INSTRUCTIONS

a) The Paper will have an everlasting impact on you but do complete it in 1 hour & 45 min(s) i.e. 105
minutes.
b) Enjoy solving the paper from your heart as if you and the paper are one.
c) Good Luck.

1. The magnitude of the electric field required to just balance in air a 2 × 10-4 kg liquid drop
carrying a charge 9.8 × 10-2 𝛍C is: (Take g = 9.8 m/s^2)
a. 2 × 10-2 N/C b. 2 × 104 N/C
c. 4 × 104 N/C d. 5 × 104 N/C
2. A force of 0.01N is exerted on a charge of 1.2×10-5 C at a certain point. The electric field at that
point is:
a. 5.3×104 N/C b. 8.3×104 N/C c. 5.3×102 N/C d. 8.3×102 N/C
3. Two point charges q1 = 4 𝛍C and q2 = 9 𝛍C are placed 20 cm apart. The electric field due to them
will be zero on the line joining them at a distance of:
a. 8 cm from q1 b. 8 cm from q2
80 80
c. cm from q1 d. cm from q2
13 13
4. Two point charges q1 = 4 𝛍C and q2 = -9 𝛍C are placed 20 cm apart. The electric field due to them
will be zero on the line joining them at a distance of:
a. 60 cm from q1 b. 60 cm from q2
80 80
c. cm from q1 d. cm from q2
13 13
5. Two free charges q and 4q are placed at a distance d apart. A third charge Q is placed between
them at a distance x from charge q such that the system is in equilibrium. Then:
4q d 4q d
a. Q = 9
,x=3 b. Q = 9
,x=4
4q d 4q d
c. Q = - 9
,x=3 d. Q = - 9
,x=4
6. The electrostatic force between two point charges q1 and q2 at separation r is given by
𝐊𝐪 𝐪
𝐅 = 𝐫𝟏𝟐 𝟐. The constant K:
a. Depends on the system of units only
b. Depends on the medium between the charges only
c. Depends on both the system of units and medium between the charges
d. Is independent of both the system of units and the medium between the charges
7. Two positive point charge are 3m apart and their combined charge is 20 𝛍C. If the force
between them is 0.096 N, the charges are:
a. 10 μC, 10 μC b. 15 μC, 5 μC
c. 12 μC, 8 μC d. 14 μC, 6 μC
8. As the electric charge on the surface of a hollow metal sphere increases, the electric field
intensity inside the sphere:
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. May increase or decrease depending on the radius of the sphere
9. Electrons are caused to fall through a P.D. of 125 volts. If they were initially at rest, their final
speed is: (Charge on electron is 1.6 * 10^-19 Coulombs & Mass is 9 * 10^-31 Kg)
a. 4.60 × 106 m/s b. 6.67 × 106 m/s
c. 0.23 × 10 m/s
6 d. 5.10 × 106 m/s
10. Two charges of magnitudes 4 × 10-8 C and – 6 × 10-8 C are at points A and B respectively, 50 cm
apart. The electrical potential due to them is zero on the line AB at a distance from A equal to:

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 a. 10 cm b. 20 cm
c. 30 cm d. 40 cm
11. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected:
a. If they have the same capacity.
b. If they have the same quantity of charge.
c. If they have the same potential.
d. If they have the same charge to potential ratio.
12. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric
field is a measure of:
a. Intensity of electric field b. Resistance between two points
c. Capacitance d. Potential difference between two points
13. If an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 Volt, it will acquire energy an
equivalent to 1 electron volt (eV). Suppose a proton is now moved between the same two points
having a potential difference of 1 Volt, then the energy gained or lost by that proton is 1 proton
volt. Keeping in mind that mass of proton is almost 1840 times greater than the mass of
electron & charge on both is same, what do you think:
a. 1 Proton Volt = 1 Electron Volt
b. 1 Proton Volt > 1 Electron Volt
c. 1 Proton Volt < 1 Electron Volt
d. Kea Pata bhai. Physics h Kuch bhe hoskta h.
14. Three capacitors, each of 1 𝛍F, are connected in parallel. To this combination a fourth capacitor
of 1 𝛍F is connected series. The equivalent capacitance of the system is:
3 4
a. 4 μF b. 3 μF
c. 2 μF d. 4 μF
15. The separation between the plates of a parallel plates of capacitor is d. A metal slab of thickness
d/2 is inserted between the plates. The ratio of the capacitances before and after the
introduction of the slab is (For Metals Dielectric Constant is: Infinity)
a. 1 : √2 b. √2 : 1
c. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1
16. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates
of the capacitor are moved farther apart by means of insulating handles.
a. The charge on the capacitor increases
b. The voltage across the plates increases
c. The capacitance increases
d. None of these
17. A 5.0 C charge is 10 m from a −𝟐. 𝟎 𝐂 charge. The electrostatic force on the positive charge is:
a. 9.0 × 108 N towards the negative charge
b. 9.0 × 108 N away from the negative charge
c. 9.0 × 109 N towards the negative charge
d. 9.0 × 109 N away from the negative charge
18. Two charges of 3 𝛍C each are placed at the corners A and B of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
𝟏 𝐍−𝐦𝟐
length 0.2 m in air. The electric potential C is (𝟒𝛑∈ = 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎𝟗 𝐂𝟐
):
𝟎
a. 9.0 × 104 V b. 13.4 × 104 V
c. 27 × 10 V
4 d. 27 × 10-4 V
19. When 112 V Potential Difference is applied across a wire that is 10 m long and has a current
density equal to 1.4 × 104 A/m2. The resistivity of the wire is:
a. 2.0 × 10-4 Ωm c. 8.0 × 10-4 Ωm
b. 4.0 × 10-4 Ωm d. 2.0 × 10-3 Ωm
20. A nichrome wire 50 cm long and 1mm cross section carries a current of 4A when connected to
2

a 2V battery. The resistivity of nichrome wire is:

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 a. 1 × 10-6 Ω-m c. 3 × 10-7 Ω-m
b. 4 × 10-7 Ω-m d. 2 × 10-7 Ω-m
21. By increasing the temperature, the conductance of conductor and a semiconductor:
a. Increases for both c. Increases, decreases
b. Decreases for both d. Decreases, increases
22. Two wires (P) and (Q) made up of different materials have same resistances at room
temperature. When heated, resistance of P increases while that of Q decreases. We conclude that:
a. P and Q both are conductors but because of being made of different materials it happens so
b. P is N-type semiconductor and Q is P-type semiconductor
c. P is semiconductor and Q is conductor
d. P is conductor and Q is semiconductor
23. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?
a. Platinum
b. Gold
c. Silicon
d. Copper
24. * In the adjoining circuit, the value of I (in ampere) is:

a. 1.5 A
b. 0.4 A
c. 0.7 A
d. 1.0 A

25. An ammeter and voltmeter are joined in series to a cell. The readings are x and y respectively. If
a resistance is joined in parallel with voltmeter:
a. Both x and y will increase c. x will decrease and y will increase
b. Both x and y will decrease d. x will increase and y will decrease
26. Equal potentials are applied on an iron and a copper wire of same length. In order to have the
same current flow in the two wires, the ratio r (iron)/r (copper) of their radii must be about:
(Given that: specific resistance of iron = 1.0 × 10-7 ohm-m and specific resistance of copper = 1.6
× 10-8 ohm-m)
a. 1.2 c. 3.7
b. 2.5 d. 5.0
27. When a current flow in a wire, there exists in an electric field in the direction of:
a. Flow of conventional current
b. Opposite to the flow of conventional current
c. Perpendicular to the flow of conventional current
d. At an angle of 45° to the flow of conventional current
28. Constantan or Manganin wire is used for making standard resistance because they have:
a. Low specific resistance
b. High specific resistance
c. Negligible temperature coefficient of resistance
d. High melting point

