Paf Gdp&Cae AD A&SD logistic branch initial test most important everytime most

repeated and Guranteed academic questions must prepare before your test

Created by Sir Dr Bilal Arif

&

Major(R) Muhammad Arif

Start your preparation

1. Alternating current (AC) changes direction:

a) Periodically

b) Irregularly

c) Continuously

d) In one direction only

Answer: a) Periodically

2. The frequency of an AC waveform is measured in:

a) Volts

b) Hertz

c) Amperes

d) Watts

Answer: b) Hertz

3. The peak value of an AC voltage or current is:

a) The maximum value it reaches during each cycle

b) The average value over one complete cycle

c) The root mean square (RMS) value

d) The effective value

 Answer: a) The maximum value it reaches during each cycle

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4. The root mean square (RMS) value of an AC waveform is:

a) Equal to its peak value

b) Equal to its average value

c) The square root of the average of the squares of its values

d) Equal to zero

Answer: c) The square root of the average of the squares of its values

1. Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating:

a) Electric charge from magnetism

 b) Magnetic field from electricity

c) Electric current from magnetism

d) Magnetic force from electric charge

Answer: c) Electric current from magnetism

2. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced

electromotive force (emf) in a circuit is proportional to the:

a) Resistance of the circuit

b) Current flowing through the circuit

c) Time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit

d) Voltage applied to the circuit

Answer: c) Time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit

3. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by:

a) Michael Faraday

b) James Clerk Maxwell

c) Alessandro Volta

d) Hans Christian Oersted

Answer: a) Michael Faraday

4. Lenz's law states that the direction of the induced current in a circuit is such that
it opposes the change in:

a) Magnetic field strength

b) Electric field strength

c) Voltage

d) Magnetic flux

Answer: d) Magnetic flux

5. The SI unit of magnetic flux is the:

 a) Tesla (T)

b) Weber (Wb)

c) Henry (H)

d) Coulomb (C)

Answer: b) Weber

1. Which of the following is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles
in a substance?

a) Temperature

b) Heat

c) Thermal energy

d) Entropy

Answer: a) Temperature

2. The transfer of thermal energy between two objects due to a temperature

difference is called:

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

Answer: a) Conduction

3. The total energy of an object due to the motion of its particles is called:

a) Temperature

b) Heat

c) Thermal energy

d) Entropy
 Answer: c) Thermal energy

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4. Which of the following is a unit of heat energy?

a) Celsius (°C)

b) Joule (J)

c) Kelvin (K)

d) Watt (W)

Answer: b) Joule (J)

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5. The specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of:

a) One kilogram of the substance by one degree Celsius

b) One gram of the substance by one degree Celsius

c) One mole of the substance by one degree Celsius

d) One liter of the substance by one degree Celsius

Answer: a) One kilogram of the substance by one degree Celsius

6. Which of the following statements is true about thermal expansion?

a) All substances contract when heated

b) Solids expand more than liquids when heated

c) Gases contract when heated

d) Liquids expand more than solids when heated

Answer: b) Solids expand more than liquids when heated

7. The process by which a gas changes to a liquid is called:

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Sublimation

d) Deposition

Answer: b) Condensation

8. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of:

a) Conservation of energy

b) Conservation of momentum

c) Conservation of mass

d) Conservation of charge
 Answer: a) Conservation of energy

9. The efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of:

a) Work done by the engine to the heat input

b) Heat input to the work done by the engine

c) Heat output to the heat input

d) Work done by the engine to the heat output

Answer: d) Work done by the engine to the heat output

10. The process by which a substance changes directly from a solid to a gas without
passing through the liquid phase is called:

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Sublimation

d) Deposition

Answer: c) Sublimation

11. The entropy of a system:

a) Always increases in an irreversible process

b) Always decreases in an irreversible process

c) Remains constant in an irreversible process

d) Depends on the temperature only

Answer: a) Always increases in an irreversible process

12. The second law of thermodynamics states that:

a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed

b) Energy tends to disperse and become more disorderly

c) Heat flows from hot to cold objects

 d) The entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero is zero

Answer: b) Energy tends to disperse and become more disorderly

13. The heat required to change the phase of a substance without changing its
temperature is called:

a) Sensible heat

b) Latent heat

c) Specific heat

d) Thermal heat

Answer: b) Latent heat

14. The process by which a substance changes from a gas to a solid without passing
through the liquid phase is called:

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Sublimation

d) Deposition

Answer: d) Deposition

15. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:

a) The nature of the working substance

b) The temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs

c) The pressure of the working substance

d) The volume of the working substance

Answer: b) The temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs

16. Which of the following is not a method of heat transfer?

a) Conduction

b) Convection
 c) Radiation

d) Compression

Answer: d) Compression

17. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs at

temperatures TH and TC is given by:

a) 1 - (TC/TH)

b) (TH - TC)/TH

c) (TH - TC)/TC

d) 1 - (TH/TC)

Answer: b) (TH - TC)/TH

18. The temperature at which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas is called
its:

a) Melting point

b) Boiling point

c) Freezing point

d) Condensation point

Answer: b) Boiling point

19. The temperature at which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid is called
its:

a) Melting point

b) Boiling point

c) Freezing point

d) Condensation point

Answer: a) Melting point

20. The efficiency of a heat engine is always less than:

 a) 100%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 0%

Answer: a) 100%

1. What is the SI unit of electric charge?

a) Ampere (A)

b) Volt (V)

c) Coulomb (C)

d) Ohm (Ω)

Answer: c) Coulomb (C)

2. Coulomb's law describes the force between two:

a) Magnets

b) Electric fields

c) Electric charges

d) Conductors

Answer: c) Electric charges

3. The force between two point charges is directly proportional to the:

a) Product of the charges

b) Square of the distance between them

c) Inverse of the charges

d) Cube of the distance between them

Answer: a) Product of the charges

4. The SI unit of electric field strength is:

 a) Coulomb (C)

b) Volt (V)

c) Joule (J)

d) Newton per coulomb (N/C)

Answer: d) Newton per coulomb (N/C)

5. Which of the following statements is true about electric field lines?

a) They only exist in conductors

b) They always point towards positive charges

c) They never intersect

d) They are closer together where the field is weaker

Answer: c) They never intersect

6. The work done in moving a charge through an electric field depends on:

a) The magnitude of the charge

b) The distance moved

c) The angle between the direction of motion and the electric field

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

7. The electric potential at a point is defined as:

a) The work done in moving a charge to that point from infinity

b) The charge per unit volume at that point

c) The rate of change of electric field at that point

d) The force experienced by a charge at that point

Answer: a) The work done in moving a charge to that point from infinity

8. The SI unit of electric potential is the:

 a) Volt (V)

b) Coulomb (C)

c) Joule (J)

d) Newton (N)

Answer: a) Volt (V)

9. In a uniform electric field, the equipotential surfaces are:

a) Parallel planes

b) Concentric spheres

c) Parallel lines

d) Irregular shapes

Answer: a) Parallel planes

10. Which of the following statements is true about electric potential energy?

a) It depends only on the magnitude of the charges

b) It is a scalar quantity

c) It decreases as the distance between charges decreases

d) It is always positive

Answer: b) It is a scalar quantity

11. The electric potential difference between two points is defined as:

a) The difference in electric field strength between the two points

b) The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the other

c) The difference in electric potential energy between the two points

d) The product of the electric field and the distance between the two points

Answer: b) The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the
other
12. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:

a) Zero

b) Uniform

c) Strongest at the surface

d) Weakest at the surface

Answer: a) Zero

13. The process of removing excess charge from an object by transferring it to the
ground is called:

a) Charging by conduction

b) Charging by induction

c) Grounding

d) Neutralization

Answer: c) Grounding

14. Which of the following materials is a good insulator?

a) Copper

b) Aluminum

c) Glass

d) Silver

Answer: c) Glass

15. The force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is called
the:

a) Electric force

b) Magnetic force

c) Electrostatic force

d) Gravitational force

Answer: b) Magnetic force

16. An object becomes positively charged when it:

a) Loses protons

b) Gains electrons

c) Loses electrons

d) Gains protons

Answer: c) Loses electrons

17. The electric field inside a parallel-plate capacitor is:

a) Zero

b) Uniform

c) Strongest at the edges

d) Strongest at the center

Answer: b) Uniform

18. The process of charging a neutral object by bringing a charged object close to it,
without direct contact, is called:

a) Charging by conduction

b) Charging by induction

c) Grounding

d) Neutralization

Answer: b) Charging by induction

19. The electric field between two parallel plates of a capacitor is strongest:

a) Near the positive plate

b) Near the negative plate

c) Near the center of the plates

d) At the edges of the plates

 Answer: d) At the edges of the plates

20. Coulomb's law is analogous to which of the following laws of motion?

a) Newton's first law

b) Newton's second law

c) Newton's third law

d) Newton's law of gravitation

Answer: d) Newton's law of gravitation

6. An electromotive force (emf) is induced in a wire loop when there is a change in:

a) Electric potential

b) Electric charge

c) Magnetic field

d) Resistance

Answer: c) Magnetic field

7. The magnitude of the induced emf in a coil is directly proportional to the:

a) Number of turns in the coil

b) Resistance of the coil

c) Length of the coil

d) Diameter of the coil

Answer: a) Number of turns in the coil

8. A transformer works on the principle of:

a) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction

b) Lenz's law

c) Ohm's law

d) Newton's second law

 Answer: a) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction

9. Mutual induction occurs when:

a) A changing current in one coil induces an emf in a nearby coil

b) A changing magnetic field induces an emf in the same coil

c) A constant current in one coil induces an emf in a nearby coil

d) A changing electric field induces an emf in a nearby coil

Answer: a) A changing current in one coil induces an emf in a nearby coil

10. Self-induction occurs when:

a) A changing current in one coil induces an emf in a nearby coil

b) A changing magnetic field induces an emf in the same coil

c) A constant current in one coil induces an emf in a nearby coil

d) A changing electric field induces an emf in a nearby coil

Answer: b) A changing magnetic field induces an emf in the same coil

11. A current is induced in a closed loop of wire when the magnetic flux through the
loop:

a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains constant

d) Reverses direction

Answer: a) Increases

12. Which of the following factors does not affect the magnitude of the induced emf
in a coil?

a) Rate of change of magnetic flux

b) Number of turns in the coil

c) Resistance of the coil

 d) Permeability of the material

Answer: c) Resistance of the coil

13. The transformer equation relates the voltage, number of turns, and:

a) Current

b) Power

c) Frequency

d) Magnetic flux

Answer: a) Current

14. The primary coil of a transformer is connected to an alternating current source.

The induced emf in the secondary coil is proportional to the:

a) Voltage of the primary coil

b) Resistance of the primary coil

c) Turns ratio of the coils

d) Magnetic flux in the core

Answer: c) Turns ratio of the coils

15. A step-up transformer:

a) Increases the voltage and decreases the current

b) Decreases the voltage and increases the current

c) Increases both the voltage and the current

d) Decreases both the voltage and the current

Answer: a) Increases the voltage and decreases the current

16. A step-down transformer:

a) Increases the voltage and decreases the current

b) Decreases the voltage and increases the current

 c) Increases both the voltage and the current

d) Decreases both the voltage and the current

Answer: b) Decreases the voltage and increases the current

17. In electromagnetic induction, the rate of change of magnetic flux is given by the
equation:

a) Φ = BA cos(θ)

b) Φ = BAsin(θ)

c) Φ = BAtan(θ)

d) Φ = BAcot(θ)

Answer: a) Φ = BA cos(θ)

18. An increase in the number of turns in a coil would result in:

a) An increase in the induced emf

b) A decrease in the induced emf

c) No change in the induced emf

d) An increase in the magnetic field strength

Answer: a) An increase in the induced emf

19. When a coil rotates in a magnetic field, the induced emf is maximum when:

a) The coil is parallel to the magnetic field lines

b) The coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines

c) The coil is at an angle of 45 degrees to the magnetic field lines

d) The coil is at an angle of 90 degrees to the magnetic field lines

Answer: b) The coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines

20. The efficiency of a transformer is given by the ratio of:

a) Output power to input power

 b) Output voltage to input voltage

c) Output current to input current

d) Output resistance to input resistance

Answer: a) Output power to input power

5. Which of the following devices is used to measure AC voltage?

a) Ammeter

b) Voltmeter

c) Galvanometer

d) Ohmmeter

Answer: b) Voltmeter

6. A device that converts AC to DC is called a:

a) Transformer

b) Rectifier

c) Capacitor

d) Inductor

Answer: b) Rectifier

passes from one medium to another with different optical densities is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Dispersion

