A2015_C1_LRW

NOCN ESOL International
Level C1 Advanced LIVE May 2015

Examination Paper
ESOL International
English Listening Examination
Level C1 Advanced
Instructions to learners
Check that you have the correct paper.
Please complete the information on the mark sheet.
Record your answers on the mark sheet.
Use black or blue ink. Do not use pencil.
Total marks available: 31
You have 30 minutes to finish the examination.
ESOL International Page 2 of 20

Level C1 Advanced Listening and Reading Paper
LIVE May 2015 Version 1.0
Examination Paper
Part 1
You will hear 10 sentences twice. Choose the best reply in each situation.
Now look at the replies. You have two minutes to read the replies.
Now listen to the sentences and select the best reply. Mark the answer on the mark sheet.
1. a. I think I’m coming down with flu.

b. I think I’m going down with flu.
c. I think I’m lying down with flu.
2. a. Yes, it needs do up.

b. Yes, it needs to do up.
c. Yes, it needs doing up.
3. a. I agree, they don’t always see face to face.

b. I agree, they don’t always see face to eye.
c. I agree, they don’t always see eye to eye.
4. a. No, I don’t rely on him.

b. No, I don’t put up with him.
c. No, I don’t get on with him.
5. a. Yes, I’m really looking forward to living in the UK.

b. Yes, I’m really looking forward to live in the UK.
c. Yes, I’m really looking to living in the UK.

Examination Paper
6. a. I’ll do it now; I don’t like taking things off.

b. I’ll do it now; I don’t like putting things off.
c. I’ll do it now; I don’t like putting making off.
7. a. He asked where the bank were.

b. He asked where was the bank.
c. He asked where the bank was.
8. a. Nothing, she just burst to tears.

b. Nothing, she just burst into crying.
c. Nothing, she just burst into tears.
9. a. No, I think she is dishonest.

b. No, I think she is unhonest.
c. No, I think she is illoyal.
10. a. I don’t like them, too.

b. I don’t like them, either.
c. I don’t like them, neither.

Examination Paper
Part 2
You will now hear two conversations. You will hear them twice. You have two minutes to look at the
questions for both conversations.
Now listen to Conversation 1. Record your answers to the questions on the mark sheet.
Conversation 1
1. What was David’s first job?

a. Acting
b. DJ-ing
c. Working in a bank
2. What feature of character does David dislike about other people?

a. Being lazy
b. Being selfish
c. Being rude
3. What is David’s favourite item?

a. His house in new York
b. His vinyl record collection
c. The ring he got from Peter Jackson
4. What superpower would David like to have?

a. X-ray vision
b. Flying
c. Being able to make people feel better about themselves
5. Why did David hate his job at the bank?

a. He didn’t like the boss
b. A customer was rude
c. It was boring
Listen to the conversation again and check your answers.

Examination Paper
Now listen to Conversation 2. Record your answers on the mark sheet.
1. Who does Steve work for?

a. A hotel
b. A travel agency
c. An airline
2.
What was the main problem with travelling?
a. The plane flying out was delayed?
b. The plane coming back was delayed
c. The place was boring
3. What time did they finally arrive at Manchester?

a. Tuesday 6 pm
b. Monday 6 pm
c. Tuesday 6 am
4. What was their holiday destination?

a. Paris
b. Manchester
c. seaside
5. How did they rate the hotel?

a. Marvellous
b. Expensive
c. Disappointing
Listen to the conversation again and check your answers.

Examination Paper
Part 3 – Debate and Discussion
You will now hear a debate and discussion. You will hear them twice. You have two minutes to look
at the questions for both the debate and the discussion. Now listen to the Debate. Record your
answers on the mark sheet.
Debate
1. What is the main subject of this debate?

a. Testing on animals
b. Animal extinction
c. Environmental protection
2. What are Lisa’s arguments to protect animals?

a. We do not own the planet
b. Animals can feel
c. Animals are equal to humans
3. What is Mark’s argument in this debate?

a. Humans are different to animals.
b. All species fight for survival.
c. Humans are better so they have the right to kill animals.
4. According to this debate, Mark suggests, that:

a. Killing other species is not always a bad thing.
b. Human species might be crippled if they do not kill
c. Moral code dictates that humans can kill animals
5. Why does Greg think humans have more rights than animals?
a. Because animals do not think
b. Because other species have no feelings
c. Because humans are aware of their own existence
6. According to this debate, which statement is true?