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29. In the given current distribution, what is the value of I?

a. 3 Amperes
b. 2 Amperes
c. 5 Amperes
d. 8 Amperes

30. Two particles A and B having equal charges +6C, after being accelerated through the same
potential difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii
2 cm and 3 cm respectively. The ratio of mass of A to that of B is:
𝟒 𝟏
a. 𝟗 c. 𝟐
𝟗 𝟏
b. d.
𝟓 𝟑
31. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field
3.14×10-2 T, if the value of (e/m) is 2.0 × 1011 C/Kg, the frequency of the revolution of the
electron is approximately:
a. 6.82 MHz c. 100 MHz
b. 1 GHz d. 62.8 MHz
32. In the above question, time period of the electron defining the circular path will be:
a. 6.82 Nano-second c. 100 Nano-second
b. 1 Nano-second d. 62.8 Nano-second
33. Singly ionized isotopes of an element, all having the same velocity, enter a region of uniform
magnetic field. The field direction is perpendicular to the direction of motion. The ions would be
deflected:
a. All of them following paths having same radius of curvature
b. But those with more neutrons would follow a path of smaller radius of curvature
c. But those with more neutrons would follow a path of larger radius curvature
d. But those with more neutrons would follow a helical path
34. An electron into a region of uniform magnetic field of strength 10 weber/m2 with a speed of 3 ×
107 m/s. Which of the following is not possible?
a. The electron may or may not experience an acceleration
b. The electron may experience an acceleration but can continue to move with the same speed
c. The electron may experience an acceleration and continue to move with same velocity
d. The kinetic energy of the electron remains unchanged
35. An electron (charge q coulomb) enters a magnetic field of H weber/m2 with velocity of v m/s in
the same direction as that of the field. The force on the electron is:
a. Hqv newtons in the direction of the magnetic field.
b. Hqv dynes in the direction of the magnetic field.
c. Hqv newtons at right angles to the direction of the magnetic field.
d. Zero
36. An 𝛂 particle enters a magnetic field of flux density 7.5 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 2 × 107 m/s at
an angle of 30° with the field. The force on the particle will be:
a. 12.0 × 10-12 N b. 24.0 × 10-12 N
c. 12.0 × 10 N
12 d. 24.0 × 1012 N
37. A positively charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity at an
angle with the field which is different from 0° or 90°. The path of the particle in the field will be:
a. Circular b. Helical
c. Parabolic d. Straight line

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38. When a stationary charge is placed near a stream of moving charges, then the stationary charge
experiences:
a. No force
b. A force due to the electric field only
c. A force due to the magnetic field only
d. Force due to both the electric and the magnetic fields.
39. An ion with speed 2 × 105 m/s enters normally (perpendicularly) into a uniform magnetic field
of 4 × 10-2 T. If the specific charge (Charge per unit Mass) of ions is 5 × 107 C/kg, the radius of
the circular path described by it will be:
a. 0.10 m b. 0.16 m
c. 0.20 m d. 0.25 m
40. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction:
a. The direction of induced current is such that it opposes the cause producing it.
b. The magnitude of induced EMF produced in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of
magnetic flux.
c. The direction of induced EMF is such that it opposes the cause producing it.
d. None of the above
41. A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length
along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the failing magnet is:
a. Equal to that due to gravity
b. Less than that due to gravity
c. More than that due to gravity
d. Depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
42. A current carrying wire is placed before a coil in its plane, with current flowing as shown. If the
current increases:

a. No current will be induced in the coil

b. An anticlockwise current will be induced in the coil
c. A clockwise current will be induced in the coil.
d. The current induced will be first anticlockwise and then clockwise
43. A coil having number of turns N and cross sectional area A is rotated in a uniform magnetic field
B with an angular velocity 𝛚. The maximum value of the EMF induced in it is:
NBA
a. ω
b. NBAω
NBA
c. d. NBAω2
ω2
44. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils is 2 H. If the current in one of the coil changes from 10 A
to zero in 0.1 s, the EMF induced in the other coil is:
a. 2 V b. 20 V
c. 0.2 V d. 200 V
45. A.C. power is transmitted from a powerhouse at a high voltage as:
a. The rate of transmission is faster at high voltages
b. It is more economical due to less power loss
c. Power cannot be transmitted at low voltages
d. A precaution against theft of transmission line

