP
18. IP stands for:
o A) Internet Protocol
o B) Internal Process
o C) Internet Program
o D) Interactive Process
Answer: A) Internet Protocol
19. What is the maximum speed of a Cat 6 Ethernet cable?
o A) 1 Gbps
o B) 10 Gbps
o C) 100 Mbps
o D) 100 Gbps
Answer: B) 10 Gbps
20. In a network, the device that connects multiple devices and manages traffic is called:
o A) Hub
o B) Router
o C) Modem
o D) Switch
Answer: D) Switch

21. In which topology does each computer connect to every other computer?
o A) Star
o B) Mesh
o C) Bus
o D) Ring
Answer: B) Mesh
22. The topology where each node is connected to a single central device is:
o A) Ring
o B) Star
o C) Mesh
o D) Bus
Answer: B) Star
23. The Internet is an example of a:
o A) LAN
o B) WAN
o C) MAN
o D) PAN
Answer: B) WAN
24. A PAN typically connects devices within:
o A) A country
o B) A building

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 o C) A city
o D) A room
Answer: D) A room
25. Which network topology has all nodes connected in a loop?
o A) Ring
o B) Star
o C) Mesh
o D) Bus
Answer: A) Ring

26. The OSI model consists of how many layers?

o A) 5
o B) 6
o C) 7
o D) 8
Answer: C) 7
27. The first layer of the OSI model is:
o A) Transport
o B) Physical
o C) Data Link
o D) Network
Answer: B) Physical
28. In the OSI model, the transport layer is responsible for:
o A) Error correction
o B) Packet delivery
o C) Routing
o D) Flow control
Answer: D) Flow control
29. Which layer of the OSI model handles logical addressing?
o A) Network
o B) Data Link
o C) Transport
o D) Physical
Answer: A) Network
30. The TCP/IP model has how many layers?
o A) 4
o B) 5
o C) 6
o D) 7
Answer: A) 4

31. HTTP operates on which port by default?

o A) 20
o B) 25
o C) 80
o D) 443
Answer: C) 80
32. HTTPS operates on port:
o A) 22
o B) 25

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 o C) 443
o D) 110
Answer: C) 443
33. The protocol used for secure file transfer over SSH is:
o A) FTP
o B) TFTP
o C) FTPS
o D) SFTP
Answer: D) SFTP
34. Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses automatically?
o A) DNS
o B) HTTP
o C) DHCP
o D) SMTP
Answer: C) DHCP
35. The domain name system (DNS) operates on which port by default?
o A) 25
o B) 53
o C) 110
o D) 443
Answer: B) 53

36. Wi-Fi uses which IEEE standard?

o A) 802.11
o B) 802.3
o C) 802.5
o D) 802.15
Answer: A) 802.11
37. Which Wi-Fi standard supports a maximum speed of 54 Mbps?
o A) 802.11a
o B) 802.11g
o C) 802.11n
o D) 802.11ac
Answer: A) 802.11a
38. Bluetooth operates on which frequency band?
o A) 2.4 GHz
o B) 5 GHz
o C) 6 GHz
o D) 3.6 GHz
Answer: A) 2.4 GHz
39. The maximum theoretical speed of 802.11ac is:
o A) 300 Mbps
o B) 433 Mbps
o C) 1 Gbps
o D) 1.3 Gbps
Answer: D) 1.3 Gbps
40. What encryption protocol is the least secure for Wi-Fi?
o A) WPA2
o B) WPA
o C) WEP

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 o D) WPA3
Answer: C) WEP

41. IPv4 addresses consist of:

o A) 32 bits
o B) 64 bits
o C) 128 bits
o D) 16 bits
Answer: A) 32 bits
42. The number of host addresses in a /24 subnet is:
o A) 256
o B) 254
o C) 128
o D) 512
Answer: B) 254
43. The default subnet mask for Class C is:
o A) 255.0.0.0
o B) 255.255.0.0
o C) 255.255.255.0
o D) 255.255.255.255
Answer: C) 255.255.255.0

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