a. Greg thinks all animals are equal.
b. Greg thinks that none of the above are equal
c. Greg thinks all animals and plants are equal

Examination Paper
Now listen to the Discussion. Record your answers on the mark sheet.
Discussion
1. According to the discussion, social networks:

a. Lead to cyber bullying
b. Are controlled by the government
c. Can potentially be used to express prejudice
2. Natalie claims that social networking site should be:

a. Censored by governments
b. Run by governments
c. Accessed only by certain groups of people
3. George argues, that:

a. social networking sites are completely safe
b. social networking sites may become too powerful
c. social networking sites may be used to promote good causes
4. According to Tracy, why is it impossible to censor social networking sites by governments?

a. because too many people use them
b. because they are international
c. because that would be illegal
5. The phrase ‘not country specific’, as used by Tracy, means that:

a. deals with problems of one nation
b. is not owned by any one particular country
c. is not produced by any one particular country
End of Examination for Listening – Level C1

Examination Paper
ESOL International
English Reading Examination
Level C1 Advanced
Please complete the information on your mark sheet.
Use black or blue ink. Do not use a pencil.
You may NOT use a dictionary.
There are 31 questions in this examination.
You must attempt all the questions.
Record your answers on the mark sheet.

Examination Paper
Text 1
What is anti-social behaviour? 1

The term anti-social behaviour covers a wide range of unacceptable activity 2
that blights the lives of many people on a daily basis. It often leaves victims 3
feeling helpless, desperate and with a seriously reduced quality of life. Terms 4
such as ‘nuisance’, ‘disorder’ and ‘harassment’ is also often used to describe 5
this type of behaviour. 6
ASB is defined as “Behaviour by a person which causes or is likely to cause 7
harassment, alarm or distress to one or more persons not of the same 8
household as the person”. 9
(Antisocial Behaviour Act 2003 & Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 10
2011). 11
The Metropolitan Police Service classifies ASB under 3 headings as 12
“Personal”, “Nuisance” and “Environmental” in line with the National Standard 13
for Incident Recording (NSIR). These can then be given one of 13 qualifiers as 14
in the list below: 15
ASB Category 16
Personnel - ASB is percieved to be targeted at an individual or group rather 17
than the community at large 18
Nuisance - ASB is causing trouble, annoyance or suffering to the community 19
at large rather than an individual or group. 20
Environmental - The incident is not aimed at an individual or group but targets 21
the wider environment, e.g. public spaces/buildings. 22
Qualifier 23
 Vehicle Abandoned (not stolen) 24
 Vehicle Nuisance/inappropriate use 25
 Rowdy or Inconsiderate Behaviour 26
 Rowdy/Nuisance Neighbours 27
 Littering/Drugs Paraphernalia 28
 Animal Problems 29
 Trespass 30
 Nuisance Calls 31
 Street Drinking 32
 Prostitution-Related Activity 33
 Noise 34
 Begging/Vagrancy 35
 Fireworks 36
Why is tackling ASB important? 37
ASB is a key driver for public confidence in the police. Failure to tackle ASB 38
leads to increased crime, especially violence with injury and criminal damage, 39
both of which feature in the seven key neighbourhood crimes identified in the 40
Mayor’s Office for Policing and Crime (MOPAC) Policing and Crime Plan 2013- 41
2016 42

Examination Paper
1. The acronym ASB, as used in the text, stands for:

a. The name of the driver
b. Anti-social bandit
c. Anti-social behaviour
2. Which ASB categories can be applied to individuals:

a. Personal only
b. Nuisance and environmental
c. Personal and environmental
3. Which of the following are subject to ASB?

a. Dogs constantly barking at nights
b. Car being stolen
c. Bank robbery
4. According to the article, which statement is true?

a. The environmental category describes destroying nature
b. Dog littering can be subject to an ASB
c. Fireworks are illegal in the UK
5. According to the article, what is likely to happen if we don’t tackle ASB

a. More people will be arrested
b. People will have no confidence
c. The level of crime may rise

Examination Paper
6. There is a grammatical error of agreement made on:

a. Line 5
b. Line 8
c. Line 21
7. A spelling mistake has been made on:

a. Line 12
b. Line 17
c. Line 29
8. A word from line 39 has been deleted. It should be:

a. Vial
b. Violent
c. Violence
9. The word ‘rowdy’ as used on line 26 and 27 can be best replaced by:
a. Obedient
b. Disruptive
c. Compliant
10. A word has been correctly spelt but incorrectly used on:
a. Line 5
b. Line 17
c. Line 14

