TLE (7) - Entrepreneurship

1) In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and opportunities are evolving. What is the ability
to create new things, invest in new enterprises and expand business?
a. Creativity
b. Entrepreneurship
c. Manufacturing
d. Producing
2) Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He observed that there is an opportunity for him to
put up his own business since he has enough capital and very much interested to the idea.
Which of these factors must he possess so that he will not rely on the services of the
employees?
a. Markets
b. Manpower
c. Supply of resources
d. Knowledge/Skills
3) Management functions and principles play a very critical role in running a business. What
principle of planning specifies that the objectives of an entrepreneur should match the
needs of the society?
a. must be realistic
b. must be based on felt needs
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis
d. must start with a simple project
4) Entrepreneurs use various management tools to succeed in a business. What
management tool is used to analyze business opportunities?
a. Environmental scanning
b. Market study
c. Market survey
d. SWOT
5) When an entrepreneur communicates with people through interviews, observations and
advertisement on what is new, what entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?
a. Statistical study
b. Marketing study
c. Entrepreneurial scanning
d. Environmental scanning
6) There are P's in preparing market research. Which P in marketing is designed to
communicate the product to customers?
a. Place
b. Price
c. People
d. Promotion
7) The site of the business enterprise is one of the requirements of entrepreneurship. Which
of the following is the most important in choosing the best location for the business?
a. access to supplies and raw materials
b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
c. less competitors in the area
d. enough capital to pay space rental
8) Which term refers to people, institutions or organizations for whom the business is
designed?
a. sample
b. population
c. market
d. society
9) Which one is not included in planning a business?
a. how and when to do it
b. how to increase profits
c. what to expect in the future
d. what to do
10) What is the benefit of business planning wherein the entrepreneur determines whether
the business is profitable or not?
a. minimize cost production
b. detect the weakness of the business
c. eliminate business risk
d. estimate sales
11) What is thinking ahead of objectives, strategies, financing, production, marketing, profit
proposal and growth facilities?
a. forecasting
b. managing
c. planning
d. projecting
12) Business enterprises should operate in a dynamic environment in order to survive. What
kind of environment includes technological, social and ethical/political factors?
a. Macro environment
b. Micro environment
c. Technological environment
d. Social environment
13) Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an already established business, what type of
retail ownership is it?
a. Corporate
b. Franchise
c. Independent
d. Single-store-ownership
14) Who among the following is the principal actor of the production?
a. Entrepreneur
b. Customer
c. Production manager
d. Worker
15) These are the perishable tangible used in the production process.
a. Financial resources
b. Human resources
c. Information resources
d. Material resources
16) Which method of establishing a business starts from scratch?
a. buy-out
b. franchising
c. loan
d. start-up
17) What brief description of the market describes the buyers and users of the product and
the area of dispersion?
a. market analysis
b. market dispersion
c. marketing
d. market study
18) It is a type of organization wherein a superior delegates authority to a subordinate.
a. committee type
b. functional type
c. line type
d. line and staff type
19) Which is one disadvantage of a functional type of organization?
a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is weak.
b. Each manager is supreme in his own field.
c. It is difficult to secure executives and superiors with an all around knowledge.
d. There is greater flexibility.
20) What type of product, as designed, produced and marketed by the seller?
a. Licensed brand
b. National brand
c. Private label brand
d. Trademark
21) Which of the following is the correct definition of the term "entrepreneur"? A person who
________.
a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources
b. starts a new business with the aim of making a profit
c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or customer by starting new ventures
which exploit new products, processes or markets.
d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic activity, by identifying
and exploiting new products, processes or markets
22) Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an entrepreneur?
a. Technical skills
b. Personal entrepreneurial skills
c. Working skills
d. Business management skills
23) Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?
a. Study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills.
b. Cope with failures of the business.
c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills.
d. Know what characteristics are needed to become an entrepreneur.
24) Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Mr. Fajardo's future business?
a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the Philippines.
b. Borrow money from friends and relatives.
c. Avail of the government program on financing micro-macro business.
d. Use part of her retirement benefit.
25) If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future entrepreneur is
INAPPROPRIATE?
a. Relaxed
b. Hard worker
c. Risk taker
d. Innovative
26) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a. Coping with failure
b. Irritated
c. Opportunity seeker
d. Persistent
27) Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur is UNDESIRABLE?
a. Opportunity seeker
b. Goal setter
c. Futuristic
d. Impassive
28) Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small business?
a. Poor financial control
b. Poor location
c. Management mistakes
d. Improper inventory control
29) Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his feet and puts him into action,
turning daydream into reality?
a. Perseverance
b. Ambition
c. Creativity
d. Enthusiasm
30) Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur a positive outlook in life which gives
the energy to pursue his endeavors?
a. Perseverance
b. Ambition
c. Creativity
d. Enthusiasm
31) Which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that come with a starting
business?
a. Perseverance
b. Ambition
c. Creativity
d. Enthusiasm
32) What is the general function of marketing, involves the physical meeting point for buyers
and sellers at the point of production or via some other means of communication?
a. Specific functions
b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions
d. Facilitating functions
33) Which type of marketing functions, enables the actual flow of commodities through
space and time from producer to consumer and their transformation to a form desirable
function to the consumers?
a. Specific functions
b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions
d. Facilitating functions
34) From a social viewpoint, which of the following statements about marketing objective is
NOT true?
a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources.
b. Create wealth and promote economic growth.
c. Improve income distribution among different sectors of the economy.
d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods.
35) Which is considered a vehicle for informing target market about the enterprise and the
products or services?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Place
d. Promotion
36) At what stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new
market of buyers and taking market share from competitors by price cutting or relaunching
the product?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
37) Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-scale business?
a. Keeping clear records
b. Verifying profit and loss
c. Managing cash flow
d. Distribution channel
38) Which marketing channel operates with capital owned directly by the operators and their
partners, or in some cases by shareholders?
a. Cooperatives
b. Independent, locally based private enterprise
c. Marketing boards and other state enterprises
d. Transnational companies
39) At which stage of a product life cycle must an entrepreneur decide whether he wants to
try to rejuvenate the product by investing in development and aggressive marketing or to
quietly admit defeat and exit the market?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
40) A marketing mix that can have both tangible and intangible aspects and is the thing you
offer to satisfy your customers' wants and needs is ________.
a. Product
b. Packaging
c. Price
d. Promotion
41) Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial projects or business
ventures?
a. Environmental analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis
d. PEST analysis
42) An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats of a business to make
better decisions regarding marketing plan is termed ________.
a. Environmental analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis
d. PEST analysis
43) The acronym SWOT stands for:
a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing
b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Testing
c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats
d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Threats
44) Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing planning process of an
enterprise?
a. Where are we now?
b. Where are we heading?
c. Are we on course?
d. Where would we like to be?
45) Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning process flow chart?
a. Control
b. Marketing planning mix
c. Setting marketing objectives
d. Setting the product price
46) An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because the target market
________.
a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply capabilities
b. is large and well-served with existing products
c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
d. has a proven track record for buying product
47) A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is extraordinary well
documented and clearly written to safeguard any wastage of further investment project is
called ________.
a. Portfolio
b. Business plan
c. Resume
d. Feasibility study
48) Which is considered as a comprehensive and effective blueprint to guide an
entrepreneur in a business venture?
a. Resume
b. Portfolio
c. Business plan
d. Insurance plan
ANSWERS:
1. B 39. D
2. D 40. A
3. B 41. B
4. D 42. D
5. B 43. D
6. D 44. A
7. A 45. A
8. C 46. A
9. B 47. D
10. C 48. C
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. B
TLE (6) - Basic Electronics
1) A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of:
a. Symbol
b. Construction
c. Physical appearance
d. Linear appearance
2) What is the best place for electronic hand tools and equipment?
a. Tool box
b. Tool cabinet
c. Tool room
d. Tool bag
3) Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 ohms, 27 ohms, and 33 ohms. If a 12
V battery is connected across this combination, what is the current drawn from the battery?
a. 1.4 A
b. 15 mA
c. 150 mA
d. 1.5 A
4) Which of the following is a non-polarized electronic component?
a. Transistor
b. Resistor
c. Diode
d. Electrolytic capacitor
5) The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called ________.
a. Peak-reverse voltage
b. Working voltage
c. Blow-up voltage
d. Breakdown voltage
6) A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to do one of the following
functions. Which one is it?
a. allow current to flow in both directions
b. multiply voltage
c. allow current to flow in one direction only
d. not allow any current flow
7) There are various types of diodes. This diode that acts as a regulator is the ________.
a. Silicon diode
b. Crystal diode
c. LED
d. Zener diode
8) You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Gate
d. Main Terminal
9) When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is ________.
a. Shorted
b. Open
c. Leaky
d. Good
10) If the transistor is an NPN type, the base is ________.
a. negative & positive
b. negative
c. positive
d. common
11) If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us that the transistor is:
a. NPN
b. PNP
c. Bipolar
d. Injunction
12) In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the:
a. Emitter
b. Base
c. Collector
d. Cathode
13) The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is ________.
a. Electromagnetism
b. Ferromagnetism
c. Magnetism
d. Diamagnetism
14) The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in
rectifier is known as ________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current
b. Damped Alternating Current
c. Varying Direct Current
d. Saw tooth wave
15) Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering _________.
a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz
b. 88 - 108 MHz
c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz
d. 535 - 1,605 kHz
16) An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component
responsible for this function is the:
a. Tuning capacitor
b. Oscillator coil
c. IF transformer
d. Detector diode
17) The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the ranges listed
below:
a. R x 1K
b. R x 10
c. R x 1
d. R x 10K
18) Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to:
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
b. Making the tip pointed
c. Cutting the tip
d. Applying flux to the tip
19) The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective?
a. Amplifier
b. Volume control
c. Antenna
d. Tuner
20) An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet.