Answer: b) Refraction

3. Which of the following phenomena explains why a pencil appears bent when
partially submerged in water?
 a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Dispersion

Answer: b) Refraction

4. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection according to:

a) Snell's Law

b) Hooke's Law

c) Ohm's Law

d) Law of Reflection

Answer: d) Law of Reflection

5. The bending of light around obstacles or edges is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Dispersion

Answer: c) Diffraction

6. A lens that converges light rays is called:

a) Concave lens

b) Convex lens

c) Diverging lens

d) Plano-convex lens

Answer: b) Convex lens

7. The distance between the focal point and the center of the lens or mirror is
called the:

a) Focal length

b) Aperture

c) Radius of curvature

d) Principal axis

Answer: a) Focal length

8. Which of the following optical devices uses refraction to produce an image?

a) Telescope

b) Microscope

c) Camera

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

9. A nearsighted person can see nearby objects clearly but distant objects appear
blurred due to:

a) Hyperopia

b) Myopia

c) Astigmatism

d) Presbyopia

Answer: b) Myopia

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10. The bending of light rays as they pass through a prism is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Dispersion

Answer: d) Dispersion

11. A mirror with a surface that curves inward is called a:

a) Convex mirror

b) Concave mirror

c) Plane mirror

d) Spherical mirror

Answer: b) Concave mirror

12. The phenomenon where white light is separated into its constituent colors is
called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction
 c) Diffraction

d) Dispersion

Answer: d) Dispersion

13. The process of focusing light rays to form an image is known as:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Imaging

Answer: d) Imaging

14. The ability of a lens to bend light is determined by its:

a) Index of refraction

b) Focal length

c) Radius of curvature

d) Diameter

Answer: a) Index of refraction

15. The point where parallel light rays converge after passing through a lens or
reflecting from a concave mirror is called the:

a) Focal point

b) Center of curvature

c) Vertex

d) Principal axis

Answer: a) Focal point

16. The phenomenon where light waves cancel each other out in some regions and
reinforce each other in others is called:

a) Reflection
 b) Refraction

c) Interference

d) Diffraction

Answer: c) Interference

17. Which of the following statements is true about convex mirrors?

a) They produce virtual, upright, and diminished images

b) They produce real, inverted, and diminished images

c) They produce real, inverted, and magnified images

d) They produce virtual, upright, and magnified images

Answer: a) They produce virtual, upright, and diminished images

18. The phenomenon where a wave changes direction upon passing through an
aperture or around an obstacle is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Interference

d) Diffraction

Answer: d) Diffraction

19. Which of the following optical defects occurs due to the irregular curvature of
the cornea or lens?

a) Myopia

b) Hyperopia

c) Astigmatism

d) Presbyopia

Answer: c) Astigmatism
20. The angle between the incident ray and the normal to the surface at the point of
incidence is called the:

a) Angle of reflection

b) Angle of incidence

c) Angle of refraction

d) Angle of deviation

Answer: b) Angle of incidence

7. The device used to step up or step down AC voltage is called a:

a) Rectifier

b) Transformer

c) Capacitor

d) Inductor

Answer: b) Transformer

8. Which of the following statements is true about the voltage and current in an AC
circuit?

a) Voltage and current are in phase

b) Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

c) Voltage lags current by 90 degrees

d) Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Answer: d) Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

9. In an AC circuit with a purely resistive load, the power consumed is:

a) Maximum at all times

b) Zero at all times

c) Maximum at the peak of the voltage waveform

d) Maximum at the zero-crossing points of the voltage waveform

Answer: c) Maximum at the peak of the voltage waveform

1. What is the SI unit of frequency?

a) Hertz (Hz)

b) Second (s)

c) Joule (J)

d) Newton (N)

Answer: a) Hertz (Hz)

2. The time taken for one complete oscillation is called the:

a) Amplitude

b) Period

c) Frequency

d) Wavelength

Answer: b) Period

3. Which of the following equations represents the relationship between period (T)
and frequency (f)?

a) \( T = \frac{1}{f} \)

b) \( T = f \)

c) \( f = \frac{1}{T} \)

d) \( f = T \)