Examination Paper
Text 2
Recent interest in the health benefits of chocolate was sparked by studies on 1

the cocoa-drinking peoples of Central America. 2
Researchers observed that the Kuna Indians of Panama, who drank cocoa as their 3
main beverage, had very low blood pressure, a leading cause of heart disease and 4
stroke. 5
Chocolate is the processed and sweetened food produced from cocoa. Cocoa is a 6
good source of iron, magnesium, manganese, phosphorous and zinc. It also 7
contains the antioxidants catechins and procyanidins. 8
Brand experts have sought to associate chocolate, and in particular dark 9
chocolate, with the supposed health benefits of cocoa, which include protection 10
against cancer and stress relief. 11
We've teamed up with the British Dietetic Association (BDA) to 12
examine whether the health claims made about chocolate are supported by the 13
evidence. 14
The evidence 15
Blood pressure 16
A well-conducted 2012 review of the best available evidence on the affects of 17
chocolate on blood pressure concluded that cocoa products – including dark 18
chocolate – may help to slightly lower blood pressure. However, most of the 19
studies was of short duration (between two and eight weeks) and there were some 20
weaknesses in the available research. The authors of the review say longer term 21
trials are needed to further our understanding of cocoa's effect on blood pressure 22
and cardiovascular health. 23
Cancer 24
Some limited animal and laboratory research suggests a cocoa-rich diet could offer 25
protection against bowel cancer. However, it’s impossible to conclude from 26
research carried out in a laboratory that cocoa can protect people against bowel 27
cancer. 28
Stress 29
In a small study from 2009, 30 healthy people who were given 40g of dark 30
chocolate a day for 14 days experienced a reduction in stress hormones. However, 31
the study, which was funded by a major chocolate manufacturer, had several 32
limitations, including it’s short study period, and does not provide any evidence that 33
chocolate has any benefits or effects on stress. 34

Examination Paper
11. According to the text, which statement is true?

a. Research shows that chocolate is good for you.
b. Research shows that cocoa may lower your blood pressure.
c. Indians come from Panama.
12. What is the main purpose of this text?

a. To inform
b. To describe
c. To instruct
13. What was the flaw of the 2012 review?

a. It was conducted over a short period.
b. The findings were inconclusive.
c. They used the wrong type of chocolate.
14. The text suggests, that:

a. The darker chocolate is the healthier it is.
b. The lighter chocolate is the healthier it is.
c. Chocolate will protect you against cancer.
15. When testing the effects of chocolate on stress level, we may conclude that:
a. Stress level is reduced when you eat chocolate.
b. Stress level is reduced when you eat dark chocolate.
c. There is no evidence of the impact of chocolate on stress levels.

Examination Paper
16. The word has been incorrectly used on:

a. Line 12
b. Line 17
c. Line 20
17. The work ‘examine’ as used on line 13 may be best replaced by:
a. Check
b. Tested
c. Try
18. A punctuation mark has been wrongly used on:

a. Line 16
b. Line 21
c. Line 33
19. A subject verb agreement error has been made on:

a. Line 2
b. Line 12
c. Line 20
20. A word has been omitted from line 26. The missing word is:
a. However
b. Moreover
c. Despite

Examination Paper
Text 3
The health and social care sector has undergone radical change over the five decades that
Turning Point has been providing services. You could look at the last years as moving
through three stages: caring for adults with health and social care needs in large scale
institutions; then moving them out into community care; and now providing people with
individual budgets. None of these stages has been accompanied by significantly more
money. What we need to avoid at all costs is a situation where choice in health and social
care is dependent on what you can afford, rather than on what you need – a need made all
the more pressing by the rising eligibility threshold in adult social care as councils are
forced to cut budgets.
Society’s negative attitude to mental health has also significantly changed. But to tackle its
prevalence, our education system, employers and the police need to be geared towards an
understanding of wellbeing and mental health.
Looking back to 1990, the Community Care Act created a whole range of choice and
possibilities for those who needed care. Asylums and long-stay hospitals were closed
down, both the good and the bad. I say that because, for some, they were an oasis of calm,
but for many more, they were outdated places where choice was denied. I refer to them
now because I feel that this idea of sanctuary, in its most enlightened form – not as long-
stay hospitals – is essential to any successful vision of health and social care. Crisis houses
and places of sanctuary do exist, but there are not enough. Personally, I wouldn’t build a
town or city without having somewhere people could go for respite. These services would
be provided alongside support in the community as Improving Access to Psychological
Therapies, the NHS initiative that provides psychology services in primary care,
demonstrates.
My hope for the next 50 years is that we have a health and social care system that looks at
health and wellbeing holistically. One which provides a seamless service that supports an
individual’s (and or community’s) health needs; mental, emotional or physical. People do
not think in terms of mental and physical health. We only ask, “Am I well?”
We are seeing important changes in primary care, with services such as the Earl’s Court
health and wellbeing centre in west London providing wellbeing coaches, centre
champions, peer mentoring and community activities for patients in contrast to a traditional
GP practice. However, innovative services struggle because funding doesn’t yet match
patients’ expectations. We need to keep pushing for changes that mean excellent care and
support for all.