What component is usually destroyed?
a. Switch
b. AC plug
c. Line fuse
d. Power transformer
21) The word electron was derived from the Greek word "elektron", which means:
a. to rub
b. to flow
c. amber
d. friction
22) The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC outlet is ________.
a. 620 V
b. 165.5 V
c. 331 V
d. 220 V
23) Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carriers is changed in
accordance with demodulating signal?
a. FM
b. PDM
c. AM
d. PCM
24) The actual flow of current is from ________.
a. negative to positive
b. positive to negative
c. positive to positive
d. negative to negative
25) The rate of doing work is called ________.
a. energy
b. power
c. voltage
d. resistance
26) MilliHenry is equal to ________.
a. 10th Henry
b. 100th Henry
c. 1,000th Henry
d. 1,000,000th Henry
27) An inductor opposes any change in ________.
a. voltage
b. current
c. frequency
d. modulation
28) A circuit having two or more current paths is a ________ connection.
a. parallel
b. series
c. series-parallel
d. cannot be determined
29) Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?
a. Ohms
b. Ampere
c. Watt
d. Volt
30) A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's Law is ________.
a. linear
b. non-linear
c. potentiometer
d. resistance
31) Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a
circuit?
a. Capacitor
b. Resistor
c. Diode
d. Inductor
32) An instrument that is used to measure the amount of resistance in a circuit is called
________.
a. DC voltmeter
b. ohmmeter
c. AC voltmeter
d. ammeter
33) Solder is a mixture of ________.
a. tin lead
b. zinc and lead
c. zinc and tin
d. copper and lead
34) The common used soldering lead is ________.
a. 40-60
b. 60-40
c. 50-50
d. 50-40
35) A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ________.
a. 45 Hz
b. 30 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 60 Hz
36) A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as ________.
a. tweeter
b. squeaker
c. woofer
d. howler
37) The three leads of a common transistor are a/an:
a. collector base emitter
b. emitter collector base
c. base collector case
d. collector base emitter
38) Connecting lead from the negative to the positive of a battery will produce a/an
________.
a. high resistance circuit
b. low current path
c. short circuit
d. open circuit
39) What is the approximate characteristic voltage that develops across a red LED?
a. 1.7 V
b. 0.6 V
c. 3.4 V
d. 6 V
40) If two resistors are placed in series, the final resistance is ________.
a. higher
b. lower
c. the same
d. cannot be determined
41) A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n produces ________.
a. 90n
b. 110n
c. 100n
d. cannot be determined
42) The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k produces ________.
a. 10K
b. 20K
c. 5K
d. cannot be determined
43) The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected in series. The output voltage is ________.
a. 3V
b. 6V
c. 0V
d. cannot be determined
44) An electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a circuit is
called a ________.
a. capacitor
b. resistor
c. diode
d. inductor
45) Which tool is needed in removing soldered components in the circuit board?
a. Long nose pliers
b. Desoldering pump
c. Diagonal cutting pliers
d. Wire stripper
46) Which tool is used in joining or soldering electronic components in the circuit board?
a. Soldering iron
b. Electrical pliers
c. Desoldering pump
d. Long nose plier
47) Which tool is used to hold or pick up components in the circuit board?
a. Mechanical pliers
b. Long nose pliers
c. Electrical pliers
d. Wire stripper
48) Which tool is used in turning slotted screws?
a. Flat screw driver
b. Phillips screw driver
c. Electrical pliers
d. Wire stripper
49) Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides maximum safety when pulling cartridge fuses
and checking electrical connections?
a. Fuse puller
b. Screw driver
c. Desoldering tool
d. Mini drill
50) If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v supply, the current will be ________.
a. 10 mA
b. 0.001 mA
c. 1 mA
d. 65 mA
51) A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal display) is ________.
a. high current demands
b. slow reactance to input
c. environmental temperature sensitivity
d. persistence limitations
52) Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load?
a. Tends to stop or not start
b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed
c. Has reverse direction
d. Becomes an AC generator
53) A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an "open fuse" supply voltage of
________.
a. 125 Volts
b. 500 Volts
c. 5,000 Volts
d. 250 Volts
54) To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ________.
a. silicon grease
b. insulator
c. heat sink
d. exhaust fan
55) To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are ________.
a. reverse
b. parallel
c. forward
d. series
56) Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an insulator?
a. a slow-blow type fuse
b. an inductive fuse
c. a capacitive fuse
d. intended for high voltage fuse
57) Which would be considered "basic components of a power supply"?
a. zener, regulator, transformer
b. regulator, diode, AC power, load
c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load
d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer
58) Which presents the rise and fall of alternating current and voltages?
a. Graph
b. Sine wave
c. Fluctuation
d. Cycle
59) When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the capacitance will ________.
a. increase
b. have the same value
c. decrease
d. increase and decrease
60) Which circuit has the most gain?
a. Common emitter
b. Common collector
c. Common base
d. Emitter follower
61) Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its rectification?
a. half-wave rectifier
b. full-wave rectifier
c. full-wave rectifier
d. split type rectifier
62) When a resistor is open, the resistance ________.
a. increases
b. gets zero
c. decreases
d. is infinite
63) A low voltage power supply converts ________.
a. AC voltage output
b. Pulsating DC voltage
c. DC output voltage
d. AC and DC voltage outputs
64) When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the resistance reads
________.
a. zero level
b. high resistance but within the tolerance
c. infinite
d. low but not zero
65) Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the other will ________.
a. decrease capacitance
b. increase capacitance
c. decrease voltage rating
d. increase mutual transductunce
66) In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky, you would use the ________
ohmmeter range.
a. lowest
b. highest
c. middle
d. upper
67) A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of
________.
a. a symbol
b. a construction
c. physical appearance
d. linear appearance
68) If there are only two resistors with the same values in parallel circuit, which formula may
be used to find its total resistance?
a. Rt = R/n
b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2)
c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn
d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2)
69) Which hand tool is used solely for cutting metals?
a. utility knife
b. saw
c. magnifying glass
d. paint brush
70) What is the reason why threads become stripped?
a. screws are over tightened
b. screws are heated
c. screws are molded
d. screws are painted
71) In what instrument is the ohmmeter found?
a. Ammeter
b. Tube tester
c. Capacitor tester
d. VOM
72) From what part of the ohmmeter do you derive resistance reading?
a. Range multiplier
b. Reading scale
c. Test probes
d. Pointer
73) Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in one?
a. Audio generator
b. Oscilloscope
c. Signal generator
d. VOM
74) Which device produces simple waveforms?
a. Audio amplifier
b. VOM
c. Signal tracer
d. Signal generator
75) What is the another name for connection diagram?
a. Wiring diagram
b. Block diagram
c. Pictorial diagram
d. Schematic diagram
76) Which equipment is used to discharge electrical charges produced by the human body?
a. Audio generator
b. Signal generator
c. ESD
d. VOM
77) Which term refers to the set of rules or practices to ensure no accident prevention?
a. Safety practices
b. Rules and regulation
c. Policy order
d. Action plan
78) What tools are NOT recommended to be used in electronics works?
a. brand new tools
b. branded tools
c. damaged tools
d. locally produced tools
79) Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkages between components or parts
on schematic diagram?
a. Connecting lines
b. Dashed lines
c. Medium lines
d. Thin lines
80) What does VOM mean?
a. AC Voltmeter
b. Ohmmeter
c. DC Milliammeter
d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter
81) Which tool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the wire?
a. utility knife
b. hacksaw
c. side cutter
d. wire stripper
82) What does LED stands for?
a. Light emitting display
b. Low energy display
c. Light emitting diode
d. Light emitting detector
83) Which picture or sketch shows the components of a circuit and how these components
are connected together?
a. Wiring diagram
b. Block diagram
c. Pictorial diagram
d. Schematic diagram
84) 3 pieces of resistors in which the values are 10 ohm, 20 ohms, and 50 ohms. If the 20
ohms is open, what will be the reading in the ohmmeter?
a. 60 ohms
b. 0
c. infinite
d. 80 ohms
85) Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-up signal despite the far distance from the
transmitter compared to the FM receiver?
a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the transistor.
b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to sight.
c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to ground.
d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to televise.
86) Why is it needed to place antenna in higher or an elevated area particularly in a
mountainous place?
I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line to ground; the higher
antenna the more signal can be received.
II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to capture the wind direction.
III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line of sight; the higher
antenna the more signal can be received.
a. I only
b. III only
c. II only
d. I, II, III
87) A Service Electronics Technician cleaned the terminal of the component using sand
paper or knife before it soldered to the PCB. What is the main purpose of that cleaning?
a. To attract more charges.
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made easily.
c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons.
d. To maximize the desired voltages.
88) If the Service Electronics Technician applied the so-called pre-tinning, how should be
the process be?
a. The Service Electronics Technician applies a little amount of soldering lead and soldering
flux to the tip during pre-heating of the soldering iron.
b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans the soldering tip using files, sand paper or a
cutter.
c. The Service Electronics Technician allows his soldering iron to heat atleast 40 minutes
before he uses it and solders with the terminal of the component.
d. The Service Electronics Technician checks the temperature of the tip before soldering is
made.
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. A
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. C
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. A
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. C
55. D
56. D
57. B
58. B
59. A
60. A
61. C
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. A
66. B
67. A
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. D
72. A
73. D
74. D
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. C
79. A
80. D
81. D
82. C
83. C
84. C
85. C
86. B
87. B
88. A

TLE (5) - Carpentry and Masonry

1) The preparation of good quality lumber includes several stages. When it is dried, the
process involved is?
a. seasoning
b. staining
c. lumbering
d. logging
2) The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the steel rule is ________.
a. decimeter
b. centimeter
c. millimeter
d. meter
3) What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimeters?
a. 25.4
b. 2.54
c. 0.254
d. 0.0254
4) Find the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2" x 4" x
12'.
a. 8 bd. ft.
b. 96 bd. ft.
c. 48 bd. ft.
d. 480 bd. ft.
5) A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which among the following is best to
use?
a. Sun dried
b. Kiln dried
c. Air dried
d. Natural dried
6) There are numerous kinds of saw. When sawing along the grain of wood, you need a
________.
a. back saw
b. cross cut saw
c. rip saw
d. circular saw
7) In measuring cylindrical object, what is the appropriate tool to be used?
a. ruler
b. caliper
c. pull-push rule
d. meter stick
8) Fastening materials are important in woodworks. The most common of these materials is
________.
a. dowel
b. bolts
c. screw
d. nails
9) A wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are laid one upon the other and
bonded with glue or synthetic resin is ________.
a. Pressed wood
b. Plywood
c. Particle board
d. Soft wood
10) Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness of the corners and
flatness of a surface?
a. Straightedge
b. Steel square
c. Sliding T-bevel
d. Try square
11) The strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs is ________.
a. miter
b. mortise and tenon
c. dado
d. butt and lap
12) You are almost finished with your project. One of the procedure below is done before
the application of finishing materials.
a. cutting
b. spraying
c. sanding
d. varnishing
13) A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is called:
a. S3S
b. S2S
c. Rough
d. S4S
14) In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is called:
a. Lapping
b. Scarfing
c. Fishing
d. Jointing
15) There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest and easiest to make is
________.
a. Lap joint
b. Dado joint
c. Miter joint
d. Butt joint
16) In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member upon which the floor
system is laid is the ________.
a. Floor joist
b. Sill
c. Header
d. Girder
17) A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads and stiffen the
structure of the roof is ________.
a. Girts
b. Rafter
c. Truss
d. Purlins
18) A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. What is the angle of the file set against the
bevel of the tooth of a cross cut saw?
a. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 60 degrees
19) What kind of wood finishing material is used when you want a solid color instead of a
wood pattern finish?
a. Opaque finishes
b. Bleaches
c. Stains
d. Lacquers
20) A saw angle should be adjusted depending on the kind of wood. What is the
recommended angle for soft and thin wood?
a. 30-45 degrees
b. 60 degrees
c. 80 degrees
d. 20 degrees
21) Which is considered to be the oldest and most commonly used building material?
a. Cement
b. Wood
c. Steel
d. Sand
22) A wood which is obtained from conifers and are used for framing?
a. Hard wood
b. Soft wood
c. Dark wood
d. Brown wood
23) Which wood is obtained from deciduous trees?
a. Hard wood
b. Soft wood
c. Dark wood
d. Brown wood
24) Which is a binding agent that reacts with water to form a hard stone-like substance?