Answer: a) \( T = \frac{1}{f} \)

4. The maximum displacement of an oscillating object from its equilibrium position

is called its:

a) Amplitude

b) Period

c) Frequency
 d) Wavelength

Answer: a) Amplitude

5. The force that tends to bring a system back to its equilibrium position after being
disturbed is called:

a) Centripetal force

b) Gravitational force

c) Restoring force

d) Frictional force

Answer: c) Restoring force

6. Which of the following is an example of an oscillatory motion?

a) Projectile motion

b) Circular motion

c) Pendulum motion

d) Straight-line motion

Answer: c) Pendulum motion

7. The time taken for one complete cycle of an oscillation is independent of the:

a) Amplitude

b) Frequency

c) Mass of the object

d) Spring constant

Answer: a) Amplitude

8. Which of the following factors affects the period of a simple pendulum?

a) Length of the pendulum

b) Mass of the pendulum bob

 c) Amplitude of the oscillation

d) Spring constant

Answer: a) Length of the pendulum

9. A mass-spring system has a period of 2 seconds. What is its frequency?

a) 0.5 Hz

b) 1 Hz

c) 2 Hz

d) 4 Hz

Answer: b) 1 Hz

10. The natural frequency of an oscillating system depends on:

a) Amplitude

b) Damping

c) Mass and stiffness

d) Frequency of the driving force

Answer: c) Mass and stiffness

11. A simple pendulum has a longer period when:

a) Its length is increased

b) Its mass is increased

c) Its amplitude is increased

d) Its acceleration due to gravity is increased

Answer: a) Its length is increased

12. Damping in an oscillatory system:

a) Increases the amplitude of oscillation

b) Decreases the amplitude of oscillation

 c) Has no effect on the amplitude of oscillation

d) Increases the frequency of oscillation

Answer: b) Decreases the amplitude of oscillation

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13. A mass-spring system has a period of 4 seconds. What is its frequency?