Examination Paper
21. Over what period of time have the changes in health and social care occurred?
a. 30 years
b. 40 years
c. 50 years
22. What is the current attitude towards mental health?

a. People are more positive towards mental health problems
b. People have a negative attitude towards mentally ill patients
c. People do not have enough information about mental health
23. The term ‘crisis houses’, as used in paragraph 3, is understood as:

a. Houses for people who are bankrupt
b. Houses for the government in crisis
c. Houses for people in desperate need
24. The word holistically, as used in paragraph 4, means that:

a. It refers to the whole body
b. It refers to holy people
c. It refers to mental health only
25. According to the paragraph, which sentence is true:

a. Earl’s Court provides GP services
b. Earl’s Court provides wellbeing coaches
c. Earl’s Court provides changes

Examination Paper
Text 4
Human Cloning
Animal cloning has produced some remarkable results within the last few years, which
has suggested to some that there should be a way to produce a human clone within
the next year. Many news articles have appeared recently highlighting the potential to
clone a human baby in order to replace a loved one who died as a newborn.
Many social, moral, and ethical arguments have been raised in opposition to copying
a person. But perhaps more important is the concern that we do not fully understand
the science behind the successes from animal cloning experiments.
Animal cloning success (and failure)
Dolly, the sheep, was the first successfully cloned mammal. Since 1997, gradual
improvements in cloning technology have enabled researchers to generate mouse,
cattle, goat, pig, deer, rabbit, cat, mule, and horse clones. While there have been no
substantiated evidence for the cloning of humans, recent successes by South Korean
researchers in generating stem cells from cloned human embryos have heightened
concerns that this scenario is not beyond the realm of possibility.
In spite of recent technological advances, animal cloning remains extremely
inefficient. For every 100 experiments only one, two, or if lucky, perhaps three appear
to produce a viable offspring in surrogate mothers. While scientific explanations for
these failures remain to be defined, many researchers feel they represent nothing
more than technical hurdles that will one day be solved. Even then it's survival beyond
the perinatal period is unlikely. These is no reason to believe that any different
outcomes will occur if and when human cloning begins.
A quick lesson in cloning technology
Before going into the details of why these abnormalities are thought to occur, it is
important to have a basic understanding of what in essence happens in order to clone
an animal. First, a donor cell is found, which has its original DNA extracted and
discarded. Next is the addition of a nucleus from the desired animal that is to be
cloned. The third step involves implanting the combined cell into the animal that the
donor cell was appropriated from.
Screening tools, do they exist?
Because of experience with animal clones, it is reasonable to conclude that future
human cloning experiments will have the same high failure rates. The public has
heard reassurances that the possibility of performing prenatal genetic screening exists
as a way to control quality. If these groups plan on using current routine prenatal
diagnosis for the detection of chromosomal and/or other genetic abnormalities, they
will not detect the types of epigenetic disturbances that may occur with cloning. There
are no extra tools in the developmental pipeline to help improve detection.

Examination Paper
26. According to the text, human cloning:

a. Will be possible in the near future
b. Animal cloning has been successful
c. Researchers have successfully cloned frogs
27. Which animal was cloned first?

a. The mouse
b. The cow
c. The sheep
28. The text suggests, that the level of success in cloning is:
a. Up to 3 %
b. Up to 20 %
c. Up to 50%
29. According to the text, what is implanted when cloning an animal?

a. A nucleus
b. A cell
c. DNA
30. What would be achieved if screening tools were introduced?

a. You could design the sex of an offspring
b. You could design the level of intelligence
c. You could control quality
31. What stage of the cloning process does screening take place?
a. Straight after birth
b. Before birth, during pregnancy
c. Early childhood
End of Examination for Reading – Level C1