a. Glue
b. Cement
c. Mortar
d. Grout
25) Which term refers to inert materials when bound together into a conglomerated mass
from concrete?
a. Aggregates
b. Gravel
c. Cement
d. Water
26) A lumber that has been sawed, edged, and trimmed in which cutting marks are visible is
________.
a. rough
b. smooth
c. dressed
d. worked
27) Which lumber has been put through planing machine which gives fine surface?
a. rough
b. smooth
c. dressed
d. worked
28) Which lumber that has been dresses and matched, ship lapped, or patterned?
a. rough
b. smooth
c. dressed
d. worked
29) Which is a plank of wood that has been roughly cut?
a. Timber
b. Board
c. Lumber
d. Block
30) Which lumber has been cut from logs radially to the growth rings and the fiber runs
about parallel to the face?
a. Edge-grain
b. Angle-grain
c. Flat-grain
d. Close-grain
31) Which lumber has been cut tangentially to the growth rings and the fiber runs about 90
degrees to the face?
a. Edge-grain
b. Angle-grain
c. Flat-grain
d. Close-grain
32) Which is the art of building with stone, bricks, concrete blocks of other similar materials?
a. Carpentry
b. Concrete
c. Mortar
d. Masonry
33) If you want to go upstairs, which part do you hold on to?
a. Handrail
b. Tread
c. Handle
d. Riser
34) If you want to upstairs, which part do you step on?
a. Handrail
b. Tread
c. Handle
d. Riser
35) What makes the door swing when you close and open it?
a. Door knob
b. Door lock
c. Door shutter
d. Door hinge
36) A carpenter wants to construct a stair, what could be the standard height of the riser?
a. 5-6 inches
b. 6-8 inches
c. 8-10 inches
d. 10-12 inches
37) In masonry works, it is necessary to wear protective equipment, EXCEPT:
a. mask
b. goggles
c. gloves
d. ear muffs
38) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from falling objects?
a. Hat
b. Belt and harness
c. Helmet
d. Shed
39) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from falling?
a. Hat
b. Belt and harness
c. Helmet
d. Shed
40) These are compress baked clay that are processed into workable materials?
a. Stone
b. Sand
c. Bricks
d. CHB
41) Which lumber has wood fibers that are packed closely together?
a. Edge-grain
b. Angle-grain
c. Flat-grain
d. Close-grain
42) Which lumber has wood fiber that do not run parallel to the board?
a. Edge-grain
b. Cross-grain
c. Flat-grain
d. Close-grain
43) A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which type of joint is appropriate?
a. Dado joint
b. Tenon joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
44) A carpenter fixes shelves of a bookcase. Which type of joint is appropriate?
a. Dado joint
b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
45) In which wood joint is the end of one member inserted to hole of the other member?
a. Dado joint
b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
46) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by putting one side over
the other?
a. Dado joint
b. Butt joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
47) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by putting one end over
the other?
a. Dado joint
b. Butt joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
48) A carpenter wants to make a dining table. Which joint is appropriate to become rigid and
durable?
a. Miter joint
b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Dado joint
d. Butt joint
49) Which is the simplest type of wood joint?
a. Dado joint
b. Butt joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
50) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by cutting of 45 degrees
angle?
a. Rabbet joint
b. Butt joint
c. Lap joint
d. Miter joint
51) Which wood joint protects the room occupants from seeing outside?
a. Rabbet joint
b. Butt joint
c. Bridle joint
d. Miter joint
52) Which wood joint is used to support the middle of a bench?
a. Dado joint
b. Butt joint
c. Bridle joint
d. Miter joint
53) Which unit is the basic linear unit of an English system?
a. foot
b. meter
c. yard
d. inch
54) Which unit is the basic linear unit of a Metric system?
a. foot
b. meter
c. yard
d. inch
55) If you have 2 ft length of a piece of wood, how long is it in inches?
a. 25
b. 12
c. 22
d. 24
56) If you have 2 yards length of a piece of wood, how long is it in inches?
a. 82
b. 72
c. 84
d. 64
57) 10 yards length of wood is how many feet?
a. 36
b. 35
c. 30
d. 24
58) One decameter of G.I. sheets is how many centimeters?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 100
d. 1,000
59) A 2" x 3" x 12' lumber is how many board feet?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
60) 5 pcs. of a 1" x 1' x 8' lumber is how many board feet?
a. 30
b. 35
c. 40
d. 45
61) 50 millimeters length of a piece of lumber is how many decimeter?
a. 5
b. 0.05
c. 0.005
d. 0.5
62) How tall is a 10 meter building in inches?
a. 3.937
b. 39.37
c. 393.7
d. 3,937
63) A carpenter wants to measure long distances. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Ruler
b. Extension rule
c. Meter stick
d. Pull-push rule
64) A carpenter wants to mark very rough objects. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Chalk line
b. Extension rule
c. Level
d. Border line
65) A carpenter wants to obtain vertical line. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Ruler
b. Level
c. Plum bob
d. Pull-push rule
66) A carpenter wants to cut lumber across the grain. Which tool is appropriate?
a. crosscut saw
b. rip cut saw
c. back saw
d. hacksaw
67) A carpenter wants to fasten and remove nails. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hammer
b. Ballpen hammer
c. Claw hammer
d. Sledge hammer
68) A carpenter wants to smoothen wood surfaces. Which tool is appropriate?
a. File
b. Sand paper
c. Back saw
d. Plane
69) A mason wants to create a smooth finish of concrete after floating. Which tool is
appropriate?
a. Brick hammer
b. Concrete trowel
c. Plane
d. Float
70) A mason wants to set or cut brick, block, or stone. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Claw hammer
b. Crandall
c. Mason's hammer
d. Star drill
71) A mason wants to repair mortar joints. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pointing trowel
b. Crandall
c. Cold chisel
d. Brick trowel
72) A mason wants to mix and move mortar in brick laying. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pointing trowel
b. Crandall
c. Cold chisel
d. Brick trowel
73) A mason wants to mix concrete. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Shovel
b. Buttering
c. Trowel
d. Float
74) A mason lays bricks. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Shovel
b. Hawk
c. Trowel
d. Float
75) Which is flat with handle at the back usually made of wood?
a. Shovel
b. Buttering
c. Trowel
d. Float
76) Which tool is used in shaping and forming concrete edges?
a. Shovel
b. Buttering
c. Edger
d. Float
77) A mason wants to mix concrete for column and slab. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
d. 1 : 3 : 6
78) A mason wants to mix class B mixture. Which mixture is correct?
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
d. 1 : 3 : 6
79) A mason wants to mix concrete for a slab in the ground. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
d. 1 : 3 : 6
80) A mason wants to mix concrete for hollow block filler. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
d. 1 : 3 : 6
81) Which refers to the ease with which the fresh concrete can be molded without
segregation?
a. Plasticity
b. Consistency
c. Mobility
d. Grout
82) Which refers to the degree of wetness or slump of the concrete mixture?
a. Plasticity
b. Consistency
c. Mobility
d. Grout
83) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement, sand, gravel, and water?
a. Concrete
b. Grout
c. Mortar
d. Bricks
84) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement, sand, and water?
a. Concrete
b. Grout
c. Mortar
d. Bricks
85) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement and water?
a. Concrete
b. Grout
c. Mortar
d. Bricks
86) Which term refers to the process of finishing using mortar?
a. Finishing
b. Fine finishing
c. Concreting
d. Plastering
87) A mason wants to lay ceramic tiles. Where does he start?
a. Front
b. Left
c. Right
d. Center
88) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks. Where does he start?
a. Front
b. Left
c. Right
d. Center
89) A mason wants to mix mortar for plastering. What does he mix?
a. cement and water
b. cement and sand
c. sand and water
d. water and cement
90) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks into a 10 sq.m. wall. How many CHB are
needed?
a. 100 pcs.
b. 120 pcs.
c. 122.5 pcs.
d. 125 pcs.
91) A mason wants to lay 16" by 16" ceramic tiles in a 10 sq.m. room. How many tiles are
needed?
a. 60 pcs.
b. 61.5 pcs.
c. 62.5 pcs.
d. 63 pcs.
92) How many CHBs are installed for a wall having a dimension of 2.5 m width and 4.0 m
height?
a. 125 pcs.
b. 122.5 pcs.
c. 300 pcs.
d. 400 pcs.
93) How many 8" x 8" wall tiles are needed in a wall 2.5 m width and 4.0 m height?
a. 300 pcs.
b. 500 pcs.
c. 550 pcs.
d. 600 pcs.
94) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 3" x 8' lumber. If the price of lumber is ₱50.00 per
board foot, how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800
b. ₱1,900
c. ₱2,000
d. ₱2,100
95) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 4" x 6' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per
board foot, how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800
b. ₱1,900
c. ₱2,000
d. ₱2,100
96) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 6" x 4' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per
board foot, how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800
b. ₱1,900
c. ₱2,000
d. ₱2,100
97) Which tile is appropriate in the toilet and bathroom flooring?
a. Glaze tiles
b. Ceramic tiles
c. Non-skid granite tiles
d. Clay tiles
98) Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement is called
________.
a. Header
b. Stretcher
c. Bond
d. Mortar
99) The most widely used masonry materials for construction works are?
a. Ashlar
b. Bricks
c. Rubble stones
d. Concrete hollow blocks
100) It is a masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials?
a. Stones
b. Stucco
c. Bricks
d. Concrete pavers
101) What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks?
a. Plumb bob
b. Water hose level
c. Spirit level
d. String or chord
102) Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete?
a. Crandal
b. Bolster
c. Float
d. Spade
103) Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning concrete
mixture?
a. Economy
b. Workability
c. Strength
d. Flexibility
104) Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without segregation.
This characteristic is known as ________.
a. Consistency
b. Plasticity
c. Mobility
d. Workability
105) The following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete, EXCEPT:
a. Correct proportion of ingredients.
b. Proper method of mixing.
c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing.
d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation.
106) What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand, and 4
cu. ft. of gravel or 1:2:4?
a. Class AA
b. Class A
c. Class B
d. Class C
107) How many cubic yard of concrete do you need to cover a space with an area of 25
square foot and a slab thickness of four (4) inches?
a. 0.34 cu. yd.
b. 0.32 cu. yd.
c. 0.25 cu. yd.
d. 0.51 cu. yd.
108) What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level of a concrete fence?
a. Water hose level
b. Spirit level
c. Plumb bob
d. Straight edge
109) According to the building code of the Philippines, for how many days shall concrete be
maintained above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days
110) Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates in a concrete mixture?
a. Sand
b. Soil
c. Gravel
d. Stones
111) What do you call the process of hardening of concrete?
a. Curing
b. Setting
c. Hardening
d. Molding
112) What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in small and large construction
including roads and highways?
a. Hydraulic cement
b. Portland cement
c. Pozzolan cement
d. Lime
113) How many pieces of 4" x 8" x 16" concrete hollow blocks (CHB) can be laid per bag of
cement as mortar?
a. 55 to 60 pcs.
b. 25 to 30 pcs.
c. 30 to 36 pcs.
d. 40 to 40 pcs.