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46. In the diagram shown a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils A
and B in the direction of arrow. Then:

a. Current is induced only in A not in B

b. Induced currents in A and B are in same direction
c. No current is induced only in B not in A
d. Induced currents A and B are in opposite directions
47. In a step down transformer the input voltage is 22 KV and the output voltage is 550 V. The ratio
of the number of turns in the secondary to that of the primary will be:
a. 1: 20 b. 20: 1
c. 1: 40 d. 40: 1
48. In an ideal transformer an alternating current of 2 A is flowing in the primary coil. The number
of turns in the primary and secondary coils are 100 and 20 respectively. The value of the
current in the secondary coil is:
a. 0.08 A b. 0.4 A
c. 5 A d. 10 A
49. In the given network, the effective resistance between points A and B is:
a. 25Ω
b. 10Ω
c. 20Ω
d. 30Ω

50. Five resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between the
points A and B is:
a. 20/3 Ω
b. 10/3 Ω
c. 20Ω
d. 30Ω
51. The efficiency of heat engine increases if:
a. TL/TH increase b. TL/TH decrease
c. None d. TH/TL decrease
52. The unit of entropy is:
a. J/℃ b. J/K
c. Both d. KJ
53. If the temperature of source is 3 time than sink, then efficiency of the engine is:
a. 33.33% b. 66.66%
c. 70% d. 80%
54. If the engine works 500 J and the heat given by the source is 1500 J then efficiency is:
a. 30% b. 33.33%
c. 50% d. 80%

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55. In a Carnot engine 8000 J of heat is absorbed from a source at 400 K & 6500 J of heat is rejected
to the sink. The temperature of the sink is:
a. 400 K b. 325 K
c. 273 K d. 100 K
56. A sample of a gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is:
a. Isobaric b. Isochoric
c. Isothermal d. Adiabatic
57. In which process the P.V. indicator diagram is a straight line parallel to volume axis:
a. Isobaric b. Isochoric
c. Irreversible d. Isothermal
58. In which process entropy remains constant i.e. ISOENTROPIC PROCESS:
a. Isobaric b. Isochoric
c. Adiabatic d. Isothermal
59. A 2 Kg copper block is heated to 500℃ and then it is placed on a large block of ice at 0℃. If the
specific heat capacity of copper is 400 J/Kg℃ and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5 × 105 J/Kg.
The amount of ice that can melt is:
a. (7/8) Kg b. (7/5) Kg
c. (8/7) Kg d. (5/7) Kg

60. A lead bullet strikes against a steel plate with a velocity 200 m/s. If the impact is perfectly
inelastic and the heat produced is equally shared between the bullet and the target, then the
rise in the temperature of the bullet is: (Specific Heat Capacity of lead = 125 J/Kg K)
a. 80℃ b. 60℃
c. 160℃ d. 40℃
61. The first law of thermodynamics confirms the law of:
a. Conservation of momentum
b. Conservation of energy
c. Flow of heat in a particular direction
d. Separate conservation of heat energy and mechanical energy
62. The equation of state, corresponding to 8 g of O2 is:
a. PV = RT b. PV = 8RT
RT RT
c. PV = d. PV =
2 4
63. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength (𝛌) and
𝛌
( ). If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times
𝟐
that in the first case, the work function of the surface of the material is:
[Given h = Planck’s constant, c = Speed of Light]:
hc hc
a. λ
c. 3λ
2hc hc
b. λ
d. 2λ
64. In a photoelectric effect, monochromatic light, is incident on a metal surface. If the light of twice
the intensity but of same wave length is incident, the kinetic energy of the emitted electron:
a. Becomes double
b. Becomes half
c. Remains same
d. First increase then decreases