NOCN ESOL International Writing
Examination Task Sheet
ESOL International
English Writing Examination
Level C1 Advanced
Please complete the information on your answer booklet.
Use black or blue ink. Do not use a pencil.
There are two tasks. You must attempt both tasks.
In Task 1 you must complete either Option 1 or Option 2 of the Formal

Writing Task.
You may NOT use a dictionary.
Allow time to check your work before the end of the examination.
You can ask for more writing paper if you need it.
ESOL Writing Level C1 Advanced Paper Page 1 of 4

Formal Writing Task 1 – Allow around 40 minutes for this task
You joined your local gym ‘Quick fit’ and paid for an annual membership. Unfortunately, you
shortly found that their facilities were very poor. Write a letter to the Manager
complaining about the state of the facilities. Ask for a refund of your membership fee.
You could write about:
 what the problem was with the facilities (pool, sauna, etc.)
 what happened when you spoke to the gym staff.
 what you expect to happen next and why.
Write 150-200 words. Remember about the format of a formal letter!
Or:
Formal Writing Task 1- Allow around 40 minutes for this task
You organised a charity event to raise money for your school. The event was a great
success. You were asked to write an article for your school newsletter describing the
event.
 how you organised it
 who else helped
 how the money will be spent
You will be assessed on:

 content
 format and structure
 accuracy of the use of grammar and punctuation
 use of vocabulary for the specific context and purpose
 legibility of writing
(20 Marks)

Informal Writing Task 2 – Allow around 35 minutes for this task.
You went to your best friend’s surprise 18th birthday party. Unfortunately, one of your
friends could not come as he/she was ill. Write a letter to him/her describing the party.
 who organised it
 who was invited
 what happened during the party
 describe the party food
Write 250-300 words.
You will be assessed on:

 content
 format and structure
 accuracy of the use of grammar and punctuation
 use of vocabulary for the specific context and purpose
 legibility of writing
(20 Marks)

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99 Parkway Avenue
Sheffield
S9 4WG
UK
E-mail: nocn@nocn.org.uk
Tel: +44 (0) 114 2270500

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NOCN ESOL International

Level C1 Advanced LIVE May 2015

Check that you have the correct paper.

Please complete the information on the mark sheet.

Record your answers on the mark sheet.

Use black or blue ink. Do not use pencil.

Total marks available: 31

You have 30 minutes to finish the examination.

ESOL International Page 2 of 20

1. a. I think I’m coming down with flu.

2. a. Yes, it needs do up.

3. a. I agree, they don’t always see face to face.

4. a. No, I don’t rely on him.

5. a. Yes, I’m really looking forward to living in the UK.

ESOL International Page 3 of 20

6. a. I’ll do it now; I don’t like taking things off.

7. a. He asked where the bank were.

8. a. Nothing, she just burst to tears.

9. a. No, I think she is dishonest.

10. a. I don’t like them, too.

ESOL International Page 4 of 20

questions for both conversations.

1. What was David’s first job?

2. What feature of character does David dislike about other people?

3. What is David’s favourite item?

4. What superpower would David like to have?

5. Why did David hate his job at the bank?

Listen to the conversation again and check your answers.

ESOL International Page 5 of 20

Now listen to Conversation 2. Record your answers on the mark sheet.

1. Who does Steve work for?

3. What time did they finally arrive at Manchester?

4. What was their holiday destination?

5. How did they rate the hotel?

Listen to the conversation again and check your answers.

ESOL International Page 6 of 20

Part 3 – Debate and Discussion

answers on the mark sheet.

1. What is the main subject of this debate?

2. What are Lisa’s arguments to protect animals?

3. What is Mark’s argument in this debate?

4. According to this debate, Mark suggests, that:

6. According to this debate, which statement is true?

ESOL International Page 7 of 20

1. According to the discussion, social networks:

2. Natalie claims that social networking site should be:

3. George argues, that:

4. According to Tracy, why is it impossible to censor social networking sites by governments?

5. The phrase ‘not country specific’, as used by Tracy, means that:

End of Examination for Listening – Level C1

ESOL International Page 8 of 20

Check that you have the correct paper.

Please complete the information on your mark sheet.

Use black or blue ink. Do not use a pencil.

You may NOT use a dictionary.

There are 31 questions in this examination.

You must attempt all the questions.

Record your answers on the mark sheet.

Total marks available: 31

You have 75 minutes to finish the examination.