114) What ingredient in concrete is added to the batch immediately before or during its
mixing to improve its durability and accelerate strength development?
a. Fine aggregates
b. Coarse aggregates
c. Admixture
d. Water
115) Which of the following refers to the structural reinforcing member that holds or binds
together the main reinforcement of a column?
a. Lateral tie
b. Stirrups
c. Spiral tie
d. Rebars
116) The structure that holds the poured concrete until it hardens to form the concrete beam
or post.
a. Scaffolding
b. Batter board
c. Forms
d. Stake
117) To convert from feet to get number of meters, multiply feet by?
a. 0.3048
b. 25.4
c. 30.48
d. 2.54
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. C (rip saw) - A back saw is used for making cuts for wood joints; cross cut saw is used to
cut wood across its grain; while circular saw is a mechanized saw.
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. D (S4S) - S2S means two sides of the lumber are planed or smooth. No such term as
S3S; and Rough means that the piece of lumber is not planed.
14. C
15. A
16. C
17. C
18. D - 60 degrees for cross cut saw; and 90 degrees for a rip saw
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. C
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. D
51. A
52. C
53. D
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. C
58. D
59. B
60. C
61. A
62. C
63. D
64. A
65. C
66. A
67. C
68. D - A carpenter's plane is a hand tool with an adjustable blade for smoothing or shaping
wood.
69. B
70. C
71. A
72. D
73. A
74. B
75. D
76. C
77. B
78. C
79. A
80. D
81. A
82. B
83. A
84. C
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. B
89. B
90. D
91. C
92. A
93. B
94. C
95. C
96. C
97. C
98. B
99. D
100. C
101. A
102. C
103. D
104. B
105. D
106. B
107. A
108. B
109. C
110. C
111. A
112. B
113. A
114. C
115. B
116. C
117. A

TLE (4) - Foods

1) Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown bits left on the bottom
of the pan. While the pan was still on the stove, he added some white wine and scarped the
bottom of the pan. What do you call the techniques just used?
a. Cleaning
b. Deglazing
c. Caramelizing
d. Flambé
2) Energy value is express in terms of calories which represents the chemical energy that
released as heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has more than twice the calorie per
gram?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Minerals
3) Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs. Which of the following
nutrients is needed as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Fiber
4) Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What kind of sugar is used
primarily in the preparation of flat icings with butter cream?
a. brown sugar
b. refined sugar
c. granulated sugar
d. confectioner sugar
5) Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind of protein is found in connective tissue
of meat that converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
a. Elastic
b. Gluten
c. Marbling
d. Collagen
6) Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant?
a. Vitamin E
b. Calcium
c. Fiber
d. Vitamin B12
7) Which cooking method destroys nutrients?
a. Boiling
b. Roasting
c. Slow cooking
d. All of the above
8) Which food is the "best source of thiamine?"
a. Pork
b. Milk
c. Carrots
d. Potatoes
9) What happens to carbohydrates that are not used right away as energy?
a. They are stored in the body as fat.
b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they are burned as fat.
d. They are all used immediately as energy.
10) All of these are good sources of Vitamin C. Which one has the most vitamin C?
a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers
c. 1 cup of orange sections
d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes
11) Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our bloodstream. Saturated fats can be
found in?
a. Olives
b. Beans
c. Movie theater popcorn
d. Fish
12) Water boils at 212 degrees. What does "rolling boil" means? The bubbles are:
a. rolling non-stop
b. forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred
c. forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred
d. spilling out of a container
13) Which of the following ingredients will use creaming method?
a. butter, flour and egg
b. flour, butter and egg
c. butter, egg and sugar
d. flour butter and sugar
14) Onions when peeled or cut irritate the eyes and give biting sensations on the tongue.
This is due to the presence of:
a. sulfoxide
b. sulfur compounds
c. sodium nitrate
d. mustard oil
15) The practice of adding baking soda when cooking vegetables for the purpose of
retaining the green color and the crispness should be avoided primarily because:
a. the flavor of the vegetable is modified
b. vitamin C is destroyed in the presence of alkali
c. they become less palatable
d. they become hard to digest
16) To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its nutritive value, the best cooking
temperature is?
a. moist heat
b. low to moderate heat
c. high heat
d. dry heat
17) What does "proofing" mean?
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size.
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide.
c. Testing cakes for doneness.
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a shiny glazed finish.
18) Why should eggs be beaten with the use of copper bowl? Copper bowl ________.
a. is special metal that makes egg fresher
b. makes egg fluffy and moist
c. keeps eggs fresh and firm
d. has special property which stabilizes the eggs
19) What do you call that pourable mixture of flour, liquid and other ingredients?
a. Dough
b. Batter
c. Cream
d. Syrup
20) Which flour typically forms the most gluten?
a. cake flour
b. all purpose flour
c. bread flour
d. pastry flour
21) Diana is cooking eggs for breakfast. She breaks the eggs one at a time into a dish and
slide them into a hot water for about 3 to 5 minutes or unitl the whites are coagulated and
yolks are still soft. What procedure in cooking eggs does she apply?
a. Boiling
b. Poaching
c. Simmering
d. Blanching
22) Every chef knows that "mise enplace" is the first step to a successful food preparation.
This French term which means putting everything in place applies to ________.
a. throwing the garbage
b. sautéing the spices
c. creaming the butter
d. pre-heating the oven
23) Mixed vegetables are best when cooked very briefly by dipping the food into a boiling
water until they are crisp-tender and then into cold water. This practice is called ________.
a. Blanching
b. Baking
c. Sautéing
d. Steaming
24) Pasta is cooked in boiling water with salt and oil for about 12 to 15 minutes or until "al
dente." Al dente is an Italian term which means ________.
a. firm yet tender to the bite
b. soft and soggy
c. pleasant flavor
d. crisp texture
25) A student is preparing chicken macaroni salad as an appetizer dish. What will the
student do for the cooked chicken?
a. chop
b. mince
c. flake
d. grate
26) Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of colorful food such as celery,
parsley and tomatoes are added to a dish to improve its appearance. Which of the term
applied to the statement?
a. glace
b. garnish
c. frosting
d. decoration
27) What vegetable cut is appropriate for potato in preparing menudo?
a. slice
b. mince
c. julienne
d. cubes
28) Which is a thickening agent made by the combination of 1 part melted butter and 1 part
flour, cooked together?
a. Roux
b. Roe
c. Raw
d. Row
29) The food is prepared by skewing the meat, seasoned and brushed with oil, placed on
greased grid and cooked over live coals. Which is referred to?
a. Broil
b. Bake
c. Barbeque
d. Pan fry
30) Which term applies when eggs and cream are beaten rapidly until thick and stiff with a
whisk to incorporate air and increase volume?
a. Creaming
b. Whipping
c. Blending
d. Stirring
31) To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil, vinegar and wine to add flavor and make it
tender is to ________ it.
a. marinade
b. season
c. dip
d. marinate
32) Working the dough by stretching and folding in a floured surface to obtain the required
consistency is ________.
a. Beating
b. Kneading
c. Punching
d. Folding
33) Which of the following term may apply in cutting vegetables into thin match sticks size
which are used to garnished dishes?
a. Mirepoix
b. Macedoine
c. Brunoise
d. Julienne
34) A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g fat, 22g carbohydrates and 3g protein.
How many kcal are in a serving size of chiffon cake?
a. 117 kcal
b. 127 kcal
c. 137 kcal
d. 147 kcal
35) Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in fat. The following are examples of fat
soluble vitamins, EXCEPT:
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C
36) The food pyramid illustrates the balance of foods needed for a healthy lifestyle. Fat,
sugar, salt and alcohol are group under what classification?
a. Eat Least Food
b. Eat Moderately Foods
c. Eat All Foods
d. Eat Most Foods
37) The following are physiological functions of food, EXCEPT:
a. give energy
b. build and repair cells
c. provide satisfaction
d. regulate body process
38) CHON is the chemical formula for ________.
a. carbohydrates
b. protein
c. fat
d. minerals
39) What vitamin deficiency is present when a person suffers from poor night vision or
blindness?
a. Retinol
b. Thiamine
c. Niacin
d. Folic acid
40) What disease would result to a person who has an iron deficiency?
a. Cough and cold
b. Nose bleed
c. Anemia
d. Xeropthalmia
41) Which of the following fruit and vegetables have higher water percentage composition?
a. Apple
b. Strawberry
c. Carrots
d. Tomatoes
42) Which is NOT a function of fat?
a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food
b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
c. Protect the heart and kidneys
d. Repair body tissues
43) The following vegetables are good sources of carotene, EXCEPT:
a. Mangoes
b. Carrots
c. Legumes
d. Tomatoes
44) Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide Pyramid?
a. water, milk, yogurt
b. food additives
c. chicken, pork, egg
d. rice, corn, pasta
45) Which statement regarding vitamins is most accurate?
a. Inorganic substances needed in the body
b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen
c. Regulate physiological processes
d. Control composition of body fluids
46) Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit with 16g total carbohydrates.
a. 54 kcal
b. 64 kcal
c. 74 kcal
d. 84 kcal
47) Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
48) Which is not a function of water?
a. Regulate body processes
b. Carrier of waste products
c. Provides energy
d. Regulates body temperature
49) What do you call the sugar in milk or milk carbohydrate?
a. Fructose
b. Lactose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose
50) The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented if milk is ________.
a. heated to a boiling point
b. pasteurized before packing
c. kept cold and protected from light
d. fermented and sealed
51) Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a restaurant. She ordered food from appetizer to
dessert at P300.00 per cover, good for 60 pax and she paid a total amount of P18,000.