a) 0.25 Hz

b) 0.5 Hz

c) 1 Hz

d) 2 Hz

Answer: a) 0.25 Hz

14. The amplitude of an oscillating system:

 a) Is the maximum displacement from equilibrium

b) Is the time taken for one complete cycle

c) Is the reciprocal of frequency

d) Is the rate of change of displacement

Answer: a) Is the maximum displacement from equilibrium

15. In a damped oscillatory system, energy is:

a) Constant

b) Conserved

c) Lost to the surroundings

d) Transformed into kinetic energy

Answer: c) Lost to the surroundings

16. Which of the following statements is true about the period of a pendulum?

a) It depends on the amplitude of oscillation

b) It is inversely proportional to the length of the pendulum

c) It is directly proportional to the mass of the pendulum bob

d) It is independent of the gravitational acceleration

Answer: b) It is inversely proportional to the length of the pendulum

17. The frequency of a vibrating string depends on:

a) Its length

b) Its tension

c) Its mass per unit length

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

18. A pendulum clock is more accurate when:

 a) Its length is shorter

b) Its length is longer

c) Its mass is greater

d) Its amplitude is smaller

Answer: b) Its length is longer

19. The natural frequency of a vibrating system is determined by:

a) The amplitude of oscillation

b) The driving force

c) The mass and stiffness of the system

d) The damping coefficient

Answer: c) The mass and stiffness of the system

20. A vibrating guitar string has a higher frequency when:

a) It is shorter and thicker

b) It is longer and thinner

c) It is shorter and thinner

d) It is longer and thicker

Answer: a) It is shorter and thicker

10. The reactance of a capacitor in an AC circuit:

a) Increases with increasing frequency

b) Decreases with increasing frequency

c) Remains constant with frequency

d) Depends only on the capacitance value

Answer: a) Increases with increasing frequency

11. The reactance of an inductor in an AC circuit:

a) Increases with increasing frequency

 b) Decreases with increasing frequency

c) Remains constant with frequency

d) Depends only on the inductance value

Answer: b) Decreases with increasing frequency

12. The impedance of an AC circuit is the:

a) Opposition to the flow of current

b) Square root of the product of resistance and reactance

c) Ratio of voltage to current

d) Reciprocal of resistance

Answer: a) Opposition to the flow of current

13. Which of the following AC circuits has the highest impedance?

a) Purely resistive

b) Purely capacitive

c) Purely inductive

d) Series RL circuit

Answer: d) Series RL circuit

14. The phase angle between voltage and current in a purely resistive AC circuit is:

a) 0 degrees

b) 45 degrees

c) 90 degrees

d) 180 degrees

Answer: a) 0 degrees

15. The power factor of a purely resistive AC circuit is:

a) 0
 b) 0.5

c) 1

d) Infinite

Answer: c) 1

16. The power factor of a purely inductive AC circuit is:

a) 0

b) 0.5

c) 1

d) Infinite

Answer: a) 0

17. Which of the following is used to measure the power in an AC circuit?

a) Ammeter

b) Voltmeter

c) Galvanometer

d) Wattmeter

Answer: d) Wattmeter

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of an LC circuit?

a) It resonates at a specific frequency

b) It has a power factor of 1

c) It only consists of inductors

d) It only consists of capacitors

Answer: a) It resonates at a specific frequency

19. The Q-factor of an LC circuit is a measure of its:

a) Power factor
 b) Resonance frequency

c) Quality of resonance

d) Capacitance

Answer: c) Quality of resonance

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20. In an AC circuit, the phase angle between voltage and current can be calculated
using:

a) Ohm's law

b) Kirchhoff's law

c) The power factor

d) The impedance triangle

Answer: d) The impedance tria

1. What is the SI unit of frequency?

a) Hertz (Hz)

b) Second (s)

c) Joule (J)

d) Newton (N)

Answer: a) Hertz (Hz)

2. The time taken for one complete oscillation is called the:

a) Amplitude

b) Period

c) Frequency

d) Wavelength

Answer: b) Period

3. Which of the following equations represents the relationship between period (T)
and frequency (f)?

a) \( T = \frac{1}{f} \)

b) \( T = f \)

c) \( f = \frac{1}{T} \)

d) \( f = T \)

Answer: a) \( T = \frac{1}{f} \)

4. The maximum displacement of an oscillating object from its equilibrium position

is called its:

a) Amplitude

b) Period

c) Frequency

d) Wavelength
 Answer: a) Amplitude

5. The force that tends to bring a system back to its equilibrium position after being
disturbed is called:

a) Centripetal force

b) Gravitational force

c) Restoring force

d) Frictional force

Answer: c) Restoring force

6. Which of the following is an example of an oscillatory motion?

a) Projectile motion

b) Circular motion

c) Pendulum motion

d) Straight-line motion

Answer: c) Pendulum motion

7. The time taken for one complete cycle of an oscillation is independent of the:

a) Amplitude

b) Frequency

c) Mass of the object

d) Spring constant

Answer: a) Amplitude

8. Which of the following factors affects the period of a simple pendulum?

a) Length of the pendulum

b) Mass of the pendulum bob

c) Amplitude of the oscillation

 d) Spring constant

Answer: a) Length of the pendulum

9. A mass-spring system has a period of 2 seconds. What is its frequency?

a) 0.5 Hz

b) 1 Hz

c) 2 Hz

d) 4 Hz

Answer: b) 1 Hz

10. The natural frequency of an oscillating system depends on:

a) Amplitude

b) Damping

c) Mass and stiffness

d) Frequency of the driving force

Answer: c) Mass and stiffness

11. A simple pendulum has a longer period when:

a) Its length is increased

b) Its mass is increased

c) Its amplitude is increased

d) Its acceleration due to gravity is increased

Answer: a) Its length is increased

12. Damping in an oscillatory system:

a) Increases the amplitude of oscillation

b) Decreases the amplitude of oscillation

c) Has no effect on the amplitude of oscillation

 d) Increases the frequency of oscillation

Answer: b) Decreases the amplitude of oscillation

13. A mass-spring system has a period of 4 seconds. What is its frequency?

a) 0.25 Hz

b) 0.5 Hz

c) 1 Hz

d) 2 Hz

Answer: a) 0.25 Hz

14. The amplitude of an oscillating system:

a) Is the maximum displacement from equilibrium

b) Is the time taken for one complete cycle

c) Is the reciprocal of frequency

d) Is the rate of change of displacement

Answer: a) Is the maximum displacement from equilibrium

15. In a damped oscillatory system, energy is:

a) Constant

b) Conserved

c) Lost to the surroundings

d) Transformed into kinetic energy

Answer: c) Lost to the surroundings

16. Which of the following statements is true about the period of a pendulum?

a) It depends on the amplitude of oscillation

b) It is inversely proportional to the length of the pendulum

c) It is directly proportional to the mass of the pendulum bob

 d) It is independent of the gravitational acceleration

Answer: b) It is inversely proportional to the length of the pendulum

17. The frequency of a vibrating string depends on:

a) Its length

b) Its tension

c) Its mass per unit length

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

18. A pendulum clock is more accurate when:

a) Its length is shorter

b) Its length is longer

c) Its mass is greater

d) Its amplitude is smaller

Answer: b) Its length is longer

19. The natural frequency of a vibrating system is determined by:

a) The amplitude of oscillation

b) The driving force

c) The mass and stiffness of the system

d) The damping coefficient

Answer: c) The mass and stiffness of the system

20. A vibrating guitar string has a higher frequency when:

a) It is shorter and thicker

b) It is longer and thinner

c) It is shorter and thinner

 d) It is longer and thicker

Answer: a) It is shorter and thicker

1. Which of the following types of waves require a medium to propagate?

a) Electromagnetic waves

b) Transverse waves

c) Longitudinal waves

d) Surface waves

Answer: c) Longitudinal waves

2. The highest point of a wave is called the:

a) Trough

b) Amplitude

c) Wavelength

d) Frequency

Answer: b) Amplitude

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3. The distance between two consecutive crests (or troughs) of a wave is called the:

a) Amplitude

b) Frequency

c) Wavelength

d) Period

Answer: c) Wavelength

4. Which of the following waves can travel through a vacuum?

a) Sound waves

b) Light waves

c) Water waves

d) Seismic waves

Answer: b) Light waves

5. The time taken for one complete oscillation of a wave is called its:

a) Wavelength

b) Frequency

c) Amplitude

d) Period

Answer: d) Period

6. In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate:

a) Parallel to the direction of wave propagation

 b) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation

c) In a circular motion

d) In random directions

Answer: b) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation

7. The number of complete oscillations of a wave per unit time is called its:

a) Wavelength

b) Amplitude

c) Frequency

d) Period

Answer: c) Frequency

8. Which of the following statements is true about the speed of a wave?

a) It depends only on the frequency of the wave

b) It depends only on the amplitude of the wave

c) It depends on both the frequency and wavelength of the wave

d) It depends only on the medium through which the wave travels

Answer: c) It depends on both the frequency and wavelength of the wave

9. The distance between a wave's resting position and its crest is called its:

a) Wavelength

b) Amplitude

c) Frequency

d) Period

Answer: b) Amplitude

10. Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal wave?

a) Water wave
 b) Sound wave

c) Light wave

d) Radio wave

Answer: b) Sound wave

11. The phenomenon where two waves overlap to produce a wave of increased or
decreased amplitude is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Interference

Answer: d) Interference

12. The bending of waves around obstacles or the edges of openings is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Interference

Answer: c) Diffraction

13. The speed of sound in air:

a) Increases with increasing temperature

b) Decreases with increasing temperature

c) Is independent of temperature

d) Is faster in solids than in gases

Answer: a) Increases with increasing temperature

14. The medium through which a mechanical wave travels:

 a) Does not experience any displacement

b) Moves with the wave

c) Is always a solid

d) Is not affected by the wave

Answer: b) Moves with the wave

15. The change in direction of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is
called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Interference

Answer: b) Refraction

16. The phenomenon where waves bounce back after striking a boundary is called:

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Diffraction

d) Interference

Answer: a) Reflection

17. The distance between two successive identical points on a wave is called:

a) Frequency

b) Wavelength

c) Amplitude

d) Period

Answer: b) Wavelength
18. Sound waves are an example of:

a) Transverse waves

b) Longitudinal waves

c) Electromagnetic waves

d) Surface waves

Answer: b) Longitudinal waves

19. The time taken for a wave to complete one full cycle is:

a) Wavelength

b) Amplitude

c) Frequency

d) Period

Answer: d) Period

20. Which of the following types of waves can be polarized?

a) Sound waves

b) Light waves

c) Water waves

d) Seismic waves

Answer: b) Light waves