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65. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 4 m away. When the same source of
light is placed 8 m away, the electrons emitted by the photocathode
a. Carry one quarter of their previous energy
b. Carry one quarter of their previous momenta
c. Are half as numerous
d. Are one-quarter as numerous
66. The reverse process of Photoelectric effect is:
A. Compton effect C. Pair-production
B. Annihilation D. X-rays production
67. Minimum energy required by the electron to leave the metal surface is called as ________ of the
metal surface:
A. Threshold frequency C. Cut-off frequency
B. Work function D. Threshold energy
68. Wave theory of light cannot prove the:
A. Reflection of light C. Polarization
B. Photoelectric effect D. Interference of light
69. Rank following electromagnetic radiations according to the energies of their photon, from least
to greatest:
1. Blue light
2. X-rays
3. Yellow light
4. Radio waves
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 4, 2, 1, 3
B. 4, 3, 1, 2 D. 3, 2, 1, 4
70. A photon of wavelength 1000 A° has energy 12.4 eV. If the light of wavelength 5000 A°, having
intensity I, falls on a metal surface, the saturation current is 0.40 (𝛍A) and the stopping potential
is 1.36 V. The work function of the metal is:
a. 2.47 eV b. 1.36 eV
c. 1.12 eV d. 2.12 eV
71. Photon of high frequency will be absorbed when transition takes place from:
A. 1st to 5th orbit C. 2nd to 5th orbit
B. 3rd to 5th orbit D. 4th to 5th orbit
72. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from third orbit to the second orbit, the emitted
radiation has wavelength (R is the Rydberg’s constant):
A. 36/5 R C. 5R / 36
B. 6/5 R D. 5R / 6
73. The shortest wavelength radiation in Bracket series has wavelength:
16 R
A. R C. H
16
H
4
B. 16 R H D. RH
74. When a very strong magnetic field is applied in the path of X-rays, they will move in:
a. Straight line
b. Parabolic path
c. Circular path
d. Deflected path perpendicular to magnetic field
75. The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength 3000 A° is incident on the metal surface.
The velocity of emitted photo electrons is (Hint: Bilal’s Formula # 02):
a. 10 m/s b. 1 × 102 m/s
c. 1 × 104 m/s d. 1 × 106 m/s

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76. The value of Plank’s constant is:
A. 66.3 × 10−34 Js C. 6.63 × 10−34 Js
B. 6.63 × 10−34 s/J D. 6.63 × 10−27 ergs
77. For atomic hydrogen spectrum, which of the following series lies in visible region of
electromagnetism spectrum?
A. Lyman series C. Balmer series
B. Pashcen series D. Bohr series
78. Two protons are separated by 𝟏𝟎 m. the nuclear (N), electrostatic (E), and gravitational (G)
−𝟏𝟔

forces between these protons, in order of increasing strength, are:

A. E, N, G C. N, G, E
B. G, E, N D. G, N, E
79. If a nucleus has mass “M”, “Z” protons (mass mp), and “N” neutrons (mass mn), its binding energy
is equal to:
A. Mc2 C. (M –Zmp –Nmn)c2
B. (Zmp + Nmn – M)c2 D. (Zmp + Nmn )c2
80. Starting with a sample of pure Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn is 15 minutes. The corresponding
half-life is:
A. 15 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. 7 minutes D. 3.75 minutes
81. Radioactive 99Sr has a half-life of 30 years. What percent of a sample of 90Sr will remain after 60
years?
A. 0% C. 25%
B. 50% D. 75%
82. The half-life of a radioactive is 6.5 hours. If there are initially 48× 𝟏𝟎𝟑𝟐 atoms of this isotope, the
number of atoms of this isotope remaining after 26 h is:
A. 12 × 1032 C. 6 × 1032
B. 3× 10 32
D. 6 × 104
83. An alpha particle is:
a. a helium atom with two electrons removed
b. an aggregate of two or more electrons
c. a hydrogen atom
d. the ultimate unit of positive charge
84. Radioactive polonium, 214Po (Z=84), decays by alpha emission to:
A. 214Po (Z=84) C. 210Pb (Z=82)
B. 214 At (Z=85) D. 213Po (Z=84)
85. A beta particle is:
a. a helium nucleus
b. a radioactive element
c. an electron or a positron
d. any negative particle
86. A radioactive element “X” emits a 𝛃-particle. The resulting atom:
a. Must be very reactive chemically
b. Has an atomic number that is one more than that of “X”
c. Has a mass number that is on less than that of “X”
d. Must be radioactive
87. A nucleus with mass number “A” and atomic number “Z” undergoes 𝛃+ decay. The mass number
and atomic number, respectively, of the daughter nucleus are:
A. A − 1, Z − 1 C. A, Z − 1
B. A + 1, Z + 1 D. A, Z + 1
88. An atom of 235U (Z=92) disintegrates to 207Pb (Z=82) with a half-life of about a billion years by
emitting seven alpha particles and ____________ 𝛃-particles:
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 A. 3 C. 4
B. 5 D. 6
89. A certain stable nuclide, after absorbing a neutron emits a 𝛃− and the new nuclide splits
spontaneously into two alpha particles. The (A & Z) of the nucleus must have been:
A. 6, 2 C. 6, 3
B. 7, 2 D. 7, 3
90. An alpha particle is emitted from 82Ra224, what is the mass and atomic number of the daughter
nucleus?
Mass Number Atomic Number
A. 224 84
B. 220 80
C. 222 86
D. 226 87
91. the half-life radioactive element depends upon:
a. Temperature
b. Nature of element
c. Pressure
d. Amount of radioactive substance
92. Half-life of Radium is 1590 years. In how many years shall the Earth loss all his radium due to
radioactive decay?
A. 1590 × 106 years C. 1590 × 1012 years
B. 1590 × 10 years
25
D. Never
93. Which one of the following radiation possess maximum penetrating power?
A. α-rays C. β-rays
B. γ-rays D. All have equal penetrating power
94. Half-life of Iodine-131 is 8 days and its weight at t=0 is 20 mg. After 4 half-lives, the amount left
un-decayed will be:
A. 2.5 mg C. 1.25 mg
B. 0.625 mg D. 0.1325 mg
95. The weight of a radioactive element is 1 g. After 3 days, it becomes 0.25 g. The half-life of the
element is:
A. 72 hours C. 36 hours
B. 144 hours D. Pata bhe hota to na batate
96. The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to
Einstein’s equation, the metals which will emit photo electrons for a radiation of wavelength
4100 A° is/are:
A. None of these C. A & B only
B. A only D. All 3 metals
97. Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct choice given in the answers.
A. In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric current produced is not proportional to the intensity
of light.
B. In photoelectric effect, the velocity of photoelectrons depends on the wavelength of the
incident radiation
a. Both A & B are true b. Both A & B are false
c. A is true but B is false d. A is false B is true
98. The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the following is correct?

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 a. Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
b. Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.
c. Curves (c) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
d. Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having the same intensity.
99. The threshold wavelength for a photo sensitive surface is 6000 A° and the wavelength of incident
light is 5000 A°. Then the maximum energy of emitted electron is:
a. 0.041 eV
b. 0.41 eV
c. 4.1 eV
d. 41 eV

100. Light of wavelength 4000 A° is incident on a metal whose work function is 2 eV. The maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons would be:

a. 2.0 eV
b. 1.5 eV
c. 1.1 eV
d. 0.5 eV

“Success in Exams Is Directly Proportional to Your Class Attention, Notes Preparation, Tests &
Revision … While This Is Inversely Proportional to Your Careless Attitude Towards Studies.
Whereas Your DHEETPAN Remains Constant in the Entire Scenario”

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