What type of menu did she avail of?
a. Table d'hote
b. Cycle menu
c. Ala carte
d. Static menu
52) A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken Galantina for her food and nutrition class. What
cooking method is applied for this chicken dish?
a. Broiling
b. Roasting
c. Frying
d. Steaming
53) Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used to complement a meal. What leading
sauce is used in making Carbonara?
a. Veloute sauce
b. Brown sauce
c. Bechamel sauce
d. Tomato sauce
54) Vegetables have different degrees of doneness. It is done when it has reached the
desired degree of tenderness. The following are the guidelines to achieve proper doneness
in vegetables, EXCEPT:
a. cook vegetables close to serving time
b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces
c. separate tough part from tender part
d. cook different kinds of vegetables together
55) Eggs serve many important functions in cookery. What is the function of eggs when it is
used to bind food together?
a. as a leavening agent
b. as a thickening agent
c. as a clarifying agent
d. as an emulsifying agent
56) In an American service, all drinks should be served ________ of the guest.
a. at the right side
b. at the left side
c. across
d. in front
57) Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for father's birthday party. Which variety of
meat could you suggest for these recipes?
a. Tongue
b. Tripe
c. Heart
d. Liver
58) The teacher demonstrated to the students the proper way of slitting the abdominal part
of the poultry and pulling out the entrails. This step in dressing chicken is referred to as
________.
a. slaughtering
b. defeathering
c. evisceration
d. scalding
59) The students are preparing food for their culminating activity. They are expected to
invite 100 guests. What type of service is more convenient for 100 guests with limited space
and food servers?
a. Counter service
b. Russian service
c. Buffet service
d. French service
60) Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering function. Which part of pork cuts would she
buy?
a. Leg
b. Loin
c. Picnic
d. Variety
61) What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise preparation?
a. Emulsifying agent
b. Thickening agent
c. Browning agent
d. Leavening agent
62) Why do we buy food from approved sources?
a. cheaper price
b. guarantee safe and wholesome food
c. good customer service
d. accessibility and comfort
63) Which of the following reasons for cooking meat is FALSE?
a. improve flavor and appearance
b. tenderize meat
c. unavailability of nutrients
d. destroy harmful microorganisms
64) Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat method of cooking?
a. Scalding
b. Stewing
c. Baking
d. Steaming
65) One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g orange flavor. How many liters of water
should be added if the proportion is 1g powder, 20 mL water?
a. 3.5 L
b. 2.3 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 1.2 L
66) How many ounces is 1 cup of soda?
a. 6 ounces
b. 8 ounces
c. 12 ounces
d. 16 ounces
67) Which of the statement about the general direction for Low-Cholesterol diets is FALSE?
a. use of corn oil
b. avoid coconut milk
c. use of margarine
d. trim all visible fats from meat
68) What is the menu pattern for breakfast?
a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage
b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert
c. cereal, protein dish, beverage
d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert
69) Which is considered as the most important meal of the day?
a. Supper
b. Lunch
c. Breakfast
d. Brunch
70) The main course or courses of dinner consisting usually of meat, fish or pulses with or
without accompaniments is called ________.
a. entrée
b. espagnole
c. emincer
d. entremets
71) The main goal in meal planning, food preparation and service is _________.
a. present low cost foods
b. serve appetizing meals
c. satisfaction of family members
d. keep meals nutritionally adequate
72) Which food group is a good source of fiber?
a. milk, yogurt, cheese
b. meat, poultry, eggs
c. bread, rice, pasta
d. banana, apples, oranges
73) Which of the following is NOT a principle in planning meals?
a. Plan meals ahead of time.
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety.
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients.
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more time to prepare.
74) Which of the following has the biggest expense in the food budget?
a. Meat
b. Fruits
c. Cereals
d. Dairy
75) Which is a low cost but nutritious dish?
a. Grilled fish
b. Beef with broccoli
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis
d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce
76) One of the functions required before assembling the food materials to produce quality
meals is ________.
a. market list
b. menu planning
c. mis en place card
d. standardized recipe
77) When guests enter into a restaurant the first thing that a receptionist should offer is
________.
a. water
b. appetizer
c. bread and butter
d. menu card
78) Which of the following is the CORRECT menu sequence?
a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages, desserts
b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages, desserts
c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages, desserts
d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers, beverages
79) Which of the following statement about service rule is FALSE?
a. Serve women before men
b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with service person's left hand
c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
80) Which of the following is an example of a low cost dish?
a. Pork adobo
b. Chicken kare-kare
c. Baked mussels
d. Seafood sinigang
81) When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a steamer is not available, what will you do?
a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a tightly covered frying pan containing
water.
b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with coconut milk.
c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue stick and apply heat.
d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and cook.
82) Baking chiffon cake requires a baking temperature of 350 degrees Fahrenheit. What is
its equivalent in Centigrade if your oven thermostat was set in degree Celsius?
a. 176 degree Celsius
b. 186 degree Celsius
c. 196 degree Celsius
d. 206 degree Celsius
83) Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly firm, porous structure. What gives structure
to the cheese bread?
a. Albumen
b. Gluten
c. Whey
d. Casein
84) What will you do to the shortening if you want to make quick breads using the biscuit
method?
a. Melt the shortening
b. Cream the shortening
c. Fold in the shortening
d. Cut in the shortening
85) The students are cutting apples for their apple pie filling. They noticed that browning
occurs at the cut surfaces of apples. What process may have caused the browning color of
an apple?
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and sugar
b. Oxidative enzymatic changes
c. Carmelization of sugar
d. Over handling
86) Which is NOT a function of salt in food?
a. flavor enhancer
b. preservative
c. increase volume
d. control agent
87) Which statement about conventional method of mixing is FALSE?
a. time consuming
b. produce velvety texture
c. one-bowl method
d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients
88) Which ingredient controls and regulates the fermentation in bread making?
a. Yeast
b. Salt
c. Baking powder
d. Sugar
89) A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel blade primary used for mixing colors in
cake designing is ________ knife.
a. cake
b. serrated
c. chef
d. palette
90) Which is usually done with a fork to make small holes in bottoms and side of crust for
single crust pies?
a. Docking
b. Punching
c. Cutting
d. Fluting
91) Which is known as strong flour because it contains 12-14% protein?
a. All purpose flour
b. Cake flour
c. Pastry flour
d. Bread flour
92) Which phrase describes a good characteristic of pastry?
a. wet and brown
b. tender and flaky
c. dry and hard
d. sweet and mushy
93) The following are some safety risks in baking, EXCEPT:
a. hot oven
b. moving parts
c. sufficient light
d. cutting equipment
94) Which icing is made from shortening, sugar syrup and eggs?
a. boiled icing
b. royal icing
c. buttercream icing
d. fondant icing
95) When the pastry shell is baked before it can be filled, this is called ________.
a. molding
b. blind baking
c. proofing
d. resting
96) Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Muffin
b. Popover
c. Waffle
d. Pie
97) Which living organism feeds in sugar to produce alcohol and carbon dioxide?
a. Yeast
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Mold
98) What disease-causing microorganism is commonly found in eggs?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Shigella
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. D
32. B
33. D
34. B
35. D
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. C
46. B
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. B
63. C
64. C
65. D
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. C
70. A
71. D
72. C
73. D
74. A
75. C
76. B
77. D
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. A
82. A
83. B
84. D
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. D
90. A
91. D
92. B
93. C
94. C
95. B
96. D
97. A
98. B
TLE (3) - Basic Electricity
1) A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction:
a. voltage
b. power
c. alternating current
d. direct current
2) The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as
________.
a. power
b. resistance
c. electromagnetism
d. frequency
3) A part of an electric circuit which converts electrical energy into another form of energy to
do work is ________.
a. load
b. circuit
c. source
d. control
4) A part of an electrical circuit, consists of batteries, generator or a main electrical power
which supplies electricity is called ________.
a. control
b. load
c. source
d. voltage
5) A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional
to resistance is known as ________.
a. PEC
b. Law of Resistivity
c. Kirchoff's Law
d. Ohm's Law
6) In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the formula to be used is:
a. E = I x R
b. E = I / R
c. I = E / R
d. R = E / I
7) What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power
source?
a. 5.5 amperes
b. 0.18 amperes
c. 25.5 amperes
d. 50.5 amperes
8) There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the foremost
consideration is ________.
a. cost
b. labor
c. safety
d function
9) The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet layout should be?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 18
d. 10
10) To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code, the appropriate fuse
rating for lighting outlet should be ________.
a. 15 amperes
b. 30 amperes
c. 60 amperes
d. 20 amperes
11) Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to:
a. Provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building.
b. Maintain quality workmanship.
c. Avoid overloaded circuit.
d. Protect the circuit from high current.
12) Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the ampacity
rating of the breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose circuits?
a. 20 amperes
b. 30 amperes
c. 15 amperes
d. 60 amperes
13) An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different locations is
called:
a. four-way switch
b. three-way switch
c. push-button switch
d. remote controlled switch
14) To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting fixtures?
a. Incandescent lamp
b. Mercury lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Neon lamp
15) The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures is:
a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 10 AWG
c. No. 18 AWG
d. No. 14 AWG
16) What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a resistance of 20
ohms when the current flowing is 8 amperes?
a. 240 volts
b. 480 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 160 volts
17) In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel.
How many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open?
a. One
b. Two
c. All
d. None
18) In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is connected to
________.
a. Terminal 1 of the load
b. Terminal 2 of the load
c. Terminal 1 of the switch
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
19) Which of the following electrical symbols in wiring diagram means that there are three
wires running in a line?
a. ----/-/-/----
b. -----/-/-/-/----
c. ------------
d. S3W
20) A series connected dry cells will result to ________.
a. increase in the amount of current
b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. increase total resistance
d. more powerful supply of electricty
21) What type of switch is used to control alternately three-phase line system using two
sources of power?
a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch
b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch
c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch
d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch
22) Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
a. Copper
b. Aluminum
c. Silver
d. Gold
23) What type of switch is used when you want to control one lamp or group of lamps in two
different locations?
a. Two, 3-way switch
b. One, 4-way switch
c. Two, single switch
d. Duplex switch
24) Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ________ capacity of the cells.
a. current
b. voltage
c. resistance
d. inductance
25) The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of circuit connections namely
series, parallel, series-parallel and parallel-series. Which type of connection will give the
least amount of equivalent resistance?
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series-parallel
d. Parallel-series
26) Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, knowbs, tubes and flexible tubing
for the protection and support of single insulated conductor run in or on building and not
concealed by the building structure?
a. Open wiring on insulators
b. Armored cable wiring
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
d. Metal clad cable wiring
27) What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V incadescent lamps are connected in series
across a 230 V source?
a. Both lamps will consume more power.
b. Both lamps will get burnt.
c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights.
d. Each lamp will give more output lights.
28) What is the reason why electrical appliances are connected in parallel rather than in
series?
a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power.
b. Parallel connection is simpler than series connection.
c. Each appliances consumes more power if connected in series.
d. It makes the operation of each appliance independent of each other.
29) When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is important?
a. same size and type
b. same type but different rating
c. same size but different rating
d. different size and type
30) Which of the following is a source of alternating current?
a. Dynamo
b. Battery
c. Dry cell
d. Alternator
31) When there is a break in the circuit and the current could not pass through, the circuit is
________.
a. closed
b. shorted
c. grounded
d. open
32) Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric current when light falls
upon them?
a. Solar cell
b. Dry cell
c. Solar lamp
d. Solar light
33) Which is synchronous alternating-current machine that changes mechanical power into
electrical power?
a. Dynamo
b. Motor
c. Alternator
d. Lathe machine
34) Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Energizer
b. Eveready
c. Primary battery
d. Secondary battery
35) Which generator generates direct current?
a. Alternator
b. Dynamo
c. Battery
d. Adaptor
36) Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Primary battery
b. Energizer
c. Eveready
d. Secondary battery
37) Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical energy?
a. Battery
b. Circuit
c. Dry cell
d. Generator
38) A process in splitting the atom of uranum is called ________.
a. fusion
b. fission
c. friction
d. tension
39) A process by joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter than the sun is called
________.
a. fusion
b. fission
c. friction
d. tension
40) Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?
a. Transformers
b. Battery
c. Generator
d. Thermocouple
41) Which is the kinetic energy of falling water?
a. Thermo energy
b. Hydro energy
c. Solar energy
d. Mechanical energy
42) Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing voltage when exposed to radiant
energy (sunlight)?
a. Photoelectric
b. Photovoltaic system
c. Photoemission system
d. Solar light
43) Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of the earth is called ________.
a. volcanic
b. geothermal
c. thermal
d. chemical
44) Which refers to the extraction of electrons from a substance by sunlight on incident
electromagnetic radiation?
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Photovoltaic effect
c. Photoemission
d. Electron microscopy
45) Which statement is TRUE?
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance.
b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance.
c. Long wire has lesser resistance.
d. Short wire has higher resistance.
46) A small light ulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is connected across a 120-v line. What is
the current through the bulb?
a. 1.2 A
b. 0.012 A
c. 0.12 A
d. 12 A
47) A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in watts of lamp is
________.
a. 100 w
b. 600 w
c. 200 w
d. 250 w
48) If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total
resistance is ________.
a. 36 ohms
b. 2 ohms
c. 648 ohms
d. 54 ohms
49) A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The power used is:
a. 12 w
b. 130 w
c. 1,200 w
d. 120 w
50) What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v incandescent lamp?
a. 121 ohms
b. 115 ohms
c. 125 ohms
d. 12.1 ohms
51) How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a current of 10 amperes and has a
resistance of 23 ohms?
a. 23 Kw
b. 2,300 Kw
c. 230 Kw
d. 2.3 Kw
52) The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely proportional to its ________.
a. length
b. cross sectional area
c. temperature
d. material
53) A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a 110v AC line takes 1.2A and requires 110w
power. What is its power factor?
a. 0.9
b. 0.833
c. 0.866
d. 0.8
54) An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If the voltage across the heater is 240 volts.
What is the heater resistance?
a. 2.5 ohms
b. 83.3 ohms
c. 23.04 ohms
d. 2.30 ohms
55) The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 300 ohms. What current is required to
operate the lamp?
a. 0.85 A
b. 0.77 A
c. 1.30 A
d. 7.74 A
56) A group of lamps operates a current of 12 A and a voltage of 120v. What is the total
power of the lamps?
a. 1.44 kw
b. 1.20 kw
c. 1.34 kw
d. 14.4 kw
57) What is the maximum load capacity of a 15A circuit breaker protecting a branch circuit
that supplies a continuous load?
a. 15 A
b. 10 A
c. 12 A
d. 14 A
58) What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if it has a power rating of 1.75
Kw?
a. 2 Hp
b. 2.3 Hp
c. 2.5 Hp
d. 23 Hp
59) How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consume for 5 hours of useif it has a
power rating of 1.5 Hp?
a. 56 Kw
b. 7.5 Kw
c. 5.6 Kw
d. 75 Kw
60) A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a period of 20 hours until its terminal voltage
falls to an unacceptable level. How long can it be expected to supply a current of 100mA?
a. 50 hours
b. 100 hours
c. 60 hours
d. 70 hours
61) A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to supply a constant current of 8Ah. How long can
the battery last until it becomes unusable?
a. 20 hours
b. 2.5 hours
c. 15 hours
d. 2.5 hours
62) The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms. What length of the same
wire will have a resistance of 60 ohms?
a. 24 meters
b. 225 meters
c. 240 meters
d. 235 meters
63) If three equal resistances are connected in parallel,the equivalent resistance of the
circuit will be ________ the value of one resistor.
a. three time
b. half
c. one-third
d. the same
64) Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp for 20 hours at P3.00 per kW-hr?
a. P6.00
b. P9.00
c. P10.00
d. P60.00
65) Which is a box with a blank cover is inserted in one or more runs of raceway to facilitate
pulling of the conductors?
a. Blank box
b. Junction box
c. Terminal box
d. Pull box
66) Which is a box with a blank cover for joining runs of conduits and providing space for
connection and branching of enclosed conductors?
a. Blank box
b. Junction box
c. Terminal box
d. Pull box
67) The minimum size of wire used in electrical wiring is the no.14 AWG. Under the SI
standard, what is the diameter of this wire?
a. 1.2 mm
b. 1.6 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 2.0 mm
68) A thin-walled steel raceway of circularwith a corrosion-resistant coating for protection of
wires or cable is ________.
a. rigid metal conduit
b. flexible metal pipe
c. metal moulding
d. electrical metallic tubing
69) Armored cable is commercially known as ________.
a. BX cable
b. flat cable
c. metallic cable
d. duplex cable
70) Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed in a
flexible metal sheath?
a. Underground cable
b. Armored cable
c. Flat cable
d. Flexible cable
71) Flat cable assembly shall be installed for ________.
I. concealed work only
II. exposed work only
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. cannot be determined
72) An assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided with grooves for holding one
or more conductors at a definite scpacing from the surface wired over and from each other,
and with holes for fastening in position is called:
a. split knob
b. cleat
c. spool insulator
d. strain insulator
73) Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes, and flexible non-metallic tubing for the
protection and support of single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls
and ceilings of buildings?
a. Knob and tube wiring
b. Open wiring on insulators
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
d. Open wiring with knob and tubes
74) Which term refers to that switch or outlet body that is embedded or hidden in the wall?
a. Surface type
b. Flush type
c. Concealed type
d. Open type
75) The use of surface non-metallic raceway is not permitted in all the following, EXCEPT:
a. dry locations
b. where subject to severe physical damage
c. where voltage is over 300 V
d. where concealed
76) When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and extends beyond the wall surface, the
device is said to be ________.
a. Wall type
b. Surface type
c. Flush type
d. Open type
77) What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment an overload or short circuit
occurs?
a. Breaker switch
b. Overload
c. Circuit breaker
d. Main switch
78) Which term is used when two conductors are embedded in one solid mass of rubber
insulation?
a. two in one
b. three in one
c. stranded
d. duplex
79) What type of socket is used for outdoor or wet location in wiring installation?
a. Waterproof socket
b. Special purpose socket
c. Weatherproof socket
d. Outdoor socket
80) What is the smallest size of wire permitted by the Code to be used in wiring installation?
a. 2.0 mm squared
b. 3.5 mm squared
c. 2.0 mm
d. 1.25 mm squared
81) Which one of the following uses is permitted by the Code to be used for surface non-
metallic raceway?
a. dry locations
b. where concealed
c. where subject to severe physical damage
d. where voltage is over 300 V
82) Service entrance using copper conductors shall have sufficient capacity and shall not be
smaller than ________.
a. 5.5 mm squared
b. 3.5 mm squared
c. 14 mm squared
d. 8.0 mm squared
83) If two identical lamps give normal light when connected in parallel in a 230v line are
reconnected in series in the same line, the bulb will ________.
a. give more light
b. not light
c. give less light
d. blows out
84) When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed raceway, it shall be secured within
________ on each side of every outlet box.
a. 250 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 100 mm
d. 150 mm
85) A short circuit can be detected by using ________.
a. an ohmmeter
b. a megger
c. an oscilloscope
d. an ammeter
86) The electrical plans for residential house include the following items, EXCEPT:
a. Substation plan
b. Location plan
c. Floor plan showing location of service
d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting and receptacles outlets
87) If installed in raceways, conductors of size ________ and larger shall be stranded.
a. 5.5 mm squared
b. 8.0 mm squared
c. 14 mm squared
d. 3.5 mm squared
88) At least ________ of free conductor shall be left at each outlet, junction and switch point
for splices or connection of fixture or devices.
a. 250 mm
b. 175 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 300 mm
89) A certain residential house has lighting load of 1.1 kVA and an appliance load of 10A at
220 volts, single phase, two wires, 60 Hz. The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting and
appliance loads are ________ and ________, respectively.
a. 20 A and 60 A
b. 20 A and 30 A
c. 15 A and 30 A
d. 15 A and 20 A
90) Live vegetation or trees ________ used for support of overhead conductors spans.
a. shall be
b. should be
c. shall not be
d. should not be
91) Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should be wired so that the wires
________.
a. will be grounded
b. will not touch the chains
c. will support the fixture
d. will not support the fixture
92) In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-20 mm diameter shall be supported at least
every ________.
a. 2,500 mm
b. 3,500 mm
c. 1,800 mm
d. 3,800 mm
93) Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?
a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical harm.
b. Wires are connected by joints therefore need reinsulation.
c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need protection.
d. Wires skin is weak.
94) What is the total number of mechanical degrees that an electrical pipe run maybe bent
between pull points?
a. 360 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 120 degrees
d. 270 degrees
95) Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within ________ of each box.
a. 600 mm
b. 800 mm
c. 900 mm
d. 760 mm
96) Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ________ electrical trade size shall NOT be used.
a. 12 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm
97) Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples, straps, hangers or similar fittings
at intervals NOT exceeding ________.
a. 1,250 mm
b. 1,300 mm
c. 1,500 mm
d. 1,000 mm
98) In concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be maintained between conductors
is ________.
a. 65 mm
b. 45 mm
c. 76 mm
d. 50 mm
99) Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a single switch. If one of the 3
bulbs is busted, what will happen to the remaining bulbs?
a. it will not lit
b. its brightness is reduced
c. its brightness increases
d. its brightness in maintained
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. D
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. D
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. D
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. B
56. A
57. C
58. B
59. C
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. B
68. D
69. A
70. B
71. B
72. B
73. C
74. B
75. A
76. B
77. C
78. D
79. C
80. A
81. A
82. D
83. C
84. B
85. A
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. D
90. C
91. D
92. D
93. A
94. A
95. C
96. C
97. B
98. C
99. D

TLE (2) - Plumbing

1) A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply water in
buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter
b. Plumber
c. Mason
d. Mechanic
2) It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the house sewer.
a. Septic tank
b. Manhole
c. Water tank
d. Waste tank
3) The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum
b. Sediment
c. Sludge
d. Silt
4) An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home or
town is called:
a. Drainage system
b. Fixture
c. Sewerage
d. Sewer
5) The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe
b. Soil pipe
c. Vent pipe
d. Drain pipe
6) It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
a. Loop
b. Fixture
c. Sewer
d. Trap
7) The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise
b. Pliers
c. Wrenches
d. Threader
8) The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ________.
a. Wye fitting
b. Coupling
c. Union fitting
d. Reducer
9) A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Ball valve
b. Check valve
c. Blackwater valve
d. Gate valve
10) It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve
b. Gate valve
c. Ball valve
d. Float valve
11) A schedule 40 pipe is:
a. Thicker than schedule 20
b. Thicker than schedule 80
c. Thinner than schedule 10
d. None among the choices
12) What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape
b. Teflon tape
c. Scotch tape
d. Adhesive gum
13) What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the
drainage system?
a. Vent pipe
b. Drain pipe
c. Soil pipe
d. Cleanout
14) Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water.
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout.
c. No vent pipe is needed.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
15) What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National
Plumbing Code?
a. 2% slope
b. 3% slope
c. 4% slope
d. 0% slope or level position
16) For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, what must be installed in
the pipe system?
a. Vent pipe
b. Cleanout
c. Drain
d. Tee fitting
17) Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. Which of the
following is preferred?
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)
d. Polyethylene
18) The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two
closets that shall discharge into a ________ pipe diameter.
a. 3 inches or 75 mm
b. 80 mm
c. less than 75 mm
d. 70 mm
19) A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer
b. Elbow
c. Union
d. Coupling
20) As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what should be connected for each
faucet, toilet, and fixtures?
a. Fixture shutoffs
b. Main shutoffs
c. Intermediate shutoffs
d. Valves
21) A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter
b. Flux
c. Pipe wrench
d. Butane torch
22) A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hacksaw
b. Back saw
c. Handsaw
d. Drywall knife
23) Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is
called ________.
a. plumber's snake
b. plunger
c. valve
d. bushing
24) If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of
the handle for unblocking. What is this tool?
a. plumber's snake
b. valve
c. plunger
d. bushing
25) Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?
a. monkey wrench
b. chain wrench
c. yoke vise
d. pipe wrench
26) A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
27) A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
a. Vise grip
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
28) A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?
a. Vise grip
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
29) The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:
a. rainwater harvesting
b. water conservation
c. gray water recycling
d. excessive water consumption
30) Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system. Which term is
referred to?
a. Water flow
b. Back flow
c. Pressure
d. Harvesting
31) The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. water closet
b. drainage
c. shower
d. urinals
32) Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards based on Republic Act 1378
which is known as "Plumbing Law"?
a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be equipped with a water-
sealed trap.
b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum quantity of water
consistent with proper performance and cleaning.
c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly lighted and ventilated.
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive mixtures, destroy the pipes or
their joints or interfere unduly with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter
the building drainage system.
33) A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of
the gravity system is called ________.
a. septic
b. sump
c. trap
d. interceptor
34) Which is true toxic substance?
a. Hazardous to human health
b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Not hazardous to human health
d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain
35) Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ________.
a. potable
b. purified
c. clean
d. healthy
36) Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?
a. A room or booth containing a toilet
b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near
d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet
37) Plumbing ventilation means to ________.
a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage system
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping
c. maintain the trap seals
d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer
38) Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?
a. Down spout
b. Conductor
c. Gutter
d. Vent
39) A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________.
a. vent pipe
b. soil pipe
c. main pipe
d. waste pipe
40) If you install water supply inside the building, what is the diameter of pipes needed?
a. 4 inches
b. 1 inch
c. 0.75 inch
d. 0.5 inch
41) In which type of pipes does portable water travel
a. ABS pipes
b. Galvanized pipes
c. Cast iron pipes
d. PVC pipes (orange)
42) If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the flow of water?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
43) A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses from entering the
building. What device is needed?
a. Union
b. Trap
c. Backflow preventer
d. Pump
44) A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is
appropriate?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
45) What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints to
prevent leakage?
a. Rubber bond
b. Masking tape
c. Teflon tape
d. Tape
46) If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a male adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the
flow of the water?
a. Elbow
b. Coupling
c. Cap
d. Plug
47) How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?
a. 2 pcs.
b. 2.5 pcs.
c. 3 pcs.
d. 3.5 pcs.
48) If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a female adopter, what fitting will be used to stop
the flow of the water?
a. Elbow
b. Coupling
c. Cap
d. Plug
49) A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?
a. Coupling
b. Elbow
c. Tee
d. Pipe wrench
50) If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink, and water closet, which valve are
you going to shut off?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
51) If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 2%
d. 1%
52) If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic
tank?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 5 meters
d. 20 meters
53) No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within how many meter radius
from the well?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 45 meters
54) If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum
meter radius from a well to the residences?
a. 150 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 200 meters
55) Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be _________.
a. self-regulating
b. tight
c. fix
d. self cleaning
56) There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius
from the well?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 45 meters
57) The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft.
b. 2.0 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 10 ft.
58) If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m
b. 6 ft.
c. 3.0 m
d. 20 ft.
59) If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m
b. 6 ft.
c. 3.0 m
d. 20 ft.
60) All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
a. lavatory
b. water closet
c. sink
d. bath tub
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. D
40. D
41. B
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. D
49. A
50. D
51. C
52. A
53. D
54. B
55. D
56. A
57. D
58. B
59. C
60. B

TLE (1) - Cosmetology

1) In facial, make-up foundation serves as make-up base. What is the type of foundation
recommended for dry skin?
a. cake
b. cream
c. liquid
d. stick
2) The purpose of thinning the hair is to remove its excess bilk without shortening its length.
What is the best shear to use for thinning bulky hair?
a. all purpose shear
b. clipping shear
c. razor
d. thinning shear
3) The process of thinning, tapering and shortening of the hair is called:
a. hair cutting
b. hair drying
c. hair setting
d. hair styling
4) Make-up is applied to the face for the purpose of improving its appearance. To give color
to the cheeks, which of the following should be applied?
a. Eye shadow
b. Lipstick
c. Mascara
d. Rogue
5) To correct misshaped eyebrows, it is best to use:
a. depilatory
b. eyebrow pencil
c. electric clipper
d. razor
6) Arrange the following cosmetics in their order of use in applying make-up?
I. Curl lash
II. Eyeliner
III. Eye shadow
IV. Mascara
a. I, II, III, IV
b. II, III, IV, I
c. III, II, I, IV
d. IV, I, II, III
7) A make-up tool that makes eyelashes wavy is:
a. blush on brush
b. curl lash
c. eye liner
d. mascara
8) A corrective make-up that makes small eyes appear bigger is:
a. adding lines on the eyelids
b. using dark colored eye shadow
c. using light colored eye shadow
d. using mascara
9) An emery board is used to shape the ________ of the nails.
a. cuticle
b. free edge
c. lunula
d. root of the nails
10) An orange wood stick is used to:
a. apply oil on the nails
b. remove excess cuticle remover
c. remove excess nail polish around the nails
d. remove stain on nails
11) The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair is coarse, medium or fine is:
a. hair analysis
b. hair elasticity
c. hair porosity
d. hair texture
12) Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove stubborn dirt when giving foot spa
is:
a. foot balm
b. foot scrub
c. foot soak
d. foot spray
13) Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
I. Apply cuticle remover
II. Cut & file nails
III. Push cuticle
IV. Trim cuticle
a. I, III, II, IV
b. II, I, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. I, III, IV, I
14) One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of shave is:
a. Depilation
b. Epilation
c. Threading
d. Waxing
15) A heavy make-up is suitable for:
a. casual affair
b. evening affair
c. picture affair
d. night swimming
16) The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail polish is:
a. base coat
b. colored nail polish
c. cuticle remover
d. top coat
17) What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller, more workable
pieces for the purpose of control?
a. Bunching
b. Spitting
c. Sectioning
d. Texturizing
18) A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye appear ________.
a. Lighter
b. Darker
c. Smaller
d. Deeper
19) Mariana would like to apply the principles she learned in corrective make-up to a friend
whose lips are broad. Which should you not recommend?
a. apply light color lipstick
b. apply lip gloss
c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips
d. use lip liner on the inner lips
20) The nail is composed mainly of:
a. Melanin
b. Keratin
c. Collagen
d. Sebum
21) Customer A is complaining and getting pushy about the pedicure service she received.
If you were the pedicurist, what would you do?
a. Tell your customer to look for another pedicurist.
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and continue working without being bothered by the
complained.
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and professional.
d. Ask for an apology, maintain professionalism and ask what she wants.
22) Which of these is the first thing the pedicurist should do to avoid such situation?
a. Be courteous.
b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the shape, color, etc.
c. Decide you own design and styles.
c. Proceed to the service right after customer A says that she wants pedicuring.
23) Which is NOT desirable quality for effective client relation?
a. emotional control
b. positive approach
c. good manners
d. discussing personal life
24) Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. Cosmetologist is one of the best advertisements for a salon.
b. Salon owners and managers do not consider appearance, personality and poise to be as
important as technical knowledge and manual skills.
c. The female cosmetologist should wear stylish shoes that fit and are comfortable at the
end of a long day.
d. All female stylists should have their hair done at least once a week and their hair should
reflect the best workmanship of the salon.
25) The following are guidelines for good human relations and professional attitude,
EXCEPT one:
a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice.
b. Show interest in the client's personal preferences.
c. Make a good impression by wearing obtrusive jewelry to look at your best.
d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with whom you come in contact.
26) Lisa applied as public teacher. She doesn't have any experience for job interview. Could
you please help her decide? What type of clothing will she wear?
a. Casual dress
b. Sunday dress
c. Business attire
d. Party dress
27) What type of make-up may she put on?
a. Corrective make-up
b. Light make-up
c. Heavy make-up
d. Photographic make-up
28) Miss T was invited as one of the principal sponsors in her best friend's daughter's
wedding. She went to a salon to have hairstyle, makeup, manicure and pedicure. Miss T
wants a neatly finished up style. Which of the following styles is best suited for her?
a. French Twist Hairstyle
b. Laced-up and Elegant Hairstyle
c. Chignon
d. Petal and Blooms Hairstyle
29) Which of the following makeup does she need?
a. Day make-up
b. Evening make-up
c. Photographic make-up
d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
30) Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Round nail
b. Oval nail
c. Square nail
d. Pointed nail
31) Which of these are implements?
a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl
b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat, and cuticle remover
c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper, nail file and orange wood stick
d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
32) Which of these are cosmetics?
a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle remover
c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair
d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle nipper, nail file and nail brush
33) Which of these are equipment?
a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and assorted colored polish
b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange wood stick and cuticle pusher
c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and antiseptic solution
d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl
34) Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file?
a. The pointed side is used to push back and moisten the cuticles.
b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the cuticles.
c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles.
d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticles.
35) Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert the ring finger and pinky in
the nail brush handle and brush the nails with a _________.
a. downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
b. sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
c. upward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
d. sawing motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
36) Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight and then filing the tip straight
across at right angles with the rest of the nail plate?
a. round nail
b. square nail
c. pointed nail
d. oval nail
37) Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. When is a massage applied?
Before _________.
a. removing old polish
b. coloring polish
c. base coat
d. top coat
38) Which of the following is the last step in manicuring/pedicuring?
a. apply top coat
b. clean under free edge
c. re-examine nails and cuticles
d. dry fingertips
39) Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of caring for the nails and toenails,
involving special care and expertise for bringing out the best effects?
a. nail tattoo
b. nail art
c. nail extender
d. nail technician
40) Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a month.
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people.
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails.
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter.
41) Which is the technical term for nail?
a. Onyx
b. Onychosis
c. Onychology
d. Keratin
42) Which refer to hand-held tools used in manicure which are durable and must be
sanitized after use with each client?
a. Cosmetics
b. Equipment
c. Materials
d. Implements
43) Which of the following term refers to a light, continuous stroking movement applied with
the fingers and palms in a slow and rhythmic manner?
a. friction
b. vibration
c. petrissage
d. effleurage
44) It is not good to apply massage when a person has _________.
a. high blood pressure and heart condition
b. mayoma and diabetic
c. deliver a baby
d. cancer
45) If you are going to start a home service as a manicurist/pedicurist and your parents give
you ₱500.00 to start with, which equipment, implements, cosmetics and materials should
you buy first?
I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, assorted nail polish, base coat, and top coat
II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art designs
III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood stick, nail brush, nail file, and nail polish remover
IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, antiseptic solution, and nail buffer
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I and IV
46) In shaping the nails, what comes first?
a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb and the two fingers of the left hand.
b. Hold the file or emery board in the right hand and tilt it slightly so that filling is confined
mainly to the underside of the free edge.
c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best suited for him/her. File the nails at the left hand
starting with the little finger and working towards the thumb.
d. Shape the nails.
47) Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher. Sometimes or most of the time she is exposed to the
sunlight. What type of skin protection should she apply?
a. face toners
b. anti-aging body creams
c. body mask
d. SPF lotion
48) Which of the following drinks can she take to hydrate herself?
a. soft drinks
b. gatorade
c. cobra juice
d. plain water
49) Which part of the body is best for the color testing of a foundation?
a. earlobe
b. jawline
c. nose
d. cheek
50) Which aids in maintaining face?
a. face cleansers
b. face toners
c. face lotions
d. face serums
51) Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost moisture and hydrate the skin to
slow down the skin's aging process?
a. anti-aging face creams
b. face toners
c. face exfoliators
d. face cream
52) Which among the following would be the first step in giving facial?
a. apply cleansing cream
b. apply treatment mask
c. apply moisturizer
d. apply massage cream
53) Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in analyzing the client's skin? If the
_________.
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily
b. shape of the face
c. lines or creases exist
d. skin texture is smooth or rough
54) Which of the following is NOT beneficial for facial treatments?
a. Softening and improving skin texture and complexion
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles and aging lines
c. weakening muscle tissue
d. correcting skin disorders
55) Which of the following is a common skin disorder caused by the formation of sebaceous
matter within or under the skin?
a. blackheads
b. whiteheads
c. pimples
d. acne
56) Which of the following facial is recommended for dry, scaly skin, or skin that is inclined
to wrinkles?
a. plain facial
b. packs and masks
c. facial for dry
d. hot oil mask facial
57) Mitch has acne problem so she went to a cosmetologist for an advice, though she is
under medical care. What would be the role of the cosmetologist?
a. Work closely with the client's physician to carry out instructions as to the kind and
frequency of facial treatments.
b. Advice the client to stop the medication from the physician.
c. She can have her own separate medication aside from the physician.
d. Refuse and do not give further service.
58) Under medical direction, the following are the measures of limitation in cosmetic
treatment for acne, EXCEPT:
a. Remove blackheads using proper procedures
b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local application
c. Apply moisturizer
d. Clean the face
59) What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving a matte finish, and also to
conceal small flaws or blemishes?
a. powder
b. lipstick
c. eyeliner
d. blush
60) Which of the following provides the backdrop for the entire colorful facial make-up
artistry?
a. concealer
b. blush
c. cheek color
d. foundation
61) How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A highlight is produced when:
a. a darker foundation than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features
62) What must one remember in giving facial manipulations to induce relaxation?
a. routine
b. tempo
c. pressure
d. skin type
63) A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has some obvious abrasions on
her scalp. Which treatment would be acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.
64) Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is only 11 years old and she is not an albino.
What may be the cause of gray hairs at this early age?
a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers.
b. She has serious illness.
c. She has defects in pigment formation occurring at birth.
d. A result of the natural aging process of humans.
65) Who is an albino? A person born with _________.
a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal development of hair
b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is accompanied by no marked of
pigment coloring in the skin or irises of the eyes
c. androgenetic alopecia
d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a hair follicle
66) What type of haircutting is done when one holds the shears at an angle to the hair
strand other than 90 degrees?
a. blunt cut
b. beveled cut
c. graduated cut
d. undercutting
67) Which of the following safety measures in haircutting is NOT true?
a. Always palm the shears when combing the hair.
b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin.
c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting.
d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of the hand.
68) Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes and styles?
a. Hairstyling
b. Hair trimming
c. Curling
d. Waving
69) David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did partially wet and partially dry of Miss P's hair.
What would be the result of Miss P's hair?
a. Even
b. Uneven
c. Perfect
d. Curly
70) Following a haircut, when is texturizing performed most effectively?
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn.
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is applied.
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed.
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling.
71) The following are some myths about hair growth, EXCEPT:
a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting, or singeing has an effect on the rate of hair
growth.
b. The application of oils increases hair growth.
c. Hair grows after death.
d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each follicle repeatedly cycles through three
stages.
72) Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called _________.
a. taped haircutting
b. wedge haircutting
c. sectioning
d. barbering
73) Which of the following is an art of creating curls or weaving?
a. Hairstyling
b. Thermal styling
c. Hair setting
d. Traditional finger waving
74) Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to the scalp, rest and soothe the
nerves, stimulate the muscles and the activity of the scalp glands?
a. Shampooing
b. Hair treatment
c. Scalp manipulation
d. Rebonding
75) Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair before hairstyling.
a. Crown
b. Forehead
c. Nape of the neck
d. Back of the head
76) Under normal circumstances, how many strands of hair does an average person shed
per day?
a. 20-50
b. 40-100
c. 80-120
d. 150-200
77) Hair is distributed all over the body, EXCEPT:
a. Soles of the feet
b. Earlobe
c. Hands
d. Eyes
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. D
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. A
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. A
51. D
52. A
53. B
54. C
55. B
56. D
57. A
58. C
59. A
60. D
61. B
62. B
63. C
64. C
65. B
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. A
71. D
72. A
73. C
74. C
75. C
76. B
77. A
1) A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply water in
buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter
b. Plumber
c. Mason
d. Mechanic
2) It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the house sewer.
a. Septic tank
b. Manhole
c. Water tank
d. Waste tank
3) The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum
b. Sediment
c. Sludge
d. Silt
4) An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home or town is
called:
a. Drainage system
b. Fixture
c. Sewerage
d. Sewer
5) The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe
b. Soil pipe
c. Vent pipe
d. Drain pipe
6) It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
a. Loop
b. Fixture
c. Sewer
d. Trap
7) The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise
b. Pliers
c. Wrenches
d. Threader
8) The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ________.
a. Wye fitting
b. Coupling
c. Union fitting
d. Reducer
9) A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Ball valve
b. Check valve
c. Blackwater valve
d. Gate valve
10) It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve
b. Gate valve
c. Ball valve
d. Float valve
11) A schedule 40 pipe is:
a. Thicker than schedule 20
b. Thicker than schedule 80
c. Thinner than schedule 10
d. None among the choices
12) What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape
b. Teflon tape
c. Scotch tape
d. Adhesive gum
13) What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the drainage
system?
a. Vent pipe
b. Drain pipe
c. Soil pipe
d. Cleanout
14) Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water.
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout.
c. No vent pipe is needed.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
15) What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National
Plumbing Code?
a. 2% slope
b. 3% slope
c. 4% slope
d. 0% slope or level position
16) For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, what must be installed in the
pipe system?
a. Vent pipe
b. Cleanout
c. Drain
d. Tee fitting
17) Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. Which of the
following is preferred?
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)
d. Polyethylene
18) The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two closets
that shall discharge into a ________ pipe diameter.
a. 3 inches or 75 mm
b. 80 mm
c. less than 75 mm
d. 70 mm
19) A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer
b. Elbow
c. Union
d. Coupling
20) As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what should be connected for each
faucet, toilet, and fixtures?
a. Fixture shutoffs
b. Main shutoffs
c. Intermediate shutoffs
d. Valves
21) A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter
b. Flux
c. Pipe wrench
d. Butane torch
22) A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hacksaw
b. Back saw
c. Handsaw
d. Drywall knife
23) Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is called
________.
a. plumber's snake
b. plunger
c. valve
d. bushing
24) If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of the
handle for unblocking. What is this tool?
a. plumber's snake
b. valve
c. plunger
d. bushing
25) Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?
a. monkey wrench
b. chain wrench
c. yoke vise
d. pipe wrench
26) A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
27) A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
a. Vise grip
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
28) A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?
a. Vise grip
b. Pipe threader
c. Yoke vise
d. Pipe wrench
29) The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:
a. rainwater harvesting
b. water conservation
c. gray water recycling
d. excessive water consumption
30) Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system. Which term is
referred to?
a. Water flow
b. Back flow
c. Pressure
d. Harvesting
31) The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. water closet
b. drainage
c. shower
d. urinals
32) Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards based on Republic Act 1378 which
is known as "Plumbing Law"?
a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be equipped with a water-sealed
trap.
b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum quantity of water consistent
with proper performance and cleaning.
c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly lighted and ventilated.
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive mixtures, destroy the pipes or their
joints or interfere unduly with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter the building
drainage system.
33) A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of the
gravity system is called ________.
a. septic
b. sump
c. trap
d. interceptor
34) Which is true toxic substance?
a. Hazardous to human health
b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Not hazardous to human health
d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain
35) Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ________.
a. potable
b. purified
c. clean
d. healthy
36) Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?
a. A room or booth containing a toilet
b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near
d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet
37) Plumbing ventilation means to ________.
a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage system
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping
c. maintain the trap seals
d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer
38) Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?
a. Down spout
b. Conductor
c. Gutter
d. Vent
39) A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________.
a. vent pipe
b. soil pipe
c. main pipe
d. waste pipe
40) If you install water supply inside the building, what is the diameter of pipes needed?
a. 4 inches
b. 1 inch
c. 0.75 inch
d. 0.5 inch
41) In which type of pipes does portable water travel
a. ABS pipes
b. Galvanized pipes
c. Cast iron pipes
d. PVC pipes (orange)
42) If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the flow of water?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
43) A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses from entering the building.
What device is needed?
a. Union
b. Trap
c. Backflow preventer
d. Pump
44) A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is
appropriate?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
45) What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints to
prevent leakage?
a. Rubber bond
b. Masking tape
c. Teflon tape
d. Tape
46) If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a male adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the
flow of the water?
a. Elbow
b. Coupling
c. Cap
d. Plug
47) How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?
a. 2 pcs.
b. 2.5 pcs.
c. 3 pcs.
d. 3.5 pcs.
48) If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a female adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the
flow of the water?
a. Elbow
b. Coupling
c. Cap
d. Plug
49) A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?
a. Coupling
b. Elbow
c. Tee
d. Pipe wrench
50) If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink, and water closet, which valve are you
going to shut off?
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Check valve
d. Angle valve
51) If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 2%
d. 1%
52) If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic tank?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 5 meters
d. 20 meters
53) No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within how many meter radius from
the well?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 45 meters
54) If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum meter
radius from a well to the residences?
a. 150 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 200 meters
55) Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be _________.
a. self-regulating
b. tight
c. fix
d. self cleaning
56) There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius from
the well?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 45 meters
57) The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft.
b. 2.0 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 10 ft.
58) If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main supply,
what is the standard length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m
b. 6 ft.
c. 3.0 m
d. 20 ft.
59) If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m
b. 6 ft.
c. 3.0 m
d. 20 ft.
60) All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
a. lavatory
b. water closet
c. sink
d. bath tub
ANSWERS: 33. A
1. B 34. A
2. A 35. A
3. C 36. B
4. D 37. A
5. A 38. A
6. D 39. D
7. C 40. D
8. C 41. B
9. B 42. A
10. C 43. C
11. A 44. B
12. B 45. C
13. A 46. C
14. C 47. B
15. A 48. D
16. B 49. A
17. A 50. D
18. A 51. C
19. A 52. A
20. A 53. D
21. C 54. B
22. A 55. D
23. A 56. A
24. C 57. D
25. B 58. B
26. B 59. C
27. C 60. B
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. B